PART 1

Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects – an estimated 90 percent of the
world’s species have scientific names. As a consequence, they are perhaps the best group of
insects for examining patterns of terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution. Butterflies also
have a favorable image with the general public. Hence, they are an excellent group for
communicating information on science and conservation issues such as diversity.

Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past
century is the striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate
regions.

For example, in 1875, one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon
when he mentioned that about 700 species were found within an hour’s walk, whereas the
total number found on the British islands did not exceed 66, and the whole of Europe
supported only 321. This early comparison of tropical and temperate butterfly richness has
been well confirmed.

A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between
temperate and tropical zones, but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns
vary among different animal and plant groups. However, for butterflies, variation of species
richness within temperate and tropical regions is poorly understood. Indeed, comparisons of
numbers of species among the Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still mostly
“personal communication” citations, even for vertebrates. In other words, unlike comparison
temperate and tropical areas, these patterns are still in the documentation phase.

In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical

decisions are made. Diversity, number of species, and species richness are used
synonymously; little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution. The New World
butterflies make up the preponderance of examples because they are the most familiar
species. It is hoped that by focusing on them, the errors generated by imperfect and
incomplete taxonomy will be minimized.

Question 1. The word “consequence” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .

A. result B. explanation C. analysis D. requirement
Question 1. The word “striking” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. physical B. confusing C. noticeable D. successful
Question 3. Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about
conservation issues because they .
A. are simple in structure B. have been given scientific names
C. are viewed positively by people D. are found mainly in temperate climates.
Question 4. The word “exceed” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .
A. locate B. allow C. go beyond D. come close to
Question 5. What is the most distinguishing feature of butterfly diversity in the past
century?
A. Numerous patterns of terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution.
B. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups.
C. The striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions.
 D. The documentation phase of the process.
Question 6. Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?
A. European butterfly habitats.
B. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions.
C. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region.
D. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups.
Question 7. All of the following are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory
of diversity EXCEPT .
A. differences between temperate and tropical zones.
B. patterns of distribution of species in each region.
C. migration among temperate and tropical zones.
D. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animal and plants.
Question 8. Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Their physical characteristics. B. Their adaptation to different habitats
C. Their names D. Their variety
Question 9. The author mentions “tropical Asia” in paragraph 3 as an example of a
location where .
A. butterfly behavior varies with climate
B. a general theory of butterfly diversity has not yet been firmly established
C. butterflies are affected by human populations
D. documenting plant species is more difficult than documenting butterfly species
Question 10. The word “generated” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to .
A. requested B. caused C. assisted D. estimated

PART 2
For more than six million American children, coming home after school means coming back
to an empty house. Some deal with the situation by watching TV. Some may hide. But all
of them have something in common. They spend part of each day alone. They are called
“latchkey children”. They are children who look after themselves while their parents work.
And their bad condition has become a subject of concern.

Lynette Long was once the principal of an elementary school. She said, “we had a school
rule against wearing jewelry. A lot of kids had chains around their necks with keys attached.
I was constantly telling them to put the keys inside shirts. There were so many keys; it never
came to my mind what they meant.” Slowly, she learned that they were house keys.

She and her husband began talking to the children who had keys. They learned of the effect
working couples and single parents were having on their children. Fear wasthe biggest
problem faced by children at home alone. One in three latchkey children the Longs talked to
reported being frightened. Many had nightmares and were worried about their own safety

The most common way latchkey children deal with their fears is by hiding. They may hide
in a shower stall, under a bed or in a closet. The second is TV. They often turn the volume
up. It’s hard to get statistics on latchkey children, the Longs have learned. Most parents are
slow to admit that they leave their children alone.

Question 1. The phrase “an empty house” in the passage mostly means .
A. a house with too much space B. a house with no furniture
 C. a house with no people inside D. a house with nothing inside
Question 2. One thing that the children in the passage share is that .
A. they all wear jewelry B. they spend part of each day alone
C. they all watch TV D. they are from single-parent families
Question 3. The phrase “latchkey children” in the passage means children who .
A. like to carry latches and keys with them everywhere
B. close doors with keys and watch TV by themselves
C. look after themselves while their parents are not at home
D. are locked inside houses with latches and keys
Question 4. The main problem of latchkey children is that they .
A. are growing in numbers
B. watch too much television during the day
C. are also found in middle-class families
D. suffer a lot from being left alone
Question 5. What is the main idea of the first paragraph?
A. Why kids hate going home B. Children’s activities at home
C. Bad condition of latchkey children D. How kids spend free time
Question 6. Why did a lot of kids have chains around their necks with keys attached?
A. They were fully grown and had become independent.
B. They had to use the keys to open school doors.
C. Schools didn’t allow them to wear jewelry, so they wore keys instead.
D. They would use the keys to enter their houses when they came home.
Question 7. What do latchkey children suffer most from when they are at home alone?
A. Tiredness B. Boredom C. Loneliness D. Fear
Question 8. Lynette Long learned of latchkey children’s problems by .
A. visiting their homes B. talking to them
C. delivering questionaires D. interviewing their parents
Question 9. What is the most common way for latchkey children to deal with fears?
A. Talking to the Longs B. Having a shower
C. Hiding somewhere D. Lying under a TV
Question 10. It’s difficult to find out the number of latchkey children because .
A. there are too many of them in the whole country
B. most parents are reluctant to admit that they leave their children alone
C. they hide themselves in shower stalls or under beds
D. they do not give information about themselves for safety reasons
PART 3
Most human diets contain between 10 and 15 percent of their total calories as protein. The
rest of the dietary energy conies from carbohydrates, fats, and in some people, alcohol.The
proportion of calories from fats varies from 10 percent in poor communities to 40 percent or
more in rich communities.

In addition to providing energy, fats have several other functions in the body. The fat-
soluble vitamins, A, D, E,  and K, are dissolved in fats, as their name implies. Good sources
of these vitamins have high oil or fat content, and the vitamins are stored in the body’s fatty
tissues. In the diet, fats cause food to remain longer in the stomach, thus increasing the
feeling of fullness for some time after a meal is eaten. Fats add variety, taste, and texture to
foods, which accounts for the popularity of fried foods. Fatty deposits in the body have an
insulating and protective value. The curves of the human female body are due mostly to
strategically located fat deposits.

Whether a certain amount of fat in the diet is essential to human health is not definitely
known. When rats are fed a fat-free diet, their growth eventually ceases, their skin becomes
inflamed and scaly, and their reproductive systems are damaged.Two fatty acids,linoleic and
arachidonic acids, prevent these abnormalities and hence are called eseential fatty
acids.They also are required by a number of other animals, but their roles in human beings
are debatable. Most nutritionists consider linoleic fatty acid an essential nutrient for humans.

1. This passage probably appeared in which of the following?

A. A diet book          B. A book on basic nutrition
C. A cookbook              D. A popular women’s magazine
2. We can infer from the passage that all of the following statements about fats are true
EXCEPT
A. fats provide energy for the body
B. economics influences the distribution of calorie intake
C. poor people eat more fatty foods
D. alcohol is not a common source of dietary energy
3. The word “functions” in line 5 is closest in meaning to………
A. forms         B. needs       C. jobs           D. sources
4.  The phrase “stored in” in line 7 is closest in meaning to………
A. manufactured in         B. attached to       C. measured by             D. accumulated in
5. The author states that fats serve all of the following body functions EXCEPT to.................
A. promote a feeling of fullness                   B. insulate and protect the body
C. provide energy     D. control weight gain
6. The word “essential to” in line 12 is closest in meaning to………
A. required for                     B. desired for               C. detrimental to           D. beneficial to
7. According to the author of the passage, which of the following is true for rats when they
are fed a fat free diet?
A. They stop growing     B. They have more babies    
C. They lose body hair           D. They require less care
8. Linoleic fatty acid is mentioned in the passage as………                     
A. an essential nutrient for humans                   B. more useful than arachidonic acid
C. preventing weight gain in rats                     D. a nutrient found in most foods
9. The phrase “these abnormalities” in line 15 refer to……………
A. a condition caused by fried foods             
B. strategically located fat deposits
C. curves on the human female body 
D. cessation of growth, bad skin, and damaged reproductive systems
10. That humans should all have some fat our diet is, according to the author,……………
A. a commonly held view                   B. not yet a proven fact
C. only true for women               D. proven to be true by experiments in rats
PART 4
Tulips are Old World, rather than New World, plants, with the origins of the species lying in
Central Asia. They became an integral part of the gardens of the Ottoman Empire from the
sixteenth century onward, and, soon after, part of European life as well. Holland, in
particular, became famous for its cultivation of the flower.
A tenuous line marked the advance of the tulip to the New World, where it was unknown
in the wild. The first Dutch colonies in North America had been established in New
Netherlands by the Dutch West India Company in 1624, and one individual who settled in
New Amsterdam (today's Manhattan section of New York City) in 1642 described the
flowers that bravely colonized the settlers' gardens. They were the same flowers seen in
Dutch still-life paintings of the time: crown imperials, roses, carnations, and of course
tulips. They flourished in Pennsylvania too, where in 1698 William Penn received a report
of John Tateham's "Great and Stately Palace”, its garden full of tulips.
By 1760, Boston newspapers were advertising 50 different kinds of mixed tulip "roots”. But
the length of the journey between Europe and North America created many difficulties.
Thomas Hancock, an English settler, wrote thanking his plant supplier for a gift of some
tulip bulbs from England, but his letter the following year grumbled that they were all
dead.
Tulips arrived in Holland, Michigan, with a later wave of early nineteenth-century Dutch
immigrants who quickly colonized the plains of Michigan. Together with many other Dutch
settlements, such as the one at Pella, Iowa, they established a regular demand for
European plants. The demand was bravely met by a new kind of tulip entrepreneur, the
traveling salesperson. One Dutchman, Hendrick Van Der Schoot, spent six months in 1849
traveling through the United States taking orders for tulip bulbs. While tulip bulbs were
traveling from Europe to the United States to satisfy the nostalgic longings of homesick
English and Dutch settlers, North American plants were traveling in the opposite direction.
In England, the enthusiasm for American plants was one reason why tulips dropped out of
fashion in the gardens of the rich and famous.

Question 1: Which of the following questions does the passage mainly answer?
A. Where were the first Dutch colonies in North America located?
B. What is the difference between an Old World and a New World plant?
C. Why are tulips grown in many different parts of the world?
D. How did tulips become popular in North America?
Question 2: The word "integral" in line 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. interestingB. overlooked C. fundamental D. ornamental
Question 3: The passage mentions that tulips were first found in which of the following
regions?
A. Western Europe B. India C. Central Asia D. North America
Question 4: The word "flourished" in line 8 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. were marketed B. were discovered C. thrived D. combined
Question 5: The author mentions tulip growing in New Netherland, Pennsylvania and
Michigan in order to illustrate how ______.
A. tulips grew progressively more popular in North America
B. imported tulips were considered more valuable than locally grown tulips
C. tulips were commonly passed as gifts from one family to another
D. attitudes toward tulips varied from one location to another
Question 6: The word "grumbled" in line 13 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. denied B. warned C. explained D. complained
Question 7: The passage mentions that one reason English and Dutch settlers planted
tulips in their gardens was that tulips ______.
A. were easy to grow B. made them appear fashionable
C. had become readily available D. reminded them of home
Question 8: The word "they" in line 17 refers to ______.
A. tulips B. immigrants C. plants D. plains
Question 9: According to the passage, which of the following changes occurred in English
gardens during the European settlement of North America?
A. They grew in size in order to provide enough plants to export to the New World.
B. They decreased in size on the estates of wealthy people.
C. They contained many new types of North American plants.
D. They contained a wider variety of tulips than ever before.
Question 10: The passage mentions which of the following as a problem associated with
the importation of tulips into North America?
A. They were no longer fashionable by the time they arrived.
B. Settlers knew little about how to cultivate them.
C. Orders often took six months or longer to fill.
D. They often failed to survive the journey.

PART 5
According to the controversial sunspot theory, great storms on the surface of the sun hurl
streams of solar particles into the atmosphere, causing a shift in the weather on earth.
A typical sunspot consists of a dark center umbra surrounded by a lighter penumbra of
light and dark threads extending out from the center like a spoke a wheel. Actually the
sunspots are cooler than the rest of the photosphere, which may account for their color.
Typically, the temperature in a sunspot umbra is about 4000 K.
Sunspots range in size from tiny granules to complex structures with areas stretching for
billions of square miles. About 5% of the pots are large enough so that they can be seen
without instruments: consequently, observations of sunspots have been recorded for
several thousand years.
Sunspots have been observed in arrangements of one to more than one hundred spots,
but they tend to occur in pairs. There is also a marked tendency for the two spots of a pair
to have opposite magnetic field associated with any given sunspots is closely related to the
spot’s size.
Although there is no theory that completely explains the nature and function of sunspots,
several models attempt to relate the phenomenon to magnetic fields along the lines of
longitude from the north and south poles of the sun.

Question 1: What is the author’s main purpose in the passage?

A. To argue for the existence of magnetic fields in sunspots
B. To describe the nature of sunspots
C. To propose a theory to explain sunspots
D. To compare the umbra and the penumbra
Question 2: The word controversial in line 1 is closest to ______.
A. open to debate B. very complicated C. widely accepted D. just in traduce
Question 3: Solar particles are hurled into space by ______.
A. small rivers on the surface of the sun B. underdetermined causes
C. changes the earth’s atmosphere D. disturbances of wind
Question 4: The word particles in line 2 refers to ______.
A. gas explosions in the atmosphere B. small pieces
C. liquid streams on the sun D. light ray from the sun
Question 5: How can we describe matter from the sun that enters the earth’s
atmosphere?
A. Very small B. Very bright C. Very hard D. Very hot
Question 6: The sunspot theory is ______.
A. relatively new B. widely accepted
C. subject to disagreement D. not considered important
Question 7: The word they in line 7 refers to ______.
A. pots B. miles C. granules D. Structures
Question 8: The word consequently in line 7 could best be replaced by ______.
A. Nevertheless B. In this way C. Without doubt D. As a result
Question 9: In which configuration do sunspots usually occur?
A. In a configuration of two spots B. In groups of several thousand spots
C. In one spot of varying size D. In arrangements of one hundred or more spots
Question 10: How are sunspots explained?
A. Sunspots may be related to magnetic fields that follow longitudinal lines on the sun.
B. Sunspots are explained by storms that occur on the earth.
C. Sunspots have no theory or model to explain them.
D. Sunspots appear to be related to magnetic fields on the earth.
PART 6
The United States Department of Education describes " giftedness" as exceptionally
advanced performance or the potential for outstanding performance in intellectual,
creative leadership, artistic, or specific academic fields. Children who demonstrate
outstanding talents come from all social, cultural, and economic groups.
Educators believe that gifted students require special education services because their
learning needs differ significantly from those of the general population. They learn more
rapidly and are able to understand more abstract and complex ideas. They are also able to
transform existing knowledge into new and useful forms, and to create new knowledge
recognized for its originality, complexity, and elegance. Special education services and
facilities for gifted children may enhance these abilities. In addition, some gifted learners
may require special counseling services to address social or emotional adjustment issues
that are complicated by their exceptional abilities.
Many regular elementary and secondary schools in the United states offer special
programs designed specifically to meet the needs of gifted students. Some schools provide
specialized education programs to gifted children exclusively. These schools offer advanced
education in mathematics, science, technology, the arts, or other academic disciplines.
Many school districts rely on intelligence tests to identify gifted students. However, most
guidelines for determining giftedness recommend the use of a combination of
standardized test scores, rating systems developed by individual schools, classroom
observation records, and performance assessments.
Gifted children may study a specially modified curriculum or may progress through
academic subjects at an accelerated pace. Acceleration involves adapting aducation
programs so that students may progress through particular subject materrial quicker than
usual. These modifications may take place within the regular classroom setting or they may
involve changing the child's placement in school. Some gifted children gain early entrance
to kindergarten, skip grades, enter college earlier than usual, or take specific courses with
older children. Ideal programs for gifted students consider the individual needs of children
and offer multiple options for services. These programs generally involve both advanced
course materials and acceleration.
Question 1. Gifted children come from _________.
A.homogenous race B. different backgrounds
C. specific economic groups D. different careers
Question 2. Among the various qualities, gifted children are believed to be able to learn
fast and __________.
A. apply knowledge creatively B. create new learning methods
C. find out new knowledge D. behave themselves wel
Question 3. the word "existing" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to__________.
A.up-to-date B. fashionable C. permanent D. present
Question 4. The word "enhance" in paragraph 2 can be replaced with__________.
A. turn up B. further improve C. encourage D. strongly
implant
Question 5. Special services are provided to some problematic gifted children to
__________.
A. help them cope with social and emotional difficulties
B. make them forget about social and emotional problems
C. concentrate on their studies and their school
D. help them accomplish their academic objectives
Question 6. The word "disciplines" in paragraph 3 mostly means __________.
A. violations B. penalties C. rules D. subjects
Question 7. Giftedness can be meansured by means of__________.
A. class observations B. specialized assessments
C. psychology specialists D. recorded observations

PART 7
Pandemic
Diseases are a natural part of life on Earth. If there were no diseases, the population would
grow too quickly, and there would not be enough food or other resources. So in a way,
diseases are nature's way of keeping the Earth in balance. But sometimes they spread very
quickly and kill large numbers of people. For example, in 1918, an outbreak of the flu
spread across the world, killing over 25 million people in only six months. Such terrible
outbreaks of a disease are called pandemics.
Pandemics happen when a disease changes in a way that our bodies are not prepared to
fight. In 1918, a new type of flu virus appeared. Our bodies had no way to fight this new flu
virus, and so it spread very quickly and killed large numbers of people. While there have
been many different pandemic diseases throughout history, all of them have a few things in
common.
First, all pandemic diseases spread from one person to another very easily. Second, while
they may kill many people, they generally do not kill people very quickly. A good example
of this would be the Marburg virus. The Marburg virus is an extremely infectious disease. In
addition, it is deadly. About 70-80% of all the people who get the Marburg virus die from
the disease. However, the Marburg virus has not become a pandemic because most people
die within three days of getting the disease. This means that the virus does not have enough
time to spread to a large number of people. The flu virus of 1918, on the other hand,
generally took about a week to ten days to kill its victims, so it had more time to spread.
While we may never be able to completely stop pandemics, we can make them less
common. Doctors carefully monitor new diseases that they fear could become pandemics.
For example, in 2002 and 2003, doctors carefully watched SARS. Their health warnings
may have prevented SARS from becoming a pandemic.
Question 1. This passage is mainly about ____. 
A. how to prevent pandemic diseases.       B. pandemic diseases.
C. pandemic diseases throughout history.   D. why pandemics
happen.
Question 2. According to paragraph 1, how are diseases a natural part of life on Earth?
A. They prevent pandemics.          
B. They help control the population.
C. They help the world grow quickly. 
D. They kill too many people.
Question 3. Based on the information in the passage the term pandemics can best be
explained as ___.
A. diseases with no cure                    
B. diseases that spread quickly and kill large numbers of people
C. a deadly kind of flu                        
D. new diseases like SARS or the Marburg virus
Question 4.According to the passage, what causes pandemics?
A. Changes in a disease that the body cannot fight 
B. Careless doctors who do not watch the spread of diseases
C. Population growth that the world cannot support   
D. The failure to make new medicines
Question 5. According to the passage, all of the following are true of the 1918 flu pandemic
EXCEPT that ____.
A. it involved a new kind of flu virus 
B. it killed over 25 million people
C. it was the last pandemic in history 
D. it took a little over a week to kill its victims
Question 6.The wordit in the passage refers to ____.         
A. disease                    B. flu virus                   C. pandemics               D. bodies
Question 7.Which of the following is mentioned as a common feature of all pandemic
diseases?
A. They spread from people to people very slowly.   
B. They may kill many people very quickly.
C. They do not kill people very quickly.                          
D. They kill all the victims.
Question 8.The word monitor in the passage is closest in meaning to ____.
           A. fight                        B. prevent                    C. watch                     D. avoid 
PART 8
Tsunami is a Japanese word which means harbour wave and is used as the scientific term
for seismic sea wave generated by an undersea earthquake or possibly an undersea
landslide or volcanic eruption. When the ocean floor is tilted or offset during an
earthquake, a set of waves is created similar to the concentric waves generated by an
object dropped into the water. Most tsunamis originate along the Ring of Fire, a zone of
volcanoes and seismic activity, 32,500 km long that encircles the Pacific Ocean. Since 1819,
about 40 tsunamis have struck the Hawaiian Islands.
A tsunami can have wavelengths, or widths, of 100 to 200 km, and may travel hundreds of
kilometers across the deep ocean, reaching speeds of about 725 to 800 kilometres an
hour. Upon entering shallow coastal waters, the wave, which may have been only about
half a metre high out at sea, suddenly grows rapidly. When the wave reaches the shore, it
may be 15 m high or more. Tsunamis have tremendous energy because of the great
volume of water affected. They are capable of obliterating coastal settlements
Tsunamis should not be confused with storm surges, which are domes of water that rise
underneath hurricanes or cyclones and cause extensive coastal flooding when the storms
reach land. Storm surges are particularly devastating if they occur at high tide. A cyclone
and accompanying storm surge skilled an estimated 500,000 people in Bangladesh in 1970.
The tsunami which struck south and southeast Asia in late 2004 killed over 200 thousand
people.

1.Scientificially, tsunami is the term for

A. seismic sea wave B. undersea earthquake
C. undersea landslide D. volcanic eruption
2. What does the word ‘’concentric’’ mean?
A. Wavy B. Having many centres
C. Having a common centre D. A ring
3. Which of the following may be a reason for a tsunami?
A. An inactive volcano B. A landslide on the seashore
C. AN undersea earthquake D. A storm
4. What will happen when an object is dropped into the water?
A. Volcanic eruption may be a consequence
B. Some concentric waves will be generated
C. There will be a seismic activity
D. Earthquake may happen
5.What is the zone of volcanoes and seismic activity in the world called?
A. The concentric wave B. The tsunami
C. The Pacific Ocean D. The ring of Fire
6.What is the greatest speed of tsunami travelling across deep ocean?
A. 200 km per hour B. 700 km per hour
C. 800 km per hour D. 150,000 km per hour
7.How high is the wave of the tsunami when it reaches the shore?
A. 100 metres B. 200 metres
C. Half a metre D. 50 metres
8. How are tsunami capable of obliteratng coastal settlements?
A. They have tremendous energy due to great volume of water affected
B. They are a metre high or more
C. They travel hundreds of kilometres
D. They can strike the shore fifteen metres high
9.What killed an estimated 500,000 people in Bangladesh?
A. A tsunami B. A cyclone and accompanying storm surge
C. A high tie D. Flooding
10.Which ò the following is NOT true?
A. Tsunami only occur in Asia
B. A cyclone along with storm surge happened in Asia in 1970
C. Storm surges are domes of water rising underneath hurricanes or cyclones
D. Storm surges cause extensive coastal flooding
PART 9
The first two decades of this century were dominated by the microbe hunters.
These hunters had tracked down one after another of the microbes responsible for the
most dreaded scourges of many centuries ; tuberculosis, cholera, diphtheria. But there
remained    some terrible diseases for which no microbe could be incriminated : scurvy,
pellagra,     rickets, beriberi. Then it was discovered that these diseases were cause by the
lack of vitamins, a trace substance in the diet. The diseases could be prevented or cured by
consuming foods that contained the vitamins. And so in the decades of the 1920's and
1930's, nutrition became a science and the vitamin hunters replaced the microbe hunters.
 In the 1940's and 1950's, biochemists strived to learn why each of the vitamins
was essential for health. They discovered that key enzymes in metabolism depend on one
or  another of the vitamins as coenzymes to perform the chemistry that provides cells with
energy for growth and function. Now, these enzymes hunters occupied center stage.
 You are aware that the enzyme hunters have been replaced by a new breed of hunters
who are tracking genes ― the blueprints for each of the enzymes ― and are discovering
the defective genes that cause inherited diseases ― diabetes, cystic fibrosis. These
genehunters, or genetic engineers, use recombinant DNA technology to identify and clone
genes and introduce them into bacterial cells and plants to create factories for the
massive of hormones and vaccines for medicine and for better crops for
agriculture. Biotechnology has become a multibillion-dollar industry.
 In view of the inexorable progress in science, we can expect that the gene hunters will be
replaced in the spotlight. When and by whom? Which kind of hunter will dominate  the
scene in the last decade of our waning century and in the early decades of the next ? I
wonder whether the hunters who will occupy the spotlight will be neurobiologists  who
apply the techniques of the enzyme and gene hunters to the functions of the brain.   What
to call them? The head hunters. I will return to them later.
 
            1. What is the main topic of the passage?
              (A) The microbe hunters
              (B) The potential of genetic engineering
              (C) The progress of modern medical research 
              (D) The discovery of enzymes
 
            2. Which of the following can be cured by a change in diet?
              (A) Tuberculo (B) Cholera
              (C) Cystic fibrosis (D) Pellagra
 
            3. How do vitamins influence health?
              (A) They are necessary for some enzymes to function.
              (B) They protect the body from microbes.
              (C) They keep food from spoiling.
              (D) They are broken down by cells to produce energy.
 
            4. In the third paragraph, the author compares cells that have been
                genetically altered by biotechnicians to
              (A) gardens (B) factories
              (C) hunters (D) spotlights
 
            5. The phrase“occupy the spotlight”in line 23 is closest in meaning to
              (A) receive the most attention (B) go the furthest
              (C) conquer territory (D) lighten the load
 
            6. The author implies that the most important medical research topic of the
                future will be
              (A) the functions of the brain (B) inherited diseases
              (C) the operation of vitamins  (D) the structure of genes
7. The word ‘ which’ in bold refers to
(A) disesases (B) microbe
(C) cholere (D) diphtheria
8. The word ‘incriminated’ in bold is closest in meaning to
(A) investigated (B) blamed
(C) eliminated (D) produced
PART 10
A public inquiry opened yesterday into plans to pump extra water from the Lake
District National Park to refill reservoirs drained by drought. United Utilities has
submitted its proposals to take water from two lakes, Windermere and Ullswater, to
public scrutiny because of concerns about the potential damage to wildlife.

Anglers are concerned that spawning sites for salmon and trout could dry out if water
is drained from the rivers that flow from the lakes. But the utilities company insists
that removing and treating the extra water will not hurt local flora and fauna. The
hearing, headed by the government inspector, Stuart Nixon, is being held in the
Cumbrian town of Windermere and will last for two days. A final decision is expected
to be taken later this month by Margaret Beckett, the Environment Secretary.

United Utilities insists that the drought orders are necessary to prevent the further
depletion of water from two of its reservoirs in the Lake District, Haweswater and
Thirlmere. Because of the unusually dry summer this year, Haweswater has only 53 per
cent of its capacity compared with 68 per cent at the same time last year. Thirlmere
has just 47 per cent, whereas last year it had 79 per cent.
If United Utilities is given the go-ahead, it would be able to take extra water from the
Windermere and Ullswater rivers – Leven and Eamont respectively – this winter, rather
than having to take emergency measures next year. Water from Ullswater would be
piped into Haweswater reservoir; water from Windermere would enter the local
supply, and prevent further depletion of Thirlmere. Water supplies would reach two
million people in Manchester, Lancashire, south Cumbria and parts of Cheshire.

Cumbria Wildlife Trust said taking extra water could pose problems for wildlife if not
properly managed. But a spokesman said it was not opposing United’s plans because it
was better for water to be drained in the wet winter months rather than in the
summer. ‘If they don’t have to do it now, they will have to do it in April,’ the
spokesman said.

Dickon Knight, the agent for the landowner Holker Estates, said the proposed
minimum flows on the river Leven would harm efforts to protect salmon stocks.
Alistair Maltby, the manager of the Eden Rivers Trust, said taking water from the rivers
during the winter was the best approach but urged United Utilities to mend leaks in its
pipes in the long run. Gary Dixon, customer service manager at United Utilities, said,
‘We can’t predict what supplies will be like over the winter. Normally this is when our
reservoirs would refill but if the low rainfall continues we need to start planning ahead
for next summer. Taking action now will have a lower impact on the river environment
than during the spring.’

The company said the deluge of rain in recent weeks was helping to top up the
reservoirs. John Carberry, a spokesman, said, ‘There is no crisis and no panic, but we
are looking ahead for next year. There is a potential impact on the environment which
is why we are seeking permission to do what we want to do.’ The Environment Agency
said it would work with the utility company to ensure any damage to fish stocks was
kept to a minimum.

1. According to the opening paragraph, the controversy arose due to ________.

A a proposed scheme to top up water supplies.
B excessive water in local lakes.
C civilians protesting over a threat to the environment.
D a possibility that reservoirs could be contaminated.
2. The word “hearing” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. trial B. legal action C. lawsuit D. official meeting
3. Who does the outcome of the proposal ultimately rest with?
A the area’s fishermen B a utilities company
C Margaret Beckett D Stuart Nixon
4. What have high temperatures resulted in?
A several bodies of water in the Lake District completely drying up
B United Utilities wanting to take certain measures
C two lakes being left with less than 50% of their water
D a large decrease in profits for United Utilities
5. The word “go-ahead” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. leave B. consensus C. authorization D. permit
6. If the plan is implemented, _______.
A it will inevitably avert a national crisis.
B its impact will be felt nationwide.
C it could cause irreversible damage.
D it should preferably be done in winter.
7. Which of the following statements is NOT true, according to the passage?
A the water depletion rate of all reservoirs is not the same.
B Wildlife might be affected by excessive water taking
C It’s inevitable that water should be drained sooner or later.
D Water from two rivers would be pumped into the local supply
8. What is Alistair Maltby’s opinion on refilling reservoirs?
A It will be detrimental to certain species of fish.
B It’s the best solution as long as a technical problem is sorted out.
C It will have a negative effect on the environment if left until spring.
D Its success depends on how well United Utilities manage the project
9. It can be inferred from the passage that ________.
A. It’s spring at the moment the passage was written
B. Salmon stocks are being kept to a minimum
C. There will be an active collaboration for the common good
D. Water depletion has reached epidemic proportions
10. What is the overall tone of the passage?
A. alarmed B.sarcastic C.neutral D. dismissive
PART 11
According to sociologists, there are several different ways in which a person may become
recognized as the leader of a social group in the United States. In the family traditional
cultural patterns confer leadership on one or both of the parents. In other cases, such as
friendship groups, one or more persons may gradually emerge as leaders, although there is
no formal process of selection. In larger groups, leaders are usually chosen formally
through election or recruitment.

Although leaders are often thought to be people with unusual personal ability, decades of
research have failed to produce consistent evidence that there is any category of "natural
leaders". It seems that there is no set of personal qualities that all leaders have in
common; rather, virtually any person may be recognized as a leader if the person has
qualities that meet the needs of that particular group.

 Furthermore, although it is commonly supposed that social groups have a single leader,
research suggests that there are typically two different leadership roles that are held by
different individuals. Instrumental leadership is leadership that emphasizes the completion
of tasks by a social group. Group members look to instrumental leaders to "get things
done." Expressive leadership, on the other hand, is leadership that emphasizes
the collective well-beings of a social group's members. Expressive leaders are less
concerned with the overall goals of the group than with providing emotional support to
group members and attempting to minimize tension and conflict among them. Group
members expect expressive leaders to maintain stable relationships within the group and
provide support to individual members.

Instrumental leaders are likely to have a rather secondary relationship to other group

members. They give others and may discipline group members who inhibit attainment of
the group's goals. Expressive leaders cultivate a more personal or primary relationship to
others in the group. They offer sympathy when someone experiences difficulties or is
subjected to discipline, are quick to lighten a serious moment with humor, and try
to resolve issues that threaten to divide the group. As the difference in these two roles
suggest, expressive leaders generally receive more personal affection from group
members; instrumental leaders, if they are successful in promoting group goals, may enjoy
a more distant respect.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The problems faced by leaders
(B) How leadership differs in small and large groups
(C) How social groups determine who will lead them
(D) The role of leaders in social groups
2. The passage mentions all of the following ways by which people can become leaders
EXCEPT
(A) recruitment         (B) formal election process
(C) specific leadership training     (D) traditional cultural patterns
3. In mentioning “natural leaders” in lines 8-9, the author is making the point that
(A) few people qualify as “natural leaders”
(B) there is no proof that “natural leaders” exist
(C) “natural leaders’ are easily accepted by the members of a social group
(D) “natural leaders” share a similar set of characteristics
4. Which of the following statements about leadership can be inferred from paragraph 2?
(A) A person who is an effective leader of a particular group may not be an effective leader
in another group.
(B) Few people succeed in sharing a leadership role with another person.
(C) A person can best learn how to be an effective leader by studying research on
leadership.
(D) Most people desire to be leaders but can produce little evidence of their qualifications.
5. The passage indicates that instrumental leaders generally focus on
(A) ensuring harmonious relationships     (B) sharing responsibility with group members
(C) identifying new leaders     (D) achieving a goal
6. The word “collective” in line 17 is closest in meaning to
(A) necessary     (B) typical    
(C) group     (D) particular
7. The word “them” in line 19 refers to
(A) expressive leaders         (B) goals of the group
(C) group members         (D) tension and conflict
8. A “secondary relationship” mentioned in line 22 between a leader and the members of a
group could best be characterized as
(A) distant     (B) enthusiastic    
(C) unreliable     (D) personal
9. The word “resolve” in line 27 is closest in meaning to
(A) avoid repeating         (B) talk about
(C) avoid thinking about         (D) find a solution for
10. Paragraphs 3 and 4 organize the discussion of leadership primarily in term of
(A) examples that illustrate a problem     (B) cause and effect analysis
(C) narration of events         (D) comparison and contrast

PART 12
In seventeenth-century colonial North America, all day-to-day cooking was done in the
fireplace. Generally large, fireplaces were planned for cooking as well as for warmth. Those
in the Northeast were usually four or five feet high, and in the South, they were often high
enough for a person to walk into. A heavy timber called the mantel tree was used as a
lintel to support the stonework above the fireplace opening. This timber might be scorched
occasionally, but it was far enough in front of the rising column of heat to be safe from
catching fire.
　　Two ledges were built across from each other on the inside of the chimney. On these
rested the ends of a "lug pole" from which pots were suspended when cooking. Wood
from a freshly cut tree was used for the lug pole, so it would resist heat, but it had to be
replaced frequently because it dried out and charred, and was thus weakened. Sometimes
the pole broke and the dinner fell into the fire. When iron became easier to obtain, it was
used instead of wood for lug poles, and later fireplaces had pivoting metal rods to hang
pots from.
　　Beside the fireplace and built as part of it was the oven. It was made like a small,
secondary fireplace with a flue leading into the main chimney to draw out smoke.
Sometimes the door of the oven faced the room, but most ovens were built with the
opening facing into the fireplace. On baking days (usually once or twice a week) a roaring
fire of "oven wood," consisting of brown maple sticks, was maintained in the oven until its
walls were extremely hot. The embers were later removed, bread dough was put into the
oven, and the oven was sealed shut until the bread was fully baked.
　　Not all baking was done in a big oven, however. Also used was an iron "bake kettle,"
which looked like a stewpot on legs and which had an iron lid. This is said to have worked
well when it was placed in the fireplace, surrounded by glowing wood embers, with more
embers piled on its lid.
　　1. Which of the following aspects of domestic life in colonial North America does the
passage mainly discuss?
　　(A) methods of baking bread
　　(B) fireplace cooking
　　(C) the use of iron kettles in a typical kitchen
　　(D) the types of wood used in preparing meals
　　2. The author mentions the fireplaces built in the South to illustrate
　　(A) how the materials used were similar to the materials used in
northeastern fireplaces
　　(B) that they served diverse functions
　　(C) that they were usually larger than northeastern fireplaces
　　(D) how they were safer than northeastern fireplaces
　　3. The word "scorched" in line 6 is closest in meaning to
　　(A) burned (B) cut
　　(C) enlarged (D) bent
　　4. The word "it" in line 6 refers to
　　(A) the stonework
　　(B) the fireplace opening
　　(C) the mantel tree
　　(D) the rising column of heat
　　5. According to the passage,how was food usually cooked in a pot in the
seventeenth century?
　　(A) By placing the pot directly into the fire
　　(B) By putting the pot in the oven
　　(C) By filling the pot with hot water
　　(D) By hanging the pot on a pole over the fire
　　6. The word "obtain" in line 12 is closest in meaning to
　　(A) maintain (B) reinforce
　　(C) manufacture (D) acquire
　　7. Which of the following is mentioned in paragraph 2 as a disadvantage of
using a wooden lug pole?
　　(A) It was made of wood not readily available.
　　(B) It was difficult to move or rotate.
　　(C) It occasionally broke.
　　(D) It became too hot to touch.
　　8. It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that, compared to other firewood, "oven wood"
produced
　　(A) less smoke (B) more heat
　　(C) fewer embers (D) lower flames
　　9. According to paragraph 3, all of the following were true of a colonial oven EXCEPT:
　　(A) It was used to heat the kitchen every day.
　　(B) It was built as part of the main fireplace.
　　(C) The smoke it generated went out through the main chimney.
　　(D) It was heated with maple sticks.
　　10. According to the passage,which of the following was an advantage of a "bake
kettle"?
　　(A) It did not take up a lot of space in the fireplace.
　　(B) It did not need to be tightly closed.
　　(C) It could be used in addition to or instead of the oven.
　　(D) It could be used to cook several foods at one time.

PART 13
Accustomed though we are to speaking of the films made before 1927 as "silent," the film
has never been, in the full sense of the word, silent. From the very beginning, music was
regarded as an indispensable accompaniment; when the Lumiere films were shown at the
first public film exhibition in the Unites States in February 1896, they were accompanied by
piano improvisations on popular tunes. At first, the music played bore no special
relationship to the films; an accompaniment of any kind was sufficient.
Within a very short time, however, the incongruity of playing lively music to a solemn film
became apparent, and film pianists began to take some care in matching their pieces to
the mood of the film.

As movie theaters grew in number and importance, a violinist, and perhaps a cellist, would
be added to the pianist in certain cases, and in the larger movie theaters small orchestras
were formed. For a number of years the selection of music for each film program rested
entirely in the hands of the conductor or leader of the orchestra, and very often the
principal qualification for holding such a position was not skill or taste so much as the
ownership of a large personal library of musical pieces. Since the conductor seldom saw
the films until the night before they were to be shown (if, indeed, the conductor was lucky
enough to see them then), the musical arrangement was normally improvised in the
greatest hurry.

To help meet this difficulty, film distributing companies started the practice of publishing
suggestions for musical accompaniments. In 1909, for example, the Edison Company began
issuing with their films such indications of mood as "pleasant," "sad," "lively." The
suggestions became more explicit, and so emerged the musical cue sheet containing
indications of mood, the titles of suitable pieces of music, and precise directions to show
where one piece led into the next.

Certain films had music especially composed for them. The most famous of these early
special scores was that composed and arranged for D.W. Griffith's film Birth of a Nation,
which was released in 1915.

Question 1. The passage mainly discusses music that was _______ .

A. performed before the showing of a film 
B. played during silent films
C. specifically composed for certain movie theaters 
D. recorded during film exhibitions
Question 2. What can be inferred from the passage about the majority of films made after
1927?
A. They were truly "silent."
B. They were accompanied by symphonic orchestras.
C. They incorporated the sound of the actors' voices.
D. They corresponded to specific musical compositions.
Question 3. The word "solemn" is closest in meaning to_______.
A. simple           B. serious          C. short           D. silent
Question 4. It can be inferred that orchestra conductors who worked in movie theaters
needed to ______ .
A. be able to play many instruments 
B. have pleasant voices
C. be familiar with a wide variety of music 
D. be able to compose original music
Question 5. The word "them" refers to _______ .
A. years            B. hands           C. pieces          D. films
Question 6. According to the passage, what kind of business was the Edison Company?
A. It produced electricity.                B. It distributed films.
C. It published musical arrangements.     D. It made musical instruments.
Question 7. It may be inferred from the passage that the first musical cue sheets appeared
around _______.
A. 1896            B. 1909            C. 1915            D. 1927
Question 8. Which of the following notations is most likely to have been included on a
musical cue sheet of the early 1900's?
A. "Calm, peaceful"                    B. "Piano, violin"
C. "Key of C major"                    D. "Directed by D.W. Griffith"
Question 9. The word "scores" is closest in meaning to_______.
A. totals                            B. successes
C. musical compositions               D. groups of musicians
Question 10. The passage probably continues with a discussion of _______.
A. famous composers of the early twentieth century 
B. other films directed by D.W. Griffith
C. silent films by other directors 
D. the music in Birth of a Nation

PART 14
Most journeys in Britain and the US are made by road. Some of these are made on public
transport but most are by private car.
In Britain many people rely on their cars for daily local activities, e.g. getting to work, doing
the shopping, and visiting friends. People living in urban areas may use buses, trains or, in
London, the Underground, to get to city centres, mainly because traffic is often heavy and
it is difficult to find anywhere to park a car. Some places in the country may have a bus
only two or three times a week so people living there have no choice but to rely on their
cars.
In the US large cities have good public transportation systems. The El railroad in Chicago
and the underground systems of New York, Boston, San Francisco and Washington, DC are
heavily used. Elsewhere, most Americans prefer to use their cars. Families often have two
cars and, outside major cities, have to drive fairly long distances to schools, offices, shops,
banks, etc. Many college and even high-school students have their own cars.
Long-distance travel in Britain is also mainly by road, though railways link most towns and
cities. Most places are linked by motorways or other fast roads and many people prefer to
drive at their own convenience rather than use a train, even though they may get stuck in
a traffic jam. Long-distance coach/bus services are usually a cheaper alternative to trains,
but they take longer and may be less comfortable. Some long-distance travel, especially
that undertaken for business reasons, may be by air. There are regular flights between
regional airports, as well as to and from London. A lot of freight is also distributed by road,
though heavier items and raw materials often go by rail.
In the US much long-distance travel is by air. America has two main long-distance bus
companies, Greyhound and Trailways. Amtrak, the national network, provides rail services
for passengers. Private railway companies such as Union Pacific now carry only freight,
though in fact over 70% of freight goes by road.
The main problems associated with road transport in both Britain and the US are traffic
congestion and pollution. It is predicted that the number of cars on British roads will
increase by a third within a few years, making both these problems worse. The British
government would like more people to use public transport, but so far they have had little
success in persuading people to give up their cars or to share rides with neighbours. Most
people say that public transport is simply not good enough. Americans too have resisted
government requests to share cars because it is less convenient and restricts their
freedom. Petrol/gasoline is relatively cheap in the US and outside the major cities public
transport is bad, so they see no reason to use their cars less.
(Extracted from Oxford Guide to British and American Culture, Oxford University Press, 2000)
Question 1: In Britain and the US most people travel by ______.
A. sea           B. rail            C. road              D. air
Question 2: According to the passage, people in London may prefer the
Underground to their own cars due to ___.
A. cheap tickets    B. air pollution     C. long distances      D. heavy traffic
Question 3: It is mentioned in paragraph 3 that the public transportation systems in
the US are good in _______.
A. some states     B. all cities       C. large states        D. large cities
Question 4: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Few college students in the US have their own cars.
B. Families in the US often have more than one car.
C. Most Americans prefer to drive their cars outside large cities.
D. The underground systems are popular in some major US cities.
Question 5: The phrase "at their own convenience" in paragraph 4 is closest in
meaning to _______.
A. at the latest time and nearest place 
B. at an appropriate time and place
C. at an early time and nearby place 
D. at the fastest time and nearest place
Question 6: Which of the following is true about transport in Britain?
A. Long-distance travel in Britain is only by road.
B. There are no regular flights between regional airports.
C. Trains are usually cheaper than long-distance coach services.
D. Heavier items and raw materials are often transported by train.
Question 7: According to the information in paragraph 5, long-distance travellers in
the US can choose from _______ mode(s) of transport.
A. four          B. two          C. one             D. three
Question 8: It is stated in the passage that the major problems of road transport in Britain
and the US are ______.
A. speeding and bad roads        B. accidents and pollution
C. traffic jams and pollution        D. drink-driving and traffic jams
Question 9: According to the passage, people in Britain refuse public transport because __
A. they like to share rides with neighbours 
B. they think it is not good enough
C. they see no reason to use their cars less 
D. petrol is relatively cheap in Britain
Question 10: The word "they" in the last sentence of the passage can best be replaced by
_______.
A. the government              B. major cities 
C. Americans                  D. neighbours

PART 15
A folk culture is small, isolated, cohesive, conservative, nearly self-sufficient group that is
homogeneous in custom and race, with a strong family or clan structure and highly
developed rituals.
Order is maintained through sanctions based in the religion or family, and interpersonal
relationships are strong. Tradition is paramount, and change comes infrequently and
slowly. There is relatively little division of labor into specialized duties. Rather, each person
is expected to perform a great variety of tasks, though duties may differ between the
sexes. Most goods are handmade, and a subsistence economy prevails. Individualism is
weakly developed in folk cultures, as are social classes. Unaltered folk cultures no longer
exist in industrialized countries such as the United States and Canada. Perhaps the nearest
modern equivalent in Anglo-America is the Amish, a German American farming sect that
largely renounces the products and labor saving devices of the industrial age. In Amish
areas, horse-drawn buggies till serve as a local transportation device, and the faithful are
not permitted to own automobiles.
The Amish's central religious concept of Demut, "humility", clearly reflects the weakness of
individualism and social class so typical of folk cultures, and there is a corresponding
strength of Amish group identity. Rarely do the Amish marry outside their sect. The
religion, a variety of the Mennonite faith, provides the principal mechanism for
maintaining order.
By contrast, a popular culture is a large heterogeneous group, often highly individualistic
and constantly changing. Relationships tend to be impersonal, and a pronounced division
of labor exists, leading to the establishment of many specialized professions. Secular
institutions, of control such as the police and army take the place of religion and family in
maintaining order, and a money-based economy prevails. Because of these contrasts,
"popular" may be viewed as clearly different from "folk".
The popular is replacing the folk in industrialized countries and in many developing
nations, Folk-made objects give way to their popular equivalent, usually because the
popular item is more quickly or cheaply produced, is easier or time saving to use, or lends
more prestige to the owner.
Question 1: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Two decades in modern society
B. The influence of industrial technology
C. The characteristics of "folk" and "popular" societies
D. The specialization of labor in Canada and the United States
Question 2: The word "homogeneous" is closest in meaning to _________.
A. uniform         B. general         C. primitive         D. traditional
Question 3: Which of the following is typical of folk cultures?
A. There is a money-based economy. 
B. Social change occurs slowly.
C. Contact with other cultures is encouraged. 
D. Each person develops one specialized skill.
Question 4: What does the author imply about the United States and Canada?
A. They value folk cultures. 
B. They have no social classes.
C. They have popular cultures. 
D. They do not value individualism.
Question 5: The phrase "largely renounces" is closest in meaning to _________.
A. generally rejects                   B. greatly modifies 
C. loudly declares                   D. often criticizes
Question 6: What is the main source of order in Amish society?
A. The government                  B. The economy 
C. The clan structure                 D. The religion
Question 7: Which of the following statements about Amish beliefs does the passage
support?
A. A variety of religious practices is tolerated. 
B. Individualism and competition are important.
C. Pre-modern technology is preferred. 
D. People are defined according to their class.
Question 8: Which of the following would probably NOT be found in a folk culture?
A. A carpenter     B. A farmer      C. A weaver        D. A banker
Question 9: The word "prevails" is closest in meaning to _________.
A. dominates      B. provides      C. develops         D. invests
Question 10: Which of following is NOT given as a reason why folk-made objects are
replaced by mass-produced objects?
A. cost           B. prestige       C. quality           D. convenience

PART 16
In the West, cartoons are used chiefly to make people laugh. The important feature of all
these cartoons is the joke and the element of surprise which is contained. Even though it is
very funny, a good cartoon is always based on close observation of a particular feature of
life and usually has a serious purpose.
Cartoons in the West have been associated with political and social matters for many
years. In wartime, for example, they proved to be an excellent way of spreading
propaganda. Nowadays cartoons are often used to make short, sharp comments on politics
and governments as well as on a variety of social matters. In this way, the modern cartoon
has become a very powerful force in influencing people in Europe and the United States.
Unlike most American and European cartoons, however, many Chinese cartoon drawings
in the past have also attempted to educate people, especially those who could not read
and write. Such cartoons about the lives and sayings of great men in China have proved
extremely useful in bringing education to illiterate and semi-literate people throughout
China. Confucius, Mencius and Laozi have all appeared in very interesting stories presented
in the form of cartoons. The cartoons themselves have thus served to illustrate the
teachings of the Chinese sages in a very attractive way. In this sense, many Chinese
cartoons are different from Western cartoons in so far as they do not depend chiefly on
telling jokes. Often, there is nothing to laugh at when you see Chinese cartoons. This is not
their primary aim. In addition to commenting on serious political and social matters,
Chinese cartoons have aimed at spreading the traditional Chinese thoughts and culture as
widely as possible among the people.
Today, however, Chinese cartoons have an added part to play in spreading knowledge.
They offer a very attractive and useful way of reaching people throughout the world,
regardless of the particular country in which they live. Thus, through cartoons, the
thoughts and teachings of the old Chinese philosophers and sages can now reach people
who live in such countries as Britain, France, America, Japan, Malaysia or Australia and
who are unfamiliar with the Chinese culture.
Until recently, the transfer of knowledge and culture has been overwhelmingly from the
West to the East and not vice versa. By means of cartoons, however, publishing companies
in Taiwan, Hong Kong and Singapore are now having success in correcting
this imbalance between the East and the West.
Cartoons can overcome language barriers in all foreign countries. The vast increase in the
popularity of these cartoons serves to illustrate the truth of Confucius's famous saying
"One picture is worth a thousand words."
Question 1: Which of the following clearly characterizes Western cartoons?
A. Enjoyment, liveliness, and carefulness. 
B. Seriousness, propaganda, and attractiveness.
C. Humour, unexpectedness, and criticism. 
D. Originality, freshness, and astonishment.
Question 2: Chinese cartoons have been useful as an important means of _________.
A. educating ordinary people          B. spreading Western ideas
C. amusing people all the time        D. political propaganda in wartime
Question 3: The major differences between Chinese cartoons and Western cartoons come
from their _________.
A. purposes       B. nationalities     C. values          D. styles
Question 4: The pronoun "this" in paragraph 4 mostly refers to_________.
A. a piece of art                   B. an educational purpose
C. a funny element                 D. a propaganda campaign
Question 5: The passage is intended to present_________.
A. a contrast between Western cartoons and Chinese cartoons
B. a description of cartoons of all kinds the world over
C. an outline of Western cartoons and Chinese cartoons
D. an opinion about how cartoons entertain people
Question 6: Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
A. Chinese Cartoons and Western Cartoons
B. A Very Powerful Force in Influencing People
C. An Excellent Way of Spreading Propaganda
D. Cartoons as a Way of Educating People
Question 7: In general, Chinese cartoons are now aiming at _________.
A. bringing education to illiterate and semi-literate people in the world
B. disseminating traditional practices in China and throughout the world
C. illustrating the truth of Chinese great men's famous sayings
D. spreading the Chinese ideas and cultural values throughout the world
Question 8: The word "imbalance" in paragraph 6 refers to _________.
A. the mismatch between the East cartoons and the West cartoons
B. the dominant cultural influence of the West over the East
C. the influence of the East cartoons over the West cartoons
D. the discrimination between the West culture and the East culture
Question 9: Which of the following is most likely the traditional subject of Chinese
cartoons?
A. Jokes and other kinds of humour in political and social matters.
B. The philosophies and sayings of ancient Chinese thinkers.
C. The illiterate and semi-literate people throughout China.
D. The stories and features of the lives of great men the world over.
Question 10: According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. Western cartoons always have a serious purpose. 
B. Language barriers restricted cartoons.
C. Cartoons will replace other forms of writing. 
D. Cartoons can serve various purposes.

PART 17
What we today call American folk art was, indeed art of, by, and for ordinary, everyday
“folks” who, with increasing prosperity and leisure, created a market for art of all kinds,
and especially for portraits. Citizens of prosperous, essentially middle-class republics ―
whether ancient Romans, seventeenth-century Dutch burghers, or nineteenth-century
Americans ― have always shown a marked taste for portraiture. Starting in the late
eighteenth century, the United States contained increasing numbers of such people, and of
the artists who could meet their demands.

The earliest American folk art portraits come, not surprisingly, from New England ―
especially Connecticut and Massachusetts ― for this was a wealthy and populous region
and the center of a strong craft tradition. Within a few decades after the signing of the
Declaration of Independence in 1776, the population was pushing westward, and portrait
painters could be found at work in western New York, Ohio, Kentucky, Illinois, and
Missouri. Midway through its first century as a nation, the United States's population had
increased roughly five times, and eleven new states had been added to the original
thirteen. During these years the demand for portraits grew and grew eventually to be
satisfied by the camera. In 1839 the daguerreotype was introduced to America, ushering in
the age of photography, and within a generation the new invention put an end to the
popularity of painted portraits. Once again an original portrait became a luxury,
commissioned by the wealthy and executed by the professional.

But in the heyday of portrait painting ― from the late eighteenth century until the 1850's
― anyone with a modicum of artistic ability could become a limner, as such a portraitist
was called. Local craftspeople ― sign, coach, and house painters ― began to paint
portraits as a profitable sideline ; sometimes a talented man or woman who began by
sketching family members gained a local reputation and was besieged with requests for
portraits ; artists found it worth their while to pack their paints, canvases, and brushes and
to travel the countryside, often combining house decorating with portrait painting.

1. In lines 4-5 the author mentions seventeenth-century Dutch burghers as an example of a

group that
(A) consisted mainly of self-taught artists
(B) appreciated portraits
(C) influenced American folk art
(D) had little time for the arts
2. The word “marked”in line 5 is closest in meaning to
(A) pronounced (B) fortunate
(C) understandable (D) mysterious
3. According to the passage, where were many of the first American
folk art portraits painted?
(A) In western New York (B) In Illinois and Missouri
(C) In Connecticut and Massachusetts (D) In Ohio
4. The word “this”in line 9 refer to
(A) a strong craft tradition (B) American folk art
(C) New England (D) western New York
5. How much did the population of the United States increase in the first fifty years
following independence?
(A) It became three times larger. (B) It became five times larger.
(C) It became eleven times larger. (D) It became thirteen times larger.
6. The phrase “ushering in”in line 17 is closest in meaning to
(A) beginning (B) demanding
(C) publishing (D) increasing
7. The relationship between the daguerreotype(line 16)and the painted portrait is similar
to the relationship between the automobile and the
(A) highway  (B) driver 
(C) horse-drawn carriage  (D) engine
8. According to the passage, which of the following contributed to a decline in the demand
for painted portrait?
(A) The lack of a strong craft tradition
(B) The westward migration of many painters
(C) The growing preference for landscape paintings
(D) The invention of the camera
9. The word “executed” in line 19 is closest in meaning to
(A) sold (B) requested
(C) admired (D) created
10. The author implies that most limners (line 22)
(A) received instruction from traveling teachers
(B) were women
(C) were from wealthy families
(D) had no formal art training
11. The word “sketching” in line 25 is closest in meaning to
(A) drawing (B) hiring
(C) helping (D) discussing
12. Where in the passage does the author provide a definition?
(A) Lines 3-6 (B) Lines 8-10
(C) Lines 13-15 (D) Lines 21-23
13. The phrase “worth their while”in line 26 is closest in meaning to
(A) essential (B) educational
(C) profitable (D) pleasurable

PART 18
 We find that bright children are rarely held back by mixed-ability teaching. On the
contrary, both their knowledge and experience are enriched. We feel that there are many
disadvantages in streaming pupils. It does not take into account the fact that children
develop at different rates. It can have a bad effect on both the bright and the not-so-bright
child. After all, it can be quite discouraging to be at the bottom of the top grade!
Besides, it is rather unreal to grade people just according to their intellectual ability.
This is only one aspect of their total personality. We are concerned to develop the abilities
of all our pupils to the full, not just their academic ability. We also value personal qualities
and social skills, and we find that mixed-ability teaching contributes to all these aspects of
learning. 
In our classroom, we work in various ways. The pupils often work in groups; this
gives them the opportunity to learn to co-operate, to share, and to develop leadership
skills. They also learn how to cope with the personal problems as well as learning how to
think, to make decisions, to analyze and evaluate, to communicate effectively. The pupils
learn from each other as well as from the teachers. 
Sometimes the pupils work in pairs; sometimes the work on individual tasks and
assignments, they can do this at their own speed. They also have some formal class
teaching when this is appropriate. We encourage our pupils to use the library, and we
teach them the skills they need in order to do this effectively. An advanced pupil can do
advanced works; it does not matter what age the child is. We expect our pupils to do their
best, not their least, and we give them every encouragement to attain this goal.
Question 1: In the passage, the author’s attitude towards “mixed-ability teaching” is
________
A. questioning                         B. approving               C. objective                 D. critical
Question 2: The phrase “held back” in paragraph 1 means ______
A. prevented from advancing                   B. forced to study in lower class                           
C. made to remain in the same classes                        D. made to lag behind
Question 3: The author argues that a teacher’s chief concern should be the development
of the pupils’ _________
A. learning ability and communicative skills                          B. intellectual abilities      
C. total personality                                                                 D. personal and social skills   
 Question 4: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Group work provides the pupils with the opportunity to learn to be capable
organizers     
B. Pupils also learn how to participate in teaching activities     
C. Group work gives pupils the opportunity to learn to work together with others
D. Pupils also learn to develop their reasoning ability
Question 5: The author’s purpose of writing this passage is to _________
A. recommend pair work and group work classroom activities
B. offer advice on the proper use of the school library
C. argue for teaching bright and not-so-bright pupils in the same class.
D. emphasize the importance of appropriate formal classroom teaching
Question 6: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Development of pupils as individuals is not the aim of group work
B. Pupils cannot develop in the best way if they are streamed into classes of different
intellectual abilities 
C. It’s not good for a bright child to find out that he performs worst in a mixed-ability
class       
D. There is no fixed method in teaching pupils to develop themselves to the full
Question 7: According to the passage, which of the following is an advantage of mixed-
ability teaching?
A.  Formal class teaching is the important way to give pupils essential skills such as those to
be used in the library.
B. Pupils as individuals always have the opportunities to work on their own.
C. A pupil can be at the bottom of a class
D. Pupils can be hindered from an all-round development
Question 8: Which of the following statements can best summarize the main idea of the
passage?
A. The aim of education is to find out how to teach the bright and not-so-bright pupils
B. Various ways of teaching should be encouraged in class
C. Children, in general, develop at different rates                
D. Bright children do benefit from mixed-ability teaching    
Question 9: According to the passage, “streaming pupils”  ______
A. is the act of putting pupils into class according to their academic abilities
B. aims at enriching both their knowledge and experience
C. is quite discouraging
D. will help the pupils learn best
Question 10: According to the author, mixed-ability teaching is more preferable because
_______
A. children can learn to work with each other to solve personal problems
B. it doesn’t have disadvantages as in streaming pupils
C. formal class teaching is appropriate
D. its aim at developing the children’s total personality

PART 19
Long before they can actually speak, babies pay special attention to the speech they hear
around them. Within the first month of their lives, babies' responses to the sound of the
human voice will be different from their responses to other sorts of auditory stimuli. They
will stop crying when they hear a person talking, but not if they hear a bell or the sound
of a rattle. At first, the sounds that an infant notices might be only those words that
receive the heaviest emphasis and that often occur at the ends of utterances. By the time
they are six or seven weeks old, babies can detect the difference between syllables
pronounced with rising and falling inflections. Very soon, these differences in adult stress
and intonation can influence babies' emotional states and behavior. Long before they
develop actual language comprehension, babies can sense when an adult is playful or
angry, attempting to initiate or terminate new behavior, and so on, merely on the basis of 
cues such as the rate, volume, and melody of adult speech.
Adults make it as easy as they can for babies to pick up a language by exaggerating such
cues. One researcher observed babies and their mothers in six diverse cultures and found
that, in all six languages, the mothers used simplified syntax, short utterances and
nonsense sounds, and transformed certain sounds into baby talk. Other investigators
have noted that when mothers talk to babies who are only a few months old, they
exaggerate the pitch, loudness, and intensity of their words. They also exaggerate their
facial expressions, hold vowels longer, and emphasize certain words.
More significant for language development than their response to general intonation is
observation that tiny babies can make relatively fine distinctions between speech sounds.
In other words, babies enter the world with the ability to make precisely those perceptual
discriminations that are necessary if they are to acquire aural language.
Babies obviously derive pleasure from sound input, too: even as young as nine months
they will listen to songs or stories, although the words themselves are beyond their
understanding. For babies, language is a sensory-motor delight rather than the route to
prosaic meaning that it often is for adults.
Question 1: Which of the following can be inferred about the findings described in
paragraph 2?
A. Babies ignore facial expressions in comprehending aural language.
B. Mothers from different cultures speak to their babies in similar ways.
C. Babies who are exposed to more than one language can speak earlier than babies
exposed to a single language.
D. The mothers observed by the researchers were consciously teaching their babies to
speak.
Question 2: According to the author, why do babies listen to songs and stories, even
though they cannot understand them?
A. They can remember them easily.                      B. They focus on the meaning of their
parents' word.
C. They enjoy the sound.                                            D. They understand the
rhythm.                          
 Question 3: The passage mentions all of the followings as the ways adults modify their
speech when talking to babies EXCEPT ______________.
A. speaking with shorter sentences                 B. giving all words equal emphasis                      
C. using meaningless sounds                          A. speaking more loudly than normal                  
Question 4: The word "diverse" is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. different                    B. surrounding                    
C. stimulating                D. divided                      
Question 5: The word "They" refers to ______________.
A. words                        B. mothers                            C. investigators               D. babies
Question 6: Why does the author mention "a bell and a rattle"?
A. To contrast the reactions of babies to human and nonhuman sounds
B. To give examples of typical toys that babies do not like
C. To explain how babies distinguish between different nonhuman sounds
D. To give examples of sounds that will cause a baby to cry
Question 7: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The differences between a baby's and an adult's ability to comprehend language
B. How babies perceive and respond to the human voice in their earliest stages of language
development
C. The response of babies to sounds other than the human voice
D. How babies differentiate between the sound of the human voice and other sounds
Question 8: The word "emphasize" is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. stress                      B. leave
out                            C. explain                       D. repeat                        
Question 9: What point does the author make to illustrate that babies are born with the
ability to acquire language?
A. Babies exaggerate their own sounds and expressions.
B. Babies begin to understand words in songs.
C. Babies notice even minor differences between speech sounds.
D. Babies are more sensitive to sounds than are adults.
Question 10: The word "noted" is closest in meaning to______________.
A. requested                   B. observed                    C. theorized                    
D. disagreed                           

PART 20