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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2021

ĐỀ THI THỬ Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 01: (A) attractiveness (B) marriage (C) appearance (D) nationality
Question 02: (A) houses (B) students (C) topics (D) laughs
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 03: (A) generation (B) ceremony (C) government (D) agriculture
Question 04: (A) separated (B) reasonable (C) necessary (D) successful
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 05: Many international manufacturers are going to ____ production to Vietnam next year.
(A) modify (B) shift (C) sustain (D) mend
Question 06: ____ there be a change in schedule, you will be notified at least 2 hours ahead of departure.
(A) Had (B) Should (C) Were (D) If
Question 07: Residents should keep on the alert for burglars ____ have been sighted in the area.
(A) whom (B) which (C) whose (D) who
Question 08: You’d rather I kept the news secret, ____?
(A) did you (B) hadn’t you (C) wouldn’t you (D) do you
Question 09: Since leaving the dean’s position, ___________.
(A) Jim worked as a consultant (C) Jim had been working as a consultant
(C) Jim has worked as a consultant (D) Jim had been worked as a consultant
Question 10: ____ the prohibition of cigarettes, the waiting room has always being filled with smoke.
(A) Owing to (B) Notwithstanding (C) Except for (D) Despite of
Question 11: The children caught ____ cold because they didn’t come in from ____ rain.
(A) a/ the (B) the/ the (C) a/ a (D) the/ _
Question 12: Human beings are able to survive without clothes, but food and drink are ____ to life.
(A) reasonable (B) insignificant (C) unnecessary (D) essential
Question 13: Columbus originally projected to explore India; however, he ____ in America instead.
(A) flipped over (B) held out (C) ended up (D) got down
Question 14: To keep heat in and out of our room, we had double glazed windows ____.
(A) install (B) installed (C) installing (D) to install
Question 15: Migrants must live in China for 4 years before they are eligible for permanent ____.
(A) nationalities (B) populations (C) residents (D) inhabitants
Question 16: Despite difficulties in transport, there was a ____ amount of trade in the ancient world.
(A) remarkably (B) remarkableness (C) unremarked (D) remarkable
Question 17: He couldn’t understand what the manager was hinting ____ during the meeting.
(A) at (B) to (C) from (D) for
Question 18: My friend has forgetten the requirements of the final exam, and he wishes he ____ to the
instructions more carefully.
(A) was listening (B) should listen (C) would listen (D) had listened
Question 19: Noah couldn’t make that decision till he was given more information. He wasn’t ____
with a full deck of cards.
(A) entertaining (B) gambling (C) playing (D) fulfilling
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Plastic pollution attests to the need for the use of decomposing packaging products.
(A) raises the chance of (B) results from
(C) provides evidence for (D) coincides with
Question 21: The deal did not seem honest, so Ron did not want to stick out his neck and risk
everything until he was sure about every last detail.
(A) to pry into other people’s business (B) to make oneself vulnerable
(C) to make oneself unbeatable (D) to comprehend an ideal
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: No one understood why Jim decided to revoke the agreement, but they supported him
anyway.
(A) cancel (B) withdraw (C) keep (D) reject
Question 23: Environmentalists fight to preserve the world’s natural resources for future generations.
(A) destroy (B) protect (C) conserve (D) consider
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Mike and Jane are talking about the disadvantage of fast food.
Mike: More people die from eating fatty food than from smoking. Jane: ________.
(A) Well, you can add on me. (B) We could take thirty minutes.
(C) Tell me where you are going. (D) You must be joking!
Question 25: John and Ana are talking about the strike last week.
John: They went on strike last week. Ana: _________.
(A) What on earth for? (B) How are you doing? (C) It was out of nowhere. (D) It’s up to you!
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 26: The concert for the homeless has been cancelled. They didn’t have enough money.
(A) The concert for the homeless has been cancelled on account of the lack of money.
(B) In spite of not having enough money, the concert for the homeless still was going on.
(C) Regardless of insufficient money, the concert for the homeless still was going on.
(D) The concert for the homeless was cancelled since they have an abundance of money.
Question 27: RapViet is a popular TV program. The streets are empty when it is on at prime-time.
(A) I do not know the reason why RapViet is a popular TV program except that it is on at prime-time.
(B) So popular was RapViet that no one drives cars on the street when it is in at prime-time.
(C) Such is the popularity of the TV program that the streets are empty when it is on at prime-time.
(D) No matter how popular RapViet is, its rating is too low to continue to be on at prime-time.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in the following questions.
Question 28: Situating in the downtown area, the tourism center provides information on lankmarks,
A B
as well as assistance with travel and accommodation arrangements.
C D
Question 29: The secretary was assigned the responsiveness of contacting the guest speakers.
A B C D
Question 30: Many farmers still rely in credit from moneylenders, which is risky and inconvenient.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 31: The firemen were unrepaired to cope with the fire successfully despite having had a lot of
training.
(A) Just as the fire started, the fire brigade rushed to the region but they weren’t able to control it.
(B) As a result of their extensive training, the firemen were much luckier in dealing with the fire.
(C) While the firemen had practised much beforehand, the fire couldn’t be efficiently control by them.
(D) The firemen couldn’t stop the fire due to the fact that they had received inadequate training.
Question 32: “Why don’t we go out for dinner?” said Nancy to her husband.
(A) Talking to her husband, Nancy suggested that they should go out for dinner.
(B) Nancy asked her husband the reason why they wouldn’t be able to go out for dinner.
(C) Nancy and her husband liked the restaurant so much that they wanted to go out for dinner.
(D) Nancy couldn’t think of a reason why they couldn’t go out for dinner.
Question 33: You should show more understanding of others’ problems instead of complaining all the
time.
(A) What you constantly do is irritating others and this makes me really annoyed.
(B) In order to be a more understanding person, you must stop complaining all the time.
(C) I’m fed up with non-stop annoyances and I think you should be understanding of others’ problems.
(D) Rather than complaining continuously, you should show more understanding of others’ problems.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the number blanks from 34 to 38.
The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which came (34) ____
effect in April this year, is meant to transform the education sector and take India closer to the goal of
universal schooling. But with admissions to the new academic session just around the corner, it is fast
becoming clear that (35) ____ well-intentioned ideas into practice will take some doing. For a start, the
guidelines for admissions under the RTE prohibit schools from conducting any sort of student profiling.
The stress on a random yet justifiable admission process means that schools will have to resort to
something as quirky as a lottery system. However, leaving admission to a good school to pure (36) ____
will only incentivise manipulations, defeating the very essence of RTE.
The main problem facing the education sector is that of a resource crunch. The provisions for ensuring
universal access to education are all very well, (37) ____ we have the infrastructure in place first. Brick-
and-mortar schools need to precede open admission and not the (38) ____ way around. In that sense,
legislators’ assessment of ground realities is off target when they endorse the closure of tens of thousands
of low-cost private schools for not meeting the minimum standards of land plot, building specifications
and playground area as laid out in the RTE Act.
Question 34: (A) with (B) for (C) on (D) into
Question 35: (A) forming (B) translating (C) framing (D) taking
Question 36: (A) chance (B) benefit (C) merit (D) method
Question 37: (A) unless (B) until (C) provided (D) now that
Question 38: (A) other (B) any (C) two (D) others
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the number blanks from 39 to 43.
India is a country of villages. Rural population still dominates the urban population as far as the
number is considered. This is despite the fact that there is rampant migration of rural families to urban
centres. Generally, the gains of being a unit of the urban population are less than the disadvantages and
risks that are in-built in the urban life. Crime, riots, etc are some of the examples of such risks of urban
life. The forces that generate conditions conducive to crime and riots are stronger in urban communities
than in rural areas. Urban living is more anonymous living. It often releases the individual from
community restraints more common in tradition-oriented societies. But more freedom from constraints
and controls also provides greater freedom to deviate. And living in the more impersonalized, formally
controlled urban society means that regulatory orders of conduct are often directed by distant
bureaucrats. The police are strangers executing these prescriptions on an anonymous set of subjects.
Minor offences in small town or village are often handled without resort to official police action. As
disputable as such action may seem to be, it results in fewer recorded violations of the law compared to
those in the big cities. Although perhaps causing some decision difficulties for the police in small town,
formal and objective law enforcement is not always acceptable to the villagers.
Urban area with mass population, greater wealth, more commercial establishments and more products
of our technology also provide more frequent opportunities for theft. Victims are impersonalized,
property is insured, consumer goods in more abundance are vividly d isp layed and are more portable.
The crime rate increases despite formal moral education given in schools.
Question 39: Which of the following would be the best title for the above passage?
(A) Crime and Punishment (B) Hazards of Urban Life
(C) Lure of Village Life (D) Rural-Urban Rift
Question 40: Which of the following statements is TRUE in the context of the passage?
(A) The display of consumer goods is the main cause of crime.
(B) Lack of personal contacts increases crimes in urban areas.
(C) Small communities have more minor crimes than in urban centres.
(D) Urban crimes cannot be prevented.
Question 41: It can be inferred from the passage that urban crime can be controlled by ________.
(A) greater emphasis on moral education
(B) enforcement of law by distant bureaucrats
(C) vivid display of expensive consumer goods
(D) making expensive consumer goods less portable
Question 42: The word “deviate” in line 8 is opposite meaning to ________.
(A) break (B) locate (C) follow (D) concentrate
Question 43: According to the passage, all of the following contribute to higher crime rates in urban
areas EXCEPT ________.
(A) vivid display of consumer goods (C) increasing population
(B) urban impersonalized living (D) inadequate police force
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the number blanks from 44 to 50.
If the salinity of ocean waters is analyzed, it is found to vary only slightly from place to place.
Nevertheless, some of these small changes are important. There are three basic processes that cause a
change in oceanic salinity. One of these is the subtraction of water from the ocean by means of
evaporation-conversion of liquid water to water vapor. In this manner, the salinity is increased, since the
salt behind. If this is carried to the extreme, of course, white crystals of salt would be left behind.
The opposite of evaporation is precipitation, such as rain, by which water is added to the ocean. Here
the ocean is being diluted so that the salinity is decreased. This may occur in areas of high rainfall or in
coastal regions where rivers flow into the ocean. Thus salinity may be increased by the subtraction of
water by evaporation, or decreased by the addition of fresh water by precipitation or runoff.
Normally, in tropical regions where the sun is very strong, the ocean salinity is somewhat higher than
it is in other parts of the world where there is not as much evaporation. Similarly, in coastal regions
where rivers dilute the sea, salinity is somewhat lower than in other oceanic areas.
A third process by which salinity may be altered is associated with the formation and melting of sea
ice. When seawater is frozen, the dissolved materials are left behind. In this manner, seawater directly
beneath freshly formed sea ice has a higher salinity than it did before the ice appeared. Of course, when
this ice melts, it will tend to decrease the salinity of the surrounding water.
In the Weddell Sea, off Antarctica, the densest water in the ocean is formed as a result of this freezing
process, which increases the salinity of cold water. This heavy water sinks and is found in the deeper
portions of the oceans of the world.
Question 44: What does the passage main discuss?
(A) The elements of salt (B) The bodies of water of the world
(C) The many forms of ocean life (D) The salinity of ocean water
Question 45: All of the following are processes that decrease salinity EXCEPT ________.
(A) evaporation (B) precipitation (C) runoff (D) melting
Question 46: Which of the following statements about the salinity of a body of water can best be
inferred from the passage?
(A) The temperature of the water is the most important factor.
(B) The speed with which water moves is directly related to the amount of salt.
(C) Ocean salinity has little effect on sea life.
(D) Various factor combine to cause variation in the salt content of water.
Question 47: The word “altered” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ________.
(A) determined (B) changed (C) accumulated (D) needed
Question 48: Which of the following pairs are mentioned as ‘contrast’ in the passage?
(A) Western concept of life and science. (B) Technology and science.
(C) Knowledge and technology. (D) Indian and western concepts of life.
Question 49: The word “this” in paragraph 1 is referred to ________.
(A) ocean (B) evaporation (C) salinity (D) crystals
Question 50: What can be inferred about the water near the bottom of oceans?
(A) It is relatively warm. (B) Its salinity is relatively high.
(C) It does not move. (D) It evaporates quickly.

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