1.

 By default, the number of active connections in the queue waiting

for server attention is 25. During heavy load, you can increase this
to:
1. 50
2. 64
3. 80
4. 120
5. 100

Answer: 1

2. This is NOT a good trick for improving performance:

 
1. Minimize FTP user isolation.
2. Use ISAPI extensions instead of ISAPI filters.
3. Set up remote virtual directories.
4. Keep websites and FTP servers on different machines.

Answer: 3

3. IIS 6 supports how many concurrent CGI applications by default?

1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 7
5. 8

Answer: 2

4. IIS has a feature for monitoring the health of multiple worker

processes servicing an application pool called:
1. HTTP keep-alive
2. IS monitoring services
3. Application failsafe
4. Rapid-fail protection
Answer: 4

5. When looking at the Memory:pages/sec-counter, a number under 20

indicates:
1. Everything is just fine and dandy; have some coffee and relax.
2. You need more RAM.
3. Compare the number to the network card bandwidth to locate
possible bottlenecks.
4. Increase the cache allotment.

Answer: 1

6. This tool simulates multiple browsers simultaneously connecting to

IIS to get content or run apps:
1. Web Application Stress Tool
2. Microsoft Operations Manager
3. Traffic Volume Manager Tool
4. Microsoft Traffic Management Tool

Answer: 1

7. HTTP compression only works with web browsers developed after:

1. 1996
2. 1997
3. 1998
4. 1999
5. 2000

Answer: 3

8. Application pool settings do NOT apply to this type of applications.

1. ISAPI
2. CGI
3. ASP
4. ASP.NET
Answer: 2

9. This is NOT a good way to boost ASP.NET application performance:

1. Trap exceptions instead of using them to direct program flow.

2. Disable session state, unless you actively plan to use it.
3. Use storied procedures instead of ad hoc queries when
accessing back-end SQL data.
4. Never leave caching turned on.

Answer: 4

10. What's a good way to ensure your paging file doesn't become

fragmented?
1. Make the paging file size dynamic.
2. Make the paging file size static.
3. Make the paging file large and keep it on a single drive.
4. Install MPDFRG.EXE and set it to run automatically.

Answer: 3

11. The process of dividing a disk into sectors that the disk controller can
read and write, before a disk can store data is known as ____________
a) partitioning
b) swap space creation
c) low-level formatting
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c

12. The data structure for a sector typically contains ____________

a) header
b) data area
c) trailer
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d

13. The header and trailer of a sector contain information used by the
disk controller such as _________ and _________
a) main section & disk identifier
b) error correcting codes (ECC) & sector number
c) sector number & main section
d) disk identifier & sector number

Answer: b

14. The two steps the operating system takes to use a disk to hold its
files are _______ and ________
a) partitioning & logical formatting
b) swap space creation & caching
c) caching & logical formatting
d) logical formatting & swap space creation

Answer: a

1
5. The _______ program initializes all aspects of the system, from CPU
registers to device controllers and the contents of main memory, and
then starts the operating system.
a) main
b) bootloader
c) bootstrap
d) rom

Answer: c

16. For most computers, the bootstrap is stored in ________

a) RAM
b) ROM
c) Cache
d) Tertiary storage

Answer: b

17. A disk that has a boot partition is called a _________

a) start disk
b) end disk
c) boot disk
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: c

18. Defective sectors on disks are often known as __________

a) good blocks
b) destroyed blocks
c) bad blocks
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c

19. In SCSI disks used in high end PCs, the controller maintains a list of
_________ on the disk. The disk is initialized during ________
formatting which sets aside spare sectors not visible to the operating
system.
a) destroyed blocks, high level formatting
b) bad blocks, partitioning
c) bad blocks, low level formatting
d) destroyed blocks, partitioning

Answer: c

20. The scheme used in the above question is known as _______ or

________
a) sector sparing & forwarding
b) forwarding & sector utilization
c) backwarding & forwarding
d) sector utilization & backwarding

Answer: a

21. An unrecoverable error is known as _________

a) hard error
b) tough error
c) soft error
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
22. What filename extension is applied by default to custom consoles
that are created for the MMC?
1. .mmc
2. .msc
3. .con
4. .mcn
Answer – B

.
23. You want to create roaming profiles for users in the sales
department. They frequently log on at computers in a central area. The
profiles should be configured as mandatory and roaming profiles. Which
users are able to manage mandatory profiles on Windows 7 computers?
1. The user who uses the profile
2. Server operators
3. Power users
4. Administrators
Answer – D

24. You want to monitor the CPU, memory, and disk usage on your
computer to ensure that there are no bottlenecks. Which MMC snap – in
would you load to access System Monitor?
1. System Monitor
2. Reliability Monitor
3. ActiveX Control
4. Performance Logs and Alerts
Answer – C

25. If you wanted to require that a user enter an Administrator password

to perform administrative tasks, what type of user account should you
create for the user?
1. Administrator User account
2. Standard User account
3. Power User account
4. Authenticated User account
Answer – B

26. You have installed a clean installation of Windows 7 on your

computer. You want to create an image of the new installation to use as
a basis for remote installs. What Windows 7 utility should you use to
accomplish this?
1. WDS
2. Windows SIM
3. ImageX
4. Sysprep
Answer – C

27. Which of the following statements is true regarding the built – in

Administrator account in Windows 7? (Choose all that apply.)
1. The built – in Administrator account does not exist in Windows 7.
2. The built – in Administrator account is disabled by default in
Windows 7.
3. The built – in Administrator account has no permissions in
Windows 7.
4. The built – in Administrator account is not a member of the
Administrators group in Windows 7.
Answer – B

28. You have a user with limited vision. Which accessibility utility is used
to read aloud screen text, such as the text in dialog boxes, menus, and
buttons?
1. Read – Aloud
2. Orator
3. Dialog Manager
4. Narrator
Answer – D

29. You have just purchased a new computer that has Windows 7 pre
installed. You want to migrate existing users from a previous computer
that was running Windows XP Professional. Which two files would you
use to manage this process through the User State Migration Tool?
1. usmt.exe
2. ScanState.exe
3. LoadState.exe
4. Windows7Migrate.exe
Answer – B,C

30. You have scheduled a specific program that is required by the

accounting department to run as a scheduled task every day. When you
log on as an administrator, you can run the task, but when the scheduled
task is supposed to run, it does not run properly. You have already
verified that the Task Scheduler task is running. What else should you
check?
1. Verify that the task has been configured to run in unattended
mode.
2. Make sure the user who is scheduled to run the task has the
appropriate permissions.
3. Make sure the time is properly synchronized on the computer.
4. Verify that the Process Manager task is running.
Answer – B

31. You are the network administrator for your company. Recently, one
of your users in the accounting department has reported that they were
unsure whether a banking website was legitimate or not. You want to
configure a utility that will verify whether a website is known to be
fraudulent. Which utility should you configure?
1. Pop – up Blocker
2. RSS Reader
3. Phishing Filter
4. Add – on Manager
Answer – C

32. You have a user, Jan, who suspects that her Windows 7 computer
has been infected with spyware. You remove the spyware from her
computer and want to prevent spyware from infecting it in the future.
Which of the following Windows 7 utilities should you configure?
1. Windows Defender
2. Phishing Filter
3. Pop – up Blocker
4. Windows OneCare
Answer – A

.
33. You are configuring power settings on your laptop. You configure the
laptop to enter sleep mode after a specified period of inactivity. Which of
the following will occur when the computer enters Sleep mode?
1. The computer will be shut down gracefully.
2. Data will be saved to the hard disk.
3. The monitor and hard disk will be turned off, but the computer will
remain in a fully active state.
4. The user session will not be available when you resume activity on
the computer.
Answer – B

34. You are using Internet Explorer to access several RSS feeds that
you subscribe to. One of the feeds stores only the 10 most recent
updates. You want to ensure that the last 100 updates are stored. What
should you do?
1. Configure the RSS feed to automatically download attached files.
2. Modify the schedule so that the RSS feed is updated more than
once a day.
3. Turn on feed reading view in IE.
4. Modify the archive setting so that the last 100 items are stored.
Answer – D

35. What is the CIDR equivalent for 255.255.255.224?

1. /24
2. /25
3. /26
4. /27
Answer – D

36. You are configuring a new Windows 7 computer for a new employee.
You configure the new user with a standard user account. Which of the
following functions will the new employee be allowed to perform?
(Choose all that apply.)
1. Install a printer.
2. Install network drivers.
3. Configure WPA keys.
4. Modify the Desktop settings.
Answer – A,C,D
.
37. You are the network administrator for Some Company. Your network
consists of 200 Windows 7 computers, and you want to assign static IP
addresses rather than use a DHCP server. You want to configure the
computers to reside on the 192.168.10.0 network. What subnet mask
should you use with this network address?
1. 255.0.0.0
2. 255.255.0.0
3. 255.255.255.0
4. 255.255.255.255
Answer – C

38. You are using a laptop running Windows 7 Home Premium. You
want to synchronize files between your laptop and a network folder.
Which of the following actions must you perform first in order to enable
synchronization to occur between your laptop and the network folder?
1. Upgrade your laptop to Windows 7 Ultimate.
2. Enable one – way synchronization between the laptop and the
network folder.
3. Enable two – way synchronization between the laptop and the
network folder.
4. Configure the files on your laptop as read – only.
Answer – A

39. What is a stateless file server?

a) It keeps tracks of states of different objects
b) It maintains internally no state information at all
c) It maintains some information in them
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b.
40. What are the characteristics of the stateless server?
a) Easier to implement
b) They are not fault-tolerant upon client or server failures
c) They store all information file server
d) They are redundant to keep data safe

Answer: a

41. Implementation of a stateless file server must not follow?

a) Idempotency requirement
b) Encryption of keys
c) File locking mechanism
d) Cache consistency

Answer: b
42. What are the advantages of file replication?
a) Improves availability & performance
b) Decreases performance
c) They are consistent
d) Improves speed

Answer: a

43. What are characteristic of NFS protocol?

a) Search for file within directory
b) Read a set of directory entries
c) Manipulate links and directories
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d

44. What is the coherency of replicated data?

a) All replicas are identical at all times
b) Replicas are perceived as identical only at some points in time
c) Users always read the most recent data in the replicas
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d

44. What are the three popular semantic modes?

a) Unix, Coherent & Session semantics
b) Unix, Transaction & Session semantics
c) Coherent, Transaction & Session semantics
d) Session, Coherent semantics

Answer: b

45. What are the characteristics of Unix semantics?

a) Easy to implement in a single processor system
b) Data cached on a per process basis using write through case control
c) Write-back enhances access performance
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d

46. What are the characteristics of transaction semantics?

a) Suitable for applications that are concerned about coherence of data
b) The users of this model are interested in the atomicity property for
their transaction
c) Easy to implement in a single processor system
d) Write-back enhances access performance

Answer: b
47. What are non characteristics of session semantics?
a) Each client obtains a working copy from the server
b) When file is closed, the modified file is copied to the file server
c) The burden of coordinating file sharing is ignored by the system
d) Easy to implement in a single processor system

Answer: d
48. The file once created can not be changed is called ___________
a) immutable file
b) mutex file
c) mutable file
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a

49. ______ of the distributed file system are dispersed among various
machines of distributed system.
a) Clients
b) Servers
c) Storage devices
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d

50. _______ is not possible in distributed file system.

a) File replication
b) Migration
c) Client interface
d) Remote access

Answer: b

51. Which one of the following hides the location where in the network
the file is stored?
a) transparent distributed file system
b) hidden distributed file system
c) escaped distribution file system
d) spy distributed file system

Answer: a

52. In a distributed file system, when a file’s physical storage location

changes ___________
a) file name need to be changed
b) file name need not to be changed
c) file’s host name need to be changed
d) file’s local name need to be changed

Answer: b

53. In a distributed file system, _______ is mapping between logical and

physical objects.
a) client interfacing
b) naming
c) migration
d) heterogeneity

Answer: b

54. In a distributed file system, a file is uniquely identified by

___________
a) host name
b) local name
c) the combination of host name and local name
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c

55. There is no need to establish and terminate a connection through

open and close operation in ___________
a) stateless file service
b) stateful file service
c) both stateless and stateful file service
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
56. In distributed file system, file name does not reveal the file’s
___________
a) local name
b) physical storage location
c) both local name and physical storage location
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b

57. Which one of the following is a distributed file system?

a) andrew file system
b) network file system
c) novel network
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d

58. What are the different ways in which clients and servers are
dispersed across machines?
a) Servers may not run on dedicated machines
b) Servers and clients can be on same machines
c) Distribution cannot be interposed between a OS and the file system
d) OS cannot be distributed with the file system a part of that distribution

Answer: b

59. What are not the characteristics of a DFS?

a) login transparency and access transparency
b) Files need not contain information about their physical location
c) No Multiplicity of users
d) No Multiplicity if files

Answer: c

60. What are characteristic of a DFS?

a) Fault tolerance
b) Scalability
c) Heterogeneity of the system
d) Upgradation

Answer: d