Name: PRACTICE TEST FOR THE GIFTED

Class: TEST 2

A. USE OF ENGLISH:
Part 1. For questions 1–10, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each of the following questions and write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1.The ceiling fans were on, but unfortunately they only _____ the hot, humid air.
A. stirred up B. poured through C. turned into D. cut back
2. He set one alarm-clock for five o’clock and the other for five past so as to _____ that he did not oversleep.
A. assure B. ensure C. insure D. reassure
3. When Tim was eating a cherry, he accidentally swallowed the _____.
A. nut B. stone C. seed D. core
4. He was ________ with bribery after he offered to pay the policeman a sum of money to overlook the offence.
A. charged B. accused C. sued D. suspected
5. Some endurance events may be rescheduled if such high pollution levels ________ a health risk to most athletes.
A. create B. present C. run D. face
6. Improving the overall environmental quality is a long-term battle in which we do want the participation of everyone in
society in order to ________ results.
A. realize B. reap C. bear D. generate
7. Hundreds of people in the hardest-hit zone are at ________ from disease unless a tsunami-like aid effort is mobilized.
A. threat B. menace C. risk D. danger
8. The result is impossible to predict with any degree of ________..
A. certainty B. assurance C. insurance D. probability
9. With three days to ________ before the high school graduation examination, he had to digest such a lot of facts.
A. go B. come C. remain D. spare
10. Television came into _________ and became a competitor with the motion pictures.
A. practice B. enforcement C. use D. life
Part 2. For questions 11-15, fill in the blank with a suitable preposition and write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.
11. When Kathy finishes her studies, she’ll probably go_________teaching. I think she would be a very good teacher.
12. We spent an hour trying to puzzle __________ the answer to this problem.
13. ‘Although the money from the Government is not a substantial amount, if everyone chips _________, the total can
add up very nicely.’
14. I’m hot and tired. I could do________________ a cold shower.
15. The two very dangerous prisoners are now __________ the loose after a successful escape yesterday.
Part 3. For questions 16-20, find the mistakes in the following sentences and correct them and write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
Question 16: You should know by now that I cannot stand it when my steak is not cooked properly as I always have
mine well-made.
Question 17: An important factor should be considered is Mr. Lopez's ability to keep the new restaurant going for several
months with limited revenue.
Question 18: When one opens an account at Dominion Savings and Loan, you can get the first set of checks for free.
Question 19: Mobility is one of the characteristics often demanded of executives, and they must accustom themselves
to move quite regularly.
Question 20: The best equipment is costly but is well worth the layout.
Part 4. For questions 21–30, write the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided
below. (0) has been done as an example.
The black widow spider’s notoriety is not without foundation. However, an element of exaggeration has led to
certain ___________(21. CONCEPT) regarding its evil nature.
Firstly, this spider is not as dangerous as is often thought. While it is indeed one of the most ___________
(22. VENOM) species of spider, its venom being fifteen times stronger than that of the prairie rattlesnake, its bite
injects such as amount of venom by ___________ (23. COMPARE) that it is unlikely to kill humans. In fact,
___________ (24. FATAL) are rare.
Black widows bite only if they are touched or their web is threatened. Furthermore, only the adult female is
poisonous. Those most at risk from the female are the spider’s natural pray-insects-and male black widow spiders.
The latter are vulnerable as the female is ___________ (25. SOLITUDE) by nature, and has been known to kill and
eat the male after mating. Such ___________ (26. OCCUR) are rare, but they explain how the spider got its name –
and its reputation.
Nevertheless, the ___________ (27. PLEASE) effects of this spider’s bite should not be ___________
(28. ESTIMATE), and if you live in a temperate climate and have a fireplace in your home, it is advisable to take
___________ (29. CAUTION). Black widow spiders often inhabit wood piles, so you should wear gloves when
handling firewood. Furthermore, since black widow spiders are ___________ (30. RESIST) to many insecticides, you
should regularly clean out likely hiding places.
 B. READING:
Part 1. For questions 31–40, fill each of the following numbered spaces with ONE suitable word and write
your answers in the corresponding boxes provided below the passage. (0) has been done as an example.

A DNA fingerprint __of___ (0) every active criminal in Britain will be taken _________ (31) part of government plans
___________ (32) a wide-ranging overhaul of the criminal justice system, the Prime Minister said yesterday.
In his first public announcement ____________ (33) returning from holiday, Tony Blair promised to deliver a courts
system fit for the 21st century. Addressing police officers in Kent, in southern England, he accused the courts of being
__________ (34) for their own convenience and promised to ensure that victims, witnesses and police giving evidence
would receive more respect.
Mr Blair declared the justice system archaic, saying it hindered police efforts to keep up with organised crime, and
announced a 107 million package to expand the DNA database. According to a government spokesman, the
____________ (35) should hold more than three million samples _________ (36) to almost the whole criminal class of
the UK.
'I think we _______ (37) effectively got a 19th century justice system in a 21st century world,' the Prime Minister said.
'We have totally ____________ (38) to keep up to date with the fact that we have ________ (39) major organised crime
operating in a completely different way to 50 or 60 years ago,' he said.
Mr Blair stressed that he was ________ (40) favour of so-called zero tolerance and wanted a law-abiding society based
on courtesy to others.
Part 2: Read the following passage. For questions 41–50, choose the best answer (A, B, C or D)
according to the text. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes.
Ancient Angkor
In the regions of Southeast Asia dwell the remains of an era that far exceeded its time in developments and
industrialization. This ancient city, which was mysteriously deserted in the 15th century, is known as Angkor. Located in
Cambodia, Angkor was established in 802 CE as the seat of the Khmer Empire. Khmer was the largest continuous
empire in Southeast Asia. Its main city of Angkor grew and developed until it was abandoned in the year 1431. Many
historians theorize as to why it was abandoned, but the mystery remains.
Angkor was a city of power, industry, architecture, and cultural unity, which is why speculation surrounds its
decline. The ancient Khmer city stretched over an area of nearly 120 square miles, comparable to present-day Los
Angeles. Each successive ruler to the throne brought significant additions that diversified the territory. One ruler is known
for constructing a baray, a massive water reservoir. Another built the imposing Angkor Wat, a temple of great proportions
that survived the city’s demise and exists today as a Buddhist temple. Along with over seventy other temples in the
region, Angkor was home to an expansive waterworks of marked ingenuity when nothing of its kind existed in the world.
The civilization was structured around the Mekong River. Intricate and sophisticated irrigation systems were fashioned
to transport water to people and fields in all parts of the city, including those removed from the central water source. For
this, the city became known as the “Hydraulic City.” The people of Angkor were led by an extensive court system, made
up of religious and secular nobles as well as artisans, fishermen, rice farmers, soldiers, and elephant keepers. The
civilization was guarded by an army transported by elephants and ruled by shrewd and powerful kings. Yet after 600
years of existence, an abandoned shell was all that remained.
The land, buildings, and architecture were reclaimed by the surrounding forest regions until the 19th
century, when French archaeologists discovered the remains and began restoring sites in the great city of
Angkor. Since then, theories have evolved over time relating to the death of Angkor’s civilization. The first theory states
that the city fell because of war. The last two centuries of Angkor’s existence showed a decline in the Khmer Empire’s
population and power. Ongoing wars with neighboring Thailand had devastated the nation. In 1431, attackers from Thai
nations invaded and looted Angkor, leaving it desolate and vacant. Continuous war with Thailand culminating in a final
attack on the city could have weakened the empire and led to the city’s demise.
Another theory states that a change in religion led to the country’s downfall. The Khmer Empire had
predominately been a Hindu nation, and the people were unified in their religion. Jayavarman VII, acclaimed as the
greatest of Angkor’s kings, took the throne in 1181 CE. He instituted a change in religion from Hinduism to Mahayana
Buddhism. This action subsequently could have destroyed the unity of the people and the overall foundation of the
empire.
 A) Natural disaster in another feasible possibility for the scattering of people from the Angkor region. B) Historians
say earthquakes, floods, and drastic climate changes would have been capable of stripping Angkor of its people. C)
One researcher hypothesized that the city suffered from a lack of water due to the transition from the medieval warm
period to the little ice age. Others dismiss this idea. D)
However, a recently developed theory built on the work of French archaeologist Bernard-Philippe Groslier may have
shed the most light on Angkor’s demise. The theory suggests that the Angkorian civilization was “defined, sustained, and
ultimately overwhelmed by over-exploitation and the environmental impacts of a complex water-management network.”
Its vast waterworks proved too great for the city to manage. Also, supplying such a massive empire with water had
adverse effects on the environment. Ecological problems included deforestation, topsoil degradation, and erosion due in
part to clearing vegetation for cropland. Thus, the city inadvertently brought about its own environmental collapse.
With the use of aerial photography and high-resolution, ground-sensing radar, researchers were able to support
Groslier’s theory with images that complete existing topographical maps. The radar detected surface structures as well
as subtle variances in surface vegetation and soil moisture. This proved that environmental erosion had occurred. The
combined images and ground-based investigations further revealed that Angkor was a victim of its own industrial
ingenuity, a city ahead of its time and vulnerable to its own power.
41. The author mentions the Khmer Empire in paragraph 1 in order to ________.
A. establish the size and importance of the civilization
B. explain the downfall of the main city in the empire
C. compare the nation’s size to a present-day location
D. demonstrate why people were not loyal to the city
42. The word speculation in the passage is closest meaning to________.
A. evidence B. mystery C. question D. growth
43. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is true about the waterworks built within Angkor?
A. They transported drinking water to Angkor Wat.
B. They were a money-making venture for the city.
C. They were built to extend the water supply.
D. They irrigated fields along the sides of the river.
44. All of the following are true about the city of Angkor EXCEPT_______.
A. It was built around a water source.
B. It had an advanced road system.
C. It surpassed other cities of its time.
D. It is home to a Buddhist shrine.
45. The word its in the passage refers to_______.
A. Angkor’s B. baray’s C. waterworks’ D. home’s
46. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence? Incorrect
choices may change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
A. Archaeologists built a replica of what Angkor looked like.
B. Archaeologists uncovered the overgrown city and rebuilt its sites.
C. Finding the city, workers cleared the forest and studied the architecture.
D. The city’s architecture was inspired by the forest regions nearby.
47. What can be inferred from paragraph 4 about the people who inhabited Angkor?
A. They worshipped ruler Jayavarman VII.
B. Hinduism was central to their way of life.
C. Religion led to more violence among them.
D. They were unified regardless of national religion.
48. Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage
These natural catastrophes would have likely resulted in destroyed buildings, ruined cops, and a decreased
water supply that would have forced citizens to leave.
Where would the sentence best fit?
A. first square (A) B. second square (B) C. third square (C) D. fourth square.(D)
49. The word inadvertently in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. purposely B. freely C. sadly D. accidentally
50. According to paragraph 7, which of the following did researchers prove about Groslier’s theory with the use of
aerial photography and advanced radar?
A. The surface soil showed evidence of dirt washing away.
B. The waterworks were filled with topsoil.
C. Vegetation was thriving where soil was deeper.
 vii. The benefits of a varied curriculum
viii. Imbalanced focus
ix. Over-reliance on examinations
x. Quality of quantity?

For questions 67-70, do the following statements agree with the views of the writer?
Write YES if the statement agrees with the writer
NO if the statement does not agree with the writer
NOT GIVEN if there is no information about this in the passage

67. No subjects can be comprehensively learned without time to discuss and debate the facts.
68. Tests are a fair measure of ability.
69. Schools are trying to be responsible for too many aspects of a child’s education.
70. Future changes in the curriculum will improve the situation.
Part 5. For questions 71–80, identify which section A–F each of the following is mentioned. Write ONE letter A–F
in the corresponding numbered space provided. Each letter may be used more than once.

A HISTORY OF HUMAN RIGHTS

A. In 539 BC, the armies of Cyrus the Great, the first King of ancient Persia, conquered the city of Babylon. But it was
his next actions that marked a major advance for the human race. He freed the slaves, declared that all people had
a right to choose their own religion, and established racial equality. These and other decrees were recorded on a
baked-clay cylinder in the Akkadian language with cuneiform script. Known today as the Cyrus Cylinder, this ancient
record has now been recognised as the world’s first charter of human rights. It is translated into all six official
languages of the United Nations and its provisions parallel the first four Articles of the Universal Declaration of Human
Rights.
B. The Magna Carta, or ‘Great Charter’, was arguably the most significant early influence on the extensive historical
process that led to the rule of constitutional law in the English-speaking world. In 1215, after King John violated a
number of ancient laws and customs by which England had been governed, his subjects forced him to sign the
Magna Carta, which enumerates what later came to be thought of as human rights. Among them was the right of the
church to be free from governmental interference, the rights of all free citizens to own and inherit property and to be
protected from excessive taxes. It established the rights of widows who owned property to choose not to remarry,
and established principles of due process and equality before the law. It also contained provisions for forbidding
bribery and official misconduct.
C. On 4 July 1776, the United States Congress approved the Declaration of Independence. Its primary author, Thomas
Jefferson, wrote the Declaration as a formal explanation of why Congress had voted on 2 July to declare
independence from Great Britain, more than a year after the outbreak of the American Revolutionary War, as a
statement announcing that the thirteen American Colonies were no longer a part of the British Empire. Congress
issued the Declaration in several forms. It was initially published as a printed broadsheet that was widely distributed
and read to the public. Philosophically, it stressed two themes: individual rights and the rights of revolution. These
ideas spread internationally as well, influencing in particular the French Revolution.
D. In 1789, the people of France brought about the abolition of the absolute monarchy and set the stage for the
establishment of the first French Republic. Just six weeks after the storming of the Bastille, and barely three weeks
after the abolition of feudalism, the Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen was adopted by the National
Constituent Assembly as the first step towards writing a constitution for the Republic of France. The Declaration
proclaims that all citizens are to be guaranteed the rights of liberty and equality. Liberty was defined as ‘being able
to do anything that does not harm others’. Equality, on the other hand, was defined as judicial equality, which ‘must
be the same for all, whether it protects or punishes. All citizens, being equal in its eyes, shall be equally eligible to
all high offices, public positions and employments, according to their ability, and without other distinction than that of
their virtues and talents.’
E. In 1864, sixteen European countries and several American states attended a conference in Geneva on the initiative
of the Geneva Committee. The diplomatic conference was held for the purpose of adopting a convention for the
treatment of wounded soldiers in combat. The main principles laid down and adopted by the later Geneva
Conventions provided for the obligation to extend care without discrimination to wounded and sick military personnel
 and respect for the marking of medical personnel transports and equipment with the distinctive sign of the red cross
on a white background.
F. World War II had raged from 1939 to 1945, and as the end drew near, cities throughout Europe and Asia lay in
smouldering ruins. Millions of people were dead, millions more were homeless or starving. In April 1945, delegates
from fifty countries met in San Francisco full of optimism and hope. The goal of the United Nations Conference was
to fashion an international body to promote peace and prevent future war. Its ideals were stated in the preamble to
the proposed charter: ‘We the peoples of the United Nations are determined to save succeeding generations from
the scourge of war, which twice in our lifetime has brought untold sorrow to mankind.’ The Charter of the New United
Nations organisation went into effect on 24 October 1945, a date that is celebrated each year as United Nations Day.
Your answers
the view that a situation which had wreaked widespread havoc could not be repeated 71. _______
a recent consensus that an event had far-reaching global repercussions 72. _______
treating all sides equally during military conflicts 73. _______
the view that a protest against the flagrant injustice of a despotic monarch had far-reaching 74. _______
consequences
surprise that widespread change came about in a relatively short space of time 75. _______
the suggestion that the unusual actions of a monarch were far ahead of their time 76. _______
an acknowledgement that a leader was prepared to justify his actions 77. _______
an expression of regret for mistakes made in the past 78. _______
the importance of something which officially tried to prevent a certain type of gender 79. _______
discrimination
the idea that everyone should have the same opportunities for advancement 80. _______
C/ WRITING
I. For questions 1–5, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence, using the word
given. You must use between three and eight words, including the word given. Do not change the word given. There
is an example at the beginning (0). (7.5 points)
1. The team certainly do not intend to give up at this stage. question
There’s __________________________________________ at this stage.
2. Her son insisted on going with her to the hospital. accompany
He was adamant _____________________________________ to the hospital.
3. Nowadays parents and their children seem to have more in common than they used to do. narrowing
The generation ___________________________________________ days.
4. Mr Brandt says he would much rather go to the opera than be taken out for dinner. preference
Mr Brandt has ______________________________________ to the opera, rather than out for dinner.
5. Mary became totally engrossed in her novel and forgot to cook the dinner. absorbing
Mary ____________________________________________ to cook the dinner.
6. The arms scandal totally destroyed the Democratic Party knees
The Democratic Party _____________________________________________the arms scandal.
7. I would not say no to a free weekend in that hotel. nose
I would not___________________________________________________________in that hotel.
8. The press revealed the truth after a long period of speculation open
The press_______________________________________________________after a long period of speculation.
9. Marianne likes anything with chocolate in it. weakness
Marianne___________________________________________________________chocolate.
10. We can postpone the meeting until next week, if at all necessary. be
If___________________________________________________________________off the meeting until next week.
 vii. The benefits of a varied curriculum
viii. Imbalanced focus
ix. Over-reliance on examinations
x. Quality of quantity?

For questions 67-70, do the following statements agree with the views of the writer?
Write YES if the statement agrees with the writer
NO if the statement does not agree with the writer
NOT GIVEN if there is no information about this in the passage

67. No subjects can be comprehensively learned without time to discuss and debate the facts.
68. Tests are a fair measure of ability.
69. Schools are trying to be responsible for too many aspects of a child’s education.
70. Future changes in the curriculum will improve the situation.
Part 5. For questions 71–80, identify which section A–F each of the following is mentioned. Write ONE letter A–F
in the corresponding numbered space provided. Each letter may be used more than once.

A HISTORY OF HUMAN RIGHTS

A. In 539 BC, the armies of Cyrus the Great, the first King of ancient Persia, conquered the city of Babylon. But it was
his next actions that marked a major advance for the human race. He freed the slaves, declared that all people had
a right to choose their own religion, and established racial equality. These and other decrees were recorded on a
baked-clay cylinder in the Akkadian language with cuneiform script. Known today as the Cyrus Cylinder, this ancient
record has now been recognised as the world’s first charter of human rights. It is translated into all six official
languages of the United Nations and its provisions parallel the first four Articles of the Universal Declaration of Human
Rights.
B. The Magna Carta, or ‘Great Charter’, was arguably the most significant early influence on the extensive historical
process that led to the rule of constitutional law in the English-speaking world. In 1215, after King John violated a
number of ancient laws and customs by which England had been governed, his subjects forced him to sign the
Magna Carta, which enumerates what later came to be thought of as human rights. Among them was the right of the
church to be free from governmental interference, the rights of all free citizens to own and inherit property and to be
protected from excessive taxes. It established the rights of widows who owned property to choose not to remarry,
and established principles of due process and equality before the law. It also contained provisions for forbidding
bribery and official misconduct.
C. On 4 July 1776, the United States Congress approved the Declaration of Independence. Its primary author, Thomas
Jefferson, wrote the Declaration as a formal explanation of why Congress had voted on 2 July to declare
independence from Great Britain, more than a year after the outbreak of the American Revolutionary War, as a
statement announcing that the thirteen American Colonies were no longer a part of the British Empire. Congress
issued the Declaration in several forms. It was initially published as a printed broadsheet that was widely distributed
and read to the public. Philosophically, it stressed two themes: individual rights and the rights of revolution. These
ideas spread internationally as well, influencing in particular the French Revolution.
D. In 1789, the people of France brought about the abolition of the absolute monarchy and set the stage for the
establishment of the first French Republic. Just six weeks after the storming of the Bastille, and barely three weeks
after the abolition of feudalism, the Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen was adopted by the National
Constituent Assembly as the first step towards writing a constitution for the Republic of France. The Declaration
proclaims that all citizens are to be guaranteed the rights of liberty and equality. Liberty was defined as ‘being able
to do anything that does not harm others’. Equality, on the other hand, was defined as judicial equality, which ‘must
be the same for all, whether it protects or punishes. All citizens, being equal in its eyes, shall be equally eligible to
all high offices, public positions and employments, according to their ability, and without other distinction than that of
their virtues and talents.’
E. In 1864, sixteen European countries and several American states attended a conference in Geneva on the initiative
of the Geneva Committee. The diplomatic conference was held for the purpose of adopting a convention for the
treatment of wounded soldiers in combat. The main principles laid down and adopted by the later Geneva
Conventions provided for the obligation to extend care without discrimination to wounded and sick military personnel
 and respect for the marking of medical personnel transports and equipment with the distinctive sign of the red cross
on a white background.
F. World War II had raged from 1939 to 1945, and as the end drew near, cities throughout Europe and Asia lay in
smouldering ruins. Millions of people were dead, millions more were homeless or starving. In April 1945, delegates
from fifty countries met in San Francisco full of optimism and hope. The goal of the United Nations Conference was
to fashion an international body to promote peace and prevent future war. Its ideals were stated in the preamble to
the proposed charter: ‘We the peoples of the United Nations are determined to save succeeding generations from
the scourge of war, which twice in our lifetime has brought untold sorrow to mankind.’ The Charter of the New United
Nations organisation went into effect on 24 October 1945, a date that is celebrated each year as United Nations Day.
Your answers
the view that a situation which had wreaked widespread havoc could not be repeated 71. _______
a recent consensus that an event had far-reaching global repercussions 72. _______
treating all sides equally during military conflicts 73. _______
the view that a protest against the flagrant injustice of a despotic monarch had far-reaching 74. _______
consequences
surprise that widespread change came about in a relatively short space of time 75. _______
the suggestion that the unusual actions of a monarch were far ahead of their time 76. _______
an acknowledgement that a leader was prepared to justify his actions 77. _______
an expression of regret for mistakes made in the past 78. _______
the importance of something which officially tried to prevent a certain type of gender 79. _______
discrimination
the idea that everyone should have the same opportunities for advancement 80. _______
C/ WRITING
I. For questions 1–5, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence, using the word
given. You must use between three and eight words, including the word given. Do not change the word given. There
is an example at the beginning (0). (7.5 points)
1. The team certainly do not intend to give up at this stage. question
There’s __________________________________________ at this stage.
2. Her son insisted on going with her to the hospital. accompany
He was adamant _____________________________________ to the hospital.
3. Nowadays parents and their children seem to have more in common than they used to do. narrowing
The generation ___________________________________________ days.
4. Mr Brandt says he would much rather go to the opera than be taken out for dinner. preference
Mr Brandt has ______________________________________ to the opera, rather than out for dinner.
5. Mary became totally engrossed in her novel and forgot to cook the dinner. absorbing
Mary ____________________________________________ to cook the dinner.
6. The arms scandal totally destroyed the Democratic Party knees
The Democratic Party _____________________________________________the arms scandal.
7. I would not say no to a free weekend in that hotel. nose
I would not___________________________________________________________in that hotel.
8. The press revealed the truth after a long period of speculation open
The press_______________________________________________________after a long period of speculation.
9. Marianne likes anything with chocolate in it. weakness
Marianne___________________________________________________________chocolate.
10. We can postpone the meeting until next week, if at all necessary. be
If___________________________________________________________________off the meeting until next week.
Part 2. The table shows working hours and income for four jobs.

Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.

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Part 3. Advances in technology and automation have reduced the need for manual labour. Therefore working
hours should be reduced.
To what extent do you agree?
Write an essay of about 350 words to express your opinion. Give reasons for your answers and include any relevant
examples from your own knowledge and experience.
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