ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS OF
CA: February 2021
GS Paper-I: (TS21E1038)
1. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Nearly all domestic support measures
which distort production as well as
International trade are considered to
be Amber Box Subsidies. These
include subsidies such as Electricity,
Fertilisers, Seeds, Water, MSP etc.
However, Financial Support for
Agricultural Universities and non-
product specific Income support to
farmers are considered to be part of
Green Box.
2. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The GCF as percent of agricultural
GDP is around 15.2%. Out of total
GCF of 15.2%, the private sector
alone accounts for 13% and public
sector accounts for remaining 2.2%.
The Government expenditure on
agricultural subsidies such as MSP,
water, power, fertilizers, loan waivers
etc. is as high as 8.2% of Agri-GDP.
3. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The RBI has recently unveiled
composite Digital Payments Index
(DPI) to capture the extent of
digitisation of payments across the
country.
4. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
According to P.J. Nayak Committee,
Bank Investment company (BIC)
should be set up as holding company
to hold the Government's shares in
PSBs. The setting up of BIC would
RAUSIAS-TS21E1038
reduce the Government's political
interference in the functioning of
PSBs and thus reduce their Non-
Performing Assets (NPAs). At the
same time, it would ensure
professional management of PSBs.
5. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The adoption of Expansionary
Monetary Policy would possibly lead
to increase in the rate of Inflation in
the long run. Similarly, as part of
Rupee Devaluation, the RBI buys
dollars from the market and inject
equivalent amount of Indian rupees.
Hence, purchase of dollars
accompanied by equivalent injection
of Rupees leads to increase in the
Rupee supply in the long run leading
to Inflation.
6. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
defines Banking Stability Index (BSI)
as “the expected number of banks
that could become distressed given
that at least one bank has become
distressed”. Hence, as the BSI
increases, it means that more banks
are expected to become distressed if
one bank in the system is distressed.
7. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Special Mention Account (SMA)
Category has been introduced by the
RBI in order to identify the incipient
stress in the assets of the banks and
NBFCs. These are the accounts that
have not-yet turned Non-Performing
2
 Assets (NPAs) (default on the loan for
more than 90 days), but rather these
accounts can potentially become
NPAs in future if no suitable action is
action.
8. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Western disturbances are storms or
low pressure areas originate in the
Mediterranean region, other parts of
Europe and the Atlantic Ocean.
The winds are disturbed within a low
pressure area and come from a
westward direction with respect to
India, hence the name western
disturbance.
Then they travel towards Afghanistan,
Pakistan and India along high
altitude and brisk westerly winds
which are perennially flowing from
the west to the east across the
surface of the Earth.
Along their way they pick up moisture
from the Mediterranean Sea, Black
Sea, Caspian Sea and the Arabian
Sea.
When the WDs come up against the
Himalayas they shed their moisture
in the form of rain and snow.
Sometimes they move along the
northern mountainous areas of
Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal
Pradesh, Uttarakhand towards the
north eastern states while other times
they move along more southward
regions through Punjab, Haryana,
Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and
Bihar.
The WDs are not always the
harbingers of good weather.
Sometimes WDs can cause extreme
weather events like floods, flash
floods, landslides, dust storms, hail
storms and cold waves killing people,
destroying infrastructure and
impacting livelihoods.
RAUSIAS-TS21E1038
9. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Under the RBI's provisioning norms,
the banks are required to set aside
certain percentage of their profits in
order to cover risk arising from NPAs.
It is defined in terms of percentage of
loan amount and depends upon the
asset quality. As the asset quality
deteriorates, the PCR increases. The
PCR for different categories of assets
is as shown below:
• Standard Assets (No Default):
0.40%
• Sub-standard Assets (> 90 days
and less than 1 year): 15%
• Doubtful Assets (greater than 1
year): 25%-40%
• Loss Assets (Identified by Bank or
RBI): 100%
10. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Preliminary surveys by the
Atomic Minerals Directorate for
Exploration and Research (AMD have
shown the presence of 1,600 tonnes
of lithium resources in the igneous
rocks of the Marlagalla-Allapatna
region of Karnataka’s Mandya
district.
11. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Food Safety and Standards
Authority of India (FSSAI) has capped
the amount of trans fatty acids (TFA)
in oils and fats to 3% for 2021 and
2% by 2022, from the current
permissible limit of 5%, through an
amendment to the Food Safety and
Standards (Prohibition and
Restriction on Sales) Regulations,
2011.
• While the present Regulations
come into effect immediately, the
industry players were made to
take a pledge back in 2018 that
3
 they would comply with the 13. Answer: (c)
WHO’s call for action to reduce Explanation:
TFA by 3% by 2021, allowing Applications of the Random
them 3 years to comply with the Numbers :
latest norm.
• Random numbers have essential
• The revised Regulations apply to roles in many fields, such as
edible refined oils, vanaspati Quantum Communication,
(partially hydrogenated oils), cryptography (key generation, key
margarine, bakery shortenings wrapping, authentication etc.),
and other mediums of cooking, scientific simulations, lotteries
such as vegetable fat spreads and and fundamental physics
mixed fat spreads. experiments.
Types of Trans Fats : • The generation of genuine
• Naturally occurring trans fats are randomness is generally
produced in the gut of some considered impossible with
animals, and the foods made from classical means.
these animals (e.g., milk and meat • Quantum Mechanics has the
products) may contain small inherent potential of providing
quantities of these fats. true random numbers and, thus,
• Artificial trans fats are created in has become the preferred option
an industrial process that adds for the scientific applications
hydrogen to liquid vegetable oils to requiring randomness.
make them more solid. Since they • With this development, India
are easy to use, inexpensive to enters the club of generation of
produce and last a long time, and random numbers based on the
give foods a desirable taste and countries who have the technology
texture, they are still widely used, to achieve the Quantum
despite their harmful effects being Phenomenon.
well-known.

14. Answer: (a)

12. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Explanation:
The government has released the
In 2018, the World Health report “Action Agenda for an
Organization (WHO) launched the AtmaNirbhar Bharat (AAAN)”. It has
REPLACE action package to support been prepared by the Technology
the governments to eliminate Information, Forecasting and
industrially produced TFA (trans fatty Assessment Council (TIFAC).
acids) from the global food supply by
About TIFAC :
2023.
• TIFAC is an autonomous
According to the WHO, approximately
organization, set up in 1988,
5.4 lakh deaths take place each year
under the Department of Science
globally because of the intake of
and Technology, to look ahead in
industrially produced trans fatty
technology domain, assess the
acids. The WHO has called for the
technology trajectories and
global elimination of trans fats by
support innovation by networked
2023.
actions in select areas of national
importance.
• TIFAC continues to strive for
technology development in the

RAUSIAS-TS21E1038 4
 country, by leveraging technology policy makers. The detailed
innovation through sustained and deliberations and specific
concerted programmes, in close recommendations have been
association with the industry and presented in this comprehensive
the academia. report, titled “AAAN”, as an Action
• It has been conferred the Rani Agenda for an AtmaNirbhar
Lakshmibai Award for its scheme Bharat.
Knowledge Involvement in • This comprehensive action plan
Research Advancement through (AAAN) has been structured with
Nurturing (KIRAN-IPR), that is reference to timeline, highlighting
empowering the women in R&D short/medium- and long-term
through training on Intellectual interventions in various identified
Property Rights (IPR). sectors.
• TIFAC has also brought a report • The document also specifically
titled ‘Active Pharmaceutical defines overarching policy
Ingredients- Status, Issues, recommendations with reference
Technology Readiness and to technological inputs, focusing
Challenges’. towards ‘Local to Global’, thereby
• The Secretary, the Department reviving the Indian economy in
of Science and Technology is its identified domains of innovation
ex-officio member. and technology development,
technology adoption/diffusion,
boosting up manufacturing and
15. Answer: (d)
productivity, trade and
Explanation:
globalization, internet policy and
Action Agenda for an AtmaNirbhar data management & education
Bharat (AAAN) : and training, and AI among
TIFAC (The Technology Information, others.
Forecasting and Assessment
Council)’s White Paper on Focused
16. Answer: (d)
Interventions for ‘Make in India’: Post
Explanation:
COVID-19, it has highlighted thrust
sectors, viz., Healthcare; Machinery; 5G is smarter, more energy efficient
ICT; Agriculture; Manufacturing; and and faster than any of its
Electronics that would be critical for predecessors. Some predict it will be
India’s economic growth, using nearly 10 times faster than the
technology stimulus and captured current network, if it is on 4G. 5G will
sector-specific strengths, market allow for a higher number of users to
trends and opportunities. connect simultaneously. It will
eliminate network congestion and
• Post-release of the White Paper, as
allow the users to stream live TV with
a consequential follow-up and in
little to no buffering. Reduced latency
order to maximize the impact of
and higher speed are only the tip of
the White Paper on economic
the iceberg for this promising
resilience, TIFAC followed a
technology, predicting that future
consultative approach and
innovations will use 5G’s improved
organized a series of
connectivity to power some of the
brainstorming workshops
most significant communication
involving key players of each
advances of our generation. 5G
sector, covering industry,
wireless networks make it harder to
academia, R&D institutes and
track and spoof users, but security

RAUSIAS-TS21E1038 5
 holes remain because the devices still
connect to the older networks.
17. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The astronomers, running the world’s
largest initiative to look for alien life,
have recently picked up an
“intriguing” radio wave emission from
the direction of Proxima Centauri, the
closest star to our Sun.
Proxima Centauri :
• Proxima Centauri is a small, low-
mass star, which is 4.2 light-years
away from the Sun – considered a
close distance in the cosmic
terms. Its mass is about an eighth
of the Sun’s and it is too dim to be
seen with the naked eye from the
Earth.
• It was discovered by Robert Innes
(Scottish astronomer) and is the
nearest-known star to the Sun.
18. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
3D printing is being used across a
range of industries, from construction
to medical technology. Its use in the
food industry continues to grow. 3D
printing of confectionery has focused
primarily on chocolate and hard
sugar candy, but recent innovations
have led to printing of gummy candy.
• 3D printing or additive
manufacturing is a process of
making 3 dimensional solid
objects from a digital file.
• The creation of a 3D printed
object is achieved using the
additive processes. In an additive
process, an object is created by
laying down successive layers of
material, until the object is
created.
• Each of these layers can be seen
as a thinly sliced horizontal cross-
section of the eventual object.
RAUSIAS-TS21E1038
• 3D printing enables us to produce
complex (functional) shapes using
less material than the traditional
manufacturing methods.
• It can be used to produce robotic
prosthetic limbs (human
capability-enhancers), that can be
controlled by the brain and
provide sensory feedback.
• The use of 3D printing in
manufacturing is picking up as it
improves sustainability. The
technology uses less energy and
produces less waste than the
traditional methods. It also allows
manufacturing to be done on
demand, so less space is needed
to store inventory.
19. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The scientists at the Institute of Nano
Science and Technology (INST),
Mohali (Punjab), an autonomous
institution of the Department of
Science and Technology (DST), the
Government of India, have produced
an ultra-high mobility 2d-electron gas
(2DEG) at the interface of 2 insulating
oxide layers.
• The need for attaining new
functionalities in modern
electronic devices has led to the
manipulation of property of an
electron, called spin degree of
freedom, along with its charge.
This has given rise to an
altogether new field of spin-
electronics or ‘spintronics’.
• It has been realized that a
phenomenon, called the ‘Rashba
effect’, which consists of splitting
of spin- bands in an electronic
system, might play a key role in
the spintronic devices.
6
20. Answer: (a) and constitutes Medical Boards at
Explanation: the state-level.
• The Migrant Integration Policy
Index (MIPEX), 2020, published 22. Answer: (b)
by the Migration Policy Group, Explanation:
Brussels, and the Barcelona • The Mulla Committee is related
Centre for International Affairs, to jail reforms.
has ranked India the lowest
• Important recommendations of
among 52 countries in terms of
the All India Jail Reforms
inclusivity for the migrants.
Committee - The Mulla
• India scored 24, the least on the Committee.
MIPEX scale. The average score of
o A National Prison Commission
the countries is 50.
to oversee the modernization of
• The Policy Index measures the the prisons in India.
policy measures that the countries
o Putting a ban on clubbing
take to integrate the migrants
together the juvenile offenders
from 5 continents.
with the hardened criminals in
the prison, and enacting a
21. Answer: (b) comprehensive and protective
Explanation: legislation for the security and
The Medical Termination of protective care of the delinquent
Pregnancy Act, 1971, allows for juveniles.
aborting the pregnancy by medical
doctors (with specified specialization) 23. Answer: (c)
on certain grounds. Explanation:
• A pregnancy maybe be • •The Ministry of Rural
terminated up to 12 weeks, Development commenced the
based on the opinion of one Socio-Economic and Caste Census
doctor, and up to 20 weeks, (SECC) 2011, in June 2011,
based on the opinion of two through a comprehensive door to
doctors. door enumeration across the
• Termination is permitted only country.
when continuance of the • •However, because of the lack of
pregnancy would involve a risk to reliability of the data collected, or
the life of the pregnant woman, its political and electoral
cause grave injury to her mental sensitivity, the caste portion of the
or physical health (including rape SECC has not been disclosed so
and failure of birth control far.
measures), or in the case of foetal
abnormalities.
24. Answer: (b)
The Medical Termination of
Explanation:
Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill, 2020
: • The Kudumbashree Mission is
Kerala’s flagship poverty
• It amends the Act to increase the
alleviation and women
upper limit for termination from
empowerment scheme.
20 to 24 weeks for certain
categories of women, removes • The State Poverty Eradication
this limit in the case of Mission (SPEM), popularly known
substantial foetal abnormalities as the Kudumbashree Mission, is

RAUSIAS-TS21E1038 7
 the state government’s arm for
poverty eradication under the
Local Self-Government
Department.
• Kudumbashree is a government
agency, that has a budget and
staff paid by the government.
25. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
• The Global Risks Report is
released by the World Economic
Forum (WEF).
The 16th edition of the WEF annual
report added 12 new risks to the
previous list. These include :
• The collapse of systemically
important industries;
• Social security systems or
multilateral institutions;
• Deteriorating mental health;
• Mass youth disillusion;
• Prolonged economic stagnation;
• Fracturing international relations;
• A ‘pervasive backlash’ against
science; and
• Digital inequality and the failure
of technology governance.
• The risk posed by infectious
diseases has been ranked as no.
1 on the list of risks, while in
2020, it was listed at the 10th
place.
26. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
• The Home Work Convention,
1996, is an International Labour
Organization (ILO) Convention,
which came into force in 2000. It
offers protection to the workers
who are employed in their own
homes.
• The Convention aims to promote
and protect the rights of those
who work at home, creating
products for an employer.
RAUSIAS-TS21E1038
• The ILO’s headquarter is in
Geneva, Switzerland.
27. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Open Skies Treaty (OST) was
signed in 1992 between the NATO
members and the former Warsaw
Pact countries, following the demise
of the Soviet Union. It went into
effect in 2002 and had 35
signatories, including the key
players, the US and Russia, along
with one non-ratifying member
(Kyrgyzstan). The OST aims at
building confidence among the
members through mutual openness,
thus reducing the chances of
accidental war. Under the Treaty, a
member state can “spy” on any part
of the host nation, with the latter’s
consent. The USA and Russia have
withdrawn from this Treaty.
28. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The New Strategic Arms Reduction
Treaty (New START) :
This was a nuclear arms reduction
treaty between the USA and Russia.
The USA wants China to join the
Treaty, which China has not shown
interest for.
The Treaty was signed in 2010 and
entered into force in 2011. The Treaty
called the 2 countries to limit their
nuclear arsenal. It also limits the
number of nuclear launchers the 2
countries can deploy. It also provides
for an inspection and verification
mechanism to verify that the
promises under the Treaty are kept.
29. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The China-Pakistan Economic
Corridor (CPEC) is China’s most
ambitious Belt and Road Initiative
Project, that aims to build a network
8
 of roads, railway lines and power
projects throughout Pakistan. It aims
at linking the city of Gwadar in South
Western Pakistan to China’s North
Western Region Xinjiang, through a
vast network of highways and
railways. The CPEC passes through
the Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK)
and Baluchistan.
30. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC)
was established by an agreement
concluded in 1981 in Riyadh, Saudi
Arabia, among Bahrain, Kuwait,
Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and the
UAE, in view of their special relations,
geographic proximity, similar political
systems based on Islamic beliefs,
joint destiny and common objectives.
Its headquarter is in Riyadh, Saudi
Arabia.
31. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The South Asian Association for
Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was
established in 1985. The SAARC
includes the 8 South Asian countries,
viz., India, the Maldives, Pakistan, Sri
Lanka, Bhutan, Nepal, Bangladesh
and Afghanistan. It has a permanent
secretariat in Kathmandu, Nepal.
32. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Regional Comprehensive
Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a
free trade agreement between the
Asia-Pacific nations of Australia,
Brunei, Cambodia, China, Indonesia,
Japan, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar,
New Zealand, the Philippines,
Singapore, South Korea, Thailand
and Vietnam.
RAUSIAS-TS21E1038
33. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Prime editing is a ‘search-and-
replace’ genome editing technology
in molecular biology, by which the
genome of the living organisms may
be modified. The technology directly
writes new genetic information into a
targeted DNA site.
CRISPR-Cas9 is a technology that
cut-and-paste DNA, raising hope of
genetic fixes for disease. CRISPR
allows to target nearly any genomic
location and potentially repair the
broken genes.
Meganucleases are "molecular DNA
scissors", that can be used to replace,
eliminate or modify the sequences in
a highly targeted way.
34. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Explanation:
Recently, there have been reports of
Chinese construction of a new village
in Arunachal Pradesh. The village is
located a couple of kilometres across
the LAC, beyond what India sees as
the border separating Arunachal
Pradesh and Tibet, on the banks of
the Tsari Chu river, in Upper
Subansiri district in Arunachal
Pradesh.
35. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Qatar is an independent emirate on
the west coast of the Persian Gulf. It
shares a border with eastern Saudi
Arabia, where the peninsula connects
to the mainland, and is north and
west of the United Arab Emirates
(UAE).
Qurain Abu al-Bawl is the country’s
highest point.
The Tropic of Cancer passes
through the UAE, Oman and Saudi
Arabia in the middle east, not
through Qatar.
9
36. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The recently signed Abraham
Accord is between Israel, the United
Arab Emirates and Bahrain. It is
mediated by the USA. Under the
agreement, the UAE and Bahrain
would normalize ties with Israel,
leading to better economic, political
and security engagement. This is the
first agreement between Israel and
the Arab countries, since the 1994
Jordan-Israel Peace Treaty.
37. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
“Global commons” is a term typically
used to describe the international,
supranational and
global resource domains in which the
common-pool resources are found.
The International Law identifies 4
global commons, viz., the High Seas;
the Atmosphere; the Antarctica; and
the Outer Space.
38. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The facility of postal ballot is
available only to certain class of
voters, e.g., the service voters and
such other voters as the Election
Commission may decide from time
to time, such as the absentee
voters of essential services, senior
citizens of more than 80 years, etc.
The Election Commission (EC) has
approached the Ministry of Law and
Justice to permit the Non-Resident
Indians (NRIs) to vote via postal
ballots, similar to a system that is
already used by the service voters.
But, the Ministry has so far not
approved the proposal forwarded by
the EC.
RAUSIAS-TS21E1038
39. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Electronically Transmitted Postal
Ballot System (ETPBS) is developed
by the Election Commission of India,
with the help of the Centre for
Development of Advanced Computing
(C-DAC), for the use of the service
voters. It is a fully secured system,
having two layers of security. Secrecy
is maintained through the use of the
OTP and the PIN, and no duplication
of the casted ETPB is possible due to
the unique QR Code.
This System enables the entitled
service voters to cast their vote using
an electronically received postal ballot
from anywhere outside their
constituency. The voters who make
such a choice will be entitled for the
postal ballot delivered through the
electronic media for a particular
election. Under ETPBS, the ballot is
sent electronically. The service voters
then cast their votes and post the
ballots back using normal postal
services. This is what is referred as
One Way Electronically Transmitted
Postal Ballot System (ETPBS). Use of
One Way Electronic Voting System
during 2019 Lok Sabha elections for
the service voters helped to save
processing time, resources and avoid
human errors.
40. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Decision on the questions as to
disqualification on the ground of
defection to be decided by the
Chairman for the Rajya Sabha and
the Speaker for the Lok Sabha.
Defection means floor-crossing or
switching sides by a member of one
political party to another party. To
control increasing instances of
political defection in India, the
government, through the Constitution
52nd Amendment, 1985 added the
10
 Tenth Schedule to the Indian
Constitution.
41. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Constitution (Forty-second
Amendment) Act, 1976, substituted
SOVEREIGN DEMOCRATIC
REPUBLIC with SOVEREIGN
SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC
REPUBLIC.
42. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Freedom comprises the following :
• Absence of Constraints - A
simple answer to the question
‘what is freedom’ is the absence of
constraints. Freedom is said to
exist when external constraints on
the individual are absent.
• Lack of External Control - In
terms of this definition, an
individual could be considered
free if he/she is not subject to
external controls or coercion, and
is able to make independent
decisions and act in an
autonomous way.
• Freedom is Multi-Dimensional -
Absence of constraints is only one
dimension of freedom. Freedom is
also about expanding the ability of
the people to freely express
themselves and develop their
potential.
• Positive Aspect - Freedom in this
sense is the condition in which
the people can develop their
creativity and capabilities.
• Need for both aspects of freedom
is important, namely, the absence
of external constraints, as well as
the existence of conditions in
which the people can develop their
talent is essential.
• A free society would be one which
enables all its members to develop
RAUSIAS-TS21E1038
their potential with the minimum
of social constraints.
43. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Status and Opportunity are
associated with EQUALITY and not
LIBERTY.
Preamble - LIBERTY of thought,
expression, belief, faith and worship.
44. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Criminal Justice and Police
Accountability Project (CPAProject) is
an intervention focused on the
criminalization of certain
communities by the police and the
criminal justice system, and on
decarceration. The Project is a
grassroots litigation research based
intervention based in Bhopal, working
in specific locations and with
particular communities across the
state of Madhya Pradesh. These
communities include those previously
officially criminalized under the
colonial laws, now classified as the
Denotified Tribal (DNT) Communities,
as well as other communities that are
similarly persecuted and stigmatized
by the criminal justice system.
The objective of the intervention is to
hold the criminal justice system
accountable and press for the
transformation of its aspects,
including lawyering practices, police
and administrative practices, and
challenging unjust laws that
persecute and stigmatize the
members of the DNT and other
targeted communities. It seeks to do
this by ensuring quality legal
representation to the persons from
these communities in various forums
through effective legal strategies, case
research and accessing the higher
courts.
11
45. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The President of India and the
Governors of the States do not
enjoy the same powers regarding
mercy petition under Articles 72
and 161. The President has the
power with respect to pardon in the
cases where the punishment has 46. Answer: (c)
been provided through Court Martial.
The Governor does not have any
power with respect to the cases under
Court Martial. The Governor cannot
pardon death sentence. However, the
Governor can suspend, remit or
commute a death sentence, whereas
the pardoning power of the President
extend even to the cases of death
penalty.
The Court can interfere if it finds that
the decision has been taken by the
President without the application of
the mind, or the decision has been
taken on extraneous or irrelevant
considerations, or due mala fides
(decision taken in bad faith), or if the
decision suffers from arbitrariness. In
the case of ‘Epuru Sudhakar v/s the
Government of Andhra Pradesh’, the
Supreme Court laid down that
judicial review under Articles 72 and
161 is available on the following
grounds :
47. Answer: (d)
a) That the order has been passed
without the application of the
mind;
b) That the order is mala fide;
c) That the order has been passed
on extraneous or wholly
irrelevant considerations; and
d) That the order suffers from
arbitrariness.
The power to pardon vested in the
President shall not be exercised
independently without the aid and
48. Answer: (d)
advice of the Home Minister. In the
case of ‘Maru Ram v/s the Union of
India’, the Supreme Court held that,
under Article 72, the President
RAUSIAS-TS21E1038
cannot take an independent decision
or direct release or refuse release on
his own choice. This has been done
to avoid any decision made on
arbitrary grounds or on some partial
grounds of religion, caste, colour or
political loyalty.
Explanation:
As a part of the Government of India’s
‘Ease of Doing Business (EODB)’
initiatives, the Ministry of Corporate
Affairs has notified a new Web
Form christened ‘SPICe+’
(pronounced ‘SPICe Plus’), replacing
the existing SPICe (Simplified
Proforma for Incorporating a
Company Electronically (SPICe))
form. SPICe+ would offer 10 services
by 3 Central Government Ministries
and Departments (The Ministry of
Corporate Affairs, the Ministry of
Labour and the Department of
Revenue in the Ministry of Finance);
and one State Government
(Maharashtra), thereby saving as
many procedures, time and cost for
starting a business in India and
would be applicable for all new
company incorporations.
Explanation:
The Harischandra Range is a spur of
the Western Ghats in Maharashtra,
India.
It runs in a northwest to southeast
direction stretching from northeast of
Pune district through Ahmednagar.
Shevaroy Hills is one of the major hill
stations in Tamil Nadu and in
the Eastern Ghats.
Explanation:
The India Innovation Index :
The objective of the India Innovation
Index is to scrutinize the innovation
12
 capacities and performance of the
Indian states. The Index provides an
extensive framework for the constant
evaluation of the innovation
ecosystem of the 28 Indian states and
9 Union Territories. The Index
intends to accomplish the following 3
functions:
• Rank all states and Union
Territories based on their Index
score;
• Identify opportunities and
challenges; and
• Assist in modifying governmental
policies to foster innovation.
The states and the Union Territories
are ranked in three categories : (1)
Major States; (2) NE and Hill States;
and (3) UT and City States.
49. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The State Election Commission has
been constituted under Articles
243K and 243ZA of the
Constitution of India, and has been
entrusted with the function of
conducting free, fair and impartial
elections to the local bodies in the
state.
Article 324 - The superintendence,
direction and control of the
preparation of the electoral rolls for,
and the conduct of, all elections to
the Parliament and to the Legislature
of every state, and of elections to the
offices of the President and the Vice-
President held under this
Constitution shall be vested in a
Commission referred to in this
Constitution as the Election
Commission.
Articles 243-I and 243-Y provide for
the constitution of a Finance
Commission for the Panchayats and
the Municipalities by the Governor at
the expiration of every fifth year.
RAUSIAS-TS21E1038
50. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Article 124(1) - Every Judge of the
Supreme Court shall be appointed by
the President by warrant under his
hand and seal.
Article 124(4) - A Judge of the
Supreme Court shall not be removed
from his office except by an order of
the President passed after an address
by each House of Parliament
supported by a majority of the total
membership of that House and by a
majority of not less than two-thirds of
the members of that House present
and voting has been presented to the
President in the same session for
such removal on the ground of proved
misbehaviour or incapacity.
Article 124(5) - The Parliament may
by law regulate the procedure for the
presentation of an address and for
the investigation and proof of
misbehaviour or incapacity of a Judge
under clause (4).
Accordingly, the Parliament has
enacted ‘The Judges (Inquiry) Act,
1968’, which regulates the procedure
for the investigation and proof of the
misbehaviour or incapacity of a Judge
of the Supreme Court or of a High
Court and for the presentation of an
address by the Parliament to the
President.
51. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Constitution (74th
Amendment) Act, 1992, provides
for the composition and duration
of the Municipalities.
Article 243R - Composition of the
Municipalities.
Article 243U - Duration of the
Municipalities, etc.
52. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Jal Jeevan Mission :
13
 In partnership with the states, the
scheme seeks to ensure that every
rural household of the country gets
assured drinking water supply by
2024.
The fund sharing pattern between the
centre and the states is 90:10 for the
Himalayan and the North-Eastern
States; 50:50 for other states; and
100% for the Union Territories.
53. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Deepor Beel is a permanent
freshwater lake in a former channel of
the Brahmaputra river, of great
biological importance and also
essential as the only major storm
water storage basin for the city of
Guwahati. The Beel is a staging site
on the migratory flyways and some of
the largest concentrations of aquatic
birds in Assam can be seen,
especially in the winters.
Some globally threatened birds are
supported, including the Spotbilled
Pelican, the Lesser and Greater
Adjutant Stork and the Baer's
Pochard.
The 50 fish species present here
provide livelihoods for a number of
surrounding villages, and nymphaea
nuts and flowers, as well as
ornamental fish, medicinal plants and
seeds of the Giant Water Lily Euryale
ferox provide major revenue sources
in the local markets. Orchids of
commercial value are found in the
neighbouring forests.
Potential threats include over-fishing
and hunting pressure upon the
waterbirds, pollution from pesticides
and fertilizers, and infestation by the
water hyacinth Eichhornia crassipes.
A proposal to create a sewage canal
from the city directly to the Beel is
considered to be disastrous in its
potential effects. It is designated as a
RAUSIAS-TS21E1038
Wetland of International Importance
(Ramsar Site).
54. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Geobacter are a group of gram-
negative bacteria. They are rod-
shaped, and possess flagella and pili.
Pili is a hair-like appendage found on
the surface of many bacteria and
archaea.
They live in low-oxygen environments,
such as muddy soil, seabeds or along
the banks of rivers. Consequently,
many species of the Geobacter
bacteria were discovered, with each
having interesting properties. All
Geobacter bacteria consume organic
waste and give out electrons,
generating electric current in the
process.
Geobacter bacteria were the first
organisms found to oxidise organic
compounds to carbon dioxide. They
can convert the organic compounds
in oil spills into carbon dioxide, or
turn soluble radioactive metals, such
as plutonium and uranium, into
insoluble forms that are less likely to
contaminate the groundwater. This
property makes these bacteria useful
for cleaning up water and soil that
are polluted with oil, or clean-up sites
that are contaminated with
radioactive metals.
55. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Factors for Effective Microbial
Remediation :
Microbial Population : Suitable
kinds of micro-organisms that can
biodegrade all types of contaminants.
Oxygen : Oxygen should be enough
to support aerobic biodegradation
(about 2% oxygen in the gas phase or
0.4 mg/litre in the soil or water).
Water : Soil moisture should be from
50%–70% of the water holding
14
 capacity of the soil (if bioremediation be next only to the Keoladeo National
of contaminated soil is taken as an Park near Bharatpur), has been
example). responsible for the recognition
Nutrients : Nitrogen, phosphorus, accorded to this wetland in 1990, by
sulphur and other nutrients to the Ramsar Convention, as one of the
support good microbial growth. Ramasar Sites in India, for
Temperature : Appropriate conservation, development and
temperatures for microbial growth, preservation of the ecosystem.
something between 0–40˚C.
pH : The best range of pH should be 57. Answer: (c)
around 6.5 to 7.5 to ensure good Explanation:
microbial growth and timely Salient features of the Bio-Medical
biodegradation. Waste Management (Amendment)
Rules, 2018, are as follows :
56. Answer: (c) • Bio-medical waste generators,
Explanation: including hospitals, nursing
The Harike Wetland : homes, clinics, dispensaries,
veterinary institutions, animal
A shallow water reservoir with 13
houses, pathological laboratories,
islands, at the confluence of two
blood banks, health care facilities
rivers. Dense floating vegetation
and clinical establishments will
covers 70% of the lake. An important
have to phase out chlorinated
site for breeding, wintering and
plastic bags (excluding blood bags)
staging birds, supporting over
and gloves.
2,00,000 Anatidae (ducks, geese,
swans, etc.) during migration. The • All healthcare facilities shall make
entire lake is leased on an annual available the annual report on its
basis to the commercial fishery website within a period of 2 years
organizations. from the date of publication of the
Bio-Medical Waste Management
The Harike Wetland, also known as
(Amendment) Rules, 2018.
"Hari-ke-Pattan", with the Harike
Lake in the deeper part of it, is the • Operators of common bio-medical
largest wetland in northern India on waste treatment and disposal
the border of Tarn Taran Sahib facilities shall establish bar coding
district and Ferozepur district of and global positioning system for
Punjab state in India. handling of the bio-medical waste
in accordance with the guidelines
The wetland and the lake were formed
issued by the Central Pollution
by constructing the headworks across
Control Board.
the Sutlej river in 1953. The
headworks is located downstream of • The State Pollution Control
the confluence of the Beas and the Boards/Pollution Control
Sutlej rivers, just south of Harike Committees have to compile,
village. review and analyse the
information received and send the
The rich biodiversity of the wetland,
information to the Central
which plays a vital role in
Pollution Control Board in a new
maintaining the precious hydrological
Form (Form IV A), which seeks
balance in the catchment with its
detailed information regarding
vast concentration of migratory fauna
district-wise bio-medical waste
of waterfowls, including a number of
generation, information on the
globally threatened species (stated to

RAUSIAS-TS21E1038 15
 health care facilities having
captive treatment facilities,
information on common bio-
medical waste treatment and
disposal facilities.
• Every occupier, i.e., a person
having administrative control over
the institution and the premises
generating biomedical waste shall
pre-treat the laboratory waste,
microbiological waste, blood
samples and blood bags through
disinfection or sterilization on-site
in the manner as prescribed by
the World Health Organization
(WHO) or guidelines on safe
management of wastes from
health care activities and the
59. Answer: (b)
WHO Blue Book 2014, and then
sent to the common bio-medical
waste treatment facility for final
disposal.
58. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
About Project Elephant :
• Project Elephant is a Central
Government sponsored scheme,
launched in 1992.
• Through the Project Elephant
scheme, the government helps
in the protection and
management of elephants to the
states having wild elephants in
a free-ranging population.
• It ensures the protection of
elephant corridors and elephant
habitat for the survival of the
elephant population in the wild.
• Obligations of the Central
Government :
o The Union Government provides
technical and financial help to
these states to carry out and
achieve the goals of Project
Elephant. Not just that,
assistance for the purpose of
the census, training of the field
officials is also provided to
RAUSIAS-TS21E1038
ensure the mitigation and
prevention of man-elephant
conflict.
o The central agencies, along with
the state officials, coordinate to
prevent illegal trade of ivory and
ensure elephant protection from
hunters and poachers.
Elephant – The National Heritage
Animal : The Government of India, in
the year 2010, declared elephant as
the National Heritage Animal of the
country on the recommendations of
the Standing Committee of the
National Board for Wildlife.
Explanation:
The Rajaji National Park is situated
in the state of Uttarakhand. The
picturesque beauty and rich
biodiversity of the Park serve as its
major attractions for both the nature
lovers, as well as the wildlife
enthusiasts. In the year 1983, the
Rajaji Wildlife Sanctuary was merged
with the Motichur and Chilla Wildlife
Sanctuaries, and made into the Rajaji
National Park.
The Park has been named after Late
Sri C. Rajgopalachari (also known as
Rajaji), a famous freedom fighter and
the first Governor General of India.
The Rajaji National Park spreads over
an area of 820.42 sq km and is open
to the visitors only from mid-
November to mid-June.
Location of the Park :
It is situated along the hills and
foothills of the Shiwalik ranges in the
Himalayan foothills and represents
the Shiwalik eco-system. Combining
3 sanctuaries, namely Chilla,
Motichur and Rajaji - the Rajaji
National Park is spread over the Pauri
Garwal, Dehradun and Saharanpur
districts of Uttarakhand. The
Motichur and Rajaji Sanctuaries are
16
 contiguous and are separated from
the Chilla Sanctuary to the south-
east by the Ganges River and the
Chilla River.
The Motichur and Rajaji Wildlife
Sanctuaries lie to the north and
south of the Siwalik Ridge and are
dissected by many ravines carrying
water, which descend from the main
ridge, becoming broad
pebble/boulder filled streams in the
plains. These streams remain dry for
most of the year, but become raging
torrents during the monsoon. The
area is covered with diverse forest
types, ranging from semi-evergreen to
deciduous, and from mixed broad-
leaved to Terai grassland, and has
been classified as the Indus-Ganges
Monsoon Forest type. Lofty strands of
Sal dominate in many parts.
60. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
• Kalaripayattu is a martial art
designed for the ancient battlefield
(the word "Kalari" meaning
"battlefield"), with weapons and
combative techniques that are
unique to India.
• Kalaripayattu is an Indian
martial art and fighting system
62. Answer: (a)
that originated in modern-day
Kerala. Kalaripayattu, also known
as 'Kalari', is known for its long-
standing history within the Indian
martial arts culture and is
believed to be the oldest surviving
martial art in the world.
61. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
• Silambam :
o Silambam is a weapon-based
martial art originating in
South India and it belongs to
Tamil Nadu.
RAUSIAS-TS21E1038
o This style is mentioned in the
Tamil Sangam literature, circa
400 BCE.
• Musti Yudha :
o The term quite literally means
‘fist fighting’ (‘musti’ meaning
fist and ‘yudha’ meaning fight
or battle) in Sanskrit. It is an
unarmed martial art from
Varanasi, UP (Benares) in the
northern part of India, which
has a history of boxing
traditions dating back 350
years.
o The technique used is mainly
restricted to punches and elbow
strikes with minimal use of
kicks and knee strikes.
o Tracing back to ancient India,
this form of combat has been
referenced in both the Rig Veda
and the Ramayana.
• Thang-Ta :
o Manipuri martial art is called
Thang-Ta (sword and spear). It
is dedicated to fighting skill and
worship.
o Thang-Ta is a popular term for
the ancient Manipuri martial
art, known as Huyen Lallong.
Explanation:
• Gatka :
o Gatka is the name of a martial
art associated with the Sikhs of
Punjab, who practice an early
variant of the martial art.
o It is a style of stick-fighting,
with wooden sticks intended
to simulate swords.
o The Punjabi name Gatka
properly refers to the wooden
stick used.
o In a recent move, the Sports
Ministry inducted 4 indigenous
martial art forms —
Kalaripayattu of Kerala,
17
 Mallakhamb of Central India, • He resigned from the Congress
Gatka of Punjab and Thang-Ta Presidentship in 1939 and
of Manipur — into the Khelo organized the All-India Forward
India Youth Games (KIYG) Bloc, a faction within the
2021. Congress in Bengal.
• Thoda : • He became the President of the
o Thoda is known as a form of Indian National Army, as well as
martial art that is commonly the President of the Indian
seen in Himachal Pradesh, Independence League.
especially in the valleys of Kullu • He is also accredited to be the first
and Manali. man to call Mahatma Gandhi the
o This sport needs excellence in “Father of the Nation”, in his
archery, where the main address from Singapore.
weapons are bows and arrows.
o This game has 2 groups and the 64. Answer: (d)
main target is the opponent’s Explanation:
legs, below knees. • Once in London, Vinayak
• Kathi Samu : Damodar Savarkar united and
o Kathi Samu is an ancient and inflamed the Indian students in
historical martial art, which England against the British rule
originated in Andhra Pradesh. in India. He founded the Free
o Kathi basically means sword India Society. The Society
and Kathi Samu is a martial celebrated important dates on the
art which is fighted with Indian calendar, including
swords. festivals, freedom movement
o Kathi Samu is an ancient skill landmarks and was dedicated to
which was mastered by the furthering discussion about
royal armies of Andhra Indian freedom.
Pradesh. • Abhinav Bharat Society was a
secret society founded by Vinayak
Damodar Savarkar and his
brother Ganesh Damodar
63. Answer: (c)
Savarkar in 1904. Initially
Explanation: founded at Nasik as "Mitra Mela",
• Subhas Chandra Bose was born when Vinayak Savarkar was still a
in 1897 in Cuttack town. He was student of the Fergusson College
selected into the Indian Civil at Poona (Pune), the Society grew
Service after a brilliant academic to include several hundred
career. He left the job in 1921. revolutionaries and political
• After leaving the service, he joined activists with branches in various
the Non-Cooperation Movement, parts of India, extending to
but was not satisfied with the London, after Savarkar went to
principle of non-violence of study law.
Gandhiji, and supported Motilal • Savarkar wrote a book titled ‘The
and C.R. Das in the venture of History of the War of Indian
organizing the Swaraj Party. Independence’, in which he wrote
• He was twice elected the President about the guerrilla warfare tricks
of the Indian National Congress used in the 1857 Sepoy Mutiny.
(1938-Haripur and 1939-Tripuri).

RAUSIAS-TS21E1038 18
 The British government immediately
enforced a ban on the publication in
both Britain and India. Later, it was
published by Madame Bhikaiji Cama
in Holland and was smuggled into
India to reach the revolutionaries
working across the country against
the British rule.
65. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Aligarh Muslim University was
established as the Muhammadan
Anglo-Oriental (MAO) College in
1875 by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan, the
great Muslim reformer and
statesman, who, in the aftermath of
the Indian War of Independence of
1857, felt that it was important for
the Muslims to gain education and
become involved in the public life and
government services in India. It was
one of the first purely residential
educational institutions set up either
by the government or the public in
India. By 1920, the College was
transformed into the Aligarh Muslim
University.
While advocating rational thinking,
scientific temper and free enquiry, Sir
Syed argued that religious beliefs,
scientific knowledge and morality
were mutually consistent. He held
that moral values must be inculcated.
He talks of truth and Ikhlaaq (good
67. Answer: (c)
behaviour). Today, living in a post-
truth world, we create truth through
language to fulfil our cultural needs.
Sir Syed emphasized on truthfulness
two centuries ago. He wrote a great
deal on human traits, like
sycophancy (Khushamad), which he
termed as a disease.
66. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The United Nations Charter
established 6 main organs of the
United Nations, including the
RAUSIAS-TS21E1038
Security Council. All members of the
United Nations agree to accept and
carry out the decisions of the Security
Council. While other organs of the
United Nations make
recommendations to the member
states, only the Security Council has
the power to make decisions that the
member states are then obligated to
implement under the Charter. The
Security Council consists of 10
elected members and 5 permanent
members--China, the United States,
France, the United Kingdom and the
Russian Federation.
Recently, India assumed the
membership of the UN body for the
eighth time, as a non-permanent
member of the powerful UN body for
the 2021-22 period.
Note :
• Each member of the Security
Council shall have one vote.
• The decisions of the Security
Council on procedural matters
shall be made by an affirmative
vote of 9 members.
• The decisions of the Security
Council on all other matters shall
be made by an affirmative vote of
9 members, including the
concurring votes of the permanent
members.
Explanation:
Yemen is located in Southwest
Asia, at the southern tip of
the Arabian Peninsula,
between Oman and Saudi Arabia. It
is situated at the entrance to the Bab-
el-Mandeb Strait, which links the Red
Sea to the Indian Ocean (via the Gulf
of Aden) and is one of the most active
and strategic shipping lanes in the
world. The Tropic of Cancer passes
through the UAE, Oman and Saudi
Arabia in the middle east, but not
through Yemen.
19
68. Answer: (a) (rapeseed-mustard, groundnut,
Explanation: soyabean, sunflower, sesamum,
Chenab is a major river that flows safflower and nigerseed) and 4
in India and Pakistan, and is one of commercial crops (cotton, sugarcane,
the 5 major rivers of the Punjab copra and raw jute). The
region. It originates from near government is not legally bound to
the Bara Lacha Pass in the Lahul- pay the MSPs, even if the open
Spiti part of the Zaskar Range. The markets for the said produce are
river is formed by the confluence of ruling below their announced floor
two rivers, the Chandra and the price.
Bhaga, at Tandi, 8 km southwest MSP is based on the
of Keylong, in the Lahaul and Spiti recommendations of the Commission
district in the Indian state for Agricultural Costs and Prices
of Himachal Pradesh. It is the (CACP).
largest tributary of river Indus.
The Indus Waters Treaty,1960, 71. Answer: (c)
allocates the Chenab river to Pakistan Explanation:
for exploitation. Avian Influenza refers to the disease
caused by infection with Avian (bird)
69. Answer: (c) Influenza (flu) Type A viruses. These
Explanation: viruses occur naturally among the
The Secured Overnight Financing wild aquatic birds worldwide, and can
Rate (SOFR) is a benchmark interest infect domestic poultry and other bird
rate for the US dollar-denominated and animal species. Generally, the
derivatives and loans, that is people coming in close contact with
replacing the London Interbank infected alive or dead birds have
Offered Rate (LIBOR). The SOFR is contracted the H5N1 bird flu and it
based on the transactions in the does not usually spread from
Treasury Repurchase Market and is person to person, as per the WHO.
seen as preferable to the LIBOR, since India has been declared free of Avian
it is based on the data from Influenza (H5N1).
observable transactions, rather than
on estimated borrowing rates. 72. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
70. Answer: (a) Chrysopogon zizanioides, commonly
Explanation: known as vetiver and khus, is a
The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is perennial bunchgrass of
a “minimum price” for any crop that the family Poaceae.
the government considers as Vetiver grass is grown for many
remunerative for the farmers and purposes. The plant helps to
hence, deserving of “support”. It is stabilize soil and protects it
also the price that the government against erosion. It can also
agencies pay whenever they procure protect fields against pests
the particular crop. The Centre and weeds. Vetiver has favourable
currently fixes the MSPs for 23 farm qualities for animal feed. From the
commodities — 7 cereals (paddy, roots, oil is extracted and used
wheat, maize, bajra, jowar, ragi and for cosmetics, aromatherapy, herbal
barley), 5 pulses (chana, arhar/tur, skincare and ayurvedic soaps.
urad, moong and masur), 7 oilseeds Its fibrous properties make it useful

RAUSIAS-TS21E1038 20
 for handicrafts and ropes. Though it
originates in India, it is widely
cultivated in the tropical regions. The
major vetiver producers
include Haiti, India, Indonesia
and the Reunion Island.
73. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Bharati is a permanent Antarctic
Research Station commissioned by
India. It is India's third Antarctic
Research Facility and one of two
active Indian Research Stations,
alongside Maitri.
India's first committed Research
Facility, Dakshin Gangotri, is being
used as a supply base.
The Research Station has been
operational since 2012, though it is
still being run on trial basis and
formal launch is awaited.
Since its completion, India has
become one of nine nations to have
multiple stations within the Antarctic
Circle.
Bharati's research mandate focuses
on oceanographic studies and the
phenomenon of continental breakup.
It also facilitates research to refine
the current understanding of the
Indian sub-continent's geological
history.
74. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The protection to successful bidders
and the assets of a corporate debtor
are provided by the rules under
Section 32A of the Insolvency and
Bankruptcy Code (IBC).
The Supreme Court recently held that
the successful bidders for a corporate
debtor under the IBC would be
immune from any investigations
being conducted either by any
investigating agencies, such as the
Enforcement Directorate (ED), or
other statutory bodies, such as the
RAUSIAS-TS21E1038
Securities and Exchange Board of
India (SEBI).
The Apex Court has, however, also
said that such immunity would be
applicable only if there is an approved
resolution plan and a change in the
management control of the corporate
debtor.
The IBC was enacted in 2016, to
effectively deal with insolvency and
bankruptcy of corporate persons,
partnership firms and individuals, in
a time-bound manner.
75. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals
(Care and Maintenance of Case
Property Animals) Rules, 2017,
prevent the owners and the
transporters from causing the
animals unnecessary pain and
suffering... Animals are sentient
beings.
They are capable of experiencing pain,
sorrow, suffering and discomfort...
Article 51A (g) of the Constitution
enjoins upon every citizen to have
compassion for the living animals.
Note : Recently, the Central
Government defended the law to
deprive the owners possession of their
animals, including cattle, on the
suspicion that they are being subject
to cruelty or illegally transported for
slaughter.
The Centre dismissed the argument
that taking the animals from their
owners divested them of their
livelihood, even before they were
found guilty of cruelty by a court of
law.
The argument that the owners are
deprived of their right to livelihood is
not sustainable. They have no right to
do their business illegally. They have
to transport the animals as per the
requirements of the Transport of
Animals Rules of 1978.
21
 A Bench, led by the Chief Justice of 78. Answer: (b)
India S.A. Bobde, was hearing a Explanation:
petition filed by the Buffalo Traders Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar,
Welfare Association, challenging the West Bengal and Sikkim share their
validity of the Prevention of Cruelty to borders with Nepal.
Animals (Care and Maintenance of
Case Property Animals) Rules, 2017.
79. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
76. Answer: (c)
The West Bank is a chunk of land
Explanation:
located - as the name suggests - on
The Bombay Natural History Society the west bank of River Jordan and
(BNHS), founded in 1883, is one of bounded by Israel to the north, west
the largest non-governmental and south. To its east lies Jordan.
organizations in India, engaged in
The West Bank has been occupied by
conservation and biodiversity
Israel since the 1967 Middle East
research.
War, but decades of difficult on-off
It supports many research efforts talks between Israel and the
through grants and publishes the Palestinians - both of whom assert
Journal of the Bombay Natural rights there - have left its final status
History Society. Many prominent unresolved.
naturalists, including the
The Gaza Strip, or simply Gaza, is a
ornithologists Salim Ali and S. Dillon
self-governing Palestinian territory on
Ripley, have been associated with it.
the eastern coast of the
The BNHS logo is the Great Hornbill. Mediterranean Sea.

77. Answer: (d)

Explanation:
The Asola-Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary,
on the Southern Delhi Ridge of
Aravalli hill range on Delhi-Haryana
border, lies in southern Delhi, as well
as the northern parts of Faridabad
and Gurugram districts of Haryana.
The biodiversity significance of the
Ridge lies in its merger with the Indo-
Gangetic plains, as it is the part of
the Northern Aravalli Leopard Wildlife
Corridor, an important Wildlife
Corridor which starts from the
Sariska National Park in Rajasthan,
passes through Nuh, Faridabad and
Gurugram districts of Haryana and
ends at the Delhi Ridge.
Historical places around the
Sanctuary are Surajkund and
Anangpur Dam (both in Haryana),
Tughlaqabad Fort and Adilabad ruins
(both in Delhi) and Chhatarpur
Temple (in Delhi).

RAUSIAS-TS21E1038 22
 defence, laptops, medical imaging,
nuclear energy and smartphones.
87. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Systemically Important Banks
(SIBs) are perceived as banks that are
‘Too Big to Fail (TBTF)’. There is a
need for stronger regulatory
environment for the SIBs. In this
regard, the Basel Committee on
Banking Supervision (BCBS) came
out with a framework in 2011 for
identifying the Global Systemically
Important Banks (G-SIBs). Similarly,
the RBI has been mandated to
identify the Domestic Systemically
Important banks (D-SIBs) and lay
down suitable regulatory
requirements to prevent their failure.
88. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Commodity transaction tax was
introduced during the Union Budget
2013-14. It is a tax imposed on the
exchange traded non-agricultural
commodity derivates in India.
Whenever, any non-agricultural
commodity derivatives (such as
futures and options in Gold, Crude
oil, Iron etc) are traded on the stock
exchanges, CTT is required to be
paid.
The CTT is presently imposed at
0.01% of the price at which the
commodity derivative is being traded.
Even though there was proposal by
the market participants to do away or
reduce the CTT, the Union Budget
2021-22 did not make any
announcement in this regard.
89. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Under PMFBY, the Centre would
contribute its share of the premium
amount, provided the premium is up
to 30% for unirrigated areas/crops
RAUSIAS-TS21E1038
and 25% for irrigated areas/crops. If
the premium is above the threshold,
then the centre would not provide the
additional premium amount. So, in
that case, the additional premium
amount would be borne by the
respective state government.
Earlier, the scheme was mandatory
for the loanee farmers and optional
for non-loanee farmers. The recent
changes have made the enrolment
under the scheme voluntary even for
the loanee farmers.
90. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
A GI is primarily an agricultural,
natural or a manufactured product
(handicrafts and industrial goods)
originating from a definite
geographical territory. Such a name
conveys an assurance of quality and
distinctiveness which is essentially
attributable to its origin in that
defined geographical locality.
The GI tag is valid for a period of 10
years. However, it can be renewed
from time to time for further period of
10 years each.
The Controller-General of Patents,
Designs and Trade Marks issues the
GI tags. The Geographical Indications
registry maintain the registry of all GI
tags issued in India.
91. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Top Crude Steel Producers in World:
China, India, Japan, USA and Russia.
India was a net importer of total
finished steel in 2018-19. However,
India emerged as a net exporter in
2019-20.
92. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The MSP for Minor Forest produce
(MFP) is declared by the Ministry of
Tribal Affairs. It is done based upon
25
 the recommendations of Pricing Cell
set up within TRIFED.
Initially, the scheme included 10
MFPs in 9 PESA (Panchayats
(Extension to the Scheduled Areas)
States. Subsequently, it has been
expanded to cover all the states and
50 MFPs.
93. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs) are the
Government securities denominated
in grams of gold. They are substitutes
for holding physical gold. Investors
have to pay the issue price in cash
and the bonds will be redeemed in
cash on maturity (and not in Gold).
As an Investor, you can buy sovereign
Gold Bond of a denomination ranging
from 1 gm to 40 kg. On buying this
bond, you would be entitled to an
annual rate of interest of 2.5%. Upon
the maturity period (i.e. after 8 years),
you can redeem the bond and get
cash which is equivalent to the
current market value of the Gold. You
can also sell the SGB in the stock
exchanges before its maturity period.
The SGBs would help us reduce the
import of Gold into India.
94. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Swiss Challenge Method (SCM) is
used by the Government for awarding
PPP projects.
A Swiss Challenge is a method of
bidding, often used in public projects,
in which an interested party initiates
a proposal for a contract or the bid
for a project. The government then
puts the details of the project out in
the public and invites proposals from
others interested in executing it. On
the receipt of these bids, the original
contractor gets an opportunity to
match the best bid.
RAUSIAS-TS21E1038
95. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The BBB has been set up based upon
the recommendations of P.J. Nayak
Committee. The BBB recommends
the names for the selection of heads
of Public Sector Banks and Financial
Institutions. The present chairperson
of BBB is Bhanu Pratap Sharma.
The BBB was the part of
Indradhanush Plan of government.
96. Answer: (b)
Explanation: Peace Clause deals with
Agreement on Agriculture (AoA). In
order to implement National Food
Security Act (NFSA), the Government
is required to procure more food
grains by announcing MSP.
On account of this, Government
would be required to declare
subsidies over and above the limit
specified under AoA. This was being
challenged by the developed countries
such as USA, which wanted India to
stick to subsidy limit imposed under
AoA.
At the Bali ministerial conference in
December 2013, India secured a
“peace clause". Under it, if India
breaches the 10% limit on subsidy
under AoA, other member countries
will not take legal action under the
WTO dispute settlement mechanism.
97. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Global Economic Prospects is a World
Bank Group flagship report that
examines global economic
developments and prospects, with a
special focus on emerging market and
developing economies. It is issued
twice a year, in January and June.
The January edition includes in-
depth analyses of topical policy
challenges while the June edition
contains shorter analytical pieces.
Commodity Markets Outlook is now
26
 released as its own report, also
contained in this collection.
98. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Hadoti region of South-East
Rajasthan and Guna district of
Madhya Pradesh are endowed with
coriander crop.
Hadoti is also considered as epicentre
of production of coriander seed.
Recently, to capitalise on India’s
prowess in the coriander cultivation,
Spices Board now looks at tapping
opportunities in export of whole
coriander and other value-added
processed products from the seed-
spice.
99. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Recently, the Union Minister for
Health & Family Welfare released
INDIA REPORT on Longitudinal
Ageing Study of India (LASI) Wave-1
on the virtual platform.
LASI is a full–scale national survey of
scientific investigation of the health,
economic, and social determinants
and consequences of population
ageing in India.
The National Programme for Health
Care of Elderly, Ministry of Health &
Family Welfare has undertaken the
Longitudinal Ageing Study of India,
through International Institute for
Population Sciences, (IIPS), Mumbai
in collaboration with Harvard School
of Public Health, University of
Southern California, USA, United
Nations Population Fund (UNFPA)
and National Institute on Ageing.
Note:
In 2011 census, the 60+ population
accounted for 8.6% of India’s
population, accounting for 103
million elderly people. Growing at
around 3% annually, the number of
elderly age population will rise to 319
RAUSIAS-TS21E1038
million in 2050.75% of the elderly
people suffer from one or the other
chronic disease.
40% of the elderly people have one or
the other disability and 20% have
issues related to mental health. This
report will provide base for national
and state level programmes and
policies for elderly population.
100. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
PM CARES Fund accepts voluntary
contributions by
individuals/organizations as well as
contributions as part of CSR from
Companies/Public Sector
Undertakings (PSUs). However,
contributions flowing out of
budgetary sources of the PSUs are
not accepted.
The Prime Minister is Chairperson
(ex-officio) of the PM CARES Fund
and Minister of Defence, Minister of
Home Affairs and Minister of Finance,
Government of India are ex-officio
Trustees of the Fund.
The Prime Ministers as the
Chairperson of the Board of Trustees
of PM CARES Fund has the power to
nominate three trustees to the Board
who shall be eminent persons in the
field of research, health, science,
social work, law, public
administration and philanthropy. All
the Trustees of the PM CARES Fund
act in a pro bono capacity.
The Trustees of the PM CARES Fund
have powers to formulate
rules/criteria for carrying out any of
the Objectives of the Trust.
The primary objectives of the PM
CARES Fund Trust are: -
• To undertake and support relief or
assistance of any kind relating to
a public health emergency or any
other kind of emergency, calamity
or distress, either man-made or
natural, including the creation or
27
 upgradation of healthcare or
pharmaceutical facilities, other
necessary infrastructure, funding
relevant research or any other
type of support.
• To render financial assistance,
provide grants of payments of
money or take such other steps as
may be deemed necessary by the
Board of Trustees to assist the
affected population.
• To undertake any other activity,
which is not inconsistent with the
above Objects.
The fund is administered on an
honorary basis by a Joint Secretary
(Administration) in the PMO as
Secretary to the fund, who is assisted
on honorary basis by an Officer of the
rank of Director/Deputy Secretary
(Administration) in the PMO.
The Prime Minister’s Office provides
such administrative and secretarial
support to the Trustees for the
management and administration of
the Trust, as may be required by the
Trustees.
PM CARES Fund is audited by an
independent auditor.

RAUSIAS-TS21E1038 28