B. The Overbite Achieved During Treatment

SET 7 ORTHODONTICS AND PEDODONTICS
1. A corrected anterior crossbite is best retained by:

b. The overbite achieved during treatment
c. Over treatment and anticipated relapse
d. Using a maxillary Hawley retainer for stabilization
e. Using a mandibular acrylic guide plane
2. The treatment of choice for ectopic eruption of the first permanent molar with minor resorption of the second
primary molar is:
a. Arch expansion
b. Extraction of the second primary molar and placement of a distal shoe appliance
c. Disking of the distal surface of the second deciduous molar
d. Placement of a brass ligature wire to move first molar distally
3. Posterior crossbite in the primary dentition:

1. Should not be corrected unless there is a functional shift associated with the crossbite
2. Maybe corrected in some cases by occlusion equilibrium and training in a new mandibular closure path
a. 1 is true; 2 is false
b. 1 is false; 2 is true
c. Both 1 and 2 are true
d. Both 1 and 2 are false
4. A common finding in a child with a unilateral buccal segment posterior crossbite in centric occlusion is:
a. A tooth-sized arch discrepancy
b. The mesial migration of the permanent molars
c. A bilateral constriction of maxillary arch in centric relation
d. A widening of the mandibular arch
5. When a mandibular second primary molar is lost a year or more before is normal exfoliation time, a space
maintainer should be constructed to prevent the:
1. Mesial drifting of the permanent first molar
2. Distal drifting of the first primary molar
a. 1 and 2
b. None of the above
6. An 8-year-old has a diastema between her maxillary central incisors. The maxillary lateral incisors are erupted and in
the proper position. The diastema can be caused by:
1. An abnormal frenum attachment
2. A mesiodens
3. The normal developmental process
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. All of the above
7. When deciduous teeth have been lost prematurely, it is more important to hold space for:
a. An upper incisor
b. A lower bicuspid
c. A lower incisor
d. All of the above
8. Wide diastemas among primary anterior means :

a. Unfavorable for the permanent successors
b. Favorable for the permanent successors
c. Should be closed immediately
d. Letters A & C
9. Dental age refers to:

a. State of dental tissues maturation
b. Age at which given tooth erupts
c. Time of eruption potential
d. Number of years elapsed since a given tooth erupted
10. Flush terminal plane is normal and it is usually manifested:

a. Among the second primary molars at the distal surfaces
b. Among the canines, mesially
c. Among the primary first molars at its mesial surfaces
11. Distal step is an unfavorable feature in the late primary dentition which is conductive to:
a. Class II molar relationship of the permanent 1 st molar
b. Class III molar relationship of the permanent 1st molars
c. Mesial step of the permanent 1st molars
12. Ectopic or delayed eruption in the maxillary anterior segment of the arch is caused by:
a. Unfavorable sequence of eruption
b. Migration of teeth
c. Presence of mesiodens
d. Premature loss of primary teeth
13. Leeway space is the space occupied by _________ which allows mesial movement of the permanent 1 st molars:
a. Perm. Canines & molars
b. Perm. Incisors & canines
c. Perm. Molars
d. Perm. Canines & premolars
14. Based on Nolla’s calcification table, teeth moves occlusally at stage _______ favoring normal occlusion.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 6
e. 4
15. Spaced dental arch which is favorable for normal occlusion of the permanent is presented by the:
a. Succeedaneous teeth
b. Primary dentition
c. Late mixed dentition
d. Early permanent dentition
16. During the mixed dentition a __________ sequence of eruption is 3,4,5 in the mandibular arch and 4,5,3 in the
maxillary arch for normal occlusal relationship:
a. Favorable
b. Unfavorable
c. Conducive to early resorption of the primary roots
17. The most important factor in determining a patient’s skeletal pattern is:
a. Diet
b. Habits
c. Dental eruption
d. Hereditary
18. Normal occlusion is:

a. Constant
b. Varies from one person into another
c. Remains constant among members in a family
19. For the evaluation of growth and development of the head in a child the x-ray exam is:
a. Panoramic
b. Cephalometric
c. Occlusal
d. Bitewing
e. Periapical
20. The 1st important step in examining of an orthodontic case is:

a. Count the missing teeth
b. Make an impression
c. Note down the dental occlusion
d. Observe the health of the oral tissues
21. In making an impression of the patient’s mouth it’s preferable to begin with the__________.
a. Upper arch
b. Anterior segment
c. Posterior ligament
d. Lower arch
22. Record casts in orthodontics are used for future references and it refers to the:
a. Working casts
b. Artificial stone casts
c. Plaster of Paris casts
d. Letters A & B
23. Interceptive orthodontics swallows general practitioners to correct:

a. Skelo-dental problems
b. Simple dental problems involving one tooth
c. Class II and III
d. All of the above
24. In correcting simple dental anomalies the tooth movement manifested is usually:
a. Minor or coronal movement
b. Bodily movement
c. Rotary
25. Favorable results can be obtained when correcting anterior cross-bite involving a tooth or tooth if:
a. The permanent molars have erupted
b. The canines are in their positions
c. There’s adequate space in the arch where the teeth can move into it’s proper relationship with the others
26. Mandibular anterior crowding is said to be easily corrected when:
a. All the anteriors (permanent) have erupted
b. All the permanent molars have erupted
c. A careful measurements show that space is available for all permanent teeth
27. Migration of a 6-year molars can be managed successfully if:

a. In the maxillary arch
b. Space loss is less than 3 mm
c. In the mandibular arch
d. Letters A & B
e. Letters A, B, & C
28. Most diastemas between maxillary centrals at 9 years old must be:
a. Corrected as soon as possible
b. Observed first since it’s a part of normal dental development of the child
c. Left untreated since it will close spontaneously as the dentition matures
a. Letters B & C
d. All of the above
29. Minor tooth movement in general, involves treatment of children whose ages ranges between:
a. 4 & 10 years old
b. 8 & 12 years old
c. 2 to 8 years old
d. 8 to 15 years old
30. The _______ form of the mandibular arch is the most healthful and natural pattern for the teeth and what the
dentists seeks to preserve:
a. Rectangular
b. Trapezoid
c. Ovoid
31. Since the mandibular teeth erupts ahead of their maxillary counterparts, therfore the pattern of occlusion is
most often seen in:
a. Examination of the upper arch
b. Examination of the anterior segment
c. Examination of the middle segment
d. Examination of the mandibular arch in younger children
32. The three types of teeth which develops in younger child’s jaws are:
a. Primary dentition
b. Succedaneous teeth
c. Accessional
d. Letters A & C only
e. Letters A, B, & C
33. Primary occlusion at three years normally is characterized by the following EXCEPT:
a. Exhibits almost no Spee’s curve
b. Slight overbite and overjet
c. Shallow cuspal intergitation
d. Little crowding
e. Presence of accessional teeth
34. __________ is an important diagnostic check point in predicting the positions of the six-year molars:
a. Terminal planes of the first primary molars
b. Terminal planes of the 2nd primary molars
c. Ant-post relationship of the premolars
35. Deviations in the upper or lower dental mid-lines can be established if growth changes has taken place by:
a. Twoed’s 90 degrees rule
b. Arrow rule
c. Rule of thumb
d. Combination of letters B & C
36. The “Keys” to normal occlusion are:

a. Permanent canines
b. Permanent 2nd molar
c. Permanent incisors
d. Permanent 1st molars
37. Cases of malocclusion referred to arthrodontist are the following:

a. The number of teeth involved are excessive
b. The malalignment of dentition as measured in mm by Boley gange is too great
c. Skeletal in origin
d. Letters A & C
e. All of the above
38. In cephalometric analysis, when deviations from the normal is too great, it is from the normal the malocclusion
is termed:
a. Muscular anomaly
b. Dental anomaly
c. Musculo-dental anomaly
d. Skeletal malocclusion
39. If the pattern of differences in cephalometric analysis does not stray too far from the normal the malocclusion is
termed:
a. Dental malocclusion
b. Skeletal malocclusion
c. Dento-skeletal malocclusion
40. If point A is too far anteriorly in relation to point B in cephalometric tracings by Sims, the maxillary denture base
may be too protrusive so the patient has a tendency towards:
a. Class II (Angle) malocclusion
b. Class III (Angle) malocclusion
c. Class I (Angle) malocclusion type 2
41. If both maxillary & mandibular arches are protrusive presenting a pronounced soft tissue convexity, the case is
known as:
a. Double protrusion
b. Bimaxillary protrusion
c. Letters A & B
d. Bimaxillary retraction
42. A straight line connecting sella with gnathion is used to judge whether the growth of the mandible is in a more
horizontal or more vertical direction is called:
a. Y-axis of growth
b. Occlusal plane
c. Mandibular plane
d. Facial plane
43. Facial plane is established by a straight line connecting _____.

a. Nasion to pogonion
b. Menton to pogonion
c. Pt. A to pogonion
d. Pt. A to gnathion
44. Between 6 & 13 years the following changes take place in a child when normal occlusion is present:
a. Mandibular arch length increases slightly , but mandibular arch length decreases
b. Height of palatal vault increases
c. Arch width , increases slightly
d. Letters A & B only
45. Among the children the most common space problem encountered in the primary and mixed dentitions:
a. Space maintenance cases
b. Space regaining cases
c. Space supersions
d. Letters A & C
46. The best type of space maintainer for premature bilateral loss of primary molars is:
a. Functional type
b. Semi-functional type
c. Non-functional type
d. Fixed partial type
47. When primary molars appears to be sinking or submerging into the alveolus, it is known as:
a. Resorption
b. Ankylosis
c. Attrition
d. Erosion
48. Space control measures should be accomplished within:

a. A year after loss of the teeth
b. Immediately after the loss of the primary molars
c. After six months of the loss of the primary molars
49. Mixed dentition analysis is helpful in determining whether enough space is available for:
a. Incisors & canines
b. Permanent 1st and 2nd molars
c. 1st and 2nd premolars
d. Permanent canines, 1st and 2nd premolars
50. Diastema between maxillary central incisors after the eruption of the canines is caused by:
a. Narrow M-D widths of the max. Centrals
b. Erupted or non-erupted mesiodens
c. Abnormal frenum in size & attachment
d. Letters A & C
e. All of the above
51. Mandibular anterior crowding in a child may be due to:

a. Genetic lack of arch space
b. Imbalance of too much tooth material for the available space
c. Overactive mandibular lip
d. Letters A &B
e. Letters A,B,C
52. The best guidelines for the dentist in deciding whether the mandibular incisors may be moved or tipped labially
to relieve crowding is:
a. Tweed’s rule
b. William’s diagnostic line alone
c. Combination of A & B
53. Hawley retainers are used for:

a. Minor tooth movement
b. Retention of teeth after active correction
c. Bodily movement
54. For lip-tongue therapy in children the appliance highly recommended is:
a. Oral shield or screen
b. Mouth guard
c. R-R appliance
d. Hawley’s plate
55. Class I type 3 is distinguished from Class II type I by the ff.:

a. Class I molar relationship with ant. X-bite
b. Class III shows overdevelopment of the mandible
c. Class III has long body of the mandible
d. Letters B & C only
e. All of the above
56. For single simple in-locked incisor, the least expensive method and the least time-consuming appliance used in
correcting it is:
a. Tongue blade held 45 degrees to long axis of the questionable tooth
b. Lower crylic inclined plane
c. Upper lightarchwire
d. Upper heavy labial archwire
57. The clasps used for retention of removable plates in the maxillary primary arch is:
a. Adam’s clasp
b. Circular clasp
c. Circumferential clasp
d. U-clasp
58. In serial extraction of primary dentition what eruption sequence is encouraged to take place and is considered
as a basic principle in space supervision protocol?
a. Mandible supervision canines, 1st & 2nd premolars???
b. Maxillary 1st & 2nd premolars
c. Maxillary 1st & 2nd premolars and mandibular canines
59. Space supervision protocol for mesial step or Class I cases involves these important steps:
a. Removal of mandibular canines & 1st primary molar
b. Slicing of mandibular 2nd molar
c. Lingual archwire installation and extraction of primary 2 nd molar
d. A & B only
e. Letters A,B,C
60. One should base the orthodontic treatment of a gross discrepancy problem on:
a. Facial skeletal analysis
b. Cast analysis
c. Mixed dentition analysis
d. Nance analysis
61. Childhood disease, like chickenpox is what type of cause of malocclusion?

a. Principal
b. Primary
c. Systemic
d. Contributory
62. Primate spaces are located:

a. Distal to the primary canines
b. Distal to the centrals only
c. Distal to the laterals only
d. Among the maxillary anterior only
63. Normal lip posture is a characteristic of:

a. Delayed act of swallowing
b. Abnormal act of swallowing
c. Matured act of swallowing
d. Infantile act of swallowing
64. Bilateral class II is considered as:

a. Abnormally in size of the dental arches
b. Osseous dysplasia
c. Dental abnormality
d. Abnormality in number of teeth
65. The first primary teeth to undergo resorption of the roots at four years of age are, according to Dr. G. B. Black
a. Canines
b. Lateral incisors
c. Premolars
d. Central incisors
66. This condition doesn’t involve the tongue

a. Geographic tongue
b. Macroglosia
c. Microglosia
d. Wondering rash
67. Detection of early carious lesions can be done among children as early as:
a. At 6 years old
b. Completed permanent set
c. Completed primary set
d. Not later 2 years old
68. Prolonged retention of primary teeth may:

a. Hasten the eruption of the permanent teeth
b. Cause resorption of permanent successors
c. Hasten the resorption of the roots of the deciduous
d. Disturb the path of permanent teeth
69. In predicting the adult occlusion, a flush terminal plane in the primary dentition:
a. Insures an Angle Class II molar relationship
b. Insures a good antero-position growth probability
c. Insures good vertical growth probability
d. Insures an Angle Class I molar relationship
70. Congenitally missing teeth is associated with developmental disturbance during:

a. Eruption
b. Exfoliation
c. Formation
d. Function
71. Retention periods in orthodontics are necessary because:
a. None of these
b. The teeth will become mobile if retention is nor employed
c. It will further move and correct the anomaly
d. The ligaments in the gingiva must be established
72. In order to restore the original broad and flat contact of primary molars, the class II matrix material should be
placed with:
a. Less contour than in the permanent
b. Equal curvature with the permanent
c. Greater curvature than in the permanent
d. Irregular curvature than with the permanent
73. What is perpetual recurrent dental plaque initiated by?

a. Marginal osteoporosis
b. Marginal periodontoclassica
c. Marginal resorption
d. Marginal periodontitis
74. In order to counter act forces which tend to displace teeth during orthodontic movement there must be
sufficient:
a. Resisting and counterclockwise forces
b. Anchorage
c. Active elements of the ortho appliance
d. Auxiliary parts of the ortho appliance
75. Immediately after the loss of primary molars they should be considered:
a. Hawley’s retainer
b. Space maintainer
c. Expansion plate
d. Space regainer
76. Maxillary anterior teeth are most likely to be fractured in children with:
a. Class II type 3
b. Class II division 1
c. Class I malocclusion
d. Claps II division 2
77. The most important dental tissue to an orthodontist is the:

a. Pulpal tissue
b. Periodontal ligament
c. Enamel
d. Cementum
78. Early extraction of primary teeth is to be avoided because the periodontrium is:
a. Only a portion remains intact
b. Intact
c. Totally resorbed
d. Enhanced to develop
79. Growth may result in the following excluding:

a. Continuous increase in size
b. Change in texture or in quantity
c. Increase or decrease in size
d. Changes in form or proportion
80. The normal sequence of primary eruption is as follows:

a. Mandibular molars then maxillary molars followed by the canines
b. Mandibular teeth ahead of the maxillary
c. EDCBA:ABCDE
d. EBDCA:ACDBE
e. EBDCA: ACDBE
81. Toddlers present fewer behavioral problems in the clinic because:

a. Child’s passion run high and it comes and goes quickly
b. Facts and fancy can be interchangeable
c. Satisfaction in each other’s nearness brought about by parallel play
d. Child’s passion run high is interrelated
82. _________ is helpful in lip and tongue therapy in establishing normal swallowing pattern in a child:
a. Oral screen
b. Vestibular shield
c. Modified Hawley’s plate
d. Oral screen is another name for vestibular shield
83. Angle believed these teeth were positively stable landmarks in the cranium and hence mesial or distal
relationship of the mandibular arch and body of the mandible could be analyzed:
a. Permanent incisors
b. Permanent canines
c. Permanent first molars
d. Permanent premolars
84. During orthodontic movement, the tissue which provides the building and destruction of the bone is the:
a. Alveolar bone
b. Ligamentous attachment
c. Muscular tissue
d. Periodontal membrane
85. The appliances which is effective in eliminating thumb sucking habit is:
a. Oral shield
b. Tongue rake
c. Denhaltz
d. Palatal crib (fixed type)
86. The mandible grows posteriorly and superiorly and is displaced:

a. None of these enumerated choices
b. Anteriorly and posteriorly
c. Anteriorly and inferiorly
d. Anterior and superior
87. Basic form of the arch is not determined by:

a. Growing basal bone
b. Developing tooth germs
c. Heredity
d. Neuromuscular maturation
88. This is a type of a minor malocclusion in early child development which may correct by itself it is:
a. Edge-to-edge bite
b. Anterior cross bite
c. “ugly duckling stage”
d. Posterior cross bite
89. A max. perm. Central incisor in linguoversion may be brought into its position if:
a. Mandibular teeth are crowded
b. There is sufficient space to receive it
c. The adjacent teeth are present
d. The child is conscious of the malocclusion
90. __________ does not belong to these orthodontic diagnostic procedures for determining the causes of
mandibular crowding
a. Mixed dentition analysis
b. Cephalometric analysis
c. Nance’s analysis
d. Peck and peck analysis
91. Serial extraction is a treatment procedure for anterior crowding and when anterior –posterior relationship of
jaws is normal, during
a. Mixed period
b. Late primary period
c. Adult period
d. Early primary period
92. An example of a bilateral functional space maintainer is:

a. Lingual holding arch
b. Space regainer
c. Removable partial denture
d. Band & loop space maintainer
93. Dental restorations involving the proximal surfaces in primary teeth, particularly molars should restore full M-D
diameter for:
a. Appearance of the child’s 3 face
b. Maintenance of arch length
c. Reducing fracture of the filling
d. Aids in speech production
94. Apthous ulcers are found in the:

a. Uvula
b. Mucosa
c. Gingiva
d. Faucal tonsils
95. Serial extraction can be started after the abnormal eruption pattern of:
a. Permanent canines
b. Permanent first molars
c. Premolars or bicuspids
d. Permanent lateral incisors
96. Class II division 2 manifest:

a. An abnormal lip posture
b. Lips closed together and of the same size
c. Hypertonic mandibular lip
d. Hypotonic maxillary lip
97. A pedodontist deals only with:
a. Two dentitions
b. One dentition
c. Three dentitions
d. Four dentitions
98. Maximum duration of wearing an inclined plane is:

a. 2 years
b. 6 weeks
c. 10 weeks
d. 6 years
99. Bolton’s analysis determines not all of the following:

a. Degree of overbite and overjet
b. M-D widths of the teeth is causing the crowding
c. Abnormal M-D widths is causing the crowding and the degree of overbite and overjet
d. Degree of alveolar insufficiency
100. The disadvantage of simple single anchorage is that the anchor teeth may:
a. Not rotate
b. Moved bodily
c. Tip
d. Maintains vertical
101. During the primary dentition these are normally observed and are favorable for proper occlusion of the
permanent teeth:
a. Proximal surfaces of the teeth are in closed contact
b. Overlapping of the proximal surfaces
c. Growth spaces are present
d. End to end relationship of the primary molars
102. Myofunctional therapy is used for the following purposes except:

a. Improves muscular tonicity
b. Adjunct to mechanic therapy
c. Establishes an acceptable facial appearance
d. Correct malocclusion
103. Interdigitation of the deciduous teeth starts:

a. On the anterior as the incisors erupt
b. On both the anterior and posterior segments
c. On middle portion of the dental arches
d. On the posterior as the first molar erupt
104. True class III malocclusion presents all these features, except:
a. Long body of the mandible
b. Retrognatic profile
c. Concave facial profile
d. Excessive mesial step
105. The molar relationship in skeletal class III is in:
a. End-to-end
b. Excessive distal step
c. Cross-bite
d. Excessive mesial step
106. __________ compliments intraoral roentgenography and is not intended to replace the complete intraoral
roentgenographic survey:
a. Occlusal x-rays
b. Extraoral lateral radiographs
c. Panoramic radiographs
d. Pantographs
107. If the norm for cephalo angle SNA is 82 degrees and a patient’s reading for SNA is 90 degrees, this would likely
indicate:
a. Maxillary prognathism
b. Protrusive max. incisors
c. Anterior displacement of the cranial base
d. Patients ethnic background
108. A disadvantage of removable space maintainer is that it:

a. May not be worn by the patient
b. Will not maintain vertical dimension
c. Cannot be made esthetic
d. Is difficult to keep clean
109. The person who introduced edgewise mechanism is:

a. Hippocrates
b. Edward H. Angle
c. Pierre Fauchard
d. Kingsley
110. The gathering of data or information regarding the past and present medical and dental history of a patient is:
a. Prognosis
b. Classification
c. Examination
d. Diagnosis
111. Facial profile in pseudo class III is:

a. Orthognatic
b. Prognathic
c. Convex
d. Retrognathic
112. The gonial angle from childhood on:

a. Become obtuse
b. Become acute
c. Becomes smaller till 8 years old
d. Remains constant
113. In the mixed dentition, when ankylosed teeth are 2 mm. or more below the occlusal plane of the adjacent teeth,
this is indicated
a. Space supervision
b. Space maintenance
c. Extraction
d. Space regaining
114. In terms of incidence of malocclusion, supervision of the child’s development of occlusion is most critical
between the ages:
a. 11-16 years old
b. 12-16 years old
c. 3-5 years old
d. 6-10 years old
115. Enlargement of the cartilage occurs by:

a. Both appositional and interstitial growth
b. Interstitial growth only
c. Appositional growth first then resorption
d. Appositional growth only
116. Frankfurt horizontal plane is a reference plane constructed by joining the following landmarks
a. Porion and sella
b. Porion and nasion
c. Porion and orbitale
d. Nasion and sella
117. __________ is a physiologic process manifested only by the deciduous dentition:

a. Ankyloses
b. Cementosis
c. Dilacerations
d. Resorption & subsequent
118. There is differential between girls and boys with respect to the age at which growth velocity reaches its peak. It
is:
a. Girls are one year ahead of boys
b. Boys are one year ahead of girls
c. Girls are two years ahead of boys
d. Boys are two years ahead of girls
119. Space maintenance for conservation of arch circumference for uncooperative patient is:
a. Labio-lingual arch wire
b. Fixed partial denture
c. Fixed lingual arch wire
d. Removable partial denture
120. In the presence of a maxillary Frenum and a diastema between the central incisors in an 8 year child’s mouth,
what should be done?
a. Refer to an oral surgeon for frenectomy
b. Observe until the permanent caries erupt
c. Refer to an orthodontist for space closure
d. Leave the case because no treatment is indicated
121. Relieving the bite by grinding the opposing teeth is done for:
a. Fractured crowns of maxillary anterior
b. Concussion of teeth
c. Fractured root of anterior
d. Avulsed teeth
122. Deep mento-labial sulcus is often seen in a :

a. Primary period
b. Mixed period
c. Class I type 3
d. Permanent period
123. Serial extraction of the primary teeth which provides an eruption sequence of __________ is one of the basic
principles in space supervision protocol:
a. Canines and 1st and 2nd mandibular molars
b. Canines, 1st and 2nd mandibular premolars
c. 1st and 2nd premolars and 2nd molar in the maxillary
d. Canines, 1st and 2nd maxillary premolars
124. For stabilization of a tooth with a root fracture is accomplished using:

a. Ligature stainless steel wire, 30 gauge
b. Gold wire 30 gauge
c. Brass wire 30 gauge
d. Copper wire 30 gauge
125. The best space maintainer in the oral cavity of children:

a. Implants
b. Natural teeth
c. All of the choices
d. False teeth
126. Clinically an anterior mild crowding of the arch is recognized during the early transitional period. Which
treatment is indicated?
a. Perform an x-ray exam
b. Strip all wide incisors
c. Make full mouth impression of the case
d. Perform a space analysis
127. Extraction of primary molars without x-ray be generalists should not be considered as a:
a. Preventive method
b. Surgical method
c. Corrective method
d. Interceptive method???
128. Mobility of the teeth is the most important factor to consider when treating:
a. Trauma due to fail
b. Trauma due to premature occlusal contact
c. Trauma due to over correction
d. Trauma due to over splinting
129. An eight year old boy sucks his fingers. An anti-sucking fixed appliances is to be constructed so the anchor bands
should be placed:
a. Primary first molars
b. Primary second molars
c. Permanent second molars
d. Permanent first molars
130. What is usually a reflection of the antero-posterior skeletal relationship in the dentition?
a. Overbite
b. Axial inclination
d. Overjet
131. An index to determine whether the lower incisor teeth are excessively wide mesiodistally and to indicate that
the good incisor and its mesiodistal dimension should be approximately 1:1 is _____________ analysis:
a. Nance's
b. Bolton's
c. Peck and peck's
d. Mixed dentition
132. The following branchial arch is the origin of the mandible:

a. 4th
b. 3rd
c. 1st
d. 2nd
133. Among the following which offers the most success in the treatment of the tipping movement during the age
range of 5 to 8 years:
a. Rotated teeth
b. Simple single malposed teeth
c. Supraversion
d. Infraversion
134. Gross malocclusion of the anterior teeth caused by a hyperactive mentalis muscle is corrected by:
a. Hawley appliance
b. Lip plumper
c. Oral screen
d. Muscle exercise
135. The contraindications for the removal of primary teeth includes:
1. Presence of acute oral infection
2. Presence of acute system infection
3. Children with controlled diabetes mellitus
4. Leukemia
a. 1 only
b. 1, 2,3,4?????
c. 1,2,3
d. 1,2
136. In the primary dentition an important preventive orthodontic measure is:

a.Proper restorations of the primary molar s especially the interproximal spaces
b.All of the choices
c. Placing space maintainers
d.Placing space regainers
137. In a serial extraction, in a crowded arch as the permanent central incisors erupt, the first teeth to be extracted
are the:
a.First primary molars
b.Primary canine
c. Primary lateral incisors
d.Permanent lateral incisors
138. The size of the succedaneous teeth and the space available in the arch can be predicted by:
a.Tanaka and Johnson analysis
b.Mixed dentition analysis
c. Bolton analysis
d.Peck and Peck's analysis
139. The treatment of deep bite cases for a 10 year old child is the following appliance:
a.Cervical headgear???
b.High-pull headgear
c. Anterior bite plane
d.Anterior bite plane and cervical headgear
140. If the mandibular primary cuspids are to be extracted because of caries:

a.It can be left unattended because it is in the anterior segment
b.The space should be maintained with a lingual arch
c. The space will provide just enough space for the alignment of the mandibular lateral incisors
d.The space should be maintained with a bilateral band and loop
141. A distal step in the primary dentition will result in:
a.End-to end molar relationship
b.Cl II molar relationship
c. Cl I molar relationship
d.Cl III molar relationship
142. The term used to described the compressed and degenerated periodontal membrane during orthodontic
movement is:
a.Compression
b.Atrophy
c. Resorption
d.Hyalinization
143. The failure of the periodontal ligament to develop results in:

a.Ankylosis
b.Impaction
c. Premature resorption
d.Ectopic eruption
144. A functional shift of the mandible during closure maybe caused by:
a. Cuspal prematurities
b. None of the choices
c. Condylar assymetries
d. Both choices
145. The shortening of the dental arch length of the maxilla and mandible always occur during the:
a. Primary dentition
b. Permanent dentition
c. Mixed dentition
d. Transitional dentition
146. During the transition from the primary to the permanent dentition the arch length generally:
a. Remains the same in both arches
b. Increases in the maxillary arch while it decrease in the mandibular arch
c. Decreases in both arches
d. Remains the same in the maxillary arch wile it decreases in the mandibular arch
147. A space maintainer can be placed in the dental arch under the following conditions:
1. Loss of one or more primary teeth
2. No loss of arch parameter
3. Favorable mixed dentition analysis
4. Early eruption of the first permanent molar which has mesially moved
a. 1,2,3
b. 1 and 2
c. 1,2,4
d. 1 only
148. The general characteristics of dental age eleven is the eruption of the:
a. Maxillary 1st premolar
b. Maxillary canine
c. Mandibular canine
d. Mandibular 1st premolar
149. The anterior open bite caused by mouth breathing as a result of enlarge adenoids is best managed by:
a. Referring to a pediatrician regarding the adenoids
b. Tongue crib
c. Habit breaking appliances
d. An oral screen
150. The first teeth to erupt in the deciduous dentition are the:
a. Mandibular 1st molars
b. Mandibular central incisors
c. Maxillary central incisors
d. Mandibular second molars
151. The ephyseal plates of long bones are examples of:

a. Growth sites
b. Growth fields
c. Deposition centers
d. Growth centers
152. A dental posterior crossbite of the permanent molar without mandibular shift can be corrected by the following:
a.Occlusal equilibrium
b.Expansion of the arch with a w-arch appliance
c. Cross bite elastics
d.Quad helix
153. What spaces are found distal to the primary teeth and are prominent in the maxillary arch?
a. Developmental
b. Growth
c. Diastema
d. Primate
154. After the permanent canines have erupted, midline diastema maybe caused by:
a. Fibrous labial frenum
b. All of these
c. Mesiodens
d. A supernumerary tooth
155. Among the following the growth sites are:
1. Sutures
2. Maxillary tuberosity
3. Synchondroses
4. Condyle
a. 1,2,3 and 4
b. 1 only
c. 1,2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
156. The most retruded are restrained position of the mandible in which the anterosuperior surfaces of the condyles
are in contact with the concavities of the articular disk is known as the:
a. Centric occlusion
b. Centric relation
c. Physiologic rest
d. Terminal hinge position
157. The long face syndrome is associated with:

a. Nail biting
b. Depression
c. Tongue thrusting
d. Mouth breathing
158. The following tooth buds are initiated after birth:

a. Permanent dentition
b. Primary set
c. 1st and 2nd premolars
d. 1st and 2nd and 3rd molars
159. What practice constitutes preventive and interceptive orthodontics?

a. Endodontics
b. Orthodontics
c. General dentistry
d. Prosthodontics
160. During the transition period from the early mixed dentition to the permanent dentition, dimensional changes
occur in the overbite and overjet. These are:
a. Overbite and overjet increases
b. Overbite and overjet decreases
c. Overbite decreases while overjet remains the same??
d. Overbite remains the same while overjet decreases
161. An over retained root should be extracted:

a. Wait and see until the succedaneous tooth has erupted so that the roots of the primary tooth will be resorbed
b. As a general rule
c. As soon as he succedaneous tooth start to erupt
d. As soon as it is observed that the succedaneous tooth will be malposed when it erupts
162. The primate spaces in abnormal primary dentition are located in:
1. The canine and lateral incisor in the maxillary arch
2. The canine and lateral incisor in the mandibular arch
3. The first primary molar and the canine in the maxillary arch
4. The first primary molar and canine in the mandibular arch
a. 1, 4
b. 2 and 3
c. 2,4
d. 1 and 2
163. The space maintainer of choice for a bilateral and multiple loss of molars in the maxillary arch is:
a. Nance's holding arch
b. Band and loop
c. Lingual holding arch
d. Removable space maintainer
164. The best means of assessment of the skeletal relationships and growth directions is made by analysis of landmarks
in a:
a. Panoramic x-ray
b. Lateral skull x-ray
c. Cephalometric radiograph
d. Dental casts
165. In the federation Dentaire Internationale nomenclature which of the following denotes the deciduous set:
a. First five letters of the alphabet
b. Last five letters of the alphabet
c. Arabic numerals
d. Roman numerals
166. The downward displacement of the maxilla is effected by the:

a. Nasomaxillary suture
b. Frontozygomatic suture
c. Nasal cartilage
d. Frontomaxillary suture
167. The following is the difference in size between the primary teeth and their permanent successors in the posterior
segment:
a. Posterior size discrepancy
b. Nance's leeway space
c. Late mesial shift
d. Posterior liability
168. The following can be the results of unrestored or improper filled proximal caries of the deciduous molar:
a. High and labial cuspids in the maxillary arch
b. Both choices
c. Crowding of the posterior segment in the permanent dentition
d. None of the choices
169. The mandibular 1st permanent molar usually comes mesially tipped and very likely shows a lingual tipping when
the mandibular primary molars are lost early. This is the result of:
a. Absence of space maintainer
b. Absence of the lingual root
c. Strong action of the cheeks
d. Absence of the primary second molars are the
170. The first permanent tooth in the oral cavity which accedes into the oral cavity behind the primary second molars
are the:
a. 1st permanent molars
b. 3rd molar
c. Canines
d. 2nd permanent molars
171. The following is used to analyze the proportionally of tooth sizes in the maxillary and mandibular arches:
a. Bolton's analysis
b. Holdaway ratio
c. Peck and peck's analysis
d. Mixed dentition analysis
172. Nolla's stage of development number 6 (stage 6) is:

a. 2/3 of the crown is completed
b. The crown is completed
c. The crown is element completed
d. 1/3 of the crown is completed
173. The bone response when pressure is applied is:

a. Formation
b. All of the choices
c. Resorption
d. Tension
174. Functional malocclusions and dual bites are diagnosed by the following position of the mandible:
a. Retruded contact
b. Protrusive
c. Intercuspal registration
d. Retrusive
175. The 1st permanent molar achieves a Cl I molar relationship by means of the following except:
a. Late mesial shift
b. A greater forward growth of the mandible
c. An early mesial shift
d. The Nance’s leeway space
176. The management of a large distance between the maxillary central incisors at age 12 is:
a. All of the choices
b. Rule out fibrous labial frenum
c. Recommend closure with fixed appliances
d. Taking an x-ray to find out the presence of a mesiodens
177. Skeletal growth spurts are predicted by the following development physiologic events:
1. Increase in height
2. Menarche
3. Increase in weight
4. Ossification of the adductor sesamoid
a. 1,2 and 4
b. 1,3,4
c. 1 and 2
d. 1,2 and 3
178. An adjunctive diagnostic tool for treatment planning orthodontics that gives information as possible growth
pattern and can give accurate bone age picture of the patient is:
a. Cephalometric radiograph
b. Panoramic radiograph
c. Tomogram
d. Hand-wrist radiograph
179. The equivalent physiologic orthodontic force is:

a. Normal venous pressure
b. Normal arterial pressure
c. Combination of arterial and venous blood pressure
d. Normal capillary blood pressure
180. The sequence and time of eruption of the permanent teeth are largely determined by:
a. Nutrition
b. Race
c. Habits
d. Genes
181. What space problem is manageable in a generally practitioner's office?

a. Space closure
b. Space maintenance
c. Space regaining
d. Space supervision
182. The following are abnormal muscle and pressure habits EXCEPTS
a. Mouth breathing
b. Finger-sucking
c. Tongue thrusting
d. Hypertrophy of the mandible
183. At age 8 a lingually erupting maxillary lateral incisor can be intercepted by:
1. Using a tongue blade
2. Using an inclined plane
3. Instructing the child to use the thumb to push the lateral incisor
4. The use of a hawley appliance with an activated finger spring at the lingual surface of the lateral incisors
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 2,3, and 4
c. 1,2 and 4
d. All of the choices
184. In most removable appliances the type of clasp used is the _______ clasp:
a. Adam
b. Circumferential
c. Arrowhead
d. Ball
185. The site of growth in the mandible which serve as attachments of the external pterygoid muscle:
a. coronoid process
b. angle of the mandible
c. condyloid process
d. ramus of the mandible
186. An archal dimension completed earlier among girls at 10 years of age than in:
a. intercanine length
b. intercanine width
c. intercanine distance
d. intercanine depth
187. Based on Angle’s classification of malocclusion, Class I is also considered as:

a. neuromuscular dysplasia
b. Skeleto-dental dysplasia
c. skeletal dysplasia
d. dental dysplasia
188. The principal tissue involved in Class I, malocclusion is the :

a. teeth
b. soft oral tissues
c. neuro-muscular tissues
d. bone tissue
189. Bimaxillary protrusion usually fall in this category:

a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV
190. Class II malocclusion is a:
a. dental dysplasia
b. neuromuscular dysplasia
c. skeletal dysplasia
191. True Class III malocclusion is most likely:

a. acquired
b. accidental
c. hereditary
d. racial
192. What kind of speech sounds is produced with nasopharyngeal incompetence?

a. sibilants
b. Hypernasal
c. Consonants
d. Hyponasal??
193. The presence of a diastema between the central incisors between ages 7-8 should be:
a. treated at ones and recommended for orthodontic closure
b. closed using a Hawley active appliance
c. One of the choices
d. observed because it will resolve by itself
194. The classification of a malocclusion presenting 1st permanent molars in disto-occlusion excessive lingual inclination
of the maxillary central incisors and excessive labial the maxillary lateral incisors is
a. Cl I division 2
b. Cl II division 1
c. Cl I division 1
d. Cl II division 2
195. The position of the mandible allows maximum intercuspation of the maxillary and mandibular teeth is:
a. Centric position
b. Centric occlusion centric relation
c. None of the choices
d. All of the choices
196. Which do not affect tooth eruption?
a. Physical growth
b. Heredity
c. localized pathology
d. systemic disease
197. The process of bone growth by addition of bone tissue on one side and resorption in the order is known as
a. Displacement
b. Translocation
c. Deposition
d. Drift.
198. An important mediator of cellular response which has the capacity to stimulate both osteo osteoblastic activity are
the:
a. Piezoelectricity
b. Prostaglandin
c. Interleukins
d. Cytokinins
199. The type of bone formation that goes through cartilage formation with its replacement by osteogenic tissue is:
a. Perichondral formation
b. Periosteal bone formation
c. Intramembranous formation
d. Endochondral formation
200. The bone reaction adjacent to the hyalinized tissue during the initial period of tooth movement is:
a. Compression
b. Formation
c. Resorption
d. Calcification
201. A child’s behavior problem in dental office can be handled by familiarization if the basis of the problem is:
a. The parents
b. Pain
c. Emotional
d. Fear
202. An understanding of the development of human behavior requires a knowledge of the basic concepts of:
a. Generalization and facilitation
b. Dependence and independence
c. Maturation and learning
d. Masculinity and femininity
203. A 3-year-old child is frightened by sudden noises, bright lights, loss of support; this behavior is described
as anxiety related to:
a. Abstract thinking
b. Slow mental maturation
c. Concrete fears
a. Reflex reactio
204. During the first appointment the dentist can begin to train a nervous child to be a good dental patient
by:
a. Maintaining a quiet, controlled office
b. Showing, telling, and doing with each instrument and piece of equipment
c. Making sudden unexplained adjustments in the dental chair
d. Separating the child form the mother without warning
e. Expressing appreciation of good behavior by means of a gift
205. In a dental situation the basic fear of most children under 2 years of age is concerned with:
a. Separation from the parent
b. Injections of local anesthetics
c. The reason for dental treatment
d. The instruments to perform dental treatment
e. The instruments to perform dental treatment
206. Systemic fluoridation maybe accomplished by means of:

1. Water fluoridation
2. Tablet supplement
3. Drop or liquid supplement
4. Mouth wash
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. All of the above
207. Which of the following is the most effective way to combat dental disease?
a. Establish a community fluoridation program
b. Careful dietary control emphasizing elimination of sweets
c. Incremental dental care coupled with community water fluoridation
d. Use of a program composed of community water fluoridation and additional topical fluoridation
e. Regular prophylaxis followed by topical applications of fluoride
208. The use of which of the following adjunctive aids is necessary to check on the efficacy of an oral prophylaxis for a
young patient?
a. Disclosing solution
b. Sandpaper strip
c. Snyder test
d. Unwaxed floss
209. The final responsibility for the performance of the preventive and control dental treatment techniques rest with:
a. Parents
b. Community programs
c. Practicing dentists
d. School dental clinics
e. Public health departments
210. Which oral abnormality is commonly found in children with cleidocranial dysostosis?
a. Alveolar clefts
b. Premature loss of primary teeth
c. Micrognathia
d. High caries incidence
e. Multiple supernumerary and unerupted teeth
211. a supernumerary tooth results from a deviation during:
a. Initiation
b. Differentiation
c. Apposition
d. Calcification
212. Amelogenesis imperfecta (hypocalcification type) is an hereditary abnormality. The radiographic appearance of
these teeth is characterized by:
a. A sharp contrast in enamel and dentin density
b. No sharp contrast in enamel and dentin density
c. Neither of the above
d. Amelogestic imperfect is only apparent as a hyproplastic defect
213. A primary second molar is in infraocclusion and its occlusal surface is level with the gingival margin of the
permanent first molars which is beginning to tip mesial. Radiographs indicate a developing permanent second
premolar is present. The dentist should:
a. Extract the primary molar and place a space maintainer
b. Extract the primary molar
c. Maintain the primary molar, since it will not drift
d. Maintain the primary molar since they occasionally re-erupt
214. Extremely early loss of primary teeth results in:

a. No change in the time of eruption of the permanent teeth
b. Early eruption of the permanent teeth
c. Delayed eruption of the permanent teeth
d. Ankylosis of the permanent tooth
215. Disturbances in the morphodifferentiation stage of the development of the tooth germ result in:
a. An abnormal number of teeth
b. Ameloblastomas
c. Abnormal forms and sizes of teeth
d. All of the above
216. A 5-year-old child with a massive cellulitis of dental origin did not respond to penicillin therapy, and a broad
spectrum tetracycline antibiotic was prescribed. It is possible that side-effects of tetracycline administration will
later be seen in which of the following teeth?
a. Canines and second molars
b. Premolars
c. Incisor and premolars
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
217. While excavating carious dentin in a permanent first molar of a 7-year-old child, a pulp exposure about the size
of a No.6 bur is discovered. There is no periapical involvement of the tooth. The pulp is vital. The treatment of
choice is to:
a. Cap the exposure
b. Perform a pulpotomy
c. Perform a pulpectomy
d. Extract the tooth and place a space maintainer
218. Following amputation of the coronal portion of the pulp of an immature permanent first molar, the stump
should be capped with:
a. Formocresol
b. Calcium chloride
c. Thymol zinc oxide
d. Calcium hydroxide
219. Indirect pulp capping procedures on primary molars are indicated when:
a. Removal of decay has exposed the pulp
b. A tooth has a large, long-standing lesion with a history of continuous pain
c. The carious lesion has just penetrated the dentinoenamel junction
d. The carious lesion is suspected of producing an exposure of the pulp
220. The cotton pellet applied to the pulpal stumps in the formocresol pulpotomy technique should be:
a. Slightly dampened with formocresol
b. Saturated with formocresol
c. Left in place for 15 minutes
d. Left in place after the second visit
221. A primary central incisor may be allowed to re-erupt after it has been traumatically intruded if:
a. Splinting is impossible
b. There is no danger to the permanent successor
c. It cannot be extracted
d. None of the above
222. The change in color of traumatized primary incisor usually results from all the following except:
a. Laceration of periodontal fibers
b. Diffusion of biliverdin into the dentinal tubules
c. Development of a heavy layer of secondary dentin
d. Internal resorption of dentin within the crown
223. A child 9 years of age received a traumatic fracture without exposure to his central incisor. The pulp test 2 days
after the injury was negative. The dentist should consider the condition of the pulp as:
a. Nonvital
b. Hyporemic
c. Hyperemic
d. Requiring retesting in 2 weeks
224. A severe blow to a permanent anterior tooth, not causing fracture, frequently leads to:
a. Permanent looseness
b. Immediate pulpal death
c. Pulpal death, but only if treatment is delayed too long
d. Pulpal death regardless of treatment
e. None of the above
225. The radiograph of a traumatized tooth is necessary to:

a. Assess the stage of root development
b. Determine the presence or absence of root fractures
c. Have a base from which comparisons can be made with future radiographs
d. All of the above
226. If a vitality test taken immediately after a traumatic blow to a tooth is negative, this indicates that the tooth
should be:
a. Immediately considered for a pulpectomy
b. Observed for a period of 10 days to 2 weeks and then another vitality test taken
c. Ignored unless it becomes symptomatic
d. Given a test cavity preparation without anesthesia to determine vitality
227. In festooning and trimming a stainless steel crown, special attention must be paid to the greater length
necessary in the region of mesiobuccal bulge in the:
a. Primary first molar
b. Primary second molar
c. Maxillary primary canine
d. Maxillary lateral primary incisor
228. What single morphologic characteristic of the permanent first molar necessitates early restorative procedures in
most children?
a. Mesial proximal contact
b. Deep grooves and fissures
c. Large pulp chamber
d. Early beginning of calcification
e. Presence of an auxiliary cusp
229. In tooth preparation for a steel crown, the surface requiring the least amount of reduction is the:
a. Distal
b. Buccal
c. Mesial
d. Lingual
e. Occlusal
230. In placing an alloy in the Class II preparation on a primary tooth, much consideration is given to the placement
of the matrix band and wedging because the contact point is:
a. Broad and flat
b. Narrow and close to the marginal ridge
c. Closer to the buccal, and the wedge should be placed from the lingual
d. Closer to the lingual, and the wedge should be placed from the buccal
231. The pulp horn which is most likely to be exposed during cavity preparation on a primary molar is the:
a. Mesiobuccal horn of the primary first molar
b. Distobuccal horn of the primary first molar
c. Mesiolingual horn of the primary second molar
d. Distobuccal horn of the primary second molar
232. The isthmus of a Class II cavity preparation in the primary molar is broad and shallow to:
a. Provide for adequate bulk of restorative material
b. Assist in achieving a right angle cavosurface margin at the lateral walls of the proximal box
c. Minimize the possibility of pulp horn exposure
d. All of the above
e. A and B
233. When the proximal portion of Class II cavity preparation of a primary molar extends rather gingivally, a
satisfactory gingival seat may not be obtained because the:
a. Enamel rods in the gingival third of the primary tooth extend occlusally
b. Buccal and lingual surfaces of primary molars converge occlusally
c. Proximal contact of primary molars is broad and flat
d. Primary teeth have a marked cervical constriction
234. The dove tail of on a modified Class III cavity preparation in the primary dentition should be accentual
toward the:
a. Gingival
b. Incisal
c. Midline
d. Crest of the contour of the tooth
235. The gingival seat cavosurface margin of a Class II preparation in a primary tooth should be:
a. Left unbeveled because of the angle of the enamel rods
b. Beveled to reduce occurrence of caries
c. Beveled to removed unsupported enamel rods
d. Beveled about the same as for a permanent tooth
236. Dental restoration involving the proximal surfaces in the primary dentition, particularly molars, should restore
the full mesiodistal diameter for:
a. The appearance of the child
b. Maintenance of arch length
c. Proper bulk of restorative material to minimize fracture
d. Aid in the digestion of food
237. Immediate antibiotic coverage is indicated for periodontal abscesses in children due to high incidence of
subsequence cellulitis:
a. The statement is true, and the reason is true
b. The statement is true, but the reason is false
c. The statement is false, and the reason is false
d. The statement is false, but the reason is true
238. A 2 ½-year-old child has an acute oral infection characterized by small reddish yellow vesicle in the buccal
mucosa and on the hard palate. The temperature is 102 o F, the mouth is sore, and the child will not eat or drink.
The condition described is:
a. Candidiasis
b. Infantile impetigo
c. Acute herpetic stomatitis
d. Acute streptococcal infection
e. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
239. In a patient with a suspended case of leukemia and a badly infected primary tooth, the procedure of choice
would be to:
a. Administer antibiotic and refer the patient to a physician
b. Consult with a physician before determining the course of action
c. Obtain a blood count and admit the child to a hospital for extraction
d. Provide palliative treatment only
e. Extract the tooth under local anesthetics and refer the patient to a physician
240. If one single factor could be designated as contributing most to the development of simple gingivitis in children,
it would be:
a. High fever
b. Poor oral hygiene
c. Pernicious oral habit
d. Physical nature of food ingested
241. For a patient with general acute herpetic stomatitis, a dentist should:
a. Begin series of treatments with diluted chickenpox vaccines
b. Gently debride the mouth, sustain oral hygiene, and treat the elevated temperature
c. Immediately distinguish from acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis with bacterial cultures
d. Promptly prescribed 300,000 units of penicillin orally
242. __________ is the bedrock strategy upon which all of pediatric dental behavior management rests.
a. Tell- show-do (TSD)
b. Positive reinforcement
c. Distraction
d. Non-verbal communication
243. Excessive flouride levels in drinking water are associated with fluorosis. Fluoride levels in excess of
_______ begin to pose a risk for fluorosis.
a. One part per million
b. Two parts per million
c. Three parts per million
d. Four parts per million
244. When treating a child who is obviously afraid, the dentist should:
a. Use restraint
b. Use the hand-over-mouth technique (HOME)
c. Permit the child to express his fear
d. Avoid all reference to the child’s fear
245. The process of shaping a patient’s behavior through appropriately feedback is called:
a. Tell-show-do
b. Voice control
c. Positive reinforcement
d. Distraction
e. Nonverbal communication
246. The management of a child who must undergo dental extractions is based on which of the following
factors?
a. The age and maturity of the child
b. The past medical and dental experiences that might influence the behavior of the child
c. The physical status of the child
d. The length of time and amount of manipulation necessary to accomplish the surgery
e. All of the above
247. All of the following instances may make the use of a rubber dam impractical EXCEPT one. Which one is
the EXCEPTION?
a. The presence of fixed orthodontic appliances
b. A patient with congested nasal passages or other nasal obstruction
c. A very nervous or anxious patient
d. A recently erupted tooth that will not retain a clamp
248. The phenomenon of “strawberry tongue” is associated with:

a. Herpangina
b. Scarlet fever
c. Diptheria
d. Mumps
249. A Class I cleft palate involves what structures?

a. Hard and soft palates
b. Soft palate only
c. Alveolar process only
d. Hard palate only
250. All of the following statements concerning acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis are true EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. It is also called Vincent’s infection, Vincent’s angina or “trench mouth’’
b. It is a gingival disease characterized by painful hyperemic gingiva, punched out erosions of the interproximal
papilla, covered by a gray pseudomembrane with an accompanying fetid odor
c. Risks include poor oral hygiene, poor nutrition, smoking, and emotional stress
d. It usually affects children
e. Fusiforms and spirochetes, as well as Prevotella intermedia, have been implicated in the etiology of ANUG
251. Ectodermal dysplasia is characterized by a lack of sweat glands, sparse hair, dry skin, a concave nasal
bridge, and:
a. Oversized crowns
b. Elongated roots
c. An enlarged mandible
d. The absence of teeth
252. Historically the incidence of dental decay in person with Down syndrome has been reported to be
______. The rate of periodontal disease in these persons has been reported to be __________.
a. Extremely high, extremely low
b. Relatively the same as the general population, extremely high
c. Extremely low, relatively the same as the general population
d. Extremely low, extremely high
253. The most common form of diabetes in children is:

a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV
254. The hemangioma is usually treated by conservative surgical excision. Capillary hemangioma is the most
type.
a. The first statement is true; the second statement is false
b. The first statement is false; the second statement is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
255. An outstanding oral manifestation of achondroplasia is:

a. Rampant caries
b. Periodontal disease
c. Overcrowding of teeth
d. Supernumerary teeth
256. Which of the following is true concerning a young epileptic who has a grand mal seizure in the dental
office?
a. It is generally fatal
b. It is best treated by injecting insulin
c. They generally recover if restrained from self-injury and oxygen in maintained
d. It can be prevented with antibiotics
257. The most common of the craniofacial malformations is:

a. Bifid tongue
b. Macroglossia
c. Cleft palate and cleft lip
d. Anodontia
258. Which type of leukemia referred to as the “leukemia as childhood”?

a. Acute myeloid leukemia
b. Chronic myelocytic leukemia
c. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
d. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
259. An important diagnostic finding in congenital porphyria is the presence of red-brown teeth in both the
deciduous and permanent dentition. The oral mucosa is rarely in porphyrias.
260. In baby bottle tooth decay, the teeth typically are decay in the following order:
a. Maxillary posterior teeth, mandibular posterior teeth, maxillary anterior teeth, and mandibular anterior teeth
b. Maxillary anterior teeth, mandibular anterior teeth, maxillary posterior teeth, and mandibular posterior teeth
c. Mandibular anterior teeth, maxillary posterior teeth, mandibular posterior teeth, and maxillary anterior teeth
d. Maxillary anterior teeth, maxillary posterior teeth, mandibular posterior teeth, and mandibular anterior teeth
261. All of the following statements concerning recurrent aphthous ulcers(canker sores) are true EXCEPT one.
a. They occur in women more than men
b. They may occur at any age, but usually appear between the ages of 10 to 40
c. They cause is a coxsackie virus
d. They appear to be associated with stress
e. They usually appear on nonkeratinized oral mucosa including the inner surface of the cheeks and lips, tongue,
soft palate and the base of the gingiva
262. Cretinism is a deficiency disease, caused by the congenital absence of:

a. Insulin
b. Thyroxine
c. Calcitonin
d. Epinephrine
263. In children with cystic fibrosis halitosis is common. In children with cystic fibrosis, both dental
development and eruption are delayed.
264. “Koplik’s spots” are associated with:

a. Smallpox (Variola)
b. German measles ( Rubella)
c. Mumps
d. Measles (Rubeola)
265. The principal characteristics of ADHD are all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Inattention
b. Mental retardation
c. Hyperactivity
d. Impulsivity
266. Which of the following are the most common cause of endocarditis following a dental procedure?
a. Escherichia coli
b. Viridans group Streptococci
c. Staphylococci
d. Bacteroides
267. Which of the following is the most frequently utilized route of administration for sedation in pediatric
patients?
a. Oral
b. Inhalation
c. IV
d. IM
268. ____________, alone or in combination with other drugs, is the most common sedative agent used in
pediatric dentistry.
a. Pentobarbital
b. Secobarbital
c. Paraldehyde
d. Chloral hydrate
269. A fifteen- year-old female has live in a non-fluoridated area all of her life. Which of the following is most
likely to occur in this young lady when she moves to a community where the drinking water naturally contains 6
ppm of fluoride?
a. 50% reduction in dental caries
b. Moderate dental fluorosis
c. An increase in the amount of fluoride stored in her bones
d. Gastrointestinal problem
270. All of the acidulated phosphate fluoride should be applied for __________ in order to achieve the best
results.
a. One minutes
b. Two minutes
c. Three minutes
d. Four minutes
271. Before fluoride applications:

a. Vaseline is applied to protect any teeth with sealants
b. The teeth should be dry to prevent dilution of the fluoride concentration
c. All bacterial plaque must be removed to prevent interference with fluoride uptake by the enamel surface
d. Patients should be placed in a semi-supine position
272. You examine a ten-year-old boy in your practice and determine that has multiple carious lesions. What is
your advice regarding fluoride supplementation?
a. Prescribe fluoride tablets for the patient immediately
b. Arrange for a sample of the patient’s well water to be sent to a laboratory to assess the amount of naturally
occurring fluoride in the water. Then prescribe the appropriate dose of fluoride supplementation in lieu of the
fluoride that is occurring in the water, if any.
c. The child is too old for fluoride supplementation to be of benefit, so you do not recommend it
d. None of the above
273. Clinical studies demonstrate that acidulated phosphate fluoride is most effective at what pH?
a. 1.0
b. 2.5
c. 3.5
d. 5.5
274. The most common congenitally missing primary tooth is the:

a. Primary mandibular canine
b. Primary maxillary lateral incisor
c. Primary maxillary canine
d. Primary mandibular first molar
275. A fifteen-month-old child would normally have all of the following teeth erupted EXCEPT one. Which
one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Primary lateral incisors and canines
b. Primary canines and first molars
c. Primary canines and second molars
d. Primary central and lateral incisors
e. Primary first and second molars
276. All of the following are true when comparing the normal child periodontium to the normal adult
periodontium EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. There is greater blood and lymph supply
b. The alveolar crest is flatter
c. The cementum is thicker and more dense than that of the adult
d. Attached gingiva is not as wide
277. The permanent mandibular second premolar typically erupts when a child is about:
a. 5-6 years old
b. 8-6 years old
c. 11-12 years old
d. 13-14 years old
278. The crowns of all 20 primary teeth begin to calcify between:

a. 1.5 to 2 months in utero
b. 3.5 to 6 months in utero
c. 7.5 to 9 months in utero
d. 10 to 12 months in utero
279. Which teeth are succedaneous teeth?

a. The permanent maxillary and mandibular premolars
b. The permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars
c. The permanent maxillary and mandibular second molars
d. The permanent maxillary and mandibular third molars
280. All of the following syndromes demonstrate both supernumerary teeth and hypodontia EXCEPT one.
a. Crouzon’s disease
b. Gardner’s syndrome
c. Down’s Syndrome
d. Hallerman-Streiff syndrome
281. When do the permanent teeth begin to calcify?
a. At birth
b. One month
c. Four month
d. One year
282. The primary mandibular canines are usually exfoliated when a child is about:
a. 6-8 years old
b. 7-9 years old
c. 9-12 years old
d. 14-16 years old
283. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. The primary teeth are lighter in color than the permanent teeth
b. For primary teeth the interproximal contacts are broader and flatter than permanent teeth
c. The pulp cavities are proportionately smaller in the primary teeth
d. Primary teeth have thinner enamel
e. The pulp of primary teeth are closer to the surface of the tooth
284. The primary maxillary lateral incisor typically erupts when a child is about:
a. 6 months old
b. 9 months old
c. 11 month old
d. 14 month old
285. The sum of the mesiodistal widths of the primary molars in any one quadrant is:
a. 5-10mm greater than the permanent teeth that succeed them- premolars
b. 2-5mm less than the permanent teeth that succeed them- premolars
c. 2-5mm greater than the permanent teeth that succeed them- premolars
d. 5-10mm less than the permanent teeth that succeed them- premolars
286. The mostly frequently taken view in pediatric dentistry are:

a. Molar bitewing radiographs
b. Mandibular molar periapical radiographs
c. Mandibular anterior periapical radiographs
d. Maxillary molar periapical radiographs
287. The first deciduous (primary) tooth to erupt is the:

a. Mandibular central incisor
b. Mandibular first molar
c. Maxillary central incisor
d. Maxillary first molar
288. Ordinarily, a 6-year-old child would have what teeth clinically visible in the mouth?
a. All (20) primary teeth and 4 permanent first molars
b. 18 primary teeth and 2 permanent mandibular central incisors
c. 18 primary teeth, 2 permanent mandibular central incisors, and 4 permanent first molars
289. When attempting a MO Class II amalgam preparation and filling on a primary tooth, you encounter a
very large mesial marginal ridge that resembles a cusp. You also notice a transverse from mesiolingual to
mesiobuccal cusp that is rather large. This tooth proves difficult to restore, which tooth is it?
a. Mandibular first molar
b. Maxillary first molar
c. Mandibular second molar
d. Maxillary second molar
290. Morphologically, the primary maxillary second molar strikingly resembles the:
a. Permanent maxillary third molar
b. Permanent maxillary second molar
c. Permanent maxillary first molar
d. Permanent mandibular second molar
291. A 10-1/2-year-old patient comes into your office. You are not sure whether his maxillary canines are
permanent or primary. Which of the following statements will help you determine whether or not they are
permanent or primary canines?
a. The cusp of the primary maxillary canine is much shorter than the cusp of the permanent maxillary canine
b. The mesial cusp ridge on the primary maxillary canine is shorter than the distal cusp ridge; this is opposite of all
other canines
c. The cusp on the primary maxillary canine is much longer and shaper than the cusp on the permanent maxillary
canine
d. The primary maxillary canine is much narrower and longer than the permanent maxillary canine
292. The occlusal form of the __________ varies from than of any tooth in the permanent dentition.
a. The primary mandibular first molar
b. The primary maxillary first molar
c. The primary mandibular second molar
d. The primary maxillary second molar
293. An 11-year-old child traumatized a permanent maxillary central incisor some time ago. The tooth has
never been restored. It is now painful and there is evidence of swelling. A periapical x-ray discloses a pathosis
associated with the apex. The suggested treated treatment is:
a. Pulpotomy
b. Extraction
c. Pulpectomy
d. Observation
294. Indirect pulp treatment is a procedure performed in a tooth with:

a. A necrotic pulp
b. A deep carious lesion adjacent to the pulp
c. A periapical radiolucency
d. Pulp tissue that is irreversibly infected due to carries or trauma
295. Which treatment is the proper one for a Class II fracture of s permanent tooth with an immature apex?
a. Pulpectomy
b. Apply calcium hydroxide to exposed dentin and restore tooth with a permanent restoration
c. Pulpotomy
d. Observe
296. The first indication for a pulpotomy is carious invasion deep enough to cause mechanical exposure of
the pulp or inflammation of the coronal pulp. Inflammation or infection of pulp tissue beyond the coronal pulp
contraindicates a pulpotomy.
d. Both Statements are false
297. Direct pulp caps (DPC) involve direct placement of the capping material on the pulp. _________ is the
agent that is most frequently used.
a. Cavity varnish
b. Glass ionomer
c. ZOE
d. Calcium Hydroxide
298. One alternative to the traditional full-strength Formocresol pulpotomy is the Formocresol pulpotomy
using a diluted solution of Formocresol. A __________ dilution has been recommended and has been shown to
produce good long-term therapeutic results.
a. One-third
b. One-quarter
c. One-fifth
d. Three-fifths
299. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. The occlusal anatomy of primary teeth is not as defined as that of permanent teeth therefore amalgam preps can
be more conservative
b. Enamel and dentin are thicker in primary teeth, therefore amalgam preps are deeper
c. The pulpal horns of primary teeth are longer and pointed, therefore amalgam preps must be conservative to avoid
a pulp exposure
d. Primary molars have an exaggerated cervical bulge that makes adaptation much more difficult
e. The occlusal table is narrower on primary molars
300. The success rates for mandibular nerves blocks are lower in children than in adults because of the
anatomy of less developed mandibles. The antero-posterior position of the mandibular foramen is about the
same or slightly more mesial in children than in adults.
301. The bulbous, conically shaped primary teeth also affect the amount of extension of the occlusal outline
of the preparation. The general rule is that the occlusal outline is about __________ of the intercuspal distance,
between the buccal and lingual cusps, on the occlusal surface of primary molars.
a. One half
b. One third
c. Two third
d. Three quarters
302. Depth cuts can be used as a gauge to help establish the depth of the occlusal reduction when preparing
a primary tooth for a stainless steel crown. Approximately_________ of the occlusal surface should be removed.
a. 1 to 1.5 millimeters
b. 3 to 3.5 millimeters
c. 4 to 4.5 millimeters
d. 5 to 5.5 millimeters
303. The minimum number of lobes from which any tooth may develop is:
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five
304. A young girl presents to the dentist with yellow, thin, chalky, enamel, but sound dentin. The diagnosis is
amelogenesis imperfect. In amelogenesis imperfect, there is an error in what stage in the life cycle of a tooth?
a. Initiation
b. Bud stage
c. Cap stage
d. Bell stage
e. Apposition
305. Which structure functions to shape the root (or root) and induce dentin formation in the root area so
that it is continuous with the coronal dentin?
a. Dental papilla
b. Dental lamina
c. Dental sac
d. Hertwig’s sheath
306. Discolored primary teeth that are symptom-free and show no radiographic changes are best treated by:
a. No treatment
b. Extirpation of the pulp tissue followed by the placement of ZOE paste in the root canal space
c. Extraction
d. Pulpotomy
307. A nine-year-old patient has fractured the root of the permanent maxillary right lateral incisor. There is
no other identifiable injury. The fracture occurred around the middle of the root. What is the indicated course of
therapy at this time?
a. Begin endodontic therapy immediately
b. Extract the tooth, and the root remnant if possible
c. Do nothing if the tooth seems fairly stable
d. Splint the tooth to the adjacent two or three teeth
308. What is the most reliable method to determine the pulp vitality in the case of a recently traumatized
primary tooth?
a. Radiograph
b. Electric pulp test
c. Thorough intraoral exam
d. There is no reliable method
309. What cement is the best choice for cementing a lower fixed bilateral holding arch in place?
a. Zinc phosphate cement
b. Zinc oxide eugenol cement
c. IRM
d. Glass ionomer cement
310. A mother of a six-year-old female reports that her daughter has complained of a severe spontaneous
pain on the upper right side of her mouth. Your examination indicates a large lesion on the distal aspect of the
primary maxillary right first molar which extends to the pulp. All other maxillary teeth are present and are
noncarious. You decide that extraction of the tooth is warranted. What type of space maintainer will you advise
for the patient?
a. Maxillary right removable unilateral appliance
b. Maxillary removable bilateral appliance
c. Maxillary right band and loop appliance
d. Distal shoe space maintainer
311. Amelogenesis imperfecta is a condition in which:
a. The teeth have short roots and to wear rapidly
b. The teeth develop abnormally and many teeth missing
c. The teeth are covered with thin, malformed enamel
d. Tooth buds are joined together during development and appear as macrodont
312. The state teeth joined together only by cementum is diagnosed as:
a. Gemination
b. Fusion
c. Concresence
d. Dens in dente
313. Which of the following is a hereditary dental defect in which the enamel of the teeth is soft and
undercalcified in context, yet normal in quantity?
a. Enamel hypoplasia
b. Enamel hypocalcification
c. Fluorosis
314. All of the following statements concerning dental fluorosis are true, EXCEPT:
a. It is a diffuse symmetric hypomineralization disorder of ameloblasts
b. It is reversible
c. It only occurs with exposure to fluoride when the enamel is developing (calcification period)
d. It is a toxic manifestation of chronic (low-dose, long term) fluoride intake
315. Which of the following is the most important technique of behavioral management in the pediatric
dental patient?
a. Tell-show-do
b. Voice control
d. Distraction
e. Non-verbal communication
316. When treating a child who is obviously afraid, the dentist should:
a. Use restraint
b. Use the hand-over-mouth technique (HOME)
c. Permit the child to express his fear
d. Avoid all
e. reference to the child’s fear
317. The process of shaping a patient’s behavior through appropriately timed feedback is called:
a. Tell-show-do
b. Voice control
d. Distraction
e. Nonverbal communication
318. All of the following procedures have proved beneficial in treating a mentally retarded child, except:
a. Speak slowly and in very simple terms
b. Listen carefully to the patient
c. Schedule long appointments
d. Ask the patient if there are any questions about anything you will be doing
319. The management of a child who must undergo dental extraction is based on which of the following
factors?
a. The age and maturity of the child
b. The past medical and dental experiences that might influence the behavior of the child
c. The physical status of the child
d. The length of time and amount of manipulation necessary to accomplish the surgery
e. All of the above
320. All of the following instances, except one, may make the use of a rubber dam impractical. Which is the
exception?
a. The presence of fixed orthodontic appliances
b. A patient with congested nasal passages or other nasal obstruction
c. A very nervous or anxious patient
d. A recently erupted tooth that will not retain a clamp
321. The phenomenon of “strawberry tongue” is associated with:

a. Herpangina
b. Scarlet fever
c. Diphtheria
d. Mumps
322. The child ‘s first visit to a dentist should be not later than two years old in order:
a. To check early carious lesions
b. To check recurrent caries and to fill them
c. To correct the bad habits
323. Familiarization with the dental office atmosphere makes the child _______ with the dentist.
a. At ease and cooperative
b. Not at ease and uncooperative
c. Fearful of all the movements of the dentist
324. Recall of a child patient after the last visit is in order to:
a. Check his occlusion
b. To install a habit breaker device
c. To check for new carious lesions
325. The appearance of these teeth in a newly born baby makes hid feeding by natural means difficult:
a. Dens-in dente
b. Natal teeth
c. Leong’s teeth
d. Wisdom teeth
326. In mandibular block for children the needle is:

a. In level with the plane of occlusion
b. Lower than the occlusal plane
c. Higher than the occlusal plane
327. Etching time among primary teeth is __________ than in permanent teeth:
a. Less
b. Twice longer
c. The same
d. Three times longer
328. Proximal box of Class II preparation among primary molar is:
a. Comparatively smaller
b. Same as in permanent molars
c. Comparatively wider
d. Comparatively deeper
329. Rounding or beveling the acio-pulpal Ls in Class II preparation for amalgam has for its purpose to
distribute stress:
a. In dentin only
b. Both dentin & amalgam
c. Amalgam only
d. Enamel & dentin
330. In a two-year old child, a light bluish dome-shaped lesion in the inside lip is likely a:
a. Hemangioma
b. Hematoma
c. Mucocele
d. Sucking callous
331. Antibiotics prophylaxis for prevention of subacute endocarditis with dental management should begin:
a. One (1) hour before treatment
b. One day before treatment
c. One week before treatment
d. One day after treatment
332. The concentration of fluoride which has maximum inhibitory effect:

a. 2.5 ppm
b. 0.75 ppm
c. 5 pp
d. 3-7 ppm
e. 4-10 ppm
333. After enameloplasty the chemical agent applied on the teeth and highly recommended:
a. Chloride
b. Phenol
c. Fluoride
d. Eugenol
e. Toothpaste
334. In modified Class II cavity preparation in primary teeth the dovetail should be towards:
a. Incisal
b. Crest of the contours of the teeth of the crowns
c. Gingival
d. Middle 3rd
335. The full M-D width of primary molars should be maintained if restored with amalgam for:
a. Production of speech
b. Appearance of the child
c. Maintenance of arch length
d. For strength of the filling
336. Isthmus width of Class II preparation should be:
a. Not more than 1/3 of the intercuspal dimension
b. Equal to intercuspal dimension
c. Not less than 1/3 of the intercuspal dimension
337. In a healthy mouth, bleeding continues after pulpotomy. What should you do?
a. Pulpectomy
b. Apicoectomy
c. Root resection
338. Upon excavation of a carious Nos. 36 , accidentally a pulp horn was exported but bleeding is controlled
what is the treatment of choice?
a. Direct pulp capping
b. Pulpotomy
c. Indirect pulp
d. Pulpectomy
339. Root canal filling for primary teeth is:

a. Silver points
b. Gutta percha
c. Zinc oxide which is resorbable
340. The full complement of the primary dentition is in place when the child is approximately:
a. 6 months after birth
b. Between 2 to 2 ½ years of age
c. 6 years old after birth
341. The first and most important step in dental treatment of handicapped children is:
a. The psychological preparation of the child and parents as to the nature of a continuous routine dental care
b. Education of the child about dental care
c. Familiarization with dental office procedures
342. Examination of handicapped children should be done with extreme care because:
a. Of their involuntary movements of their jaws
b. They can’t sit properly in the dental chair
c. They are cooperative and restless
343. Bruxism or grinding of teeth frequently occurs in children with:

a. Mental retardation
b. Hyperactive children
c. Cerebral palsy
344. Epileptic children usually presents ________ due to Dilantin intake:

a. Gingivitis
b. Gingival ulceration
c. Gingival abscess
d. Periodontitis
e. Gingival hyperplasia
345. When bleeding occurs and is continuous after removal of the coronal pulp, proceed to:
a. Apicoectomy
b. Root resection
c. Pulpectomy
d. Apexification
346. The permanent canines are the:
a. Earliest
b. Latest
c. Not so early among the anteriors to occupy their position in the oral cavity
347. _________ is a physiological process inherent to the primary roots only

a. Erosion
b. Attrition
c. Resorption
d. Exfoliation
e. Shedding
348. The succedaneous teeth are similar in size M-D and they are:
a. Permanent 1st and 2nd molars
b. Permanent incisors and canines
c. Permanent incisors, canines and premolars
d. Permanent canines and premolars only
349. Accessional teeth are represented by the:

a. Permanent canines and premolars
b. Permanent 1st, 2nd and 3rd molars
c. Permanent incisors and canines
350. After pulpotomy or pulpectomy , the teeth becomes brittle and dehydrated , the recommended
restoration is:
a. Stainless steel crowns
b. Composite
c. Amalgam
d. Inlays
e. Full gold crowns
351. When an avulsed tooth is replanted the following are correct except:
a. Perform wider strict asepsis
b. Don’t remove loose tissues
c. Currete the alveolar socket before insertion
d. Hard scrubbing should be avoided to preserve the periodontal ligament
352. A dentist who practices pediatric dentistry has three responsibilities, so he must consider first:
a. Himself
b. The parents of the patients
c. His patients
d. His community
353. The choice for root canal filling material for primary teeth is:
a. Resorbable materials like ZOE paste
b. Dycal paste
c. Silver points
d. Gutta-percha
354. The pin-point exposure of pulps among primary teeth in a three year patient should undergo:
a. Direct pulp capping
b. Partial pulpectomy
c. Root canal therapy
d. Apexification
355. It is abnormal for children below five years old to have coating of the tongue because:
a. Nature of food eaten
b. Manner of chewing food
c. Filiform and fungiform papillae are not yet developed
d. Manner of swallowing foods
356. The band-loop space maintainer is designed to:

a. Maintain sufficient space to allow for proper eruption of the permanent successors
b. For space maintenance to allow the eruption of teeth, and to permit the growth of dental arches
c. Not interfere with growth and development of the arches
d. Provide function and prevent extrusion of the antimeres
357. Proximal box in the preparation of class II in primary molars is:

a. Same as the permanent molar preparation
b. Comparatively smaller than in permanent molar
c. Doesn’t matter, the size of the proximal box
d. Comparatively wider is done
358. Preferred color of office environment is:

a. Black and white
b. Red and white
c. Green and yellow
d. Pastel hues
359. The best treatment of dental phobia is:

a. Soft music
b. Medication
c. Hypnosis
d. Prevention
360. The permanent restoration ideally should be placed at the same appointment after a:
a. Complete pulpectomy
b. Partial pulpotomy
c. Complete pulpotomy
d. Partial root recession
361. Disclosing solution is used after what procedure in order to check on its efficiency.
a. Salivary test
b. Filling a tooth
c. Oral prophylaxis
d. Extraction
362. Familiarization through frequent dental visits is necessary to overcome and to avoid this feeling among
children:
a. Fear
b. Hatred
c. Disobedience
d. Tantrums
363. A must when doing surgical procedures among young patients:

a. All of these lettered answers
b. Asepsis
c. X-ray
d. Antibiotic
364. In the management of a child with down syndrome, dental problems are managed by a:
a. Adequate pre and post medication
b. General anesthesia
c. Comprehensive preventive program
d. Occlusal sealants and topical fluoride
365. The management of deep pit and fissures include the following treatment alternatives:
1. Observation
2. Pit and fissures sealant
3. Preventive resin restorations
4. Amalgam restoration
a.All of the choices
b.2 only
c. 2 and 3
d.2, 3 and 4
366. The capacity to stimulate both the osteoblastic and osteoclastic activity is brought about by the
following important mediator of cellular response:
a. Cytokinins
b. Piezoelectricity
c. Interleukins
d. Prostagladins
367. The most susceptible surface on the first primary maxillary molar develop caries is the:
a. Distal groove
b. Buccal pit
c. Central groove
d. Mesial groove
368. Retained infantile swallowing may lead to:

a. Tongue-thrusting
b. Anterior open bite
d. Procline maxillary incisors
369. The following is the stage of tooth development when odontoma or a supernumerary tooth may result:
a. Initiation
b. Proliferation
c. Histodifferentiation
d. Morphodifferentiation
370. The following may result from disturbances during the appositional stage of tooth development:
a. Amelogenesis imperfecta
b. Mottled enamel
c. Enamel hypoplasia
d. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
371. The difference between negative reinforcement and punishment is:

a. Punishment strengthen the response more than the negative reinforcement strengthens it
b. Punishment strengthens the response by removing an aversive outcome
c. Punishment weakens the response by producing an aversive outcome while negative outcomes
d. Punishment weakens the response more than the negative reinforcement weakens it
372. A child ectodermal dysplasia will manifest the following

a. Anodontia
b. Enamel hypoplasia
d. Oligodontia
373. In children affected by the following comprehensive preventive dental program is best applied:
a. Mentally ill
b. Down's syndrome
c. Physically handicapped
d. Paralytic
374. The term to denote the change from generalized cells or tissues to a more specialized kind is:
a. Development
b. Growth
c. Differentiation
d. Maturation
375. A 4-year old child visited the dentist for the first time and received prophylaxis quite well. Before he left,
the dentist was so glad that he gave the child a toy. This kind of gesture is called:
a. Positive reinforcement
b. Bribery
c. Classical conditioning
d. Public relations
376. One histologic feature of primary teeth versus permanent teeth that greatly affects cavity preparation is
the:
a. Dentinal tubules are less regular
b. Dentin is less dense
c. Enamel rods in the gingival third that run incisally or occlusally
d. Bands of retzius are less in number
377. Incipient interproximal cavities are shown best by the following roentgenographic examination:
a. Panoramic
b. Periapical
c. no 0 pedo film
d. bite-wing
378. ___________ is defined as the normal changes in the amount of normal living substance and is
measured in units of increase per unit of time:
a. Maturation
b. Growth
c. Differentiation
d. Development
379. The material used for indirect pulp treatment which is placed directly over the deep cavity where some
carious dentin is left is:
a. Calcium hydroxide
b. Formocresol-zinc-eugenol mixture
c. Cavity varnis
d. Zinc-oxide-eugenol
380. The following are characteristics of the primary teeth EXCEPT

a. None of the choices
b. The primary molars are wider than their permanent successors and the crowns of the primary teeth are
smaller but more v-shaped cervically
c. The crowns of the primary teeth are smaller but more bell-shape cervically
d. The primary molars are wider that their permanent successors
381. The frequency of recall of young patients, should be based on the :

a. caries susceptibility of the individual
b. malocclusion of the individual
c. wishes of the dentist
d. wishes of the patients
382. “Injection” is a word which promotes fear among children so the __________ can be used instead for its
description.
a. needle pricks
b. mosquito bites
c. pointed sticks
d. drilling
383. The primary set is important to a child because the mechanical preparation of food is accomplished
during the:
a. must active periods of growth and development
b. latent period of active growth and development
c. stage of plateu of growth and development
384. Calcification of primary teeth begins

a. in the first trimester of pregnancy
b. in the second trimester of pregnancy
c. between the 1st and 3rd months in utero
d. between the 4th and 6th months in utero
385. During emergency examination of a pediatric dental patient, it is usually:

a. extensive in nature
b. limited to site of injury or complaint
c. limited to the perioral musculature
d. limited to the primary dentition only
386. Marginal gingivitis in children is usually associated with:

a. poor oral hygiene
b. undernourishment
c. bad habits
d. improper tooth brushing technique
387. For a successful inferior alveolar block , it should be remembered that the mandibular foramen is below
the plane of occlusion, among:
a. infants
b. children
c. adolescents
d. adults
e. senile
388. Among the primary teeth according to studies conducted which have shown the highest caries attacks
are:
a. incisors
b. cuspids
c. first molars
d. second molars
389. The gingival wall in Class II cavity preparation should be approximately one (1) mm. which is also the
width of the cutting end of the burs.
a. #57 or 557 smooth fissure bur
b. #2 or 4 round bur
c. #34 inverted cone bur
390. The isthmus width in Class II cavity preparation should rarely exceed the width of a channel cut by:
a. #58 or 558 straight fissure bur
b. #34 inverted cone bur
c. #57 inverted cone bur
d. #2 or 4 round bur
391. ________ wall is first established with a #34 inverted cone bur in most Class II cavity preparation
a. gingival wall
b. occlusal wall
c. proximal box
d. pulpo-occlusal wall
392. For Class IV cavities among primary teeth where esthetics can be almost perfectly established the
restoration of choice is:
a. stainless steel crowns
b. pre-formed plastic crowns
c. stainless steel bands
d. composite resins
393. Fractures wherein minimal enamel substance is lost and a good cosmetic result can be obtained is
simply by:
a. coating with calcium hydroxide
b. filling with zinc oxyphosphate cement
c. reshaping the incisal edge with a diamond wheel in which no treatment is necessary
d. leave it , as it is
394. The best root canal filling for primary teeth is _______ because its absorbable:
a. zinc oxyphosphate cement
b. gutta percha
c. zinc oxide paste
d. composite resin
395. _______ is resorted to when the fractured tooth is horizontal , near the cemento-enamel junction and
the line of cleavage is such a restoration of the tooth is impossible:
a. extraction
b. pulpectomy
c. pulpotomy
396. Prevention of sub-acute endocarditis during dental manipulation using antibiotic prophylaxis should
begin:
a. immediately after treatment
b. one hour before treatment
c. twenty four hours (24) before treatment
d. one week after treatment
397. A young patient presents the following : slight edema, ecchymosis of soft tissues, painful with elevated
temperature and white blood cell count increase, can aid its diagnosis:
a. neoplastic swellings
b. inflammatory swellings
c. traumatic swellings
d. cystic formation
398. Bruxism or grinding of teeth occurs frequently in children with :

a. mental retardation
b. epileptic seizures
c. cerebral palsy
399. The chief factor in the formation of the alveolar processes:
a. eruption of the teeth
b. normal process of growth
c. overall growth of bodies of the jaws
d. lengthening of the condyle
400. Cleft palate results from:

a. non-fusion of palatal shelves
b. non-union of premaxilla with the maxilla
c. separation of the palatine processes
d. break down of functional matrices

B. The Overbite Achieved During Treatment

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B. The Overbite Achieved During Treatment

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SET 7 ORTHODONTICS AND PEDODONTICS

1. A corrected anterior crossbite is best retained by:

3. Posterior crossbite in the primary dentition:

8. Wide diastemas among primary anterior means :

9. Dental age refers to:

10. Flush terminal plane is normal and it is usually manifested:

18. Normal occlusion is:

20. The 1st important step in examining of an orthodontic case is:

23. Interceptive orthodontics swallows general practitioners to correct:

27. Migration of a 6-year molars can be managed successfully if:

36. The “Keys” to normal occlusion are:

37. Cases of malocclusion referred to arthrodontist are the following:

43. Facial plane is established by a straight line connecting _____.

48. Space control measures should be accomplished within:

51. Mandibular anterior crowding in a child may be due to:

53. Hawley retainers are used for:

55. Class I type 3 is distinguished from Class II type I by the ff.:

61. Childhood disease, like chickenpox is what type of cause of malocclusion?

62. Primate spaces are located:

63. Normal lip posture is a characteristic of:

64. Bilateral class II is considered as:

66. This condition doesn’t involve the tongue

68. Prolonged retention of primary teeth may:

70. Congenitally missing teeth is associated with developmental disturbance during:

73. What is perpetual recurrent dental plaque initiated by?

77. The most important dental tissue to an orthodontist is the:

79. Growth may result in the following excluding:

80. The normal sequence of primary eruption is as follows:

81. Toddlers present fewer behavioral problems in the clinic because:

86. The mandible grows posteriorly and superiorly and is displaced:

87. Basic form of the arch is not determined by:

92. An example of a bilateral functional space maintainer is:

94. Apthous ulcers are found in the:

96. Class II division 2 manifest:

98. Maximum duration of wearing an inclined plane is:

99. Bolton’s analysis determines not all of the following:

102. Myofunctional therapy is used for the following purposes except:

103. Interdigitation of the deciduous teeth starts:

108. A disadvantage of removable space maintainer is that it:

109. The person who introduced edgewise mechanism is:

111. Facial profile in pseudo class III is:

112. The gonial angle from childhood on:

115. Enlargement of the cartilage occurs by:

117. __________ is a physiologic process manifested only by the deciduous dentition:

122. Deep mento-labial sulcus is often seen in a :

124. For stabilization of a tooth with a root fracture is accomplished using:

125. The best space maintainer in the oral cavity of children:

132. The following branchial arch is the origin of the mandible:

136. In the primary dentition an important preventive orthodontic measure is:

140. If the mandibular primary cuspids are to be extracted because of caries:

143. The failure of the periodontal ligament to develop results in:

151. The ephyseal plates of long bones are examples of:

157. The long face syndrome is associated with:

158. The following tooth buds are initiated after birth:

159. What practice constitutes preventive and interceptive orthodontics?

161. An over retained root should be extracted:

166. The downward displacement of the maxilla is effected by the:

172. Nolla's stage of development number 6 (stage 6) is:

173. The bone response when pressure is applied is:

179. The equivalent physiologic orthodontic force is:

181. What space problem is manageable in a generally practitioner's office?

187. Based on Angle’s classification of malocclusion, Class I is also considered as: