RTCA

PATIENT ASSESSMENT EXAM

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions.
Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the
letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.

1. This is said to be the foundation of comprehensive assessment.

A. Rapport
B. History
C. Communication skills
D. Assessment

ANSWER:

2. These are data which can be seen, felt, smelled, or heard by the examiner,
commonly referred to as signs.
A. Physical examination findings
B. Diagnostic findings
C. Objective assessment findings
D. Subjective assessment findings

ANSWER:

3. What is one of the most important and powerful techniques for demonstrating true
concern for the patient but is also the most difficult technique to use appropriately?
A. Solid rapport
B. Eye contact
C. Verbal communication
D. Touch

ANSWER:

4. History performed by physician emphasizes which of the following?

A. Establishing rapport
B. Making diagnosis
C. Emotional support
D. Determining the level of disability

ANSWER:

5. Who among the following are alternative sources for obtaining a patient’s history?
I. Patient
II. Family members
III. Friends
IV. Previous Physicians
 A. I, II, III, IV
B. II, III
C. II, III, IV
D. I, II, III

ANSWER:

6. A brief notation explaining why the patient sought health care.

A. Chief complaint
B. Review of present illness
C. Review of systems
D. Past medic history

ANSWER:

7. This is the answer to open-ended questions such as “What caused you to come to
the hospital?”
A. Chief complaint
B. Review of present illness
C. Review of systems
D. Past medic history

ANSWER:

8. History performed by an RT emphasizes which of the following?

A. Establishing rapport
B. Making a diagnosis
C. Emotional support
D. Determining the level of disability

ANSWER:

9. Smoking history may best be determined in terms of:

A. Sticks smoked per day
B. Number of years of smoking
C. Pack/year
D. Pack- year

ANSWER:

10. Reactions to inhaled toxic substances may occur within:

A. Immediately
B. Seconds or minutes
C. Minutes or days or week
D. Months or years
 ANSWER:

11. A 62-year old man is rushed to the ER with a chief complaint of shortness of breath
and productive cough. RT noticed that the patient’s sputum color is yellowish. This
indicates:
A. Pseudomonas infection
B. Normal mucus
C. Infection and contains WBCs
D. None of the above

ANSWER:

12. A 43-year old woman is admitted to the hospital complaining of dyspnea while lying
down. What do you call that type of dyspnea?
A. Exertional dyspnea
B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
C. Platypnea
D. Orthopnea

ANSWER:

13. A sudden onset of shortness of breath after being in bed for several hours is called:
A. Exertional dyspnea
B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
C. Platypnea
D. Orthopnea

ANSWER:

14. A 49-year old construction worker who was diagnosed with COPD last month
notices that he experiences dyspnea after walking up a flight of stairs or after simply
walking across the room. What do you call that type dyspnea?
A. Platypnea
B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
C. Exertional dyspnea
D. Orthopnea

ANSWER:

15. A patient coughs up white and translucent sputum after an IPPB treatment. Which of
the following statements is true in regard to this sputum production?
A. It is old and contains little water
B. It is termed as hemoptysis
C. It contains WBCs
D. It is a normal color of sputum
 ANSWER:

16. A patient enters the ER, and on initial examination the RT on duty observes
paradoxical chest movement. Which of the following should the RT suspect?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Pneumonia
C. Flail chest
D. Pleural effusion

ANSWER:

17. Which of the following conditions can cause delayed capillary refill in a child?
A. Hypoxemia
B. Hypoventilation
C. Decreased cardiac output
D. Increase stroke volume

ANSWER:

18. How should the respiratory therapist interpret a situation in which a child displays
mottling, pallor and peripheral cyanosis?
A. Anemia
B. Poor peripheral perfusion
C. Poor venous return
D. Systemic hypertension

ANSWER:

19. Respiratory Therapists use physical assessment skills to:

A. Obtain baseline data
B. Enhance the RT-patient relationship
C. Both of the above

ANSWER:

20. The most frequently used assessment technique is:

A. Palpation
B. Inspection
C. Percussion
D. Auscultation

ANSWER:
21. This assessment technique is usually performed following inspection, especially with
abdominal assessment. This should be performed before percussion or palpation to
prevent production of false bowel sounds.
A. Palpation
B. Vibration
C. Auscultation
D. Percussion

ANSWER:

22. When performing auscultation, the _________ is used to listen to high pitched
sounds and the __________ is best used to identify low pitched sounds.
A. Bell; Diaphragm
B. Diaphragm; Bell
C. Tympany; Dullness
D. None of the above

ANSWER:

23. This is another commonly used physical exam technique, requires you to touch your
patient with different parts of your hand using different strength pressures.
A. Palpation
B. Inspection
C. Percussion
D. Auscultation

ANSWER:

24. This is a type of sounds produced during percussion that sounds like a drum and is
heard over air pockets.
A. Resonance
B. Tympany
C. Flatness
D. Dullness

ANSWER:

25. The basic components of the complete health history (other than biographical
information) include:
I. Chief complaint
II. Present health status
III. Psychosocial status
IV. Review of systems

A. I, II, III only

B. I, III, IV only
 C. II, III IV only
D. I, II, III, IV

ANSWER:

26. When assessing the elderly, it is important to ask if they have ever had:
A. Polio
B. Tetanus
C. Cholera
D. Influenza

ANSWER:

27. This type of obtaining health history should elicit information about the patient’s
childhood illnesses and immunizations, accidents or traumatic injuries,
hospitalizations, surgeries, psychiatric or mental illnesses, allergies, and chronic
illnesses.
A. Chief complaint
B. Review of systems
C. Past Health History
D. Present health status

ANSWER:

28. This type of neurological assessment assesses how the brain functions as a whole
and not as individual parts.
A. Level of Consciousness
B. Glasgow Coma Scale
C. Ballard’s Score
D. C only

ANSWER:

29. When checking pupillary response, size, shape, and__________ of both pupils should be
the same.
A. Symmetry
B. Color
C. Texture
D. Odor

ANSWER:

30. The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses how the brain functions as a whole and not as
individual parts. The scale assesses three major brain functions:

I. Eye opening
II. Motor response
 III. Level of consciousness
IV. Verbal response

A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, II, III only
C. I, III, IV only
D. I, II, IV only

ANSWER:

31. What is the overall GCS of a completely normal person?

A. 12
B. 13
C. 14
D. 15

ANSWER:

32. When examining the head, ears, eyes, nose, mouth, and throat, what are the
following questions that are to be asked by the healthcare provider?
I. Do you get frequent or severe headaches?
II. Any past history of head injury?
III. Do you frequently get dizzy?
IV. Do you have any neck pain, swelling, or lumps?

A. I only
B. II only
C. I, II, III only
D. I, II, III, IV

ANSWER:

33. When examining the cardiovascular system, ASK about the following:
I. Any chest pains?
II. Do you have any neck pain, swelling, or lumps?
III. Do you have a history of head or neck surgery?
IV. Do you ever get short of breath?
V. How many pillows do you sleep on at night?
VI. Do you have a cough?

A. I, IV, V, VI only
B. I, II, III, IV only
C. II, IV, VI only
D. I, II, III, IV, V, VI

ANSWER:
34. It is called a clinically useful weight-for-height index that reflects excess body fat as
well as nutritional status.
A. Nutrition Body Index
B. Body Mass Index
C. Dietary Mass Index
D. Nutritional Mass Index

ANSWER:

35. Refers to a situation when many diseases share the similar signs and symptoms,
making their exact cause unclear.
A. Diagnosis
B. Differential Diagnosis
C. Systematic Diagnosis
D. Chief Complaint

ANSWER:

36. Refer to the sensation or subjective experience of some aspect of an illness.

A. Symptoms
B. Signs
C. Diagnosis
D. Assessment

ANSWER:

37. The RT is called to see a 54-year-old woman who underwent abdominal surgery 2
days earlier. She is currently afebrile, alert, and oriented but complaining of
dyspnea. Her breathing is rapid and shallow (34 breaths/min), with mild tachycardia
(110 beats/min). She is 5 feet tall and weighs approximately 185 pounds. During the
interview, she reveals her dyspnea has gradually increased over the past 12 h and
worsens with exertion. The RT auscultates diminished breath sounds in the bases,
with fine, late inspiratory crackles. The remainder of the physical examination is
normal. As an RT, what protocol should be done at the moment?

I. The RT should ask the physician to order a chest radiograph.

II. The RT should let the patient perform PEP therapy
III. The RT should initiate lung expansion therapy
IV. The RT should request other test such as a chest computed tomographic
scan or an angiogram

A. I, II, III only

B. I, III, IV only
C. II, III, IV only
D. I, II, III, IV
 ANSWER:

38. Factors affecting communication between the RT and the patient include the
following:

I. Sensory and emotional factors

II. Age bracket
III. Environmental factors
IV. Verbal and nonverbal components of the communication process
V. Cultural values, beliefs, feelings, habits, and preoccupations of both the RT and
the patient.

A. I, II, III, IV, V

B. I, II, IV, V
C. I, III, IV, V
D. I, IV, V

ANSWER:

39. How many feet does the social space between the RT and the patient which is
considered “socially appropriate” between strangers and therefore non-threatening?
A. 2-4 feet
B. 3-9 feet
C. 4-12 feet
D. 5-10 feet

ANSWER:

40. After an introduction is made it is usually appropriate to begin the interview from
what is referred to as personal space. How many feet does this apply between the
RT and the patient?
A. 2-4 feet
B. 3-9 feet
C. 4-12 feet
D. 5-10 feet

ANSWER:

41. Types of questions used in patient interviews encourage patients to describe events
and priorities as they see them, helping to bring out concerns and attitudes and to
promote understanding.

A. Open-ended questions
B. Close questions
C. Direct questions
D. Indirect questions
 ANSWER:

42. It can be open-ended or closed and always end in a question mark. Although they
are used to obtain specific information, a series of direct questions or frequent use of
the question “Why?” can be intimidating and cause the patient to minimize his or her
responses to questions.

A. Open-ended questions
B. Close questions
C. Direct questions
D. Indirect questions

ANSWER:

43. A type of question that focuses on specific information and provide clarification.

A. Open-ended questions
B. Close questions
C. Direct questions
D. Indirect questions

ANSWER:

44. “What brought you to the hospital?” is a type of:

A. Open-ended questions
B. Close questions
C. Neutral questions
D. Leading questions

ANSWER:

45. “When did your cough start?” is a type of:

A. Open-ended questions
B. Close questions
C. Neutral questions
D. Leading questions

ANSWER:

46. “You didn't cough up blood, did you?” is a type of:

A. Open-ended questions
B. Close questions
 C. Neutral questions
D. Leading questions

ANSWER:

47. It is a type of positional dyspnea that occurs when a patient with unilateral lung
disease lies with the affected side in the dependent (down) position.
A. Platypnea
B. Orthopnea
C. Trepopnea
D. Orthodeoxia

ANSWER:

48. It is the most common yet nonspecific symptom observed in patients with pulmonary
disease.

A. Sneeze
B. Cough
C. Chest pain
D. Dyspnea

ANSWER:

49. ______ refers to mucus from the lungs uncontaminated by oral secretions, whereas
_______ refers to mucus expectorated from the mouth.

A. Sputum; phlegm
B. Phlegm; sputum
C. Purulent; mucoid
D. Mucoid; purulent

ANSWER:

50. It refers to blood vomited from the gastrointestinal tract that often occurs in patients
with gastrointestinal disease.

A. Hemoptysis
B. Hemophilic
C. Hemophilia
D. Hematemesis

ANSWER: