NMAT VERBAL ABILITY SIMULATIONS (MOCK 2)

17. WAX : GREASE :: MILK:_____

Section 1. Analogies a. Drink b. Ghee c. Curd d. Protein
DIRECTIONS: Each item below consists of a series of
words. The first word is related to the second in the same 18. HORSE: HAY :: COW :_____
way as the third word is related to a fourth one which is a. Leaves c. Milk
missing. Select this missing word from the given choices. b. Fodder d. Straw

1. CURRENT: AMPERE :: CHARGE:___ 19. FLOWER: ESSENCE :: OVEN :______

a. Joule c. Newton a. Vapour c. Heat
b. Meter d. Coulomb b. Fire d. Steam

2. ISRAEL: SHEKEL :: AUSTRIA :____ 20. IMPOSSIBLE: FEASIBLE :: THEORETICAL :______

a. Dollar c. Franc a. Radical c. Practical
b. Schilling d. Lira b. Usable d. Workable

3. RAPID: SWIFT :: VAPID : _____ READING COMPREHENSION

a. Inspired c. Wet
b. Turgid d. Insipid Passage 1

4. SPEAR: HUNT :: GAFF:___ What to soap up an oil spill, filter toxic metals from water,
a. Catch c. Fish scrub pesticides off fields, or maybe even feed fish in
b. Trap d. Bound space? Algae might do the job.
Using primitive blue green algae, two Clark Atlanta
5. ORGAN: PIANO :: FIDDLE: ___ University researchers are making microbial mats that
a. Drum b. Violin c. Trombone d. Castanet munch all kinds of muck, from landfill leachate to radioactive
waste.
6. PYTHON: SNAKE :: KANGAROO:______ Grass clippings in an airtight container serve as a
a. Mammal c. Australia feedstock for the microbial mats. As the grass ferments, it
b. Marsupial d. Rabbit produces anaerobic bacteria. Organic acids generated by
these bacteria help preserve the grass. The “canned” grass
7. TRUFFLE: PIG :: CLUE:___ is then shipped to a contaminated area and inoculated with
a. Detective c. Chocolate blue green algae native to the area. Dumped into a pond,
b. Hog d. France the grass clippings and algae form a slimy mat on the
water’s surface. The algae snack on the pond’s pollutant as
8. ACTION: SLOTH :: PRINCIPLES:_______ well as the grass, transforming organic contaminants into
a. Unscrupulousness c. Hero carbon dioxide.
b. Teachers d. Conscientious Originally developed as cheap fish food, microbial mats
have been tested on wetlands contaminated with acidic
9. WALK :ROAM :: SPEAK:______ runoff from coal mines. The mats removed five times more
a. Path b. Silent c. Write d. Babble manganese than conventional cleanup techniques says
microbiologist Judith Bender. In the lab, mats stripped ninety
10. CLUB : MEMBER :: PRIDE : _____ nine percent of the uranium to form a groundwater sample,
a. Lion b. Win c. Medal d. Accept and Bender says they show promise for removing other
metals. “We’ve never challenged the mats with anything
11. GOLF: DRIVE :: TENNIS:____ they couldn’t handle”, she boasts.
a. Net b. Score c. Racket d. Serve Mats grown from crop waste could someday feed fish on
a space station, says Bender. She and co-inventor Peter
12. RHYTHM: MUSIC :: DESIGN:_____ Philips have formed an Atlanta-based company, Microbial &
a. Symmetry c. Beauty Aquatic Systems, to commercialize the technology.
b. Architect d. Building
21. Which of the following is not true about microbial mats?
13. BROWBEAT: BULLY :: ENTERTAIN : _____ a. The mats removed five times more manganese than
a. Miser c. Harmonious conventional cleanup techniques.
b. Raconteur d. Felon b. They were originally developed as cheap fish food.
c. Mats can strip up to ninety percent of uranium from a
14. OUTPUT: YIELD :: CABAL : _____ groundwater sample.
a. Plot b. Plant c. Cable d. Stop d. Mats have been tested on wetlands contaminated
with acidic runoff from coal mines.
15. DANCER: STAGE :: MINISTER :_______
a. Pulpit c. Parliament 22. In the second paragraph, what does the phrase “munch
b. Assembly d. State all kinds of muck” mean?
a. eat all kinds of manure
16. FLY: BIRD :: BREACH : ______ b. eat all kinds of mud
a. Seagull c. Whale c. eat all of kinds of mess
b. Beach d. Foam d. eat all kinds of filth

1
23. According to the passage, the microbial mats can help
clean the following except ____.
a. algae
b. microbes
c. bacteria
d. organic acids
Passage 2
In the olden days, there lived a boy whose ambition was
to be a lawyer so he could defend people, especially the
poor, in court. But there was a great obstacle to his dream.
He could not speak well. He stammered so badly that he
could hardly catch his breath.
“Aren’t you overestimating yourself?” some people
commented when they heard of his ambition.
The boy was unfazed by the remarks years of studies
passed, and the boy became a lawyer. But still he could not
speak well. However, he did not give up hope of becoming a
good speaker. He read books of great thinkers so he could
have good ideas to discuss and talk about. He watched
plays to hear how the famous actors of his time spoke. He
made friends with noted lawyers, philosophers, ex-
seminarians, and writers to observe how they put their
thoughts into words. Then, he went out of the sea and open
fields. With pebbles in his mouth he could talk aloud to the
winds and the waves. He recited poems and speeches as
well as dialogues and essays. At first his efforts seemed
unfruitful but he kept on. He did everything he thought would
improve his speech. That he didn’t leave any stone unturned
would be an understatement. Later, much later, he began to
improve, until finally, his stammering stopped. The ex-
stammer became a good speaker. Not only that. After many
years, he became a great orator, the best in his time.
The boy in our story is none other than Demosthenes,
said to be the world’s greatest orator during his time.
24. The passage implies that ______.
a. We should follow Demosthenes footsteps and
become great orators.
b. If we stammer, we should practice talking with
pebbles in our mouths
c. When faced with obstacles, we should do everything
to overcome them
d. We should not leave any stone unturned
25. In the third paragraph, what does the author mean when
he wrote that Demosthenes was unfazed by the
remarks of the people?
a. he was greatly bothered
b. he was not feeling well
c. it made him fell adequate
d. it did not cause him to feel self-conscious
26. According to the first paragraph, the greatest obstacle to
Demosthenes’ dream of becoming a lawyer was that he
stammered. From this, it can be inferred that _______.
a. stammers can never become lawyers
b. a lawyer must be a good speaker
c. stammers can never improve their manner of
speaking
d. stammers lawyers can never win cases
27. Which of the following is not mentioned in the passage?
a. Demosthenes became a lawyer despite his
stammering
b. He practiced talking with pebbles in his mouth
c. He became a great lawyer and speaker
d. He was the best orator during his time
2
28. The author’s main purpose in writing this passage is to
______.
a. teach us how to overcome stammering
b. discuss how Demosthenes overcame his stammering
c. make us realize that we can overcome obstacles and
still succeed
d. teach us how to become a great orator like
Demosthenes
Passage 3
The symbolism of some flowers is clear, as in the case of
lily, which seem always to have symbolized purity, and the
violet, which stands for modesty. Other flowers have had
different meaning in various times and places. The rose has
been a symbolic flower in every age. In ancient Egypt, it was
the emblem of virtue and loveliness. For the Greeks, it was
the flower sacred to Aphrodite, the goddess of love. To the
Romans, it was the symbol of victory, triumph, pride, and
pomp, associated with feastings and celebrations. The rose
was used as the symbol of martyrdom and of divine love by
the church, and during the Middle Ages, it was the symbol of
silence. This last meaning gave rise to the Latin phrase sub
rosa, under the rose. A rose, emblem of silence, was often
included in the ceiling carving of medieval banquet halls to
remind the guests that conversation at table under the rose
should not be repeated elsewhere. Today the rose is the
acknowledged symbol of love and beauty.
Ideas and sentiments conveyed by other flowers are fairly
uniform. The forget-me-not symbolizes faithfulness and the
lily of the valley, unconscious sweetness, chastity and purity.
It is the flower that decorates the altar at weddings, although
the bride wears orange blossoms and not lilies as crown.
The violet, hidden beneath its leaves and growing close to
the ground, symbolizes modesty; the hydrangea with its
showy clusters of white, blue and pink flowers, symbolizes
coquetry. The honeysuckle, climbing the stoutest trees with
its twining vines festooned with small fragrant flowers of red,
yellow, or white, symbolizes the link of love and friendship.
The dame de noche, which scents the air only when the
other flowers are asleep, is the symbol of timidity. The water
hyacinth, with its stalk holding a cluster of delicate-petaled
lavender bells, is a species of the flower that stands for grief
and sorrow. We know the plant only too well because it
covers sizeable portions of Laguna lake and floats down the
Pasig River like green islands.
29. What flower decorates the altars at weddings?
a. rose c. violet
b. lily of the valley d. hyacinth
30. Which is true of the rose?
a. It was a symbol of victory for the Greeks.
b. For the Romans, it was the flower sacred to Venus.
c. For the church, it symbolizes martyrdom and divine
love.
d. It symbolizes faithfulness.
31. Which of the following is not true of flowers based on the
passage?
a. They convey fairly uniform ideas and sentiments.
b. They symbolize positive attributes.
c. They cover sizable portions of lakes and rivers.
d. Some flowers have different symbolism at different
ages.
32. The author used the word “coquetry” to mean
a. flirtation b. pageantry c. crochet d. cricket
Passage 4
When the people of the world all know
beauty as beauty
There rises the recognition of ugliness.
When they all know the good as good,
There arises the recognition of evil.
Therefore:
Being a non-being produce each other;
Difficult and easy complete each other;
Long and short contrast each other;
High and low distinguish each other;
Sound and voice harmonize each other;
Front and behind accompany each other.
Therefore the sage manages affair without action
And spreads doctrines without words.
All things arise, and he does not turn away
from them.
He produces them but does not take
possession of them.
He acts but does not rely on his own ability.
He accomplishes his task but does not claim
credit for it.
It is precisely because he does not claim
credit that his accomplishment remains with him.
33. The main thought of the passage is:
a. The world is a beautiful place to live in.
b. Everything has its opposite and these opposites are
caused by the sage.
c. Everything in this world has its opposite and these
opposites are mutual causations of each other.
d. Man should not take credit for what he does because
he does not control his actions.
34. Based on the passage, we can infer that the opposites
________.
a. are conflicts which disrupt harmony.
b. should necessarily be discovered in order for us to
live a better life.
c. serve as compliments of each other.
d. are important to complete the “wholeness” of each
other.
35. What does the word sage in the passage mean?
a. powerful person c. God
b. wise person d. Creator
36. The fourth line of the third stanza can be best illustrated
by:
a. The relationship between the baker and the cake.
b. The relationship between the king and his people.
c. The relationship between the parents and their
children.
d. The relationship between the writer and his novel.
3
Passage 5
Don’t be fooled by me. Don’t be fooled by the mask I
wear. For I wear a thousand masks, masks that I am afraid
to take off and none of them are really me. Pretending is an
art that is second nature with me. I give the impression that I
am secure, that everything is fine with me, that confidence is
my name and coolness is my game. And that I need no one.
But don’t be fooled by me.
My surface seems smooth, but my surface is my mask.
Beneath the mask is the real me – confused, frightened and
alone. But I hide this. I don’t want anyone to know it. I panic
at the thought of my weaknesses and fear being exposed.
That’s why I create a mask to hide behind – a nonchalant,
sophisticated façade to help me pretend, to shield me from
the glance that knows.
37. What should be the appropriate title of the passage?
a. Mr. Smooth Surface
b. Superficial Beauty
c. Art of Pretending
d. The Mask I Wear
38. To which of the following does the word “façade” refer
to?
a. exterior appearance
b. lovable
c. personality
d. atmosphere
39. In writing article, what does the writer wants the reader
to do?
a. appreciate his calm demeanor
b. look beyond his calm demeanor
c. copy his calm demeanor
d. be impressed by his calm demeanor
40. With which of the following statements would the author
most likely agree?
a. Wear your heart out on your sleeve.
b. We need masks to look sophisticated and confident.
c. Do not be deceived by surface appearances.
d. Sophisticated people are successful.
END OF TEST
 NMAT INDUCTIVE REASONING SIMULATIONS (MOCK 2)

I. Figure Series
Directions: In each item below, the series of figures at the left shows a continuously changing pattern. Discover this pattern
of change. From the five figures at the right, choose the one which should come next in the series.

1.

2.

3.

4.

1
5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

2
10.

II. Figure Grouping

Directions: Each item in this section consists of five figures. The task is to find the principle involved which makes four of the
five figures similar to each other. The figures that is different from the other four is the answer to the item.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

3
16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

III. Number and Letter Series

21. 17 18 16 48 12 13 ____
A. 14 B. 11 C. 39 D. 15 E. 26

22. ABC FED GHI LKJ MNO ____

A. RQP B. QRP C. PQR D. RPQ E. QPR

23. ACE KIG MOO WUS YAC ____

A. EGI B. KIG C. IGE D. CEG E. GIK

24. BDF CFI HJL LOR ____

A. JLN B. DHL C. LNP D. PRT E. NPR

4
25. ZA BY XC DW VE ____
A. FT B. FU C. GS D. EU E. UF

26. BO DQ FS HU ____
A. IV B. FU C. JU D. JW E. VI

27. BA YZ CD XW FE UV ____
A. HI B. IH C. GH D. HG E. FG

28. E H L N R U ____
A. W B. Z C. Y D. T E. X

29. X U P M H ____
A. E B. F C. H D. L E. D

30. WU DF QO JL ____
A. KI B. JH C. OM D. RP E. MK

31. 6 10 30 130 630 3130 ____

A. 78,130 B. 25,130 C. 15,630 D. 15,625 E. 78,125

32. 3 4 15 24 75 144 ____

A. 375 B. 864 C. 435 D. 120 E. 720

33. I I K N R ____
A. V B. T C. Z D. X E. W

34. 16 32 8 48 ____
A. 6 B. 64 C. 20 D. 56 E. 12

35. 2 5 8 11 ____
A. 14 B. 15 C. 19 D. 13 E. 22

36. O P Q S S W V ____
A. T B. R C. X D. U E. Q

37. 12 68 8 64 4 ____
A. 60 B. 58 C. 2 D. 6 E. 32

38. UVW CDE NOP ____

A. IJK B. UYZ C. NPO D. GHK E. VWU

39. VUT QRS PON KLM ____

A. HIJ B. GFE C. WXY D. JIH E. KJI

40. D F J P ____
A. U B. W C. X D. Z E. V

5
 NMAT QUANTITATIVE SIMULATIONS (MOCK 2)

Section 1. Fundamental Operations 14. A brand new car could travel 15 km on a gallon of gas. After
two years, this same car travel only 80% of the distance on the
1. 2[4 − 2𝑥(3 − 𝑎) + 6𝑥(𝑎 + 1)] same amount of gas, how many gallons of gas will the old car need
a) 8ax + 24x + 8 c) 8ax + 6 in order to travel 90 km?
b) 8ax + 8 d) 16ax + 8 a) 7.0 b) 7.5 c) 8.5 d) 9.0

15. Two boys divide a prize of Php 3,200 in the ratio 5:3. How
5𝑥 45𝑥 3
2. √ ÷ √12𝑦2 = much more does one boy receive than the other?
3𝑦 a) Php 2,000 b) Php 1,200 c) Php 800 d) Php 400
2 3𝑎 2
a)
3𝑥
√𝑦 b) 6𝑥√𝑦 c)
2
√𝑦 d)
3
√𝑥𝑦 16. A newsboy earns 20c per newspaper and 40c per magazine
sold. On a lucky day, he sells a total of 70 newspaper and
𝑥 3 −1 𝑥−1 2 magazines and earns Php 20. The number of newspapers sold is:
3.
𝑥
÷( 𝑥 ) = a) 30 b) 38 c) 40 d) 48
𝑥 𝑥−1 𝑥 2 +𝑥+1 𝑥 3 +𝑥 2 +𝑥
a) b) c) d) 17. The product of two consecutive positive integers is 240. The
𝑥−1 𝑥 𝑥−1 𝑥−1
sum of two integers is:
3 2𝑥 6𝑦 a) 29 b) 31 c) 33 d) 35
4.
𝑥−𝑦
+ 𝑦(𝑥+𝑦) − 𝑥 2 −𝑦2 =
𝑥+𝑦 2𝑥+𝑦 2𝑥+3𝑦 𝑥+3𝑦 18. Thirty percent in a class are accounting majors, 20% are
a) b) c) d) marketing majors and the rest are economics major. If there are 30
𝑥−𝑦 𝑦(𝑥+𝑦) 𝑦(𝑥+𝑦) 𝑦(𝑥+𝑦)
students in the class majoring in economics, how many students
4.8 𝑥 13.5−9 are majoring in marketing?
5. = a) 12 b) 18 c) 30 d) 60
2.4
a) 27 b) 23.25 c) 2.7 d) 2.325

6. 13
1
+
5
4 + 12
7
= A
2 8 12 B
17 17 17 17
a) 30 b) 29 c) 31 d) 29
24 24 24 48

1
−3
125𝑥 6 𝑦 4
7. ( ) =
27𝑥 9 𝑦 −8
3𝑥 𝑥 5𝑥 3𝑥
a) b) c) d)
4 3𝑦 4 3𝑦 4 5𝑦 4
19. The figure above is a square that contains two squares A and B.
𝑏3 −1 𝑏−1 2 A has an area of 25 sq.mm, B has a perimeter of 36 mm. The area
8.
𝑏
÷( 𝑏 ) = of the shaded part in sq.mm is…
a) 90 b) 60 c) 40 d) 32
𝑏 𝑏2 +𝑏+1
a) c) 20. If the average of the ages of three men is 46 and none of them
𝑏−1 𝑏−1 is less than 42 years of age, what is the maximum age in years of
any one man?
𝑏−1 𝑏3 + 𝑏2 +𝑏
b) d) a) 58 b) 54 c) 52 d) 50
𝑏 𝑏−1
21. A sheet of aluminium is 0.06 cm thick. How many meters high
9. 16 x 2 ÷ 8 + 12 x 3 – 36 ÷ 6 x 3 =
would a pile of 1,250 sheets be?
a) 22 b) 20 c) 38 d) 32 3 1
a) 75.0 m b) 7.5 m c) m d) m
4 4
2 1
10. 3 x5 =
5 4 22. In an English test, 50 students have an average score of 80
12 17 13 5
while 30 other students have an average of 72. The average score
a) 15 b) 17 c) 3 d) 4 of all students is:
20 20 20 20
a) 79 b) 78 c) 77 d) 76
1 2
−
11. 16 2 + (−27) 3 = 2
1 1
23. The product of two numbers is 8. If one of the numbers is
3
a) 9 b) 9 c) 17 d) 9 then the sum of the number is:
2 4
18 22 36 38
a) b) c) d)
−1/3 3 3 3 3
1250 𝑥 3 𝑦 4
12. ( ) =
8𝑥 6 𝑦 −2 24. If 5 cats can catch 5 mice in 5 minutes, how many cats are
2𝑥 𝑦2 5𝑦 2 2𝑥 required to catch 100 mice in 100 minutes?
a) b) c) d)
𝑦2 2𝑥 2𝑥 5𝑦 2 a) 5 b) 20 c) 100 d) 200

25. In an ice cream parlor, 87 customers ordered either vanilla or

Section 2. Problem Solving chocolate or both flavors. If 62 ordered vanilla only and 68 ordered
chocolate only, how many ordered both flavors?
13. Anita earned the following scores in 5 quizzes 82, 93, 76, 85 a) 130 b) 87 c) 44 d) 43
and 80. What is the average score?
a) 81.2 b) 82.0 c) 83.2 d) 85.2

1
 26. Travelling at 15 kph, a doctor would arrive at his office for an 32. Which statement gives an accurate comparison of the height of
appointment one hour too early. If the same trip is made at an the two boys when they were 12 years old?
average speed of 10kph, he will arrive an hour late. At what a) Romil was taller by 5 inches
average speed should the trip be made in order for him to arrive on b) Emy was taller by 5 inches
time? c) Romil was taller by 50 inches
a) 11.5 kph b) 12.0 kph c) 12.5 kph d) 13.0 kph d) Emy was taller by 55 inches

27. Collectively, Jose, Pepe, and Boy weigh 396 lb. Pepe is 10 lb 33. Which of the following is/are true, based on the graph?
heavier than Jose while Boy weighs 10 lb more than Pepe. They are I. at birth, Romil was longer than Emy
medical interns assigned with senior residents in pairs. Resident Del II. from ages 4 to 7, Emy and Romil were of the same
weighs as much as his partner Jose, Carlos is twice as heavy as his height
partner, while Albert is one and one-half times as heavy as the III. during the first four years, Emy grew faster than Romil
intern assigned to him. If the six weigh 1000 lb, what is the weight a) I only b) I and II only c) I and III only d) I, II and III
of Pepe’s partner?
a) 132 lb b) 142 lb c) 198 lb d) 213 lb For nos 34-37, please refer to the following figure:

For nos. 28-31, please refer to the following table

Savings Miscellanous

Except for newborn babies, the age distribution (in percent) of the 5% 10%
patients in hospitals A and B are given in the following table: Books
20%
200 patients 300 patients Food Movies
Age (in Years) Hospital A (%) Hospital B (%) 45% Recreation 30%
up to 10 7 5 15%
11-20 11 12 Music
21-30 23 25
31-40 19 20 50%
41-50 15 13 Fare
51-60 9 8
61-70 8 11
25%
71-80 5 4
above 80 3 2
34. If the student’s weekly allowance is Php 500, how much does
TOTAL
he save each week?
a) Php 250 b) Php 2.50 c) Php 100 d) Php 25
28. How many patients aged 51 to 80 years does Hospital A have?
a) 25 b) 44 c) 69 d) 113 35. If the student’s weekly allowance is Php500, how much does he
spend for watching movies every week?
29. The largest difference between the number of patients in the a) Php 22.50 b) Php 150 c) Php 37.50 d) Php 75
two hospitals occurs in which of the following in age brackets?
a) up to 20 b) 21-40 c) 41-60 d) above 60 36. If the students spend Php 60 each week for his transportation
expenses, what is the total weekly allowance?
30. How many more patients aged up to 20 does Hospital B has a) Php 200 b) Php 240 c) Php 300 d) Php 150
compared to that of Hospital A?
a) 51 b) 36 c) 21 d) 15 37. What is the central angle of the pie representing recreation?
a) 27˚ b) 15 ˚ c) 45 ˚ d) 54 ˚
31. The total number of patients aged at least 61 years is what
percent of the total number of patients in the two hospitals? For nos 38-40, please refer to the following graph:
a) 33 b) 16.6 c) 10.2 d) 6.4
60
For nos 32-33 please refer to the following graph
50 SERVICE (PUBLIC &
80 PRIVATE)

70 40 (

60 30
inches 50 20 GOODS PRODUCING
INDUSTRIES

40 10
ROMIL
48 50 52 54 56 58 60 62 64 66 68 70 72 74 76
30 MY

20 38. At the end of 1965, about what was total employment, in

EMY millions, in both service and goods-producing industries?
10 a) 51 b) 54 c) 57 d) 63

0 39. For the entire period shown in the graph, the increase in
employment in service was about how many times greater than the
0 5 10 15 20
increase in employment in goods-producing industries?
The height of twin boys, Emy and Romil were recorded every year a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
from birth until their twentieth year. A graph of the data is shown in
the above graph. 40. At the end of 1970, about what was the ratio of the number of
service workers to workers in goods-producing industries?
a) 2:1 b) 3:2 c) 5:3 d) 5:2
2
 NMAT PERCEPTUAL ACUITY SIMULATIONS (MOCK 2)

I. Hidden Figures
Directions: Each item below is made up of simple figure at the left and five complicated drawings at the right. Select the
complicated drawing that contains the simple figure. The hidden figure may appear in a different positions but it must have the
same size and shape as the simplest figure.
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

1
8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

II. Mirror Figures:

Directions: Each item below consists of a figure of word followed by five options. Select from the options. Select from the options
the mirror image of the given figure or word.
13.

14.

15.

2
16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

3
24.

25.

SECTION III : Identical Information

26. Use as dietary supplement to help reduce the risk of 28. Clarke, R.P., Heredity,
heart disease & lower bad cholesterol. 3rd Edition, Prentice Hall
A. Use as dietary supplement to help reduce the risk of Englewood Cliffs, N.J., 1963.
heart disease & lower bad cholesterol. A. Clarke, R.P., Heredity,
B. Use as dietary supplement to help reduce the risk of 3rd Edition, Prentice Hall
heart disease and lower bad cholesterol. Englewood Cliffs, N.Y., 1963.
C. Use as dietary suplement to help reduce the risk of B. Clarke, R.P., Heredity,
heart disease & lower bad cholesterol. 3rd Edition, Prentice Hall
D. Use as dietary supplement: to help reduce the risk of Englewood Cliffs, N.J., 1963.
heart disease & lower bad cholesterol. C. Clark, R.P., Heredity,
E. Use as dietary supplement: to help reduce the risk of 3rd Edition, Prentice Hall
heart diseas & lower bad cholesterol. Englewood Cliffs, N.J., 1963.
D. Clarke, R.P., Heredity,
27. Salapatek,P.,Bechtold, A.G., Bushness,E.W.(1976). 3rd Edition, Prentice Hale
Infant visual acuity as a function of viewing distance. Englewood Cliffs, N.J., 1963.
Child Development,47,860-863. E. Clarke, P.R., Heredity,
A. Salapatek,P.,Bechtold, A.G., Bushness,E.W.(1976). 3rd Edition, Prentice Hall
Infant visual acuity as a function of viewing distance. Englewood Cliffs, N.J., 1963.
Child Development,47,860-866.
B. Salapatek,P.,Bechtold, A.G., Bushiness,E.W.(1976). 29. Vitamin K, the antihemorrhagic vitamin, is necessary for
Infant visual acuity as a function of viewing distance. production of prothrombin in the liver.
Child Development,47,860-863. A. Vitamin K, the antihemorhagic vitamin, is necessary
C. Salapatek,P.,Bechtold, A.G Bushness,E.W.(1976). for production of prothrombin in the liver.
Infant visual acuity as a function of viewing distance. B. Vitamin K, the antihemorrhagic vitamin, is necessary
Child Development,47,860-863. for production of prothrombon in the liver.
D. Salapatek,P.,Bechtold, A.G., Bushness,E.W.(1976). C. Vitamin K, the antihemorrhagic vitamin, is necessary
Infant visual acuity as a function of viewing distance. for production of prothrombin on the liver.
Child Development,47,860-863. D. Vitamin K, the antihemorrhagic vitamin, is necessary
E. Salapatek,B.,Bechtold, A.G., Bushness,E.W.(1976). for production of prothrombin in the liver.
Infant visual acuity as a function of viewing distance. E. Vitamin K, the antihemorrhagic vitamin is necessary
Child Development,47,860-863. for production of prothrombin in the liver.

30. Contains EPA (eicosapentaenoic acid) 180 mg,DHA

(docosahexaenoic acid) 120 mg
A. Contains APA (eicosapentaenoic acid) 180 mg,DHA
(docosahexaenoic acid) 120 mg
B. Contains EPA (eicosapentaenoic acid) 108 mg,DHA
(docosahexaenoic acid) 120 mg
C. Contains EPA (eicosapentaenoic acid) 180 mg,DHA
(docosahexanoic acid) 120 mg
D. Contains EPA (eicosapentaenoic acid) 180 mg,DHA
(docosahexaenoic acids) 120 mg
E. Contains EPA (eicosapentaenoic acid) 180 mg,DHA
(docosahexaenoic acid) 120 mg

4
31. Franks, J., et al. 1959. The role of anxiety in
psychophysiological reactions. A.M.A. Arch. Neurol. Psychiat.,
81:227-232.
A. Franks, J., et al. 1959. The role of anxiety in
psychophysiological reaction. A.M.A. Arch. Neurol. Psychiat.,
81:227-232.
B. Franks, J., et al. 1959. The role of anxiety in
physiopsychological reactions. A.M.A. Arch. Neurol. Psychiat.,
81:227-232.
C. Franks, J., et al. 1959. The role of anxiety in
psychophysiological reactions. A.W.A. Arch. Neurol. Psychiat.,
81:227-232.
D. Franks, J., et al. 1959. The role of anxiety in
psychophysiological reactions. A.M.A. Arch. Neurol. Psychiat.,
81:227-232.
E. Franks, J., et al. 1959. The role of anxiety in
psychophysiological reactions. A.M.A. Arch. Neuro. Psychiat.,
81:227-232.
32. Phenolphthalein is obtained by heating phthalic
anhydride in the presence of sulfuric acid.
A. Phenolphthalein is obtained by heating pthalic
anhydride in the presence of sulfuric acid.
B. Phenolphthalein is obtained by heating phthalic
anhydride in the absence of sulfuric acid.
C. Phenophthalein is obtained by heating phthalic
anhydride in the presence of sulfuric acid.
D. Phenolphthalein is obtained by heating phthalic
anhydride in the presence of sulfurus acid.
E. Phenolphthalein is obtained by heating phthalic
anhydride in the presence of sulfuric acid.
33. Books in China Rare & O/P. Also Japan & SE Asia. Latest
catalogue from Oxus Books, 121 Astonville St., London SW
18.
A. Books in China Rare & O/P. Also Japan & SE Asia.
Latest catalogoe from Oxus Books, 121 Astonville St., London
SW 18.
B. Books in China Rare & O/P. Also Japan & SE Asia.
Latest catalogue from Oxus Books, 121 Astonvilla St., London
SW 18.
C. Books in China Rare & O/P. Also Japan & SE Asia.
Latest catalogue from Onus Books, 121 Astonville St.,
London SW 18.
D. Books in China Rare & O/P. Also Japan & SE Asia.
Latest catalogue from Oxus Book, 121 Astonville St., London
SW 18.
E. Books in China Rare & O/P. Also Japan & SE Asia.
Latest catalogue from Oxus Books, 121 Astonville St., London
SW 18.
34. Isolation and antimicrobial therapy are essential to abort
epidermic infantile diarrhea.
A. Isolation and antimicrobial therapy are essential to
abort epidermic infantile diarhea.
B. Isolation and antimicrobial therapy are essential to
abort epidermic infantile diarrhea.
C. Isolation and antimicorbial therapy are essential to
abort epidermic infantile diarrhea.
D. Isolation and antimicrobial therapy are esential to
abort epidermic infantile diarrhea.
E. Isolation and antimicrobial therapy were essential to
abort epidermic infantile diarrhea.
5
35. Skye, 13 miles off the northwest coast of Scotland, is the
largest and most famous of the Hebrides.
A. Skye, 13 miles off the northeast coast of Scotland, is
the largest and most famous of the Hebrides.
B. Skye, 13 miles off the northwest coast of Scotland is
the largest and most famous of the Hebrides.
C. Skye, 13 miles of the northwest coast of Scotland, is
the largest and most famous of the Hebrides.
D. Skye, 13 miles off the northwest coast of Scotland, is
the largest and most famous of the Hebriles.
E. Skye, 13 miles off the northwest coast of Scotland, is the
largest and most famous of the Hebrides.
36. Phosphorous acid, H3PO3, can be prepared by the action
of water upon P4O6, PCl3, PBr3, or PI3.
A. Phosphorous acid, H3PO3, can be prepared by the
action of water upon P4O6, P3Cl, PBr3, or PI3.
B. Phosphorous acid, H3PO3, can be prepared by the
action of water upon P6O4, PCl3, PBr3, or PI3.
C. Phosphorous acid, HPO3, can be prepared by the
action of water upon P4O6, PCl3, PBr3, or PI3.
D. Phosphorous acid, H3PO3, can be prepared by the
action of water upon P4O6, PCl3, PBr3, or PI3.
E. Phosphouros acid, H3PO3, can be prepared by the
action of water upon P4O6, PCl3, PBr3, or PI3.
37. The end product of glycolysis is pyruvic acid, is an
important source of energy in all aerobic cells.
A. The end product of glycolyses is pyruvic acid, is an
important source of energy in all aerobic cells.
B. The end product of glycolysis is pyruvic acid, is an
important source of energy in all airobic cells.
C. The end product of glycolysis is pryuvic acid, is an
important source of energy in all aerobic cells.
D. The end product of glycolysis is pyruvic acid, is an
important source of energy in all aerobic cells.
E. The end products of glycolysis is pyruvic acid, is an
important source of energy in all aerobic cells.
38. Ku Choi Tong Chinese Drug Store
Cubao Branch No. 3
2369 Aurora Blvd., Q.C.
A. Ku Chai Tong Chinese Drug Store
Cubao Branch No. 3
2369 Aurora Blvd., Q.C.
B. Ku Choi Tong Chinese Drug Store
Cubao Branch No. 3
2396 Aurora Blvd., Q.C.
C. Ku Choi Tong Chinese Drug Store
Cubao Branch No. 3
2369 Aurora Blvd, Q.C.
D. Ku Choi Tong Chinese Drug Store
Cubao Branch No. 8
2369 Aurora Blvd., Q.C.
E. Ku Choi Tong Chinese Drug Store
Cubao Branch No. 3
2369 Aurora Blvd., Q.C.
39. Beijing Medical College: Xue Huan Lu, Northern Suburb,
Beijing, China
A. Beijing Medical College: Sue Huan Lu, Northern
Suburb, Beijing, China
B. Beijing Medical College: Xue Huan Lee, Northern
Suburb, Beijing, China
C. Biejing Medical College: Xue Huan Lu, Northern
Suburb, Beijing, China
D. Beijing Medical College: Xue Huan Lu, Northern
Suburd, Beijing, China
E. Beijing Medical College: Xue Huan Lu, Northern
Suburb, Beijing, China

40. Depigmentation is a feature of old burn, scars, leprosy,

and vitiligo.
A. Depigmentation is a feature of old burn, scars,
leprosy and vitiligo.
B. Depigmentation is a feature of old burns, scars,
leprosy, and vitiligo.
C. Depegmentation is a feature of old burn, scars,
leprosy, and vitiligo.
D. Depigmentation is a feature of old burn, scars,
leprosy, and vitiligo.
E. Depigmentation is a feature of old burn, scars,
leprosy, and witiligo.

6
 NMAT BIOLOGY MOCK SIMULATIONS 2 (1116)
DIRECTIONS: Select the best answer to each of the
following questions and blacken the appropriate space on
your answer sheet.
I. ECOLOGY
1. A biome is
a. the thin layer surrounding the Earth that supports all life.
b. all the populations of different species living and
interacting within an ecosystem.
c. a broad-scale region dominated by similar types of
ecosystems.
d. an area of land or water composed of a patchwork of
communities and ecosystems.
2. Population density is described as population size per unit
area/volume. In population density, two kinds of factors are
being considered: dependent and independent factors.
Which of the following is not a density independent factor?
a. diseases c. hurricane
b. forest fires d. climate change
3. Which of the following is considered an abiotic
component of the ecosystem?
a. animals c. microbes
b. plants d. temperature
4. Which of the following questions is most appropriate to
an investigation at the population level?
a. What is the effect of diminished resources on an
individual's life span?
b. What is the relationship between resource availability and
birthrate?
c. What factors influence the distribution of tropical forests?
d. How long does it take for carbon to be cycled from the
atmosphere into living tissue?
5. The energy pyramid shows the decreasing pattern of
energy from producers to consumers and from one trophic
level to another. Producers are placed at the base of the
pyramid because _____________.
a. they are used up at a faster rate
b. they have the most amount of energy available
c. they can be found in aquatic and terrestrial ecosystem
d. they have pigments available in producing their own food
6. Ecological pyramids can be inverted when..
a. they represent number of organisms
b. they represent energy content of organisms
c. they represent biomass of organism
d. both a and c are correct
7. Population grows exceptionally when…
a. birth rate exceeds death rate and neither changes
b. death rate remains above birth rate
c. immigration and emigration rates are equal
d. none of these
1
8. Which statement below is NOT true of both the nitrogen
and the carbon cycle?
a. Both cycles keep vital nutrients available to primary
producers.
b. Both nutrients enter and exit the cycle as atmospheric
gases.
c. Because both nutrients are abundant in air, both are
available to all autotrophs directly from the atmosphere.
d. Both nutrients are crucial components of the amino acids
all organisms require.
II. CELL BIOLOGY
9. An erythrocyte is placed in a beaker with a hypertonic
solution. What do you think will happen to the cell after
several minutes?
a. It will crenate. c. It will plasmolyze.
b. It will become turgid. d. It will become flaccid.
10. What happens during anaphase?
a. Chromosomes replicate
b. Fragmentation of the nuclear membrane
c. Chromosomes start to migrate to opposite poles
d. Chromosomes are freely-scattered in the cytoplasm
11. Cell membrane carbohydrates participate in
a. Transporting substances across membranes
b. Cell to cell recognition
c. Attaching the membrane to the cytoskeleton
d. Attaching the membrane to the cell wall
12. A diploid cell has 28 chromosomes. When meiosis
occurs, how many chromosomes are there during Prophase
I?
a. 14 chromosomes c. 56 chromosomes
b. 28 chromosomes d. 84 chromosomes
13. Solution A is a 0.5M glucose solution while solution B is
a 0.25M fructose solution. Both are separated by a semi-
permeable membrane that prevents fructose and glucose
from crossing while allowing water to cross. What will
happen to the solutions?
a. Water will move from side A to side B
b. Water will move from side B to side A
c. Fructose and glucose will move to opposite sides
d. There will be no net movement of water and sugars
14. Which of the following substances will easily cross the
cell membrane?
a. starch c. chloride ion
b. sodium ion d. carbon dioxide
III. GENETICS
15. Vitiligo is a disorder in which melanocytes (cells that
produce melanin pigment) are unable to function. As a
result, white patches appear on the skin. Albinism is a
chromosomal mutation that may result in the cessation of
melanin production or a considerable decline in the amount
of melanin. A man who is an intermediate albino (Aa) with
vitiligo (Bb) amrries a woman who is an albino (aa) but has
a normal skin (bb). What percent of their offspring is
considered as purebred?
a.25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100%
16. Oogenesis is the meiosis that occurs in the ovary of 21. Which of the following statements about the vascular
female organisms. If 5 oogonia are present, how many cambium is TRUE?
active cells are produced when 3 out of 5 oogonia undergo a. the vascular cambium is responsible for production of
oogenesis? branch roots
a. 3 b. 5 c. 6 d. 10 b. the vascular cambium is only found in dicots
c. the vascular cambium produces phloem to the inside and
17. Incomplete dominance is characterized by a cross xylem to the outside
between a homozygous dominant and recessive gene that d. All of the above statements are FALSE
will result in an intermediated trait. Assume the following
sets of genes in a human being: 22. In stems, the points of attachment of leaves and buds
are called:
B – black-colored pupil HH – straight hair a. bud scales c. nodes
bb - blue-colored pupil Hh - wavy hair b. leaf primordia d. meristems
hh - curly hair
23. A mineral deficiency is likely to affect older than younger
A husband and wife, BBHH x bbHh, wants to know the leaves if:
probability of having a child with blue-colored pupil and a. the mineral is a micronutrient
wavy hair. What will you tell them? b. the mineral is very mobile within the plant
a. There is a
1
chance that the offspring will have blue- c. the older leaves are in direct sunlight
4 d. none of these
colored pupils and wavy hair.
1
b. There is a chance that the offspring will have blue- 24. If you grow coleus plant, you will need to cut or pinch
2 off the top bud frequently or the plant will become tall and
colored pupils and wavy hair.
spindly. Pinching off this bud will slow the production of
c. There is no chance that the offspring will have blue-
_____ by the apical bud and allow the plant to become
colored pupils and wavy hair.
bushy.
d. impossible to determine
a. auxin b. cytokinin c. gibberellin d. ethylene
18. Feather color in budgies is determined by two different
25. Macronutrients are elements needed by plants in
genes Y and B. YYBB, YyBB, or YYBb is green; yyBB or yyBb
relatively large amount. All of the following are
is blue; YYbb or Yybb is yellow; and yybb is white. A blue
macronutrients except ____________.
budgie is crossed with a white budgie. Which of the
a. zinc b. nitrogen c. potassium d. phosphorus
following results is not possible?
a. green offspring c. blue offspring
26. Which of the following apples will ripen the fastest?
b. yellow offspring d. A and B
a. an apple often flushed with carbon dioxide
b. an apple with an ethylene-releasing banana enclosed in a
19. Recombinant DNA is one of the successful applications
bag
of genetics in our society and the reason behind the mass
c. an apple with a beaker of an ethylene-releasing chemical
production of vaccines, hormones, etc. Insulin production is
in a plastic bag
made possible because of recombinant DNA. The insulin
d. choices b and c
gene from human DNA is cut with the use of restriction
enzymes. The insulin gene is then combined in a plasmid
27. The response of stems growing upward is referred to as
(secondary DNA) and inserted into another cellular
a. negative gravitropism
organism. What could be the organism?
b. positive gravitropism
a. Corona virus c. Tobacco mosaic virus
c. negative phototropism
b. Escerichia coli d. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
d. positive phototropism
IV. BOTANY
28. Students were asked to collect data on the plant Trifolio
petalia. Two students reported finding a plant with flowers
20. A few seconds after touching the Mimosa pudica plant,
having four petals instead of the usual 3. Which of the ff.
its leaflets fold together. It takes about 10 minutes or more
explains this observation?
for the plant to regain and restore the natural form of the
a. Unusual findings such as this usually occurs and can
leaf. A good explanation for this is:
easily be disregarded
a. Cells suddenly become flaccid after stimulation because
b. All plants having 3 petals produce some flowers with 4
of the loss of K+
petals
b. Cells suddenly become turgid after stimulation because of
c. These flowers are actually the result of a new species and
loss of Na+
in a few years, this group of plants will have formed 2
c. Cells suddenly become flaccid after stimulation because of
species.
the loss of Na+
d. Slight variation in the number of petals may occur due to
d. none of these
accidental changes during development

29. Translocation of cytokinin is polar and takes place in the

a. Xylem c. Both a and b
b. Phloem d. Capillary rise

2
30. Most of the water taken up by the plant is
a. split during photosynthesis as a source of electrons and
hydrogen
b. lost by transpiration through stomata
c. absorbed by cells during their elongation
d. incorporated directly into organic material
31. The productivity of a crop begins to decline when leaves
begin to wilt mainly because:
a. The chlorophyll wilting leaves decomposes.
b. Flaccid mesophyll cells are incapable of photosynthesis
c. Stomata close, preventing CO2 from entering the leaves
d. none of these
32. A botanist used a device called a dendrometer to
measure slight changes in the diameter of a tree trunk
caused by water movement in the xylem. The device made
simultaneous measurements at different heights, graphed
below. This suggests that
a. water is pulled up the trunk
b. water is pulled down the trunk
c. no movement of water in the trunk takes place
d. none of these
V. ZOOLOGY AND DEVELOPMENTAL BIOLOGY
33. Developmental biology deals with the study of the
development of animals. It also deals with the processes
involved in the transformation of fertilized egg to a more
complex individual. Which of the following is the correct
sequence of the development of a simple cell to a more
complex organism?
a. fertilization-gametogenesis-gastrulation-cleavage-
organogenesis-growth and histological differentiation
b. gametogenesis-fertilization-cleavage-gastrulation-growth
and histological differentiation-organogenesis
c. fertilization-gametogenesis-cleavage-gastrulation-growth
and histological differentiation-organogenesis
d. gametogenesis-fertilization-cleavage-gastrulation-
organogenesis-growth and histological differentiation
34. Organisms such as lizards that need to maintain body
temperature through external means do so by
a. shivering to produce heat
b. exposing their bodies to sunlight for hours
c. eating large meals to provide calories for heat production
d. running frequently to warm up
35. If you found a dark rotten smelling flower near the
ground, it would most likely be pollinated by:
a. bats b. butterflies c. moths d. beetles
3
36. Organogenesis is the process involved in the formation
of organs. Along with this process, the cells choose to
become a particular type of cell that will function for a
specific organ. This process is called differentiation. Which
of the following statements are true about a differentiated
cell?
I. A differentiated cell utilizes a particular set of
proteins to perform its function.
II. Cells that are differentiated assume a specific
shape to function effectively to the tissue it
belongs.
III. When the cell differentiates, it deactivates for
some time to regenerate the energy and
materials spent during differentiation.
IV. Muscle cells, nerve cells, ad red blood cells are
examples of differentiated cells.
a. I and II c. I, II, and IV
b. I, II, and III d. All of the choices
37. The eggs of animals are delicate. Therefore, they must
be enclosed in a defensive coat. Because of this need, some
vertebrates developed extraembryonic membranes. The
extraembryonic membranes are yolk sac, chorion, allantois,
and amnion. The amnion contains amniotic fluid. What
could be the possible purpose of amniotic fluid?
a. deliver nourishment for the embryo
b. carry nitrogenous wastes away from the embryo
c. supply blood to the blood vessels of the embryo
d. serve as a cushion sac around the embryo against
physical trauma
38. The germinal layers, which include the ectoderm, the
mesoderm, and the endoderm, are rudiments from which
the different organs of the body are derived. The outer
germinal layer (ectoderm) gives rise to the skin epidermis
and organs of the nervous system. The middle layer is the
mesoderm, which is considered as the origin of the skeletal
muscles and blood vascular system, while the innermost
layer (endoderm) develops the digestive tracts and glands.
Which of the following organs most likely originated from
the middle layer?
a. cloaca c. hypohysis
b. pancreas d. vertebral column
39. What is the correct sequence of events in the
development of the embryo?
a. Morula → cleavage → blastula → gastrula
b. Cleavage → morula → blastula → gastrula
c. Cleavage → gastrula → blastula → morula
d. Blastula → cleavage → gastrula → morula
 VI. ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
40. For a few women, normal pregnancy is not possible
because of some anatomical and physiological
abnormalities. Nowadays, the practice of in vitro fertilization
is widely used. This involves the extraction of the secondary
oocyte from a woman. The oocyte is then placed in a petri
dish. The fertilization and early development occur in vitro
(in glass). Arrange the following statements to complete the
process of in vitro fertilization.
I. It is necessary for the woman to lie down for
several hours.
II. The embryo is then transferred into the uterus of
the female
III. The embryo will be removed from the petri dish.
IV. A sperm cell is introduced in the petri dish for
germination.
a. IV – I – III – II c. IV – I – II – III
b. IV – II – III – I d. IV – III – II – I
41. If the patient is suffering from retention of too much
urine, there might be a problem regarding the secretion of
what hormone?
a. oxytocin c. antidiuretic hormone
b. growth hormone d. adrenocorticotropic hormone
42. Because of the differences in the surface of blood cells
that act as antigens, human blood is classified into four
different blood types namely A, B, AB, and O. Blood type AB
is also known as “universal recipient” because
___________.
a. it has antibody against A and B
b. it has no antibody against A and B
c. it has antigen A and antibody against B
d. it has antigen B and antibody against A
43. With regard to thermoregulation in humans, which of
the following mechanisms will tend to decrease the rate of
heat loss a person experiences?
a. Increased shivering.
b. Increased sweating.
c. Decreased blood flow to the skin.
d. Decreased metabolic rate.
44. Diuretics…
a. decrease the water permeability of collecting tubules
b. increase the water permeability of collecting tubules
c. decrease the water permeability of the loop of Henle
d. increase the water permeability of the loop of Henle
45. Which is the most accurate description of arteries?
a. They carry oxygenated blood.
b. They carry deoxygenated blood.
c. They carry blood away from the heart.
d. They carry blood toward the heart.
4
46. Which of the following best illustrate homeostasis?
a. Most human beings are between 5 ft. to 6 ft.
b. The lungs and intestines have large surface areas for
exchange.
c. When blood salt concentration goes up, the kidney expels
more salt.
d. When the oxygen in the blood decreases, you may feel
light-headed.
47. Which of the following describes the muscles in the
blood vessels?
a. striated c. multinucleated
b. elongated d. nucleus located at the center of the cell
48. The human male’s testes are located in an outpocketing
of the body wall known as the scrotum. An advantage of his
adaptation is that?
a. The testes are better protected in the scrotum than in the
body cavity
b. A temperature lower than the body temperature is best
for sperm production and storage
c. Sperm production requires contact with atmospheric air
d. The sperm cells can enter the urethra directly from the
testes
49. One difference between a cancer cell and a normal cell
is that…
a. CA cells are unable to synthesize DNA
b. Cell cycle of CA is arrested at S phase
c. CA cells continue to divide even if they are tightly packed
d. CA cells cannot function properly because they have
density independent inhibition
50. In an autonomic nervous system, which of the following
is an effect of parasympathetic division?
a. the trachea widens
b. the heart rate increases
c. the liver is stimulated to release glucose
d. the muscular contractions of stomach increase
 NMAT PHYSICS SIMULATIONS (MOCK 2)
DIRECTIONS: Select the best answer to each of the
following questions and blacken the appropriate space on
your answer sheet.
1. A 200-kg lift is raised by an electric motor through a
height of 15 m in20 seconds (g = 10 ms2).
a. The weight of the lift is 2,000 N.
b. The useful work done is 30,000 J.
c. The power output of the motor is 1.5 kW.
d. All of the above statements are correct.
2. What are the factors that determine the speed of a
satellite which move in a stable orbit around a planet?
a. Mass of the planet and G
b. Mass of the satellite and G
c. Mass of the satellite, mass of the planet and G
d. Orbital radius of the satellite, mass of the planet & G
3. A body thrown vertically up into the air possesses kinetic
energy at the beginning of its flight, but as it rises, it loses
kinetic energy and acquires potential energy with respect to
the level from which it started. Which of the following is
NOT likely to happen?
a. When it reaches the highest point, the kinetic energy was
wholly changed to potential energy.
b. As it falls, its potential energy is again transformed to
kinetic energy.
c. The potential energy is maximum at the highest point of
its flight.
d. The kinetic energy is minimum at the lowest point of its
flight.
4. Bernoulli’s principle states that A1V1= A2V2. Blood flows
from artery A1, whose cross-sectional area is 502, at at a
velocity of 20 mm/s to its more peripheral branches, A2, A3,
A4 and A5. If the total cross-sectional area of the branches is
5002 and each branch has exactly the same diameter as
the other, what is the velocity of the blood in the branches?
a. 0.5 mm/s c. 10.0 mm/s
b. 1.0 mm/s d. 2.0 mm/s
5. A car of mass 800 kg is being driven along a level road.
This engine supplies a forward force of 3600 N and the total
resistive force is 2000 N. What is the acceleration of the
car?
a. 2.0 m/s2 c. 4.5 m/s2
b. 2.5 m/s 2 d. 7.0 m/s2
1
6. A metal cube is heated in Bunsen flame and then
dropped into an insulated beaker containing water. The
masses of the water, the beaker and the cube, the initial
and the final temperatures of the water, and the beaker are
unknown. Without further measurement, which of the
following can be calculated?
a. The density of the cube
b. The specific heat capacity of the cube
c. The thermal conductivity of the cube
d. The specific latent heat of the cube
7. A capacitor acquires 0.004 coulomb when 50 volts is
applied. Its capacitance is
a. 0.8 microfarad c. 8.0 microfarad
b. 80.0 microfarad d. 800.0 microfarad
8. Which of the following is true when the magnetic flux
through a coil at 100 turns is reduced from 0.25 weber to 0
weber in 0.2 second?
a. The induced emf in the coil is 125 volts
b. The induced emf in the coil is 120 volts
c. The emf is 220 volts
d. The emf is 225 volts
9. A rock of mass m is dropped to the ground from a height
h. A second rock with mass 2m is dropped from the same
height. When the second rock strikes the ground, its kinetic
energy is…
a. twice that of the first rock
b. four times that of the first rock
c. the same as that of the first rock
d. half as much as that of the first rock
10. A boy ties on end of a string and
spins it vertically as shown by the
diagram on the right. At which point
is the tension greatest?
a. at the bottom
b. at the side
c. at the top
d. at all points
11. Car A has a mass of 1,000 kg and
a speed of 60 km/hr while car B has mass of 2,000 kg and a
speed of 30 km/hr. The kinetic energy of a car A is:
a. half that of car B c. equal to that of car B
b. twice that of car B d. four times that of car B
12. A box of the same weight is placed at different positions
on one end of a lever. Which one requires the greatest force
to lift the box? D
13. Both light and sound travel in waves. In a vacuum.. 20. In which of the following activities is work done equal to
a. only sound can travel zero?
b. only light can travel a. Pushing a cart to a distance of 8 meters
c. both light and sound can travel b. Carrying books from home to school
d. neither can travel c. Lifting a sack of rice
d. Carrying a pale of water from the kitchen to the garage
14. Three holes are drilled along the side of a tank filled
with water. The holes are about 12 cm vertically apart. 21. The amount of work a 0.6 KW electric drill can do in 1
Which option best represents the result? C min is…
a. 0.6 J c. 0.6 KJ
b. 36 J d. 36 KJ

22. A solid whose volume is 9 𝑚3 and weighing 750 kg is

dropped into a pool of fresh water. The weight of the water
it displaces is greater than 750 kg. Which of the following
d. water would not flow will happen?
a. The solid will float.
15. A nail is driven 1.5 m from the ground of a 3.5 m tall b. The solid will sink.
tree. When the tree grows to a height of 7 m, the nail is c. The solid will be suspended.
how many meters from the ground? d. The solid will float then sink.
a. 1.5 m c. 2 m
b. 3m d. 2.5 m 23. What would happen to the temperature and pressure of
the air inside the bus tires if the bus travels over a long
16. A box is placed along a wooden plank whose one end is distance on a very hot day?
raised. At the exact moment the box slides, its a. The air inside the tire increases in temperature;
measurements are as illustrated in the diagram below. What therefore, pressure increases.
is its coefficient of static friction? b. The air inside the tire increases in temperature;
therefore, volume increases
c. The air inside the tire decreases in temperature;
therefore, volume decreases
d. The air inside the tire increases in temperature;
therefore, pressure decreases.

24. You tape two different soda straws together end-to-end

to make a longer straw with no leaks. The two straws have
radii of 3 millimeters and 5 millimeters, respectively. You
a. 4 b. 2 c. none of the above d. ½ drink a soda through your combination straw. In which
straw is the speed of the liquid faster?
a. Whichever one is nearest to your mouth
17. If the coefficient of sliding friction of iron on concrete is b. The one of bigger radius
0.30, what force is required to pull an iron box weighing 70 c. The one of smaller radius
newton across a concrete floor? d. Neither. The speed is the same in both straws.
a. 70.30 N c. 21 N
b. 2333.33 N d. 140 N 25. The pressure exerted by hydrogen gas in a 5-liter
container is 780 mm. What pressure does this same
18. Which of the following will happen if a sample of gas is quantity of hydrogen gas will exert in a 3-liter container?
heated at constant temperature? a. 2,200 mm c. 3,900 mm
a. The average kinetic energy of its molecules decreases, b. 260 mm d. 1,300 mm
and the volume of the gas decreases.
b. The average kinetic energy of its molecules increases, 26. The volume of gas at 20oC is 100 mL. What will be its
and the volume of the gas decreases. volume at 100oC?
c. The average kinetic energy of its molecules decreases, a. 127.3 mL c. 2,000 mL
and the volume of the gas increases. b. 200 mL d. 150.5 mL
d. The average kinetic energy of its molecules increases,
and the volume of the gas increases. 27. Which sample of water has the greatest vapour
pressure?
19. In the axe shown on the a. 50 mL at 30oC c. 150 mL at 15oC
right, at which point is the center b. 100 mL at 120 C
o d. 75 mL at 40oC
of gravity?
a. A c. C
b. B d. D

2
For questions 28-29 refer to the following situation: 35. Why is the weight of an object on the moon only 1/6 of
An astronaut weighs 588 Newtons on Earth. The gravity of its weight on the earth?
the moon is 1/6 of the Earth’s gravity. Acceleration due to a. the moon has significantly less mass than the earth
gravity on Earth is 9.8 m/s2. b. because the moon is far from the earth
c. gravitational force on the moon is stronger than that of
28. What is the astronaut’s mass on earth? the earth
a. 98 kg b. 60 kg c. 960.4 kg d. 597.8 kg d. the moon orbits the earth

29. What would be the astronaut’s weight on the moon?

a. 98 N b. 60 N c. 960.4 N d. 597.8 N A B C D

30. Why must a large force be applied to a bowling ball so Visible Light
that it can move at the same speed as the tennis ball?
a. because it is bigger 36. Compared to the wavelengths of visible lights, the
b. because it has more inertia wavelength of the radiation in C and D are:
c. because it has more friction a. Shorter
d. because it has lower velocity b. Longer
c. Just as long
31. In an experiment, the students slide a box over a flat d. Not measurable
surface. Then, they put pencils under the box and move it
again over the same surface. This simple experiment can 37. An alpha particle is the same as:
illustrate how ____ can be reduced. a. 𝟐𝟏𝑯 c. 𝟒𝟐𝑯𝒆
a. friction c. weight b. 𝟏𝑯
𝟑
d. 𝟑𝟐𝑯𝒆
b. gravity d. mass
38. A concave mirror has a 10-cm focal length. If an object
32. Shown on the right are two bar magnets. What poles of 5 cm. wide is placed 25 cm in front of the mirror, the image
the two magnets are facing each other? is:
a. Virtual and reduced c. Virtual and enlarged
b. Real and reduced d. Real and enlarge

39. The maximum speed of electrons produced by incident

photons on a metal depends only on the:
a. temperature c. frequency of the incident light
b. electric field d. intensity of the incident light

40. What color in visible spectrum has the longest

a. north: north or south: south wavelength?
b. north: south or south: north a. Red b. Yellow c. Blue d. Violet
c. east: east or west: west
d. east: west or west: east 41. Which of the following will result if the number of the
lines in a diffraction grating of a given width is decreased?
33. A man weighing 700 Newtons climbs a flight of stairs 7 a. The wavelengths that can be diffracted will be shorter
meters high? How much work does he do? b. The wavelengths that can be diffracted will be longer
a. 100 joules c. 4,900 joules c. The spectrum produced will be narrower
b. 693 joules d. 707 joules d. The spectrum produced will be broader
34. A man with a mass of 80 kg wants to play seesaw with 42. Light goes from medium A to medium B at an angle of
his son whose mass is only 40 kg. To balance the force he incidence of 30 degrees. The angle refraction is 40 degrees.
exerts with that of his son, how far should he sit from the The speed of light in B:
fulcrum if his son sits 4 meters from it. a. is less than in A
a. 4 meters c. 2 meters b. is the same as that in A
b. 3 meters d. 1 meter c. is greater than that in A
d. may be any of the above, depending on the specific
medium

43. The lowest frequencies are found in:

a. x-rays c. ultraviolet light
b. radio waves d. radar waves

44. Light of which the ff. colors has the shortest

wavelength?
a. red b. blue c. yellow d. green

3
45. Which of the diagrams shown below could represent the
path of light ray through a glass block in the air? C

46. Parallel rays for light passing through a convex lens can
be made parallel again by passing them through:
a. a glass plate c. translucent paper
b. concave lens d. another convex lens

47. Compared to the speed of light, the speed of sound in

air is:
a. slower c. indeterminable
b. the same d. faster

48. When a sound wave goes from air into water, the
quantity that remains unchanged is its…
a. velocity c. frequency
b. speed d. amplitude

49. Which of the following factors is responsible for

transmitting waves?
a. mass c. wavelength
b. energy d. amplitude

50. When a beam of light enters one medium from another,

a quantity that never changes its:
a. wavelength b. frequency c. speed d. direction

4
 NMAT SOCIAL SCIENCE SIMULATIONS (MOCK 2)
DIRECTIONS: Select the best answer to each of the
following questions and blacken the appropriate space on
your answer sheet.
10. The objective moral orientation:
a. is a mature stage of moral development
b. involves judging acts in terms of intentions
c. involves judging acts in terms of their consequences
d. develops around age 7.

1. Which is NOT one of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?
a. esteem c. novelty
b. safety d. physiological
2. Which of the following does not characterize high
achievement motivation individuals?
a. they are more likely to go to college.
b. they desire to enter high status occupations.
c. they are less creative than low achievement individuals.
d. they tend to be successful in business.
3. Lesions and stimulation of the hypothalamus seems to:
a. increase aggressiveness
b. increase sexuality
c. reduce fear
d. produce loss of emotion
4. Research on facial expression of emotion has found that:
a. it is easy to judge actual thoughts.
b. the right side of our face is more intensely emotional.
c. it is easier to judge emotions from the face than the tone
of the voice.
d. the ability to imitate facial expressions comes about after
age of two.
11. According to Kohlberg’s theory of moral development,
the stage at which individuals evaluate acts in terms of their
approval by others is the _____level of maturity.
a. post conventional c. conventional
b. pre-conventional d. none of these
12. If a cloth is placed over a toy that an 8 month-old child
is reaching for, the infant immediately stops and appears to
lose interest. The baby seems neither surprised nor upset,
makes no attempt to search for the toy as if the toy has
simply ceased to exist. The child has not yet achieved:
a. object permanence c. magical thinking
b. moral realism d. conservation abilities
13. Which of the following does not explain why cognitive
factors play a role in operant conditioning?
a. For operant conditioning to occur, the organism must
believe that reinforcement is at least partly its control.
b. The organism must perceive a contingency between its
responses and reinforcement for conditioning to occur.
c. There are constraints on what reinforcers can be
associated with what responses
d. All of the above explain the role of cognitive factors in
operant conditioning.

5. It is classified as one of the patterns of social acceptance 14. According to Erikson, the life stage at which the child
where an incoming group is assimilated into the dominant learns that she is competent of a failure relative to her peers
society is:
a. Amalgation c. Assimilation a. puberty stage
b. Cultural pluralism d. Fusion b. locomotory control stage
c. latency stage
6. During the pre-operational stage, children exhibit: d. muscular development stage
a. imitation of absent models
b. logical thought 15. True of motivation:
c. knowledge of the principle of conservation a. Motivation typically directs behavior towards a particular
d. an understanding of relational terms incentive that produces pleasure.
b. We are motivated to alleviate an unpleasant state.
7. Object permanence is an important accomplishment of c. Incentive motivation is characterized by affect.
the: d. All of the above statements are true.
a. sensory motor stage
b. pre-operational stage 16. It is a kind of economic system based on the private
c. stage of concrete operations ownership of wealth
d. stage of formal operations a. Market Socialism c. Capitalism
b. Socialism d. Modern communism
8. Studies on aging have found out:
a. most people show a decline in mental abilities by the age 17. When one is not conscious of threatening thoughts or
of 60. images, the defense mechanism of _________is being
b. many disabilities of old age are the result of disease and employed.
poverty a. repression b. regression
c. from age 30 to 70, lung capacity decreases by 10 %. c. displacement d. projection
d. from age 30 to 70, nerve impulse velocity drops 50 %
18. Anna has told Jim she is leaving him and he experiences
9. Studies of sex-role stereotyping have found: hate for her, because to feel love would be too painful.
a. this does not occur on TV. Patricia says she 'doesn't care' if her husband Peter goes to
b. this occurs more in children’s books than on TV. sea, because to 'care' would destroy her. The defense
c. such stereotypes do not occur until about age 10. mechanism illustrated here is:
d. females are characterized as problem solvers. a. rationalization c. reaction formation
b. displacement d. scapegoating

1
19. Social ___________ refers to the movement of a person 29. How does the psychoanalytic theory explain gender
from one status or social class to another identity and sex typing?
a. Flexibility c. Mobility a. gender identity and sex typing develop from the
b. Adaptiveness d. Function children’s early discovery of the genital differences between
the sexes and children’s eventual identification with the
20. In the study of normal individuals committed to a same-sex partner
psychiatric hospital, it was found that they: b. emphasizes the rewards and punishments that children
a. were easily recognized as normal receive for sex-appropriate and sex inappropriate behavior,
b. were all classified as maladjusted as well as processes of identification with same-sex adults
c. became maladjusted based on observational learning
d. had a positive effect on the other patients c. Holds that once children can identify themselves as male
or female, they are motivated to acquire sex-typed behavior
21. When a person has an exaggerated concern about his d. Seeks to explain why children base their self-concept on
health, this person is called a (an): the male-female distinction in the first place
a. hypochondriac c. phobic
b. compulsive d. obsessive 30. Marasmus is a disease predominantly found in
underdeveloped countries. It is aggravated by….
22. This is a pattern of rejection whereby the dominant a. anemia
group causes the deaths of a large number of minority b. deficient calcium content
group members c. protein calorie deficiency
a. Segregation c. Partitioning d. obesity
b. Expulsion d. Annihilation
31. As a boy, John was bitten by a large red ant and
23. Anna has told Jim she is leaving him and he experiences developed a phobia for ants. However, he also developed a
hate for her, because to feel love would be too painful. fear for all insects. In classical conditioning, this is an
Patricia says she 'doesn't care' if her husband Peter goes to example of what?
sea, because to 'care' would destroy her. When someone a. extinction c. generalization
expresses the opposite of an impulse, this person is b. discrimination d. spontaneous recovery
exhibiting:
a. repression c. rationalization 32. Classical conditioning emphasizes between ____and
b. reaction formation d. displacement ____; operant conditioning emphasizes the relationship
between _____and ______.
24. When Elizabeth had her first baby she used to cry and a. behaviour; response; stimulus; consequence
beg her husband not to go to work. When one avoids stress b. behaviour; consequence; stimulus; behaviour
by repeating earlier behaviour pattern, one is using: c. stimulus; consequence; stimulus; response
a. displacement c. regression d. stimulus; behaviour; behaviour; consequence
b. reaction formation d. projection
33. Howard is an expert wine –taster. He can tell vintage
25. Joan married her husband because he came from a wines apart with just single drops upon his tongue, no
well-known and highly respected family and she felt a matter how similar the sample taste. This demonstrates:
worthwhile person once she belonged to his family. a. absolute threshold c. reaction formation
a. projection c. repression b. difference threshold d. classical conditioning
b. identification d. isolation
34. Which style of parenting is most likely to raise children
26. Individuals who have not been socialized in the same who lack self-control and who always expect to get their
way as the majority of people are often considered by their way?
society to be _______ a. authoritarian parenting c. neglectful parenting
a. mentally ill c. abnormal or odd b. authoritative parenting d. indulgent parenting
b. deviant d. all of the above
35. One evening, Genie jumps into the pool and shivers at
27. When does socialization begin? the coldness of the water. After five minutes, however, she
a. at the time when an individual is conceived or within the has gotten used to the cold and is “ignoring” it as she does
first few weeks following conception laps across the pool. This is an example of what?
b. at birth or shortly thereafter a. operant conditioning c. habituation
c. on entering nursery school or kindergarten b. sensation seeking d. sensory deprivation
d. when children reach puberty and are able to understand
the reasons for society's rules 36. When a door swings toward us, its retinal image goes
through a series of changes yet we perceive a door to still
28. A shy, non-assertive man whose boss has yelled at him be rectangular. This is due to:
may bottle up the anger and resentment he feels until he a. stroboscopic motion
gets home. There he gets rid of his hostility and anger by b. figure-ground constancy
screaming at one of his children. His defense mechanism is: c. pattern recognition
a. reaction formation c. repression d. shape constancy
b. rationalization d. displacement

2
37. Aladin, upon getting hold of the magic lamp, asked the 46. Which of the following is not true regarding the
genie to give him the power of precognition, meaning: functions of attitudes?
a. the ability to read what another person is thinking a. Attitudes that we hold for practical reasons serve and
b. to move things in space without physical intervention instrumental function
c. to perceive future events b. Those that help us make sense of the world serve a
d. to perceive objects that do not provide stimulus to the knowledge function.
known senses c. Those that express our values or reflect our self- concepts
serve an ego-defensive function.
38. Which of the ff. illustrates cultural relativism? d. Those that help us feel that we are part of a social
a. Anything goes – there are no established standards that community serve a social adjustment function.
we must follow
b. Premarital pregnancy makes sense in societies where 47. Gemeinschaft relations are:
women are expected to prove their fertility as a trait a. specific and limited c. strictly formal
desirable in wives b. based on self-interest d. based on sentiment
c. Premarital pregnancy is universally condemned
d. Relatives are more important in some cultures than in 48. Many factors influence whether we will be attracted to a
others particular individual. The following are the most important,
except:
39. When you are hungry, you conjure mental images of a. physical attractiveness c. proximity
food. This wish-fulfilling process is a function of your: b. familiarity d. intelligence
a. id b. ego c. superego d. libido
49. The “id” postulated by Freud represents:
40. Ways to improve memory include: a. the rational part of personality
a. chunking c. elaboration b. the conscience
b. imagery d. all of the above c. the instinctive desires of the individual
d. one’s self-concept
41. The idea that a group is more superior than others
shows: 50. All of the following will increase the ability to capture
a. ethnocentrism c. xenocentrism attention, except:
b. superiority d. prejudice a. contrast c. habituation
b. intensity d. repetition
42. Leonardo da Vinci’s interest in painting Madonna was an
expression of a longing for intimacy with his mother from
whom he had been separated at a tender age. This
illustrates:
a. externalization c. sublimation
b. reaction formation d. anticipation

43. In difficult times, when budgets are slashed and taxes

are high, homeless women with small children are often
target of hostility because they are perceived as responsible
for their situation and as a drain on scarce social resources.
This is known as:
a. scapegoating c. realistic group conflict
b. ethnocentrism d. discrimination

44. A cheerleading squad found out that the cheers they

have been practising for a competition has been “stolen” by
their previous captain from another squad. The group must
decide whether they should change their routine or stick to
the stolen one. Eliza thinks they should create a new routine.
However, since the competition was just a few days,
everyone else said they should just do the old one. Eliza,
despite her personal opinion, pretends that she also feels
they should do the old routine. This clearly demonstrates:
a. conformity c. groupthink
b. deindividuation d. anonymity

45. Which of the following is true of the concrete

operational stage of cognitive development by Piaget?
a. thinking is egocentric
b. becomes concerned with the hypothetical, the future and
ideological problems
c. classifies objects according to several features
d. conservation of number not yet achieved

3
 NMAT CHEMISTRY SIMULATIONS (MOCK 2) 11. Frequently it is convenient to focus on changes in the
combination of ________ (Q) added to the system
DIRECTIONS: Select the best answer to each of the and work done by the system (W). Assumed internal energy
following questions and blacken the appropriate space on (U) and to regard them as due to a:
your answer sheet. a. heat c. temperature
b. entropy d. heat transfer
1. Oxides of metal with H2 O form bases while oxide of non-
metal with H2 O form acids. Which of the following will be acidic 12. When 2.0 grams of methane are burned in a bomb
in H2 O ? calorimeter containing 2000 grams of water, it causes the
a. K 2 O b. CaO c. Na2 O d. NO2 temperature of the water to rise by 13.300C. What is the
molar heat of combustion of methane?
2. If I have 25 mL of a gas at a pressure of 2.1 atm and a Cp (H2O) = 4.18 Joule/g 0C.
temperature of 300 K, what will the pressure be if I increase a. 111 kJ c. 13.3 kJ
the temperature to 400 K and compress the gas to a volume b. 888 kJ d. 8.88 kJ
of 10 mL substance:
a. 14 atm c. 0.028 atm 13. If you heat a 5 L balloon from a temperature of 2500 C
b. 8.6 atm d. 7 atm to 5000 C, its new volume will be:
a. 10 L b. 2.5 L c. 7.4 L d. 4.6 L
3. Why do we assume that gas particles experience no
intermolecular forces? 14. If I dilute 5 mL of 0.15 M NaCl to a final volume of 5 L,
a. Because it’s true. what’s the final concentration of NaCl?
b. Because gas particles move too quickly to experience a. 0.00015 M c. 0.0015 M
intermolecular forces for very long. b. 15000 M d. 0.015 M
c. Because gas particles are usually a long distance from one
another. 15. Nuclear fission: process in which a heavy nucleus is split into
d. More than one of the above. lighter ones. What is the value of n?

4. What is the percentage of chromium in the compound, 1

+ 235 142 91
𝐾𝑟+? 10𝑛
potassium dichromate, K2Cr2O7? 0𝑛 92𝑈 → 56𝐵𝑎 + 36
(At. Wt. K=39, Cr=52, O=16)
a. 2 b. 1 c. 3 d. 4
a. 17% b. 35% c. 3.5% d. 52%
16. In chemical thermodynamics, which is false about
5. The molecular weight of a substance is 128 and its
an endergonic reaction?
equivalent weight in a particular reaction is 32. A
a. It is also called an unfavorable reaction or
2.0-N solution of this substance will have a molarity:
a nonspontaneous reaction.
a. 4.00 M b. 8.00 M c. 0.50 M d. 0.25 M
b. It is a chemical reaction in which the standard change
in free energy is positive, and energy is absorbed.
6. What is the [𝐻 + ] in a 0.005 M solution of NaOH?
c. In layman's terms the total amount of energy is a loss (it
a. 5 x 10−13 b. 2 𝑥 10−10 c. 2 𝑥 10−12 d. 5 𝑥 10 −12
takes more energy to start the reaction than what you get
out of it) so the total energy is a negative net result.
7. How many molecules of oxygen are required for
d. It is a spontaneous reaction.
every 12 molecule of carbon dioxide formed in the
combustion of ethyl alcohol 𝐶2 𝐻5 𝑂𝐻:
Study the table below to answer questions 17 and 18:
C2H5OH + 3 O2  3 H2O + 2 CO2
a. 18 b. 12 c. 6 d. 10
Chemical
Mixed Substances Observation/Results
System
Use the following balanced equation for nos. 8 to 10:
Some particles
2𝑁2 (𝑔) + 5𝑂2 (g) 2 𝑁2 𝑂5 (g) + HEAT A Table salt and water
remained undissolved
Particles dissolved
8. An increase in the amount of 𝑁2 𝑂5 will shift the equilibrium to Table salt and hot
B completely when
what direction? water
heated
a. to the right c. not at all
Lead nitrate and Yellow precipitate is
b. to the left d. reversible C
potassium iodide formed
Ferric chloride and Blue precipitate is
9. An increase in pressure will shift the equilibrium to what D
potassium ferrocyanide formed
direction?
a. to the right c. no effect
17. Which of the following mixed substances shows
b. to the left d. reversible
chemical change?
a. Chemical system B and D
10. A decrease in temperature will ______.
b. Chemical system C and D
a. shift the equilibrium to the right
c. Chemical system A and B
b. both reaction are affected
d. All of the chemical systems
c. shift the equilibrium backward
d. have no effect

1
18. Based on the observation or result between chemical A 26. Which of the following solutions has molarity different
and B, which of the following statements is true? from the rest?
a. Increase in temperature increases the solubility of table a. 12 N H3PO4 c. 4 N HC2H3O2
salt in water. b. 2 N NH4OH d. 8 N Ca(OH)2
b. Increase in temperature decreases the solubility.
c. Table salt is unaffected by the increase in temperature. NH4NO3  N2O +2H2O
d. Table salt tends to be less soluble in hot water. 27. In the equation above, how many grams of ammonium
nitrate is needed to produce 100g nitrogen (I) oxide?
19. The ejection of a beta particle from a nucleus results in (N=14, H=1, O=16)
a. An increase in the atomic number by one. a. 442 g b. 285 g c. 183 g d. 164 g
b. An increase in the atomic mass by four.
c. A decrease in the atomic number by two. 28. A student wants to prepare 500 ml of 8 N H2SO4 from a
d. None of the above is correct. solution which is 8 molar. What volume of the concentrated
acid is needed?
20. A crime lab analyzes two samples of a drug, sample A a. 500 ml b. 250 ml c. 50 ml d. 25 ml
and sample B. Sample A is crystalline. Several microscopic
samples taken from different points in Sample A are 29. The activation energy, Ea of a certain endergonic
indistinguishable; all properties of the material seem reaction is 25 kcal. The Ea for the reverse reaction is:
uniform. Sample B has a slightly different color than sample a. equal to 25 kcal c. less than 25 kcal
A. Chromatographic techniques resolve sample B into b. greater than 25 kcal d. none of these
separate components. Which of the following conclusions
are valid? 30. The process involved in the reaction between an alkali
1. Sample A is a pure substance. and fatty acid is called:
2. Sample B is a mixture. a. alkylation c. esterification
3. Sample A is not a heterogeneous mixture. b. calcination d. saponification
a. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3 d. all are valid 31. When 1 x 10-4 mole of a hypothetical substance A2B is
dissolved in 1 L of solution, a saturated solution with almost
21. What is the conjugate acid of C6H6? no precipitate is formed. The Ksp will be:
a. C6H5+ b. C6H5− c. C6H7+ d. C6H7− a. 2 x 10-4 b. 4 x 10-12 c. 2 x 10 -8 d. 4 x 10-8

See the diagram below for numbers 22-23: 32. Using Markovnikov’s rule in the hydration of alkenes,
what is the product of:
CH3CH2CH2CH=CH2 + HBr
a. CH3CH2CH2CHBrCH3 c. CH2BrCH2CH2CHICH3
b. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2Br d. CH3CHBrCH2CH2CH3

33. Oxygen gas (Molecular weight = 32) diffuses at the rate

of 10 mL/min. Under the same conditions of temperature
and pressure, how fast will hydrogen (molecular weight = 2)
diffuse?
a. 20 mL/min c. 160 mL/min
22. Salt is added to water and the mixture is stirred until no b. 40 mL/min d. 10 mL/min
more salt dissolves. The salt that does not dissolve is
allowed to settle out. What happens to the concentration of 34. Compound X rapidly decolorizes in a solution of
salt in solution if water evaporates until the volume of the bromine in CCl4. When X is subjected to ozonolysis, two
solution is half the original volume? (Assume temperature products are formed, namely butanone and propanal. What
remains constant.) The concentration of the solution: is the structure of X?
a. increases. c. decreases. a. 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻3
b. stays the same. d. none of these is correct b. 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻𝐶 = 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻3

23. What is the reason for your answer to question # 22? 𝐶𝐻3
a. There is the same amount of salt in less water. c. 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂𝐻
b. More solid salt forms. d. 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶 = 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻3
c. Salt does not evaporate and is left in solution.
d. There is less water. 𝐶𝐻3

24. Which of the following compounds will give a pH < 7?

a. CaI2 b. MgSO4 c. KClO d. NH4NO3

25. Which of the following compounds will give an alkaline

solution?
a. CaI2 b. MgSO4 c. KClO d. NH4NO3

2
35. If each of the following is resonance stabilized, what
will be the correct arrangement of the compounds according
to their relative degree of aromatic character?
41. Vanillin contains 63.15% C, 5.30% H, and 31.55% O
whether it is extracted from vanilla beans, synthesized
chemically from clove oils, or extracted from wood pulp
wastes. Vanillin is most likely to be:
a. a solution of C in H and O
b. a compound of C, H, and O
c. a homogenous mixture of C in H and O
d. a heterogenous mixture of C, H , and O

Furan thiopene pyrrole 42. Ethanol is present in drinks and has a concentration of
as high as 45%. This undergoes chemical change in the
a. thiopene > pyrrole > furan body when taken excessively. What effect does it have in a
b. furan > pyrrole > thiopene person?
c. furan > thiopene > pyrrole a. It destroys brain cells and inhibits the synthesis of
d. thiopene > furan > pyrrole proteins in heart muscles.
b. It disturbs liver function and damages the liver tissues.
36. Rank the following alcohols from most acidic to least c. It causes nausea, sweating, redness of face, rapid
acidic in ascending order (least acidic to most acidic): heartbeats and decreases blood pressure.
d. all of these

43. Antoine Lavoisier, the "father of chemistry", listed lime

as a chemical element in his table of 33 known elements.
Which of the following observations shows that lime cannot
be an element?
a. Lime melts at a temperature of 2572°C.
b. Lime reacts with water, generating a large amount of
heat.
a. A, B, C b. C, B, A c. B, C, A d. A, C, B c. Lime and carbon dioxide are produced when limestone is
roasted.
37. How many liters of propane gas are needed to produce d. When a certain soft metal is burned in oxygen, lime is
16 L of water vapor? produced (with no other products).
C3H8(g) +5O2(g) ->3CO2(g) +4H2O(g)
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 16 44. Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Carboxylic acids have lower boiling points than alcohols of
38. The meteorite ALH84001 contains tiny bubbles of gas comparable molecular weight because both the carbonyl
trapped in the rock. The chemical composition of the gas in oxygen and the hydroxyl group can engage in hydrogen-
these bubbles matches the composition of the Martian bond formation.
atmosphere as determined by Viking spacecraft in the II. Carboxylic acids have greater acidity compared with
1970's. The meteorite is an example of a(n) alcohols because electron delocalization can take place in
a. binary compound c. element the carboxylate ion.
b. homogenous mixture d. heterogenous mixture III. Trifluoroacetic acid (CF3COOH) is less acidic than acetic
acid (CH3COOH)
39. A blue crystalline material is heated strongly in a test IV. Grignard reagent is nucleophilic and when added to CO2
tube. A clear liquid condenses around the mouth of the tube carboxylic acid is formed after acidification.
and the crystals gradually lose their blue color and become a. I and III c. I and IV
white powder. Every gram of blue crystal produces 0.36 g of b. II and IV d. II and III
clear liquid and 0.64 g of colorless powder. The same
weight relationships are observed for samples of the crystals 45. What type of reaction is involved when:
taken from many different sources. These observations are ethene + hydrogen → ethane
consistent with the hypothesis that the blue crystals are: a. hydrogenation c. fermentation
a. a compound c. an element b. esterification d. substitution
b. solution d. homogenous mixture
46. In order to synthesise butylpropanoate you would use:
40. A solid melts gradually between 85°C and 95°C to give a. C3H7OH and CH3COOH
a milky, oily liquid. When a laser beam shines through the b. C4H9OH and CH3COOH
liquid, the path of the beam is clearly visible. The milky c. C3H7OH and C3H7COOH
liquid is likely to be: d. C4H9OH and C2H5COOH
a. compound c. an element
b. a solution d. heterogenous mixture

3
The half-life of a radioactive substance is the time required
for half of the amount of the substance to change to other
substances. The half-life of radium-226 is 1,600 years:

47. How long will it take for 2.0 g. sample of radium-226 to

become 0.5 gram of the same sample substance?
a. 1,600 years c. 3,200 years
b. 2,400 years d. 4,000 years

48. After 7,800 years, how many grams of the element

would be left?
a. 1.0 g b. 0.0625 g c. 0.25 g d. 0.125 g

49. What amine is most basic?

a. aromatic c. secondary
b. primary d. tertiary

50. What is the basis for the Lewis basicity of amines?

a. availability of amines
b. release of OH groups
c. acceptance of lone pairs
d. capacity to abstract acidic hydrogen