BIOLOGY

Q.1 All are required for reverse transcription except:

A) Cellular machinery C) Reverse transcriptase
B) Only DNA template D) mRNA template
Q.2 HIV can spread to normal person via all modes of transmission except:
A) Contaminated surgical instruments C) Touch
B) Plasma transfusion D) Unsafe sex
Q.3 Pick the one that is found in all mature viruses:
A) RNA C) DNA
B) Envelope D) Capsid
Q.4 Hepatitis that leads to chronic liver disease:
A) Hepatitis A C) Hepatitis B
B) Hepatitis C D) Hepatitis D
Q.5 Influenza viruses are:
A) DNA enveloped C) DNA naked
B) RNA naked D) RNA enveloped
Q.6 The first infectious disease against which vaccine was developed is a:
A) Contagious disease C) Viral disease
B) Fungus disease D) Bacterial disease
Q.7 The hereditary material of smallest virus(polio) is:
A) RNA C) DNA
B) Both A and B D) Protein
Q.8 He found out that agent for rabies cannot pass through porcelain filters:
A) Louis Pasteur C) Stanley
B) Charles Chamberland D) Twort
Q.9 Choose a DNA enveloped virus:
A) Influenza virus C) Polio virus
B) HIV D) Small pox virus
Q.10 Which of the following structure is present in both viruses and eukaryotic cells?
A) DNA C) Ribosomes
B) Cytochrome D) Cytoplasm
Q.11 It is wide spread disease in man caused by enveloped RNA virus and occurs in epidemic form:
A) Poliomyelitis C) Small pox
B) Influenza D) Herpes simplex
Q.12 Capsid of polio virus is:
A) Tubular C) Spherical
B) Pyramidal D) Hexagonal
Q.13 HIV is:
A) RNA non-enveloped virus C) DNA non-enveloped virus
B) RNA enveloped virus D) DNA enveloped virus
Q.14 HIV infects its host as a:
A) Viroid C) RNA
B) Prion D) Virion
Q.15 In HIV, reverse transcriptase converts single stranded RNA into double stranded viral DNA This process is called:
A) Translation C) Replication
B) Duplication D) Reverse transcription
Q.16 Feulgen stain is used in study of bacterial:
A) DNA C) Mesosomes
B) Cell wall D) Storage bodies
Q.17 Which one in bacterial cell is not a waste?
A) Alcohol C) Lactic acid
B) Phosphate D) Acetic acid

TEST UNIT – 09 E + series

Q.18 All of the bacteria can show chemotaxis except:
A) Atrichous C) Monotrichous
B) Lophotrichous D) Peritrichous
Q.19 DNA of bacterial chromosome is:
A) Single stranded C) Non-helical
B) Double stranded D) Linear
Q.20 Cytoplasmic matrix of bacterial cell contains:
A) Nucleohistones C) Nucleolus
B) Cytoskeleton D) Plasmids
Q.21 Mesosomes are infoldings of the cell membrane and are involved in:
A) DNA replication C) Protein synthesis
B) RNA synthesis D) Antibiotic resistance
Q.22 Cocci forming irregular clusters are:
A) Streptococci C) Diplococci
B) Staphylococci D) Sarcina
Q.23 All of the following are true about cell wall of Gram positive bacteria except:
A) Thick peptidoglycan layer C) Outer membrane present
B) Wide periplasmic space D) More permeable
Q.24 Animals that do not have anterior and posterior axis have ____________ symmetry.
A) Bilateral C) Radial
B) Circular D) Dorsal
Q.25 Which of the following statements is true about grade radiata?
A) Between ectoderm and endoderm cellular mesenchyme is present
B) Endodermal cells become specialized for digestion
C) Gastrovascular cavity has anterior and posterior openings
D) Circulatory system is well developed
Q.26 Jelly like, non-cellular mesoglea is present in animals that have:
A) Bilateral symmetry C) Diploblastic organization
B) Coelom D) Triploblastic organization
Q.27 Circulatory system can be found in:
A) Diploblastics C) Pseudocoelomates
B) Acoelomates D) Coelomates
Q.28 Which of the following is not roundworm?
A) Rhabditis C) Ancylostoma
B) Ascaris D) Schistosoma
Q.29 Animals of grade radiata have:
A) Digestive system C) Excretory system
B) Respiratory system D) Circulatory system
Q.30 The animals in which centralized nervous system was developed for the first time in the form of neuron net and
ganglia:
A) Cnidarians C) Sponges
B) Flat worms D) Mammals
Q.31 Which of the following nematode is found in soil, organic matter and feces of man?
A) Rhabditis C) Ancylostoma
B) Dugesia D) Ascaris
Q.32 Coelom, bilateral symmetry and triploblastic organization are present in:
A) Coelenterata C) Platyhelminthes
B) Aschelminthes D) Arthropoda
Q.33 Mesoderm splits into two layers i.e. visceral and parietal mesoderm in:
A) Sponges C) Nematodes
B) Cnidarian D) Annelids
Q.34 In aschelminthes, the space between the body wall and the digestive tract is called:
A) Gastrocoel C) Pseudocoelom
B) Blastocoel D) Coelom
TEST UNIT – 09 E + series
Q.35 All of the following animals are coelomates except:
A) Annelids C) Arthropods
B) Nematodes D) Molluscs
Q.36 All of the following are endoparasites except:
A) Ascaris lumbricoides C) Ancylostoma duodenale
B) Enterobius vermicularis D) Hirudo medicinalis
Q.37 ________ are the first group of invertebrates which have developed a closed circulatory system:
A) Nematodes C) Arthropods
B) Annelids D) Molluscs
Q.38 This is the largest phylum of animal kingdom:
A) Annelida C) Mollusca
B) Arthropoda D) Chordata
Q.39 These have ability to convert normal cells into cancer cells:
A) Pox viruses C) Paramyxoviruses
B) Parvoviruses D) Retroviruses
Q.40 Most distinctive feature of a retrovirus is:
A) RNA genome C) Reverse transcriptase
B) Spherical capsid D) Envelope spikes
Q.41 Capsid of HIV is:
A) Spherical C) Conical
B) Polyhedral D) Tubular
Q.42 During reverse transcription, for synthesis of double stranded DNA, which of the following acts as template?
A) RNA strand C) Protein molecule
B) DNA strand D) Both RNA & DNA strands
Q.43 It is a cube of eight cocci with three planes of division:
A) Tetrad C) Streptococcus
B) Sarcina D) Staphylococcus
Q.44 Such bacteria having tuft of flagella at each of the two poles are:
A) Monotrichous C) Amphitrichous
B) Lophotrichous D) Peritrichous
Q.45 These are hollow, nonhelical, filamentous appendages found in bacteria:
A) Cilia C) Pili
B) Flagella D) Fimbrae
Q.46 Following is the diagram of bacteria, identify the structure from 1 to 4:

A) 1: Chromatin body, 2: Cell wall, 3: Flagella, 4: Capsule

B) 2: Chromatin body, 1: Cell wall, 4: Flagella, 3: Capsule
C) 4: Chromatin body, 2: Cell wall, 1: Flagella, 3: Capsule
D) 1: Chromatin body, 2: Cell wall, 4: Flagella, 3: Capsule
Q.47 Bacteria having more peptidoglycan in their cell wall as compared to others are:
A) Mycoplasma C) Gram positive bacteria
B) Archaeobacteria D) Gram negative bacteria
Q.48 A bacterial cell unlike cells of eukaryotic organism lacks all except:
A) True chromosome C) Cytoskeleton
B) Mitosis D) Flagella
TEST UNIT – 09 E + series
Q.49 Which of the following correctly represents DNA molecule of chromatin body in bacterial cell?
Copies Type Nature
A) Single Circular Single stranded
B) Single Circular Double stranded
C) Multiple Linear Double stranded
D) Multiple Circular Double stranded
Q.50 These are more resistant to unfavourable environmental conditions as compared to others:
A) Capsule B) Spore C) Cyst D) Plasmid
PHYSICS
Q.51 A.C voltage is fed into a single diode rectifier. The output of the rectifier is.
A) Full wave rectified dc voltage C) Double frequency AC voltage
B) Half wave rectified dc voltage D) None of these
Q.52 A semi-conductor can be used as a rectifier because.
A) It has low resistance to the current flow when forward biased
B) It has low resistance to the current flow when reversed biased
C) It has low resistance to the current flow when forward biased and high resistance when reversed biased
D) None of above
Q.53 Compute the shortest wavelength of radiation in the Balmer series?
A) 412.5 nm C) 525.6 nm
B) 364.5 nm D) 75.2 nm
Q.54 A particle of mass 5.0mg moves with speed of 8.0 ms-1. Calculate its de-Broglie wavelength.
A) 1.66 10−29 m C) 9.34 10−24 m
B) 3.14 10−26 m D) 0.05 10−21 m
Q.55 Calculate the energy of photon having wavelength of 100nm.
A) 3.50 10−10 eV C) 1.24 10−8 eV
B) 1.24 10−10 eV D) 25.5 10−6 eV
Q.56 What is the energy in eV of quanta of wavelength 400 nm?
A) 4.34 eV C) 3.10 eV
B) 5.10 eV D) 2.49 eV
Q.57 An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 50V. Calculate its de-Broglie wavelength.
A) 2.34 10−20 m C) 9.70 10−14 m
B) 1.74 10−10 m D) 11.6 10−10 m
Q.58 A photon of frequency f has a momentum associated with it. If c is the velocity of light, this momentum is.
hf f
A) C)
c2 c
hf
B) D) hfc
c
Q.59 If anode potential increases, then.
A) Bremsstrahlung radiation’s wavelength increases
B) Bremsstrahlung radiation’s wavelength decreases
C) Characteristic wavelength increases
D) Characteristic wavelength decreases
Q.60 Photoelectric effect can be explained by.
A) Electromagnetic wave theory C) Wave theory
B) Quantum theory D) semi classical theory
Q.61 Which of the following is true?
A) Lyman series is a line spectrum
B) Paschen series is a line spectrum in the ultraviolet
C) Balmer series is a line spectrum in the ultraviolet
D) The spectral series formula can be derived from the Rutherford model of the hydrogen atom

TEST UNIT – 09 E + series

Q.62 An electron from K shell is knocked out and another electron jumps from higher shell to fill it, which of the
following will be emitted?
A) Alpha rays C) X-rays
B) Gamma rays D) Beta rays
Q.63 An atomic particle of mass m moving at speed v is found to have wavelength  . What is the wavelength of
second particle with three times the speed and twice the mass
3
A) C) 6 
2
2 
B) D)
3 6
Q.64 In Bohr’s model, the atomic radius of the first orbit is ro , then the radius of the third orbit is:
ro
A) C) 9 ro
9
B) ro D) 3 ro
Q.65 The total number of spectral lines for an electron transition from n = 5 to n = 1 state is:
A) 20 C) 5
B) 6 D) 10
Q.66 In 1923 de Broglie suggested a relationship between the wavelength  of an electron and its momentum P.
Which one of the following graphs shows correctly the relation between  and P?

A) C)

B) D)

Q.67 Which of the following electromagnetic waves has highest wave length?
A) X-rays C) Infra-red rays
B) Ultraviolet rays D) Microwaves
Q.68 As the intensity of incident light increases.
A) Photoelectric current increases C) K.E of emitted photo electrons decreases
B) Photo electric current decreases D) K.E of emitted photo electrons increases
Q.69 During the Davisson-Germer experiment what was proved.
A) Particle nature of light C) Both A and B
B) Wave nature of particle D) None
Q.70 A graph is plotted between energy of photons and their frequency and found to be a straight line in which ‘E’
was along Y-axis and f along x-axis then the slope of this curve represents.
A) Momentum C) Plank’s constant
B) Wavelength D) Work function
Q.71 A proton and an  − particle are accelerated through the same potential difference. The ratio of their
(
de-Broglie wavelengths  p /  is.)
A) 1 C) 2
B) 2 2 D) 2
Q.72 Which of given equation represents the energy of Kβ - rays photon.
A) hf = EL –EK C) hf = EN - EK
B) hf = EM -EK D) hf = E − EK
TEST UNIT – 09 E + series
Q.73 Density difference is measured in CAT scanner. We can detect density difference up to ________with it.
A) 10% C) 0.1
B) 20% D) 1%
Q.74 The value of wavelength of radiation emitted due to transition of electrons from n = 4 to n = 2 state in hydrogen
atom will be.
5R 16
A) C)
36 3R
36 3R
B) D)
5R 16
Q.75 What features must be chosen for anode (Target material) in X-ray tube to avoid melting?
Melting Point Atomic Number Specific Heat
A) low Low Low
B) high High low
C) High High high
D) low High low
Q.76 To avoid melting of anode (Target material) we circulate _______ in the tube:
A) Scientists C) cooking oil
B) Water D) Fans
m
Q.77 The parent nuclei n P decay into a daughter nucleus D through α-emission. D Will be written as.
m
n P → D +
m+4
A) mn D C) n D
B) m −n4 D D) mn−−24 D
Q.78 A naturally occurring radioactive element decays two alpha particles. Which one of the following represent the
status of daughter element with respect to A and charge number Z?
A) Z decreases by 4 and A decreases by 2 C) Z decreases by 4 and A decreases by 2
B) Z decreases by 4 and A decreases by 8 D) Z decreases by 8 and A decreases by 4
238
Q.79 Half-life of 92 U is:
A) 2.5 ×109 years C) 4.5 ×109 years
9
B) 3.5 ×10 years D) 5.5 ×109 years
Q.80 Half-life of U-239 is:
A) 26.5 min C) 25.5 min
B) 24.5 min D) 23.5 min
Q.81 Which one of the following is formed during beta emission?
A) Isobars C) Isotopes
B) Isotones D) None of these
Q.82 The de Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated to a potential of 400 V is approximately.
A) 0.03 nm C) 0.04 nm
B) 0.12 nm D) 0.06 nm
Q.83 Find the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron with kinetic energy of 120 eV.
A) 112 pm C) 95 pm
B) 124 pm D) 102 pm
Q.84 The de-Broglie wavelength ‘λ’ of a particle.
A) is proportional to mass C) is inversely proportional to momentum
B) is proportional to impulse D) does not depend on momentum
Q.85 If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, its de Broglie wavelength changes by the factor.
A) 2 C) ½
B) 2 D) 1/ 2
Q.86 The energy of a photon of light is 3eV. Then the wavelength of photon must be:
A) 4125 nm C) 412.5 nm
B) 41250 nm D) 4 nm
TEST UNIT – 09 E + series
Q.87 Which of the following is not an elementary particle?
A) proton C) electron
B) neutron D) All of these
Q.88 The process of rectification involves ______ PN-junctions.
A) Four C) one is half wave & two in Full wave
B) Two D) Depends upon the rectifier circuit
Q.89 In half wave rectification:
A) All voltage values of Positive half cycle are converted into D.C
B) Only maximum voltage values of Positive half cycle are converted into D.C
C) Only low voltage values of Positive half cycle are converted into D.C
D) Only intermediate voltage values of Positive half cycle are converted into D.C
Q.90 For radioactive material, the half-life is 10 minutes. If initially, there are 600 number of nuclei, the time taken
(in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is:
A) 20 C) 30
B) 10 D) 15
Q.91 Three quarks make up a
A) Electron C) proton
B) neutron D) May be B or C
Q.92 Charge on a ‘strange’ quark is:
A) +2e/3 C) -2e/3
B) -1e/3 D) +1e/3
Q.93 Which of the following statements is true about soft X – rays
A) They have large wavelength C) The have low frequency
B) They have high energy D) Both A and C
Q.94 Which of the following is used for superficial skin-therapy?
A) Alpha particle C) beta particle
B) Gamma particle D) All may use
Q.95 For the same absorbed dose,  -particles are ________ more damaging then X-rays
A) 100 times C) 10 times
B) 20 times D) 5 times

CHEMISTRY
Q.96 Which one of the following as both hydroxyl group and carboxylic acid groups?
A) Phenol C) Phthalic acid
B) Picric acid D) Salicylic acid
Q.97 Which of the following cannot be prepared directly from acetic acid?
A) acetamide C) acetic anhydride
B) acetyl chloride D) Ethyl acetate
Q.98 The carbon atom of a carbonyl group is
A) sp hybridized C) sp3 hybridized
B) sp2 hybridized D) none of these
Q.99 Acetone reacts with HCN to form cyanohydrins. It is an example of:
A) Electrophilic addition C) Nucleophilic addition
B) Electrophilic substitution D) Nucleophilic substitution
Q.100 Cannizaro's reaction is not given by:
A) Formaldehyde C) Benzaldehyde
B) Acetaldehyde D) Trimethylacetaldehyde
Q.101 Which of the following reagents will react with both and aldehydes and ketones?
A) NaOH(aq) + I2 C) 2,4 DNPH
B) Na in ether D) Benedict's reagent
Q.102 Aldehydes are the oxidation product of
A) p-alcohols C) t-alcohols
B) s-alcohols D) carboxylic acids
TEST UNIT – 09 E + series
Q.103 Which of the following compounds will not give iodoforrn test on treatment with NaOH?
A) Acetaldehyde C) Butanone
B) Acetone D) 3-pentane
Q.104 Aldehydes and ketones are carbon compounds. Which of them react both with NaBH4and with Tollen's reagent?
A) Both aldehydes and ketones C) Ketones only
B) Aldehydes only D) neither aldehydes nor ketones
Q.105 Aldol condensation is not successful with compounds
A) Having no α -hydrogen C) Having α -methyl group
B) Having α-hydrogen D) None
Q.106 Stronger acid is
A) CH3COOH C) CH3CH2COOH
B) HCOOH D) CH3CH2COOH
Q.107 Carboxylic acids react with sodium metal to form salts with the evolution of ---- gas
A) C02 C)CO2
B) H2 D) CH4
Q.108 Ethane-1 ,2-dioic acid is also called;
A) Benzoic acid C) Formic acid
B) Oxalic acid D) Malonic acid
Q.109 A compound C4H10O yields a compound C4H8O on oxidation. The compound C4H10O is.
A) An aldehyde C) A ketone
B) An alcohol D) An acid
Q.110 Which of the following compounds precipitates Cu2O from Fehling's reagent but does not react with sodium
metal?
A) C2H5OH C) CH3CH(OH)CH3
B) C2H5CHO D) CH3COCH3
Q.111 In Which of the following compounds, the central atom dose not show sp2 hybridization?
A) Methanal C) Methanoic acid
B) Methanol D) Acetone
Q.112 All the acid derivatives can be converted back into the corresponding acid by one common reaction.
A) Ammonolysis C) Reduction
B) Alcoholysis D) Hydrolysis
Q.113 Which reagent could be used to distinguish between CH3CH(OH)CH2CHO and CH3COCH2CH2OH?
A) acidified potassium dichromate(VI) C) 2, 4-dinitrophenylhydrazine
B) dilute sulfuric acid D) Fehling's reagent
Q.114 The table shows the results of simple tests on a compound S.
Reagent Result
2,4 – dinitrophenylhydrazine positive
Tollens' reagent negative
alkaline aqueous iodine positive
From the result of the tests, what could S be?
A) CH3CHO C) CH3COCH3
B) CH3CH2CHO D) CH3CH(OH)CH3
Q.115 Compound P displays cis-trans isomerism and gives a red-brown precipitate with Fehling's solution. What is P?

A) B) C) D)
Q.116 A compound X has the properties below:
• it is a liquid at room temperature and atmospheric pressure;
• it does not mix completely with water;
• it does not decolourise acidified potassium manganate (VII).
What could X be?
A) ethane C) ethanoic acid
B) ethanol D) ethyl ethanoate

TEST UNIT – 09 E + series

Q.117 2-Bromopropane, (CH3)2CHBr, may be used as the starting point for making (CH3)2CHCO2H.
Which of the following sequences \would be most suitable?
A) (CH3)2CHBr → (CH3)2CHOH → (CH3)2CHCO2H
B) (CH3)2CHBr → (CH3)2CHCN → (CH3)2CHCO2H
C) (CH3)2CHBr → (CH3)2CHOH → (CH3)2CHCN → (CH3)2CHCO2H
D) (CH3)2CHBr → (CH3)2CHCN → (CH3)2CHOH → (CH3)2CHCO2H
Q.118 Which of the following, in aqueous solution of equal concentration, has the lowest pH?
A) chloroethanoic acid C) ethanoic acid
B) ethylamine D) phenol
Q.119 Vanillin is the main constituent of vanilla flavouring.

What is the product of its reaction with KMnO4 in aqueous KOH?

A) B) C) D)
Q.120 Which compound reacts with each of
• cold NaOH(aq);
• CH3OH under reflux with concentrated H2SO4
• PCI5?
A) ClCOCOCl C) ClCOCO2CH3
B) HOCH2CO2CH3 D) HO2CCO2H
Q.121 An ester P with a fruity odour has the following structural formula:

Q.122 What compounds are produced when P is hydrolyzed using hydrochloric acid?
A) CH3COCl and (CH3)2CHCH2CH2OH C) CH3CO2H and (CH3)2CHCH2CHO
B) CH3CHO and (CH3)2CHCH2CH2OH D) CH3CO2H and (CH3)2CHCH2CH2OH
Q.123 CH3 CH2 CH2COCH3 represents the --------------- of 2-pentanone.
A) Molecular formula C) condensed structural formula
B) Displayed structural formula D) Skeletal formula
Q.124 Which of the following will form when calcium farmate is dry distilled?
A) Acetone C) Ethanal
B) Propanal D) Methanal
Q.125 The most reactive carbonyl compound towards nuclephilic addition reactions is
A) HCHO C) C2H5CHO
B) CH3CHO D) CH3COCH3
Q.126 In which of the following types of reactions are the carbonyl compounds and alkenes are similar in behaviour
A) Nucleophile addition C) Electrophilic addition
B) Nucleophilic substitution D) Catalytic hydrogenation
Q.127 Acetaldehyde and acetones form condensation product with
A) Phenyl hydrazine C) NaBH4
B) NaOH(aq) + Cl2 D) hydrogen cyanide
Q.128 Addition of acid catalyst promotes the nuclephilic attack by increasing the
A) Nucleophilic character of nucleophile C) Nuclephile character of reagent
B) Electrophilic character of reagent D) Electrophilic character of carbonyl C atom
Q.129 Propanone reacts with HCN in acidic medium followed by acid hydroloysis yielding
A) Lactic acid C) 2-Hydroxy-2-methyyl propanoic acid
B) 2-Hydroxy ethanoic acid D) 2-Hydroxy butanoic acid
TEST UNIT – 09 E + series
Q.130 Which statement is incorrect in case of aldehyde and methyl ketone
A) Both react with NH2OH C) Both react with NaHSO3
B) Both react with H2N – NH2 D) Both react with AgNO3+NH4OH
Q.131 Iodoform test can be used for the distinction between
A) 1-Propanol and 1-Butanol C) 1-Butanol and 1-Pentanol
B) 1-Propanol and 2-Propanol D) Ethanol and 2-Propanol
Q.132 Acetaldehyde when heated with Fehling’s solution gives brik red precipaitate due to
A) Oxidation reaction C) Reduction reaction
B) Addition reaction D) Substitution reactioin
Q.133 Propanol and propanal can be distinguished by
A) Sodium metal C) Acid dichromate
B) 2, 4-DNPH D) Both a and b
Q.134 Which of the following is not derivative of carboxylic acid
A) Alkoxy alkane C) Acid halide
B) Alkyl amide D) Acid anhydride
Q.135 Carboxylic acids are obtained by oxidation of all of the followings except
A) Alcohol C) Aldehyde
B) Alkyl alkanoate D) ketone
Q.136 Carboxylic acid can show all the following reactions except
A) Acid – base reaction C) Nucleophilic substation reaction
B) Electrophilic addition reaction D) Decarboxylation of sodium/potassium salt of carboxylic acid
Q.137 Carboxylic acids do not show which of the following types of isomerism
A) Position isomerism C) Chain isomerism
B) Functional group isomerism D) Optical isomerism
Q.138 Which of the following acid can reduce Tollen’s reagent
A) Formic acid C) Acetic acid
B) Benzoic acid D) Phthalic acid
Q.139 The incorrect hydrolysis reaction is
A) CH3CONH2+H2O+HCl→CH3COOH+NH4+Cl- C) CH3CONH2+H2O+NaOH→CH3COOH+NH3

B) D) CH3COOC2H5+H2O+H2SO4→CH3COOH+C2H5OH
Q.140 Secondary butyl alcohol on oxidation acidic K2Cr2O7 gives compound X. X on further oxidation yields:
A) Two moles of acetic acid C) Formic acid and propanoic acid
B) Two moles of acetic acid D) Acetone and methanal
Q.141 Ethane nitrile on hydrolysis with dilute HCl, gives acetic acid through
A) Ethylamine C) Acyl chloride
B) Ammonoium acetate D) Acetamide
Q.142 Amyl alcohol will give fruity smell with
A) Acetone C) Ether
B) Ethanoic acid D) All of above
Q.143 Protein present in haemoglobin has the structure known as ______ structure
A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Quaternary
Q.144 Specificity of enzymes depend upon
A) Active site B) linear sequence C) Turn over number D) Non of these
Q.145 The primary structure of protein represents
A) Linear sequence of amino acids joined together by peptide bonds
B) 3-dimensional structure of protein
C) Helical structure of protein
D) Sub units structure of protein.
Q.146 Prosthetic groups are:
A) Required by all enzyme C) Loosely attached with enzymes
B) Proteinsous nature D) Tightly bound to enzyme

TEST UNIT – 09 E + series

 ENGLISH
Part-II: In each of the following questions, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the Correct one and fill
the circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ response form.
Q.147 A Jane moved more closer to the front of the classroom in order to see the board better.
B Jane moved closer to the front of the classroom in order to see the board more better.
C Jane moved more closer to the front of the classroom in order to see the board more better.
D Jane moved closer to the front of the classroom in order to see the board better.

Q.148 A If the hairstylist and makeup artist work simultaneously at the same time, they will have the bride ready on
time despite her late arrival to the venue.
B The hairstylist and makeup artist are working simultaneously, they will have the bride ready on time despite
her late arrival to the venue.
C If the hairstylist and makeup artist work simultaneously, they will have the bride ready on time despite her
late arrival to the venue.
D The hairstylist and makeup artist are working simultaneously they will have the bride ready on time despite
her late arrival to the venue.

Q.149 A It began to rain at midday, earlier than the forecasters had predicted; the villagers who lived by the river
were worried about flooding since the water was already near the top of the banks.
B It began to rain at midday, more earlier than the forecasters had predicted, the villagers who lived by the
river were worried about flooding since the water was already near the top of the banks.
C It began to rain at midday, earlier than the forecasters had predicted the villagers who lived by the river
were worried about flooding since the water was already near the top of the banks.
D It began to rain at midday, more earlier than the forecasters had predicted; the villagers who lived by the
river were worried about flooding since the water was already near the top of the banks.

Q.150 A Rachel told Jane the story she started to cry.

B Rachel told Jane the story, Jane started to cry.
C When Rachel told Jane the story, Jane started to cry.
D When Rachel told Jane the story, she started to cry.

Q.151 A Stress makes it difficult to maintain regular exercise, stable relationships, and be eating food with benefits
to one’s health.
B Stress makes it difficult to exercise regularly, have relationships that are stable, and having healthy diet.
C Stress makes it difficult to maintain regular exercise, have relationships that are stable, and be eating food
with benefits to one’s health.
D Stress makes it difficult to maintain regular exercise, stable relationships, and a healthy diet.

Q.152 A Buck received much critical praise and earned over $7 million she was very modest about it.
B Buck received much critical praise and earned over $7 million, but she was very modest about it.
C Buck received much critical praise and earned over $7 million, she was very modest about her achievements
D Buck received much critical praise and earned over $7 million, but she was very modest about her
achievements.

Q.153 A Until the Weavers arrived home at 5 p.m., the clock ticked, the refrigerator hummed,
and the dog snored in the otherwise quiet house.
B Until the Weavers arrived home at 5 p.m., the clock was ticking, the refrigerator hummed,
and the dog snored in the otherwise quiet house.
C Until the Weavers arrived home at 5 p.m., the clock ticked, the refrigerator hummed,
and the dog snoring in the otherwise quiet house.
D Until the Weavers arrived home at 5 p.m., the clock ticked, the refrigerator was humming,
and the dog was snoring in the otherwise quiet house.

TEST UNIT – 09 E + series

Q.154 A A kiwi has twice as much vitamin C as an orange.
B A kiwi has twice as much vitamin C.
C A kiwi has twice as much as vitamin C as an orange.
D A kiwi has twice as much vitamin C as much as an orange.

Q.155 A Natalia blinked her eyes, wiped her glasses, and having squinted at the screen, but she could not decipher
the small text crammed onto the presentation slide.
B Natalia blinked her eyes, she wiped her glasses, and then squinted at the screen, but she could not decipher
the small text crammed onto the presentation slide.
C Natalia blinked her eyes, wiped her glasses, and squinted at the screen, but she could not decipher the small
text crammed onto the presentation slide.
D Natalia blinked her eyes, wiping her glasses, and squinted at the screen, but she could not decipher the
small text crammed onto the presentation slide.

Q.156 A Of the two cities on the map of Egypt, Cairo is the biggest.
B Of the two cities on the map of Egypt, Cairo is the most biggest.
C Of the two cities on the map of Egypt, Cairo is the more bigger.
D Of the two cities on the map of Egypt, Cairo is the bigger.

Q.157 A After flunking the chemistry exam, Theodore brought peanut butter cookies to Dr. Wilson, his professor,
who was not pleased by this.
B After flunking the chemistry exam, Theodore brought peanut butter cookies to Dr. Wilson, his professor,
who was not pleased with his bad performance.
C Theodore flunk the chemistry exam, he brought peanut butter cookies to Dr. Wilson, his professor, who was
not pleased by this.
D Theodore flunk the chemistry exam he brought peanut butter cookies to Dr. Wilson, his professor, who was
not pleased with his bad performance.

Q.158 A The boat bumped the edge of the dock, the dock didn’t need many repairs.
B The boat bumped the edge of the dock the dock didn’t need many repairs.
C The boat bumped the edge of the dock; the dock didn’t need many repairs.
D The boat bumped the edge of the dock; it didn’t need many repairs.

Q.159 A The Tutoring and Learning Centre can help you improve your writing skills, gaining independence, and
completing your assignments.
B The Tutoring and Learning Centre can help your writing skills, to gain independence, and confidently
completing your assignments.
C The Tutoring and Learning Centre can help you improve your writing skills, gain independence, and
complete your assignments.
D The Tutoring and Learning Centre can help you improve your writing skills, gain independence, and to
complete your assignments.

Q.160 A The heels on Janet’s sandals were higher than those of her dress shoes.
B The heels on Janet’s sandals were higher than the heels on her dress shoes.
C The heels on Janet’s sandals were higher than her dress shoes.
D The heels on Janet’s sandals were higher than on her dress shoes.

Q.161 A Bill bought a Norwegian canoe because he had heard that Norwegians make the best canoes.
B Bill bought a Norwegian canoe he had heard that Norwegians make the best canoes.
C Bill bought a Norwegian canoe, he had heard that they make the best canoes.
D Bill bought a Norwegian canoe because he had heard that they make the best canoes.

TEST UNIT – 09 E + series

 Part – III: (Spot the error) In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to
identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. fill the circle
corresponding to that letter in the MCQ response form.
Q.162 At a local restaurant, they provide each table with a bucket of peanuts.
A B C D
Q.163 Mount Everest is one of the most toughest and most exciting mountains to climb on Earth.
A B C D
Q.164 Because they are always gossiping behind the counter instead of cleaning the dining area, Tito's Taco Palace
A B C
is always filthy.
D
Q.165 Skipping the directions, hurrying to finish first, and negligence in rechecking her work have caused Claudia
A B C
to fail every calculus exam this semester.
D
Q.166 Dad took his car to the garage which needed servicing.
A B C D
Q.167 Unfortunately,finding water is not the most serious problem camels face most dangerous threat to camels comes from humans
A B C D
Q.168 After no rabbit popped out of the hat, Lori decided she had neither the patience nor did she have
A B
the good humor to tolerate another of Darren's poorly performed magic tricks.
C D
Q.169 Because all the doors were locked; therefore, the burglar must have got in through a window.
A B C D
Q.170 The sky grew pink, seagulls began to cry, and waves were rolling onshore as Diane took her
A B C
morning stroll on the beach.
D
Q.171 Neither the carrots rotting in the bottom bin nor the broccoli which has crusted with freezer
A
burn will make a suitable side for the chicken you are planning to bake for dinner.
B C D
Q.172 During the worst airline meal in the history of commercial flight, the captain of the 747 announced
A B
that the plane was experiencing engine trouble; this really distressed the passengers.
C D
Q.173 The hike through the canyon exhausted Kim, the steep incline made her thigh muscles throb, the
A B
heavy pack caused her shoulders to ache, and the relentless sun burned her skin.
C D
Q.174 The Arabian Desert in the Middle East is one of the hottest environments on Earth, and it has the
A B
less amount of rainfall.
C D
Q.175 Ironing a clean shirt, having made sure that he had printed a course schedule, and buying a pack
A B C
gum for fresh breath were the tasks Aaron completed before the first day of spring semester.
D
Q.176 Mrs. Geiger told Maria that she needed to conquer her fear of computers because
A B C
they are a valuable research tool.
D

TEST UNIT – 09 E + series