Punjab Group of Colleges

MDCAT
Pre -1st Year 2020
Entry Test - Session I
Time Allowed: 150 Min.
Marks: 200

BIOLOGY
Q.1 The branch of biology that deals with the study of social behaviour and communal life of
human beings is called:
A) Human biology C) Molecular biology
B) Social biology D) Environmental biology
Q.2 Pick up a characteristic that is not related to life:
A) Sensitivity C) Crystallization
B) Homeostasis D) Metabolism
Q.3 Which one of the followings is not considered as an organ?
A) Stomach C) Brain
B) Heart D) Muscle
Q.4 The highest level of biological organization (Organization of Life) is:
A) Ecosystem C) Community
B) Biosphere D) Population
Q.5 In plants long term regulation of activities is brought about by:
A) Endocrine system C) Hormones
B) Nervous system D) Enzymes
Q.6 In human body only __________bio-elements accounts for 99% of total mass:
A) 6 C) 18
B) 12 D) 25
Q.7 All of the following are trace elements in human body, EXCEPT:
A) Copper C) Zinc
B) Manganese D) Sulphur
Q.8 A community includes:
A) Organisms of same species
B) Organisms of different species
C) Organelles and cells
D) Organ and systems
Q.9 Pick up the trace element:
A) Oxygen C) Phosphorus
B) Potassium D) Iodine
Q.10 Oxygen accounts for _____% of totals human body mass:
A) 10 C) 65
B) 18 D) 03
Q.11 A group of similar cells that perform a specific the function is called:
A) Species C) Tissue
B) Organ D) Organism
Q.12 All living and non-living matter is formed of simple units called:
A) Conjugated molecules C) Molecules
B) Atoms D) Cells
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Q.13 Pick up most recent era:
A) Proterozoic C) Paleozoic
B) Cenozoic D) Mesozoic

Q.14 Reptiles become dominant on land at the time of _____________period:

A) Devonian C) Silurian
B) Carboniferous D) Jurassic
Q.15 Maximum number of species of living things on earth are:
A) Fungi C) Insects
B) Algae D) Protozoa
Q.16 Out of total organisms on earth _____% are most diverse group of organisms:
A) 53.1 C) 19.9
B) 17.6 D) 9.4
Q.17 An unbroken series of species arranged in ancestor to descendent sequence is called:
A) Evolutionary history C) Phyletic linage
B) Biodiversity D) Sibling lining
Q.18 A large regional community primarily determined by climate is called:
A) Population C) Community
B) Biome D) Habitat
Q.19 Pick up the correct sequence in biological method:
A) Observations → Hypothesis → Law →Theory
B) Law → Theory → Observations → Hypothesis
C) Observations → Hypothesis → Deduction
D) Theory → Law → Observations →Hypothesis
Q.20 First vaccine was developed against ________ disease:
A) Viral C) Bacterial
B) Protozoan D) Fungal
Q.21 Controlling of pests by using some living organisms is known as:
A) Chemical control C) Biological control
B) Hydroponics culture technique D) Integrated disease Management
Q.22 A technique that has been developed to repair the defective gene is:
A) Chemotherapy C) Radiotherapy
B) Gene therapy D) Tissue culture
Q.23 Radiotherapy is used against:
A) Corona C) AIDS
B) Hepatitis D) Cancer
Q.24 It is used to test whether a certain nutrient is essential for plant or not:
A) Cloning C) Tissue culture technique
B) Pasteurization D) Hydroponic culture technique
Q.25 Which one of the following can be controlled by vaccination?
A) Mumps C) Cancer
B) Diabetes D) Heart attack
Q.26 Combating of disease by utilizing all the appropriate methods is called:
A) Bioremediation C) Tissue culture technique
B) Integrated disease management D) Biological control
Q.27 It is defined as a cell or individual and all its asexually producing offspring (Copies):
A) Clone C) Transgenic organism
B) Bio-pesticide D) Chimera
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Q.28 Removal or degradation of environmental pollutants or toxic materials by living
organisms is called
A) Integrated disease management C) Hydroponic culture technique
B) Pasteurization D) Bioremediation
Q.29 Technology for achieving eugenic aims called:
A) Vaccination C) Gene therapy
B) Chemotherapy D) Cloning
Q.30 Biochemically enzymes are:
A) Lipids C) Proteins
B) Carbohydrates D) Vitamins
Q.31 If non protein parts covalently bonded with enzyme, is known as:
A) Co-factor C) Coenzyme
B) Activator D) Prosthetic group
Q.32 Lock and key model was modified by:
A) James D. Watson C) Louis Pasteur
B) Emil Fischer D) Koshland
Q.33 Active site is rigid structure according to ____________model:
A) Watson and Crick C) Induce Fit
B) Sliding filament D) Lock and Key
Q.34 Which one of the following is more specific in nature?
A) Lipase C) Protease
B) Nucleases D) Sucrase
Q.35 Optimum pH for pancreatic lipase is:
A) 2 : 00 C) 7 : 00
B) 5 : 00 D) 9 : 00
Q.36 It causes denaturation of enzyme:
A) Slight change in pH C) Slight change in concentration
B) Extreme change in pH D) Slight change in temperature
Q.37 For enzymes of human body ____________is the optimum temperature:
A) 35°C C) 36°C
B) 37°C D) 38°C
Q.38 Malonic acid is competitive inhibitor of:
A) Succinic acid C) Succinic dehydrogenase
B) Fumaric acid D) Malic acid
Q.39 All of the following are inhibitors, EXCEPT:
A) Cyanides C) Antibiotics
B) Anti-metabolites D) Vitamins
Q.40 The most important group of proteins which are biologically active are:
A) Hormones C) Enzymes
B) Antibodies D) Vitamins
Q.41 They tremendously increase the efficiency of a biochemical reaction and are specific for
each type of reaction:
A) Activators C) Co-enzymes
B) Hormones D) Enzymes

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Q.42 Without ________ the reaction would proceed at a very slow speed making life
impossible:
A) Hormones C) Vaccines
B) Enzymes D) Vitamins
Q.43 The catalytic activity is restricted to a small portion of the structure known as the
__________ site:
A) Allosteric C) Binding
B) Reactive D) Active
Q.44 The reactant of enzyme is called:
A) Co-enzyme C) Activator
B) Co-factor D) Substrate

Q.45 It usually acts as a bridge between the enzyme and its substrate:
A) Prosthetic group C) Activator
B) Co-enzyme D) Co-factor
Q.46 A detachable co-factor, if it is an inorganic ion, it is called:
A) Holo-enzyme C) Co-enzyme
B) Prosthetic group D) Activator
Q.47 If non protein part of enzyme is covalently bonded to the protein part, it is called:
A) Activator C) Prosthetic group
B) Co-enzyme D) Apo-enzyme
Q.48 A non-protein part of enzyme closely related to vitamins is:
A) Prosthetic group C) Co-enzyme
B) Activator D) Apo-enzyme
Q.49 Both of them can be used again and again:
A) Enzymes and Apo-enzymes C) Enzymes and Co-factors
B) Enzymes and Co-enzymes D) Enzymes and Activators
Q.50 An activated enzyme consisting of polypeptide chain and a cofactor is known as:
A) Apoenzyme C) Co-enzyme
B) Holoenzyme D) Pseudo enzyme
Q.51 These are biochemical catalysts:
A) Hormones C) Activator
B) Enzymes D) Co-enzyme
Q.52 It works in highly acidic medium:
A) Arginase C) Pepsin
B) Pancreatic lipase D) Chymotrypsin
Q.53 The enzymes important in photosynthesis are found in:
A) Mitochondria C) Ribosomes
B) Chloroplast D) Golgi Apparatus
Q.54 The enzymes involved in respiration are found in:
A) Mitochondria C) Ribosomes
B) Chloroplast D) Golgi Apparatus
Q.55 Some of the enzymes, which are involved in the synthesis of proteins are integral part of:
A) Mitochondria C) Ribosomes
B) Chloroplast D) Vacuole
Q.56 Enzymes lower the _________ of the reaction:
A) pH C) Activation energy
B) Temperature D) Speed
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Q.57 Pepsin is a powerful ________ digesting enzyme:
A) Carbohydrates C) Lipids
B) Proteins D) Nucleic acid
Q.58 _________ helps the enzyme in the recognition and binding of a proper substrate to
produce an ES complex:
A) Active site C) Catalytic site
B) Binding site D) Allosteric site
Q.59 According to this model, as one specific key opens only a specific lock, in the same
manner a specific enzyme can transform only one substrate into products (s):
A) Lock and key model C) Allosteric model
B) Induced fit model D) Isoenzyme model
Q.60 The rate of reaction depends directly on the amount of enzyme present at a specific time
at _____________ concentration:
A) High substrate C) Low substrate
B) Limited substrate D) Unlimited substrate
Q.61 At low concentration of substrate, the reaction rate is directly proportional to
the_______________ available:
A) Enzyme C) Product
B) Substrate D) Inhibitor
Q.62 All enzymes can work at their maximum rate at a specific temperature called as:
A) Suitable temperature C) Optimum temperature
B) Minimum temperature D) Maximum temperature
Q.63 Pick up the optimum pH for arginase:
A) 7.60 C) 9.00
B) 7.00 – 8.00 D) 9.70
Q.64 It is a chemical substance which can react in place of substrate, with enzyme, but is not
transformed into products:
A) Cyanide C) Antibodies
B) Inhibitor D) Antimetabolites
Q.65 They check the reaction rate by occupying the active sites or destroying the globular
structure:
A) Non-competitive inhibitors C) Competitive inhibitors
B) Reversible inhibitors D) Irreversible inhibitors

Q.66 They make weak linkages with the enzymes:

A) Irreversible inhibitors C) Competitive inhibitors
B) Reversible inhibitors D) Non-competitive inhibitors

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Q.67 Pick up the substrate:

A) Succinic acid C) Malonic acid

B) Fumaric acid D) Dehydrogenase
Q.68 Pick up the enzyme:

A) Succinic acid C) Malonic acid

B) Fumaric acid D) Dehydrogenase
Q.69 Pick up the active site:

A) 6 C) 4
B) 5 D) 3
Q.70 Nucleus was first time reported by:
A) Robert Hook C) Robert Brown
B) Lorenz Oken D) Rudolph Virchow

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Q.71 Criss cross arrangement of cellulose is found in:

A) Primary cell wall C) Middle lamella
B) Secondary cell wall D) Plasma membrane
Q.72 Human naked eye can differentiate between two points at least ____________ apart:
A) 1.0 mm C) 0.1 mm
B) 1.0 µm D) 1.0 nm

Q.73 Peripheral parts of a cell are often like ____________:

A) Nucleoplasm C) Protoplasm
B) Sol D) Gell
Q.74 All cells have all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) Plasma membrane C) Cytoplasm
B) Genetic material D) Cell wall
Q.75 Cell was discovered by:
A) Rudolph Virchow C) August Weismann
B) Robert Brown D) Robert Hooke
Q.76 _____________hypothesized that new cells were formed from previously existing living
cells:
A) Theodor Schwann C) Rudolph Virchows
B) Louis Pasteur D) Robert Hooke
Q.77 Resolution power of a typical compound microscope is:
A) 2.0 m C) 2-4 Å
B) 1.0 mm D) 24 Å
Q.78 Fungal cell wall contains:
A) Peptidoglycan C) Cellulose
B) Murein D) Chitin
Q.79 The cell theory was proposed by:
A) Lorenz Oken C) Robert Brown
B) Schleiden and Schwann D) Rudolph Virchow
Q.80 All of the following are related to secondary cell wall, EXCEPT:
A) Cutin C) Peptidoglycan
B) Silica D) Waxes

CHEMISTRY
Q.81 The mass of hydrogen used in determining the %age of hydrogen from water in
combustion analysis of organic compound is:
A) 1.008 C) 12
B) 18 D) 2.016
Q.82 The breakdown of molecular ion obtained from the neutral product can give
information about their ____________:
A) Structure C) Physical properties
B) Chemical properties D) All of these

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Q.83 The formation of which ion is exothermic:
A) Na+ C) Cl-
B) Mg +2 D) O-2
Q.84 Usually relative abundance is maximum for that isotope whose atomic mass is multiple
of:
A) Two C) Six
B) Four D) Eight
Q.85 A compound contains 50% Sulphur and 50% Oxygen by mass. The empirical formula of
compound is:
A) SO2 C) SO3
B) S2O3 D) SO
Q.86 Which of the following is not a molecular ion?
A) CH4+ C) CO+
B) NH4+ D) All of these
Q.87 Carbon has three isotopes C - 12, C - 13, C - 14, the number of neutrons in C - 14 are:
A) 6 C) 7
B) 8 D) 10
Q.88 Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A) Atom may or may not exist independently
B) Mole can be in fraction but atomicity cannot
C) Molecule can always exist independently
D) All the isotopes of an elements have different proton numbers
Q.89 There are different steps in determining the empirical formula:
Step I. Calculating the number of gram atom
Step II. Determining the atomic ratio
Step III. Determining the percentage composition
What is the correct sequence of the above steps?
A) I, II, III C) II, I, III
B) III, II, I D) III, I, II
Q.90 Tobacco contains a poisonous alkaloid called nicotine. The molecular formula of nicotine
is C10H14N2 (molar mass = 162.23g). The mass
percentage of nitrogen in nicotine is?
A) 4.32% C) 8.23%
B) 12.4% D) 17.3%
Q.91 An acid with molecular mass 104g/mole contains 34.6%C, 3.85%H and rest is O. the
molecular formula of acid is:
A) C3H4O4 C) C2H2O
B) C2H2O4 D) C2HO2
Q.92 How many moles of Ca3(PO4)2 will contain 0.24 moles of oxygen:
A) 0.02 C) 1.5 x 10-2
B) 3 x 10 -2 D) 2.5 x 10-2
Q.93 0.5 mole of H2O is formed when 1 g H2 reacts with ______ of O2:
A) 32 g C) 4 g
B) 8 g D) 16 g

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Q.94 A pair that have same number of molecules:
A) 32g of O2 and 32g of N2H4 C) 30g of N2 and 30g of C2H6
B) 34g of H2S and 34g of N2H4 D) 44g of CO2 and 44g of CS2

Q.95 20g of calcium carbonate is decomposed on heating as shown in equation.

CaCO3  CaO  CO2
The mass of CO2 gas produced in this reaction is:
A) 8.8g C) 4.4g
B) 2.2g D) 6.6g
Q.96 The number of moles of KMnO4 that contain 1 mole of oxygen atom:
A) 2 moles C) 0.25 moles
B) 0.5 moles D) 1.5 moles
Q.97 The volume occupied by 1.4g of N2 at STP is:
A) 2.24dm3 C) 1.12dm3
B) 22.4dm 3 D) 112cm3
Q.98 2.8g of N2 molecules contain number of chemical bonds:
A) 6.02 x 1022 C) 1.8 x 1023
B) 1.204 x 10 23 D) 1.8 x 1022
Q.99 Moles of O-atoms in 9.00g of Mg(NO3)2:
A) 0.36 C) 1.5
B) 3.6 D) 6.3
Q.100 3
15g of a gas occupies 11.2 dm at STP, the gas is:
A) CO C) CO2
B) NO D) N2O
Q.101 How many moles of neutron are present in one mole of heavy water:
A) 18 C) 8
B) 10 D) 20
Q.102 The elements showing single peak in mass spectrograph is:
A) F C) Cl
B) Br D) Ne
Q.103 In the production of 180g of H2O, X moles of H2 and ‘Y’ moles of O2 react together.
What will be the value of X and Y respectively:
A) X=10, Y=10 C) X=5, Y=10
B) X=10, Y=5 D) X=18, Y=9
Q.104 27g of Al will react completely with how much mass of O2 to produce Al2O3:
A) 8g of oxygen C) 32g of oxygen
B) 16g of oxygen D) 24g of oxygen

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Q.105 The mass spectrum of lead is shown
y
52.3

23.6
22.6
1.5

204 206 207 208

x

What quantities are represented by x-axis and y-axis?

Options x-axis y-axis
A) Mass number Relative abundance
B) Mass number Atomic number
C) Atomic number Height of peak
D) Atomic number Mass number
Q.106 When lime stone (CaCO3) is roasted, quicklime (CaO) is produced according to the
following equation. The actual yield of CaO is 0.5kg when 1kg of lime stone is roasted.
What is the percentage yield of this reaction?
CaCO 3 s  
 CaO s  + CO 2 g 
A) 89.3% C) 85.2%
B) 80.1% D) 87.3%
Q.107 Mass of carbon in acetone is equal to the mass of carbon in:
A) Ethanal C) Propanal
B) Ethanol D) 1-Butanol
Q.108 The absorption of CO2 in 50% KOH leads to:
A) Physical change C) Adsorption
B) Simple diffusion D) Chemical change
Q.109 23.5g of N2 contain as much atoms as in:
A) 23.5g of O2 C) 23.5g of H2
B) 23.5g of CO D) 23.5g of Cl2
Q.110 Which type of relationship can be studied with the help of balanced chemical equation:
A) Mass – Mass relationship C) Mass – Volume relationship
B) Mole – Mass relationship D) All relations can be studied
Q.111 In mass spectrometer the separation of isotope can be done by:
A) Gaseous diffusion C) Distillation
B) Ultracentrifuge D) All of these
Q.112 Which of the following set of elements form nearly 50% of earth crust?
A) O, Mg, C, Ca, Fe C) O, Mg, S, Fe, K
B) O, Mg, Si, Ca, Fe D) O, Mg, C, Si, Fe
Q.113 Which pair of elements have same number of isotopes?
A) Nickel and Carbon C) Carbon and Chlorine
B) Oxygen and Palladium D) Palladium and Calcium

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Q.114 The correct mass spectrum of chlorine is:
100
100
Abundance

Abundance
(%age)

A) C)

(%age)
33 34 35 36 37 mz
33 34 35 36 37 mz

100
100
Abundance
(%age)

Abundance
B) D)

(%age)
33 34 35 36 37 mz
33 34 35 36 37 mz

Q.115 How much calcium is present in 0.1g of CaCO3?

A) 0.01g C) 0.03g
B) 0.02g D) 0.04g
Q.116 While determining the molecular formula, the simple multiple ‘n’ is not unity for?
A) H2O C) C12H22O11
B) H2O2 D) CO2

Q.117 What will be the molecular formula of the compound, having empirical formula CHO 2
and molecular mass 90g/mole?
A) C6H12O6 C) C12H22O11
B) (COOH)2 D) HCOOH
Q.118 Haemoglobin molecule is _______ times heavier than helium:
A) 17,000 C) 8500
B) 68,000 D) 34,000
Q.119 24g of organic compound is burnt in excess of O2, 11g CO2 is produceD) The %age of
‘C’ in this compound is:
A) 50% C) 33%
B) 12.5% D) 6.25%
Q.120 Which of the following terms is used for the mass of neon 20.18 amu?
A) Relative atomic mass C) Mass number
B) Molecular mass D) Relative isotopic mass
Q.121 Block of metals Mg, Al, Fe, Zn of each mass 100g. The maximum number of atoms are
present in a block of metal.
A) Mg C) Zn
B) Al D) Fe
Q.122 A container contains 9g of water. Which statement is incorrect about it:
A) It contains 0.5 NA water molecules C) It contains 0.5 NA oxygen atoms
B) It contains 1NA hydrogen atoms D) It contains 1NA water molecules
Q.123 720g of glucose contains how many moles of glucose:
A) 2 C) 4
B) 6 D) 8

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Q.124 Which of the following has the maximum mass:
A) 20g of phosphorus C) 12 x 1024 atoms of H
B) 5 moles of H2O D) 2 moles of Na2CO3
+1
Q.125 The number of atoms in 3.6g of NH4 is approximately:
A) 3.01 x 1023 C) 1.5 x 1023
B) 2.4 x 10 23 D) 6.02 x 1023
Q.126 Calculate the mass in grams of 2.5 moles of water:
A) 36g C) 72g
B) 54g D) 45g
Q.127 The mass of one mole of electron is:
A) 1.008mg C) 0.184mg
B) 0.55mg D) 1.673mg
Q.128 The number of moles of CO2 which contain 8g of oxygen:
A) 0.25 C) 1.50
B) 0.50 D) 1.0
Q.129 All of the following statements are correct except:
A) Number of atom of an element x NA
B) Number of formula units x NA
C) Number of ions of ionic species x NA
D) Number of molecules of covalent compound x NA
Q.130 Total number of ions in four formula units of NaClO3 is equal to the number of:
A) Electrons in neon C) Nucleons in sodium atom
B) Protons in an oxygen atom D) Isotopes of chlorine
Q.131 One mole of hydrated copper (II) sulphate CuSO4.5H2O is dissolved in water. How
many moles of ions does the solution contain?
A) 1 C) 6
B) 2 D) 7
Q.132 Point out the set of species which has same number of electrons.
A) F, Cl, Br C) Ca+2, Mg+2, Al+3
+ 
B) O , O , O o D) F, Na+, Neo
Q.133 A ring contains 1.2 grams of diamond. The number of carbon atoms in the diamond are:
A) 3.01  1022 C) 6.02  1023
B) 6.02 1022 D) 3.01 1023
Q.134 Number of molecules in one dm3 of water is close to:
18
A) 55.5  6.023  1023 C)  1023
22.4
B) 18  6.023  1023 D) 6.02  1023
Q.135 Total number of covalent bonds in 8 g of CH4 are:
A) 1.204  1024 C) 6.02  1023
B) 12.04  1024 D) 2.04  1023

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Q.136 In the combustion analysis of organic compound, which of the following elements is
estimated by the difference method:
A) % of C C) % of O
B) % of H D) % of N
Q.137 Mark the incorrect statement about the function of Dempster mass spectrometer:
A) Greater is the strength of electric current shown by ion collector,
greater is the relative abundance of isotopes
B) Greater is the strength of electric field, greater is deflection of positive ions
C) Greater is the strength of magnetic field, greater is the deflection of positive ions
H2r 2
D) m =
e 2E
Q.138 How many oxygen atoms are in 2 moles of oxygen (O2) gas?
A) 2 x 6.022 x 1023 x 2 atoms C) 2 x 6.02 x 1022 atoms
B) 2 x 6.022 x 1022 x 2 atoms D) 2 x 1023 atoms

Q.139 In Dempster mass spectrometer, all of the following statements are matched correctly
EXCEPT:
Opt. Stages Function
A) Vaporization chamber The pressure of vapours sample of an element is reduced
from 10 6 to 10 7 torr
B) Ionization chamber The isotopes of an element in the vapours form are ionized
C) Magnetic field Greater is the strength of magnetic field smaller is the
deflection of positive ions
D) Electric field The positive ions of isotopes are accelerated

Q.140 One mole of CH3OH and one mole of C2H5OH have:

A) Equal number of atoms C) Equal number of electrons

B) Equal number of molecules D) Equal number of protons

PHYSICS
Q.141 To measure potential difference between two points in an electric circuit three different
kinds of voltmeters are available as V1, V2 and V3. V1 has an absolute uncertainty of
0.15 V, V2 has an absolute uncertainty of 0.45 V and V3 has an absolute uncertainty of
0.50 V. which one of these three we must use for a precise measurement:
A) V1 C) V3
B) V2 D) Any of these
Q.142 The value of plane angle for one complete rotation is equal to:

A) 2 radian C) radian
2
B)  radian D) 4  radian

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Q.143 The value of solid angle for half of rotation is equal to:

A) 2  Sr C) Sr
2
B)  Sr D) 4  Sr
Q.144 How many kinds of units are there in SI?
A) Seven C) Three
B) Five D) Two
Q.145 Which one is the biggest unit of plane angle?
A) Radian C) Revolution
B) Steradian D) Degree
Q.146 Which of following are base units of power?
A) kg m2 s-2 C) kg m2 s-1
B) kg m s-3 D) kg m2 s-3
Q.147 1micro = __________ mega?
A) 10-18 C) 10-12
B) 10 -15 D) 10-24
Q.148 A student measures the length & diameter of cylinder by Vernier caliper both readings
have an error of “0.05 mm”, which type of error is in these readings:
A) Random error C) Systematic error
B) Personal error D) All of these
Q.149 If the reading “0.000573” is expressed in scientific notation. How many significant
figures will it contain?
A) 2 C) 5
B) 3 D) 7
Q.150 Two measurements containing “3” and “5” significant figures are multiplied, then their
product is divided by third measurement having 4 significant figures. The final answer
will contain _______ significant figures?
A) 2 C) 4
B) 3 D) 5
Q.151 Which of the following is not a supplementary quantity?
A) Radian C) Both A & B
B) Steradian D) None of these

Q.152 A student performs an experiment in which he measures length of a small wire and
repeat experiment to obtain a set of values as shown below:
1.1 m, 1.2 m, 1.3 m, 1.4 m, 1.5 m what will be the uncertainty in the mean value for these
measurements?
A)  0.12 + 1.3m C)  0.10+1.3m
B)  0.13+1.3m D)  0.11+1.3m
Q.153 Two measurements y1  22.4  0.2cm & y 2  23.3  0.6 cm are being subtracted. The
uncertainty in final answer will be:
A) -0.4 cm C) 0.4 cm
B) 0.8 cm D) 0.2 cm
Q.154 Dimensionless quantity:
A) Does not exist C) Always have a unit
B) Never have a unit D) May have a unit
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Q.155 Which of the following quantities have units but no dimensions?

A) refractive index C) temperature
B) mass D) plane angle
Q.156 Physical sciences deals with the study of:
A) Living things C) Both A & B
B) Non living things D) None of these
Q.157 Which of the following is the most fundamental out of all sciences?
A) Physics C) Biology
B) Chemistry D) Geology
Q.158 The branch of physics that deals with the study of sound is:
A) Mechanics C) Acoustics
B) Waves D) Oscillation
Q.159 The number of physical quantities in system international are:
A) 7 C) 2
B) 3 D) Infinite
Q.160 If velocity v=ax+bx where x is the displacement then units of “a” and “b” are:
2

A) sec, m sec C) sec-1, m-1 sec-1

-1
B) sec , m sec -1 D) sec, m-1 sec-1
Q.161 The computer chips are made of:
A) Semi-conductor C) Conductors
B) Insulator D) Any of these
Q.162 10-15 can be written as:
A) Atto (a) C) Pico (p)
B) Femto (f) D) Nano (n)
Q.163 Which of the following has derived units?
A) Area C) Length
B) Mass D) Time
Q.164 Which of following is most accurate instrument
A) Meter rod C) Screw gauge
B) Vernier caliper D) All of these
Q.165 The least count of a stop watch is 0.1 sec. The time of 20 oscillations of the pendulum
found to be 20 sec. The percentage error in the time period is:
A) 0.25% C) 0.5%
B) 0.75% D) 1.0%
Q.166 Diameter of a wire is measured by screw guage. Which of following can be the possible
value?
A) 8.1 mm C) 8.125 mm
B) 8.12 mm D) 8.1253 mm
Q.167 Dimensional formula of K.E is same as of:
A) Pressure C) Momentum
B) Work D) Force

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Q.168 The period of oscillation of a pendulum is T  2 L / g . Measured value of L is 10 cm
known to 1 mm accuracy and time for 100 oscillations is observed to be 100 sec correct
to the nearest one second. The accuracy in determination of g is: (ECAT
2016)
A) Approximately 3% C) Approximately 15%
B) Approximately 5% D) Approximately 10%
Q.169 Checking the correctness of equations using the method of dimensions is based on
A) Principle of homogeneity of dimensions C) The type of system of units
B) Equality of inertial frames of reference D) None of the above
Q.170 The percentage error in the measurement of mass and speed are 2% and 3%
respectively. How much will be maximum error in momentum?
A) 11% C) 5%
B) 8% D) 1%
Q.171 The dimension of product PV is same that of
A) Energy C) Temperature
B) Power D) Momentum
-12
Q.172 The factor 10 may be expressed as:
A) 10-3  C) 106 a
B) 103 k D) 10-6 m
Q.173 Density of air is 1.2 kgm . It can be expressed in gm cm-3 by:
-3

A) 1.2 x 10–3 C) 1.2 x 104

B) 1.2 x 10 6 D) 1.2 x 103

Q.174 Which of the following gives the sub-multiples or multiples represented by pico (p) and
giga (G)?
Pico (p) Giga (G)
A)  9
10 109
B) 10 9 1012
C) 1012 109
D) 1012 1012
Q.175 Which one of the following is not a unit of length?
A) Angstrom C) Micron
B) Radian D) Light year
Q.176 Which of following is most precise instrument?
A) Meter rod C) Screw gauge
B) Vernier caliper D) All of these
Q.177 One micron is equal to:
A) 10 4 cm C) 10 6 cm
B) 10 8 cm D) 10 2 cm
Q.178 If units of mass and Velocity are doubled, then unit of K.E becomes:
A) Eight times C) Sixteen times
B) Four times D) Three times

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Q.179 Which experimental technique reduces the systematic error of the quantity being
investigated?
A) Adjusting an ammeter to remove its zero error before measuring a current
B) Timing a large number of oscillations to find a period
C) Measuring the diameter of a wire repeatedly & calculating the average
D) None of these
Q.180 The least count is called:
A) Percentage uncertainty C) Fractional uncertainty
B) Absolute uncertainty D) All of these

ENGLISH
Directions: Each sentence below has a blank indicating that something has been omitted.
Choose the word that best fits in with the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Q.181 A few moments________, she went back into the kitchen to make the salad.
A) Latter C) Letter
B) Later D) Litter
Q.182 Sheepdogs cannot turn her_______ they slumber on with paws across.
A) Coarse, C) Course;
B) Coarse; D) Course,
Q.183 "I think you'd better__________," Arthur said, standing.
A) Leave C) Leaving
B) Left D) Leaves
Q.184 "Oh, ________authentic," Mr. Steward answered.
A) It's quit C) It's quiet
B) Its quite D) It's quite
Q.185 He said, looking at me with his ______blue eyes, "How our hounds, Rags and Scout,
would make the rabbits circle.
A) Pill C) Pail
B) Pile D) Pale
Q.186 That's why I came back up_______.
A) Hair C) Here
B) Heir D) Hare
Directions: Some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that
underlined segment of the sentence which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill
the circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response form.
Q.187 She felt unreally as the voice informed her of the subway accident.
A B C D
Q.188 After she put the lamb chops in the broiler, she sat down to open the package.
A B C D
Q.189 "If you push the button," Mr. Steward told him, "somewhere in the world someone
A B C
you don't know die.
D

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Q.190 "Oh, no, no," he said as he began to climb the second bluff that lifted abruptly from
A B C
the flat to the sky.
D
Q.191 Whatever my father wanted me to see were on top of the highest point of my farm.
A B C D
Q.192 I ploughed this mountain with cattles the first time it was ever ploughed.
A B C D

Directions: In each of the following questions, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the
CORRECT one and fill the Circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.
Q.193
A) He reached an inside coat pocket and withdrew a small sealed envelope.
B) He reached into an inside coat pocket, and withdrew a small sealed envelop.
C) He reached into an inside coat pocket and withdrew a small sealed envelope.
D) He reached into an inside coat pocket and withdrawn a small sealed envelope.

Q.194
A) "Maybe it's some kind of psychological research."
B) "May be it's some kind of a psychological research."
C) "Maybe its some kind of psychological research."
D) "Maybe it's any kind of psychological research."
Q.195
A) "Don't you want knowing what it is?"
B) "Don't you want know what it is."
C) "Don't you want to know what is it ?"
D) "Don't you want to know what it is?"
Q.196
A) When he made of his mind to do a thing, he would do it if he had to crawl.
B) When he made from his mind to do a thing, he would do it if he had to crawl.
C) When he made up his mind to do a thing, he would do it if he had to crawl.
D) When he made up his mind to do a thing, he would have done it if he had to crawl.

Q.197
A) The pines on top of the mountain over us looked as if the fingers of there long boughs
were fondling the substance of a white cloud.
B) The pines on top of the mountain above us looked as if the fingers of their long boughs
were fondling the substance of a white cloud.
C) The pines on top of the mountain above we looked as if the fingers of their longer boughs
were fondling the substance of a white cloud.
D) The pines on top of the mountain above us looked as if the finger of their long boughs
were fondling the substance of a white cloud.

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Q.198
A) Now, to look into the mountain slope, grown up with tall trees, many of them big enough
to have sawed into lumber at the mill, it was hard to believe that my father and mother
had cleared this mountain slope
B) Now, to look at the mountain slope, grown up with tall trees, many of them big enough to
have sawed in lumber at the mill, it was hard to believe that my father and mother
cleared this mountain slope
C) Now, to look at the mountain slope, grown up with tall trees, many of them enough big to
have sawed into lumber at the mill, it was hard to believe that my father and mother had
cleared this mountain slope
D) Now, to look at the mountain slope, grown up with tall trees, many of them big enough to
have sawed into lumber at the mill, it was hard to believe that my father and mother had
cleared this mountain slope

Directions: Select the most suitable SYNONYM for the given words:

Q.199 INTERRUPT
A) Butt in C) Link up
B) Put to sleep D) Feel affection for

Directions: Select the most suitable ANTONYM for the given words:

Q.200 STALWART
A) Disloyal C) Bold
B) Stout D) Resolute

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