QUESTSIONS RELATED TO MICROBIAL GENETICS

1. DNA sequencing can reveal: 

A. Mutations that do not alter phenotype
B. Mutations that do not alter genotype
C. Which tissues will express a gene
D. How many genes a person has

2. Which genetic map is derived from restriction length polymorphisms (RFLPs) and is
used to distinguish genes tens of kb apart? 
A. Cytogenetic map
B. Linkage map
C. Physical map
D. Sequence map
3. Which of these would be considered the simplest organism with a nucleus? 
A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
B. Caenorhabditis elegans
C. Drosophila melanogaster
D. Physcomitrella patens

4. To identify genes that are actively expressed, researchers isolate: 

A. DNA
B. Protein
C. mRNA
D. CDNA

5.  cDNA is copied from _______. 

A. DNA
B. Protein
C. mRNA
D. A pictogram

6. Expressed sequence tags (ESTs) allow researchers to identify: 

A. Genes that encode proteins
B. Microsatellites
C. Ribosomal RNA genes
D. Introns
 7. Genes that are highly conserved are: 
A. Found in a wide range of species
B. Repeated many times in a genome
C. Found in humans only
D. Found in a narrow range of closely related species
 

8. Who was the first person to propose sequencing of the E. coli genome? 
A. Jacques Monod
B. Francis Crick
C. Robert Sinsheimer
D. Craig Ventner

9. The test used to detect the deamination of the amino acids by bacteria

A) Nessler’s reagent test

B) Proteolytic test
C) Lactose test
D). Rose aindole reagent test

10. The most common stains used in Gram staining is

A) crystal violet and methylene blue
B) crystal violet and safranin
C) crystal violet and carbol fuschin
D) safranin and methylene blue

11. Enzymes responsible for alcoholic Fermentation

A. Ketolase
B. Zymase
C. Peroxidase
D. Oxidase

12. Bacterial transformation was discovered by

A. Ederberg and Tatum
B. Beadle and Tatum
C. Griffith
D. None of these

13. Father of Medical Microbiology is? 

A. Pasteur
B. Jenner
C. Koch
D. A.L. Hock
14.  _______ was the first organism to have its entire genome sequenced. 
A. The fruit fly
B. E. coli
C. Homo sapiens
D. Haemophilus influenzae
E. Mycoplasma genitalium

15. Role of bacteria in carbon cycle is

A. Photosynthesis
B. Chemosynthesis
C. Breakdown of organic compounds
D. Assimilation of nitrogen compounds
 MICROBIOLOGY QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS

1. What best approximates the diameter of a DNA molecule?

a) 2 nanometers
b) 1 micron
c) 10 Angstroms
d) 3 Angstroms

2. Vaccination is an example of
a) Naturally acquired active immunity
b) Artificially acquired active immunity
c) Naturally acquired passive immunity
d) Artificially acquired passive immunity

3. Retina contains the sensitive cells called

a) Rods and cones
b) Cones and cortex
c) Rods and pelvis
d) Cortex and fovea

4. Some bacteria are considered pleomorphic. This means

a) They are shaped like bent rods
b) They have a corkscrew shape
c) They do not have just one shape
d) They are not either bacilli or cocci

5. An enzyme promotes a chemical reaction by

a) Lowering the energy of activation
b) Increasing the energy of activation
c) Changing the free energy
d) None of these

6. Bacteria do not always swim aimlessly but are attracted by such nutrients such as sugar
and amino acids and are repelled by harmful substances and bacterial waste products.
Movement toward chemical attractants and away from repellents is called
a) Gliding motility
b) Tumbling
c) Chemotaxis
d) None of the above

7. Which of the following enzyme is not proteinaceous in nature?

a) Ribozyme
b) Phosphatase
c) Peptidase
d) Urease

8. Night blindness is caused due to the deficiency of

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B
c) Vitamin E
 d) Vitamin K

9. Which of the following have no enzymes of their own?

a) Bacteria
b) Cyanobacteria
c) Virus
d) All of these

10. The negative charge of DNA is due to

a) Phosphate group
b) Sugar, phosphate and amino acids
c) Deoxy ribose sugar
d) Nitrogenous bases specifically adenine

11. Bio-diesel is mostly produced by

a) Lilaceae
b) Malvaceae
c) Myrtaceae
d) Euphorbiaceae

12. Rabies is transmitted by

a) Bugs
b) Flies
c) Infected mad dogs
d) Mosquitoes

13. The DNA strand is directly involved in the formation of all except
a) Protein
b) Another DNA strand
c) mRNA molecule
d) tRNA molecule

14. Which of the following is the most abundant immunoglobulin?

a) IgM
b) IgG
c) IgA
d) IgE

15. What is the purpose of bacterial endospores?

a) Allow the bacterium to make hundreds of seeds to spread on the wind
b) Help the bacterium to differentiate into faster growing stages of bacteria
c) Allow the bacterium to survive the absence of oxygen
d) Allow the bacterium to survive extended periods of heat or dryness.

16. Which of the following is the necessary step for cultivating the microorganisms?
a) Preparing a culture medium for the growth of microorganisms
b) Sterilizing in order to eliminate all living microorganisms in vessel
c) Inoculating the microorganisms in the prepared medium
d) All of the above
17. For most bacteria, the optimum pH for growth lies between
a) 6.5-7.5
b) 3.5-4.5
c) 4.5-5.5
d) 5.5-6.5

18. Which of the following is not an indirect method for measurement of cell mass?
a) Nutrient composition
b) Cell dry weight
c) Viscosity
d) Heat evolution

19. The cell mass can be measured optically by determining the amount of light scattered by
a suspension of cells. The measurements are usually at a wavelength of
a) 300 – 400nm
b) 400 – 500nm
c) 500 – 600nm
d) 600 – 700nm

20. Type IV hypersensitivity is also called as

a) Antibody mediated hypersensitivity
b) IgE mediated hypersensitivity
c) Cell mediated hypersensitivity
d) IgG mediated hypersensitivity

21. Tears contain

a) IgA
b) IgG
c) Lysozyme
d) All of above

22. How many molecules of ATPs are synthesized per NADH oxidation?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 3
d) 4

23. Which one of the following is not the intermediate of Kreb’s cycle?
a) Isocitrate
b) Succinate
c) Fumarate
d) Stearate

24. The presence of what distinguishes a plant cell from an animal cell?
a) Nuclease
b) Cell wall, Chloroplast, Vacuoles
c) Cell membrane
d) None of these
25. Which of the following is not a characteristic of prokaryotes?
a) DNA
b) Cell membrane
c) Cell wall
d) Endoplasmic reticulum

26. The function of cristae in a mitochondrion is

a) Electron transport and ATP synthesis
b) Carbon assimilation
c) Intake of oxygen
d) Elimination of carbon dioxide

27. The cells were 1st seen microscopically by

a) Schleiden
b) Schwann
c) Leeuwenhoek
d) Robert Hook

28. The nucleus of a prokaryotic cell is represented by

a) A well-defined nuclear membrane
b) Nucleolus only
c) Double stranded circular DNA
d) Single stranded DNA

29. Another name for ligase is

a) Joining enzyme
b) RNA polymerase
c) Nuclease
d) None of these

30. The largest cell organelle is

a) Nucleus
b) Endoplasmic reticulum
c) Chloroplast
d) Mitochondria

31. In gram staining iodine is used as a,

a) Fixative
b) Mordant
c) Solubilizer
d) Stain

32. In electron microscope the source of light used is

a) Sunlight
b) UV- light
c) Far red
d) Beam of electrons
33. The term protoplasm was termed by
a) Dujardin
b) Purkinje
c) VonMohl
d) Malpighi

34. Which of the following disease is best diagnosed by serologic means?

a) Pulmonary tuberculosis
b) Gonorrhea
c) Actinomycosis
d) Q fever

35. The nucleus of a plant cell was discovered by

a) Robert Brown
b) Huxley
c) Virchow
d) Hammerling
36. Janus-green-B is used for staining
a) Ribosomes
b) Chloroplast
c) Mitochondria
d) All of these

37. Which of the following shows a positive urease test?

a) Proteus
b) Klebsiella
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these

38. The arrangement of microtubules in eukaryotic flagella is referred to as

a) Undulating
b) Basal
c) 9+2
d) Ciliary

39. Bacterial flagella propel the cell by using

a) A whipping like motion
b) Two flagella that move in opposite directions, like a flutter kick
c) A rotating motion
d) None of the above

40. Which of the following agent is used to prevent malaria?

a) Mebenbazole
b) Chloroquine
c) Inactivated vaccine
d) Zinc tablet
41. Which of the following statements are true regarding polio vaccines
a) Salk and Sabin are polio vaccines
b) Sabin is live attenuated polio vaccine
c) Salk is an inactivated polio vaccine
d) All of these

42. Primary lymphoid organs include

a) Thymus and spleen
b) Thymus and bone marrow
c) Thymus, bone marrow and spleen
d) Thymus, bone marrow, spleen and lymph nodes

43. Radical shifts in pH can be prevented by incorporating

a) A buffer
b) An oxidizing agent
c) A reducing agent
d) Any of these

44. Cell size and cell number can be measured using

a) Hemocytometer
b) Coulter counter
c) Petroff-Hausser counting chamber
d) None of these

45. Which of the following is used for the proper maintenance and preservation of pure
cultures?
a) Periodic transfer to fresh media
b) Preservation by overlaying cultures with mineral oil
c) Preservation by lyophilization
d) All of the above

46. All the following are amino acids except

a) Lysine
b) Protamine
c) Glycine
d) Valine

47. Which of the following biomolecule has the most diversity in function
a) Carbohydrates
b) Proteins
c) Nucleic acids
d) Lipids

48. A peptide bond formation between 2 amino acids is accompanied by

a) Deamination
b) Addition of water
c) Loss of water
d) Decarboxylation
49. The solidifying agent commonly used in preparation of media is/are
a) Agar
b) Silica gel
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

50. Which of the following is the site of T cell maturation?

a) Bone marrow
b) Thymus
c) Spleen
d) Appendix

51. Medulla oblongata is called

a) Piamater
b) Duramater
c) Vital knot
d) Pons verolii

52. Water in plants is transported by

a) Xylem
b) Epidermis
c) Phloem
d) Cambium

53. The most important role of the prokaryotic cell wall is to

a) Maintain the shape of the cell
b) Protect the cell from osmotic pressures
c) Prevent ions from diffusing away from the cell
d) Block the effects of antibiotics like penicillin

54. Which of the following is the sweetest sugar?

a) Fructose
b) Maltose
c) Glucose
d) Sucrose

55. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?

a) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
b) Type 2 diabetes mellitus
c) Haemophilia A
d) Sickle cell anemia

56. Gram positive cells

a) Have thick, homogeneous cell walls
b) Have large amounts of teichoic acids
c) Don’t have an outer membrane
d) All of the above are true
57. Size of nanoparticles is between ____ nm
a) 100 to 1000
b) 0.1 to 10
c) 1 to 100
d) 0.01 to 1

58. Bleeding of gums is one of the symptoms of

a) Beri-beri
b) Scurvy
c) Sterility
d) Pellagra

59. The antibody present in secretions like tears, saliva and colostrum is
a) IgM
b) IgG
c) IgA
d) IgE

60. Tubercular granulomas are made up of

a) Damaged tissue cells and bacilli only
b) Fibrous and damaged tissue and bacilli only
c) Necrotic tissue and damaged tissue and bacilli only
d) Organized aggregates of immune cells that surround foci of infected tissues

61. Stuart’s transport medium is used for transport of specimen containing

a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b) Salmonella
c) Vibrio cholerae
d) Shigella

62. The medium which allows the growth of more than one microorganisms of interest but
with morphologically distinguishable colonies is known as
a) Selective medium
b) Enriched medium
c) Differential medium
d) None of these

63. The site of enzyme modification by phosphorylation is the amino acid

a) Arginine
b) Phenylalanine
c) Cysteine
d) Serine

64. A kinase is an enzyme that

a) Removes phosphate groups of substrates
b) Uses ATP to add a phosphate group to the substrate
c) uses NADH to change the oxidation state of the substrate
d) removes water from a double bond
65. During glycolysis, the major energy generating step involves
a) pyruvate kinase
b) phosphoglycerate kinase
c) glyceraldehyde-3 –dehydrogenase
d) Phosphofructokinase

66. The isolation of the gonorrhoea - causing organisms, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, from a

clinical specimen is facilitated by the use of media containing
a) Cellulose
b) Certain antibiotics
c) Succinate
d) None of these

67. A vaccine can be

a) An antigenic protein
b) Weakened pathogen
c) Live attenuated pathogen
d) All of those

68. Oxidative metabolism is carried out -------- of mitochondria.

a) In the intermembrane space
b) On the surface of the inner membrane
c) In the side of the outer membrane
d) In the matrix

69. The transfer of tissue between genetically identical individuals (like twin) is called
a) Autograft
b) Xenograft
c) Allograft
d) Syngeneic graft

70. The Fc region of antibody

a) Contains both heavy and light chains
b) Is required for antigen binding
c) Generally confers biological activity on the various molecules
d) Is not a requirement for placental transmission

71. The 1st vaccine was developed by

a) Louis Pasteur
b) Edward Jenner
c) Carl Landsteiner
d) Joseph Miester

72. The process of weakening a pathogen is called

a) Vaccination
b) Attenuation
c) Immunization
d) Virulence reduction
73. Nobel prize for RNA synthesis was awarded to
a) A. Kornberg
b) S. Ochoa
c) H. Khorana
d) Nirenberg

74. Intake of liquid food by formation of food vacuoles is called

a) Pinocytocis
b) Phagocytosis
c) Absorption
d) Imbibition

75. Gram Staining was developed by

a) French microbiologist Louis Pasteur
b) Dutch lens maker Leeuwenhoek
c) Danish physician Chrisitian Gram
d) Dutch physician Christian Gram

76. During ethanol treatment in gram staining,

a) Crystal violet stain is dissolved in alcohol in gram negative bacteria due to high
lipid content in the outer layer
b) Crystal violet stain is retained in gram positive bacteria due to less lipid content
and thick peptidoglycan wall
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these

77. The gram-negative organism is

a) Actinomyces
b) Bacillus
c) Clostridium
d) None of these

78. Which of the following is a substitute for crystal violet used in gram staining procedure?
a) Methylene blue
b) Bromocresol green
c) Safranin
d) Phenolpthalene

79. The photosynthetic units are known as

a) Dictyosomes
b) Quantosomes
c) Microsomes
d) Ribosomes

80. Unstained living tissues of a cell can be examined by

a) Phase contrast microscope
b) Electron microscope
c) Light microscope
d) Autoradiography
81. The organelles for fat synthesis are
a) Glyoxisomes
b) Lomasomes
c) Spherosomes
d) Lysosomes

82. The mitochondria were first observed in striated muscle cells by

a) Benda
b) Kolliker
c) Altmann
d) Robert Hooke

83. In humans, MHC is called as

a) Human MHC
b) Homo MHC
c) Human leucocyte antigen (HLA)
d) All of the above

84. The 1st recombinant antigen vaccine approved for human use is
a) Hepatitis B vaccine
b) Hib vaccine
c) Var vaccine
d) DPT vaccine

85. Enzyme catalase has non-protein metal as,

a) magnesium
b) manganese
c) iron
d) zinc

86. The species of bacteria, which possess special polyketide lipid biosynthesis system is
a) M. genitalium
b) M. tuberculosis
c) E. coli
d) H. influenzae

87. Which of the following organism has the smallest genome?

a) H. Influenzae
b) M. genitalium
c) M. tuberculosis
d) none of these

88. Which of the following possess both 5'-3' and 3'-5' exonuclease activity?
a) Kornberg enzyme
b) DNA polymerase III
c) Taq DNA polymerase
d) none of these
89. DNA gyrase is inhibited by,
a) tetracycline
b) nalidixic acid
c) both (a) and (b)
d) cephalosporin

90. The plasmids can be eliminated from a cell by the process known as,
a) curing
b) breaking
c) fixing
d) expulsion

91. Which of the following is used by microbial geneticists as a tool,

a) bacteriophage
b) plasmids
c) transposable elements
d) all of these

92. The chromosomal gene possessing, fertility factor is known as ,

a) F- factor
b) F prime plasmid
c) Hfr
d) R – factor

93. The diagnostic enzyme for denitrification is,

a) nitrate reductase
b) nitrate oxidase
c) nitro oxidoreductase
d) none of these

94. A heterocyst is,

a) a type of spore
b) a terminally differentiated cell that fixes nitrogen
c) the progenitor of cyanobacterial vegetative cells
d) a cell that carries out oxygenic photosynthesis

95. The cytokine which is also known as “cachectin” is,

a) interferon gamma
b) interleukin 2
c) tumor necrosis factor
d) none of these

96. Which of these disease is caused by DNA viruses

a) poliomylitis
b) yellow fever
c) measles
d) small pox
97. Suspension cultures consists of cells and cell aggregates, growing dispersed in,
a) liquid medium
b) solid nutrient medium
c) solid or liquid medium
d) none of these

98. The protoplast can be used to,

a) modify genetic information
b) create plant hybrid
c) study plant viral infection
d) all of these

99. The ability FADH to be oxidised is _________ than the ability of FAD to be oxidized,
a) greater
b) lesser
c) half
d) approximately equal

100. Adenosine triphosphate is a type of

a) fatty acid
b) amino acid
c) nucleotide
d) steroid

1. A 24. B 47. B
2. B 25. D 48. C
3. A 26. A 49. C
4. C 27. D 50. B
5. A 28. C 51. C
6. C 29. A 52. A
7. A 30. C 53. B
8. A 31. B 54. A
9. C 32. D 55. A
10. A 33. B 56. D
11. D 34. D 57. C
12. C 35. A 58. B
13. A 36. C 59. C
14. B 37. C 60. D
15. D 38. C 61. A
16. D 39. C 62. C
17. A 40. B 63. D
18. B 41. A 64. B
19. D 42. B 65. C
20. C 43. A 66. B
21. A 44. B 67. D
22. C 45. D 68. B
23. D 46. B 69. D
70. C 81. C 92. B
71. A 82. B 93. A
72. B 83. C 94. B
73. B 84. A 95. C
74. A 85. C 96. D
75. C 86. B 97. A
76. C 87. B 98. D
77. D 88. A 99. A
78. A 89. B 100. C
79. B 90. A
80. A 91. D
 OTHER QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following from a blood clot stimulates the growth of cells in the healing
process?
A. EGF
B. PDGF
C. MPF
D. NGF

2. At which of the following check point, mitosis is controlled?

A. G1 phase
B. G2 phase
C. M phase
D. S phase

3. Why do we use stains to view bacteria via bright field microscopy?

A. To increase contrast
B. To distinguish bacteria
C. To see subcellular structures
D. All the above
E. None of the above

4. What term is used to describe “providing conditions favourable for an organism with
specific growth parameters.”
A. Enrichment
B. Selection
C. Screening
D. Isolation

5. Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) has become a valuable tool for environmental
microbiologists because
A. It made possible to observe microbe in their natural environment in
association with other microbes
B. It made easier to obtain pure culture of individual microbes
C. It could be used to demonstrate the diversity of microbes in an environment
D. It could be used to detect rare rRNA sequences over a large area

6. The enzyme that enables Vibrio fischeri to produce light is called

A. Oxidoreductase
B. Fatty acid reductase
C. Luciferase
D. Bug’s enzyme
7. Which of the following reactions of the nitrogen cycle can be catalysed only by the
microbes

A. Nitrification
B. Denitrification
C. Nitrogen fixation
D. Ammonification

8. The DNA that is transferred from Agrobacterium tumefaciens to its host cell is called
A. T-DNA
B. S-DNA
C. Opine- DNA
D. Recombinant-DNA

9. Which of the following antibody/antigen based techniques would provide the most
rapid diagnosis?
A. Microtiter dish ELISA assay
B. Western Blot assay
C. Agglutination assay
D. Polymerase Chain Reaction

10. Exotoxins having which of the following traits?

A. are generally proteins.
B. are weakly immunogenic.
C. cause fever.
D. are much alike chemically

11. A virus infected cell might be destroyed by

E. mast cells.
F. CD4+ helper T cells.
G. CD8+ cytotoxic T cells.
H. a memory cell

12. Which category of babies are susceptible to infant botulism

A. they tend to eat a lot of dirty objects
B. most babies are not breast fed
C. their microbiota is not yet established to protect them
D. their intestinal tract is designed to be more absorbent so they absorb the
toxin easier

13. Eutrophication of a lake can be resulted due to

A. increased salinity
B. removal of enrichment
C. increased nitrogen
D. All of the above
14. Thermophiles have adapted to higher temperatures for growth by
A. synthesis of temperature-sensitive proteins.
B. synthesis of special heat-tolerant proteins.
C. synthesis of heat-stable DNA and RNA.
D. growth in selective environments.