Comprehensive Test Mcq’s

Regards;

Muhammad Tariq Javid

Mtariq_javid@yahoo.com
1) Which of the following is best used for long term storage of microbial samples when carried out properly?
a) storage in a freezer at -101/4 C
b) storage in a refrigerator on an agar slant
c) storage on a petri plate at room temperature
d) storage in a freezer at ultra low temperatures (- 701/4 C)
2) The oldest eukaryotic organisms are considered to be
a) Archaea b) diplomonads like Giardia c) Fungi d) Animals
3) Which were the investigators lived at the same time?

a) Koch and Pasteur

b) Darwin and Woese

c) Van Leeuenhoek and Ricketts

d) Berg and Hooke

4) The unifying feature of the archaea that distinguishes them from the bacteria is
a) habitats which are extreme environments with regard to acidity

b) absence of a nuclear membrane temperature

c) presence of a cell wall containing a characteristic outer membrane

d) cytoplasmic ribosomes that are 70S

6) Gram staining was introduced by

a) Christian gram

b) Alfred Gram

c) Robertcook

d) Louis Pasteur
7) Which of the following is considered the most unifying concept in biology?
 a) Taxonomy

b) Anatomy

c) Genetics

d) Evolution

8) Various bacterial species can be subdivided into

a) Subspecies

b) Biovarieties

c) Serovarieties

d) all of these
9) A characteristic of protein synthesis in both the archaea and eukarya is
a) transcription and translation are coupled

b) translation is inhibited by diphtheria toxin

c) proteins are synthesized from D-, rather than L-, isomers of amino acids

d) the initiator tRNA is charged with N-formyl-methionine

10) Primary differences between cilia and flagella are
a) arrangement of microtubules

b) length and location of basal bodies

c) how the microtubules are fused to each other

d) number, length and direction of force

11) All of the following are features of prokaryotes except
a) nitrogen fixation

b) Photosynthesis

c) sexual reproduction

d) Locomotion
12) Which of the following may account for the small size of the cells?
a) The rate of diffusion

b) The surface area/volume ratio

 c) The number of mRNAs that can be produced by the nucleus

d) All of the above

13) Genetic and biochemical similarities between contemporary cyanobacteria and eukaryotic chloroplasts are
accepted to mean that
a) eukaryotes evolved from bacteria

b) eukaryotes evolved from archaea

c) oxygenic photosynthesis first evolved in eukaryotes

d) cyanobacteria arose from chloroplasts which escaped from plant cells

14) Micro-organisms are found in which of the following kingdom of five kingdom concept (Whittaker's
classification)?
a) Monera

b) Protista

c) Fungi

d) All of these
15) Who discovered the bacteria that cause cholera?
a) Pierre Berthelot

b) Louis Pasteur

c) Rudolf Virchow

d) Robert Koch
16) Which of the following microorganisms is classified as a member of archaebacteria?

a) Gyanobacteria
b) Methanobacteria
c) Trichomonads
d) Mycoplasm

17) The idea of selective toxicity was first proposed by

a) Antony van Leeuwenhoek

b) Paul Ehrlich

c) Louis Pasteur

d) Alexander Fleming
18) Archeal cells usually do not contain peptidoglycan, rather contain pseudo-peptidoglycan which is mainly
composed of
a) N-acetylmuramic acid and L-amino acids
 b) N-acetylmuramic acid and D-amino acids

c) N-acetyltalosaminuronic acid and D-amino acids

d) N-acetyltalosaminuronic acid and L-amino acids

19) Catalase production is negative in which of the following?
a) Streptococcus

b) Salmonella

c) Proteus

d) Staphylococcus
20) Which of the following organisms can be demonstrated with silver impregnation method?

a) Vibrios
b) Salmonella
c) Spirochaetes
d) Shigella

21) The cell mass can be measured optically by determining the amount of light scattered by a suspension of
cells. The measurements are usually at a wavelength of

a) 300-400nm
b) 400-500nm
c) 500-600nm
d) 600-700nm
22) Callus cultures are amorphous cell aggregates arising from the unorganized growth of explants on an

a) liquid medium
b) solid nutrient medium
c) aseptic solid nutrient medium
d) solid or liquid medium
23) The isolation of the gonorrhoea - causing organisms, Neisseria gonorrhoeae,from a clinical specimen is
facilitated by the use of media containing

a) cellulose
b) certain antibiotics
c) succinate
d) none of these

24) Which of the following is not the characteristic of a growth curve?

a) Shows development of microbial population under relatively stable environmental conditions

 b) Plotted with logarithmic numbers
c) Graphs numbers of microbes versus time
d) Each growth curve consists of four distinct phases

25) The organism which obtain their energy from chemicals are designated as

a) Aprototrophs
b) chemotrophs
c) organotrophs
d) autotrophs

26) Implicit factors

a) depend on developing microflora

b) can be synergistic
c) All of above
d) none of above
27) Lag phase is also known as

a) period of initial adjustment

b) transitional period
c) generation time
d) none of these

28) which is the equation for multiplication of bacteria?

a) N = No2n
b) log N/No = (0.3010) n
c) log(N/No) = nlog 2
d) All of these

29) Living, unstained cells and organisms can be observed best using

a) fluorescent microscopy
b) TEM
c) phase contrast microscopy
d) None of above

30) Monochromatic (one color) light is sometimes used to increase the resolution of light microscopes. Light
of which color below would give you the best resolution?

a) Red
b) Orange
c) Green
d) Blue

31) Which of the following is NOT equivalent to 10 micrometers.

a) 0.0001 cm

b) 0.01 mm
 c) 10,000 nm

d) 100,000 Angstroms

32) "Parfocal" refers to microscopes with multiple objectives where

a) objectives are used in pairs for stereoscopic effects.

b) each objective has the same working distance above the specimen.
c) each objective is positioned to be in focus at the same stage height.
d) sequential objectives increase power by a factor of two.

33) Preserve foods by using salts and sugars works by

a) raising pH.
b) depleting nutrients
c) lowering osmotic pressure.
d) creating a hypertonic environment
e) creating a hypotonic environment.

34) Which of the following methods will not sterilize?

a) 500 mg/L ethylene oxide at 501/4 C for 4 hours

b) dry heat at 1711/4 C for 1 to 2 hours
c) 1211/4 C at 15 lb/in pressure for 15 to 20 minutes
d) 1001/4 C boiling water for 30 minutes

35) Which of the following is bactericidal?

a) Membrane filtration
b) Ionizing radiation
c) Freeze-drying
d) Deep freezing
e) All of these processes kill bacteria
36) Which of the following is not a disinfectant containing a heavy metal?
a) Silver nitrate
b) Mercurochrome
c) Copper sulfate
d) Chlorine
37) Which of the following is most effective for sterilizing mattresses and plastic Petri plates?
a) Chlorine
b) Ethylene oxide
c) Glutaraldehyde
d) Autoclave
e) Ultraviolet radiation

38) Which of the following bacteria has the lowest 50% infective dose (ID50)?

a) Campylobacter jejuni
b) Salmonella typhi
c) Vibrio cholerae
d) Shigella sonnei
39) Which of the following disease is best diagnosed by serologic means?
a) Pulmonary tuberculosis
b) Gonorrhea
c) Actinomycosis
d) Q Fever
40) The cogulase test is used to differentiate
a) Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis
b) Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
c) Streptococcus pyogens from Staphylococcus aureus
d) Streptococcus pyogens from Enterococcus faecalis
41) All of the following are true about agar except it

a) liquefies at 100°C.
b) is a polysaccharide derived from a red alga.
c) Solidifies at approximately 40°C.
d) is metabolized by many bacteria.
42) The addition of which of the following would change a chemically defined medium into a complex
medium?

a) Biotin (a vitamin)
b) K2HPO4
c) NH4NO3
d) Yeast extract
43) Which of the following procedures can be used to isolate a pure culture of a bacterium from a mixture?

a) streak plating
b) dilution plating
c) enrichment culture
d) All the above can be used to isolate a pure culture of a bacterium from a mixture.

44) Which of the following is a macronutrient?

a) Manganese.
b) Magnesium
c) Molybdenum
d) Zinc
e) Cobalt
f) None of the above can be used to isolate a pure culture of a bacterium from a mixture.

45) Which of the following is a micronutrients

a) Carbon
b) Manganese
c) Potassium
d) Magnesium
e) Nitrogen
46) Which of the following uses radiant energy as their energy source?
a) Chemotroph
 b) Lithotroph
c) Autotroph
d) Phototroph

47) Carrier proteins are involved in which of the following processes?

a) passive diffusion
b) facilitated diffusion
c) active transport
d) More than one of the above processes utilize carrier proteins
48) Addition of salt to a culture medium only allows the salt-tolerant bacteria to grow. This is an example of a

a) Complex media
b) Enriched media.
c) Differential media
d) Selective media.
49) Catalase production is negative in which of the following?

a) Streptococcus
b) Salmonella
c) Proteus
d) Staphylococcus

50) Which of the following inference(s) indicate(s) the ability of an organism to utilize citrate as a sole source
of carbon in Simmon's citrate medium?
a) Blue colour

b) Appearance of growth

c) Both (a) and (b)

d) None of these
51) The organisms that can be acid-fast stained is
a) Nocardia

b) Tubercle bacilli

c) Lepra bacilli

d) all of these
52) At what concentration of sulphuric acid, Nocardia resists decolourization?
a) 0.5% sulphuric acid

b) 5% sulphuric acid

c) 10% sulphuric acid

 d) 8% sulphuric acid

53) Which of the following is commonly used as Gram's decolouriser?

a) Ethyl alcohol

b) Methyl alcohol

c) Acetone

d) A mixture of ethyl alcohol and acetone

54) Gram-positive bacteria, responsible for food poisoning, is/are

a) Mycoplasmas
b) Pseudomonas
c) Clostridia
d) all of these

55) Which of the following gram-positive bacteria causes pharyngitis (sore throat)?
a) Neisseria

b) Streptococcus

c) Staphylococcus

d) Mycobacterium
56) Which of the following gram-negative bacteria is/are not aerobic?
a) Pseudomonas

b) Neisseria

c) Escherichia

d) None of these
57) The enzyme, which hydrolyses the murein is
a) Peroxidase

b) Tannase

c) lysozyme

d) none of these
58) Bacterial spoilage is identified by which of the following morphological characteristics?
a) Encapsulation
 b) Endospores

c) Cell aggregation

d) All of these

59) Thermus thermopiles is a

a) gram negative eubacteria

b) gram positive eubacteria

c) gram negative archebacteria

d) gram positive archebacteria

60) Which of the following bacteria lack a cell wall and are therefore resistant to penicillin?

a) Cyanobacteria
b) Mycoplasmas
c) Bdellovibrios
d) Spirochetes

61) Peptidoglycan accounts for __________ of the dry weight of cell wall in many gram positive bacteria
a) 50% or more

b) About 10%

c) 11%+ 0.22%

d) About 20%
62) Peptidoglycan is also known as
a) N-acetyl muramic acid

b) murein mucopeptide

c) N acetylglucosamine

d) mesodiaminopimetic acid
63) Which is most likely to be exposed on the surface of a gram-negative bacterium?
a) Pore protein (porin)
b) Protein involved in energy generation
c) Lipoteichoic acid
d) Lipopolysaccharides
64) The last step in synthesis of peptidoglycan is
a) attachment of a peptide to muramic acid

b) attaching two amino acids to form a cross-link

 c) attachment of a portion of peptidoglycan to a membrane lipid

d) binding of penicillin to a membrane protein

65) The next to last step in peptidoglycan biosynthesis is

a) synthesis of the NAM-peptide subunit

b) removal of the subunit from bactoprenol

c) linking the sugar of the disaccharide-peptide unit to the growing peptidoglycan chain

d) cross-linking the peptide side chains of peptidoglycan

66) Which of the following is not true about peptidoglycan?
a) It is a polymer consisting of N-acetyl glucosamine, N-acetyl muramic acid and amino acids
(alanine, lysine, etc.)

b) It is present in prokaryotic cell wall

c) It occurs in the form of a bag shaped macro molecule surrounding the cytoplasm membrane

d) None of the above

67) Which of the following conditions can be caused by Plesiomonas?

a) Septicaemia
b) Gastroenteritis
c) Cellulites
d) All of these

68) The transport medium for Vibrio cholerae can be

a) Venkatraman-Ramakrishnan medium

b) Selenite F broth

c) Tetrathionate broth

d) Nutrient broth
69) For brucellosis, 2 ME agglutination test is used to identify
a) IgG

b) IgM

c) IgA

d) IgE

70) The most pathogenic Brucella spp for man is

 a) B melitensis

b) B abortus

c) B suis

d) B canis

71) The deinococci are gram-positive cocci and rods that are distinctive in their unusually great resistance to

a) radiation.
b) desiccation
c) radiation and desiccation.
d) extreme temperatures
72) The infectious stage of chlamydiae is called a(n) _________ body.

a) elementary
b) reticulate
c) contagious
d) oogonial
73) Bacteroides constitute as much as ______% of the bacteria isolated from human feces.

a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 40%
74) The low G + C gram-positive group contains

a) clostridia, bacilli and lactobacilli

b) clostridia and relatives only
c) bacilli and lactobacilli only
d) None of above

75) Which of the following is a normal skin resident?

a) Staphylococcus epidermidis
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Thermoactinomyces vulgaris
d) None of above

76) Actinomycetes form

a) substrate mycelia.
b) aerial mycelia.
c) both substrate mycelia and aerial mycelia.
d) None of above

77) The streptomycetes represent __________ of the viable organisms in the soil.
 a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 1-20%
d) 1-10%

78) Which of the following viruses is not transmitted by respiratory routes?

a) Human papilloma virus
b) Rhinovirus
c) Adenovirus
d) VZV

79) All the following viruses are disseminated throughout the body except:
a) HIV
b) HBV
c) Rabies virus
d) Human papilloma virus
80) An important defense function of cytotoxic T lymphocytes in viral infection is to:
a) Lyse virus infected cells
b) Fragment viral nucleic acid by nucleases
c) Neutralize free virus particles
d) Block cell respiration
81) An abortive infection is one in which:
a) The infected cells are killed
b) Progeny virus is not produced
c) Transplacental infection of the fetus occurs
d) Episodes of virus multiplication alternate with periods when no infectious virus is present and no
multiplication occurs
82) All of the following association are true EXCEPT ONE:
a) EBV can cause nasopharyngeal carcinoma
b) CMV causes heterophil-negative mononucleosis
c) Poliovirus can cause paralytic disease
d) Astrovirus causes gastroenteritis only in adults
83) Each of the following diseases is associated with infection by
a) picornaviruses EXCEPT ONE:
b) Myocarditis
c) Meningitis
d) Mononucleosis
84) Which one of the following statements concerning mumps is CORRECT?
a) The testes, ovaries and pancreas can be involved
b) There is no vaccine against mumps
c) Passive immunization is the only means of preventing the disease
d) The diagnosis is made only on clinical grounds, since the virus cannot be grown in cell culture and
serologic tests are inaccurate
85) Each of the following statements concerning HAV is correct EXCEPT ONE:
a) The initial site of viral replication is the GIT
b) The diagnosis is usually made by isolating the virus in cell culture
c) HAV commonly causes asymptomatic infection in children
d) Immunoglobulin is used to prevent the disease in exposed persons
86) Which of the following virus is not belongs to the Picornaviridae?
 a) Coxsackievirus group A
b) Rhinoviruses
c) Poliovirus
d) Rabies virus
87) Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by which of the following viruses:
a) Coronovirus
b) Rhinovirus
c) Enterovirus
d) RSV
88) Epidemic pleurodynia and mycarditis are both caused by:
a) Group B Coxsackievirus
b) Polymavirus
c) RSV
d) Reovirus
89) Which of the following is not the acceptable specimen for the isolation enterovirus
a) CSF
b) Throat secretions
c) Urine
d) Skin lesion
90) When infectious mononucleosis is suspected, all the following tests can be useful except:
a) IgM antibody to EB-VCA
b) IgG antibody to EB-VCA
c) Antibody to EB-NAs
d) Culture
91) Which of the following statements best describes rotavirus?
a) It is an RNA virus
b) Tests for detection of antigen are rarely useful
c) Culture is the routine method of confirming infection
d) It is rarely a nosocomial pathogen
92) Infectious mononucleosis is characterized by which of the following statements?
a) It is most prevalent in children less than 12 years old
b) It is cause by rhabdovirus
c) The causative pathogen is an EBV
d) Affected person respond to treatment with the production of heterophil antibodies
93) Certain viruses have been associated with birth defects, these teratogenic viruses include all the following
except:
a) Rubella virus
b) CMV
c) VZV
d) Rhinovirus

94) the most sensitive method of detecting infection by CMV in the newborn is:
a) Isolation of virus
b) Detection of IgM antibody by IF
c) Direct detection of antigen by ELISA
d) Detection of complement fixing antibodies
95) Which of the following is a segmented ds-RNA virus?
a) HAV
b) Arenavirus
c) Rotavirus
d) Parvovirus
96) All the following statements about cytomegalovirus infection are true EXCEPT:
a) It can cultured from the RBCs of infected persons
 b) It can be transmitted transplacently
c) It can be activated by immunosuppressive agents
d) It will rarely cause clinically apparent disease in immunocompetent hosts
97) Which of the following statement is not true about human rotaviruses?
a) Produce an infection that is seasonally distributed peaking in fall and winter
b) Produce cytopathic effects in many conventional cell culture systems
c) Are non-enveloped-RNA viruses possessing a double shelled capsid
d) Can be sensitively and rapidly detected in stools by the ELISA technique
e) Have been implicated as a major etiologic agent of infantile gastroenteritis.

98) Which of the following diseases is not caused by enteroviruses?

a) Pleurodynea
b) Glomerulonephritis
c) Paralysis
d) Meningitis
99) The viral pathogenesis, circle the wrong statement
a) Spread of virus in the body through different route e.g. Blood, Saliva
b) Humoral immunity but not cell mediated immunity (CMI) act against viruses
c) Inclusion bodies produced by viruses can be single or many
d) Several RNA viruses can cause persistent infection
100) which one is the wrong statement in viral properties?
a) The viral envelope contain Lipoprotein
b) Viruses can replicate in non-living media
c) Viruses need live cells to grow
d) Viruses have no ribosome
e) Contain either RNA or DNA
101) which of the following statement is not related to poliovirus?
a) Two vaccine are available
b) There is no vaccine for polio
c) Can be isolated from throat swab or stool
d) Three serotypes exist
102) In structure and classification of viruses, which is wrong statement?
a) Icosahedral symmetry have 12 vertices
b) Helical symmetry such as Othomyxo virus
c) Transcription is the formation of protein
d) Translation is the formation of protein

103) In HCV and HBV, circle the correct answer:

a) HBV is dsRNA
b) HCV is ssRNA
c) Both viruses can grow in cell culture
d) HBV has not chronicity complication
104) Regarding viral hepatitis, circle the WRONG ANSWER:
a) HCV-Abs can’t be diagnosed in the lab. by EIA test
b) The risk factor for hepatocellular carcinoma by HCV are: underlying liver disease, alcohol, age
c) HCV-DNA integrate into liver cell chromosomes in most HCC patients.
d) Cell entry and replication of delta hepatitis (HDV) take place by the presence of HBV
105) the human diploid cell vaccine is used for prevention of:
a) Rabies
b) Hepatitis A
c) Yellow fever
d) RSV infection
106) the following viral diseases are characterized by maculopapular rash EXCEPT ONE:
a) Measles
b) Erythema infectiosum
c) Exanthem subitum
d) Herpangina
107) which of the following statement is not true about herpesviruses?
a) There are eight human herpes viruses
b) All are DNA-viruses
c) All cause vesicular rash
d) All remain latent inside the human body after primary infection
108) which of the following virus is not related to congenital infection?
a) Rubella virus
b) CMV
c) Parvovirus B-19
d) RSV
109) The following statements regarding varicella and zoster are not true?
a) They are two diseases caused by one virus
b) Varicella is the primary illness, whereas zoster is the recurrent form of the disease
c) They have the same clinical picture
d) Varicella is a disease of children, whereas zoster is a disease of elderly and immunosuppressed
patients.
110) The following statements regarding HIV are true EXCEPT ONE:
a) It belongs to the family reteroviridae
b) It is an oncovirus
c) It is associated with the enzyme reverse transcriptase
d) The virus is present in all body fluids
e) The sexual route is the main mode of transmission

111) the following viruses are transmitted by the fecal-oral route except?
a) HAV
b) HEV
c) HDV
d) Entero
112) which of the following viruses cannot be transmitted sexually?
a) HIV
b) HBV
c) HSV-2
d) Rubella

113) A/an _______ is specifically able to have a long-term relationship with the host known as lysogeny.

a) Temperate virus
b) Adsorbed virus
c) RNA phage
d) DNA phage

114) A/an _________ protein keeps the prophage dormant and prevents virus reproduction.

a) Promotor
b) Repressor
c) Inducer
d) Enhancer
115) T-even phage binding to E. coli probably involves

a) Electrostatic interaction
b) Hydrophobic interaction
c) Covalent bonds
d) All of the above

116) A specific ______ factor helps RNA polymerase bind to late promoters and transcribe late genes.

a) Beta
b) Delta
c) Gamma
d) sigma

117) A bacterial defense mechanism against bacteriophage is called

a) Concatamerization
b) Restriction
c) Polymerization
d) Lysis

119) Which of the following is/are synthesized from late mRNA?

a) Phage structural proteins

b) Proteins that help with phage assembly without becoming part of the virion structure
c) Proteins involved in cell lysis and phage release
d) All of the above

120) The procapsid is assembled with the aid of _______ proteins.

a) Ladder
b) Framing
c) Scaffolding
d) Form

121) The filamentous bacteriopohage infect male E. coli cells by attaching to

a) Lipopolysaccharide
b) The cell wall
c) The tip of the pilus
d) The cell membrane

122) When PhiX174 DNA enters the host, it is immediately copied by the bacterial DNA polymerase to form a
double-stranded DNA, which directs the synthesis of all BUT the following?

a) mRNA
b) The +DNA genome
c) The -DNA genome
 d) None of the above

123) One of the first enzymes synthesized by many bacteriophage is __________, an RNA-dependent RNA
polymerase called

a) RNA replicase
b) RNA transcriptase
c) Reverse transcriptase
d) RNA polymerase

124) The process by which phage reproduction is initiatied in lysogenized culture is called

a) Infection
b) Integration
c) Induction
d) Enhancemen

125) is probably the most important characteristic for classification of viruses in eucaryotes.

a) Host preference
b) Physical nature of virion constituents
c) Chemical nature of virion constituents
d) Genetic relatedness

126) The _____ of the influenza-enveloped virus appear to be involved in attachment to the host cell receptor
site.

a) Pili
b) Fimbriae
c) Hemagluttinin
d) Neuraminidase

127) Virulent and nonvirulent viruses may do any of the following but NOT

a) Inhibit host cell DNA synthesis

b) Inhibit host cell RNA synthesis
c) Inhibit host cell protein synthesis
d) Degrade host cell DNA

128) The hepadnaviruses such as hepatitis B virus are quite different from other DNA viruses with respect to
genome replication. They replicate their DNA using

a) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase

b) Reverse transcriptase
c) Rnase H
d) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

129)Viral RNA is replicated in the host cell

a) Cytoplasmic matrix
 b) Nucleus
c) Wall
d) Mitochondria

130) Intracellular structures formed during many viral infections, called __________, which can directly
disrupt cell structure.

a) Procaryotes
b) Chromosomal disruptions
c) Inclusion bodies
d) Cytocidal bodies

131) With which of the following is virus always detectable after infections?

a) Hepatitis B virus
b) Herpes simplex virus
c) Varicella-zoster virus
d) Cytomegalovirus

132) In cancer, the reversion of cells to a more primitive or less differnetiated state is called

a) Neoplasia
b) Anaplasia
c) Metastasis
d) Oncogenic

133) Which of the following has been linked to cervical cancer?

a) Epstein-Barr virus
b) Human T-cell lymphotropic virus
c) Human immunodefficiency virus
d) Human papilloma virus

134) Which of the following has been linked to Kaposi's sarcoma?

a) Human T-cell lymphotropic virus

b) Human immunodefficiency virus
c) Human papilloma virus
d) Human herpes virus 8

135) Which family has received most interest in their development as a biological control agent against
insects?

a) Reoviridae
 b) Baculoviridae
c) Iridoviridae
d) Poxviridae

136) Viroids are composed of

a) double-stranded DNA
b) single-stranded RNA
c) double-stranded RNA
d) DNA and RNA

137) Which of the following is the agent associated with development of neurodegenrative disease in livestock
and humans?

a) Viroids
b) virions
c) Virinos
d) Prions

138) Eating meat from cattle with bovine spongiform encephalitis can cause a variant of _______ in humans.

a) Kuru
b) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
c) Geistmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome
d) Alzheimer's disease

139) Which of the following fungi is most likely to be found within reticuloendothelial cells.
a) Histoplasma capsulatum
b) Sporothrix schenckii
c) Cryptococcus neoformans
d) Candida albicans
140) Aspergillosis is recognized in tissue by the presence of
a) Metachromatic granules
b) Psuedohyphae
c) Septate hyphae
d) Budding cells
141) Fungi often colonize lesions due to other causes. Which of the following is least likely to be present as
a) colonizer
b) Candida
c) Sporothrix
d) Mucor
142) Immunocompromised persons are suffered from several fungal diseases. Which of the following is the
least frequently associated
a) Cryptococcus neoformans
b) Aspergillus fumigatus
c) Malassezia furfur
d) Mucor species
143) Each of the following statements concerning Cryptococcus neoformans are correct EXCEPT
a) Its natural habitat is the soil, especially associated with pigeon feces
 b) Budding yeasts are found in the lesions
c) The initial site of infection is usually the lung
d) Pathogenesis is related primarily to the production of exotoxin A.
144) Fungal cells that reproduce by budding are seen in the infected tissues of patients with
a) Candidiasis, cryptococcosis, and sporotrichosis
b) Mycetoma, candidiasis and mucormycosis
c) Tinea corporis, tinea unguium, and tinea versicolor
d) Sporotrichosis, mycetoma and aspergillosis

145) Which of the following is not the characteristics of histoplasmosis

a) Person to person transmission
b) Specific geographic distribution
c) Yeasts in tissue
d) mycelial phase in the soil
146) Infection with dermatophyte is most often associated with
a) intravenous drug abuse
b)inhalation of the organism from contaminated bird feces
c) adherence of the organism to perspiration moist skin
d) Fecal-oral transmission
147) Each of the following statements concerning Candida albicans is correct except
a) C. albicans is a budding yeast that forms psuedohyphae when it invades tissue
b) C. albicans causes thrush
c) C. albicans is transmitted primarily by respiratory aerosol
d) Impaired cell mediated immunity is an important predisposing factor to disease
148) Infections from fungi occur mostly due to:

a) Disruption of natural barriers

b) Immunosuppression
c) Occupational contact
d) All of the above

149) Fungi reproduce by which of the following?

a) Budding – mostly in yeasts

b) Fragmentation of hyphae
c) Spore formation by mold forms
d) All of above

150) Fungi that infect outside layers of skin or hair only are classified as?

a) Superficial
b) Cutaneous
c) Subcutaneous
d) Systemic

151) which part of the fungal cell should a drug target so as to cause the least amount of damage to the human
host?

a) Cholesterol in cell membrane

 b) Ergosterol in cell membrane
c) Nucleus
d) None of above

152) which antifungal drug binds to ergosterol in the fungal membrane and forms pores in the membrane?

a) Amphotericin
b) 5-fluorocytosine
c) Terbinafine
d) The azoles

153) Amphotericin causes the cell to be leaky, which alters its permeability to which of the following?

a) Mg
b) K
c) A and B
d) None of above

154) which drug do fungi take it up using a permease that our cells do not make. It gets incorporated into the
fungal RNA in place of uracil.

a) Amphotericin
b) 5-fluorocytosine
c) Terbinafine
d) The azoles

155) The fungal cells can develop a resistance to *this drug* if given by itself, so it is usually given in
combination with Amphotericin B

a) 5-fluorocytosine
b) Terbinafine
c) The azoles
d) Capsofungin

156) This drug is good for fungal meningitis since it can enter the CNS.

a) Amphotericin
b) 5-fluorocytosine
c) Terbinafine
d) The azoles

157) Which of the following are characteristic of terbinafine?

a) Given topically
b) Used to treat dermatophytes
c) Used to treat nail infections
d) All of above

158) Which of the following are Imidazoles that are used as–topical replacements for nystatin
 a) Ketoconazole
b) Clotrimazole
c) Miconazole
d) Voriconazole

159) Which of the following shows up as typical “ringworm” lesions

a) Tinea corporis
b) Tinea capitis
c) Tinea cruris
d) Tinea unguium

160) Which of the following is the cause of sporotrichosis?

a) Coccidioides immitis
b) Sporothrix schenckii
c) Cryptococcus neoformans
d) Histoplasma capsulatum

161) What is the primary focus of infection for Systemic Mycoses

a) Lung
b) Heart
c) Skin
d) Liver

162) Which of the following is not dimorphic and is the only medically important encapsulated yeast?

a) Histoplasma capsulatum
b) Cryptococcus neoformans
c) Coccidioides immitis
d) None of above

163) The most significant reason why fungi are not in the kingdom Plantae is that fungi
a) are chemoorganotrophic heterotrophs.
b) have unicellular and multi-cellular forms.
c) are procaryotes
d) are eucaryotes.

164) The bread mold Rhizopus stolonifer belongs to which of the following fungal divisions?
a) Ascomycota
b) Basidiomycota
c) Oomycota
d) Zygomycota

165) Ascospores located in asci are found in

a) conidiocarps.
b) sorocarps.
c) basidiocarps.
d) ascocarps.
166) The fruiting body of a mushroom is called
 a) conidiocarps.
b) sorocarps.
c) basidiocarps.
d) ascocarps
167) Water molds belong to which division?
a) Ascomycota
b) Basidiomycota
c) Chytridiomycota
d) Oomycota
e) Zygomycota

168) On soybean which of the following forms

symbiotism
a. Azatobactor paspali b) Rhizobium c) Nostoc d) Bradyrhizobium
169) Pick out the vector using in human Genome project
a. Phagemid vector b) Yeast artificial chromosomes
c) Cosmid vectors d) Yeast episomal plasmids
170) Salt and sugar preserve foods because they
a) Make them acid b) Produce a hypotonic environment
c) Deplete nutrients d)Produce a hypertonic environment
171) Disease that affects many people at different countries is termed as
a) Sporadic b) Pandemic c) Epidemic d) Endemic

172) In electron microscope, what material is used as an objective lense?

a. Magnetic coils b. Superfine glass c. Aluminium foils d. Electrons

173) Antiseptic methods were first introduced by

a) Lord Lister b) Iwanowski c) Beijernick d) Edward Jenner

174) Hanging drop method for motility study was first introduced by

a) Robert Koch b) Louis Pasteur c) Jenner d) Leeuwenhock

175) If 10x and 40x objectives are used (air is the medium), the numerical aperture is
a. 1.5 b. 2.0 c. 1.0 d. 1.8

176) L – forms are discovered by

a. Klein Berger b. Louis Pasteur c. Robert Koch d. Antony von Leeuwenhock

177) B.anthracis was isolated by

a. Louis Pasteur b. Robert Koch c. Antonyvon Leewenhok d. None of these

178) The bacterial cells are at their metabolic peak during

a) Lag phase b) Log c) Stationary d) Decline
179) Sero conservation in HIV infection takes place in
a. 3 weeks b. 6 weeks c. 9 weeks d. 12 weeks
180) Streptococcus forms causes which type of infections?
a. Fever b. Zoonotic c. Pyogenic d. None of these
181) AIDS virus is
a. RNA virus b. DNA virus c. Retro virus d. Entero virus
182) Tinea capitis is
a. Ring worm of the foot b) Ring worm of scalp
c) Ring worm of non-hairy skin of body d) Both a and c
183) During AIDS, HIV infects
a. CD3 lymphocytes b. CD4 lymphocytes c. CD2 lymphocytes d. Blymphocytes
184) The main difference in true bacteria and
mycoplasma is that it does not posses –
a. Flagella b. Cell wall c. ATP synthesis d. A capsule

185) Diagnosis of carrier of salmonella typhi may be shown by

a. Fecal culture b. Bile culture c. Urine culture d. All of these
186) Identify the obligate anaerobes
a. Salmonella b. Vibrio cholera c. Cl. tetani d. Sarcinae

187) Which of the following is a neutral stain?

a. Picric acid b. Gmiemsa c. Neutral red d. Malachite green

188) Which of the following is ionizing radiation?

a. U.V. rays b. IR c) x-ray d. None of these

189) Which of the following method of sterilization has no effect on spores?

a. Drying b. Hot air oven c. Autoclave d. None of these

190) Temperature in pasteurization is

a) 62.8oC b) 35.7oC c) 68.2oC d) 60.8oC

191) Infrared radiation is a method of sterilization by

a. Dry heat b. Moist heat c. Chemical method d. Mechanical method

192) Glassware are sterilized by

a. Autoclaving b. Hot air over c. Incineration d. None of these

193) Temperature used for hot air oven is

a. 100oC for 1 hour b. 120oC for 1 hour c. 160oC for 1 hour d. 60oC for 1 hour

194) The differentiate lactose and non-lactose fermentors, the medium used is
a. Wilson & lair b. Blood Agar c. Tetra thionate broth d. Mac-Conkey’s Agar
195) To transfer cultures from one place to another, the device used is
a. Slant b. Needle c. Inoculation loop d. Autoclave

196) The principle involved in the streak plate method is

a. Separation b. Streaking c. Isolation d. Dilution

197) On Mac Conkey’s medium Esch. Coli forms

a. Colorless colonies b. Greenish pigmentation c. Pink coloured colonies d. Medusa head appearance

198) Culture medium for Mycobacterium tuberculosis

a. L J medium b. Mac Conkey’s medium c. Wilson blair medium d. None of these

199.) The average incubation period of tetanus is

a. 2-3 days b. 7-10 days c. 14-21 days d. 3-4 weeks
200) Wilson and Blair medium is used for isolation of
a. Staphylococci b. Salmonella typhosa c. Vibrio cholerae d. Shigella shigae