Telegram Group: Q3.

http://t.me/UPSCEPFO2020AOEO Which one of the following is the synonym

Answer key available at: http://inspire- of the word written in capital letters in the
1034284054.ap-south- sentence ‘Even as a child, Thomas Edison
1.elb.amazonaws.com/ had an INQUISITIVE mind’?

UPSC EPFO Enforcement A. Mature

B. Complex
Officer/Accounts Officer Exam
C. Brilliant
Premium Mock Test Number: 10
D. Curious
Total Questions: 120 Q4.
Marks: 300 Which one of the following is the synonym
Each question carries 2.5 Marks. Negative of the underlined word in the sentence ‘I
Marking: 1/3rd was very APPREHENSIVE about the
outcome of the meeting’?
PART: A
A. Excited
Q1. B. Hopeful
Which one of the following is the synonym C. Depressed
of the word written in capital letters in the D. Concerned
sentence ‘Her FACULTY to deal with all
the challenges of life has made her what Q5.
she is today.’? Which one of the following is the antonym
(opposite in meaning) of the capital letters
A. Desire in the sentence ‘My mother has been
B. Subject working hard for the last two weeks and
C. Aptitude she feels RUN DOWN.’?
D. Incompetence
A. Morbid
Q2. B. Energetic
Which one of the following is the synonym C. Exhausted
(most similar) of the word written in D. Emotional
capital letters in the sentence ‘It is unwise
to SEVER diplomatic relations with a Q6.
neighbouring country over small matters.’? Which one of the following is the antonym
(opposite in meaning) of the capital letters
A. Engage in the sentence 'They are CONFIDENT of
B. Acclaim success.’?
C. Cut off
D. Twist A. Imprudent
B. Impatient
C. Diffident
D. Reluctant
Q7. Q10.
Which one of the following is the antonym SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT
of the word written in capital letters in the
sentence ‘No one could know of his The chairman with the other members of
HIDEOUS design’? the board ARE TOURING Europe these
days.
A. Ghastly
B. Repulsive A. have been on touring
C. Pleasant B. is touring
D. Unacceptable C. have toured
D. No improvement
Q8.
Which one of the following words can be Q11.
used as a substitute for the phrase ‘Persons SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT
living in the same period’?
If YOU WILL DISOBEY his orders, he
A. Current will punish you.
B. Periodic
C. Contemporary A. you had disobeyed his
D. Historical
B. you will be disobeyed
C. you disobey
Q9.
D. you are disobeying
The sentence given below is in Direct
Speech. Find the correct Indirect Speech
Q12.
sentence for the same.
SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT
The grandfather said to the baby, “May
May I know WHO DID ACCOMPANY
you live long with all good things in life.”
you to the bus station?
A. The grandfather blessed to the baby
A. who accompanied
with long life and all good things of life.
B. whom did accompany
B. The grandfather asked the baby that she
C. who had accompany
would live long with all good things of life.
D. No Improvement
C. The grandfather wanted the baby to live
long with all good things of life.
Q13.
D. The grandfather blessed the baby that
SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT
she would live long with all good things of
life.
I can always COUNT ON HIM in times of
difficulty.

A. count him
B. count with him
C. count him on
D. No Improvement
Q14. Q17.
Fill in the Blanks Which one of the following parts of the
sentence “When he used to walk along the
Select the most appropriate word or group road, a wild and ferocious dog knocked
of words for the blank space in the him down.” has an error?
sentence given below.
A. When he used to walk
The fire brigade fought for four hours to B. along the road,
……………. the fire in the building. C. a wild and ferocious dog
D. knocked him down
A. put in
B. put out Q18.
C. put on Which one of the following parts of the
D. put off sentence “The fact that he cannot be able
to sing is known only to very few people.”
has an error?
Q15.
Which one of the following phrasal verbs
A. The fact that he cannot
may be used in the blank space in the
B. be able to sing is
sentence ‘A __________ notice has been
issued by the vigilance department for C. known only to very few people.
fraudulent agencies.’? D. No Error

A. look in Q19.
B. lock up Which one of the following parts of the
C. look out sentence “The report has been prepared on
D. look for the basis of information we had and on our
judgment.” has an error?
Q16.
Which one of the following parts of the A. The report has been prepared
sentence “A small piece of bread is B. on the basis of information
certainly better than being nothing to eat.” C. we had and on our judgment
has an error? D. No Error

A. A small piece of bread is Q20.

B. certainly better than Which one of the following parts of the
C. being nothing to eat sentence ‘It takes a lot of stamina to climb
D. No Error on a mountain’ has an error?

A. It takes
B. a lot of stamina
C. to climb on a mountain
D. No error
 PART: B
Q21.
Who of the following was/were economic
critic/critics of colonialism in India?
1. Dadabhai Naoroji
2. G. Subramania Iyer
3. R.C. Dutt
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
A. 1 Only
B. 1 and 2 Only
C. 2 and 3 Only
D. All of the above
Q22.
During Indian Freedom Struggle, the
National Social Conference was formed.
What was the reason for its formation?
A. Different social reform groups or
organisations of Bengal region united to
form a single body to discuss the issues of
larger interest and to prepare appropriate
petitions/representations to the
government.
B. Indian National Congress did not want
to include social reforms in its
deliberations and decided to form a
separate body for such a purpose.
C. Behramji Malabari and M.G. Ranade
decided to bring together all the social
reform groups of the country under one
organisation.
D. None of the statement’s 'A', 'B' and 'C'
given above is correct in this context.
Q23.
Consider the following statements:
The most effective contribution made by
Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian
National Movement was that he:
1. Exposed the economic exploitation of
India by the British.
2. Interpreted the ancient Indian texts and
restored the self-confidence of Indians.
3. Stressed the need for eradication of all
the social evils before anything else.
Which of the statement(s) given above
is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Q24.
The Ancient Monuments Act was passed
during the Vice-royalty of:
A. Lord Hardinge
B. Lord Northbrook
C. Lord Lytton
D. Lord Curzon
Q25.
With reference to the period of colonial
rule in India, "Home Charges" formed an
important part of drain of wealth from
India. Which of the following funds
constituted Home Charges?
1. Funds used to support the India Office in
London.
2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions
of British personnel engaged in India.
3. Funds used for waging wars outside
India by the British.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
A. Only 1
B. Only 1 and 2
C. Only 2 and 3
D. All of the above
Q26.
Which one of the following revolts was
made famous by Bankim Chandra
Chatterjee in his novel 'Anand Math'?
A. Bhil Uprising
B. Rangpur and Dinajpur Uprising
C. Bishnapur and Birbhum Rebellion
D. Sanyasi Rebellion
Q27.
Which one of the following statements
about the English Education Act of 1835 is
NOT correct?
A. It was proposed by Governor General
William Bentinck on the advice of
Macaulay.
B. It made English the language of
instruction in Indian education system.
C. With the formal institutionalization of
English as the language of instruction, the
stage was set for a new direction to Indian
education.
D. To the existing Oriental Institutions
fresh awards of stipends to students and the
publication of classical texts were to
continue.
Q28.
Which one of the following statements
about the colonial economy is NOT
correct?
A. The British presence inhibited
indigenous capitalism
B. Laissez-faire actively promoted
indigenous capitalism
C. The "white collective monopoly' came
earliest and remained most pronounced in
Eastern India
D. The Bombay hinterland was difficult to
penetrate before the construction of
railways
Q29.
Shri Narayan Dharma Paripalana Yogam
of Kerala majorly worked for:
A. Upliftment of dalits and peasants.
B. Eradication of Sati Pratha
C. Eradication of child labour.
D. The Hindu widow remarriage.
Q30. Q34.
Who among the following was Which one of the following was not an
Leader/Follower of the Peasant Movement ideal set out by Swami Dayanand for Arya
‘Mappila Rebellion’? Samaj?

A. Baba Ramchandra A. Opposed idolatry.

B. Kunhammed Haji B. Opposed to the ‘rigidity’ of caste
C. Madari Pasi
distinction based on birth.
D. Karyanand Sharma
C. Opposed the four-fold caste
classification based on individual
Q31.
capacities.
Who among the following was
Leader/Follower of the Peasant Movement D. Revered the Vedas and made an appeal
‘Avadh Kisan Sabha’? for the study of ancient Hindu Culture.

A. Baba Ramchandra Q35.

B. Kunhammed Haji Which of the following movement has
C. Madari Pasi mass base/following of ‘Kaliparaj’
D. Karyanand Sharma community?

Q32. A. Bardoli Satyagraha

Who launched the most important Urdu B. Tebhaga
journal ‘Al-Hilal’ on 1st June, 1912? C. Satyashodhak Samaj
D. Ulgulan
A. Muhammad Azad
Q36.
B. Abdul Ansari
All the following items are classified as
C. Hamidul Ansari fundamental accounting assumption
D. Abul Kalam Azad except:

Q33. A. Consistency
One of the following organisations was not B. Business Entity
associated with National Education C. Going Concern
Movement in the early twentieth century. D. Accrual

A. Bhagabat Chatuspadi of Satischandra Q37.

Mukherjee While preparing Bank Reconciliation
B. The Saraswat Ayatan of Brahma Statement, when the balance as per Cash
Bandopadhyay Book is the starting point, direct deposits
C. Santiniketan Ashram of Rabindranath by customers in Bank are …………… to
reach the balance as per Pass Book.
Tagore
D. Anushilan Samiti of Barindra Kumar
A. Added
Ghosh B. Subtracted
C. Not required to be adjusted
D. Divided
Q38.
Which of the following errors are generally
disclosed by Trial Balance?
A. Error of incorrect application of
Accounting Principle.
B. Error of completely omitting the
recording of a transaction.
C. Recording of a transaction twice in the
books of accounts.
D. None of the above
Q39.
Which of the following prescribes
maximum number of partners in a
partnership firm?
A. Companies Act, 2013
B. The Indian Partnership Act, 1932
C. Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008
D. Societies Registration Act, 1860
Q40.
Which of the following is true about
Depreciation?
A. Depreciation is a cash expense.
B. Depreciation is not charged in case of
loss in a financial year.
C. Depreciation is affected by the changes
in market value of fixed assets.
D. None of the above
Q41.
‘Expenditure incurred on increasing the
seating capacity of a Sports Stadium’ is a:
A. Deferred Revenue Expenditure
B. Revenue Expenditure
C. Capital Expenditure
D. Social Expenditure
Q42.
A bill not paid by drawee on due date is
called:
A. Noting of bill
B. Dishonour of bill
C. Renewal of bill
D. Discounting of bill
Q43.
For a Not-for-Profit Organisation, which of
the following statement(s) are true:
A. Balance Sheet of an NPO tells about the
financial performance during the year.
B. Income and Expenditure A/c tells about
the financial position at a particular date.
C. Receipt and Payment A/c records both
revenue and capital nature transactions
during the year.
D. None of the above
Q44.
“The items remaining in inventory at the
end of the period are those most recently
purchased or produced”, is the
consequence of using which method of
Inventory Valuation?
A. Weighted Average Method
B. LIFO
C. Adjusted Selling Price Method
D. FIFO
Q45.
While preparing Cash Flow Statement for
Non-Financial Companies, which of the
following is not identified as Financing
Activity?
A. Purchase of Debentures
B. Payment for Buy Back of Shares
C. Short term Borrowings
D. Redemption of Debentures
Q46. Q49.
Amit and Sumit entered into a Joint In the Books of Consignee, Commission
venture for purchase and sale of Laptops. earned by consignee will be debited to:
Amit purchased old Laptops costing Rs.
2,00,000. Repairing (Motherboard and A. Consignment Account
Battery) expenses amounted to Rs. 40,000. B. Consignors’ Personal Account
Sumit sold all the Laptops at 25% profit on C. Commission Account
selling price. The sales value will be: D. None of the above

A. Rs. 2,80,000 Q50.

B. Rs. 3,00,000 The difference between Subscribed Capital
C. Rs. 3,20,000 and Called-up Capital is called:
D. Rs. 2,50,000
A. Calls-in-arrear
Q47. B. Calls-in-advance
Consider the following statements: C. Uncalled Capital
D. Authorised Capital
1. Both Provision and Reserves are
appropriation of Profits. Q51.
2. The creation of Provisions is based on Which of the following is correct regarding
Conservatism Principle. Union Public Service Commission?

Which of the following statement(s) is/are 1. It is the ‘watch-dog of merit system’ in

correct? India.
2. Conducts recruitment to the all-India
A. Only 1 services and Central services–group A and
B. Only 2
group B.
C. Both 1 and 2
3. Involved in classification of services,
D. None of the above.
pay and service conditions, cadre
Q48. management & training.
Which of the following statement is true?
Select the correct option from the codes
A. Revenue Receipts are synonymous to given below:
actual cash receipt.
B. Capital receipts are credited in Profit A. Only 1
and Loss Account. B. Only 1 & 2
C. Capital Expenditure results in creation C. Only 3
of assets. D. 1, 2 & 3
D. Revenue expenditure doesn’t include
Employees related expenses.
Q52. Q54.
What action can the Governor take on a Which of the following reasons were cited
bill sent to him after it is passed by the by the Ashok Mehta Committee for the
state legislature? decline of the Panchayati Raj Institutions
in India?
1. Give his assent to the bill
2. Withhold his assent to the bill 1. Role of Bureaucracy
3. Return the bill for reconsideration of the 2. Lack of Political Will
state legislature 3. Lack of conceptual clarity
4. Reserve the bill for the consideration of 4. Lack of gender parity
the President
Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct code from the options given below.
given below:
A. 1 and 4
A. All of the above B. 2 and 3
B. Only 1 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3
C. Only 1, 2 and 3 D. 2, 3 and 4
D. Only 3 and 4
Q55.
Q53. The MRTP Act was repealed and replaced
Which one of the following judgements is by the ___, with effect from September 1,
associated with the primacy of the Chief 2009.
Justice of India and the Collegium of
Judges in the appointment and transfer of A. Limitation Act
the higher judiciary? B. Competition Act
C. Consumer Protection (Amendment) Act
A. Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala
D. Industries (Development and
B. S. P. Gupta vs. President of India
C. Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India Regulation) Act
D. S. R. Bommai vs. Union of India
Q56.
‘The information about a particular person
that exists on the Internet as a result of
their online activity even after its deletion’,
is called:

A. Plug ins
B. Digital Footprints
C. Bookmarks
D. Social Networking
Q57. Q62.
Which of the following is a type of Which one of the following statements is
Secondary Memory? not correct?

A. RAM A. Bleaching powder is prepared by the

B. ROM action of chlorine on dry slaked lime [Ca
C. Compact Disk (OH)2]
D. None of the above B. Bleaching powder acts as a reducing
agent in many chemical industries
Q58. C. Bleaching powder is also known as
URL in relation to ‘Internet’ stands for: chlorinated lime
D. Bleaching powder is used for
A. Unified Recognition Layout disinfecting drinking water
B. Universal Retrieval Language
C. User Readable Language Q63.
D. Uniform Resource Locator Which of the following ions present in low
concentration in drinking water is essential
Q59. for normal growth of teeth but harmful to
The server Replication is a technique for teeth at high concentration?
improving the performance of server side
is called: A. Aluminium
B. Calcium
A. Caching C. Fluoride
B. Mirroring D. Chloride
C. Flash crowds
D. Proxy Q64.
The application of which of the following
Q60. element is ‘Treatment of Goitre’?
Which one of the following is not an input
device? A. Isotope of Uranium
B. Isotope of Cobalt
A. Printer C. Isotope of Iodine
B. VDU D. Isotope of Radium
C. Projector
D. All of the above Q65.
Which one of the following statements is
Q61. not correct?
Which one of the following compounds is
not considered an acid? A. Graphite is a non-metal
B. Graphite is an allotrope of carbon
A. BF3 C. Graphite is a conductor of electricity
B. AlCl3 D. Graphite has a tetrahedral structure
C. NH3
D. C6H5OH
Q66.
The following item consists of two
Statements I and II. Examine these two
statements carefully and select the correct
answer using the code given below:
Statement I: Catalytic hydrogenation is
highest when the catalyst remains, in the
powdered form.
Statement II: When a catalyst is in the
powdered form, its surface area becomes
highest.
Codes:
A. Both the statements are individually
true and Statement II is the correct
explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true
but Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is
false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is
true
Q67.
Which one of the following statements is
correct?
A. Acceleration due to gravity decreases
with the increase of attitude
B. Acceleration due to gravity increases
with the increase of depth (assumption
Earth to be a sphere of uniform density)
C. Acceleration due to gravity decreases
with the increase of latitude
D. Acceleration due to gravity is
independent of the mass of the Earth
Q68.
Who among the following has coined the
term ‘Quark’, the fundamental particles
that make up protons and neutrons in an
atomic nucleus?
A. Richard Feynman
B. Murray Gell-Mann
C. Albert Einstein
D. Niels Bohr
Q69.
If a scientist reads an ambient temperature
273 K in the laboratory, what will a
doctor's thermometer read it?
A. 0 degree Fahrenheit
B. 32 degrees Fahrenheit
C. 99 degrees Fahrenheit
D. -100 degrees Fahrenheit
Q70.
The following item consist of two
statements; Statement I and Statement II.
Examine these two statements carefully
and select the correct answer using the
code given below:
Statement I: Chameleon changes its skin
colour to match with the colour of the
Surroundings.
Statement II: The skin of chameleon emits
light of the colour of the surrounding
through fluorescence.
Code:
A. Both the statements are individually
true and Statement II is the correct
explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true
but Statement II is NOT the correct
explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is
false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is
true
Q71. Q75.
‘Right to Collective Bargaining’ is The provisions impeding the acts of
espoused by which one of the following ‘threatening a lock-out or closure, if a
convention number of the International Trade Union is organised’ are incorporated
Labour Organization? in which of the following legislation:
A. Convention no. 111
A. The Code on Wages, 2019
B. Convention no. 105
B. The Code on Social Security, 2020
C. Convention no. 96
C. The Industrial Relation Code, 2020
D. Convention no. 87
D. The Occupational Safety, Health and
Working Conditions Code, 2020
Q72.
Who among the following is the first
Q76.
Indian to become the President of the
Under the provisions of ‘The Industrial
International Labour Conference?
Relations Code, 2020’, ‘an interim or a
A. Shri Jagjivan Ram final determination of any industrial
B. Shri Atul Chatterjee dispute or of any question relating thereto
C. Dr. Nagendra Singh by any Industrial Tribunal or National
D. Shri Ravindra Verma Industrial Tribunal’, is called:

Q73. A. Settlement
Which article of Indian Constitution B. Damages
includes the Right to form Trade Unions? C. Compensation
D. Award
A. Article 19(1) (C), Fundamental Rights
B. Article 51-A, Fundamental Duties Q77.
C. Article 39(e), Directive Principle of Consider the following statements with
State Policy respect to Maternity Benefit under ‘The
D. Article 43-A, Directive Principle of Code on Social Security, 2020’
State Policy
1. There is no wage limit for coverage
Q74. under maternity benefit.
Human Relations Approach to Industrial 2. The definition of Child under the act
Relations was propounded by: includes ‘still born child’.
A. Frederick Herzberg Which of the following statement(s) is/are
B. Elton Mayo false?
C. Karl Marx
D. David Ricardo A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above
Q78. Q81.
Which of the following statement(s) Which of the following is NOT an Intra-
explains the “Commodity Concept” of mural facility offered by the employer to
Labour? workers?

A. Labour is affected by the laws of A. Protective Clothing

demand and supply in regard to wages. B. Arrangement for prevention of fatigue
B. Human dignity should be respected and C. Latrines and Urinals
labour should be treated like human beings D. Gratuity
rather than a cog in a machine.
C. Industrial Democracy can be established Q82.
by participation of labour in management. The 20-point Workers Participation
D. All of the above Scheme, 1975 provided for the setup of
Joint Council at:
Q79.
Which of the following concept of Labour A. Shop Level
Welfare is emphasised in the statement, B. Plant Level
“labour welfare is dynamic, having a C. Both A and B
different interpretation from country to D. None of the above
country and from time to time and even in
the same country, according to its value Q83.
system, social institution, and degree of Consultation and Dialogue with, and the
industrialization and general level of social consensus of workers in the formulation
and economic development. Even within and implementation of labour welfare
one country there may be variation from services, is the basis of which of the
different region to different states.”? following Principles of Labour Welfare?

A. Relative Concept of Labour Welfare A. Principle of Adequacy of Wages

B. Negative Concept of Labour Welfare
C. Total Concept of Labour Welfare
D. Social Concept of Labour Welfare
Q80.
Under the provisions of ‘The Code on
Wages, 2019’, what is the minimum
amount of bonus payable to an adult
employee during an accounting year?
B. Principle of Re-personalisation
C. Principle of Totality of Welfare
D. Principle of Democratic Values
Q84.
Under which theory of Labour Welfare,
Welfare facilities provided to workers are
based religious and emotional sentiments
of the employer?

A. Rs. 833 A. Placating Theory

B. Rs. 1000 B. Police Theory
C. Rs. 100 C. Functional Theory
D. Rs. 500 D. None of the above
Q85.
According to David Ricardo ‘Subsistence
Theory of Wages’, what will be the
elasticity of supply of labour at the level of
Subsistence Wage?
A. Less than elastic
B. Infinitely Inelastic
C. Unitary Elastic
D. Perfectly Elastic
Q86.
Which sort of arrangement between
‘employer and union’, allows the employee
with the choice of applying for union
membership but once they become
member, they cannot withdraw from the
Union?
A. Union Shop arrangement
B. Open Shop arrangement
C. Closed Shop arrangement
D. Maintenance of Membership Shop
Q87.
According to Walton and McKersie,
‘Behavioural Theory of Labour
Negotiation’, which of the following
Process of Bargaining is based on the
statement ‘If one party gains, the other
party loses’?
A. Distributive Bargaining
B. Attitudinal Structuring
C. Integrative Bargaining
D. Intra-Organisational Bargaining
Q88.
The big Indian trading houses and
industrial interests supporting the
Swadeshi movement played a major role in
setting up:
A. Associated Chamber of Commerce
B. Federation of Indian Chamber of
Commerce and Industry
C. All India Manufacturer’s Organisation
D. International Organization of
Employers
Q89.
The provisions relating to ‘Legality of
Lockouts’ are contained in which of the
following Labour Codes:
A. The Code on Wages, 2019
B. The Code on Social Security, 2020
C. The Industrial Relation Code, 2020
D. The Occupational Safety, Health and
Working Conditions Code, 2020
Q90.
Who among the following propagated the
‘Residual Claim Theory’ of Labour?
A. David Ricardo
B. Francis W. Walker
C. Karl Marx
D. J.B. Clark
Q91.
Chicken and fish are substitutes. If the
price of chicken increases, the demand for
fish will:
A. Increase or decrease but the demand
curve for chicken will not change
B. Increase and the demand curve for fish
will shift rightwards
C. Not change but there will be movement
along the demand curve for fish
D. Decrease and the demand curve for fish
will shift leftwards
Q92.
Credit Multiplier is equal to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Q93.
Which of the following relation is
INCORRECT between TU and MU?
A. TU increase as long as MU is positive
B. TU is maximum when MU = 0
C. TU starts declining when MU is
negative
D. Decrease in MU implies that TU
increases at an increasing rate
Q94.
______ is the portal which assists the
corporate sectors in India with regard to
the filing of various compliances in a
seamless and transparent manner.
A. Company Portal
B. MCA 21
C. ROC India Portal
D. MCA 11
Q95.
Which one of the following is a function of
Finance Commission of India?
A. Investigating complaints on any finance
related issue
B. Monitor and investigate adherence to
applicable procedures in the public service
C. Overseeing workforce and personnel
matters in the State services
D. Division/Distribution of the net tax
proceeds between the Centre and the states,
and the allocation of the same between
states.
Q96.
The federal systems of India and the USA
are different in all the following respects,
except:
A. State's representation in the Upper
House
B. Dual Citizenship
C. Dual System of Courts
D. Dual Government
Q97.
Reduction in Tax Rate in the economy is
an example of ……………….
A. Dovish Monetary Policy
B. Contractionary Fiscal Policy
C. Hawkish Monetary Policy
D. Expansionary Fiscal Policy
Q98.
Which of the following is not a function of
the Securities and Exchange Board of India
(SEBI)?
A. Supervising the working of the Stock
Exchanges
B. Underwriting new Capital Issues
C. Regulating Merchant Banks and Mutual
Funds
D. Promoting the development of a healthy
Capital Market
Q99.
An increase in output in perfectly
competitive and constant cost industry
which is in the long run equilibrium, will
come:
A. entirely from new firms
B. entirely from existing firms
C. either entirely from new firms or
entirely from existing firms
D. partly from new firms and from existing
firms
Q100.
A decrease in demand with the supply
curve remaining constant leads to:
A. An increase in both equilibrium price
and quantity
B. A fall in both equilibrium price and
quantity
C. An increase in equilibrium price and a
fall in quantity
D. A fall in equilibrium price but increase
in quantity
Q101.
A good is termed as an inferior good if:
A. Its Consumption increases with a rise in
Income
B. Its Consumption reduces with a rise in
Income
C. Its Consumption reduces with a rise in
Price
D. Its Consumption remains the same with
a rise in Price
Q102.
Which committee of Parliament of India
examines the Audit Report of Comptroller
and Auditor General?
A. Estimates Committee
B. Committee on Public Audit
C. Assurance Committee
D. Public Accounts Committee
Q103.
Who determines the term of office, salary
and allowances, conditions of service of
the chairman and other members of the
Finance Commission of India from time to
time?
A. The President of India
B. The Prime Minister of India
C. The Finance Minister of India
D. Governor of RBI
Q104. Q107.
In 1991, India approached the The water is freezed to become ice, its
……………….. and received volume is increased by 10%. Then if the
…………………… as loan to manage the ice is melted to water again, its volume
economic crises. will be decreased by:

A. International Bank for Reconstruction A. 9%

B. 10%
and Development; $7 Billion
B. World Trade Organization; $5 Billion C. 9 %
C. Asian Development Bank, $6 Billion D. 11%
D. International Development Association;
$9 Billion Q108.
For a certain month, the dates of three of
Q105. the Sundays are even numbers. Then, the
Which of the following are related to Right 15th of that month falls on a:
to Equality under the provisions of Articles
14 - 18 of the Constitution of India? A. Thursday
B. Friday
1. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds C. Sunday
of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth D. Saturday
2. Equality of opportunity in matters of
public employment Q109.
3. Educational and cultural rights to The mean of x and is N. Then the mean
minorities
of x and is:
4. Abolition of untouchability

Select the correct answer using the code A. N

given below: B. 2N − 1
C. N – 2
A. 1, 2 and 3 D. 4N − 2
B. 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4 Q110.
D. 1 and 2 only The radius of the in-circle of the equilateral
triangle having each side 6 cm is:
Q106.
A can beat B by 40 metres in a kilometre A. 2√3 cm
race, and B can beat C by 20 metres in a B. √3 cm
kilometre race. By how much will A beat C. 6√3 cm
C in a kilometre race? D. 2 cm
A. 59 metres
B. 59.2 metres
C. 58.2 metres
D. None of these
Q111. Q114.
A can complete a task in 30 days. He Ramesh bought 10 cycles for Rs. 500 each.
started the task and then B joined him after He spent Rs. 2,000 on the repair of all
4 days. The task was completed in a total cycles. He sold five of them for Rs. 750
of 20 days. Had A and B worked together each and the remaining for Rs. 550 each.
from the beginning, they would have Then the total gain or loss percentage is:
finished the same task in:
A. Gain of 8 %
A. 20 days B. Loss of 8 %
B. 15 days
C. Gain of 7 %
C. 18 days
D. Loss of 7 %
D. 18 days
Q115.
Q112. In the following matrix, one block has a
In a queue, Monika is 10th from the front, question mark in it. Select the correct term
Kavya is 25th from the back and Rohini is from the alternatives given that can replace
just in the middle of the two. If there are 50 question mark.
students in the queue, what position does
Rohini occupy from the front? AC4 BD6 EG12
HJ18 ? NP40
A. 15th
B. 19th QS36 TV38 WY76
C. 22nd
D. 18th A. KM20
B. KN24
Q113. C. KM22
The LCM of two numbers is 667 times D. KL20
their HCF. The sum of the LCM and the
HCF is 44756. If one of the numbers is Q116.
1943, then the sum of the digits of the A certain two-number is three times the
other number is: sum of its digits. If 45 is added to that
number, the digits are interchanged. What
A. 16 is the product of the digits of the number?
B. 11
C. 14 A. 12
D. 9 B. 21
C. 24
D. 14
Q117. Q120.
In a class, the ratio of boys to girls is 3:1. If A tap can fill a tank in 6 hours. After half
16 boys leave and 6 more girls join the the tank is filled, three more similar taps
class, the ratio of boys to girls becomes are opened. What is the total time taken to
10:9. What was the total number of fill the tank completely?
students in the class initially?
A. 4 Hours
B. 4 Hours 15 Minutes
A. 52
C. 3 Hours 15 Minutes
B. 48
D. 3 Hours 45 Minutes
C. 56
D. 40

Q118.
A Bus left with some definite number of
passengers. At the first stop, half the
passengers left the bus and 35 boarded the
bus. At the second stop 1/5th of the
passengers left and 40 boarded the bus.
Then, the bus moved with 80 passengers
towards its destination without stopping
anywhere. How many passengers were
there originally?

A. 40
B. 30
C. 50
D. 60

Q119.
A man can row at 5 km/h in still water. If
the velocity of current is 1 km/h and it
takes him 1 hour to row to a place and
come back, how far is the place?

A. 2.5 km
B. 3 km
C. 2.4 km
D. 3.6 km