SPECIALIZATION 8. The President himself promised to stop the war.

The
underlined word is ______ pronoun.
ENGLISH A. an interrogative C. a reflexive
A REVIEWER FOR LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR
B. an intensive D. a reciprocal
TEACHERS

STRUCTURE 9. Which of the following sentences does NOT observe

correct subject-verb agreement?
1. The underlined verbs in the following sentences are A. The mayor as well as his brothers is going to prison.
classified as _____. B. Neither of the two traffic lights is working.
The time is now. C. My assets were wiped out in the depression.
The world became flesh. D. Neither the plates nor the serving bowl go on that
We remain silent. shelf.

A. intransitive C. transitive 10. The underlined word in this sentence functions as

B. reflexive D. ascriptive _____.
“We elected him chairman.”
2. The word “just” in the sentence below indicates ___. A. direct object
“She has just eaten.” B. indirect object
A. an action that was true in the past and is still C. objective complement
relevant to the present D. predicate nominative
B. a recently completed action
C. an action which was completed before another past 11. Why do most fathers prefer a son ___ a daughter
action for his first-born child?
D. an action continuing at a given point in time A. to C. from
B. than D. over
3. What type of mood is indicated in this sentence?
“How did you come to know about that tragic event?” 12. Which sentence has error in punctuation?
A. indicative C. imperative A. “You’re a great friend,” Jose said.
B. subjunctive D. directive B. Judith, my best friend went to a concert last Friday.
C. I have a lot of work to do; as such, I left for work a
4. Which of the following is a gradable adjective? few minutes early.
A. absolute C. complete D. According to the radio, surface streets were the best
B. clear D. impossible alternative to the congested freeways.

5. Which sentence has ditransitive verb?
A. Those guys are highly intelligent group of engineers.
B. Those mean boys tried to throw a rock through our
windows.
C. Nobody will believe a ruffian like you.
D. My mother gave me this cardigan for Christmas.
6. Which approach to language teaching is based on
the behaviorist’s belief that language is the acquisition
of a set of correct language habits and whose goal is to
use the target language communicatively, overlearn it,
so as to be able to use it automatically.
A. Direct Method
B. Communicative Approach
C. Suggestopedia
D. Audio-Lingual Method
7. The following contain operator verbs EXCEPT:
A. My father approves your marriage proposal.
B. Will your father approve my marriage proposal?
C. My father won’t approve your marriage proposal.
D. Your father will approve my marriage proposal,
won’t he?
13. Unprepared for such a strong rebuttal, _____.
A. the lawyer’s attempt won the case
B. the lawyer’s attempt failed but still win the case
C. the lawyer failed to win the case
D. the lawyer failed in his attempt to win the case
14. ______ on the MTRCB to take action.
A. Whenever television is denounced by viewers for its
violence, they call
B. Whenever television is denounced for it violence,
viewers call
C. Whenever viewers denounce television for its
violence, they call
D. Whenever a denunciation of television is voiced,
they call
15. The following are true about Communicative
Competence Language Teaching EXCEPT:
A. Language is seen as a social tool that speakers use
to make meaning.
B. Diversity is recognized and accepted as part of
language development.
C. A fixed set of techniques and methodology is
prescribed.
D. More than one variety of a language is recognized
 as a viable model for learning and teaching. logical thinking
D. formal study of grammar improves writing ability
16. Which of the following statements about sentence
structure is NOT correct? 23. Which of the following types of words does NOT fit
A. Two words that belong to the same category can into the category of determiners?
substitute each other in a sentence. A. articles C. prepositions
B. There are restrictions on how the words can B. possessives D. demonstratives
combine to form grammatical phrases.
C. Lexical categories can expand into bigger strings of 24. The following used “off” as adverb EXCEPT:
words called “phrasal categories.” A. march off C. shut off the engine
D. The distribution of a word in a sentence structure B. dozed off D. two miles off shore
determines its function.
25. What preposition is NOT properly used in the
17. If I ____ that learning Russian was going to be so following sentences?
difficult, I _____ that course. A. I will wait in the car.
A. had known / would never take B. The man in the boat is a fugitive.
B. knew / would never take C. Few guys in the train are rowdy.
C. had known / would never have taken D. I slept 8 hours on the ship.
D. knew / would never have taken
LINGUISTICS
18. By the end of the course the students _________
the most important grammar structures. 1. Which of the following sentences is “syntactically
A. have mastered C. have been mastering ambiguous”?
B. will have mastered D. are mastering A. Call him by his nickname.
B. Give him a good treat.
19. Which adjective is predicative in this sentence “The C. Give them the accommodation they want.
crispy green mangoes as a souvenir gift by my favorite D. Call me a cab.
cousin really look delicious”?
A. green C. favorite 2. They view the language as a system of related
B. crispy D. delicious elements or “building blocks” for the encoding of
meaning, the elements being phonemes (sounds),
20. The conjuncts in this sentence are _____. morphemes (words), tagmemes (phrases, sentences,
“Binoy is a man who does not have money but clauses).
who wants to travel the world.” A. structuralists
A. sentences C. relative pronouns B. transformationalists
B. relative clauses D. independent clauses C. functionalists
D. interactionalists
21. Which of the following sentences is prescriptively
correct because it is easy to handle? 3. Which of the following sounds are produced by
A. Every student submitted his or her research paper bringing the articulators near each other such that the
on time. flow of air is impeded but not completely blocked. The
B. Everyone submitted their projects on time. air flow through the narrow opening creates friction.
C. Every student submitted his/her research paper on A. p,b,t,d,k,g
time. B. f,v,Ɵ,ð,s,z,š,ẑ,h
D. All the students submitted their projects on time. C. m,n,ŋ
D. l,r
22. Grammar may be taught in two main ways – by
experience with discourse that entails the varieties of 4. Which is the study of larger linguistic units, such as
word forms and sentence construction, or by analyzing conversational exchanges or written texts?
dummy sentences and diagramming parts. Plentiful B. Stylistics
discursive experience is what really teaches grammar, C. Genre Analysis
for it exercises judgment and provides language intake, D. Discourse Analysis
whereas formal grammar study has been proved E. Pragmatics
irrelevant. Politics more than pedagogy retards the
changing of the curriculum to fit this truth. 5. Which of the following is an example derivational
A. using language in a wide variety of situations morpheme?
improves grammar A. helpful
B. good judgment can be improved by studying the B. stays
rules of formal grammar C. eaten
C. analyzing and diagramming provide exercise in D. longest

6. What is made use in this example “I told Paul to
close the door and he did so”?
A. homonymy
B. anaphora
C. deixis
D. hyponymy
7. What category of illocutionary act is demonstrated in
the following example?
“Recession will worsen in Europe in the next five
years.”
A. representative
B. commissive
C. directive
D. expressive
8. What conversation maxim seems to have been
violated in the following example?
A: How was the LET?
B: Well, the proctor is my former college professor.
A. maxim of quantity
B. maxim of quality
C. maxim of relation
D. maxim of manner
9. This type of language is used to describe the kind of
language a learner uses at a given time, that is, his
version of a given language, which deviates in certain
ways from the language of a mature speaker.
A. dialect
B. native language
C. holophrastic speech
D. interlanguage
10. According to cognitivists, errors in second language
learning is considered _____.
A. basis for testing
B. part of learning process
C. as proofs of unsystematic way of learning
D. not part of natural progression in acquisition of
English
11. What aptly describes “universal grammar”?
A. language used for communication by people who
speak different first languages
B. rules applicable to all human languages
C. language with the same vocabulary, grammar, and
pronunciation
D. rules of grammar that distinguish one language from
the others
12. If the second language learner “assimilates”, then
he _____.
A. maintains its own life style and values and rejects
those of the target language group
B. adapts to the life style and values of the target
language group but maintains its own life style and
values for the intragroup use.
C. gives up his own life style and values and adopts
those of the target language group
D. maximizes the use of his first language and the
target language
13. The following are the areas of knowledge and skills
of communicative competence EXCEPT _____
A. grammatical competence
B. sociolinguistic competence
C. discourse competence
D. structural competence
14. Speaker A’s final remark functions as _____.
Speaker A: That’s the telephone.
Speaker B: I’m in the bath.
Speaker A: OK.
A. a request to answer the phone
B. an excuse for not complying
C. acceptance of an excuse
D. sarcasm
15. What is strategy is used by the second language
learner in the following situation”
“The student forgot the English term “train station”. He
used the phrase “the place for trains” instead.
A. inference
B. paraphrase
C. generalization
D. adaptation
16. Which theory of language origin claims that a
number of words in any language are onomatopoeic?
A. Divine Source Theory
B. Natural-Sound Source Theory
C. Oral-Gesture Source Theory
D. Glossogenetics Theory
17. Which of the following best describes a “phrase”?
A. a sequence of words that does not express a
complete thought
B. a sequence of words that can function as a
sentence constituent
C. a sequence of words that contains only a subject
and no predicate
D. a sequence of words that contains only a predicate
and no subject
18. The following can function as “intensive verbs”
EXCEPT:
A. seem
B. become
C. remain
D. make
19. Which of the following is the most accurate
statement about the language acquisition process of
young children?
A. Young children understand full sentences at a
relatively late stage in language development.
B. Young children exhibit random, highly variable
 errors in sentence construction. C. What is the commotion about?
C. Young children infer the underlying rules of D. How is she coping with the difficult situation?
language to which they are exposed.
D. Young children require planned early instructional ESP
intervention to master the grammar of the English
language. 1. Which of the following words qualifies as slang?
A. spyware
20. Which of the following pair of words demonstrate B. scrub suit
that different letter combinations can represent the C. phat
same speech sound? D. chat
A. church…chorus
B. bow…bow 2. Which of the following linguists introduced the term
C. hot…cold “register” in 1956?
D. phone…laugh A. Thomas Bertram Reid
B. M.A.K. Halliday
21. How many phonemes are in the word “shed”? C. Henry Widdowson
A. one D. Robert lado
B. two
C. three 3. Which of the following is a jargon of academe?
D. four A. pedagogy
B. leveraging
22. An ESL teacher is designing a listening lesson for C. bureaucracy
sixth-grade intermediate-level English language D. deficit
learners. Which of the following guidelines should the
teacher follow in order to align the lesson with the 4. Which is an example of course for English for
comprehensible input hypothesis? Occupational Purposes (EOP)?
A. Use a familiar aural selection appropriate for A. English for Medical Studies
beginning-level students. B. English for Research Writing
B. Choose an aural selection that is slightly above the C. English for Social Advocacy
students' comprehension level. D. English for Technicians
C. Provide a difficult aural selection along with a written
script to which students can refer. 5. Who defined ESP by identifying its absolute and
D. Locate an aural selection that comes with a written variable characteristics?
translation in the students' primary language. A. Tony Dudley-Evans
B. Tom Hutchinson
23. Which of the following is true about semantics? C. Peter Strevens
A. Semantics will sharpen the effect and meaning of a D. David Nunan
text
B. Semantics refers to the meaning expressed when 6. What is an “argot”?
words are arranged in a specific way A. an inferior dialect resulting from corrupting a
C. Semantics is a vocabulary instruction technique particular language
D. Semantics is representing spoken language through B. an euphemistic expression used by a particular
the use of symbols group of individuals
C. an informal specialized vocabulary related to a
24. Which generalization in the area of phonology can hobby, job, sport, etc.
be drawn from the following linguistic data: table, D. an invented language resulting from geographical
attack, can, paper, space, and accordion? isolation
A. A voiceless stop is aspirated if it begins a syllable of
a stressed vowel. 7. What type of ESP syllabus is appropriate for a
B. A voiceless stop is aspirated if it follows a stressed course in writing business letters or a course in
vowel. presenting business reports?
C. A voiceless stop is aspirated if it is in between a A. content-based syllabus
consonant and a tense vowel. B. skill-based syllabus
D. A voiceless stop is aspirated if it is in between a C. method-based syllabus
stressed vowel and a voiced consonant. D. language skill-based syllabus

25. Lexical ambiguity is best exemplified by which of 8. The following stages are necessary in course
the following sentences? designing in ESP EXCEPT:
A. Is the bank okay? A. needs assessment
B. Where did he place my knapsack? B. determining goals and objective
 C. content conceptualization C. Jane Austen’s Pride and Prejudice
D. role and task specification D. Both A and B

9. What type of syllabus would be the most appropriate
for Chinese nationals who came to the Philippines to
enhance their Basic Interpersonal Communications
Skills in English?
A. skills-based syllabus
B. method-based syllabus
5. What does the author want to portray in this stanza?
Do not go gentle into that good night,
Old age should burn and rave at close of day;
Rage, rage against the dying of the light.
-Do Not Go Gentle into That Good Night, Dylan Thomas

C. content-based syllabus
D. knowledge-based syllabus A. Don’t be afraid of the dark.
B. Old people could hardly sleep at night.
10. This type of scoring in ESP tests aims to evaluate C. Defy death.
the students’ overall performance. D. The aged are wiser than the young.
A. analytic scoring
B. discreet-point scoring 6. In discussing the various aspects of studies, Francis
C. holistic scoring Bacon employs what is known as the “balanced style.”
D. objective scoring In this given argument, the word crafty likely pertains to
_____.
ENGLISH LITERATURE “Crafty men condemn studies; simple men
admire them, and wise men use them; for they teach
not their own use, but that is wisdom without them and
1. What is the rhyme scheme or sound pattern of these
above them, won by observation.”
poetic lines?
A. wicked people who corrupted the minds of the
young
How do I love thee? Let me count the ways.
B. people who prefer practical knowledge and skills
I love thee to the depth and breadth and height.
-Sonnets from the Portuguese (Sonnet 43), Elizabeth Browning C. the mini-sectors or the scholars of the society
D. the philosophers who study ideas about truth and
A. anapestic hexameter meaning of life
B. iambic pentameter
C. trochaic pentameter 7. The following are writers and poets who wrote about
D. spondaic tetrameter queen Elizabeth or dedicated their works to her
EXCEPT:
2. Analyzing the lines of the sonnet, “thee” refers to __. A. Henry Fielding
A. the Little Portuguese B. Alexander Pope
B. Elizabeth’s dead brother C. Both A and B
C. Elizabeth’s husband-to-be D. Neither A nor B
D. the sonneteer’s mother
8. He created the character of Scrooge in “A Christmas
3. The repetition of the poetic unit “I love the” at the Carol” as a way of raising the issue of whether wealth
beginning of the lines is an evidence of _____. really brought true happiness.
A. George Eliot
I love thee to the depth and breadth and height. 2 B. Charles Dickens
I love the to the level of everyday’s 5 C. Lewis Carroll
I love thee freely, as men strive for right; 7 D. Thomas Hardy
I love thee purely, as they turn from praise. 8
I love thee with a passion put to use 9 9. The following are writers of the Romantic Period
I love thee with a love I seemed to lose. 11 EXCEPT _____.
-Sonnets from the Portuguese (Sonnet 43), Elizabeth Browning A. Charlotte Bronte
B. William Wordsworth
A. the use of anaphora C. Samuel Taylor Coleridge
B. the use of anastrophe D. William Blake
C. the repetition of phrases
D. the omission of rhythmic pattern 10.The word “renaissance” is ______.
A. French for rebirth
4. Which of this portrays a development of love and B. Latin for new idea
relationship between the poet or poetess and his or her C. German for freedom
partner? D. Old English for revival
A. Wordsworth’s She Was a Phantom of Delight
B. Browning’s Sonnets from a Portuguese 11. How much did William Shakespeare write?
A. 1 play, 38 sonnets, and 154 epic narrative poems D. emphasized the classics and Shakespeare
B. 54 plays, 5 sonnets, and 38 epic narrative plays
C. 54 plays, 38 sonnets, and 5 epic narrative poems 19. She was a Victorian era writer who wrote the novel
D. 38 plays, 154 sonnets, and 2 epic narrative poems “Aurora Leigh” which criticized society’s treatment of
women.
12. Which of these phrases appears on William A. Emily Bronte
Shakespeare’s gravestone? B. Charlotte Bronte
A. May the great author rest in peace. C. Elizabeth Browning
B. He wrote so much that man will take years to D. Doris Lessing
understand everything.
C. He arrived on this earth with nothing. When he died, 20. Mary Ann Evans whose pen name was George
he left everything to us. Eliot wrote her famous work which deals with the
D. Curst be he that moves my stones. predicament of the intelligent, idealistic woman
struggling to find meaningful expression in a
13. In Shakespeare’s historical narratives, which king community where the options are claustrophobically
of England has been portrayed as a hunchbacked traditional.
monster of unparalleled villainy? A. Murder on the Orient
A. Edward VI B. Sense and Sensibility
B, Henry VI C. Frankenstein
C. Edward V D. Middlemarch
D. Richard III
21. From what essay of Francis Bacon is this line
14. All of the following novels were written in the 19th taken?
century EXCEPT _______. “If a man will begin with certainties, he shall
A. Pride and Prejudice end in doubts; but if he will be content to begin with
B. Hard Times doubts, he shall end in certainties.”
C. Gulliver’s Travels A. Of Studies
D. Lorna Doone B. Of marriage and single Life
C. Of Marriage and Single Life
15. Who is responsible for the now immortal line D. Advancement of Learning
“Beauty is truth, truth beauty – that is all / Ye know on
earth, and all ye need to know”? 22. He is a novelist and essayist noted for his
A. John Keats “Midnight’s Children” and “The Satanic Verses” which
B. Lord Byron prompted Iran’s Ayatollah Khomeini to issue a fatwa
C. William Shakespeare against him, because Muslims considered the book
D. William Wordsworth blasphemous.
A. Thomas Paine
16. He was the champion of the “art for art’s sake” B. William Bradford
philosophy, which means, roughly, that the aesthetic C. Washington Irving
(or beauty) operates independently of any other D. H.G. Wells
consideration.
A. Robert Louis 23. The following writers wrote romance and adventure
B. Oscar Wilde stories EXCEPT _____.
C. Robert Browning A. Robert Louis Stevenson
D. Charles Dickens B. Rudyard Kipling
C. Lewis Carroll
17. It is one-verse poem composed by Alfred Tennyson D. George Bernard Shaw
which consists of forty-nine lines and illustrates the
fluidity of life. It also speaks about how change is
constant, and therefore life is filled with small deaths She never told her,
until the whole of life completely dies. But let concealment, like a worm I’th’ bud,
A. All Things Will Die Feed on her damask cheek. She pined in thought,
B. Nothing Will Die And with a green and yellow melancholy
C. The Unknown Citizen She sat like patience on a monument,
D. The Builders Smiling at grief. Was not this love indeed?

18. The “Illustrious Theater of Paris” _____. 24. The passage was written by _____.
A. presented pantomimes and pastiches A. Christopher Marlowe
B. was founded by Moliere B. William Shakespeare
C. featured elaborate sets and costumes C. Ben Johnson
 D. John Webster Fair as a star, when only one
Is shining in the sky.
25. Who wrote this line “Where ignorance is bliss, it is
folly to be wise”? She lived unknown, and few could know
When Lucy ceased to be;
a. Robert Browning But she is in her grave, and oh,
b. William Shakespeare The difference to me!
c. Rudyard Kipling
d. Edgar Allan Poe 32. The use of the imagination is evident in the poem
through the employment simply of _____.
26. What nationality was Robert Louis Stevenson, A. synecdoche and metonymy
writer of “Treasure Island”? B. personification and hyperbole
A. English C. allusion and litotes
B. Welsh D. simile and metaphor
C. Irish
D. Scottish 33. Which stanza implies that Lucy is an interesting
woman?
27. Which Bronte writer authored “Jane Eyre”? A. 1
A. Charlotte B. 2
B. Emily C. 3
C. Cristina
D. Anne 34. In the context of the poem, the emphasis is on ___.
A. curfew
28. In which century were Geoffrey B. fear
Chaucer’s Canterbury Tales written? C. work
A. 14th D. loneliness
B. 15th
C. 16th The curfew tolls the knell of parting day,
D. 17th The lowing herd wind slowly o’er the lea,
The plowman homeward plods his weary way,
29. What literary piece which opens with the line ‘All And leaves the world to darkness and to me.
children, except one grew up’? -Thomas Gray’s Elegy written In A Country Churchyard
A. The Jungle Book
B. Tom Sawyer 35. The narrator of this passage is _____.
C. Peter Pan A. Victor
D. The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn C. the monster
B. Elizabeth
30. Who was the author of the famous storybook D. the author
‘Alice’s Adventures in Wonderland’?
A. H.G. Wells But how was I direct myself? I knew that I must
B. Lewis Carroll travel in a southwesterly direction to reach my destination,
C. Mark Twain but the sun was only guide. I did not know the names of the
D. E.B. White towns that I was to pass through, nor could I ask information
from a single human being; but I did not despair. From you
only could I hope for succor, although towards you I felt no
31. What work contains these lines: “There hurls in at sentiment but that of hatred. Unfeeling, heartless creator!
the hall-door an unknown rider . . . Half a giant on earth You had endowed me with perceptions and passions and
I hold him to be.” then cast me abroad an object for the scorn and horror of
A. Sir Gawain and the Green Knight mankind. But on you only had I any claim for pity and
B. Morte D’arthur redress, and from you I determined to seek that justice which
C. Piers Plowman I vainly attempted to gain from any other being that wore the
D. Canterbury Tales human form. -Frankenstein, Mary Shelley

She Dwelt Among the Untrodden Ways
William Wordsworth
She dwelt among the untrodden ways
Beside the springs of Dove,
A maid whom there were none to praise
And very few to love:
A violet by a mossy stone
Half hidden from the eye!
36. “A part of its orb was at length hid, and I waved my
brand; it sank, and with a loud scream I fired the straw,
and heath, and bushes, which I had collected.”
-Frankenstein by Mary Shelley
Which of the following is a correct restatement of the
above?
A. When my branding iron sank, I screamed and shot
at the bushes.
B. When the moon set, I screamed and burned the
cottage.
C. When I could not find the orb, I screamed and
kicked at the straw and the bushes.
D. I waited until the sun set, then I screamed and set
fire to the forest.
AMERICAN LITERATURE
1. Some critics say that Arthur Miller’s Death of a
Salesman challenges the traditional definition of
tragedy because _____.
A. it ends in tragic death of the protagonist
B. its protagonist is human, not superhuman
C. the struggle is against human, not superhuman
antagonists
D. it is a modern play
2. Widely acclaimed as the father of free verse, he
disturbed many literary critics with his “frankness of
expression.”
A. Washington Irving
B. James Cooper
C. Walt Whitman
D. John Milton
3. In his Inaugural Address, how does John F. Kennedy set the
tone of his speech?
A. by gloating in his victory over Nixon
B. by opening with comments on renewal and change
C. by humorous remarks about the weather
D. by threatening a show of force if attacked
4. In the same speech, what expression does he use with
respect to dealing with the Soviet Union?
A. “let both sides…”
B. “the evil empire…”
C. “ask not what we can do...”
D. “the sleeping giant…”
5. How does John F. Kennedy end his Inaugural Address?
A. by threatening a show of force if attacked
B. with a call to work together for freedom
C. by saluting the flag
D. by leaving a message of thanks for the electoral
support
6. Which of the following works provides a Loyalist
interpretation of the Revolution?
A. Increase Mather’s “Case of Conscience”
B. Thomas Jefferson’s “A Summary View of the Rights
of British America”
C. Patrick Henry’s “Give Me Liberty or Give Me Death”
D. Joseph Galloway’s “Historical and Political
Reflections on the Rise and Progress of the
American Rebellion”
7. Which of the following poems is one of the earliest
examples of debunking and disillusionment, reflecting
the author’s own impressions of the barbarous colonial
frontier?
A. Philip Freneau’s “On Mr. Paine’s Rights of Man”
B. Henry Wadsworth Longfellow’s “Blind Bartimeus”
C. Ebenezer Cooke’s “The Sot-Weed Factor”
D. William Cullen Bryant’s “Thanatopsis”
Ebenezer Cooke’s “The Sot-Weed Factor”
describes the outlandish food and eating habits, the
excessive drinking and fighting, and the admixture of
law with violence, as well as the intellectual poverty
and lack of education, that characterized this time.
8. Which of the following is NOT a character in Mark
Twain’s “Adventures of Huckleberry Finn”?
A. Widow Douglas
B. Pap
C. Tom Canty
D. Jim
9. “We paused before a house that seemed A swelling
of the ground; The roof was scarcely visible, The
cornice but a mound.”
In the above passage from Emily Dickinson’s
“Because I Could Not Stop for Death,” the word
“house” in the first line depicts which of the following?
A. The house the speaker grew up in
B. A church
C. A school that burned down
D. The speaker’s tomb
10. “The Philosophy of Composition” was Edgar Allan
Poe’s follow-up essay detailing the creation of which of
his works?
A. “Annabel Lee”
B. “The Raven”
C. “The Fall of the House of Usher”
D. “To Helen”
11. The famous line “The mass of men leads lives of
quiet desperation” was written by _____.
A. Ralph Waldo Emerson
B. Nathaniel Hawthorne
C. Henry David Thoreau
D. Henry Wadsworth Longfellow
12. The novel “Catch 22” by Joseph Heller examines
_____.
A. ironic nature of the people’s attitude
B. insanity of war itself
C. people’s hostilities
D. women’s plight
13. F. Scott Fitzgerald explored the consequences of
trying to live the American dream, and questioned
society’s definition of success and progress in his novel
_____.
A. The Great Gatsby
B. The Grapes of Wrath
C. Watching God
D. The Portrait of a Lady
 Ships at a distance have every man’s wish on
board. For some they come in with the tide. For others,
they sail forever on the horizon, never out of sight,
never landing until the Watcher turns his eyes away in
resignation, his dreams mocked to death by Time. That
is the life of men.
Now, women forget all those things they don’t
want to remember, and remember everything they
don’t want to forget. The dream is the truth. Then they
act and do things accordingly.
14. In the passage above from Zora Neale Hurston’s
Their Eyes Were Watching God, the narrator implies
that men and women are different because of their
_____.
A. interest in pleasing others
B. acceptance of social expectations
C. ability to work together to attain their dreams
D. readiness to influence the course of their dreams
15. Which novel, eventually published in 1945, was
rejected by a New York publisher stating ‘it is
impossible to sell animal stories in the USA’?
A. Animal Farm
B. Black Beauty
C. Watership Down
D. The Tale of Peter Rabbit
16. ‘The Good Earth’ was rejected fourteen times,
before being published and going on to win the Pulitzer
Prize. Who was the author?
A. Pearl S. Buck
B. John Steinbeck
C. Edith Wharton
D. Henry Miller
17. Who is alluded to as Captain in the following lines
from Whitman’s poem?
O captain! My captain! Our fearful trip is done,
The ship has weather’d every rack, the prize we sought
is won.
A. Abraham Lincoln
B. George Washington
C. John F. Kennedy
D. Thomas Jefferson
The action of _____ appears to stop short of
World War II, but the narrator’s meditation in his
underground cellar must be imagined to include this
period, which served in part to crystallize the search for
significant advances in black civil rights and economic
opportunity.
18. The novel discussed above is _____.
A. Jazz
B. The Autobiography of an Ex-Coloured Man
C. Cane
D. Invisible Man
I saw the best minds of my generation
destroyed by madness, starving hysterical naked,
dragging themselves through the negro streets at dawn
looking for an angry fix, angel-headed hipsters burning
for the ancient heavenly connection to the starry
dynamo in the machinery of night.
19. The lines above are from a poem by _____.
A. Theodore Roethke
B. Gwendolyn Brooks
C. Anne Sexton
D. Allen Ginsberg
20. Two versions of Robert A. Heinlein’s novel
“Stranger in a Strange Land” have been published: the
edited version first published in 1961 and the original
full-length (60,000 words longer) published
posthumously in 1991. From what does the title derive?
A. The play “Antony and Cleopatra” by William
Shakespeare
B. The Old Testament Book of Exodus
C. The novel “Gulliver’s Travels” by Jonathan Swift
D. The book “Utopia” by Sir Thomas More
MYHTOLOGY
1. This is the attribution of a human form, human
characteristics, or human behavior to nonhuman
things, e.g. deities in mythology and animals in
children’s stories.
A. Anthropomorphism
B. Ethereal
C. God-like
D. Anthropocentrism
2. In Greek mythology, she was the most beautiful
woman in the world. A daughter of the god Zeus, she is
best known for the part she played in causing the
Trojan War.
A. Penelope, queen of Ithaca
B. Persephone, queen of the underworld
C. Helen of Troy
D. Hera, queen of Olympus
3. When Paris abducted Helen to Troy, all the Greek
princes were bound by the oath to help Menelaus
recover Helen. Athena and Hera who were not chosen
by Paris sided with the Greeks who sent one thousand
ships to Troy. What does this indicate?
A. Serious decisions have serious consequences.
B. Paris was wrong in choosing Aphrodite as winner.
C. Hera and Athena harbored ill feelings.
D. Zeus ordered the goddesses to take side in the war.
4. He is called “the most Greek of all the gods.” He is
also called the lord of silver bow and the archer-god.
A. Mars
C. Jupiter
B. Neptune
D. Apollo
 A. Eliciting and supporting a sense of awe before the mystery of
5. According to this theory of mythopoeic thought, the being
ancients tend to view things as persons, not as mere B. Supporting the current social order to integrate the individual
objects; thus, they describe natural events as acts of personal organically with his group
gods, and giving rise to myths. C. Initiating the individual into the order of realities of
A. Allegory his own psyche
B. Personification D. Exploring religious experience through reproducing
C. Myth-ritual Theory the conditions of the mythical age
D. Euhemerism
13. According to the epic poem Enuma Elish, this
6. In what mythology a cosmic truth that “all things are simply a Mesopotamian god leads the new gods in a battle against the
part of a greater whole one” is held? oldgods. After defeating the gods of chaos and gaining power of
A. Hindu Mythology a supreme god, he creates the sky and earth, as wellas the first
B. Egyptian Mythology human beings.
C. Celtic Mythology A. Tiamat
D. Mesopotamian Myth B. Kingu
C. Marduk
7. In the study of Scandinavian mythology, this text composed in D. Nabu
the 13th century by Snorri Sturluson is a prosemanual for
producing skaldic poetry which utilizes alliterative verse, kennings, 14. In Hindu mythology, he is traditionally depicted with four
and various metrical forms. heads, four faces and four arms. He also symbolizes the
A. Prose Edda supreme eternal deity whose essence pervades the entire
B. Attila the Hun universe.
C. Gesta Danorum A. Brahma
D. Heimskringla B. Vishnu
C. Shiva
D. Sarasvati
8. She is often shown seated on a lotus. She is worshipped by
many modern Hindus, usually in the home everyFriday and on 15. He is a symbol of strength, perseverance, devotion, and
the festival days throughout the year. energy in Hinduism.
A. Lakshmi A. Hanuman
B. Parvati B. Vanara
C. Durga C. Ganesh
D. Kali D. Kali

9. In Hindu tradition, Vishnu is regarded as 16. In Norse mythology, dwarfs often act as earthen smiths
the preserver of the universe, while Shiva as_____. whereas beings described as jotnar, thursar, and troll areglossed
A. The supreme eternal deity as_______.
B. the conqueror A. Elves
C. The destroyer B. Perching Hawks
D. the monkey god C. Deities
D. Giants
10. In Canaanite mythology, he is said to be in charge of rain and
weather, and that man’s survival is dependent upon 17. In Egyptian mythology, he is the god of the dead
his provision. and the ruler of the underworld.
A. Baal A. Shu
B. ElB B. Ra
C. Dagan C. Osiris
D. Mot D. Amun

11. He is considered as the Mesopotamian great hero and son 18. He is the youth loved and accidentally killed by Apollo who
of goddess Ninsun whose stories are told in Sumerianand memorializes him with a flower growing from the youth’s blood.
Babylonian poems. A. Adonis
A. Gilgamesh B. Hyacinthus
B. Enkidu C. Narcissus
C. Enuma Elish D. Apollo
D. Anu
19. She is a Phoenician princess carried off by Zeus in the form
12. Which of these does not comprise the four essential of a white bull, and the mother of Minos, Rhadamanthus and
functions of mythology as viewed by Joseph Campbell? Sarpedon.
 A. Cassiopeia 27. Poseidon was commonly called _____ and was
B. Hera always carrying his trident, a three-pronged spear.
C. Europa A. the great ocean wave
D. Demeter B. the sea monster
C. the mighty
20.A monster shaped half like a man and half like a bull, confined D. the earth-shaker
in the labyrinth built by Daedalus for Minos, andgiven a periodic
tribute of youths and maidens as food until slain by Theseus: 28. She was the daughter of Zeus alone because no
A. Gorgon mother bore her. Full grown and in full armor, she
B. Cyclops sprang from his head.
C. Centaur A. Aphrodite
D. Minotaur B. Athena
C. Demeter
21. He is the brother of Prometheus; a scatterbrained D. Persephone
person who follows his first impulse, and gives all the
best giftsto the animals. 29. He was one of the great heroes in Trojan War and
A. Epimetheus was held to be the real founder of Rome.
B. Polyphemus A. Achilles
C. Telemachus B. Odysseus
D. Hercules C. Aeneas
D. Hector
22. A fleet-footed huntress who challenges her suitors to a race
and is defeated by Hippomenes when she stops to pick up 30. In Trojan War, he asked Achilles’ armor for he
three golden apples he has dropped: believed that if the enemies thought he were Achilles,
A. Arethusa the Trojans may pause and the worn-out Greeks would
B. Artemis have breathing space.
C. Atalanta A. Patroclus
D. Eurydice B. Ajax
C. Agamemnon
23. In Odyssey when a priest and a poet fell on their D. Menelaus
knees before Odysseus, praying him to spare their
lives, the hero _____ the priest without a thought, but 31. Whose wily mind thought of the stratagem of the
_____ the poet. wooden horse that is often alluded to have caused the
A. imprisoned – freed Trojans’ defeat against the Greeks?
B. freed – imprisoned A. Achilles
C. killed – saved B. Aeneas
D. saved - killed C. Menealus
D. Odyssey
24. He was an ancient writer who was a compendium
of mythology. Most of the books about the stories of 32. She, who was a princess and could foretell the
classical mythology depend chiefly upon him. future, echoed Laocoon’s warning and suggestion to
A. Ovid destroy the wooden horse but no one ever listened to
B. Hesoid her.
C. Pindar A. Cassandra
D. Aeschylus B. Psyche
C. Dido
25. The following belong to the twelve Olympians D. Galatea
EXCEPT _____.
A. Ares 33. He was the strongest man on earth and was
B. Athena considered as equal with the gods.
C. Hephaestus A. Atlas
D. Cupid B. Prometheus
C. Hercules
26. Zeus’s breastplate was the _____, his bird was the D. Achilles
eagle, his tree the oak, and his oracle Dodona.
A. thunderbolt 34. He was nephew and pupil of Daedalus. He
B. lightning invented the saw and the compass. Daedalus became
C. aegis jealous of him and killed him, and Minerva, pitying him,
D. majestic shield changed him into s partridge.
A. Perdix
 B. Pelias 42. She was a Greek mythological character who
C. Minos chose to bury her own brother, Polyneices, against the
D. Orpheus order of Creon who was in control of Thebes. This
caused her death.
35. He accidentally killed his own grandfather, Acrisius, A. Ismene
in a discus-throwing contest. The discus struck him. B. Antigone
The blow was fatal and he died once. C. Electra
A. Oedipus D. Naiad
B. Perseus
C. Apollo 43. He believed his mother was vile for she killed his
D. Telemachus own father. Later, he was acquitted by Athena because
according to Apollo he killed at his command.
A. Orestes
36. He was a sculptor who fell in love, deeply, B. Agamemnon (his father who was killed by his
passionately in love with the thing he had made. mother)
A. Pyramus C. Eteocles (Oedipus’ son)
B. Orpheus D. Polyneices (Oedipus’ son)
C. Ceyx
D. Pygmalion 44. He successfully get rid of the Sphinx by correctly
solving its riddle “What creature goes on four feet in the
37. He attempted to ride Pegasus up to Olympus for he morning, on two feet at noonday, and on three feet in
believed he could take his place with the immortals. the evening?”
A. Endymion A. Jason
B. Bellerophon B. Orestes
C. Peleus C. Oedipus
D. Orpheus D. Minos

38. He was the architect who had contrived the
labyrinth for the minotaur in Crete, and showed Ariadne
how Theseus could escape from it.
A. Icarus
B. Cadmus
C. Daedalus
D. Tantalus
39. Since Perseus had no gift to offer king Polydectes,
he told him he _____
A. would go off and kill his one thousand enemies
B. would kill the Sphinx and bring back his head as a
gift
C. would behead Medusa and bring her head to him.
D. would set a fighting contest to honor him
40. He wrote the book “The Hero with a Thousand
Faces” which discussed his theory of the journey of the
archetypal hero found in world mythologies.
A. Carl Jung
B. Euhemerus
C. Hesoid
D. Joseph Campbell
41. This is a collection of stories and fables from
Arabia, Egypt, India, and Persia that were compiled
from oral tales that had been passed down through
these cultures for generations.
A. The Pachantantra
B. A Thousand and One Nights
C. One Night with the Arabians
D. Alibaba and His Magics
45. Greeks made their gods and goddesses _____.
A. based on the characters of the ancient stories
B. in their own images
C. in their own ideas of best forms of divinities
D. based on the stories handed to them by their
ancestors
46. As used by Joseph Campbell, this refers to the
fundamental structure of all folklore of olden days.
A. monomyth
B. monomythical
C. monomythic
D. monomythicizer
47. The “body” (line 3) is the body of _____.
And on the slope above the sea
The hard-handed peasants go their round
Turning the soil, blind to the body
Ambitious and viable, whose pride
Will leave no trace in the quenching tide.
A. Ulysses
B. Achilles
C. Icarus
D. Priam
“The daughter of Minos, _____ provided the
hero _____ with a ball of string that allowed him to
trace his way back to the light of day after slaying the
Minotaur in the labyrinth.”
48. Which of the following will correctly complete the
sentence?
 A. Helen…Paris
B. Andromeda…Perseus
C. Eurydice…Orpheus
D. Adriane…Theseus
49. Philosophical-religious belief in reincarnation is
based on which mythical character?
A. Orpheus
B. Paris
C. Achilles
D. Agamemnon
50. In the Middle Ages and Renaissance, it was
commonly described as symbol of purity and grace,
which could only be captured by a virgin.
A. Troll
B. Dragon
C. Kappa
D. Unicorns
51. He was a fearless warrior and king who one day
saw the emptiness of his life and turned his back on it,
becoming a wanderer and sadhu. He refused to return
to the world that is why he is often alluded to as having
refused the responsibility.
A. King Minos
B. King Muchukunda
C. King Rama
D. Jason
52. The story of Cupid and Psyche depicts undying
love and devotion. What was Psyche’s mistake that
according to Cupid was a betrayal?
A. Psyche got infatuated with Zeus.
B. Psyche believed her sisters persuasion that her
lover was an ugly beast and would kill her.
C. Psyche disobeyed her husband when she
enlightened his face in the middle of the night.
D. Psyche left the house without her husband
permission.
53. Philippine mythology and superstitions are very
diverse. It includes a collection of tales and
superstitions about magical creatures and entities like
_____.
A. kapre, aswang, matruculan, duwende, tiyanak, etc.
B. sirena, syokoy, dugong, etc.
C. cherubs, Seraphims, Cherubims, thrones, guardian
angels, etc.
D. Malakas at Maganda, Maria Makiling, etc.
TEACHING LITERATURE
1. Of the literary listed below, which is used in the
poem?
You see this gentle stream, that glides,
Shoved on, by quick-succeeding tides:
Try if this sober stream you can
-Proof to No Purpose
A. metaphor and allusion
B. paradox and antithesis
C. apostrophe and hyperbole
D. personification and alliteration
2. The following are examples of metonymy EXCEPT:
A. The controversial couple are living under the same
roof.
B. The Malacaňang declared full support for child-
friendly campaigns.
C. Empty pocket never held anyone back. Only empty
heads and empty hearts can do that.
D. This land belongs to the crown.
3. What figure of speech is used in the following lines
from Carl Sandburg’s “Jazz Fantasia”?
Drum on your drums, batter on your banjos, sob
On the long cool winding saxophones.
Go to it, O jazzmen.
A. assonance
B. consonance
C. alliteration
D. repetition
4. Which of the following is not classified as figure of
speech?
A. “Holding wonder like a cup”
B. “Life has loneliness to sell”
C. “Eyes that love you, arms that hold”
D. “Buy it and never count the cost”
5. What figure of speech is used in the given lines?
Fair daffodils, we weep to see
You haste away so soon;
- Robert Herrick
A. apostrophe
B. metonymy
C. personification
D. synecdoche
“We don’t care a fig for her,” writes unknown
correspondent with a pretty little hand-writing and a
pink seal to her note. “She is fade and insipid,” and
adds some more kind remarks in this strain, which I
should never have repeated at all, but that they are in
truth prodigiously complimentary to the young lady
whom they concern.
6. Which of the literary devices is used to describe the
remarks of the “unknown correspondent”?
A. irony
B. metaphor
C. paradox
D. personification
7. Assonance is a poetic device where:
A. The vowel sound in a word matches the same
sound in a nearby word, but the surrounding
 consonant sounds are different. D. Speech
B. The initial sounds of a word, beginning either with a
consonant or a vowel, are repeated in close “Her warm thanks offering for all.
succession. Lord, clear my misted sight that I may hence view Thy
C. The words used evoke meaning by their sounds. divinity,
D. The final consonant sounds are the same, but the Some sparks whereof thou up dost hasp
vowels are different. Within this little downy wasp
In whose small corporation we
8.“Reading maketh a full man, conference a ready A school and a schoolmaster see”
man, and writing an exact man” is an example of which
type of figurative language? 14. How can the poem best be described based on this
A. Euphemism excerpt?
B. Bathos A. A devotional poem
C. Parallelism B. A biographical poem
D. Irony C. A ballad
D. A poem about authority
With shivering heart the strife we saw
Of passion with eternal law; 15. What play or dramatic structure is described in this
And yet with reverential awe line “The hero has won or lost; issues are resolved;
We watched the fount of fiery life order is restored”?
Which served for the Titanic strife. A. resolution
-Memorial Verses, Matthew Arnold B. denouement
C. conclusion
9. What figure of speech is used in the poem? D. all of the above
A. synecdoche
B. litotes 16. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a
C. metonymy folktale?
D. allusion A. Considered true among various societies
B. A hero on a quest
C. Good versus evil
10. In a tragedy, the protagonist recognizes a D. Adventures of animals
fundamental error or sin, known as _____.
A. hamartia 17. Which of the following is true of the visible shape of
B. evil poetry?
C. harambis I. Forced sound repetition may underscore the
D. faithlessness meaning.
II. It was a new rule of poetry after poets began to feel
11. The resolution of a tragedy, which elicits pity and constricted by rhyming conventions.
fear in the audience and results in a purging of those III. The shaped reflected the poem’s theme.
aroused emotions is called _____. IV. It was viewed as a demonstration of ingenuity.
A. falling action
B. relief A. I and II only
C. déjà vu B. II and IV only
D. catharsis C. III and IV only
D. IV only

12. What is the name given to a pair of rhyming lines of verse Beauty is but a flower
that are self-contained in grammatical structure and meaning? Which wrinkles will devour;
A. Quatrain Brightness falls from the air,
B. Sonnet Queens have died young and fair,
C. Iambic Pentameter Dust hath closed Helen’s eye.
D. Couplet I am sick, I must die.
Lord, have mercy on us.
13. What term refers to the passage in a drama in -Thomas Nashe, Adieu, Farewell Earth’s Bliss

which a character expresses his thoughts or feelings

aloud while alone upon the stage or with the other actors 18. “A flower” in line 1 relates to _____.
keeping silent? A. time
A. Stream of Consciousness B. love
B. Soliloquy C. personality
C. Oration D. appearance

The Aged Lover Renounceth Love
For age with stealing steps
Hath clawed me with his crutch,
And lusty life away she leaps
As there had been none such.
19.“Lusty life” as a characteristic in lines 3-4, of the
poem seems _____.
A. uncaring
B. happy
C. illusion
D. deceptive
20. In the paragraph, “a bit of a romantic” suggests that
Willa Cather ____.
A. condemned the evils of slavery
B. favored the past over the present
C. disliked writing about life in the 1030s
D. denounced certain aspects of the 19th-century life
My tale was heard and yet it was untold
My fruit is fallen and yet my leaves are green,
My youth is spent and yet I am not old,
I saw the world and yet I was not seen;
My thread is cut and yet it is not spun,
And now I live, and now my life is done.
-Elegy, ChidiockTichborne
21. Which of the following words best summarizes the
speaker’s view of his life?
A. confused
B. inconsequential
C. unfulfilled
D. imitative
22. The line, "Under the bludgeonings of chance, my
head is bloody but unbowed“, depicts the person's
_____.
a. optimism
b. confidence
c. courage
d. determination
What is there in a pair of pink cheeks and blue
eyes forsooth? These dear Moralists ask, and hint
wisely that the gifts of genius, the accomplishments of
the mind, …and so forth, are far more valuable
endowments for a female, than those fugitive charms
which a few years will inevitably tarnish. It is quite
edifying to hear women speculate upon the
worthlessness and the duration of beauty.
But through virtue is a much finer thing, and
those hapless creatures who suffer the misfortune of
good looks ought to be continually put in mind of the
fate which awaits them. -Thackeray’s Vanity Fair
23. The organizational pattern used by the narrator to
make his main point is best described as _____.
A. cause and effect
B. definition
C. process analysis
D. comparison and contrast
It was the best of times, it was the worst of
times, it was the age of wisdom, it was the age of
foolishness, it was the epoch of belief, it was the epoch
of incredulity, it was the season of light, it was the
season of Darkness, it was the spring of hope, it was
the winter of despair, we had everything before us, we
had nothing before us, we were all going direct to
heaven, we were all going direct the other way – in
short, the period was so far like the present period, that
some of its noisiest authorities insisted on its being
received, for good or for evil, in the superlative degree
of comparison only. – Charles Dickens, A Tale of Two
Cities
24. The phrase “in short” is significant because it ____.
A. marks the change in structure
B. is a misuse of an absolute
C. negates the speaker’s meaning
D. contrasts times and periods
25. What is the effect of the change in the subject
pronoun in line 4?
A. It has no real effect.
B. It emphasizes superiority of the narrator’s time.
C. It shifts the tone from impersonal to personal.
D. It affects the characterization of the narrator.
E. It diminishes the sense of connection of the times.
THEATER ARTS
1. The word theater is derived from the Greek word “theatron”
which means _____.
A. gathering around
B. assembly
C. forum
D. seeing place
2. The minimal requirements for a theater building are _____.
A. curtains, seats, and lobby
B. s stage and backstage
C. a place to act and a place to watch
D. good acoustics and clean restrooms
3. The aspects of theater as an occupation are _____.
A. work, art, impersonation, and performance
B. script, rehearsal, performance, and reviews
C. contracts, publicists, and agents
D. time, dedication, and inspiration
4. The work of producing theater is involved with _____.
A. the script and rehearsals
B. all of the financial and legal aspects of the show
C. developing rapport with the actors
D. making sure the coffee is fresh
5. Designing is the process of _____. 15. The fundamental demand of a play’s characters is that
A. mapping the visual and auditory aspects of the show they _____.
B. building the sets and the costumes A. support the plot
C. ensuring the show has historical authenticity B. make the audience care
D. getting all the “tech” stuff together C. are realistic
D. are fully detailed
6. Building a production involves _____.
A. a lot of rehearsals 16. _____ are the agreements between audience and actor
B. the actors working after rehearsal wherein the audience willingly suspends belief and accepts
C. fielding legal matters the play as new or temporary “reality.”
D. translating the design into reality A. Traditions
B. Theatrical conventions
7. Crewing a production is the activity in which _____. C. Dramatic protocols
A. people row in a small boat on the river D. Aristotilean elements
B. technicians execute sequential cues and maintain
properties and costumes 17. The four identifiable structural elements in almost every
C. people who did not get cast as actors do their work in the play are _____.
theater A. exposition, conflict, climax, and denouement
D. rehearsals are carefully organized B. opening, intensification, confrontation, and resolution
C. beginning, middle, extension, and conclusion
8. The problems of actor-character separation were resolved D. thesis, sub-thesis, post-thesis, and antithesis
in the ancient world through _____.
A. strenuous exercise 18. _____ continue to dominate the modern theater.
B. masks A. “Postmodern” dramatic structures
C. broad gestures B. Documentary dramas
D. powerful speech C. Ironic faces
D. Aristotelian dramatic forms
9. Performance can be defined as _____.
A. an action or series of actions done for someone else’s 19. The playwright is the _____ of nearly every production.
benefit A. historical basis
B. a strictly private conversation between two people B. final authority
C. showing off in order to impress someone C. point of origin
D. a ritualized creation involving repetitive action D. ultimate interpreter

10. The two general modes of performance are _____. 20. The most common perception of the playwright’s role
A. live and taped. since the age of romanticism is _____.
B. ancient and modern A. as theater co-worker and mentor
C. presentational and representational B. an isolated observer and social critic
D. good and bad C. usually as the director or producer
D. the resident authority and dramaturge
11. The act of feeling for and identifying with characters in a
play is known as _____.
A. sympathy 21. The playwright works with two fundamental tools:
B. empathy A. words and sentences
C. understanding B. scenes and acts
D. synchronicity C. dialogue and physical action
D. narration and conversation
12. As opposed to other forms of performance, theater is
always ______. 22. Which of the following is NOT a demand of credibility?
A. directed by single artist A. Characters act instinctively.
B. scripted B. Characters are internally consistent.
C. rehearsed C. Characters always use good diction.
D. performed live D. Characters are like human beings.

13. The play most fully exists _____.

A. in the text 23. A common fault of beginning playwright is _____.
B. in its performance A. shortness of action
C. when critics review it B. lines that lacks speakability
D. when it is published C. too much detail
D. unclear plot
14. _____ is not one of Aristotle’s components of a tragedy.
A. theme 24. When a play truly satisfies us, we say it endowed with
B. stage _____.
C. music A. active characters
D. spectacle B. intricate detail
C. richness of detail
D. intensity of will
 35. A form that serves as a bridge between the two major
25. Depth of characterization requires characters to be ___. genres is called _____.
A. independent, sensible, reasonable, and worthwhile A. tragicomedy
B. correct, honest, and understandable B. dark comedy
C. funny and tragic C. serio-comedy
D. expressive, emotional, excitable, and enlightened D. melodrama

26. The term “Gravity and Pertinence” refer to a script’s ___. 36. After World-War II, the genre that dominates the theater
A. use of props and stage design is called _____.
B. seriousness of theme and relevance to contemporary A. absurdism
society B. serio-comedy
C. development of its characters C. dark comedy
D. grave and serious tone of dialogue D. comic reality

27. A play is all of the following EXCEPT _____. 37. This genre utilizes authentic evidence as its basis for
A. a presentation with characters that can serve as role portraying recent historical events.
models A. historical
B. an animated piece of life B. melodrama
C. a meaningful representation of human struggles C. documentary
D. a discourse on morality D. farce

28. Historically speaking, a full-length play lasts _____. 38. The primary demands of a plot are traditionally _____.
A. less than one hour A. surprise and resolution
B. between one and two hours B. logic and suspense
C. between two and three hours C. good and evil
D. between three and four hours D. action and reaction
39. Dramatic intensity results from _____.
29. A serious play with a theme of universal human import, A. the skillful use of compression in a script
which describes a struggle against insurmountable odds B. the playwright’s care with a play’s economy
usually ending in death or downfall is a _____. C. the careful development of character interactions and
A. comedy goals
B. drama D. All of the answers are correct.
C. tragedy
D. serio-theater 40. A play that tells the story of thirty years in only two hours
is an example of _____.
30. The central character in a drama is called the _____. A. historicity
A. protagonist B. intensity
B. leading man C. compression
C. antagonist D. All of the answers are correct.
D. hero
41. A script’s structure can determine the success of its ___.
31. The father of dramatic criticism is _____. A. thematic development
A. Sophocles B. credibility
B. Plato C. sense of intrigue
C. Socrates D. All of the answers are correct.
D. Aristotle
42. Three strong building blocks in the process of playwriting
32. Tragedy should _____ us. are ____.
A. sadden A. dialogue, conflict, and structure
B. delight B. plot, theme, and characterization
C. burden C. story, idea, and textuality
D. ennoble D. action, re-action, and climax

33. Which of the following is NOT generally an ingredient of 43. The dialogue in David’s Mamet’s plays is famous for its
comedy? _____.
A. interpersonal conflicts A. classical aphorisms
B. topical issues B. inclusion of multiple languages
C. fate, suffering and death C. use of fragmented everyday speech
D. verbal and sexual playfulness D. silence

34. Which of the following is NOT a genre of theater 44. The Pulitzer Prize and Tony Award winner and author of
developed in the pre-modern era of theater? Angels in America and Homebody/Kabul is _____.
A. history play A. David Henry Hwang
B. interlude B. Tony Kushner
C. mystery play C. Neil LaBute
D. absurdist play D. David Mamet
45. The playwright who is called “Chicago” playwright is ___. 55. The craft of acting includes these two fundamental
A. Edward Albee features _____.
B. Susan Lori Parks A. mind and body
C. David Mamet B. speaking and singing
D. Neil LaBute C. an expressive voice and a supple body
D. good intellect and strong emotions
46. _____ was rated “as exciting as any new play from a
young American since Tony Kushner’s Angels in America.” 56. The third acting ingredient is _____.
A. The Sinners’ Place A. mind
B. M. Butterfly B. emotion
C. Homebody/Kabul C. presence
D. Topdog/Underdog D. the ability to cry on demand

47. David Hwang’s M. Butterfly interweaves _____. 57. Contemporary actor training has two distinct phases
A. Western romanticism which are _____.
B. Asian theater A. studying the text and analyzing the context
C. Chinese opera B. feeling the emotions and expressing the actions
D. All of the answers are correct. C. the development of the actor’s instrument and the method
of approaching a role
48. Who was the first known actor? D. conditioning the body and the mind
A. Hermes
B. Thespis 58. The basic elements of voice for the actor are _____.
C. Oedipus A. articulation, pronunciation, and phrasing
D. Sophocles B. speaking, singing, and shouting
C. mind, body, and spirit
49. The form of acting that begins with the instructional D. breathing, phonation, and resonance
process, lessons, and drills is _____.
A. classical 59. After vocal training, the second element of the actor’s
B. representational physiological instrument is _____.
C. planned A. movement
D. external B. singing
C. stage combat training
50. The kind of acting where the actor feels the characters is D. dance
____.
A. internal 60. Which of the following is NOT part of actor’s
B. presentational psychological instrument?
C. intense A. imagination and willingness to use it
D. romantic B. discipline
C. stage fright
51. The Roman poet Horace said in order to move the D. creates role uniquely
audience, first you must _____.
A. show your emotions 61. The actor’s zadacha means the character’s _____.
B. play serious characters A. character
C. be moved yourself B. goal
D. by physically interesting C. lines
D. cues
52. The Frenchman who said actors must play from thought
was _____. 62. The actor’s professional routine consists of _____.
A. Moliere A. agents, contracts, and salaries
B. Jean Paul Belmondo B. auditions, rehearsals, and performances
C. Denis Diderot C. lines, memorization, and performing
D. Beaumarchais D. blocking, mounting, and polishing

53. The acting teacher who said the actor must seek to solve 63. For an actor, the rehearsals of a play are _____.
the “character’s problem” was _____. A. boring repetitions to be endured
A. Stanislavsky B. a time to get everything right
B. Tchaikovsky C. a time for creative experimentation
C. Chekhov D. when the director controls everything
D. Meyerhold
64. Fine acting demands _____.
54. The Actor Studio was made famous by _____. A. being in the union
A. Theodule Ribot B. acting for its own sake
B. Sanford Meisner C. knowing nothing but acting
C. Lee Strasberg D. an open mind
D. Stella Adler
65. The first known comedies were written by _____ who set A. day-to-day observation
the recipe for future comedies. B. an informal reading inventory
A. Sophocles C. a diagnostic test
B. Aristophanes D. a standardized achievement test
C. Euminides
D. Euripedes 10. Written accounts of specific classroom incidents are
called _____.
TEACHING READING A. informal reading inventories
B. portfolios
1. A technique that encourages students to think deeply C. anecdotal records
about words _____. D. running records
A. writing the words ten times each
B. looking up dictionary definitions 11. Portfolio assessment _____.
C. filling out workbook exercises related to the words A. uses samples of student’s work
D. class discussion B. is useful for assigning grades in percentages
C. is based on standardized test scores
2. Concepts can be learned through ______. D. does all of these
A. vicarious experiences
B. concrete experiences 12. A type of test that gives percentile ranks is a/an _____.
C. both and A and B A. running record
D. neither A nor B B. standardized test
C. informal reading inventory
D. criterion-referenced test
3. Vocabulary instruction should take place _____.
A. only in reading and language arts classes
B. only once a week 13. The characteristics of literature-based and language-
C. throughout the day in all classes integrated series include _____.
D. all of these A. primarily short excerpts from well-written stories
B. heavy focus on skill development
4. Classifying words into categories supplied by the teacher C. high-quality literature selections
is doing _____. D. all of these
A. closed-ended sorts
B. open-ended sorts
C. both A and B 14. In literature logs, students record _____.
D. neither A nor B A. personal interpretations
B. questions that arise from reading
5. What is true of a rubric? C. both A and B
A. It provides specific criteria for describing student D. neither A nor B
performance.
B. It gives frustration, instructional, independent, and capacity 15. At the heart of a literature-based reading program are __.
levels. A. language experience stories
C. It is a norm-referenced test. B. workbooks
D. It measures skill mastery. C. trade books
D. none of these
6. All of the following tests can be constructed by the
classroom teacher EXCEPT _____. 16. Students may respond to literature through the following
A. oral reading checklist EXCEPT:
B. norm-referenced test A. group discussions
C. informal reading inventory B. sentence diagram
D. sight vocabulary test C. creative dramatics
D. literature logs
7. Methods for identifying the difficulty of texts include ___.
A. cloze tests 17. The teacher can evaluate students’ progress in literature-
B. text leveling based programs _____.
C. readability tests A. by listening to the children’s book talks
D. all of these B. through a portfolio approach
C. with checklists of important reading behaviors
8. Alternative assessment includes all of the following D. all of these
EXCEPT:
A. checklists 18. Which of the following are good types of words to teach
B. standardized tests as sight words?
C. rubrics A. extremely useful words
D. informal reading inventories B. irregularly spelled words
C. Words which are meaningful to children.
9. The most useful type of assessment for classroom D. all of these
teachers is _____.
19. To use a dictionary, a student must know _____.
 A. alphabetic order B. indention
B. how to use guide words C. numerals
C. how to interpret the pronunciation D. letters
D. all of these
30. When using databases, students _____.
20. One recommended technique to encourage students to A. collect and organize data
read voluntarily is _____. B. decide on key words to access the data
A. providing them array of reading materials C. pose questions
B. allowing them to read only when they like to read D. all of these
C. showing them videos about the importance of reading
books 31. Teaching study skills is the responsibility of _____.
D. setting aside a time for them to read daily from freely A. the primary-grade teacher
selected material B. the intermediate-grade teacher
C. A only
21. Children’s Choices is a list of _____. D. both A and B
A. best-selling books for children
B. books liked by children, compiled by 10, 000 children 32. Activities that help develop readiness for outlining include
C. children’s classics _____.
D. books recommended by librarians for children A. categorization activities
B. forming arrays for stories
22. Which of the following is true of journal writing? C. B only
A. Teachers correct spelling in journals. D. both A and B
B. Teachers grade journals.
C. Writers may choose their own topics. 33. Comprehension monitoring should be taught through
D. None of theses _____.
A. the cloze procedure
23. During readers’ theater, students _____. B. worksheets
A. read aloud dramatically from a script C. teacher modeling
B. memorize a script and then play their parts D. none of these
C. improvise a scene from a familiar story
D. rewrite a story into play form 34. The reading act is composed of the following two main
parts _____.
24. The first stage in a writing workshop is _____. A. visual and tactile aspects
A. a minilesson B. visual and auditory aspects
B. the status-of-the-class conference C. the reading process and the reading product
C. group share D. none of these
D. writing
35. The following are aspects of the reading process
25. In the drafting stage of the writing process, writers _____. EXCEPT:
A. make revisions A. associational aspects
B. carefully observe the rules of grammar and spelling B. structural aspects
C. confer with their peers C. experience aspects
D. search for the topic D. perceptual aspects

26. The retention of ideas in materials is helped by the 36. All of the following are effective aspects of the reading
following EXCEPT _____. process EXCEPT:
A. discussing the material A. attitude
B. reading all materials as rapidly as possible B. hearing
C. assigning purposes for reading C. self-concept
D. giving the students time to reflect on the materials D. interest

27. All of the following is helpful in using reference books
EXCEPT _____.
A. The ability to use guide words
B. Knowledge of alphabetical order
C. The ability to interpret the scale of a map
D. The knowledge of the structural analysis and context clues
28. An appropriate guideline for note taking is to _____.
A. never use complete sentences in notes
B. copy every of the section of each reference used
C. include bibliographic references with each note
D. none of these
29. In outlines, levels of subordination are indicated by using
of the following EXCEPT:
A. spaces
37. Children are likely to develop positive attitudes toward
reading EXCEPT:
A. when their peers view reading in a positive way
B. when parents read in the home
C. when parents provide them with reading materials
D. when parents are formally educated and can afford to
provide children reading materials
38. The refinement of a person’s reading skills should _____.
A. end after high school
B. end after sixth grade
C. end after third grade
D. never end
39. The teacher is responsible for the following EXCEPT:
A. understanding the range of technology available
B. evaluating technological applications D. none of these
C. integrating technology into the classroom
D. designing new technological systems 50. Students or pupils can use email to _____.
A. interact with adult mentors (for example, university
40. Teachers need to ask which of the following about each students)
potential application of technology in the curriculum EXCEPT: B. interact with authors of children’s books
A. Is it cost effective? C. hold discussions with students in other parts of the world
B. Is it easy to implement? D. all of these
C. Is it instructionally sound?
D. Is it simple and easy to execute? 51. The sentence “Jane has her dog with her” includes a/an
_____.
41. Basic kinds of CAI currently used for reading instruction A. restrictive clause
include _____. B. anaphoric relationship
A. drill and practice C. figurative expression
B. tutorial D. relative clause
C. both A and B
D. neither a nor B 52. You can tell a fact from an opinion by whether _____.
A. you agree with it
42. Database programs _____. B. it appears in print
A. require few reading skills C. it is verifiable
B. are too difficult for elementary students to use D. it is in quotes
C. ask students to provide keywords for efficient data access
D. none of these 53. Anticipation guides _____.
A. are designed to stimulate thinking
43. Instructional transparencies _____. B. are useful in prereading devices
A. provide an efficient way to present some class materials C. both A and B
B. are useful only to artistic teachers D. neither A nor B
C. are outdated and have no value in today’s classrooms
D. none of these 54. Relating new vocabulary to students’ experiences ____.
A. is not feasible in the classroom
44. Instructional television programs _____. B. detracts from the acquisition of vocabulary
A. are generally a waste of class time C. enhances the acquisition of vocabulary
B. can serve as a basis for note taking and report writing D. has no effect on the acquisition of vocabulary
C. have few literacy applications
D. none of these 55. All of the following are context clues to word meaning
EXCEPT:
45. Audio and videotapes _____. A. definition clues
A. have value for assessment purposes B. appositive clues
B. are useful for recording class presentations C. punctuation clues
C. require equipment that is rarely available in classrooms D. comparison and contrast clues
D. all of these
56. Which of the following is an example of analogy?
46. CD-ROMs can _____. A. the wind spoke softly into her ear
A. store large amounts of text, audio, and video information in B. the girl was as pretty as a picture
relatively little space C. soft is to hard as good is to bad
B. provide high-quality images and sound D. none of these
C. be assessed in nonlinear fashion
D. all of these 57. The following can help children discover the meanings of
unfamiliar words EXCEPT:
47. Use of spelling and grammar checkers _____. A. context clues
A. encourages sloppy work B. phonics clues
B. involves a critical reading activity C. structure clues
C. is basically rote learning D. none of the above
D. none of these
58. Which of the following aspects related to readers affect/s
48. Word-processing software _____. comprehension?
A. often encourages students to write longer pieces than they A. attitudes
do with pencil and paper B. schemata
B. can be used with the language experience approach C. sensory and perceptual abilities
C. takes much labor out of editing and revising D. all of these
D. all of these
59. The reading situation involves the _____.
49. Students or pupils _____. A. importance of the reading task for the reader
A. have no valid reasons to use the Internet B. audience for the reading
B. can use the Internet to collect material for unit studies C. purposes for the reading
C. can use the Internet with complete confidence in the D. all of these
material posted to Web sites
60. The following are special problems in reading IV. Providing frequent opportunities for the students to use
mathematics EXCEPT: their new vocabulary words
A. interpreting abbreviations V. Having the students look up definitions in the dictionary
B. understanding a different symbol system and write them several times
C. interpreting story problems
D. understanding the words in the math problems A. I, II, II
B. II, IV, V
61. In comparison to content-area texts, basal readers ___. C. I, III, V
A. contain large numbers of graphic aids D. II, III, IV
B. are more difficult to read
C. include more planned repetition of new vocabulary JOURNALISM
D. are high in idea density
1. Which phrase describes a feature?
61. The content of language arts block includes _____. A. A hard news story
A. writing
B. reading
B. Any story that informs the reader
C. speaking C. A soft news story
D. all of these D. Any short newspaper article

62. Which of the following statements about study guides
is/are true?
A. They provide purposes for reading the assignments
B. All members of the class should use the same one.
C. They should contain only literal-level questions.
D. none of these
63. Of the following words, the one that contains a soft c
sound is _____.
A. cent
B. cannon
C. cat
D. cute
64. Which of the following statements about the directed
reading-thinking activity is/are true?
A. It encourages children to think while they read.
B. It can be used with basal reader stories.
C. It can be used with basal reader stories.
D. all of these
2. What is a lead?
A. The main idea of a feature story
B. A piece of information that attracts and keeps the
reader interested
C. A point in the story where the reader loses interest
D. The angle of a story
3. A summary lead contains _____.
A. A direct quote
B. Instructions on how to read the story
C. The most important facts of the story
D. A list of all the sources quoted in the story
4. What is soft news?
A. News that’s based on opinions, not facts
B. News that’s entertaining or interesting
C. News that’s circulated on the Internet, not on paper
D. Advice columns

65. A single vowel preceding an r _____. 5. What is hard news?

A. usually has a long sound A. News that covers hard to understand topics
B. usually has a short sound B. News that’s based on opinions, not facts
C. is sounded but is neither long or short C. News that affects an everyone
D. is not sounded
D. The only kind of news there is
66. To understand literary passages, children need to be able
to recognize and analyze _____. 6. What do profile stories focus on?
A. themes A. A group’s behavior
B. plots B. An individual
C. characterization C. Celebrity interviews only
D. all of these D. Current events
67. To develop thematic content units, teachers must ___. 7. What is meant by balance in a news story?
A. gather related materials
B. choose instructional procedures and related activities
A. Having several authors write a story
C. decide on goals and objectives B. Getting a lawyer’s opinion before writing an article
D. all of these C. Giving the same amount of space to every
paragraph
68. Which of the following strategies are most appropriate for D. Covering all sides of an issue as fairly as possible
helping students comprehend new vocabulary in nonfiction
texts? 8. Your choice of a source should depend on
I. Writing sentences on the board for the students to copy A. The source’s expertise
II. Studying examples of texts that use the new vocabulary in B. The source’s popularity
context
III. Activating the student’s prior knowledge to develop a
C. The source’s availability
framework for the new vocabulary D. The source’s height and weight

9. What does a direct quotation look like?
A. The new President teased his wife saying that she
was an only good with kids when playing poker with
them.
B. “He loves to buckle,” the TV host declared in a July.
“The new President is not going to give us real
change.”
C. The President has asserted the authority to
assassinate Philippine terror suspects and has tried
to block court challenges of that authority by
invoking “state secrets.”
D. The new President vowed change and roared about
“the fierce urgency of now”.
10. What does a paraphrase look like?
A. The new President teased his wife saying that she
was an only good with kids when playing poker with
them.
B. “He loves to buckle,” the TV host declared in a July.
“The new President is not going to give us real
change.”
C. The President has asserted the authority to
assassinate Philippine terror suspects and has tried
to block court challenges of that authority by
invoking “state secrets.”
D. The new President vowed change and roared about
“the fierce urgency of now”.
11. What does a partial quotes look like?
A. The new President teased his wife saying that she
was an only good with kids when playing poker with
them.
B. “He loves to buckle,” the TV host declared in a July.
“The new President is not going to give us real
change.”
C. The President has asserted the authority to
assassinate Philippine terror suspects and has tried
to block court challenges of that authority by
invoking “state secrets.”
D. The new President vowed change and roared about
“the fierce urgency of now”.
12. What does an orphan quote look like?
A. The new President teased his wife saying that she
was an only good with kids when playing poker with
them.
B. “He loves to buckle,” the TV host declared in a July.
“The new President is not going to give us real
change.”
C. The President has asserted the authority to
assassinate Philippine terror suspects and has tried
to block court challenges of that authority by
invoking “state secrets.”
D. The new President vowed change and roared about
“the fierce urgency of now”.
13. What is an editorial?
A. An opinion piece that uses the pronoun "I"
B. The process when an editor works with unfinished
story
C. A part of the writing process
D. The job that reporter's get when they are promoted
14. What is libel?
A. Publishing a false statement that damages
someone’s reputation
B. A tendency to do something
C. Publishing private information about a person
D. Use of outside editors
15. What is defamation?
A. Publishing unflattering reports about someone
B. An invasion of privacy
C. A clearly labeled personal opinion
D. An untruthful accusation that lowers someone’s
reputation
16. At the prewriting stage, the reporters should
a. identify a central point and have a good kicker in
mind.
b. identify a central point and prepare a brief outline.
c. prepare a brief outline and select the quotations to
use.
d. have the story completely drafted in their head.
17. The central point of a news story is
a. a justification for running the story on the front page
or the beginning of a news broadcast.
b. the identity of the most important figure of the story.
c. to get readers to read the rest of the newspaper or
viewers to watch the rest of the news broadcast.
d. a one- or two-sentence summary of what the story is
about and why it is newsworthy.
18. The reason for constructing a brief outline for a
news story is to
a. help decide where the various pieces of information
the reporter has collected belong in the story.
b. enable the reporter to guess how long the finished
story will be.
c. enable the layout editor to guess how long the
finished story will be.
d. let the managing editor know that the reporter has a
story in progress.
19. Research has shown that 75 percent of readers are
able to understand sentences that average ___
a. 20 words in length.
b. 40 words in length.
c. 60 words in length.
d. 80 words in length.
20. Reporters strive to
a. eliminate all long sentences from their writing.
b. combine short and long sentences in a manner that
would be pleasing if read aloud.
c. keep all sentences to 10 words or fewer.
d. keep all sentences to 15 words or more.
21. The problem with phrases like “dead body” and
“unexpected surprise” is that they are ___
a. short.
b. clichés.
c. redundant.
d. too descriptive.

22. Because newspapers use small type and narrow

columns, reporters strive to write
a. without paragraph breaks.
b. stories with no more than three paragraphs.
c. paragraphs that are no more than one sentence in
length.
d. short paragraphs.

23. For journalists, being objective means that the

reporter
a. remains completely emotionless about all aspects of
the story.
b. incorporates an equal number of quotations from
Republicans and Democrats.
c. makes clear his or her opinion about the events
covered.
d. is not an advocate for a point of view or a participant
in the events covered.

24. Good reporters strive to

a. let readers draw their own conclusions about the
story.
b. let readers know what their opinions are about the
story.
c. tell readers what they should think about the story.
d. tell readers what public officials want them to think
about the story.

25. “Ageism” is the practice of

a. stereotyping the elderly as rich, greedy and
unconcerned about the problems of younger
people.
b. portraying older people as more experienced and,
therefore, more knowledgeable than others.
c. stereotyping the elderly as lonely, inactive,
unproductive, poor, passive, weak and sick.
d. portraying older people as being able to perform any
task younger people can perform.

26. Including in news stories descriptions of the

appearance and dress of women but not doing so for
men is an example of _____.
a. sexism.
b. good news judgment.
c. attention to detail.
d. carelessness.

27. The race or ethnicity of people involved in news

stories should be included
a. in all instances because it helps readers visualize
the people.
b. only when it is clearly relevant to the story.