English Reviewer 1

SPECIALIZATION
ENGLISH
A REVIEWER FOR LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS
STRUCTURE
1. The underlined verbs in the following sentences are classified as _____.

The time is now.
The world became flesh.
We remain silent.
A. intransitive C. transitive
B. reflexive D. ascriptive
2. The word “just” in the sentence below indicates ___.

“She has just eaten.”
A. an action that was true in the past and is still
relevant to the present
B. a recently completed action
C. an action which was completed before another past
action
D. an action continuing at a given point in time
3. What type of mood is indicated in this sentence?

“How did you come to know about that tragic event?”
A. indicative C. imperative
B. subjunctive D. directive
4. Which of the following is a gradable adjective?

A. absolute C. complete
B. clear D. impossible
5. Which sentence has ditransitive verb?

A. Those guys are highly intelligent group of engineers.
B. Those mean boys tried to throw a rock through our
windows.
C. Nobody will believe a ruffian like you.
D. My mother gave me this cardigan for Christmas.
6. Which approach to language teaching is based on the behaviorist’s belief that

language is the acquisition of a set of correct language habits and whose goal is to use
the target language communicatively, overlearn it, so as to be able to use it
automatically.
A. Direct Method
B. Communicative Approach
C. Suggestopedia
D. Audio-Lingual Method
7. The following contain operator verbs EXCEPT:

A. My father approves your marriage proposal.
B. Will your father approve my marriage proposal?
C. My father won’t approve your marriage proposal.
D. Your father will approve my marriage proposal,
won’t he?
8. The President himself promised to stop the war. The underlined word is ______
pronoun.
A. an interrogative C. a reflexive
B. an intensive D. a reciprocal
9. Which of the following sentences does NOT observe correct subject-verb

agreement?
A. The mayor as well as his brothers is going to prison.
B. Neither of the two traffic lights is working.
C. My assets were wiped out in the depression.
D. Neither the plates nor the serving bowl go on that
shelf.
10. The underlined word in this sentence functions as _____.

“We elected him chairman.”
A. direct object
B. indirect object
C. objective complement
D. predicate nominative
11. Why do most fathers prefer a son ___ a daughter for his first-born child?
A. to C. from
B. than D. over
12. Which sentence has error in punctuation?

A. “You’re a great friend,” Jose said.
B. Judith, my best friend went to a concert last Friday.
C. I have a lot of work to do; as such, I left for work a
few minutes early.
D. According to the radio, surface streets were the best
alternative to the congested freeways.
13. Unprepared for such a strong rebuttal, _____.

A. the lawyer’s attempt won the case
B. the lawyer’s attempt failed but still win the case
C. the lawyer failed to win the case
D. the lawyer failed in his attempt to win the case
14. ______ on the MTRCB to take action.
A. Whenever television is denounced by viewers for its
violence, they call
B. Whenever television is denounced for it violence,
viewers call
C. Whenever viewers denounce television for its
violence, they call
D. Whenever a denunciation of television is voiced,
they call
15. The following are true about Communicative Competence Language Teaching
EXCEPT:
A. Language is seen as a social tool that speakers use
to make meaning.
B. Diversity is recognized and accepted as part of
language development.
C. A fixed set of techniques and methodology is
prescribed.
D. More than one variety of a language is recognized
as a viable model for learning and teaching.
16. Which of the following statements about sentence structure is NOT correct?
A. Two words that belong to the same category can
substitute each other in a sentence.
B. There are restrictions on how the words can
combine to form grammatical phrases.
C. Lexical categories can expand into bigger strings of
words called “phrasal categories.”
D. The distribution of a word in a sentence structure
determines its function.
17. If I ____ that learning Russian was going to be so difficult, I _____ that course.
A. had known / would never take
B. knew / would never take
C. had known / would never have taken
D. knew / would never have taken
18. By the end of the course the students _________ the most important grammar
structures.
A. have mastered C. have been mastering
B. will have mastered D. are mastering
19. Which adjective is predicative in this sentence “The crispy green mangoes as a
souvenir gift by my favorite cousin really look delicious”?
A. green C. favorite
B. crispy D. delicious
20. The conjuncts in this sentence are _____.

“Binoy is a man who does not have money but who wants to travel the world.”
A. sentences C. relative pronouns
B. relative clauses D. independent clauses
21. Which of the following sentences is prescriptively correct because it is easy to

handle?
A. Every student submitted his or her research paper
on time.
B. Everyone submitted their projects on time.
C. Every student submitted his/her research paper on
time.
D. All the students submitted their projects on time.
22. Grammar may be taught in two main ways – by experience with discourse that
entails the varieties of word forms and sentence construction, or by analyzing dummy
sentences and diagramming parts. Plentiful discursive experience is what really teaches
grammar, for it exercises judgment and provides language intake, whereas formal
grammar study has been proved irrelevant. Politics more than pedagogy retards the
changing of the curriculum to fit this truth.
A. using language in a wide variety of situations
improves grammar
B. good judgment can be improved by studying the
rules of formal grammar
C. analyzing and diagramming provide exercise in
logical thinking
D. formal study of grammar improves writing ability
23. Which of the following types of words does NOT fit into the category of determiners?
A. articles C. prepositions
B. possessives D. demonstratives
24. The following used “off” as adverb EXCEPT:

A. march off C. shut off the engine
B. dozed off D. two miles off shore
25. What preposition is NOT properly used in the following sentences?

A. I will wait in the car.
B. The man in the boat is a fugitive.
C. Few guys in the train are rowdy.
D. I slept 8 hours on the ship.
LINGUISTICS
1. Which of the following sentences is “syntactically ambiguous”?
A. Call him by his nickname.
B. Give him a good treat.
C. Give them the accommodation they want.
D. Call me a cab.
2. They view the language as a system of related elements or “building blocks” for the
encoding of meaning, the elements being phonemes (sounds), morphemes (words),
tagmemes (phrases, sentences, clauses).
A. structuralists
B. transformationalists
C. functionalists
D. interactionalists
3. Which of the following sounds are produced by bringing the articulators near each
other such that the flow of air is impeded but not completely blocked. The air flow
through the narrow opening creates friction.
A. p,b,t,d,k,g
B. f,v,Ɵ,ð,s,z,š,ẑ,h
C. m,n,ŋ
D. l,r
4. Which is the study of larger linguistic units, such as conversational exchanges or

written texts?
B. Stylistics
C. Genre Analysis
D. Discourse Analysis
E. Pragmatics
5. Which of the following is an example derivational morpheme?

A. helpful
B. stays
C. eaten
D. longest
6. What is made use in this example “I told Paul to close the door and he did so”?
A. homonymy
B. anaphora
C. deixis
D. hyponymy
7. What category of illocutionary act is demonstrated in the following example?

“Recession will worsen in Europe in the next five years.”
A. representative
B. commissive
C. directive
D. expressive
8. What conversation maxim seems to have been violated in the following example?
A: How was the LET?
B: Well, the proctor is my former college professor.
A. maxim of quantity
B. maxim of quality
C. maxim of relation
D. maxim of manner
9. This type of language is used to describe the kind of language a learner uses at a
given time, that is, his version of a given language, which deviates in certain ways from
the language of a mature speaker.
A. dialect
B. native language
C. holophrastic speech
D. interlanguage
10. According to cognitivists, errors in second language learning is considered _____.

A. basis for testing
B. part of learning process
C. as proofs of unsystematic way of learning
D. not part of natural progression in acquisition of
English
11. What aptly describes “universal grammar”?

A. language used for communication by people who
speak different first languages
B. rules applicable to all human languages
C. language with the same vocabulary, grammar, and
pronunciation
D. rules of grammar that distinguish one language from
the others
12. If the second language learner “assimilates”, then he _____.

A. maintains its own life style and values and rejects
those of the target language group
B. adapts to the life style and values of the target
language group but maintains its own life style and
values for the intragroup use.
C. gives up his own life style and values and adopts
those of the target language group
D. maximizes the use of his first language and the
target language
13. The following are the areas of knowledge and skills of communicative competence
EXCEPT _____
A. grammatical competence
B. sociolinguistic competence
C. discourse competence
D. structural competence
14. Speaker A’s final remark functions as _____.

Speaker A: That’s the telephone.
Speaker B: I’m in the bath.
Speaker A: OK.
A. a request to answer the phone

B. an excuse for not complying
C. acceptance of an excuse
D. sarcasm
15. What is strategy is used by the second language learner in the following situation”
“The student forgot the English term “train station”. He used the phrase “the place for
trains” instead.
A. inference
B. paraphrase
C. generalization
D. adaptation
16. Which theory of language origin claims that a number of words in any language are
onomatopoeic?
A. Divine Source Theory
B. Natural-Sound Source Theory
C. Oral-Gesture Source Theory
D. Glossogenetics Theory
17. Which of the following best describes a “phrase”?

A. a sequence of words that does not express a
complete thought
B. a sequence of words that can function as a
sentence constituent
C. a sequence of words that contains only a subject
and no predicate
D. a sequence of words that contains only a predicate
and no subject
18. The following can function as “intensive verbs” EXCEPT:

A. seem
B. become
C. remain
D. make
19. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about the language
acquisition process of young children?
A. Young children understand full sentences at a
relatively late stage in language development.
B. Young children exhibit random, highly variable
errors in sentence construction.
C. Young children infer the underlying rules of
language to which they are exposed.
D. Young children require planned early instructional
intervention to master the grammar of the English
language.
20. Which of the following pair of words demonstrate that different letter combinations
can represent the same speech sound?
A. church…chorus
B. bow…bow
C. hot…cold
D. phone…laugh
21. How many phonemes are in the word “shed”?

A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
22. An ESL teacher is designing a listening lesson for sixth-grade intermediate-level

English language learners. Which of the following guidelines should the teacher follow
in order to align the lesson with the comprehensible input hypothesis?
A. Use a familiar aural selection appropriate for
beginning-level students.
B. Choose an aural selection that is slightly above the
students' comprehension level.
C. Provide a difficult aural selection along with a written
script to which students can refer.
D. Locate an aural selection that comes with a written
translation in the students' primary language.
23. Which of the following is true about semantics?

A. Semantics will sharpen the effect and meaning of a
text
B. Semantics refers to the meaning expressed when
words are arranged in a specific way
C. Semantics is a vocabulary instruction technique
D. Semantics is representing spoken language through
the use of symbols
24. Which generalization in the area of phonology can be drawn from the following
linguistic data: table, attack, can, paper, space, and accordion?
A. A voiceless stop is aspirated if it begins a syllable of
a stressed vowel.
B. A voiceless stop is aspirated if it follows a stressed
vowel.
C. A voiceless stop is aspirated if it is in between a
consonant and a tense vowel.
D. A voiceless stop is aspirated if it is in between a
stressed vowel and a voiced consonant.
25. Lexical ambiguity is best exemplified by which of the following sentences?

A. Is the bank okay?
B. Where did he place my knapsack?
C. What is the commotion about?
D. How is she coping with the difficult situation?
ESP
1. Which of the following words qualifies as slang?

A. spyware
B. scrub suit
C. phat
D. chat
2. Which of the following linguists introduced the term “register” in 1956?

A. Thomas Bertram Reid
B. M.A.K. Halliday
C. Henry Widdowson
D. Robert lado
3. Which of the following is a jargon of academe?

A. pedagogy
B. leveraging
C. bureaucracy
D. deficit
4. Which is an example of course for English for Occupational Purposes (EOP)?

A. English for Medical Studies
B. English for Research Writing
C. English for Social Advocacy
D. English for Technicians
5. Who defined ESP by identifying its absolute and variable characteristics?

A. Tony Dudley-Evans
B. Tom Hutchinson
C. Peter Strevens
D. David Nunan
6. What is an “argot”?
A. an inferior dialect resulting from corrupting a
particular language
B. an euphemistic expression used by a particular
group of individuals
C. an informal specialized vocabulary related to a
hobby, job, sport, etc.
D. an invented language resulting from geographical
isolation
7. What type of ESP syllabus is appropriate for a course in writing business letters or a
course in presenting business reports?
A. content-based syllabus
B. skill-based syllabus
C. method-based syllabus
D. language skill-based syllabus
8. The following stages are necessary in course designing in ESP EXCEPT:

A. needs assessment
B. determining goals and objective
C. content conceptualization
D. role and task specification
9. What type of syllabus would be the most appropriate for Chinese nationals who came
to the Philippines to enhance their Basic Interpersonal Communications Skills in
English?
A. skills-based syllabus
B. method-based syllabus
C. content-based syllabus
D. knowledge-based syllabus
10. This type of scoring in ESP tests aims to evaluate the students’ overall performance.
A. analytic scoring
B. discreet-point scoring
C. holistic scoring
D. objective scoring
ENGLISH LITERATURE
1. What is the rhyme scheme or sound pattern of these poetic lines?
How do I love thee? Let me count the ways.

I love thee to the depth and breadth and height.
-Sonnets from the Portuguese (Sonnet 43), Elizabeth Browning
A. anapestic hexameter
B. iambic pentameter
C. trochaic pentameter
D. spondaic tetrameter
2. Analyzing the lines of the sonnet, “thee” refers to __.

A. the Little Portuguese
B. Elizabeth’s dead brother
C. Elizabeth’s husband-to-be
D. the sonneteer’s mother
3. The repetition of the poetic unit “I love the” at the beginning of the lines is an
evidence of _____.
I love thee to the depth and breadth and height. 2

I love the to the level of everyday’s 5
I love thee freely, as men strive for right; 7
I love thee purely, as they turn from praise. 8
I love thee with a passion put to use 9
I love thee with a love I seemed to lose. 11
-Sonnets from the Portuguese (Sonnet 43), Elizabeth Browning
A. the use of anaphora

B. the use of anastrophe
C. the repetition of phrases
D. the omission of rhythmic pattern
4. Which of this portrays a development of love and relationship between the poet or
poetess and his or her partner?
A. Wordsworth’s She Was a Phantom of Delight
B. Browning’s Sonnets from a Portuguese
C. Jane Austen’s Pride and Prejudice
D. Both A and B
5. What does the author want to portray in this stanza?
Do not go gentle into that good night,

Old age should burn and rave at close of day;
Rage, rage against the dying of the light.
-Do Not Go Gentle into That Good Night, Dylan Thomas
A. Don’t be afraid of the dark.

B. Old people could hardly sleep at night.
C. Defy death.
D. The aged are wiser than the young.
6. In discussing the various aspects of studies, Francis Bacon employs what is known
as the “balanced style.” In this given argument, the word crafty likely pertains to _____.
“Crafty men condemn studies; simple men admire them, and wise men use them;
for they teach not their own use, but that is wisdom without them and above them, won
by observation.”
A. wicked people who corrupted the minds of the
young
B. people who prefer practical knowledge and skills
C. the mini-sectors or the scholars of the society
D. the philosophers who study ideas about truth and
meaning of life
7. The following are writers and poets who wrote about queen Elizabeth or dedicated
their works to her EXCEPT:
A. Henry Fielding
B. Alexander Pope
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
8. He created the character of Scrooge in “A Christmas Carol” as a way of raising the

issue of whether wealth really brought true happiness.
A. George Eliot B. Charles Dickens
C. Lewis Carroll
D. Thomas Hardy
9. The following are writers of the Romantic Period EXCEPT _____.

A. Charlotte Bronte B. William Wordsworth
C. Samuel Taylor Coleridge
D. William Blake
10.The word “renaissance” is ______.

A. French for rebirth B. Latin for new idea
C. German for freedom
D. Old English for revival
11. How much did William Shakespeare write?

A. 1 play, 38 sonnets, and 154 epic narrative poems
B. 54 plays, 5 sonnets, and 38 epic narrative plays
C. 54 plays, 38 sonnets, and 5 epic narrative poems
D. 38 plays, 154 sonnets, and 2 epic narrative poems
12. Which of these phrases appears on William Shakespeare’s gravestone?

A. May the great author rest in peace.
B. He wrote so much that man will take years to
understand everything.
C. He arrived on this earth with nothing. When he died,
he left everything to us.
D. Curst be he that moves my stones.
13. In Shakespeare’s historical narratives, which king of England has been portrayed as
a hunchbacked monster of unparalleled villainy?
A. Edward VI
B, Henry VI
C. Edward V
D. Richard III
14. All of the following novels were written in the 19th century EXCEPT _______.
A. Pride and Prejudice B. Hard Times
C. Gulliver’s Travels D. Lorna Doone
15. Who is responsible for the now immortal line “Beauty is truth, truth beauty – that is
all / Ye know on earth, and all ye need to know”?
A. John Keats
B. Lord Byron
C. William Shakespeare
D. William Wordsworth
16. He was the champion of the “art for art’s sake” philosophy, which means, roughly,
that the aesthetic (or beauty) operates independently of any other consideration.
A. Robert Louis
B. Oscar Wilde
C. Robert Browning
D. Charles Dickens
17. It is one-verse poem composed by Alfred Tennyson which consists of forty-nine

lines and illustrates the fluidity of life. It also speaks about how change is constant, and
therefore life is filled with small deaths until the whole of life completely dies.
A. All Things Will Die B. Nothing Will Die
C. The Unknown Citizen
D. The Builders
18. The “Illustrious Theater of Paris” _____.

A. presented pantomimes and pastiches
B. was founded by Moliere
C. featured elaborate sets and costumes
D. emphasized the classics and Shakespeare
19. She was a Victorian era writer who wrote the novel “Aurora Leigh” which criticized
society’s treatment of women.
A. Emily Bronte B. Charlotte Bronte
C. Elizabeth Browning
D. Doris Lessing
20. Mary Ann Evans whose pen name was George Eliot wrote her famous work which
deals with the predicament of the intelligent, idealistic woman struggling to find
meaningful expression in a community where the options are claustrophobically
traditional.
A. Murder on the Orient B. Sense and Sensibility
C. Frankenstein
D. Middlemarch
21. From what essay of Francis Bacon is this line taken?

“If a man will begin with certainties, he shall end in doubts; but if he will be
content to begin with doubts, he shall end in certainties.”
A. Of Studies
B. Of marriage and single Life
C. Of Marriage and Single Life
D. Advancement of Learning
22. He is a novelist and essayist noted for his “Midnight’s Children” and “The Satanic
Verses” which prompted Iran’s Ayatollah Khomeini to issue a fatwa against him,
because Muslims considered the book blasphemous.
A. Thomas Paine B. William Bradford
C. Washington Irving
D. H.G. Wells
23. The following writers wrote romance and adventure stories EXCEPT _____.
A. Robert Louis Stevenson B. Rudyard Kipling
C. Lewis Carroll
D. George Bernard Shaw
She never told her,

But let concealment, like a worm I’th’ bud,
Feed on her damask cheek. She pined in thought,
And with a green and yellow melancholy
She sat like patience on a monument,
Smiling at grief. Was not this love indeed?
24. The passage was written by _____.

A. Christopher Marlowe
B. William Shakespeare
C. Ben Johnson
D. John Webster
25. Who wrote this line “Where ignorance is bliss, it is folly to be wise”?
a. Robert Browning
b. William Shakespeare
c. Rudyard Kipling
d. Edgar Allan Poe
26. What nationality was Robert Louis Stevenson, writer of “Treasure Island”?
A. English
B. Welsh
C. Irish
D. Scottish
27. Which Bronte writer authored “Jane Eyre”?

A. Charlotte
B. Emily
C. Cristina
D. Anne
28. In which century were Geoffrey Chaucer’s Canterbury Tales written?

A. 14th
B. 15th
C. 16th
D. 17th
29. What literary piece which opens with the line ‘All children, except one grew up’?
A. The Jungle Book
B. Tom Sawyer
C. Peter Pan
D. The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn
30. Who was the author of the famous storybook ‘Alice’s Adventures in Wonderland’?
A. H.G. Wells
B. Lewis Carroll
C. Mark Twain
D. E.B. White
31. What work contains these lines: “There hurls in at the hall-door an unknown
rider . . . Half a giant on earth I hold him to be.”
A. Sir Gawain and the Green Knight
B. Morte D’arthur
C. Piers Plowman
D. Canterbury Tales
She Dwelt Among the Untrodden Ways

William Wordsworth
She dwelt among the untrodden ways

Beside the springs of Dove,
A maid whom there were none to praise
And very few to love:
A violet by a mossy stone

Half hidden from the eye!
Fair as a star, when only one
Is shining in the sky.
She lived unknown, and few could know

When Lucy ceased to be;
But she is in her grave, and oh,
The difference to me!
32. The use of the imagination is evident in the poem through the employment simply of
_____.
A. synecdoche and metonymy
B. personification and hyperbole
C. allusion and litotes
D. simile and metaphor
33. Which stanza implies that Lucy is an interesting woman?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
34. In the context of the poem, the emphasis is on ___.

A. curfew
B. fear
C. work
D. loneliness
The curfew tolls the knell of parting day,

The lowing herd wind slowly o’er the lea,
The plowman homeward plods his weary way,
And leaves the world to darkness and to me.
-Thomas Gray’s Elegy written In A Country Churchyard
35. The narrator of this passage is _____.

A. Victor C. the monster
B. Elizabeth D. the author
But how was I direct myself? I knew that I must travel in a southwesterly direction
to reach my destination, but the sun was only guide. I did not know the names of the
towns that I was to pass through, nor could I ask information from a single human being;
but I did not despair. From you only could I hope for succor, although towards you I felt
no sentiment but that of hatred. Unfeeling, heartless creator! You had endowed me with
perceptions and passions and then cast me abroad an object for the scorn and horror of
mankind. But on you only had I any claim for pity and redress, and from you I
determined to seek that justice which I vainly attempted to gain from any other being
that wore the human form. -Frankenstein, Mary Shelley
36. “A part of its orb was at length hid, and I waved my brand; it sank, and with a loud
scream I fired the straw, and heath, and bushes, which I had collected.”
-Frankenstein by Mary Shelley
Which of the following is a correct restatement of the above?
A. When my branding iron sank, I screamed and shot
at the bushes.
B. When the moon set, I screamed and burned the
cottage.
C. When I could not find the orb, I screamed and
kicked at the straw and the bushes.
D. I waited until the sun set, then I screamed and set
fire to the forest.
AMERICAN LITERATURE
1. Some critics say that Arthur Miller’s Death of a Salesman challenges the traditional
definition of tragedy because _____.
A. it ends in tragic death of the protagonist
B. its protagonist is human, not superhuman
C. the struggle is against human, not superhuman
antagonists
D. it is a modern play
2. Widely acclaimed as the father of free verse, he disturbed many literary critics with
his “frankness of expression.”
A. Washington Irving
B. James Cooper
C. Walt Whitman
D. John Milton
3. In his Inaugural Address, how does John F. Kennedy set the tone of his speech?
A. by gloating in his victory over Nixon
B. by opening with comments on renewal and change
C. by humorous remarks about the weather
D. by threatening a show of force if attacked
4. In the same speech, what expression does he use with respect to dealing with the Soviet Union?
A. “let both sides…”
B. “the evil empire…”
C. “ask not what we can do...”
D. “the sleeping giant…”
5. How does John F. Kennedy end his Inaugural Address?
A. by threatening a show of force if attacked
B. with a call to work together for freedom
C. by saluting the flag
D. by leaving a message of thanks for the electoral
support
6. Which of the following works provides a Loyalist interpretation of the Revolution?

A. Increase Mather’s “Case of Conscience”
B. Thomas Jefferson’s “A Summary View of the Rights
of British America”
C. Patrick Henry’s “Give Me Liberty or Give Me Death”
D. Joseph Galloway’s “Historical and Political
Reflections on the Rise and Progress of the
American Rebellion”
7. Which of the following poems is one of the earliest examples of debunking and
disillusionment, reflecting the author’s own impressions of the barbarous colonial
frontier?
A. Philip Freneau’s “On Mr. Paine’s Rights of Man”
B. Henry Wadsworth Longfellow’s “Blind Bartimeus”
C. Ebenezer Cooke’s “The Sot-Weed Factor”
D. William Cullen Bryant’s “Thanatopsis”
Ebenezer Cooke’s “The Sot-Weed Factor” describes the outlandish food and
eating habits, the excessive drinking and fighting, and the admixture of law with
violence, as well as the intellectual poverty and lack of education, that characterized this
time.
8. Which of the following is NOT a character in Mark Twain’s “Adventures of

Huckleberry Finn”?
A. Widow Douglas
B. Pap
C. Tom Canty
D. Jim
9. “We paused before a house that seemed A swelling of the ground; The roof was
scarcely visible, The cornice but a mound.”
In the above passage from Emily Dickinson’s “Because I Could Not Stop for Death,”
the word “house” in the first line depicts which of the following?
A. The house the speaker grew up in
B. A church
C. A school that burned down
D. The speaker’s tomb
10. “The Philosophy of Composition” was Edgar Allan Poe’s follow-up essay detailing
the creation of which of his works?
A. “Annabel Lee”
B. “The Raven”
C. “The Fall of the House of Usher”
D. “To Helen”
11. The famous line “The mass of men leads lives of quiet desperation” was written by
_____.
A. Ralph Waldo Emerson B. Nathaniel Hawthorne
C. Henry David Thoreau
D. Henry Wadsworth Longfellow
12. The novel “Catch 22” by Joseph Heller examines _____.

A. ironic nature of the people’s attitude
B. insanity of war itself
C. people’s hostilities
D. women’s plight
13. F. Scott Fitzgerald explored the consequences of trying to live the American dream,
and questioned society’s definition of success and progress in his novel _____.
A. The Great Gatsby B. The Grapes of Wrath
C. Watching God
D. The Portrait of a Lady
Ships at a distance have every man’s wish on board. For some they come in with
the tide. For others, they sail forever on the horizon, never out of sight, never landing
until the Watcher turns his eyes away in resignation, his dreams mocked to death by
Time. That is the life of men.
Now, women forget all those things they don’t want to remember, and remember
everything they don’t want to forget. The dream is the truth. Then they act and do things
accordingly.
14. In the passage above from Zora Neale Hurston’s Their Eyes Were Watching God,
the narrator implies that men and women are different because of their _____.
A. interest in pleasing others
B. acceptance of social expectations
C. ability to work together to attain their dreams
D. readiness to influence the course of their dreams
15. Which novel, eventually published in 1945, was rejected by a New York publisher
stating ‘it is impossible to sell animal stories in the USA’?
A. Animal Farm
B. Black Beauty
C. Watership Down
D. The Tale of Peter Rabbit
16. ‘The Good Earth’ was rejected fourteen times, before being published and going on
to win the Pulitzer Prize. Who was the author?
A. Pearl S. Buck
B. John Steinbeck
C. Edith Wharton
D. Henry Miller
17. Who is alluded to as Captain in the following lines from Whitman’s poem?
O captain! My captain! Our fearful trip is done,
The ship has weather’d every rack, the prize we sought is won.
A. Abraham Lincoln
B. George Washington
C. John F. Kennedy
D. Thomas Jefferson
The action of _____ appears to stop short of World War II, but the narrator’s
meditation in his underground cellar must be imagined to include this period, which
served in part to crystallize the search for significant advances in black civil rights and
economic opportunity.
18. The novel discussed above is _____.

A. Jazz
B. The Autobiography of an Ex-Coloured Man
C. Cane
D. Invisible Man
I saw the best minds of my generation destroyed by madness, starving hysterical

naked, dragging themselves through the negro streets at dawn looking for an angry fix,
angel-headed hipsters burning for the ancient heavenly connection to the starry dynamo
in the machinery of night.
19. The lines above are from a poem by _____.

A. Theodore Roethke
B. Gwendolyn Brooks
C. Anne Sexton
D. Allen Ginsberg
20. Two versions of Robert A. Heinlein’s novel “Stranger in a Strange Land” have been
published: the edited version first published in 1961 and the original full-length (60,000
words longer) published posthumously in 1991. From what does the title derive?
A. The play “Antony and Cleopatra” by William
Shakespeare
B. The Old Testament Book of Exodus
C. The novel “Gulliver’s Travels” by Jonathan Swift
D. The book “Utopia” by Sir Thomas More
MYHTOLOGY
1. This is the attribution of a human form, human characteristics, or human behavior to

nonhuman things, e.g. deities in mythology and animals in children’s stories.
A. Anthropomorphism
B. Ethereal
C. God-like
D. Anthropocentrism
2. In Greek mythology, she was the most beautiful woman in the world. A daughter of
the god Zeus, she is best known for the part she played in causing the Trojan War.
A. Penelope, queen of Ithaca
B. Persephone, queen of the underworld
C. Helen of Troy
D. Hera, queen of Olympus
3. When Paris abducted Helen to Troy, all the Greek princes were bound by the oath to
help Menelaus recover Helen. Athena and Hera who were not chosen by Paris sided
with the Greeks who sent one thousand ships to Troy. What does this indicate?
A. Serious decisions have serious consequences.
B. Paris was wrong in choosing Aphrodite as winner.
C. Hera and Athena harbored ill feelings.
D. Zeus ordered the goddesses to take side in the war.
4. He is called “the most Greek of all the gods.” He is also called the lord of silver bow
and the archer-god.
A. Mars C. Jupiter
B. Neptune D. Apollo
5. According to this theory of mythopoeic thought, the ancients tend to view things
as persons, not as mere objects; thus, they describe natural events as acts of personal gods,
and giving rise to myths.
A. Allegory
B. Personification
C. Myth-ritual Theory
D. Euhemerism
6. In what mythology a cosmic truth that “all things are simply a part of a greater whole one” is held?
A. Hindu Mythology B. Egyptian Mythology
C. Celtic Mythology
D. Mesopotamian Myth
7. In the study of Scandinavian mythology, this text composed in the 13th century by Snorri
Sturluson is a prose manual for producing skaldic poetry which utilizes alliterative verse, kennings,
and various metrical forms.
A. Prose Edda
B. Attila the Hun C. Gesta Danorum
D. Heimskringla
8. She is often shown seated on a lotus. She is worshipped by many modern Hindus, usually in the
home everyFriday and on the festival days throughout the year.
A. Lakshmi
B. Parvati
C. Durga
D. Kali
9. In Hindu tradition, Vishnu is regarded as the preserver of the universe, while Shiva
as_____.
A. The supreme eternal deity
B. the conqueror
C. The destroyer
D. the monkey god
10. In Canaanite mythology, he is said to be in charge of rain and weather, and that man’s survival is
dependent upon his provision.
A. Baal
B. ElB
C. Dagan
D. Mot
11. He is considered as the Mesopotamian great hero and son of goddess Ninsun whose stories
are told in Sumerianand Babylonian poems.
A. Gilgamesh
B. Enkidu
C. Enuma Elish
D. Anu
12. Which of these does not comprise the four essential functions of mythology as viewed by Joseph
Campbell?
A. Eliciting and supporting a sense of awe before the mystery of
being
B. Supporting the current social order to integrate the individual
organically with his group
C. Initiating the individual into the order of realities of
his own psyche
D. Exploring religious experience through reproducing
the conditions of the mythical age
13. According to the epic poem Enuma Elish, this Mesopotamian god leads the new gods in a battle
against the oldgods. After defeating the gods of chaos and gaining power of a supreme god, he
creates the sky and earth, as well as the first human beings.
A. Tiamat
B. Kingu
C. Marduk
D. Nabu
14. In Hindu mythology, he is traditionally depicted with four heads, four faces and four arms. He also
symbolizes the supreme eternal deity whose essence pervades the entire universe.
A. Brahma
B. Vishnu
C. Shiva
D. Sarasvati
15. He is a symbol of strength, perseverance, devotion, and energy in Hinduism.

A. Hanuman
B. Vanara
C. Ganesh
D. Kali
16. In Norse mythology, dwarfs often act as earthen smiths whereas beings described as jotnar,
thursar, and troll are glossed as_______.
A. Elves
B. Perching Hawks
C. Deities
D. Giants
17. In Egyptian mythology, he is the god of the dead and the ruler of the underworld.
A. Shu
B. Ra
C. Osiris
D. Amun
18. He is the youth loved and accidentally killed by Apollo who memorializes him with a flower
growing from the youth’s blood.
A. Adonis
B. Hyacinthus
C. Narcissus
D. Apollo
19. She is a Phoenician princess carried off by Zeus in the form of a white bull, and the mother of
Minos, Rhadamanthus and Sarpedon.
A. Cassiopeia
B. Hera
C. Europa
D. Demeter
20.A monster shaped half like a man and half like a bull, confined in the labyrinth built by Daedalus
for Minos, andgiven a periodic tribute of youths and maidens as food until slain by Theseus:
A. Gorgon
B. Cyclops
C. Centaur
D. Minotaur
21. He is the brother of Prometheus; a scatterbrained person who follows his

first impulse, and gives all the best gifts to the animals.
A. Epimetheus
B. Polyphemus
C. Telemachus
D. Hercules
22. A fleet-footed huntress who challenges her suitors to a race and is defeated by Hippomenes
when she stops to pick up three golden apples he has dropped:
A. Arethusa
B. Artemis
C. Atalanta
D. Eurydice
23. In Odyssey when a priest and a poet fell on their knees before Odysseus, praying
him to spare their lives, the hero _____ the priest without a thought, but _____ the poet.
A. imprisoned – freed
B. freed – imprisoned
C. killed – saved
D. saved - killed
24. He was an ancient writer who was a compendium of mythology. Most of the books
about the stories of classical mythology depend chiefly upon him.
A. Ovid
B. Hesoid
C. Pindar
D. Aeschylus
25. The following belong to the twelve Olympians EXCEPT _____.

A. Ares B. Athena
C. Hephaestus
D. Cupid
26. Zeus’s breastplate was the _____, his bird was the eagle, his tree the oak, and his
oracle Dodona.
A. thunderbolt
B. lightning
C. aegis
D. majestic shield
27. Poseidon was commonly called _____ and was always carrying his trident, a three-
pronged spear.
A. the great ocean wave
B. the sea monster
C. the mighty
D. the earth-shaker
28. She was the daughter of Zeus alone because no mother bore her. Full grown and in
full armor, she sprang from his head.
A. Aphrodite
B. Athena
C. Demeter
D. Persephone
29. He was one of the great heroes in Trojan War and was held to be the real founder of
Rome.
A. Achilles
B. Odysseus
C. Aeneas
D. Hector
30. In Trojan War, he asked Achilles’ armor for he believed that if the enemies thought
he were Achilles, the Trojans may pause and the worn-out Greeks would have
breathing space.
A. Patroclus
B. Ajax
C. Agamemnon
D. Menelaus
31. Whose wily mind thought of the stratagem of the wooden horse that is often alluded
to have caused the Trojans’ defeat against the Greeks?
A. Achilles
B. Aeneas
C. Menealus
D. Odyssey
32. She, who was a princess and could foretell the future, echoed Laocoon’s warning
and suggestion to destroy the wooden horse but no one ever listened to her.
A. Cassandra
B. Psyche
C. Dido
D. Galatea
33. He was the strongest man on earth and was considered as equal with the gods.
A. Atlas
B. Prometheus
C. Hercules
D. Achilles
34. He was nephew and pupil of Daedalus. He invented the saw and the compass.
Daedalus became jealous of him and killed him, and Minerva, pitying him, changed him
into s partridge.
A. Perdix
B. Pelias
C. Minos
D. Orpheus
35. He accidentally killed his own grandfather, Acrisius, in a discus-throwing contest.

The discus struck him. The blow was fatal and he died once.
A. Oedipus
B. Perseus
C. Apollo
D. Telemachus
36. He was a sculptor who fell in love, deeply, passionately in love with the thing he had
made.
A. Pyramus
B. Orpheus
C. Ceyx
D. Pygmalion
37. He attempted to ride Pegasus up to Olympus for he believed he could take his place
with the immortals.
A. Endymion
B. Bellerophon
C. Peleus
D. Orpheus
38. He was the architect who had contrived the labyrinth for the minotaur in Crete, and
showed Ariadne how Theseus could escape from it.
A. Icarus
B. Cadmus
C. Daedalus
D. Tantalus
39. Since Perseus had no gift to offer king Polydectes, he told him he _____
A. would go off and kill his one thousand enemies
B. would kill the Sphinx and bring back his head as a
gift
C. would behead Medusa and bring her head to him.
D. would set a fighting contest to honor him
40. He wrote the book “The Hero with a Thousand Faces” which discussed his theory of
the journey of the archetypal hero found in world mythologies.
A. Carl Jung
B. Euhemerus
C. Hesoid
D. Joseph Campbell
41. This is a collection of stories and fables from Arabia, Egypt, India, and Persia that
were compiled from oral tales that had been passed down through these cultures for
generations.
A. The Pachantantra
B. A Thousand and One Nights
C. One Night with the Arabians
D. Alibaba and His Magics
42. She was a Greek mythological character who chose to bury her own brother,
Polyneices, against the order of Creon who was in control of Thebes. This caused her
death.
A. Ismene
B. Antigone
C. Electra
D. Naiad
43. He believed his mother was vile for she killed his own father. Later, he was
acquitted by Athena because according to Apollo he killed at his command.
A. Orestes
B. Agamemnon (his father who was killed by his
mother)
C. Eteocles (Oedipus’ son)
D. Polyneices (Oedipus’ son)
44. He successfully get rid of the Sphinx by correctly solving its riddle “What creature
goes on four feet in the morning, on two feet at noonday, and on three feet in the
evening?”
A. Jason
B. Orestes
C. Oedipus
D. Minos
45. Greeks made their gods and goddesses _____.
A. based on the characters of the ancient stories
B. in their own images
C. in their own ideas of best forms of divinities
D. based on the stories handed to them by their
ancestors
46. As used by Joseph Campbell, this refers to the fundamental structure of all folklore
of olden days.
A. monomyth
B. monomythical
C. monomythic
D. monomythicizer
47. The “body” (line 3) is the body of _____.

And on the slope above the sea
The hard-handed peasants go their round
Turning the soil, blind to the body
Ambitious and viable, whose pride
Will leave no trace in the quenching tide.
A. Ulysses
B. Achilles
C. Icarus
D. Priam
“The daughter of Minos, _____ provided the hero _____ with a ball of string that
allowed him to trace his way back to the light of day after slaying the Minotaur in the
labyrinth.”
48. Which of the following will correctly complete the sentence?

A. Helen…Paris
B. Andromeda…Perseus
C. Eurydice…Orpheus
D. Adriane…Theseus
49. Philosophical-religious belief in reincarnation is based on which mythical character?

A. Orpheus
B. Paris
C. Achilles
D. Agamemnon
50. In the Middle Ages and Renaissance, it was commonly described as symbol of
purity and grace, which could only be captured by a virgin.
A. Troll
B. Dragon
C. Kappa
D. Unicorns
51. He was a fearless warrior and king who one day saw the emptiness of his life and
turned his back on it, becoming a wanderer and sadhu. He refused to return to the world
that is why he is often alluded to as having refused the responsibility.
A. King Minos
B. King Muchukunda
C. King Rama
D. Jason
52. The story of Cupid and Psyche depicts undying love and devotion. What was
Psyche’s mistake that according to Cupid was a betrayal?
A. Psyche got infatuated with Zeus.
B. Psyche believed her sisters persuasion that her
lover was an ugly beast and would kill her.
C. Psyche disobeyed her husband when she
enlightened his face in the middle of the night.
D. Psyche left the house without her husband
permission.
53. Philippine mythology and superstitions are very diverse. It includes a collection of
tales and superstitions about magical creatures and entities like _____.
A. kapre, aswang, matruculan, duwende, tiyanak, etc.
B. sirena, syokoy, dugong, etc.
C. cherubs, Seraphims, Cherubims, thrones, guardian
angels, etc.
D. Malakas at Maganda, Maria Makiling, etc.
TEACHING LITERATURE
1. Of the literary listed below, which is used in the poem?

You see this gentle stream, that glides,
Shoved on, by quick-succeeding tides:
Try if this sober stream you can
-Proof to No Purpose
A. metaphor and allusion

B. paradox and antithesis
C. apostrophe and hyperbole
D. personification and alliteration
2. The following are examples of metonymy EXCEPT:

A. The controversial couple are living under the same
roof.
B. The Malacaňang declared full support for child-
friendly campaigns.
C. Empty pocket never held anyone back. Only empty
heads and empty hearts can do that.
D. This land belongs to the crown.
3. What figure of speech is used in the following lines from Carl Sandburg’s “Jazz
Fantasia”?
Drum on your drums, batter on your banjos, sob
On the long cool winding saxophones.
Go to it, O jazzmen.
A. assonance
B. consonance
C. alliteration
D. repetition
4. Which of the following is not classified as figure of speech?

A. “Holding wonder like a cup”
B. “Life has loneliness to sell”
C. “Eyes that love you, arms that hold”
D. “Buy it and never count the cost”
5. What figure of speech is used in the given lines?

Fair daffodils, we weep to see
You haste away so soon;
- Robert Herrick
A. apostrophe
B. metonymy
C. personification
D. synecdoche
“We don’t care a fig for her,” writes unknown correspondent with a pretty little
hand-writing and a pink seal to her note. “She is fade and insipid,” and adds some more
kind remarks in this strain, which I should never have repeated at all, but that they are in
truth prodigiously complimentary to the young lady whom they concern.
6. Which of the literary devices is used to describe the remarks of the “unknown
correspondent”?
A. irony
B. metaphor
C. paradox
D. personification
7. Assonance is a poetic device where:

A. The vowel sound in a word matches the same
sound in a nearby word, but the surrounding
consonant sounds are different.
B. The initial sounds of a word, beginning either with a
consonant or a vowel, are repeated in close
succession.
C. The words used evoke meaning by their sounds.
D. The final consonant sounds are the same, but the
vowels are different.
8.“Reading maketh a full man, conference a ready man, and writing an exact man” is an
example of which type of figurative language?
A. Euphemism
B. Bathos
C. Parallelism
D. Irony
With shivering heart the strife we saw

Of passion with eternal law;
And yet with reverential awe
We watched the fount of fiery life
Which served for the Titanic strife.
-Memorial Verses, Matthew Arnold
9. What figure of speech is used in the poem?

A. synecdoche
B. litotes
C. metonymy
D. allusion
10. In a tragedy, the protagonist recognizes a fundamental error or sin, known as

_____.
A. hamartia
B. evil
C. harambis
D. faithlessness
11. The resolution of a tragedy, which elicits pity and fear in the audience and results in
a purging of those aroused emotions is called _____.
A. falling action
B. relief
C. déjà vu
D. catharsis
12. What is the name given to a pair of rhyming lines of verse that are self-contained in grammatical
structure and meaning?
A. Quatrain
B. Sonnet
C. Iambic Pentameter
D. Couplet
13. What term refers to the passage in a drama in which a character expresses his
thoughts or feelings aloud while alone upon the stage or with the other actors keeping silent?
A. Stream of Consciousness
B. Soliloquy
C. Oration
D. Speech
“Her warm thanks offering for all.

Lord, clear my misted sight that I may hence view Thy divinity,
Some sparks whereof thou up dost hasp
Within this little downy wasp
In whose small corporation we
A school and a schoolmaster see”
14. How can the poem best be described based on this excerpt?
A. A devotional poem
B. A biographical poem
C. A ballad
D. A poem about authority
15. What play or dramatic structure is described in this line “The hero has won or lost;
issues are resolved; order is restored”?
A. resolution
B. denouement
C. conclusion
D. all of the above
16. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a folktale?

A. Considered true among various societies
B. A hero on a quest
C. Good versus evil
D. Adventures of animals
17. Which of the following is true of the visible shape of poetry?

I. Forced sound repetition may underscore the
meaning.
II. It was a new rule of poetry after poets began to feel
constricted by rhyming conventions.
III. The shaped reflected the poem’s theme.
IV. It was viewed as a demonstration of ingenuity.
A. I and II only
B. II and IV only
C. III and IV only
D. IV only
Beauty is but a flower

Which wrinkles will devour;
Brightness falls from the air,
Queens have died young and fair,
Dust hath closed Helen’s eye.
I am sick, I must die.
Lord, have mercy on us.
-Thomas Nashe, Adieu, Farewell Earth’s Bliss
18. “A flower” in line 1 relates to _____.

A. time
B. love
C. personality
D. appearance
The Aged Lover Renounceth Love
For age with stealing steps

Hath clawed me with his crutch,
And lusty life away she leaps
As there had been none such.
19.“Lusty life” as a characteristic in lines 3-4, of the poem seems _____.

A. uncaring
B. happy
C. illusion
D. deceptive
20. In the paragraph, “a bit of a romantic” suggests that Willa Cather ____.
A. condemned the evils of slavery
B. favored the past over the present
C. disliked writing about life in the 1030s
D. denounced certain aspects of the 19th-century life
My tale was heard and yet it was untold

My fruit is fallen and yet my leaves are green,
My youth is spent and yet I am not old,
I saw the world and yet I was not seen;
My thread is cut and yet it is not spun,
And now I live, and now my life is done.
-Elegy, ChidiockTichborne
21. Which of the following words best summarizes the speaker’s view of his life?
A. confused
B. inconsequential
C. unfulfilled
D. imitative
22. The line, "Under the bludgeonings of chance, my head is bloody but unbowed“,
depicts the person's _____.
a. optimism
b. confidence
c. courage
d. determination
What is there in a pair of pink cheeks and blue eyes forsooth? These dear
Moralists ask, and hint wisely that the gifts of genius, the accomplishments of the mind,
…and so forth, are far more valuable endowments for a female, than those fugitive
charms which a few years will inevitably tarnish. It is quite edifying to hear women
speculate upon the worthlessness and the duration of beauty.
But through virtue is a much finer thing, and those hapless creatures who suffer
the misfortune of good looks ought to be continually put in mind of the fate which awaits
them. -Thackeray’s Vanity Fair
23. The organizational pattern used by the narrator to make his main point is best
described as _____.
A. cause and effect
B. definition
C. process analysis
D. comparison and contrast
It was the best of times, it was the worst of times, it was the age of wisdom, it
was the age of foolishness, it was the epoch of belief, it was the epoch of incredulity, it
was the season of light, it was the season of Darkness, it was the spring of hope, it was
the winter of despair, we had everything before us, we had nothing before us, we were
all going direct to heaven, we were all going direct the other way – in short, the period
was so far like the present period, that some of its noisiest authorities insisted on its
being received, for good or for evil, in the superlative degree of comparison only. –
Charles Dickens, A Tale of Two Cities
24. The phrase “in short” is significant because it ____.

A. marks the change in structure
B. is a misuse of an absolute
C. negates the speaker’s meaning
D. contrasts times and periods
25. What is the effect of the change in the subject pronoun in line 4?
A. It has no real effect.
B. It emphasizes superiority of the narrator’s time.
C. It shifts the tone from impersonal to personal.
D. It affects the characterization of the narrator.
E. It diminishes the sense of connection of the times.
THEATER ARTS
1. The word theater is derived from the Greek word “theatron” which means _____.
A. gathering around
B. assembly
C. forum
D. seeing place
2. The minimal requirements for a theater building are _____.

A. curtains, seats, and lobby
B. s stage and backstage
C. a place to act and a place to watch
D. good acoustics and clean restrooms
3. The aspects of theater as an occupation are _____.

A. work, art, impersonation, and performance
B. script, rehearsal, performance, and reviews
C. contracts, publicists, and agents
D. time, dedication, and inspiration
4. The work of producing theater is involved with _____.

A. the script and rehearsals
B. all of the financial and legal aspects of the show
C. developing rapport with the actors
D. making sure the coffee is fresh
5. Designing is the process of _____.

A. mapping the visual and auditory aspects of the show
B. building the sets and the costumes
C. ensuring the show has historical authenticity
D. getting all the “tech” stuff together
6. Building a production involves _____.

A. a lot of rehearsals
B. the actors working after rehearsal
C. fielding legal matters
D. translating the design into reality
7. Crewing a production is the activity in which _____.

A. people row in a small boat on the river
B. technicians execute sequential cues and maintain
properties and costumes
C. people who did not get cast as actors do their work in the
theater
D. rehearsals are carefully organized
8. The problems of actor-character separation were resolved in the ancient world

through _____.
A. strenuous exercise
B. masks
C. broad gestures
D. powerful speech
9. Performance can be defined as _____.

A. an action or series of actions done for someone else’s
benefit
B. a strictly private conversation between two people
C. showing off in order to impress someone
D. a ritualized creation involving repetitive action
10. The two general modes of performance are _____.

A. live and taped.
B. ancient and modern
C. presentational and representational
D. good and bad
11. The act of feeling for and identifying with characters in a play is known as _____.
A. sympathy
B. empathy
C. understanding
D. synchronicity
12. As opposed to other forms of performance, theater is always ______.

A. directed by single artist
B. scripted
C. rehearsed
D. performed live
13. The play most fully exists _____.

A. in the text
B. in its performance
C. when critics review it
D. when it is published
14. _____ is not one of Aristotle’s components of a tragedy.

A. theme
B. stage
C. music
D. spectacle
15. The fundamental demand of a play’s characters is that they _____.

A. support the plot
B. make the audience care
C. are realistic
D. are fully detailed
16. _____ are the agreements between audience and actor wherein the audience
willingly suspends belief and accepts the play as new or temporary “reality.”
A. Traditions
B. Theatrical conventions
C. Dramatic protocols
D. Aristotilean elements
17. The four identifiable structural elements in almost every play are _____.
A. exposition, conflict, climax, and denouement
B. opening, intensification, confrontation, and resolution
C. beginning, middle, extension, and conclusion
D. thesis, sub-thesis, post-thesis, and antithesis
18. _____ continue to dominate the modern theater.

A. “Postmodern” dramatic structures
B. Documentary dramas
C. Ironic faces
D. Aristotelian dramatic forms
19. The playwright is the _____ of nearly every production.

A. historical basis
B. final authority
C. point of origin
D. ultimate interpreter
20. The most common perception of the playwright’s role since the age of romanticism
is _____.
A. as theater co-worker and mentor
B. an isolated observer and social critic
C. usually as the director or producer
D. the resident authority and dramaturge
21. The playwright works with two fundamental tools:
A. words and sentences
B. scenes and acts
C. dialogue and physical action
D. narration and conversation
22. Which of the following is NOT a demand of credibility?

A. Characters act instinctively.
B. Characters are internally consistent.
C. Characters always use good diction.
D. Characters are like human beings.
23. A common fault of beginning playwright is _____.

A. shortness of action
B. lines that lacks speakability
C. too much detail
D. unclear plot
24. When a play truly satisfies us, we say it endowed with _____.
A. active characters
B. intricate detail
C. richness of detail
D. intensity of will
25. Depth of characterization requires characters to be ___.

A. independent, sensible, reasonable, and worthwhile
B. correct, honest, and understandable
C. funny and tragic
D. expressive, emotional, excitable, and enlightened
26. The term “Gravity and Pertinence” refer to a script’s ___.

A. use of props and stage design
B. seriousness of theme and relevance to contemporary
society
C. development of its characters
D. grave and serious tone of dialogue
27. A play is all of the following EXCEPT _____.

A. a presentation with characters that can serve as role
models
B. an animated piece of life
C. a meaningful representation of human struggles
D. a discourse on morality
28. Historically speaking, a full-length play lasts _____.

A. less than one hour
B. between one and two hours
C. between two and three hours
D. between three and four hours
29. A serious play with a theme of universal human import, which describes a struggle
against insurmountable odds usually ending in death or downfall is a _____.
A. comedy
B. drama
C. tragedy
D. serio-theater
30. The central character in a drama is called the _____.

A. protagonist
B. leading man
C. antagonist
D. hero
31. The father of dramatic criticism is _____.

A. Sophocles
B. Plato
C. Socrates
D. Aristotle
32. Tragedy should _____ us.

A. sadden
B. delight
C. burden
D. ennoble
33. Which of the following is NOT generally an ingredient of comedy?

A. interpersonal conflicts
B. topical issues
C. fate, suffering and death
D. verbal and sexual playfulness
34. Which of the following is NOT a genre of theater developed in the pre-modern era of
theater?
A. history play
B. interlude
C. mystery play
D. absurdist play
35. A form that serves as a bridge between the two major genres is called _____.
A. tragicomedy
B. dark comedy
C. serio-comedy
D. melodrama
36. After World-War II, the genre that dominates the theater is called _____.
A. absurdism
B. serio-comedy
C. dark comedy
D. comic reality
37. This genre utilizes authentic evidence as its basis for portraying recent historical
events.
A. historical
B. melodrama
C. documentary
D. farce
38. The primary demands of a plot are traditionally _____.

A. surprise and resolution
B. logic and suspense
C. good and evil
D. action and reaction
39. Dramatic intensity results from _____.
A. the skillful use of compression in a script
B. the playwright’s care with a play’s economy
C. the careful development of character interactions and
goals
D. All of the answers are correct.
40. A play that tells the story of thirty years in only two hours is an example of _____.
A. historicity
B. intensity
C. compression
41. A script’s structure can determine the success of its ___.

A. thematic development
B. credibility
C. sense of intrigue
42. Three strong building blocks in the process of playwriting are ____.
A. dialogue, conflict, and structure
B. plot, theme, and characterization
C. story, idea, and textuality
D. action, re-action, and climax
43. The dialogue in David’s Mamet’s plays is famous for its _____.
A. classical aphorisms
B. inclusion of multiple languages
C. use of fragmented everyday speech
D. silence
44. The Pulitzer Prize and Tony Award winner and author of Angels in America and
Homebody/Kabul is _____.
A. David Henry Hwang
B. Tony Kushner
C. Neil LaBute
D. David Mamet
45. The playwright who is called “Chicago” playwright is ___.

A. Edward Albee
B. Susan Lori Parks
C. David Mamet
D. Neil LaBute
46. _____ was rated “as exciting as any new play from a young American since Tony
Kushner’s Angels in America.”
A. The Sinners’ Place
B. M. Butterfly
C. Homebody/Kabul
D. Topdog/Underdog
47. David Hwang’s M. Butterfly interweaves _____.

A. Western romanticism
B. Asian theater
C. Chinese opera
48. Who was the first known actor?

A. Hermes
B. Thespis
C. Oedipus
D. Sophocles
49. The form of acting that begins with the instructional process, lessons, and drills is
_____.
A. classical
B. representational
C. planned
D. external
50. The kind of acting where the actor feels the characters is ____.
A. internal
B. presentational
C. intense
D. romantic
51. The Roman poet Horace said in order to move the audience, first you must _____.
A. show your emotions
B. play serious characters
C. be moved yourself
D. by physically interesting
52. The Frenchman who said actors must play from thought was _____.
A. Moliere
B. Jean Paul Belmondo
C. Denis Diderot
D. Beaumarchais
53. The acting teacher who said the actor must seek to solve the “character’s problem”
was _____.
A. Stanislavsky
B. Tchaikovsky
C. Chekhov
D. Meyerhold
54. The Actor Studio was made famous by _____.

A. Theodule Ribot
B. Sanford Meisner
C. Lee Strasberg
D. Stella Adler
55. The craft of acting includes these two fundamental features _____.
A. mind and body
B. speaking and singing
C. an expressive voice and a supple body
D. good intellect and strong emotions
56. The third acting ingredient is _____.

A. mind
B. emotion
C. presence
D. the ability to cry on demand
57. Contemporary actor training has two distinct phases which are _____.
A. studying the text and analyzing the context
B. feeling the emotions and expressing the actions
C. the development of the actor’s instrument and the method
of approaching a role
D. conditioning the body and the mind
58. The basic elements of voice for the actor are _____.
A. articulation, pronunciation, and phrasing
B. speaking, singing, and shouting
C. mind, body, and spirit
D. breathing, phonation, and resonance
59. After vocal training, the second element of the actor’s physiological instrument is
_____.
A. movement
B. singing
C. stage combat training
D. dance
60. Which of the following is NOT part of actor’s psychological instrument?

A. imagination and willingness to use it
B. discipline
C. stage fright
D. creates role uniquely
61. The actor’s zadacha means the character’s _____.

A. character
B. goal
C. lines
D. cues
62. The actor’s professional routine consists of _____.

A. agents, contracts, and salaries
B. auditions, rehearsals, and performances
C. lines, memorization, and performing
D. blocking, mounting, and polishing
63. For an actor, the rehearsals of a play are _____.

A. boring repetitions to be endured
B. a time to get everything right
C. a time for creative experimentation
D. when the director controls everything
64. Fine acting demands _____.

A. being in the union
B. acting for its own sake
C. knowing nothing but acting
D. an open mind
65. The first known comedies were written by _____ who set the recipe for future
comedies.
A. Sophocles
B. Aristophanes
C. Euminides
D. Euripedes
TEACHING READING
1. A technique that encourages students to think deeply about words _____.

A. writing the words ten times each
B. looking up dictionary definitions
C. filling out workbook exercises related to the words
D. class discussion
2. Concepts can be learned through ______.

A. vicarious experiences
B. concrete experiences
C. both and A and B
D. neither A nor B
3. Vocabulary instruction should take place _____.

A. only in reading and language arts classes
B. only once a week
C. throughout the day in all classes
D. all of these
4. Classifying words into categories supplied by the teacher is doing _____.

A. closed-ended sorts
B. open-ended sorts
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
5. What is true of a rubric?

A. It provides specific criteria for describing student
performance.
B. It gives frustration, instructional, independent, and capacity
levels.
C. It is a norm-referenced test.
D. It measures skill mastery.
6. All of the following tests can be constructed by the classroom teacher EXCEPT
_____.
A. oral reading checklist
B. norm-referenced test
C. informal reading inventory
D. sight vocabulary test
7. Methods for identifying the difficulty of texts include ___.

A. cloze tests
B. text leveling
C. readability tests
D. all of these
8. Alternative assessment includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A. checklists
B. standardized tests
C. rubrics
D. informal reading inventories
9. The most useful type of assessment for classroom teachers is _____.

A. day-to-day observation
B. an informal reading inventory
C. a diagnostic test
D. a standardized achievement test
10. Written accounts of specific classroom incidents are called _____.

A. informal reading inventories
B. portfolios
C. anecdotal records
D. running records
11. Portfolio assessment _____.

A. uses samples of student’s work
B. is useful for assigning grades in percentages
C. is based on standardized test scores
D. does all of these
12. A type of test that gives percentile ranks is a/an _____.

A. running record
B. standardized test
C. informal reading inventory
D. criterion-referenced test
13. The characteristics of literature-based and language-integrated series include

_____.
A. primarily short excerpts from well-written stories
B. heavy focus on skill development
C. high-quality literature selections
D. all of these
14. In literature logs, students record _____.
A. personal interpretations
B. questions that arise from reading
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
15. At the heart of a literature-based reading program are __.

A. language experience stories
B. workbooks
C. trade books
D. none of these
16. Students may respond to literature through the following EXCEPT:

A. group discussions
B. sentence diagram
C. creative dramatics
D. literature logs
17. The teacher can evaluate students’ progress in literature-based programs _____.
A. by listening to the children’s book talks
B. through a portfolio approach
C. with checklists of important reading behaviors
D. all of these
18. Which of the following are good types of words to teach as sight words?
A. extremely useful words
B. irregularly spelled words
C. Words which are meaningful to children.
D. all of these
19. To use a dictionary, a student must know _____.

A. alphabetic order
B. how to use guide words
C. how to interpret the pronunciation
D. all of these
20. One recommended technique to encourage students to read voluntarily is _____.

A. providing them array of reading materials
B. allowing them to read only when they like to read
C. showing them videos about the importance of reading
books
D. setting aside a time for them to read daily from freely
selected material
21. Children’s Choices is a list of _____.
A. best-selling books for children
B. books liked by children, compiled by 10, 000 children
C. children’s classics
D. books recommended by librarians for children
22. Which of the following is true of journal writing?

A. Teachers correct spelling in journals.
B. Teachers grade journals.
C. Writers may choose their own topics.
D. None of theses
23. During readers’ theater, students _____.

A. read aloud dramatically from a script
B. memorize a script and then play their parts
C. improvise a scene from a familiar story
D. rewrite a story into play form
24. The first stage in a writing workshop is _____.

A. a minilesson
B. the status-of-the-class conference
C. group share
D. writing
25. In the drafting stage of the writing process, writers _____.

A. make revisions
B. carefully observe the rules of grammar and spelling
C. confer with their peers
D. search for the topic
26. The retention of ideas in materials is helped by the following EXCEPT _____.
A. discussing the material
B. reading all materials as rapidly as possible
C. assigning purposes for reading
D. giving the students time to reflect on the materials
27. All of the following is helpful in using reference books EXCEPT _____.
A. The ability to use guide words
B. Knowledge of alphabetical order
C. The ability to interpret the scale of a map
D. The knowledge of the structural analysis and context clues
28. An appropriate guideline for note taking is to _____.

A. never use complete sentences in notes
B. copy every of the section of each reference used
C. include bibliographic references with each note
D. none of these
29. In outlines, levels of subordination are indicated by using of the following EXCEPT:
A. spaces
B. indention
C. numerals
D. letters
30. When using databases, students _____.

A. collect and organize data
B. decide on key words to access the data
C. pose questions
D. all of these
31. Teaching study skills is the responsibility of _____.

A. the primary-grade teacher
B. the intermediate-grade teacher
C. A only
D. both A and B
32. Activities that help develop readiness for outlining include _____.
A. categorization activities
B. forming arrays for stories
C. B only
D. both A and B
33. Comprehension monitoring should be taught through _____.

A. the cloze procedure
B. worksheets
C. teacher modeling
D. none of these
34. The reading act is composed of the following two main parts _____.
A. visual and tactile aspects
B. visual and auditory aspects
C. the reading process and the reading product
D. none of these
35. The following are aspects of the reading process EXCEPT:

A. associational aspects
B. structural aspects
C. experience aspects
D. perceptual aspects
36. All of the following are effective aspects of the reading process EXCEPT:
A. attitude
B. hearing
C. self-concept
D. interest
37. Children are likely to develop positive attitudes toward reading EXCEPT:
A. when their peers view reading in a positive way
B. when parents read in the home
C. when parents provide them with reading materials
D. when parents are formally educated and can afford to
provide children reading materials
38. The refinement of a person’s reading skills should _____.

A. end after high school
B. end after sixth grade
C. end after third grade
D. never end
39. The teacher is responsible for the following EXCEPT:

A. understanding the range of technology available
B. evaluating technological applications
C. integrating technology into the classroom
D. designing new technological systems
40. Teachers need to ask which of the following about each potential application of
technology in the curriculum EXCEPT:
A. Is it cost effective?
B. Is it easy to implement?
C. Is it instructionally sound?
D. Is it simple and easy to execute?
41. Basic kinds of CAI currently used for reading instruction include _____.
A. drill and practice
B. tutorial
C. both A and B
D. neither a nor B
42. Database programs _____.

A. require few reading skills
B. are too difficult for elementary students to use
C. ask students to provide keywords for efficient data access
D. none of these
43. Instructional transparencies _____.

A. provide an efficient way to present some class materials
B. are useful only to artistic teachers
C. are outdated and have no value in today’s classrooms
D. none of these
44. Instructional television programs _____.
A. are generally a waste of class time
B. can serve as a basis for note taking and report writing
C. have few literacy applications
D. none of these
45. Audio and videotapes _____.

A. have value for assessment purposes
B. are useful for recording class presentations
C. require equipment that is rarely available in classrooms
D. all of these
46. CD-ROMs can _____.

A. store large amounts of text, audio, and video information in
relatively little space
B. provide high-quality images and sound
C. be assessed in nonlinear fashion
D. all of these
47. Use of spelling and grammar checkers _____.

A. encourages sloppy work
B. involves a critical reading activity
C. is basically rote learning
D. none of these
48. Word-processing software _____.

A. often encourages students to write longer pieces than they
do with pencil and paper
B. can be used with the language experience approach
C. takes much labor out of editing and revising
D. all of these
49. Students or pupils _____.

A. have no valid reasons to use the Internet
B. can use the Internet to collect material for unit studies
C. can use the Internet with complete confidence in the
material posted to Web sites
D. none of these
50. Students or pupils can use email to _____.

A. interact with adult mentors (for example, university
students)
B. interact with authors of children’s books
C. hold discussions with students in other parts of the world
D. all of these
51. The sentence “Jane has her dog with her” includes a/an _____.
A. restrictive clause
B. anaphoric relationship
C. figurative expression
D. relative clause
52. You can tell a fact from an opinion by whether _____.

A. you agree with it
B. it appears in print
C. it is verifiable
D. it is in quotes
53. Anticipation guides _____.

A. are designed to stimulate thinking
B. are useful in prereading devices
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
54. Relating new vocabulary to students’ experiences ____.

A. is not feasible in the classroom
B. detracts from the acquisition of vocabulary
C. enhances the acquisition of vocabulary
D. has no effect on the acquisition of vocabulary
55. All of the following are context clues to word meaning EXCEPT:
A. definition clues
B. appositive clues
C. punctuation clues
D. comparison and contrast clues
56. Which of the following is an example of analogy?

A. the wind spoke softly into her ear
B. the girl was as pretty as a picture
C. soft is to hard as good is to bad
D. none of these
57. The following can help children discover the meanings of unfamiliar words EXCEPT:
A. context clues
B. phonics clues
C. structure clues
D. none of the above
58. Which of the following aspects related to readers affect/s comprehension?

A. attitudes
B. schemata
C. sensory and perceptual abilities
D. all of these
59. The reading situation involves the _____.

A. importance of the reading task for the reader
B. audience for the reading
C. purposes for the reading
D. all of these
60. The following are special problems in reading mathematics EXCEPT:

A. interpreting abbreviations
B. understanding a different symbol system
C. interpreting story problems
D. understanding the words in the math problems
61. In comparison to content-area texts, basal readers ___.

A. contain large numbers of graphic aids
B. are more difficult to read
C. include more planned repetition of new vocabulary
D. are high in idea density
61. The content of language arts block includes _____.

A. writing
B. reading
C. speaking
D. all of these
62. Which of the following statements about study guides is/are true?
A. They provide purposes for reading the assignments
B. All members of the class should use the same one.
C. They should contain only literal-level questions.
D. none of these
63. Of the following words, the one that contains a soft c sound is _____.
A. cent
B. cannon
C. cat
D. cute
64. Which of the following statements about the directed reading-thinking activity is/are
true?
A. It encourages children to think while they read.
B. It can be used with basal reader stories.
C. It can be used with basal reader stories.
D. all of these
65. A single vowel preceding an r _____.
A. usually has a long sound
B. usually has a short sound
C. is sounded but is neither long or short
D. is not sounded
66. To understand literary passages, children need to be able to recognize and analyze
_____.
A. themes
B. plots
C. characterization
D. all of these
67. To develop thematic content units, teachers must ___.

A. gather related materials
B. choose instructional procedures and related activities
C. decide on goals and objectives
D. all of these
68. Which of the following strategies are most appropriate for helping students
comprehend new vocabulary in nonfiction texts?
I. Writing sentences on the board for the students to copy
II. Studying examples of texts that use the new vocabulary in
context
III. Activating the student’s prior knowledge to develop a
framework for the new vocabulary
IV. Providing frequent opportunities for the students to use
their new vocabulary words
V. Having the students look up definitions in the dictionary
and write them several times
A. I, II, II
B. II, IV, V
C. I, III, V
D. II, III, IV
JOURNALISM
1. Which phrase describes a feature?

A. A hard news story
B. Any story that informs the reader
C. A soft news story
D. Any short newspaper article
2. What is a lead?
A. The main idea of a feature story
B. A piece of information that attracts and keeps the
reader interested
C. A point in the story where the reader loses interest
D. The angle of a story
3. A summary lead contains _____.

A. A direct quote
B. Instructions on how to read the story
C. The most important facts of the story
D. A list of all the sources quoted in the story
4. What is soft news?

A. News that’s based on opinions, not facts
B. News that’s entertaining or interesting
C. News that’s circulated on the Internet, not on paper
D. Advice columns
5. What is hard news?

A. News that covers hard to understand topics
B. News that’s based on opinions, not facts
C. News that affects an everyone
D. The only kind of news there is
6. What do profile stories focus on?

A. A group’s behavior
B. An individual
C. Celebrity interviews only
D. Current events
7. What is meant by balance in a news story?

A. Having several authors write a story
B. Getting a lawyer’s opinion before writing an article
C. Giving the same amount of space to every
paragraph
D. Covering all sides of an issue as fairly as possible
8. Your choice of a source should depend on

A. The source’s expertise
B. The source’s popularity
C. The source’s availability
D. The source’s height and weight
9. What does a direct quotation look like?

A. The new President teased his wife saying that she
was an only good with kids when playing poker with
them.
B. “He loves to buckle,” the TV host declared in a July.
“The new President is not going to give us real
change.”
C. The President has asserted the authority to
assassinate Philippine terror suspects and has tried
to block court challenges of that authority by
invoking “state secrets.”
D. The new President vowed change and roared about
“the fierce urgency of now”.
10. What does a paraphrase look like?

them.
change.”
11. What does a partial quotes look like?

them.
change.”
12. What does an orphan quote look like?

them.
change.”
13. What is an editorial?

A. An opinion piece that uses the pronoun "I"
B. The process when an editor works with unfinished
story
C. A part of the writing process
D. The job that reporter's get when they are promoted
14. What is libel?

A. Publishing a false statement that damages
someone’s reputation
B. A tendency to do something
C. Publishing private information about a person
D. Use of outside editors
15. What is defamation?

A. Publishing unflattering reports about someone
B. An invasion of privacy
C. A clearly labeled personal opinion
D. An untruthful accusation that lowers someone’s
reputation
16. At the prewriting stage, the reporters should

a. identify a central point and have a good kicker in
mind.
b. identify a central point and prepare a brief outline.
c. prepare a brief outline and select the quotations to
use.
d. have the story completely drafted in their head.
17. The central point of a news story is

a. a justification for running the story on the front page
or the beginning of a news broadcast.
b. the identity of the most important figure of the story.
c. to get readers to read the rest of the newspaper or
viewers to watch the rest of the news broadcast.
d. a one- or two-sentence summary of what the story is
about and why it is newsworthy.
18. The reason for constructing a brief outline for a news story is to
a. help decide where the various pieces of information
the reporter has collected belong in the story.
b. enable the reporter to guess how long the finished
story will be.
c. enable the layout editor to guess how long the
finished story will be.
d. let the managing editor know that the reporter has a
story in progress.
19. Research has shown that 75 percent of readers are able to understand sentences
that average ___
a. 20 words in length.
b. 40 words in length.
c. 60 words in length.
d. 80 words in length.
20. Reporters strive to

a. eliminate all long sentences from their writing.
b. combine short and long sentences in a manner that
would be pleasing if read aloud.
c. keep all sentences to 10 words or fewer.
d. keep all sentences to 15 words or more.
21. The problem with phrases like “dead body” and “unexpected surprise” is that they
are ___
a. short.
b. clichés.
c. redundant.
d. too descriptive.
22. Because newspapers use small type and narrow columns, reporters strive to write
a. without paragraph breaks.
b. stories with no more than three paragraphs.
c. paragraphs that are no more than one sentence in
length.
d. short paragraphs.
23. For journalists, being objective means that the reporter

a. remains completely emotionless about all aspects of
the story.
b. incorporates an equal number of quotations from
Republicans and Democrats.
c. makes clear his or her opinion about the events
covered.
d. is not an advocate for a point of view or a participant
in the events covered.
24. Good reporters strive to
a. let readers draw their own conclusions about the
story.
b. let readers know what their opinions are about the
story.
c. tell readers what they should think about the story.
d. tell readers what public officials want them to think
about the story.
25. “Ageism” is the practice of

a. stereotyping the elderly as rich, greedy and
unconcerned about the problems of younger
people.
b. portraying older people as more experienced and,
therefore, more knowledgeable than others.
c. stereotyping the elderly as lonely, inactive,
unproductive, poor, passive, weak and sick.
d. portraying older people as being able to perform any
task younger people can perform.
26. Including in news stories descriptions of the appearance and dress of women but
not doing so for men is an example of _____.
a. sexism.
b. good news judgment.
c. attention to detail.
d. carelessness.
27. The race or ethnicity of people involved in news stories should be included
a. in all instances because it helps readers visualize
the people.
b. only when it is clearly relevant to the story.

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SPECIALIZATION

1. The underlined verbs in the following sentences are classified as _____.

2. The word “just” in the sentence below indicates ___.

3. What type of mood is indicated in this sentence?

4. Which of the following is a gradable adjective?

5. Which sentence has ditransitive verb?

6. Which approach to language teaching is based on the behaviorist’s belief that

7. The following contain operator verbs EXCEPT:

9. Which of the following sentences does NOT observe correct subject-verb

10. The underlined word in this sentence functions as _____.

12. Which sentence has error in punctuation?

13. Unprepared for such a strong rebuttal, _____.

20. The conjuncts in this sentence are _____.

21. Which of the following sentences is prescriptively correct because it is easy to

24. The following used “off” as adverb EXCEPT:

25. What preposition is NOT properly used in the following sentences?

4. Which is the study of larger linguistic units, such as conversational exchanges or

5. Which of the following is an example derivational morpheme?

7. What category of illocutionary act is demonstrated in the following example?

10. According to cognitivists, errors in second language learning is considered _____.

11. What aptly describes “universal grammar”?

12. If the second language learner “assimilates”, then he _____.

14. Speaker A’s final remark functions as _____.

A. a request to answer the phone

17. Which of the following best describes a “phrase”?

18. The following can function as “intensive verbs” EXCEPT:

21. How many phonemes are in the word “shed”?

22. An ESL teacher is designing a listening lesson for sixth-grade intermediate-level

23. Which of the following is true about semantics?

25. Lexical ambiguity is best exemplified by which of the following sentences?

1. Which of the following words qualifies as slang?

2. Which of the following linguists introduced the term “register” in 1956?

3. Which of the following is a jargon of academe?

4. Which is an example of course for English for Occupational Purposes (EOP)?

5. Who defined ESP by identifying its absolute and variable characteristics?

8. The following stages are necessary in course designing in ESP EXCEPT:

1. What is the rhyme scheme or sound pattern of these poetic lines?

How do I love thee? Let me count the ways.

2. Analyzing the lines of the sonnet, “thee” refers to __.

I love thee to the depth and breadth and height. 2

A. the use of anaphora

5. What does the author want to portray in this stanza?

Do not go gentle into that good night,

A. Don’t be afraid of the dark.

8. He created the character of Scrooge in “A Christmas Carol” as a way of raising the

9. The following are writers of the Romantic Period EXCEPT _____.

10.The word “renaissance” is ______.

11. How much did William Shakespeare write?

12. Which of these phrases appears on William Shakespeare’s gravestone?

17. It is one-verse poem composed by Alfred Tennyson which consists of forty-nine

18. The “Illustrious Theater of Paris” _____.

21. From what essay of Francis Bacon is this line taken?

She never told her,

24. The passage was written by _____.

27. Which Bronte writer authored “Jane Eyre”?

28. In which century were Geoffrey Chaucer’s Canterbury Tales written?

She Dwelt Among the Untrodden Ways

She dwelt among the untrodden ways

A violet by a mossy stone

She lived unknown, and few could know

33. Which stanza implies that Lucy is an interesting woman?

34. In the context of the poem, the emphasis is on ___.

The curfew tolls the knell of parting day,

35. The narrator of this passage is _____.