1.

Which hypothesis of Krashen’s Monitor Model proposes that when learners are exposed to
grammatical features a little beyond their current (i.e., i + 1), those features are “acquired”?
Acquisition results from comprehensible input, which is made understandable with the help provided
by the context.
A. Acquisition/learning hypothesis
B. Natural order hypothesis
C. Input hypothesis
D. Affective filter hypothesis

2. All of the following are implications of Krashen’s Monitor Model EXCEPT __________.
A. Teachers should correct errors during the time they are committed as error correction is
valuable.
B. Teachers should not insist on learners conversing before they feel comfortable in doing so.
C. Teachers should not expect learners to learn “late structures” such as third person singular
early.
D. Teachers consider grammatical teaching is of limited value.

3. The view the language is a system of related elements or “building blocks” for the encoding of
meaning, the elements being phonemes (sounds), morphemes (words), tagmemes
(phrases/sentences/clauses).
A. Structuralists
B. Transformationalists
C. Functionalists
D. Interactionalists

4. Which of the following is a view of an interactionalist?

A. Language is primarily vocal.
B. Language is creative.
C. Language emphasizes the meaning and functions rather than the structures.
D. Language is a vehicle for establishing interpersonal relationship.

5. Which theory on language teaching has given birth to the methods that are learner-centered, allowing
learners to work in pairs or groups in information gap tasks and problem-solving activities where
such communication strategies as information sharing, negotiation of meaning, and interaction are
used?
A. Structuralism
B. Behaviorism
C. Cognitivism
D. Functionalism

6. It is a branch of linguistics that deals with how words combine to form phrases, phrases combine to
form clauses, and clauses conjoin to make sentences.
A. Morphology
B. Syntax
C. Semantics
D. Pragmatics

7. What is shown in the systematic variation of /t/ such as /t/ in top is aspirated, /t/ in stop is released,
and /t/ in pot is unreleased?
A. phoneme
B. consonant
 C. variation
D. allophone

8. Which of the following sounds are produced by bringing the articulators near each other such that the
flow of air is impeded but not completely blocked? The air flow through the narrow opening creates
friction.
A. p, b, t, d, k, g
B. f, v, Ɵ, ð, s, z, š, ẑ, h
C. m, n, ŋ
D. l, r

9. What is illustrated in the following example? In English, the statement “Marian is a linguist” ends
with a fall in pitch, while as a question, “Marian is a linguist?” the pitch goes up.
A. stress
B. juncture
C. intonation
D. suprasegmentals

10. Which of the following is an example of derivational morpheme?

A. helpful
B. stays
C. eaten
D. longest

11. The words “gym”, “mike”, and “TV” are formed through __________.
A. clipping
B. back formation
C. root creation
D. compounding

12. What morphophonemic process is involved in which units that occur in some contexts are “lost” in
others such as “l i b r y” instead of “l i b r a r y”?
A. assimilation
B. dissimilation
C. epenthesis
D. metathesis

13. Which syntactic structure is shown in the following examples? “responsible officers”, “trusted friend”
A. predication
B. complementation
C. modification
D. coordination

14. What is made use in the example “I told Paul to close the door and he did so”?
A. homonymy
B. anaphora
C. deixis
D. hyponymy

15. What category of illocutionary act is demonstrated in the following example? “Recession will worsen
in Europe in the next five years.”
 A. representative
B. commissive
C. directive
D. expressive

16. What conversation maxim seems to have been violated in the following example?
A: How was the LET?
B: Well, the proctor is my former college professor.

A. maxim of quantity
B. maxim of quality
C. maxim of relation
D. maxim of manner

17. This view emphasizes that native language comprises habits that a second language learner must
overcome. This is accomplished by forging new habits through the repetition of pattern drills with
accompanying positive reinforcement.
A. Behaviorist Leaning Theory
B. Cognitive Learning Theory
C. Functional Learning Theory
D. Holistic Learning Theory

18. Overgeneralization errors such as “goed” and “keeped” are common in children’s speech. Such errors
suggest that children __________.
A. are repeating what was said to them, and should take note of them
B. do not know the past tense forms of those verbs, and experience difficulty
C. induce the rules for the past tense from the language to which they are exposed
D. repeat the teacher’s mistakes, and those errors are very hard to undo

19. This type of language is used to describe the kind of language a learner uses at a given time, that is,
his version of a given language, which deviates in certain ways from the language of a mature
speaker.
A. dialect
B. native language
C. holophrastic speech
D. interlanguage

20. According to cognitivists, errors in second language learning is considered __________.

A. basis for testing
B. part of learning process
C. as proofs of unsystematic way of learning
D. not part of natural progression in acquisition of English

21. What aptly describes “universal grammar”?

A. Language used for communication by people who speak different first languages
B. Rules applicable to all human languages
C. Language with the same vocabulary, grammar, and pronunciation
D. Rules of grammar that distinguish one language from the others
22. At the border of two countries there is a port where fishermen work. The fishermen do not speak the
same language, so they communicate using one that has been invented but only for the purpose of
trade. This scenario most accurately describes which of the following types of language?
A. a dialect
B. a creole
C. a pidgin
D. a regionalism

23. If the second language learner “assimilates”, then he __________.

A. maintains his own life style and values and rejects those of the target language group
B. adapts to the life style and values of the target language group but maintains his own life style
and values for the intragroup use
C. gives up his own life style and values and adopts those of the target language group
D. maximizes the use of his first language and the target language

24. The following are the areas of knowledge and skills of communicative competence EXCEPT
__________.
A. grammatical competence
B. sociolinguistic competence
C. discourse competence
D. language competence

25. Speaker A’s final remark functions as __________.

Speaker A: That’s the telephone.
Speaker B: I’m in the bath.
Speaker A: OK.

A. a request to answer the phone

B. an excuse for not complying
C. acceptance of an excuse
D. sarcasm

26. What strategy is used by the second language learner in the following situation?
The student forgot the English term “train station”. He used the phrase “the place for trains”
instead.

A. inference
B. paraphrase
C. generalization
D. daptation

27. What is the message of the story “The Centipede” by Rony V. Diaz?
A. Childhood memories are treasures.
B. Teasing or taunting should only be done by adults.
C. Children should be responsible with the trick they do with their siblings.
D. Childhood relationships between siblings were sometimes painful.

28. What problem is pointed out by the author in the story “How My Brother Brought Home a Wife” by
Manuel Arguilla?
A. How Filipinos live in the province
B. How Filipinos solve family problems
 C. How Filipinos are affected by new technology
D. How Filipinos accept or treat a new family member

29. What is the problem or conflict in the story “The Mats” by Francisco Arcellana?
A. Emilia’s indifference
B. Siblings’ rivalry
C. Mr. Angeles’ emotionality
D. Hunger in the family

30. What truth about life was presented in the story “The Wedding Dance” by Amador Daguio?
A. Some men are not contented with one partner.
B. Women and men are born equal.
C. Culture goes beyond love.
D. Love conquers all.

31. The “Dead Stars” by Paz Marquez Benitez symbolizes __________.

A. the love of Esperanza for Alfredo
B. the love of Alfredo for Julia
C. the love of Julia for Alfredo
D. the love of Alfredo for Esperanza

TO A LOST ONE
Angela Manalang-Gloria

I shall haunt you O my last one, as the twilight

Haunts a re-entangled trail,
And your dreams will linger strangely with the music
Of a phantom lover’s tale,
You shall not forget, for I am past forgetting,
I shall come to you again
With the starlight and the scent of white champacas,
And the melody of rain.
You shall not forget. Dust will peer into your
Window, tragic-eyed and still,
And unbidden, startle you into remembrance
With its hands upon the still.

32. What is the poem “To a Lost One” about?

A. An appeal to be remembered by a lover
B. A threat to a lover
C. Beautiful memories of a dead person
D. A ghost that haunts a fastidious lover

33. What virtue of the writer is depicted in the poem?

A. forgiving
B. honest
C. romantic
D. faithful

34. What does the line “I shall come to you again with the starlight and the scent of white champacas”
mean?
 A. The speaker with champacas will visit his lover at night.
B. The speaker wants his lover to keep and cherish their memories in her heart.
C. The speaker will rise from death to remind his lover of their sweetest moments.
D. The speaker wants to give his lover fresh champacas.

35. This line “You shall not forget, for I am past forgetting” means __________.
A. The speaker wants to be left unforgotten.
B. The speaker wants his lover to forget her past.
C. The speaker wants his past not to be discussed.
D. The speaker wants his past not be forgotten.

36. The line “I shall haunt you” has a/an __________ tone.
A. begging
B. appealing
C. romantic
D. commanding

37. “Lost One” may be pertained to __________.

A. lost feeling
B. past lover
C. abandoned person
D. ghost

38. It is a generally accepted first principle of oral interpretation that the reader must be true to
__________.
A. the performance space
B. the author
C. the method
D. the audience
E. his or her training

39. Within the communication process, the area that causes the most breakdown is __________.
A. interference
B. feedback
C. the situation
D. the channel
E. the message

40. David is preparing a speech about why Hollywood became the center of the motion-picture industry
and the impact that its development as the center had on filmmaking. David’s speech should be
organized using which of the following methods?
A. spatial
B. chronological
C. cause-effect
D. problem-solution
E. topical

41. All of the following are correct descriptions of listening behavior EXCEPT __________.
A. careful listening can lead to anticipation of a speaker’s actions
B. people who learn to listen selectively can shut out what is undesirable
C. listening comprises more than one-half of all communication
 D. the ability to be a good listener comes naturally, and no training is necessary
E. being an effective communicator means that one must listen to oneself

42. When a group is faced with a problem requiring immediate action, the most effective leadership style
is __________.
A. authoritarian
B. democratic
C. laissez-faire
D. charismatic
E. permissive

43. Schema activation is important to make sense of new information in light of what students already
know, and to make the necessary connection between the two. He following are good activities for
schema activation EXCEPT __________.
A. constructing graphic organizer
B. previewing a passage
C. brainstorming ideas
D. evaluating or assessing ideas

44. The following are concerns of teaching reading EXCEPT __________.

A. vocabulary development
B. comprehension development
C. output development
D. application

45. The following are principles for designing effective and interesting reading lessons EXCEPT
__________.
A. for reading lessons to be interesting and motivating they must focus on simple themes
B. instructional activities have a teaching rather than a testing focus
C. lessons should be divided into pre-reading, during reading, and post-reading
D. the major activity of the reading lesson is students reading texts

46. Content-Based Instruction (CBI) is based on the common underlying principle that successful
language learning occurs when students are presented with target language material in a meaningful,
contextualized form, with the primary focus on __________.
A. understanding the lessons
B. acquiring information and knowledge
C. making connections between what the learn at school and what they learn outside the school
D. making meaning from what they learn

47. It is a vocabulary strategy which involves the process of breaking up a word into its meaningful
components: the root words, affixes, and suffixes.
A. contextual clues
B. structural analysis
C. summarizing
D. groupings

48. Which of the following questions is best for activating students’ prior knowledge to feel that they are
somehow connected to the topic “snakes” being studied?
A. What do you know about snakes? What snakes are common in your area?
 B. What according to the selection are the types of snakes?
C. What did the writer suggest to the person who was bitten by snakes to do?
D. What is the importance of animals such as snakes in ecosystem?

49. If the students think about the knowledge of their own thoughts and the factors that influence their
thinking, they are engaged in the process of __________.
A. artistic thinking
B. metacognition
C. higher-order thinking
D. critical thinking

50. Mrs. Torres wants to find out her students’ schema about storm surge. On the board she writes the
words “storm surge” and encircles them, she, then, asks her students what they know about storm
surge, and helps them cluster the information. What technique does Mrs. Torres use?
A. demonstration
B. vocabulary building
C. semantic mapping
D. deductive reasoning

51. The underlined verbs in the following sentences are classified as __________.
The time is now.
The world became flesh.
We remain silent.

A. intransitive
B. reflexive
C. transitive
D. ascriptive

52. Which of the following is the true description of an auxiliary verb?

A. It is used to complete the verb phrase in certain constructions such as the emphatic, the
negative, the passive, or the perfect and progressive aspects.
B. It occurs before the main verb, and denotes modification of the basic meaning of the min
verb.
C. It belongs to several classifications of verbs. It may take an impersonal “it” as a subject.
D. It is followed by noun or noun phrase functioning as its direct object.

53. What preferred tense is used for “stage directions and synopses”?
A. present
B. past
C. future
D. present perfect

54. The word “just” in the sentence below indicates __________.

“She has just eaten.”

A. an action that was true in the past and is still relevant to the present
B. a recently completed action
C. an action which was completed before another past action
D. an action continuing at a given point in time
55. All of the following contain verbal EXCEPT __________.
A. Satisfied, the producer began paying the artists.
B. Having recovered her voice, the soprano hit her top notes well.
C. Your mom arrived after you had gone.
D. To see is to believe.

56. What type of mood is indicated in the sentence “How did you come to know about that tragic event?”
A. indicative
B. subjunctive
C. imperative
D. directive

57. The sentence “The child cried when his toy car got broken” follows __________ pattern.
A. N InV
B. N LV Adj
C. N TrV N
D. N InV Adv

58. “Mario, my older brother, fathers there good looking and smart children.” The underlined word
functions as __________.
A. a noun
B. a verb
C. an adjective
D. a possessive

59. Which of the following adjective phrases is syntactically correct?

A. the most unique
B. nearly unique
C. the very much unique
D. less unique

60. Which of the following is a gradable adjective?

A. absolute
B. clear
C. complete
D. impossible

61. Which sentence has a ditransitive verb?

A. Those guys are highly intelligent group of engineers.
B. Those mean boys tried to throw a rock through our windows.
C. Nobody will believe a ruffian like you.
D. My mother gave me this cardigan for Christmas.

62. “When we arrived, they gave us badges.” Which of the following questions should be asked to find
the direct object?
A. What did we do?
B. When did we arrive?
C. What did they give us?
D. Who gave us badges?

63. All of the following contain operator verbs EXCEPT __________.

 A. My father approves your marriage proposal.
B. Will your father approve my marriage proposal?
C. My father won’t approve your marriage proposal.
D. Your father will approve my marriage proposal, won’t he?

64. Each person’s vocabulary is a continuum. On the one end of the continuum are words the person
knows very well and for which he has full rich understanding of their various meanings. On the other
end of the continuum are __________.
A. words he enjoys using regularly
B. new words that he has learned both the spelling and meaning for
C. words he doesn’t recognize
D. words he can recognize and figure out the meaning of based on context

65. Which of the following does NOT function as a pronoun?

A. I
B. we
C. you
D. my

66. The President himself promised to stop the war. The underlined word is __________ pronoun.
A. an interrogative
B. an intensive
C. a reflexive
D. a reciprocal

67. The question “Is he coming?” has a __________ intonation.

A. falling
B. sustained
C. rising
D. melodic

68. Which of the following sentences does NOT observe correct subject-verb agreement?
A. The mayor as well as his brothers is going to prison.
B. Neither of the two traffic lights is working.
C. My assets were wiped out in the depression.
D. Neither the plates nor the serving bowl go on that shelf.

69. The pronoun in the sentence “When she arrived, Suad was surprised to find her apartment door open”
is __________.
A. cataphoric
B. anaphoric
C. deitic
D. coreferential

70. The underlined word in the sentence “We elected him chairman” functions as __________.
A. direct object
B. indirect object
C. objective complement
D. predicate nominative

71. Which of the following words is derived from a French word?

 A. armadillo
B. geography
C. poultry
D. laser

72. The style of writing employed in this passage can be best described as __________.
The stars were shining, and the leaves rustled in the woods ever so mournful; and I heard
an owl, away off, who-whooing about somebody that was dead, and a whippowhil and a dog
crying about somebody that was going to die; and the wind was trying to whisper something to
me, and I couldn’t make out what it was, and so it made the cold shivers run over me.
–The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn by Mark Twain

A. standard English
B. formal English
C. jargon
D. dialect

73. The author’s use of language in this passage helps to demonstrate the speaker’s __________.
A. lack of intelligence
B. lack of education
C. good-heartedness
D. confusion

74. The author uses imagery in this section to illustrate Huck’s __________.
A. fear and loneliness
B. awareness of his environment
C. loss of his father
D. moral dilemma

75. When doing research on the life of an important figure, you would probably give more credence to a
biography than you would to an autobiography, due to memoirist’s __________.
A. verbosity
B. creativity
C. subjectivity
D. experiences

76. Which type of logical fallacy is demonstrated by this argument?

“It is essential that we reject the proposed changes to the company’s insurance plan. If we
don’t protest against these changes now, we’ll soon end up with no health coverage at all.”

A. slippery slope
B. red herring
C. strawman
D. circular reasoning

77. Which of the following works of literature was originally written in modern English?
A. The Decameron
B. Sir Gawain and the Green Knight
C. War and Peace
D. Paradise Lost
 “They tell me you are wicked and I believe
them, for I have seen your painted women
under the gas lamps luring the farm boys.”
– Chicago by Carl Sandburg

78. “They tell me you are wicked and I believe

them, for I have seen your painted women
under the gas lamps luring the farm boys.”
– Chicago by Carl Sandburg

The line is an example of __________.

I. apostrophe
II. personification
III. hyperbole
IV. metonymy

A. II only
B. I and II only
C. I, II, and IV only
D. II and IV only

79. “Hog Butcher for the World

Tool Maker, Stacker of Wheat,
Player with Railroads and the Nation’s
Freight Handler;
Stormy, husky, brawling,
City of the Big Shoulders:”
– Chicago by Carl Sandburg

The poem is most likely influenced by which of the following?

A. industrialization
B. increased immigration
C. Western expansion
D. World War II patriotism

80. The poetry of Walt Whitman is significant in the development of American literature primarily
because he __________.
A. used the epic form to tell distinctly American tales
B. developed his own poetic form and style instead of adhering to the traditional poetic forms
C. commemorated in verse the lives of public leaders like Abraham Lincoln
D. was heavily influenced by Emerson’s call for a new national poet

81. The following words: “edit” from “editor” and “beg” from “beggar” are formed through __________.
A. blending
B. back formation
C. derivation
D. clipping

82. Which of the following sentences should be revised in order to correct an error?
(01) The themes of liberty and freedom are central to much of American literature,
particularly the literature produced during the American Renaissance. (2) As the issues of
 women’s rights and abolition came to the forefront of the American consciousness, writers delved
deep into an exploration of the meaning of freedom for the country and for individuals. (3) Three
such writers from this time period who focus on issues of freedom are Margaret Fuller, Harriet
Beecher Stowe, and Harriet Jacobs. (4) Each of these writers develop an answer to the question
posed by Stowe in Uncle Toms’ Cabin: “Liberty! – electric world! What is it?”

A. Sentence 1, to correct an error in comma use

B. Sentence 2, to correct an error in apostrophe use
C. Sentence 3, to correct an error in comma use
D. Sentence 4, to correct an error in agreement

83. Which of the following English words is commonly pronounced with the vowel sound /ǝ/ (i.e.,
schwa)?
A. where
B. who
C. what
D. why

84. Why do most fathers prefer a son __________ a daughter for his first-born child?
A. to
B. than
C. from
D. over

85. I am going to sit and rest __________.

A. a little bit
B. a while
C. a little more
D. awhile

86. Which sentence has error in punctuation?

A. “You’re a great friend,” Jose said.
B. Judith, my best friend went to a concert last Friday.
C. I have a lot of work to do; as such, I left for work a few minutes early.
D. According to the radio, surface streets were the best alternative to the congested freeways.

87. Unprepared for such a strong rebuttal, __________.

A. the lawyer’s attempt at winning the case failed
B. the lawyer’s attempt failed to win the case
C. the lawyer failed to win the case
D. the lawyer failed in his attempt to win the case

88. __________ on MTRCB to take action.

A. Whenever television is denounced by viewers for its violence, they call
B. Whenever television is denounced for its violence, viewers call
C. Whenever viewers denounce television for its violence, they call
D. Whenever a denunciation of television is voiced, they call

89. Arthur Miller’s play “Death of a Salesman” has been called a “tragedy of the common man” because
it __________.
A. depicts the fall from grace of an important person
 B. fits Aristotle’s formal definition of tragedy
C. gives an ordinary salesman’s life weight and meaning
D. is written in poetic and serious style

90. He holds the distinction of being the first Asian to receive the Nobel Prize for literature.
A. Wole Soyinka
B. Yasunari Kawabata
C. Po Chu-I
D. Rabindranath Tagore

91. Which outline correctly organizes and categorizes information pertaining to the works of William
Shakespeare?
A. I. Plays
a. Tragedies
1. King Lear…
b. Histories
1. Richard III…
c. Comedies
1. Twelfth Night…
II. Poems

B. I. Plays
a. Tragedies
1. Hamlet…
b. Poems
1. My Mistress’ Eyes…
c. Comedies
1. All’s Well That Ends Well…
II. Histories

C. I. Plays
a. Tragedies
1. Comedies…
b. Histories
1. Henry V…
c. Poems
1. Not Marble Nor the Gilded Monuments
II. The Tempest

D. I. Plays
a. Tragedies
1. Hamlet…
b. Histories
1. King Lear…
c. Comedies
1. Titus Adronicus…
II. Poems

92. The narrator of this passage is __________.

But how was I direct myself? I knew that I must travel in a southwesterly direction to
reach my destination, but the sun was only guide. I did not know the names of the towns that I
 was to pass through, nor could I ask information from a single human being; but I did not despair.
From you only could I hope for succor, although towards you I felt no sentiment but that of
hatred. Unfeeling, heartless creator! You had endowed me with perceptions and passions and then
cast me abroad an object for the scorn and horror of mankind. But you only had I any claim for
pity and redress, and from you I determined to seek that justice which I vainly attempted to gain
from any other being that wore the human form.
– Frankenstein by Mary Shelley

A. Victor
B. Elizabeth
C. the monster
D. the author

93. “A part of its orb was at length hid, and I waved my brand; it sank, and with a loud scream I fired the
straw, and heath, and bushes, which I had collected.” – from the passage

Which of the following is a correct restatement of the above?

A. When my branding iron sank, I screamed and shot at the bushes.
B. When the moon set, I screamed and burned the cottage.
C. When I could not find the orb, I screamed and kicked at the straw and the bushes.
D. I waited until the sun set, then I screamed and set fire to the forest.

94. A Marxist interpretation of “Waiting for Godot” would probably focus on __________.
A. the poverty and despair of its working-class characters
B. the use of archetypes in the portrayals of the characters
C. the power imbalances in the relationships of the characters
D. the reliance of the two main characters on the eventual arrival of a “savior”

95. In paragraph 2, Mandy Ringer and Dr. Clevenger are mentioned in order to emphasize which point
about Sapphira and the Slave Girl?

Sapphira and the Slave Girl was the last novel of Willa Cather's illustrious literary career.
Begun in the late summer of 1937 and finally completed in 1941, it is often regarded by critics as
one of her more personal works. Although the story takes place in 1856, well before her own
birth, she drew heavily on both vivid childhood memories and tales handed down by older
relatives to describe life in rural northern Virginia in the middle of the 19th century. She even
went on an extended journey to the area to give the story a further ring of authenticity.

Of all of Cather's many novels, Sapphira and the Slave Girl is the one most concerned
with providing an overall picture of day-to-day life in a specific era. A number of the novel's
characters, it would seem, are all included in the story only because they are representative of the
types of people to be found in 19th century rural Virginia; indeed, a few of them play no part
whatsoever in the unfolding of the plot. For instance, we are introduced to a poor white woman,
Mandy Ringer, who is portrayed as intelligent and content, despite the fact that she has no formal
education and must toil constantly in the fields. And we meet Dr. Clevenger, a country doctor
who, with his patrician manners, evokes a strong image of pre-Civil War South.

The title, however, accurately suggests that the novel is mainly about slavery. Cather's
attitude toward this institution may best be summed up as somewhat ambiguous. On the other
hand, she displays almost total indifference to the legal and political aspects of slavery when she
misidentifies certain crucial dates in its growth and development. Nor does she ever really offer a
 direct condemnation of slavery. Yet, on the other hand, the evil that was slavery gets through to
us, albeit in typically subtle ways. Those characters, like Mrs. Blake, who oppose the institution,
are portrayed in a sympathetic light. Furthermore, the suffering of the slaves themselves and the
petty, nasty, often cruel, behavior of the slave owners are painted in stark terms.

Although Sapphira and the Slave Girl was certainly not meant to be a political tract, the
novel is sometimes considered to be a denunciation of bygone days. Nothing could be further
from the truth. In spite of her willingness to acknowledge that particular aspects of the past were
far from ideal, Willa Cather was, if anything, a bit of a romantic. Especially in the final years of
her life, an increasing note of anger about the emptiness of the present crept into her writings.
Earlier generations, she concluded, had been the real heroes, the real creators of all that was good
in America.

A. A number of the characters in the novel are based on people Cather knew in her childhood.
B. The novel displays Cather’s mixed feelings about slavery.
C. Cather took four years to complete the novel because she carefully researched her characters.
D. One of Cather’s purposes in writing the novel was to paint a full portrait of life in rural
Virginia in the years before the Civil War.
E. The characters in the novel are portrayed in a positive light since Cather was a great admirer
of the old South.

96. In context, “a bit of a romantic” suggests that Willa Cather __________.

A. condemned the evils of slavery
B. favored the past over the present
C. disliked writing about life in the 1930s
D. denounced certain aspects of the 19th-century life
E. exaggerated the evils of earlier generations

97. The works of Charles Dickens, Harriet Beecher Stowe, and Upton Sinclair __________.
A. examined 19th-century cultural values
B. broke with the literary traditions of the past
C. fought against the mistreatment of the working class
D. awakened readers to social wrongs

98. The writing style used by Salman Rushdie and Gabriel Garcia Marquez is most often referred to as
__________.
A. stream of consciousness
B. magical realism
C. minimalism
D. social realism

99. At the border of two countries there is a port where fishermen work. The fishermen do not speak the
same language, so they communicate using one that has been invented but only for the purpose of
trade. This scenario most accurately describes which of the following types of language?
A. a dialect
B. a creole
C. a pidgin
D. a regionalism

100. He is known as the sky and thunder god in ancient Greek religion who ruled as king of the gods
and goddesses of Mt. Olympus.
 A. Hephaestus
B. Zeus
C. Poseidon
D. Hades

101. The Titanomachy was a ten-year series of battles fought in Thessaly, also known as the War of
the Titans, Battle of the Titans, Battle of Gods, or just the Titan War. Zeus freed his brothers and
sisters from their father, Cronus. This shows that the Greeks value __________.
I. bravery
II. respect
III. persistence
IV. change

A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and IV only
D. II and IV only

102. In the Middle Ages and Renaissance, it was commonly described as a symbol of purity and grace,
which could only be captured by a virgin.
A. troll
B. dragon
C. kappa
D. unicorns

103. He was a fearless warrior and king who one day saw the emptiness of his life and turned his back
on it, becoming a wanderer and sadhu. He refused to return to the world that is why he is often
alluded to as having refused the responsibility.
A. King Minus
B. King Muchukanda
C. King Rama
D. Jason

104. The story of Cupid and Psyche depicts the undying and devotion. What was Psyche’s mistake
that according to Cupid was a betrayal?
A. Psyche got infatuated with Zeus.
B. Psyche believed her sister’s persuasion that her lover was an ugly beast and would kill her.
C. Psyche disobeyed her husband when she enlightened his face in the middle of the night.
D. Psyche left the house without her husband’s permission.

105. Anthropomorphism is the attribution of a human form, human characteristics, or human behavior
to nonhuman things, e.g. deities in mythology and animals in children’s stories. What trait is this?
A. anthropomorphic
B. ethereal
C. god-like
D. anthropocentrism

106. Philippine mythology and superstitions are very diverse. It includes a collection of tales and
superstitions about magical creatures and entities like __________.
A. kapre, aswang, matruculan, dwende, tiyanak, etc.
B. sirena, syokoy, etc.
 C. cherubs, guardian angels, etc.
D. Malakas at Maganda, etc.

107. In Greek mythology, she was the most beautiful woman in the world. A daughter of the god Zeus,
she is best known for the part she played in causing the Trojan War. Some scholars suggest that she
was also a very ancient goddess associated with trees and birds.
A. Penelope, queen of Ithaca
B. Persephone, queen of the Underworld
C. Helen of Troy
D. Hera, queen of Olympus

108. When Paris abducted Helen of Troy, all the Greek princes were bound by the oath to help
Menelaus recover Helen. Athena and Hera who were not chosen by Paris sided with the Greeks who
sent one thousand ships to Troy. What does this indicate?
A. Serious decisions have serious consequences.
B. Paris was wrong in choosing Aphrodite as winner.
C. Hera and Athena harbored ill feelings.
D. Zeus ordered the goddesses to take side in the war.

109. He was the son of Zeus and Leto, twin brother of Artemis. He was the god of music, and he was
often depicted playing a golden lyre. He was also known as the Archer, far-shooting with a silver
bow; the god of healing, giving the science of medicine to man; the god of light; and the god of truth.
A. Mars
B. Neptune
C. Jupiter
D. Apollo

110. Which of the following is the best description of traditional phonics instruction?
A. Students study lists of high-frequency words in order to increase reading speed and
comprehension.
B. Students are taught individual letter sounds and the rules in combining the sounds together to
make words.
C. Students are immersed in written language and are encouraged to decode entire words using
context clues.
D. Students analyze patterns of organization and syntax as a way of learning to recognize
common structures.

111. A student is conducting a research project and has learned of a website that may have useful
information. The domain extension for the site is.org. Which of the following assumptions about the
website is correct?
A. All of the information on the site is current.
B. The site has been evaluated for bias.
C. The site might belong to a non-profit agency.
D. The author of the site is well-respected in his or her field.

112. In preparation for a writing unit on short stories, a teacher presents students with several
examples of short stories and works with them to identify defining characteristics of the genre. Which
of the following best describes this instructional strategy?
A. conferencing
B. discipline-based inquiry
C. self-regulated strategy development
 D. introduction-body-conclusion strategy

113. In a holistic evaluation of student essays, evaluations are made on the basis of __________.
A. overall number and variety of errors made by each student
B. overall number of sentences, length, and complexity demonstrated in each essay
C. overall ability of each student to communicate in a variety of discourse modes
D. overall quality of each student’s essay in relation to the topic

114. What literary theory or approach is shown in the following passage?

The difficulties involved in the governess’s effort to create a space for herself outside of
patriarchal boundaries are metaphorically represented in her struggle for the children. While she
believes she is engaged in a battle with the ghosts for the children’s souls, she is also,
symbolically, involved in overcoming patriarchal definitions of womanhood. Rejecting the
ineffectual role played by Mrs. Grose, the respectable matron character, the governess attempts to
define herself against the sexualized, whose figure, Miss Jessel, as she tries to supplant the male-
authority figure, Peter Quint. Neither of these roles can help her in her struggle for a subject
position, however, as is made clear when the governess cannot replace Miss Jessel to Flora, or
Quint for Miles.

A. Feminist Criticism
B. Psychoanalytic Theory
C. Reader-Response Criticism
D. Romantic Theory

115. What literary theory or approach is shown in the following passage?

Not only James’s governess fits the classic profile of the female sexual hysteric, she also
experiences “hysterical fit” observed by turn-off-the-century clinicians. That her first
hallucination precipitates a “nervous explosion” of some intensity is clear from her own account.
Like that of the classic hysteric, her “mental activity…is split up, and only a part of it is
conscious.” Her initial fantasy of her handsome employer is conscious, but his transformation
into a figure embodying her fear of sexuality is generated by deep-rooted unconscious inhibitions.

A. Marxist Literary Theory

B. Psychoanalytic Theory
C. Postmodern Literary Theory
D. Deconstruction

116. What literary theory or approach is shown in the following passage?

What is even more troublesome is disagreement among critics about just what standards
are to be applied. Two “straight” readers, seeing the ghosts as real and the story as an attempt to
“turn the screws” of horror as thrillingly as possible, might flatly disagree with each other about
whether the literary experience of thrilling horror is good or bad for “us,” or for a given immature
reader, or for a former governess now incarcerated in a mental institution.
Because of all this variety, we have to ask our questions as if we were dealing not with
one “The Turn of the Screw” but many different ones.

A. Deconstruction
B. Psychoanalytic Theory
C. Reader-Response Criticism
D. Marxist Literary Theory
117. If the teacher uses only basal readers for teaching her students to read, she most likely believes in
__________.
A. primarily a whole language approach
B. primarily in phonics approach
C. mixture of a whole language and phonics
D. individualized reading instruction

118. A parent walks into a classroom and sees the children in groups, each gathered around a poster
board. The children are writing ideas on the poster board in what looks like graffiti (writing on walls)
to the parent. When the parent asks the teacher what the children are doing, the teacher is likely to
explain that __________.
A. this is playtime, and the children need playtime because recess has been taken out of the
program
B. the children are involved in brainstorming, which is part of the prewriting stage of the writing
process
C. invented spelling and graffiti type expression are important to the child’s development
D. the children are creating final versions of posters to be displayed in the school fair

119. Each of the following is an effective strategy for a teacher who is facilitating a whole-class
discussion EXCEPT __________.
A. having the students sit in a circle instead of traditional rows
B. breaking the class into smaller discussion groups before concluding the whole-class
discussion
C. pausing and allowing silence to promote student participation
D. ensuring that all questions require simple-sentence answers

120. Which of the following activities will best help a teacher collect data that will inform instruction
to meet the individual needs of students?
A. concentric circles
B. K-W-L chart
C. book pass
D. reciprocal reasoning