COMEDK 2021 Sample Paper

CAREERS360
COMEDK2021
Sample Paper
Physics
Q. 1 The dimension of magnetic field in M, L, T and C (coulomb) is given as
Option 1:
MT-2C-1
Option 2:
MLT-1C-1
Option 3:
0
MT2C-2
36
Option 4:
MT-1C-1
Correct Answer:
MT-1C-1
Solution: S
R
Lorentz force is given by:
E
E
R
A
C
Q. 2 A particle has an initial velocity and an acceleration of Its speed after 10 s is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
using
0
36
Q. 3 A cylindrical vessel filled with water is released on an inclined surface of angle as shown in the
figure. The friction coefficient of the surface with the vessel is Then the constant
angle made by the surface of the water with the incline will be:
S
R
E

E
R
Option 1:
A
Option 2:
C
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt in
Acceleration of Block sliding down over rough inclined plane -
0
36
S
R

E
So using the above concept
below is the figure which shows forces acting on a 'particle' on the surface, with respect to vessel.
E
R
A
C
are pseudo forces).
is angle between normal to the inclined surface and the resultant force. The same angle will be formed between the surface of
water & the inclined surface.
{i.e free surface is perpendicular to the resultant force acting on it.}
Q. 4 A body of mass 5 kg under the action of constant force has velocity at t = 0s

as and at t = 10 s as The force is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
0
36
Correct Answer:
Solution:

S
R
In x direction

E
In y direction
E
R
A

C
Q. 5 One solid sphere A and another hollow sphere B are of same mass and same outer radii. Their
moment of inertia about their diameters are respectively such that
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Where and are their densities
Correct Answer:
Solution:

0

36
Solid sphere
Hollow sphere
i.e.
S
R

E

i.e.
E
Q. 6 What is the percentage change in gravity at the depth of 1/32 times of radius of earth. (In %)
R
A
Correct Answer:
3.125
C
Solution:
As we learnt
Percentage decrease in value of 'g' -

Variation in 'g'
Radius
Using the relation,
0
36
Q. 7
The figure shows a hollow cube of side 'a' of volume V. There is a small chamber of volume in
S
the cube as shown. This chamber is completely filled by m kg of water. Water leaks through a
hole H. Then the work done by gravity in this process is (assuming that the
R
complete water finally lies at the bottom of the cube is). Then what is the value of x
E
E
:
R
A
C
Option 1:
4
Option 2:
3
Option 3:
5
Option 4:
1
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
0
36
S
R
E
The center of mass of water when kept in chamber lies at a height from the bottom of the
cube.
Hence the initial potential energy of water

R
The same amount of water then falls inside the cube. Let the height upto which water fills the cube be h.
since the volume of water does not change,
A
C
Hence the center of mass of water in the cube
The gravitational potential of water finally is
Hence the work done by gravity on water = Loss in potential energy,
so x=5
Q. 8 An ideal gas has molecules with 5 degrees of freedom. The ratio of specific heats at constant
pressure (Cp) and at constant volume (Cv) is :
Correct Answer:
1.4
Solution:

Since, f = 5
0
36
Correct option is 4.
Q. 9 A gas is compressed from a volume of 2 m3 to a volume of 1 m3 at a constant pressure of 100

N/m2. Then it is heated at constant volume by supplying 150 J. of energy. As a result, the
S
internal energy of the gas :

R

E
Option 1:
E
Increases by 250 J
R
Option 2:
Decreases by 250 J
A
Option 3:
Increases by 50 J
C
Option 4:
Decreases by 50 J
Correct Answer:
Increases by 250 J
Solution:
As we have learned
First law of Thermodynamics -

Heat imported to a body in is in general used to increase internal energy and work done against external
pressure.
- wherein
0
U is increased by 250 J
36
Q. 10 Two engines pass each other moving in opposite directions with uniform speed of 30 m/s. One
of them is blowing a whistle of frequency 540 Hz. Calculate the frequency (in Hz) heard by
driver of second engine before they pass each other. Speed of sound is 330 m/sec :
S
R
Correct Answer:
648
E
Solution:
E
As we learnt in
Frequency of sound when source and observer are moving towards each other -
R
A

C
- wherein
Speed of sound
Speed of observer
speed of source
Original frequency
apparent frequency

Q. 11 Four closed surfaces and corresponding charge distributions are shown below.
0

36
S
R
E
E
R
Let the respective electric fluxes through the surfaces be Φ1, Φ2, Φ3 and Φ4. Then :
A
C
Option 1:
Φ1 < Φ2=Φ3 > Φ4
Option 2:
Φ1 > Φ2 > Φ3 > Φ4
Option 3:
Φ1=Φ2=Φ3=Φ4
Option 4:
Φ1 > Φ3 ; Φ2 < Φ4

Correct Answer:
Φ1=Φ2=Φ3=Φ4
Solution:
As we learned From Gauss's Law that
So using
0
36
Hence
S
R
Q. 12 On moving a charge of 20 coulomb by 2 cm, 2 J of work is done, then the potential difference
between the points is
E

E
Option 1:
R
Option 2:
A
C
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Electric Potential -
- wherein
w - work done
q0 - unit charge.
0

36
Q. 13
S
In the given figure,which of the following relation is correct?
R
E
E
R
A
C
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
In a circuit at any junction the sum of the currents entering the junction must equal the sum of the currents
leaving the junction .
This law is also known as Junction rule or current law
0

36
Total incoming current = Total outgoing current
Q. 14 S
There is a circular tube in a vertical plane. Two liquids which do not mix and of densities d1 and
R
d2 are filled in the tube. Each liquid subtends 900 angle at centre. Radius joining their interface
makes an angle with vertical. Ratio is :
E
E
R
A
C
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
0

36
pressure at interface A must be the same from both side in equilibrium.
So
S
R
E
E
R
A
C
Q. 15 The vertical wire kept in the Z-X plane carries a current from Q to P (see the figure). The
magnetic field due to current will have the direction at a origin O along
0
Option 1:
36
OX
Option 2:
Option 3:
S
R
OY
Option 4:
E
E
Correct Answer:
R
Solution:
As we learned
A
Maxwell's Cork Screw Rule -

C
It states that if a screw is placed in the direction of current through a conductor then the direction of rotation
of the screw gives the direction of the magnetic feild.
- wherein
0
36

S
R
Use right hand Palm rule or maxwell's cork screw rule or any other we get
The magnetic field due to current will have the direction at a origin O along
E

E
Q. 16 Two Carnot engines A and B are operated in series. Engine A receives heat from a reservoir at
600 K and rejects heat to a reservoir at temperature T. Engine B receives heat rejected by
R
engine A and in turn rejects it to a reservoir at 100 K. If the efficiencies of the two engines A and
B are represented by ηA and ηB, respectively,then what is the value of ? (Work output is
A
same for both)

C
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt
Efficiency of a carnot cycle -
0
36
are in kelvin
- wherein
Source temperature
S
R
Sink Temperature
E

E

R

A
C

0
36
S
R
E
E
from eqn1:
R
A
C
Q. 17 In a coil of resistance 100 , a current is induced by changing the magnetic flux through it as
shown in the figure. The magnitude of change in flux (in Wb) through the coil is :
Correct Answer:
0
250

36
Solution:
As we have learned
The Induced current is given by
S
R
So
E
E
R

A
Q. 18
C
A wire of length is made by joining two wires A and B of same length but different radii r
and 2r and made of the same material. It is vibrating at a frequency such that the joint of the
two wires forms a node. If the number of antinodes in wire A is p and that in B is q then the
ratio p:q is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:

36

The vibration of composite string when joint is a node (N) -

S
R
E
E
R
A
C
So
Q. 19 During the propagation of electromagnetic waves in a medium :
Option 1:
Electric energy density is double of the magnetic energy density.
Option 2:
Electric energy density is half of the magnetic energy density.
0
Option 3:
Electric energy density is equal to the magnetic energy density.
36

Option 4:
Both electric and magnetic energy densities are zero.
Correct Answer:
S
R
Electric energy density is equal to the magnetic energy density.

E
Solution:
As we have learned in
E
Speed of light formula in vacuum -

R
A
c=2.99793 X m/s
C
- wherein
c = Speed of light in vacuum
= Permeability of vacuum
= Permittivity of vacuum
and
Electric Energy density =
Magnetic Energy density =
Thus,
Energy is equally divided between electric and magnetic fields.
Q. 20 The space between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is filled with a ‘dielectric’ whose
‘dielectric constant’ varies with distance as per the relation :
0
36
The capacitance C, of this capacitor, would be related to its ‘vacuum’ capacitance Co as per the
relation :

S
R

E
Option 1:
E
R
Option 2:
A
Option 3:
C
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we discussed in
If K filled between the plates -
And
Capacitance of Conductor -
0
- wherein
36
C - Capacity or capacitance of conductor
V - Potential.
Given
S
R
E
E
R
, S= surface area of plate.

A
C
here,
Q. 21 An observer looks at a distant tree of height 10 m with a telescope of magnifying power of 20.
To the observer the tree appears
Option 1:
10 times taller.

Option 2:
10 times nearer.

Option 3:
20 times taller.

Option 4:
0
20 times nearer.
36
Correct Answer:
20 times nearer.
Solution:

S
R
Telescope resolves and brings the object closer which is far away from the telescope. Hence for telescope
with magnifying power 20, the tree appears 20 times nearer.
E
E

R
Q. 22 Four resistances of respectively in cyclic order to form Wheatstone's

network. The resistance that is to be connected in parallel with the resistance of to balance
A
the network is ___________ .

C
Correct Answer:
10
Solution:
0
For balanced Wheatstone bridge
36
As
So using
We get S
R
let we connected x-ohms in parallel to 10-ohm resistance
E
i.e
E
we get
R
So the answer will be 10.

A
Q. 23 If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, its de Broglie wavelength changes by the factor
C
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

As De Broglie’s Equation is given as
0

36
If kinetic energy is double then becomes times.
Correct answer is 1.
Q. 24
S
A long, straight wire of radius 'a' carries a current distributed uniformly over its cross-section.
R
The ratio of the magnetic fields due to the wire at distance and 2a, respectively from the axis
of the wire is:

E
E
Option 1:
R
Option 2:
A
Option 3:
C
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

0
36
S
R
E

E
R
A
C
Hence the option correct option is (3).

Q. 25
A copper rod of mass m slides under gravity on two smooth parallel rails, with separation and
set at an angle of θ with the horizontal. At the bottom, rails are joined by a resistance R. There is
a uniform magnetic field B normal to the plane of the rails, as shown in the figure. The terminal
speed of the copper rod is :
0
Option 1:
36
Option 2:
S
R
Option 3:
E
Option 4:
E
R
Correct Answer:
A
Solution:
C
As we learnt
Motional EMF -
- wherein
magnetic field
length
velocity of u perpendicular to uniform magnetic field.

and
Induced Current -
Similarly
Magnetic force -
0
36
- wherein
B Magnetic field
R Resistance
S
R
Velocity
E

So
E
At terminal Velocity
R
magnetic force
And
A
C
So using
magnetic force
Q. 26 A ion is in its first excited state . Its ionization energy (in eV) is :
Correct Answer:
13.6
Solution:

0
Ionization energy -
36
Energy required to move an electron from ground state to

S
R

E

E
we know that ,
R
A
in first excited state for

C

Q. 27 Using monochromatic light of wavelength , an experimentalist sets up the Young’s double slit
experiment in three ways as shown.
If she observes that , the wavelength of light used is :
0
36
S
R
E
E
R

A
C
Option 1:
520 nm
Option 2:
540 nm
Option 3:
560 nm
Option 4:
580 nm
Correct Answer:
540 nm
Solution:

Given
0

36

S
R
E
E
R
Now
A
C
Q. 28 To get an output of 1 from the circuit shown in figure the input must be :
Option 1:
a = 0, b = 1, c = 0
Option 2:
a = 1, b = 0, c = 0
Option 3:
a = 1, b = 0, c = 1
Option 4:
a = 0, b = 0, c = 1
Correct Answer:
0
a = 1, b = 0, c = 1
36
Solution:

To get an output of 1, from the NAND gate
both input should be 1.

S
R

E
C = 1
E
Now Resultant of a & b should be 1.

R
A
C
So the Correct option is 3.
Q. 29 The gate logic may be simplified as
Option 1:
Option 2:
A+B
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
A+B
Solution:
0
As we have learned
36
D'morgan's Theorem -
1)
2)
3)
S
R
4)
- wherein
E
A and B are input.

E

R
( using de morgans theorem )

A

C
{ since we know 1+x = 1}

Q. 30
A 2V battery is connected across AB as shown in the figure. The value of the current supplied by
the battery when in one case battery’s positive terminal is connected to A and in other case
when positive terminal of battery is connected to B will respectively be :
0
36

S
R
Option 1:
0.2 A and 0.1 A
E

Option 2:
E
0.4 A and 0.2 A

R
Option 3:
0.1 A and 0.2 A

A
Option 4:
C
0.2 A and 0.4 A
Correct Answer:
0.4 A and 0.2 A
Solution:
As we have learned
P -N junction as diode -
It is a one way device. It offers a low resistance when forward biased and high resistance when reverse
biased.
i.e
R = 0, for Forward biased
R for Reverse biased
0
36
In one case
NO current will pass through
I = 2/5 A = 0.4 A
In second case : no current will pass through

S
R
I = 2/10 = 0.2 A
E

E

R
Q. 31 A signal of 5 kHz frequency is amplitude modulated on a carrier wave of frequency 2 MHz. The
frequencies of the resultant signal is/are :
A
Option 1:
C
2 MHz only

Option 2:
2005 kHz, and 1995 kHz
Option 3:
2005 kHz, 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz

Option 4:
2000 kHz and 1995 kHz
Correct Answer:
2005 kHz, 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz

Solution:

0
As Amplitude modulated wave consists of three frequencies are
36
i.e. 2005 KHz, 2000 KHz, 1995 KHz
Q. 32 S
If the screw on screw-gauge is given six rotations, it moves by 3 mm on the main scale. If there
R
are 50 divisions on the circular scale the least count of the screw gauge is: (in cm)
E

E
Correct Answer:
0.001
R
Solution:
A

C
Pitch
L.C

Q. 33 The values of kinetic energy ‘K’ and potential energy ‘U’ are measured as follows :

Then the percentage error in the measurement of mechanical energy is :
Option 1:
2.5 %
Option 2:
0
1%
36
Option 3:
0.5 %
Option 4:
1.5 %
Correct Answer: S
R
1%
E
Solution:
E
R
Q. 34 Initially a car at rest accelerates uniformly to a speed of 144 Km/h in 20 sec . Then it covers a
distance of

C
Option 1:
20 m
Option 2:
400 m
Option 3:
1440 m
Option 4:
12880 m
Correct Answer:
400 m
Solution:

0

36
S
R
s
E

E

R
Q. 35 Three identical blocks of masses 2kg each, are kept on smooth surface. The system is drawn by
applying forces of 15N and 3N as shown in the figure. Determine the Tension T1 (in N) in one
A
the string as shown in the figure.

C
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
Solution
Given-
m1=m2=m3=2kg, F1=15N, F2=3N
Let the acceleration of the blocks be 'a'.
F.B.D of all the blocks combined-
0
F.B.D of leftmost block-
36
S
R
E
Q. 36 The potential energy of a 1 kg particle free to move along the x -axis is given by
E
R
The total mechanical energy of the particle 2 J. Then, the maximum speed (in m/s) is
A
Option 1:
C
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
If only conservative forces act on a system, total mechnical energy remains constant -
0

36
Potential energy
First we neet to calculate minimum potential energy.
When potential energy is minimum

S
R
E
V(x = 0) = 0
E
R
So minimum potential energy

A
K.E. + P.E. = Total mechanical energy.

C

Correct answer is 2
Q. 37
A uniform thin rod AB of length L has linear mass density , where x is
measured from A. If the CM of the rod lies at a distance of from A, then a and b are
related as :
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
36
Option 3:
Option 4:
S
R
Correct Answer:
E
E
Solution:
As we learnt
R
Centre of Mass of a continuous Distribution -

A
C
- wherein
dm is mass of small element. x, y, z are coordinates of dm part.
As we know that

Given
After solving we get b = 2a.
Q. 38 Find the net gravitational field intensity at the centroid of an equilateral triangle as shown in
figure
0
36
S
R

E

E
R
Option 1:
A

C
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

0
36
S
R
The resultant field at point 0 due to masses m and m
E
E
Field due to mass 2m at point 0

R
A
Therefore net field

C

Q. 39 The velocity of water in a river is 18 km/hr near the surface. If the river is 5 m deep , find the
shearing stress (in N/m2) between the horizontal layers of water.
The co-efficient of viscosity of water=10-2 poise.
0
36
Correct Answer:
0.001
Solution:
As given
S
R
and As we have learned
E

E
R
A
C
Q. 40 Two moles of helium are mixed with n moles of hydrogen.
If
for the mixture, then the value of n is :
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
As we have learned
Atomicity or adiabatic coefficient (gamma) -
- wherein
0
for Monoatomic gas
36
for Diatomic gas
for Triatomic gas
S
R
E

E
R
or n=2
A

C

Q. 41 Two rigid boxes containing different ideal gases are placed on a table. Box A contains one mole
of nitrogen at temperature while Box B contains one mole of helium at temperature (7/3)
The boxes are then put into thermal contact with each other and heat flows between them
until the gases reach a common final temperature. (Ignore the heat capacity of boxes). Then,
the final temperature of the gases, in terms of is
Option 1:
Option 2:
0
36
Option 3:
Option 4:
S
R
Correct Answer:
E
E
Solution:
Since boxes are rigid
R
So
A

C
As given in the question we have to Ignore the heat capacity of boxes.
So
So using the first law of thermodynamics
we get
i.e
Q. 42 A system is shown in the figure. The time period for small oscillations of the two blocks will be.

0
36
Option 1:

Option 2:
S
R
Option 3:
E
E
Option 4:
R
A
Correct Answer:
C
Solution:

Time period of oscillation for spring mass system -
- wherein
m = mass of block
K = spring constant
Series combination of spring -
0
- wherein
36
are spring constants of spring 1 & 2 respectively.
S
R
Here, both the spring are in series
E
E
Time period
R
Where
A
Here
C
Method II
force equation for first block;

Put
0

36

Q. 43
S
A capacitance of 2 µF is required in an electrical circuit across a potential difference of 1.0 kV. A
large number of 1 µF capacitors are available which can withstand a potential difference of not
more than 300 V.
R
The minimum number of capacitors required to achieve this is :
E

E
Option 1:
R
2
A
Option 2:
16
C
Option 3:
24
Option 4:
32
Correct Answer:
32
Solution:
As we learnt in
Series Grouping -
- wherein
0
So
we need 4 capacitors to withstand 1000V
36
4 capacitance in series gives
to get we have to connect such 8 branches in parallel
S
R

E
Q. 44 A transmitting antenna at the top of a tower has a height 32 m and the height of the receiving
antenna is 50 m. What is the maximum distance (in km ) between them for satisfactory
E
communication in line of sight (LOS) mode ?

R
Correct Answer:
A
45.5

C
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Range of transmitting antenna -

- wherein
0
height of antenna
36
Radius of earth
Range
S
R

E

E
Q. 45 In the given circuit diagram, a wire is joining points B and D. The current in this wire is: (current
R
in amperes,A)
A
C
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:

So after drawing the circuit
0

36
S
R
E
E
R

A
C
Q. 46 A galvanometer has a resistance of 30 and a current of 2mA is needed for a full scale
deflection. The resistance (in ) that should be used to convert it into a voltmeter of 0.2V
range is
Correct Answer:
70
Solution:
As we learnt
Conversion of galvanometer into voltameter -
Connected a large Resistance in series
- wherein
0
36

To convert galvanometer into voltmeter of 0.2V range

S
R
E
E

R
Q. 47 In a certain region static electric and magnetic fields exist. The magnetic field is given by
A
If a test charge moving with a velocity experiences

C
no force in that region, then the electric field in the region, in SI units, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
0
36
Solution:

S
R
E
E
R
A
Electric field produced by the charge

C
Q. 48 A magnetic dipole is acted upon by two magnetic fields which are inclined to each other at an
angle of 750. One of the fields has a magnitude of 15 mT. The dipole attains stable equilibrium
at an angle of 300 with this field. The magnitude of the other field (in mT ) is close to :
Correct Answer:
11
Solution:
As we learnt in
Torque -
- wherein
M - magnetic moment
0

For stable equilibrium, net torque acting on dipole must be zero
36
or,
S
R
E
E
Q. 49 The flux linked with a coil at any instant t is given by = 10t2 - 50t + 250. The induced emf (in
R
Volts) at t = 3s is
A
Correct Answer:
C
-10
Solution:
As we learnt in
Rate of change of magnetic Flux -
- wherein
change in flux
= 10t2 - 50t + 250
0

36
Q. 50 A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 283 V and angular frequency ( ) as 320 rad/s is applied to a
series LCR circuit. Given that R=5 , L=25 mH and C=1000 µF. The total impedance, and phase
difference between the voltage across the source and the current will respectively be :

S
R
Option 1:
E
E
Option 2:
R

A
Option 3:
C
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Impedence -
R = , L = 25 mH, C = 1000 F
0
= 320/s
36
=
S
R
=
Total Impedance
E
Z =
E
Phase difference =
R
A
Q. 51 An electromagnetic wave of frequency passes from vacuum into a dielectric

medium with permitivity
C
Option 1:
wavelength is doubled and the frequency remains unchanged
Option 2:
wavelength is doubled and frequency becomes half
Option 3:
wavelength is halved and frequency remains unchanged
Option 4:
wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged.
Correct Answer:
wavelength is halved and frequency remains unchanged
Solution:
As discussed in
Wavelength of EM Wave -
0
- wherein
36
= Wavelength in vacuum
= Refractive index of medium
S
R
E
Since
E
R
Q. 52 The rms value of the electric field of the light coming from the sun is 720 N/C . The average total
A
energy density of the electromagnetic wave is

C
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
0
36
Q. 53
S
A convex lens, of focal length 30 cm, a concave lens of focal length 120 cm, and a plane mirror
are arranged as shown. For an object kept at a distance of 60 cm from the convex lens, the final
R
image, formed by the combination, is a real image, at a distance of :
E
E
R
A
C
Option 1:
60 cm from the convex lens
Option 2:
60 cm from the concave lens
Option 3:
Option 4:
70 cm from the concave lens
Correct Answer:
Solution:

0

36
Len's formula is given by
For convex lens =

S
R
For concanve lens =
E
Virtual object 10 cm behind plane mirror.
E
Hence real image 10 cm infront of mirror or 60 cm from convex lens.

R

A
Q. 54 An object is kept at 40 cm from a concave mirroe of focal length 20 cm. If the object start
C
moving along perpendicular to principle axis with 6 cm/s then velocity of image is :
Option 1:
3 cm/s
Option 2:
4 cm/s
Option 3:
6 cm/s
Option 4:
8 cm/s
Correct Answer:
6 cm/s
Solution:
As we learn
If object is moving perpendicular to the principal axis -
0

- wherein
36
velocity of object perpendicular to the principal axis.
S
velocity of image perpendicular to the principal axis.
R

E
E
R

A
C
u = -40 cm , f = -20 cm
V= -40 cm

Q. 55 The maximum velocity of the photoelectrons emitted from the surface is v when light of
frequency n falls on a metal surface. If the incident frequency is increased to 3n, the maximum
velocity of the ejected photoelectrons will be :
Option 1:
0
less than V
36
Option 2:
Option 3:
more than V
Option 4: S
R
equal to V
E
Correct Answer:
more than V
E
Solution:

R
A
......(1)
C
(From equation (1))
Correct answer is option 3.

Q. 56 A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by monochromatic light of wavelengths
and . If the maximum
kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the second case is 3 times that in the first case,
the work function of the surface is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
0
36
Option 3:
Option 4:
S
R
Correct Answer:
E
E
Solution:
As we have learned
R
Conservation of energy -
A
C
So

0
36
Q. 57 The photoelectric threshold for some material is 200nm. The material is irradiated with
radiations of wavelength 40nm. The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectron is
Option 1: S
R
2ev
E
Option 2:
1ev
E
Option 3:
0.5ev
R
Option 4:
None of these
A
Correct Answer:
None of these
C
Solution:
As we learned
Threshold Wavelength -
The maximum wave length of incident raditaion required to eject the electron is Threshold Wavelength
- wherein
If No photoelectron emission

work function
energy of incident radiation
0
36
of photoelectron =

Q. 58 S
Half-lives of two radioactive elements A and B are 20 minutes and 40 minutes, respectively.
R
Initially, the samples have equal number of nuclei. After 80 minutes, the ratio of decayed
numbers of A and B nuclei will be :
E
E
Option 1:
1 : 16

R
Option 2:
A
4:1

C
Option 3:
1 : 4

Option 4:
5:4

Correct Answer:
5:4

Solution:
As we learnt in
Number of nuclei in terms of half life -
A (T1/2 = 20 minutes)
B (T1/2 = 40 minutes)
0
36
at t = 80 min.
S
R
at t = 80 min.
E
E
Decayed number of
R
Decayed number of

A
Ratio
C
Correct option is 4
Q. 59 A nucleus with emits the following in a sequence :
. The Z of the resulting nucleus is
Option 1:
78
Option 2:
76
Option 3:
82
Option 4:
74
Correct Answer:
78
Solution:
0

36

S
R

E
Total number of paticle = 8

E
Total number of particle = 4

R
Total number of particle = 2
Atomic number =
A
C
Q. 60 A nucleus disintegrates into two nuclear parts which have their velocities in the ratio 2:1 The
ratio of their nuclear sizes will be
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

From conservation of momentum
0
m1v1 = m2v2
36
Hence, A1v1 = A2v2
S
R
E
E
Chemistry
R
Q. 1
A
Calculate the molarity of 0.450 N HCl.

C
Option 1:
0.450 M
Option 2:
0.650 M
Option 3:
0.386 M
Option 4:
0.225 M
Correct Answer:
0.450 M
Solution:
Normality -
Normality: “Number of gram equivalents of solute present in one litre of solution is called normality of
solution”.
Normality (N) = Number of gm. equivalents of solute/volume of solution( litre)
Number of gm. equivalents of solute = w/E =weight of solute/Equivalent weight of solute
N = w / E.V(litre)
0
Equivalent weight = Molar mass/n.
36
Relation between molarity and normality:
Normality X Equivalent weight = Molarity X molar mass.
Normality = Molarity X valency.
Normality = Molarity X number of H+ or OH- ions.

S
R
The unit symbol for normality is N. It is also denoted as (equivalent per liter) which is also known as
E
normality.
E

R

A

C
Given:
Normality of HCl = 0.450 N
It means it has 0.450 equivalents of HCl in 1000ml of solution.
The HCl produces only 1 proton (H+) in its solution.
Therefore, 0.450 equivalents = 0.450 moles in 1000ml
So, the molarity = 0.450 M
Therefore, Option(1) is correct
Q. 2 The energy of an electron in a hydrogenic ion depends on
Option 1:
Principal quantum number only

Option 2:
Principal and azimuthally quantum number only

Option 3:
0
Principal, azimuthally, magnetic quantum number only

36
Option 4:
All four quantum number
Correct Answer:
Principal quantum number only
S
R
Solution:
E
As we learn
Principal Quantum Number -

E
The principal quantum number determines the size and to a large extent the energy of the orbital.
R
-
A
The energy of hydrogenic ion depends on principal quantum number only

C
Hence, the option number (1) is correct.
Q. 3 Similarity in chemical properties of the atoms of elements in a group of the Periodic table is
most closely related to :
Option 1:
atomic numbers
Option 2:
atomic masses
Option 3:
number of principal energy levels
Option 4:
number of valence electrons
Correct Answer:
number of valence electrons
Solution:
0
As learnt in
36
Modern periodic law -
The physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic number.
S
Elements that are in the same group, most of the times, have the same number of valence electrons. The
number of valence electrons is directly related to the chemical properties of elements.
R
E
Q. 4 Which of the following interactions is also known as London forces?

E
R
Option 1:
Dipole-dipole interactions
A
Option 2:
Ion- dipole interactions
C
Option 3:
Dipole – Induced Dipole Interactions.
Option 4:
Instantaneous Dipole – Induced Dipole Interactions.
Correct Answer:
Instantaneous Dipole – Induced Dipole Interactions.
Solution:

Van der Waal Forces -
Van der Waal Forces
Van der Waal force of attraction is the force of attraction between the molecules. This force is weaker
compared to bonds like covalent and ionic bonds.
Van der Waal forces can be divided into various categories as follows:
Ion-dipole interaction: This type of interaction exists between an ion and a polar molecule like HF, HCl, H2O,
etc. The ion can be like Na+. This type of interaction is responsible for the dissolution of ions in solution.
Dipole-Dipole interaction: This type of interaction exists between two or more polar molecules. These dipoles
can be H-Cl and H-Cl, NH3 and NF3, etc. Hydrogen bonding is a special type of dipole-dipole interaction.
0
Ion-Induced dipole interaction: This type of interaction exists between the ion and non-polar molecule. The
charge on the ion causes the distortion in the electron cloud of the non-polar molecule and thus induces a
36
dipole in the non-polar molecule. Then the ion and the induced-dipole attract each other.
Dipole-Induced dipole interaction: This kind of interaction exists between a polar and a non-polar molecule.
For example, CCl4 in H2O. One of the dipole molecules distorts the electron cloud in the non-polar molecule
and thus creates the dipole in non-polar as well.
S
Instantaneous dipole-dipole interaction: This type of interaction exists between two non-polar molecules.
R
This force is also known as London forces. At any instant, electrons in one non-polar molecule come closer to
each other and then this molecule becomes a dipole for instance. This instantaneous dipole distorts the
E
electron cloud in another non-polar molecule and thus both behave like polar molecules. For example CCl4
and CCl4.
E

R
The strength of these forces follows the given order:
Ion-Dipole > Dipole-Dipole > Ion-Induced Dipole > Dipole-Induced Dipole > London Forces
A
-
C
As we have learnt,
This force is sometimes called an induced dipole-induced dipole attraction. Because of the constant motion
of the electrons, an atom or molecule can develop a temporary instantaneous dipole when its electrons are
distributed unsymmetrically about the nucleus.
Hence option number (4) is correct.

Q. 5 Which of the following is an amorphous solid ?
Option 1:
Glass
Option 2:
NaCl
Option 3:
AgCl
0
Option 4:
ZnS
36
Correct Answer:
Glass
Solution:
As we learnt in
S
R
Amorphous solid -
Solid in which constituent particles are not arranged in a definite regular order up to infinite array in three dimensions.
E
It may have a regular array of particles up to the short distance. It is isotropic and have diffused melting point.
E
- wherein
Ex. rubber, glass

R
Glass is amorphous solid because it has irregular arrangement constituent particles. Glass is not a true solid, it is a
supercooled liquid.
A

C
Q. 6 Two droplets merge with each other and form a large droplet. In this process:
Option 1:
Energy is liberated
Option 2:
Energy is absorbed
Option 3:
Neither liberated nor absorbed
Option 4:
Some mass is converted into energy
Correct Answer:
Energy is liberated
Solution:
As we learnt in
Surface energy -
0
The energy required to increase the surface area of the liquid by one unit is defined as surface energy.
36
-
When two droplets merge with each other, their surface energy decreases.
Hence, the option number (1) is correct. S

R
Q. 7 In the figure shown below reactant A (represented by square) is in equilibrium with product B
E
(represented by circle). The equilibrium constant is :
E
R
A

C
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

0
The concentration of [B] as represented by circle = 11
and the concentration of [A] as represented by square = 6
36
Therefore, the value of the equilibrium constant is near 2.
Q. 8 Calculate the value of n if,

S
R
E
Option 1:
1
E
Option 2:
2
R
Option 3:
3
A
Option 4:
4
C
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Thus, the above equation gives a relationship between the equilibrium constant of the reaction and standard
potential of the cell in which that reaction takes place. Thus, equilibrium constants of the reaction, difficult to
measure otherwise, can be calculated from the corresponding Eo value of the cell.

0
36
Therefore,option(2) is correct
Q. 9 S
Why salt is sprayed on the snow in cold countries?
R
E
Option 1:
To decrease the freezing point of water

R
Option 2:
A
To Increase the freezing point of water
Option 3:
C
To melt the Ice at high temperature
Option 4:
None
Correct Answer:
To decrease the freezing point of water
Solution:
As we learned
Salting of Roads -
In cold countries, salt is sprayed on snow to melt it at low temperature because of depression in freezing
point
In cold countries, salt is sprayed on the snow to melt it at low temperature because of depression in
freezing point
0
36
Q. 10 2 moles of chlorine gas occupies a volume of 800 ml at 300 K and 50 bar pressure. Calculate the
compressibility factor of the gas.
Option 1:
0.8
S
R
Option 2:
0.87
E
Option 3:
0.97
E
Option 4:
R
0.89
A
Correct Answer:
0.8
C
Solution:

Value of Compressibility Factor at High P and Low P -
Explanations for Real Gas Behaviour
At very low pressure for one mole of a gas, the value of 'p' and 'b' can be ignored so Van der Waal's equation
becomes equal to an ideal gas.
PV=RT
At moderate pressure, the value of 'nb' or 'b' can be ignored so Van der Waal's equation becomes
Hence PV < RT
so,
At high pressure, the value of 'p' can be ignored so Van der Waal's equation can be written as
0
36
S
R
-
E
We have given:
V = 800 ml or 0.80 L
T = 300 K
P = 50 bar
For the compressibility factor, we know:

R
A
C
Q. 11 The label on a H2O2 bottle reads as 10 Vol. How many grams of H2O2 are present in 1 L of the solution?
Option 1:
15.17 g
Option 2:
45.28 g
Option 3:
30.36 g
Option 4:
60.71 g
Correct Answer:
30.36 g
Solution:
0
36
Therefore, option (3) is correct
Q. 12 Negative catalyst is one

S
R
Option 1:
E
Which retards the rate of reaction
E
Option 2:
Takes the reaction in forward direction
R
Option 3:
Promotes the side reaction
A
Option 4:
None of these
C
Correct Answer:
Which retards the rate of reaction
Solution:
Negative Catalyst is one which retards the rate of reaction.
Positive Catalyst is one which accelerates the rate of reaction.
Therefore, option (1) is correct.

Q. 13 Which one of the following order shows the correct increasing order of basicity of alkali metal
hydroxides?
Option 1:
CsOH<RbOH<KOH<NaOH
Option 2:
NaOH<KOH<RbOH<CsOH
Option 3:
KOH<RbOH<NaOH<CsOH
0
Option 4:
36
NaOH<RbOH<KOH<CsOH
Correct Answer:
NaOH<KOH<RbOH<CsOH
Solution:
As we learnt S
R

E
Importance of ionisation potential -

E
The elements with low values of I.P are basic in nature.

R
-
A
As we move down the group, the ionisation enthalpy decreases. As a result, the M-OH bond is more and
more easily cleaved and hence basic strength increases down the group.
C
Q. 14 Which of the following statement is true for according to VSEPR theory?
Option 1:
The lone pair and two double bonds occupy the equatorial positions of trigonal bipyramid.
Option 2:
It has hybridisation and is T-shaped.
Option 3:
Its structure is analogous to
Option 4:
(1) and (3) both
Correct Answer:
(1) and (3) both
Solution:
0

36
Determination of shape of molecules using VSEPR Theory -
VSEPR Rules:
1. Identify the central atom
2. Count its valence electrons

S
R
3. Add one electron for each bonding atom
4. Add or subtract electrons for charge

E
5. Divide the total of these by 2 to find the total number of electron pairs
E
6. Use this number to predict the shape

R

A
- wherein
C
0
36
S
R
E

E

R

A
VSEPR Theory -
C
1. The shape of the molecule is determined by repulsions between all of the electron pair present in valence
shell.
2. Order of repulsion

3 Repulsion among the bond pair is directly proportional to the bond order and electronegativity difference
between the central atom and the other atom.

Thus, (1) and (3) are both correct
0
Q. 15 The process of ore dressing is carried out to:
36
Option 1:
Remove the silicious materials
Option 2: S
R
Add flux to the mineral
Option 3:
E
Convert the ore to oxide
E
Option 4:
Remove the poisonous impurities
R
Correct Answer:
Remove the silicious materials
A
Solution:
As we have learnt,
C
Metallurgy -
Have you ever wondered how do we get various metal like iron, gold, silver, and aluminium, etc and use
them for a variety of purposes. Well in this chapter (General Principle and process of Isolation of metals) you
will be introduced to how do we extract metals from their ores and how do we process it for final
use.society. Metals gave us weapons, tools, ornaments, utensils,
etc. The ‘Seven metals of antiquity’, are gold, copper, silver, lead, tin, iron and mercury.
To obtain a particular metal, we look for minerals. Minerals are basically naturally occurring chemical
substances in the earth's crust which are obtained through mining. Out of many minerals in which a metal
may be found, only a few are viable to be used as source of that metal. Such minerals are known as ores.
Metallurgy is a process of extracting metals from their ores and modifying the metals as per the needs.
Metallurgy usually refers to the commercial method of extracting metals as opposed to laboratory methods.
It also deals with the chemical, physical, and atomic properties and structures of metals and alloys (mixture
of metals).
0
36
S
R
E
E
-
R
Removal of silicious matter from ores is known as dressing or concentration of ore.

A
C
Q. 16 At constant volume, of an ideal gas when heated from to changes its

internal energy by . The molar heat capacity (J/mol · K) at constant volume is ______.
Correct Answer:
6.25
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Thus, the correct answer is
Hence, the option number (1) is correct
Q. 17 pKa value of acetic acid is 4.75. If the buffer solution contains 0.125 M acetic acid and 0.25 M
sodium acetate, the pH of buffer solution is:
Option 1:
0
10.5
36
Option 2:
50.5
Option 3:
5.05
Option 4: S
R
1.05
E
Correct Answer:
5.05
E
Solution:
As we learnt,
R
A
C
Therefore,option(3) is correct
Q. 18 If the resistance of a cell with cell constant is then find the resistance if cell
constant is changed to .
Option 1:
135
Option 2:
1.67
Option 3:
0.6
Option 4:
None
Correct Answer:
135
Solution:
0

36
If is changed to 9, then S
R
E

E
Q. 19 Benzene and toluene form nearly ideal solutions. At 20°C, the vapour pressure of benzene is 75
R
torr and that of toluene is 22 torr. The partial vapour pressure of benzene at 20°C for a solution
containing 78g of benzene and 46g of toluene in torr is:
A
C
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:

Therefore, option(1) is correct

Q. 20 No. of transition state in given figure
0
36
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
2
S
R
Option 3:
3
E
Option 4:
4
E
Correct Answer:
R
2
A
Solution:
As we learnt
C
Transition State -
When the reacting molecules come to such a degree of closeness and distortion that a small further
distortion sends them to product formation. This crucial configuration is called the Transition State.

Q. 21 Ejection of the photoelectron from metal in the photoelectric effect experiment can be stopped
by applying 0.5 V when the radiation of 250 nm is used. The work function (eV) of the metal is :
Option 1:
4
Option 2:
4.5
Option 3:
5
0
Option 4:
36
5.5
Correct Answer:
4.5
Solution:
S
R
E

E
R
A

C
Q. 22 The correct option among the following is :
Option 1:
Colloidal medicines are more effective because they have small surface area.
Option 2:
Addition of alum to water makes it unfit for drinking .
Option 3:
Colloidal particles in lyophobic sols can be precipitated by electrophoresis.
Option 4:
Brownian motion in colloidal solution is faster if the viscosity of the solution is very high.
Correct Answer:
Colloidal particles in lyophobic sols can be precipitated by electrophoresis.
Solution:
As we have learnt,
(1) Colloidal medicines are more effective because they have large surface area.
0
(2) Addition of alum to water makes it suitable for drinking.
36
(3) Colloidal particles in lyophobic sols can be precipitated by electrophoresis. These are those sols in which
the dispersed phase has no attraction for the dispersion medium or the solvent.
(4) Brownian motion in colloidal particles increases with the decrease in viscosity of the dispersion medium.
Therefore, Option(3) is correct.
S
R
Q. 23 If the molecule of HCl were totally polar, the expected value of dipole moment is D(debye)
but the experimental value of dipole moment was . The percentage ionic character is:
E
E
Option 1:
17
R
Option 2:
83
A
Option 3:
C
50
Option 4:
Zero
Correct Answer:
17
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Percentage ionic character is given by the following formula

Hence, option number (1) is correct
Q. 24 If the total energy of a gas molecule is 'x' KJ before collision then the total energy of that
molecule after collision?
( Assumed that collision is perfectly elastic)
Option 1:
More than x
0
Option 2:
Less than x
36
Option 3:
Equal to x
Option 4:
None of these
S
R
Correct Answer:
Equal to x
E
Solution:

E

R
Kinetic Molecular Theory of Gases -
All the gas laws that we have discussed like Boyle's law, Charles' Law, Avogadro's Law are merely based on
A
the experimental evidence. There was no theoretical background to justify them. So, the scientists were
curious to know why the gases behave in a peculiar manner under certain set of conditions. From Charles'
law we got to know that the gases expand on heating. But there was no theory to give the reason for such
C
fact. So, there was a need for some theory which could tell about the happenings at the molecular level and
so could answer all the questions arising regarding the behaviour of gases.
Later a theory was given called kinetic molecular theory of gases to provide a sound theoretical basis for
various gas laws. The kinetic theory of gases is based on the following assumptions or postulates:
Actual volume of gas molecules is negligible in comparison to the total volume of the gas: Postulate says that
all the gases are made up of extremely small particles called molecules dispersed throughout the container.
These particles are so small that they are regarded as point masses. As they are point masses, so the actual
volume occupied by the gas molecules is negligible in comparison to the total volume of the gas.

Support for the assumption. This assumption explains the great compressibility of gases because there is a
lot of empty space between the gas molecule.
No force of attraction between the gas molecules: As the distance between the gas molecules is very large,
so it is assumed that there is no force of attraction between the gas molecules at ordinary temperature and
0
pressure.
Support for the assumption: Due to no force of attraction between the gas molecules, therefore the gases
36
easily expand and occupy all the space available to them on heating.
Particles of gas are in constant random motion: Particles of gas are in a state of constant random motion.
Support for the assumption: This assumption is supported by the fact that gases do not have a fixed shape
because of their random motion.
S
Particles of gas collide with each other and with the walls of the container: ParticLes of gas move in a straight
R
line with high velocities in all the possible directions. During their this motion, they collide with each other
and with the walls of the container in which gas is enclosed and even change direction upon collisions.
E
E
R
A
C
Support for the assumption. Gas exerts some pressure. Pressure of the gas exerted is just because of the
collisions of particles with the walls of the container.
Collisions are perfectly elastic: When the gas molecules collide with each other they pass on their energies.
There is a transfer of energy from one colliding molecule to the other but the total energy of molecules
before and after the collision remains the same therefore, the collisions are called perfectly elastic. So, there
is no net loss of energy.
Support for the assumption: As there is no loss of kinetic energy, therefore the motion of molecules do not
cease so, the gases never settle down.
Different particles of the gas, have different speeds: Different particles of gas possess different kinetic
energies, therefore they have different speeds at a particular time.
Support for the assumption: This postulate is reasonable as when the molecules collide, they change their
speed. Even though the initial speeds are same, but after collisions, there is transfer of energy from one
molecule to the other. So, as the energy changes after the collisions, so do the speeds. But the distribution of
speeds remains constant at a particular temperature.
The average kinetic energy of the gas molecules is directly proportional to the absolute temperature: As
discussed in the above assumption the speed of a molecule changes with time, i.e. the speed of a molecule is
variable. Therefore we talk about the average kinetic energy of the molecules Kinetic molecular theory of
0
gases establishes a link between the molecular motion and temperature. As the temperature increases, so
the kinetic energy also increases
36
-
As we learnt in Kinetic Theory of Gases - Collisions of gas molecules are perfectly elastic. This means that the
total energy of molecules before and after the collisions remains the same.
Therefore, Option (3) is correct S

R
Q. 25 Find the equilibrium constant for the reaction given at if and
E
.
E
R
Option 1:
A
Option 2:
C
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
We know at standard conditions
Given data:
0
So,
Now,
36
Hence,
S
R
Therefore, Option (3) is correct.
E
Q. 26 Match the refining methods (Column I) with metals (Column II).
Column I Column II
E
(Refining methods) Metals)

R
(I) Liquation (a) Zr

A
(II) Zone Refining (b) Ni
(III) Mond Process (c) Sn

C
(IV) Van Arkel Method (d) Ga
Option 1:
(I) - (c); (II) - (a); (III) - (b); (IV) - (d)
Option 2:
(I) - (b); (II) - (c); (III) - (d); (IV) - (a)
Option 3:
(I) - (c); (II) - (d); (III) - (b); (IV) - (a)
Option 4:
(I) - (b); (II) - (d); (III) - (a); (IV) - (c)
Correct Answer:
(I) - (c); (II) - (d); (III) - (b); (IV) - (a)
Solution:

Liquation Process -
This process is based on the difference in fusibility of the metal and impurities.
0
- wherein
This method is used to purify the metals like Bi,Sn,Pb,Hg etc.
36
Zone Refining -
A movable heater is fitted around a rod of impure metal.The heater is slowly moved across the rod.The
metal melt at the point of heating and as the heater moves on from one end of the rod to the other end, the
S
pure metal crystallised while the impurities pass on adjacent melted zone.
R
- wherein
E
E
R

A
Vapour Phase Refining -

C
There are two main requirment of this method.The metal should form a volatile compound is collected and
then decomposed to give a pure metal.
- wherein
Mond process Ni+CO Ni[CO]4 Impure
Ni [CO]4 Ni +4CO Pure
Liquation is used for Sn.

Zone refining is used for Ga.
Monds process is used for Ni.
Van arkel process is used for Zr.
(I) - (c) ; (II) - (d) ; (III) - (b) ; (IV) - (a)
Q. 27 Find the emf of the following cell :
0
36
Option 1:
0.47 V
Option 2:
0.56 V
Option 3: S
R
0.51 V
Option 4:
E
0.60 V
E
Correct Answer:
0.47 V
R
Solution:
As we have learned
A
M(s) is Solid -
C
[M] = 1
- wherein

0
Q. 28 Among the statements (a) - (d), the correct ones are:
36
(a) Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide gives dioxygen.
(b) Like hydrogen peroxide, compounds, such as when

heated liberate dioxygen.
S
(c) 2-Ethylanthraquinone is useful fo the industrial prepartion of hydrogen peroxide.
R
(d) Hydrogen peroxide is used for the manufacture of sodium perborate.
E
Option 1:
E
a, b, c and d
Option 2:
R
a , b and c only
A
Option 3:
a, c and d only
C
Option 4:
a and c only
Correct Answer:
a, b, c and d
Solution:
As we have learnt,

Chemical Properties of H2O2 -
It acts as an oxidising as well as a reducing agent in both acidic and alkaline media. Simple reactions are
described below.
Stability: It is unstable in nature. It decomposes on standing and heating. It is an example of auto oxidation-
reduction reaction.
Acidic nature: The pure liquid has weak acidic nature but its aqueous solution is neutral towards litmus. It
reacts with alkalies and carbonates to give their corresponding peroxides.
Oxidising nature: It is a powerful oxidising agent. It is an electron acceptor in acidic and alkaline solutions.
Reducing nature: H2O2 can also act as a reducing agent towards powerful oxidising agents.
In alkaline medium, its reducing agent is more effective.
0

36
-
All option are correct.
S
R
Q. 29 for a hypothetical reaction
E
and
E
If these reactions are carried simultaneously in a reactor such that temperature is not changing.
R
If rate of disappearance of B is then rate of formation of Q is

A
Option 1:
C
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Rates in presence of stoichiometry of reactants/products -
When stoichiometry coefficients of reactants/ products are not equal to one, the rate of disappearance of &
0
the rate of appearance of products is divided by their respective stoichiometric coefficients
36
- wherein
S
R
E

E

R
from enthalpy we can see that 2x energy is released by first reaction and only x energy is taken by second
reaction and temperature is constant,so second reaction will be 2 times faster than first reaction.
A
C

Q. 30 Very pure hydrogen (99.9%) can be made by which of the following processes?
Option 1:
Reaction of methane with steam
Option 2:
Mixing natural hydrocarbons of high molecular weight
Option 3:
Electrolysis of water
0
Option 4:
Reaction of salt like hydrides with water
36
Correct Answer:
Electrolysis of water
Solution:
S
Dihydrogen of high purity is usually prepared by the electrolysis of water using platinum electrodes in
presence of small amount of acid or alkali
R
E
Dihydrogen is collected at cathode.

E
Therefore the correct option is (3).

R
Q. 31 In a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell, combustion of hydrogen occurs to

A
Option 1:
C
generate heat
Option 2:
create potential difference between the two electrodes
Option 3:
produce high purity water
Option 4:
remove adsorbed oxygen from electrode surface.
Correct Answer:
create potential difference between the two electrodes
Solution:
As we learnt in
Uses of Hydrogen -
1) For the synthesis of ammonia (NH3).
2) For the production of methanol.
3) In Oxyhydrogen torches.
0
4) In a fuel cell.
36
- wherein
Fuel cells generate pioneer by establishing a potential difference between 2 electrodes.
Therefore, option(2) is correct.
Q. 32 (i) (ii) S
(iii) (iv)
R
Choose the complex which is paramagnetic.
E
E
Option 1:
(i), (ii)
R
Option 2:
(ii), (iii)
A
Option 3:
(i), (iii)
C
Option 4:
(i), (ii) and (iv)
Correct Answer:
(i), (iii)
Solution:
As we learned
Paramagnetism -
The complex in which central atom has unpaired electrons are known as Paramagnetic Compounds.
- wherein
Ex.[Mn(CN)6]3-
SFL pair
i) Fe3+ = 1 unpaired electron (due to strong ligand)
iii) Cr3+ = 1 unpaired electron.(due to strong ligand)
0
Q. 33 The number of unpaired electrons in is
36
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
1
S
R
Option 3:
3
E
Option 4:
5
E
Correct Answer:
R
0
A
Solution:
As we have learned
C
Linkage Isomerism -
This isomerism arises in complexes containing ambidentate ligands.
- wherein
For example:
Hence NO2 can connect by nitrogen and also by oxygen.
Due to presence of strong ligand all the get paired. So no. of unpaired electrons are 0.
Q. 34 The order of decreasing reactivity towards electrophilic reagent for the following
(a) Benzene (b) Toluene
(c) Chloro benzene (d) Anisole
Option 1:
b > d > a > c
Option 2:
0
d > c > b > a
36
Option 3:
d > b > a > c
Option 4:
a>b>c>d
Correct Answer: S
R
d > b > a > c
E
Solution:
Due to –I Effect Chloro benzene will be least reactive
E

R
Q. 35 Which of these will produce the highest yield in Friedel Crafts reaction?
A
Option 1:
C
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
0
36
Solution:
As we have learnt,
S
R
Friedel craft alkylation -
This reaction allowed for the formation of alkyl benzenes from alkyl halides. The reactivity of haloalkanes
E
increases as we move up the periodic table and increase polarity. This means that an RF haloalkane is most
reactive followed by RCl than RBr and finally RI. This means that the Lewis acids used as catalysts in Friedel-
Crafts Alkylation reactions tend have similar halogen combinations such as BF3, SbCl5, AlCl3, SbCl5, and AlBr3,
E
all of which are commonly used in these reactions.

R
For example:
A
C
Mechanism
1. In this step a carbocation is formed that acts as the electrophile in the reaction. This step activates the
haloalkane. Secondary and tertiary halides only form the free carbocation in this step.
2. In this step, electrophilic attack on the benzene occurs that results in multiple resonance forms. The halogen
reacts with the intermediate and picks up the hydrogen to eliminate the positive charge.
Haloarenes undergo the usual electrophilic reactions of the benzene ring such as Friedel-Crafts reactions.
Halogen atom besides being slightly deactivating is o, p-directing; therefore, further substitution occurs at
the ortho- and para-positions with respect to the halogen atom.
0
36
S
R
Phenol does not undergo Friedel Craft Alkylation or Acylation. This is because oxygen's lone pair
in phenol makes the coordinate bond with AlCl3 (A Lewis acid) hence blocking it.
Aniline does not undergo Friedel craft's reactions because the reagent AlCl3 (the Lewis acid which is used as
E
a catalyst in Friedel crafts reaction), being electron deficient acts as a Lewis base. and attacks on the lone pair
of nitrogen present in aniline to form an insoluble complex which precipitates out and the reaction does not
E
proceed.

R
Q. 36 The major product of reaction of alcoholic silver nitrite with ethyl bromide is:
A
C
Option 1:
Ethane
Option 2:
Ethene
Option 3:
Ethylalcohol

Option 4:
Nitroethane
Correct Answer:
Nitroethane
Solution:

Reaction of alkyl halide with AgNO_{2} -
Alkyl halides when treated with AgNO2 in aqueous ethanol, Nitro alkane is obtained as a product.
- wherein
0
36
Q. 37 Which one of the following is not a use of diethyl ether?
S
R
Option 1:
As an anaesthetic
E
Option 2:
As a refrigerant
E
Option 3:
R
As industrial solvent
Option 4:
A
As an antiseptic
C
Correct Answer:
As an antiseptic
Solution:
As we learned
Uses of ether -
1. Di-isopropyl ether→ in petrol as an antiknock compound
2. Diethyl ether → anaesthesia

-
Diethyl ether can not be used as an antiseptic.
Q. 38 Hinsberg's reagent is:
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
36
Option 3:
Option 4:
S
R
Correct Answer:
E
Solution:
E

R
The Hinsberg Test -
This test can be used to demonstrate whether an amine is primary, secondary or tertiary.Primary amines
A
react with benzene sulfonyl chloride to form N - substituted benzene sulfonamides.These, in turn, undergo
acid-base reactions with the excess potassium hydroxide to form water soluble potasssium salt. Acidification
of this solution will cause the water soluble in the next stage, cause the water- insoluble N - substituted
C
sulfonamide to precipitate.
- wherein
0

36
is Hinsberg's reagent,
Hinsberg's reagent is used for the detection of primary, secondary and tertiary amine
S
R

E
Therefore, Option (3) is correct.

E
Q. 39 Which of the following is a fat soluble vitamin?

R
A
Option 1:
Riboflavin
C
Option 2:
Thiamine
Option 3:
Vitamine K
Option 4:
Vitamin B6
Correct Answer:
Vitamine K
Solution:
As we have learned
Fat-soluble vitamins -
They are soluble in fats and oils but insoluble in water
- wherein
Vitamin
Riboflavin (vitamin B2 ), Thiamine (vitamin B1) and Vitamin B6 are all water soluble.
0
36
Q. 40 The two monomers for the synthesis of Nylon 6, 6 are :
Option 1:
S
R
Option 2:

E

E
Option 3:

R
Option 4:
A

C
Correct Answer:

Solution:

Nylon 6,6 -
- Condensation polymerization of hexamethylenediamine with adipic acid under high pressure.
- Copolymer, step growth

- wherein
- High tensile strength
- Used in textile fabrics, bristles for brushes.
0
As we have learned in Polymer .
36
We know Nylon-6,6 is polymer of
Hexamethylene diamine and Adipic acid
S
R
Therefore,Option(3) is correct
E
Q. 41 Which of the following does not contribute to water pollution?

E
R
Option 1:
Pathogens
A
Option 2:
Organic wastes
C
Option 3:
Chemical pollutants
Option 4:
None
Correct Answer:
None
Solution:

Water pollution -
Contamination of water bodies that is unfit for human use and growth of aquatic biota.
All contribute to water pollution.
Q. 42 Which one of them is NOT a bacteriostatic?
0
Option 1:
36
Erythriomycin
Option 2:
Tetrocycline
Option 3:
S
R
Chloramphirical
Option 4:
E
Aspirin
E
Correct Answer:
Aspirin
R
Solution:
As we have learnt,
A

C
Bacteriostatic -
Antibiotics that inhibits bacterial growth
- wherein
Eg: Erythromycin, Tetrocycline, Chloramphericol
Aspirin is a non-narcotic analgesic.
Q. 43 The soldiers of Napolean army while at Alps during freezing winter suffered a serious problem
as regards to the tin buttons of their uniforms. White metallic tin buttons got converted to grey
powder. This transformation is related to
Option 1:
an interaction with nitrogen of the air at very low temperatures
Option 2:
a change in the crystalline structure of tin
Option 3:
0
a change in the partial pressure of oxygen in the air
36
Option 4:
an interaction with water vapour contained in the humid air.
Correct Answer:
a change in the crystalline structure of tin
Solution: S
R
As we have learned
Allotropy -
E
Phenomenon of existence of a chemical element in two or more forms differing in physical properties but
E
having almost same chemical nature
-
R

A
A the temprature decrease the form of tin changes from white tin ( )
to grey has much lower density.

C
Q. 44 A white sodium salt dissolves readily in water to give a solution which is neutral to litmus. When
silver nitrate solution is added to the aforementioned solution, a white precipitate is obtained
which does not dissolve in dil. nitric acid. The anion is :
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
0
36
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Sodium Chloride (NaCl) - S

R
Generally obtained by evapouration of sea water by sunlight
E
- wherein
E
It is purified by passing HCl gas to impure solution of NaCl. Concentration of increases, thus pure NaCl
gets precipitated due to common ion effect
R

A
(Neutral) (White ppt)

C
does not dissolve in
Q. 45 Which would exhibit ionisation isomerism
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
0
As we have learned
36
Ionisation Isomerism -
This arises when a counter ion is exchanged with a ligand in square brackets.
- wherein
S
R
For example:
E

E
The compound which has same composition but give different ions in solution, show ionization. So is
R
ionization isomer.
A
C

Q. 46
0

36
Option 1:
TFTF
Option 2:
FTTF
S
R
Option 3:
TTFT
E
Option 4:
TFFT
E
Correct Answer:
R
TTFT
A
Solution:

C
Functional group -
Atom or group of atom on which almost all chemical properties depend is called functional group.
- wherein

Functional group isomerism. Functional isomers are structural isomers that have the same molecular
formula (that is, the same number of atoms of the same elements), but the atoms are connected in different
ways so that the groupings are dissimilar. Dimethyl ether and ethanol are functional isomers.
Metamerism is a type of structural isomerism in which different alkyl groups are attached to the same
functional group.
Q. 47 The ortho/para directing group among the following is
0
Option 1:
36
Option 2:
Option 3:
S
R
Option 4:
E
Correct Answer:
E
R
Solution:
As we have learnt,
A
Electrophilic substitution- 2 -
C
-I effect only moves along sigma bond.

-M effect/resonance effect is always more prevalent than -I effect.
+M effect on the ring at 1 and 3 positions are equal in magnitude. But -I effect decreases as the distance
increases.
Electrophile is electron deficient. Thus, it tries to go to the most electron-rich position.
In general electron releasing group are o/p-directing groups. Here is electron releasing
group.
Therefore, option (4) is correct option.

Q. 48 During chlorination of methane to methyl chloride, the propagation step is represented by:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
0
Option 4:
36
Correct Answer:
Solution:

S
R
Preparation of haloalkane by free radical halogenation of Alkanes -
Alkanes undergo free radical substitution reaction when treated Cl2/Br2 in presence of sunlight.
E
- wherein
E
R

A

C
Hence, option (3) is correct.
Q. 49 Ethanol upon treatment with which one of the following will give ethanal?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
PCC
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
0
PCC
36
Solution:
As we learned
PCC is a mild oxidising agent and it is used to convert primary or secondary alcohols into aldehydes and
ketones respectively

S
R
E
E
Q. 50 When metal ‘M’ is treated with NaOH, a white gelatinous precipitate ‘X’ is obtained, which is
R
soluble in excess of NaOH.
Compound ’X’ when heated strongly gives an oxide which is used in chromatography as an
adsorbent. The metal ‘M’ is :
A
C
Option 1:
Fe
Option 2:
Zn
Option 3:
Ca

Option 4:
Al
Correct Answer:
Al
Solution:
As we learnt in
Reaction of aluminium with alkalies -
Reacts with aqueous alkali and liberates H2
0
- wherein
36

(Amphoteric metals are excess soluble in alkali) galatinous white
S
R

E
E
(X) (oxides used in chromatography as Dehydrating agent)

R
Therefore,option (4) is correct.

A
Q. 51 Which of the following forces stabilize the tertiary structure of proteins i.e. further folding of the
secondary structure?
C
Option 1:
disulphide linkages
Option 2:
hydrogen bond
Option 3:
electrostatic forces of attraction
Option 4:
all of these
Correct Answer:
all of these
Solution:
As we have learned
Tertiary protein -
Polypeptide undergo further folding and coiling of secondary protein
0
- wherein
Structure is stabalized by :
36
1. Ionic bond
2. Disulphide bond
3. bond
4. Vander waals forces
5. Electrostatic forces
S
R
Disulphide linkages, hydrogen bonds, electrostatic forces of attraction, vander wall's force all stabilize the
tertiary structure of proteins.
E
E
Q. 52 Which of the following is a thermosetting polymer?

R
A
Option 1:
PVC
C
Option 2:
Nylon 6
Option 3:
Buna-N
Option 4:
Bakelite
Correct Answer:
Bakelite
Solution:

Thermosetting Polymers -
They are highly cross - linked, hard, infusible and insoluble polymers.They cannot be reused.
- wherein
Eg:- Bakellite, Urea, Formaldehyde, Resin, etc
0

36
Bakelite is an example of the thermosetting polymer.
S
R
E
Bakelite is another name of Phenal formaldehyde. It is a thermosetting polymer because it has cross linked
structure. It can't be revised once it is processed.
E
R
Q. 53 Water filled in two glasses A and B have BOD values of 10 and 20, respectively. The correct
statement regarding them is:
A
C
Option 1:
B is more polluted than A .
Option 2:
A is suitable for drinking, whereas B is not .
Option 3:
Both A and B are suitable for drinking .
Option 4:
A is more polluted than B.
Correct Answer:
B is more polluted than A .
Solution:

Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) -
The amount of oxygen required for five days in one litre of water at 200 C for the microorganisms to
metabolite organic waste.
- wherein
Clear water has BOD less than 5 ppm , highly polluted water has BOD of 17 ppm or more.
0
As we have learnt in BOD
36
3-5 ppm is clean
6-19 ppm is polluted
Hence 'B' is more polluted than 'A'.
S
R
Q. 54 A co-ordination complex compound of cobalt has the molecular formulae containing five ammonia
E
molecules, one nitro group and two chlorine atoms for one cobalt atom. One mole of this compound
produces three mole ions in an aqueous solution on reacting with excess of
E
precipitate. The ionic formula for this complex would be:

R
Option 1:
A
Option 2:
C
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt
Stability of Complex -
Stability of complex is depends on nature of ligands, size of central atom and stability concept.
- wherein
Stability Stability Constant
The most probable complex which gives three moles ions in aqueous solution may be
because it gives two chlorine atoms on ionization.
0
36
Q. 55
Percentage of carbon in an organic compound is determined by:
S
R
Option 1:
Duma's Method
E
Option 2:
Kjeldahl's Method
E
Option 3:
R
Carius Method
Option 4:
A
Liebig's method
C
Correct Answer:
Liebig's method
Solution:
Liebig's Test -
A known mass of organic compound is heated in the presence of pure oxygen. The carbon dioxide and water
formed are collected and weighed. The percentages of carbon and hydrogen in the compound are calculated
from the masses of carbon dioxide and water. Estimation of carbon and hydrogen in an organic compound
is based on their conversion to CO, and H2O respectively. The percentage of carbon and hydrogen are
calculated from the masses of CO2 and H2O.
-
A known mass of organic compound is heated in the presence of pure oxygen. The carbon dioxide and water
formed are collected and weighed. The percentages of carbon and hydrogen in the compound are calculated
from the masses of carbon dioxide and water by Liebig's method.
Carius method for determining Halogens.
Dumas and Kjeldahl's method for determining Nitrogen.
Q. 56 The peptide that gives positive ceric ammonium nitrate and carbylamine tests is:
0
Option 1:
Ser-Lys
36
Option 2:
Gln-Asp
Option 3:
Lys-Asp
S
R
Option 4:
Asp-Gln
E
Correct Answer:
Ser-Lys
E
Solution:
R
Test for Alcohol -

A
Alcohol + Ceric Ammonium Nitrate Red Solution

C
- wherein
Alcohol is Present
carbylamnie Reaction -
Product is isocyanide & this reaction is used for the detection of primary amines.
- wherein

positive ceric ammonium nitrate gives
positive carbylamine tests gives
(1) Ser-Lys ( Lysine + serine )
0
36
Both present so it will give positive tests for both tests.
Q. 57 Which of the following is not true for metal carbonyls

S
R
Option 1:
E
The oxidation state of the metal in the carbonyls is zero
E
Option 2:
The secondary carbonyls are obtained from photo-decomposition
R
Option 3:
Metal carbonyls are single bonded species
A
Option 4:
overlap is observed in metal carbonyls
C
Correct Answer:
overlap is observed in metal carbonyls
Solution:
As we have learned
Valence bond theory (VBT) -
1. Ligands should have atleast one donor atom with a lone pair of elements.
2. Transition metal atom provide required number of vacant orbitals.
3. These vacant orbitals undergo hybridiation.
4. These hybridised orbitals overlap with filled orbitals of ligands to form coordinaate compound.
-
Metal carbonyls does not show overlapping.
Q. 58 The appropriate reagent for the following transformation:
0
36
Option 1:
Zn(Hg)/HCL
Option 2:
S
R
Option 3:
E
Option 4:
E
Correct Answer:
R
Solution:
A
As we learned

C
Rosenmund's reaction -
Acid chlorides are reduced in boiling xylene using Pd / Pt along with BeSO4. S or quinoline is used to poison
Pd / Pt to stop reduction of aldehyde further.
- wherein

Q. 59 Benzene diazonium chloride on reaction with aniline in the presence of dilute hydrochloric acid
gives:
0
Option 1:
36
Option 2:
S
R
Option 3:
E
E
Option 4:
R
A
Correct Answer:
C
Solution:
0
Q. 60 Propan-2-ol upon treatment with which reagent will give acetone?
36
Option 1:
Option 2:
PDC
S
R
Option 3:
E
Option 4:
E
Correct Answer:
R
PDC
A
Solution:

C
Maths
Q. 1
If , then find (gof)oh(x)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
0
36
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
S
R
E
Solution:
As we have learned
E
Properties of composite function -

R
The composition of function is associative.

A
- wherein
C
(gof)oh(x) = go(foh)(x)
Q. 2 If -3 lies between the roots of the equation then p lies
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
0
Option 4:
36
Correct Answer:
Solution:

S
R

Location of roots (2) -
E
Condition for number k
Let f(x) = ax2 + bx + c where a,b,c is from real number and ‘a’ is non-zero number. Let ? and ? be the solution
E
of the function. And let k is number from real number. Then:

R
1. If k lies between the root ? and ?

A
C

i) D > 0
ii) af(k) < 0. As if a < 0 then f(k) > 0. So multiplying one -ve and one +ve value will give us negative value, so
af(k) < 0 satisfies, here ? < ?.
If -3 lies between the roots than root is real, D>0 and af(-3)<0
i) af(-3)<0
0
36
ii) D>0
From i and ii
S
R
E
Q. 3
E
Find the value of a for which the matrix is idempotent

R
A
Correct Answer:
1
C
Solution:

Orthogonal matrix, Unitary matrix and Idempotent matrix -
Idempotent matrix
A square matrix is said to be an idempotent matrix if it satisfies the condition A2 = A.

For Idempotent A2=A
Solving any element we get a=1
0
Option (c) is correct
36
Q. 4
The sum is
Option 1:
1540 S
R
Option 2:
E
1680
Option 3:
E
1260
R
Option 4:
1450
A
Correct Answer:
1540
C
Solution:

Sum of Common Series (Part 2) -
Sum of Common Series
1. Sum of first n-even natural number

2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + ……… = n/2 [2 x 2 + (n-1)2 ] = n(n+1).
2. Sum of the square of first n-natural numbers

0
36
Q. 5
What is the range of x for
S
R
Option 1:
E
E
Option 2:
R
Option 3:
A
Option 4:
C
None of these
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Trigonometric Inequality -
Trigonometric Inequality

The trigonometric inequation of the type f(x) ≥ a or f(x) ≤ a, where f(x) is some trigonometric ratio, the
following steps should be taken to solve such type of equations.:
1. Draw the graph of f(x) in an interval length equal to the fundamental period of f(x) .
2. Draw the line y = a .
3. Take the portion of the graph for which the inequation is satisfied.
4. To generalize, add nT (n ∈ I) and take union over the set of integers, where T is fundamental period of f(x).
0
For the intersection point of sin2x and cos x
36
S
R
E
E
R
A
By the Graph, We can see that this inequality satisfy when

C
Q. 6
If one end of a focal chord AB of the parabola is at then the equation of
the tangent to it at B is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

0
Length of the Latus rectum and parametric form -
Parametric Equation:
36
From the equation of the parabola, we can write
S
R
-

E
Tangents of Parabola in Point Form -
E
Tangents of Parabola in Point Form

R
A
C
0
36
-

S
R

E
E
R
A
C
Correct Option 3
Q. 7
Let denote the greatest integer and Then the function,
is discontinuous, when x is equal to:
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
36

Piecewise function -
Greatest integer function S

R
The function f: R R defined by f(x) = [x], x R assumes the value of the greatest integer less than or equal
to x. Such a functions called the greatest integer function.
E
eg;
E
[1.75] = 1
R
[2.34] = 2
[-0.9] = -1
A
[-4.8] = -5
C

From the definition of [x], we
can see that
0
[x] = –1 for –1 x<0
36
[x] = 0 for 0 x<1
[x] = 1 for 1 x<2
[x] = 2 for 2
so on.
x < 3 and
S
R
Properties of greatest integer function:
E
i) [x] ≤ x < [x] + 1
E
ii) x - 1 < [x] < x
iii) I ≤ x < I+1 ⇒ [x] = I where I belongs to integer.

R
iv) [[x]]=[x]v)
A
v)
C
vi) [x] + [-x] = 2x if x belongs to integer
2[x] + 1 if x doesn’t belongs to integer
Fractional part function:
When Greatest Integer Function

Properties of fractional part of x
0
i) {x}=x if 0 ≤ x < 1
36
ii) {x} = 0, if x belongs to integer
iii) {-x} =1-{x}, if x doesn’t belongs integer
iv) {x ± integer } = {x}.
- S
R

E

Algebra of Limits -
E
Algebra of Limits
R
Let f(x) and g(x) be defined for all x ≠ a over some open interval containing a. Assume that L and M are real
numbers such that and . Let c be a constant. Then, each of the following
statements hold:
A
C

0
-
36

S
R
Graph of Trigonometric Function (Part 1) -
E
Graph of Trigonometric Function (Part 1)
Sine Function
E
y = f(x) = sin(x)
R
A
C
Domain is R
Range is [-1, 1]

Correct Option (1)
0
Q. 8
36
The integral is equal to :
(where C is a constant of integration)
Option 1: S
R

E

E
Option 2:
R
Option 3:
A
C
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Integration By PARTS -
Let and are two functions then

- wherein
Where is the Ist function is he IInd function
0
Rule for integration by parts -
36
Take Ist function as according I L A T E

- wherein
Where ,
I : Inverse
S
R
L : Logarithmic
E
A : Algebraic
T : Trignometric
E
E : Exponential
R
A
Using by parts
C

Q. 9
If then a value of satisfying is :

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
0
36
Correct Answer:
Solution:
S
R

Homogeneous Differential Equation -
E
This equation can be solved by the substitution y = vx.
E
R
A
C
-
0
36
Correct Option 1 S
R
Q. 10
A vector makes angles with positive x, y and z axis respectively then sum of its
E
direction angle is:

E
R
Option 1:
A

C
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Direction Angles of a Vectors -
Let be the angles which vector makes with the positive directions of the x,y, and z-axis.
- wherein
0
36
S
R
E

E
Here
R
\therefore \alpha + \beta + \gamma =\frac{\pi }{6}+\frac{2\pi }{3}+\frac{\pi }{2} = \frac{4\pi }{3}
A
option B
Q. 11 A symmetrical form of the line of intersection of the planes
C
is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
0
As we learnt in
Cartesian eqution of a line -
36
The equation of a line passing through two points and parallel to vector having direction ratios as
is given by
S
R
The equation of a line passing through two points is given by
E
- wherein
E
R
A
C

x-ay-b=0 and cy-z+d=0
Normal vector will be
Vector =
So DRs are (a, 1, c)
0
Put y=1
x=a+b and z=c+d
36
So live becomes
Q. 12
S
An urn contains 5 red marbles, 4 black marbles, and 3 white marbles. Then the number of ways
R
in which 4 marbles can be drawn so that at the most three of them are red is:
E

E
Correct Answer:
R
490
Solution:
A

C
APPLICATIONS OF SELECTIONS -I -
Let us take an example of Selecting things from two or more different groups:
Out of 5 men and 6 women in how many ways can a committee of 5 members be selected such that
at least 2 members are women?
Solution:
At Least 2 members are women implies that there could be 2 women or 3 men or 3 women or 2 men or All 5
are women in the committee. Thus, the required number of ways are
2 women + 3 men =
3 women + 2 men =
4 women + 1 men =
5 women =
So, the total number of ways
0
36
Q. 13
In the expansion of the term containing same powers a and b is
Option 1:
11th
S
R
Option 2:
E
13th
Option 3:
E
12th
R
Option 4:
6th
A
Correct Answer:
13th
C
Solution:

General Term in the expansion of (x+a)^n -
- wherein
Where

13th term contains same powers of a and b
Q. 14 A student scores the following marks in five tests : 45,54,41,57,43. His score is not known for the
0
sixth test. If the mean score is 48 in the six tests, then the standard deviation of the marks in six tests
is:
36
Option 1:
S
R
Option 2:
E
Option 3:
E
R
Option 4:
A
Correct Answer:
C
Solution:

Standard Deviation -
If x1, x2...xn are n observations then square root of the arithmetic mean of
- wherein
where is mean
Let score of 6th test be x
then,
0
x=48
36
S
R
correct option (i)
E
Q. 15 The greatest positive integer k, for which is a factor of the sum
E
is :
R
Option 1:
A
Option 2:
C
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Sum of n-term of a GP -
Sum of n-term of a GP
Let Sn be the sum of n terms of the G.P. with the first term ‘a’ and common ratio ‘r’. Then
0
36
- S
The above formula does not hold for r = 1, For r = 1 the sum of n terms of the G.P. is .
R
E
E
R
A
Hence, K=63
Correct Option (4)

C
Q. 16 The statement is not equivalent to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

0
Truth Table of "if-then" -
36
S
R
E
-
E

R
Truth table of 'OR' operator -

A
C
-
Also ,
0
Interchanging the roles of q and r in the above paragraph, we find
36
is , but
S
R
and
Are not equivalent

E
Q. 17 If , then the value of is equal

E
to
R
Option 1:
A
Option 2:
C
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
Both (a) and (c)
Solution:
Put
Q. 18 What is the value of ‘a’ for which represents a quadratic
equation with real coefficients?
Option 1:
a R
0
Option 2:
a<2
36
Option 3:
R-{2, -2}
Option 4:
a>2
S
R
Correct Answer:
R-{2, -2}
E
Solution:
E

R
Quadratic Equation -

A
Quadratic equation:
C
A polynomial equation in which the highest degree of a variable term is 2 is called quadratic equation.
Standard form of quadratic equation is ax2 + bx + c = 0
Where a, b and c are constant and called the coefficient of the equation .

For the equation to be quadratic, coefficient of 2nd degree must not be 0 and coefficient should not be from
the complex for an equation to be real, so
As a should be from R so a R-{2, -2}
correct option is (c)
0
Q. 19 Find the value of A+C if
36
S
R
E

E
Option 1:
R
A
Option 2:
C
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

0

Properties of matrix addition -
36
Properties of matrix addition:
1. Matrix addition is commutative, means A + B = B + A
S
2. Matrix addition is associative, means A + (B+C) = (A+B) + C
3. Additive identity exist, means there exist a matrix O (null matrix) such that A + O = A = O + A.
R
4. Existence of additive inverse means there exists a matrix B such that A + B = O = B + A
E
5. Cancellation property:
E
If A + C = A + B then B = C
If B + C = A + C then B = A
R
Note: all matrix taken in above property explanation has same order which is m × n.
A

C

By using
Properties of matrix addition:
i) Matrix addition is commutative, means A+B=B+A
ii) matrix addition is associative, means A + (B+C) = (A+B) + C
Now Subtract (2) from (1)
0
36
hence option (b) is correct.
Q. 20 If
S
are in A.P. such that , then the sum of
R
first 13 terms of this A.P. is:
E
Option 1:
10m
E
Option 2:
R
12m
Option 3:
A
13m
C
Option 4:
15m
Correct Answer:
13m
Solution:
Q. 21
If then ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
0
36
Option 3:
Option 4:
S
R
Correct Answer:
E
Solution:
E
Trigonometric Ratio for Compound Angles (Some more Result} -
Trigonometric Ratio for Compound Angles (Some more Result}

R

A
C
-
Q. 22 A line L is passes through the points (1,1) and (2,0) find the equation of another line which is
passing through (1,0) and perpendicular to line L.
0
Option 1:
36
Option 2:
Option 3:
S
R
Option 4:
None of these
E
Correct Answer:
None of these
E
Solution:
R

A
Foot of Perpendicular -
Foot of Perpendicular
C
P(x1, y1) is any point and M is the point of foot of perpendicular drawn from point P on the line AB: ax + by + c
= 0.
To find the coordinate of Point M, find the equation of PM which is perpendicular to the line AB: ax + by + c =
0 and passes through point P(x1, y1).

OR
0
Foot of perpendicular of P(x1, y1) on the line AB : ax + by + c = 0 is M is (x2, y2). then
36
Let the coordinate of foot of perpendicular be M (x2, y2). Then, point M lies on the line AB.
S
R
E
E

R
-
A
Equation of Straight Lines Passing Through a Given Point and Making a given Angle with a Given Line -
C
Equation of Straight Lines Passing Through a Given Point and Making a given Angle with a Given Line
The equation of the straight lines which pass through a given point (x1 , y1) and make an angle α with the
given straight line y = mx + c are
Where, m = tan Ө
-
Q. 23 Let R= {(3,3), (5,5), (9,9), (12,12), (5,12), (3,9), (3,12), (3,5)} be a relation on the set A= {3,5,9,12}.
Then R is :
Option 1:
0
reflexive , symmetric but not transitive
36
Option 2:
symmetric, transitive but not reflexive
Option 3:
an equivalence relation.
Option 4: S
R
reflexive, transitive but not symmetric
E
Correct Answer:
reflexive, transitive but not symmetric
E
Solution:
Let R= {(3,3), (5,5), (9,9), (12,12), (5,12), (3,9), (3,12), (3,5)} be a relation on the set
R
A= {3,5,9,12}
A
Clearly, every element of A is related to itself. Therefore, it is reflexive.
Now, R is not symmetric because 3 is related to 5 but 5 is not related to 3 .

C
Also, R is transitive relation because it satisfies the property that if aRb and bRc then aRc.
Q. 24
Option 1:
53/6
Option 2:
55/6
Option 3:
57/6
Option 4:
59/6
Correct Answer:
57/6
Solution:
0
As we learnt
36

Piece wise Continnous Function -
S
Break th function into sub intervals and calculate integrals Separately.
R
- wherein
If has discontinnities in at finite number of points

E

E

R
A
C
Q. 25 Number of arbitrary constants that will occur in general solution of diff eqn
is
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
As we learnt
General solution -
A Solution of a differential equation is an equation which contains arbitrary constants as many as the order
of the differential equation.
0
-
36
Since the differential equation has order 3.
No. of the arbitrary constant is 3 in it's the general solution
Q. 26 Let and
S then angle between them equals:
R
E
Option 1:
E
Option 2:
R
A
Option 3:
C
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Angle between vector a and vector b -

- wherein
Here
0
36
Q. 27
The plane containing the line S and parallel to the line
R
passes through the point :
E
Option 1:
E
(1, -2, 5)
Option 2:
R
(1, 0, 5)
A
Option 3:
(0, 3, -5)
C
Option 4:
(-1, -3, 0)
Correct Answer:
(1, 0, 5)
Solution:
As we learnt in
Plane passing through a point and parallel to two given vectors (Cartesian form) -
Let the plane passes through and parallel to vectors having DR's , then
the plane is given by
- wherein
0
36
Line is
The normal vector of plane is
S
R
E
So equation is 5x-y-z = 5-2-3=0
5x-y-z=0
E
It passes through (1,0,5)

R
Q. 28 No. of ways of distributing 6 distinct pencils among 2 students is

A
C
Option 1:
10
Option 2:
15
Option 3:
64
Option 4:
25
Correct Answer:
64
Solution:
As we have elarned
Rule for Division into Groups -
The number of ways in which 2n different things can be divided equally into two distinct groups is .
No. of ways of distributing 6 distinct pencils among 2 students
0
1st pencil can be distributed among 2 students is 2 ways
36
2nd pencil can be distributed among 2 students is 2 ways
3rd pencil can be distributed among 2 students is 2 ways
S
4rth pencil can be distributed among 2 students is 2 ways
5th pencil can be distributed among 2 students is 2 ways

R
6th pencil can be distributed among 2 students is 2 ways
E
Total = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 = 64
E
Q. 29 Find the value of If be binomial

coefficients in the expansion of
R
A
Option 1:
C
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of the above
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Series Involving Binomial Coefficients -
1. Sum of Coefficient
0
-
36

Sum of the expansion
Similarly
S
R
or
E
E
now the value of

R
hence,
Option B is correct.
A
Q. 30 How many event points are there in Throwing of a die, Tossing 2 coins and selecting a card out
C
of the kings from deck of cards?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Event Point -
0
Each element of the sample space is called a sample point or an event point.
ex : s = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} where 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 are the sample space.
36
-

S
R

Q. 31
E
If then which one of the following holds for all , by the
E
principle of mathematical induction

R
Option 1:
A
Option 2:
C
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Multiplication of matrices -
0

36

S
R
E
E
R
A
C
now

Q. 32 The Boolean expression is equivalent to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
0
Option 4:
36
Correct Answer:
Solution:

S
R

Algebra of Statements -
E
De-Morgan’s Law
1. ～ ( p ∨ q ) ≡ ～p ∧ ～q
E
2. ～ ( p ∧ q ) ≡ ～p ∨ ～q
R
-
A
Negation of Disjunction "OR" -

C
Q. 33 Let be the relation defined by :
. The correct statement is :

Option 1:
R does not have an inverse .
Option 2:
R is not a one to one function .
Option 3:
R is an onto function .
Option 4:
R is not a function .
Correct Answer:
0
R is an onto function .
36
Solution:
Q. 34 The minimum distance of

S
from equals
R
E
Option 1:
E
Option 2:
R
Option 3:
A
C
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Equation of Circle:
The equation of the circle whose center is at the point and have radius r is given by

If the center is origin then, , hence equation reduces to |z| = r
Interior of the circle is represented by
The exterior is represented by
Here z can be represented as x + iy and is represented by
0
36
S
R
-
E

E

R
|z - 1 - i| = 2 is the equation of a circle with centre (1,1) and radius = 2 units.
is a point (3,4), the minimum distance between them will be “distance between point (3,4) and
A
(1,1) minus radius”, so

C
so the correct option is (d)
Q. 35
Let the numbers be in an A.P. and . If then c lies in
the interval :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
0
Correct Answer:
36

Solution:

Property of determinant - S
R
If to each element of a line ( row or column ) of a determinant be added the equimultiples of the
corresponding elements of one or more parallel lines , the determinant remains unaltered
E
- wherein
E
R

A

C
General term of an A.P. -
- wherein
First term
number of term
common difference

are in A.P
0
36
S
R
E
Q. 36 Let a,b and c be the 7th,11th and 13th terms respectively of a non-constant A.P.If these are also
E
the three consecutive terms of a G.P., then a/c is equal to :

R
Option 1:

A
2
C
Option 2:

7/13
Option 3:

1/2
Option 4:

4
Correct Answer:

4
Solution:

General term of an A.P. -
- wherein
First term
0
number of term
36
common difference

S
R
Selection of terms in G.P. -
E
If we have to take three terms in GP, we take them as
E
- wherein
R
Extension : If we have to take (2K+1) term in GP, we take them as

A
From the concept

C
and and are in G.P

Q. 37 If A, B, and C is the angles of triangles and then which of the
following is true ?
Option 1:
Three different triplet of angles are possible
Option 2:
ABC is a right triangle
Option 3:
ABC can be equilateral triangle but not necessarily
0
Option 4:
36
ABC is a equilateral triangle
Correct Answer:
ABC is a equilateral triangle
Solution:
Conditional Identities - S
R
Conditional Identities
E

Till now we have come across many trigonometric identities, such as sin2Ө + cos2Ө = 1, sec2Ө - tan2Ө = 1 etc.
Such identities are true for all the angles which satisfy the given conditions. In this section, we are going to
E
learn some conditional identities.

R
Here the condition is that A, B, and C are the angles of triangle ABC, and A + B + C = π.
As, A + B + C = π then, A + B = π - C, A + C = π - B and B + C = π - A

A
Using the above conditions, we can get some important identities.

C
1. sin (A + B) = sin (π - C) = sin C
Similarly, sin (A + C) = sin B and sin (B + C) = sin A
2. cos (A + B) = cos (π - C) = -cos C
Similarly, cos (A + C) = -cos B and cos (B + C) = -cos A
3. tan (A + B) = tan (π - C) = -tan C
Similarly, tan (A + C) = -tan B and tan (B + C) = -tan A
-
Q. 38 If the lines are concurrent, then
0
are in
36
Option 1:
A.P
Option 2:
G.P
S
R
Option 3:
H.P
E
Option 4:
none
E
Correct Answer:
R
H.P
A
Solution:
C
Condition of concurrency -
- wherein
Three lines , and are concurrent.

Condition for concurrency = 0

So a, b, c are in H.P.
0
Q. 39 Let Then the set of all values of at which the function ,
36
is not differentiable, is :
Option 1:

S
R
Option 2:
E
Option 3:

E
Option 4:
R
Correct Answer:
A

C
Solution:

Properties of differentiable functions -
At every corner point f(x) is continuous but not differentiable.
ex: | x - a | is continuous but not differentiable at x = a for a > 0
- wherein

0
36

S
R
E
is not differentiable at
E

R
Q. 40
If ; ; . Then
A
C
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
20
Option 3:
-10
Option 4:
10
Correct Answer:
-10
Solution:
as we learned,
Fundamental Properties of Definite integration -
If the function is continuous in (a, b ) then integration of a function a to b will be same as the sum of integrals
of the same function from a to c and c to b.
0

- wherein
36
S
R
E
E

R
=5-10-5= -10 sq. units

A
Q. 41
What is the polar form of ?
C
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
36
Polar form of complex numbers -
polar coordinate
S
R
E
E
this form is called polar form with ? = principal value of arg(z) and r = |z|.
R
-
A

C
We need to find |z| and argument of the z

Correct option is (d)
Q. 42
Let be three vertices such that and the angle
between . If is perpendicular to the vector , then is
equal to __________.
Correct Answer:
Solution:
0

36

Dot (Scalar) Product of Two Vectors -
Dot (scalar) Product
S
If and are two non-zero vectors, then their scalar product (or dot product) is denoted by and is
R
defined as
where, θ is the angle between and

E
-
E

R

Vector (or Cross) Product of Two Vectors -
A
The vector product of two nonzero vectors and , is denoted by and defined as,
C
where Ө is the angle between and , 0 ≤ θ ≤ π and is a unit vector perpendicular to both and , such
that , and form a right hand system.

Correct Option (2)
Q. 43
The lines are coplanar if
Option 1:
0
36
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4: S
R
Correct Answer:
E
E
Solution:
As we leant in
R
Condition for lines to be intersecting (cartesian form) -

A
Their shortest distance should be 0

C
Also the condition for coplanar lines
Condition for coplanarity =

k = 0 or -3
If 0 appears in the denominator, then the correct way of representing the equation of straight line is
0
Q. 44 In how many ways can the letters of the word INVESTOR be arranged such that no two vowels
are together?
36
Correct Answer:
14400
Solution:

S
R

APPLICATION OF PERMUTATION-III -
E
ARRANGEMENT OF PEOPLE IN A ROW

E

R
Arranging 4 boys and 4 girls such that 4 girls have to be together:
Considering all the four girls as one unit, we have to arrange 5 units in 5 places and this can be done in 5!
A
ways. Now one of the units is of 4 girls, who can be arranged amongst themselves in 4! ways. Thus the total
number of ways of arranging is 5! × 4!.
C
Arranging 4 boys and 4 girls such that no two girls should stand together:
The four boys can first be arranged in 4! ways. Now there will be 5 places (Three between 4 boys and one at
each end) for the 4 girls and they could be arranged in 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 ways. Thus the total number of
arrangements possible is 4! × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2.
Arranging 4 boys and 4 girls such that girls and boys have to be alternate:
When girls and boys have to be alternate, it would just be either G B G B G B G B or B G B G B G B G. In each
of these ways, there are 4 places for the boys and 4 places for the girls and thus they can be arranged in 4! ×
4! in each of these. Thus, the total number of arrangements possible is 2 × 4! × 4!.
-
If we place the consonants with places in between and on either side wherein the vowels may be placed.
{ _ N _ V _ S _ T _R _ }
Number of places to fill the consonants = 5
Number of ways in which 4 consonants can be arranged in their designated places =
0
Number of places to fill the vowels = 6
36

Number of ways in which 3 vowels (OEI) can be arranged in the 6 places =
Thus, the number of ways in which we can arrange the letters of the word INVESTOR
S
R
Q. 45 The equation of a tangent to the hyperbola parallel to the line is:
E
E
Option 1:

R
Option 2:
A

C
Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Equation of Tangent of Hyperbola in Parametric Form and Slope Form -
Slope Form:
0

36

Parallel lines -
S
R

E
- wherein
E
The two lines are and

R

A

C
Condition for Tangency in Hyperbola -
- wherein
For the Hyperbola

Equation of Tangent to Hyperbola -
- wherein
For the Hyperbola
and
from the concept
0
standard hyperbola
36
slope of tangent = 1
Eqn of tangent
S
R
E
Q. 46 It is given that the events are such that

E
Then is:
R
A
Option 1:
C
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Conditional Probability -
0
and
36

- wherein
where
S
probability of A when B already happened.
R
E
E
R
Q. 47
A
If and z moves such that then equals

C
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
Solution:
0
36
S
R
E

E
AC = BC
Locus of a point equidistant from two given points.

R
|z - z1| = |z - z2|
A
z will lie on the perpendicular bisector of the line joining and .
This is the equation of perpendicular of bisector as z always remains at the same distance from
C
A(z1) and B(z2)
Here z is a perpendicular bisector of two points (2,0) and (-2,0 ) hence z will be a line parallel to y so it’s
argument will be
So the correct option is (b)

Q. 48
If , then:
Option 1:
k=-3
Option 2:
k=-1
Option 3:
0
k=1
36
Option 4:
k=3
Correct Answer:
k=-1
Solution: S
R

E
Elementary row (column) transformation -

E
Multiplying all elements of a row (column) of a matrix by a non-zero scalar

R
- wherein
A

C

Q. 49 Equation of a common tangent to the circle, and the parabola, ,
is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
0
Option 4:
36
Correct Answer:
Solution:

S
R
Angle of intersection of two curves -
E
The angle of intersection of two curves is the angle subtended between the tangents at their point of
intersection.Let m1 & m2 are two slope of tangents at intersection point of two curves then
E
R
- wherein
A
C
where is angle between two curves tangents.

From the concept
Equation of tangent to parabola
is
Here, parabola,
So, tangent
This is also a common tangent to circle
0
36
tangent are
S
R
and
E
Q. 50 has concaity upwards in the interval

E
R
Option 1:
A
Option 2:
C
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Concavity, Convexity, of a function -
For concavity:
If in the interval then shape of f(x) in interval is concave when observed from
upwards or convex down.
For convexity:
If in the interval then it is convex upward or concave down.
- wherein
0
36
S
R
E
E

R
for concave up

A
Q. 51 Let the equations of two ellipses be

C
and
. If the product of their eccentricities is , then the length of the minor axis
of the ellipse is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
0
36
S
R
E
E
R
A
C
Q. 52
is equal to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
0
Correct Answer:
36
Solution:

L - Hospital Rule - S
R
E
E
R
- wherein
A
C
Q. 53
Integrate
Option 1:
Option 2:
0
Option 3:
36
Option 4:
none of these
Correct Answer:
S
R
Solution:
E
As we learned,
E
Integration by PARTIAL Fraction -

R
form :
A
Where
C
- wherein
Where is a Polynomial with degree Less than

Q. 54 If the circles
and
intersect at two distinct points, then:
Option 1:

1< r <11
Option 2:
0

r = 11
36
Option 3:

r>11
Option 4:

S
R
0<r<1
Correct Answer:
E

1< r <11
E
Solution:

R
Common tangents of two circle -

A
When they intersect, there are two common tangents, both of them being direct.
C
- wherein

From the concept
centre of the circle (-g,-f)
A = (8,10)
and R1 = r
Similarly,
B = (4,7), R2 = 6
|R1 - R2| < AB < R1 + R2
0
1 < r < 11
36
Q. 55 Find the value of represents
parabola.
Option 1: S
R
E
Option 2:
E
Option 3:
R
Option 4:
A
Correct Answer:
C
Solution:

General equation of Parabola -
General equation of Parabola
Let S (h, k) be the focus and lx + my + n = 0 is the equation of the directrix and P(x, y) be any point on the
parabola.

0
This is the general equation of a parabola.
36
-

S
R
Comparing this equation with
E
E
If the equation represents the parabola then its second-degree

terms must form the perfect square.
R

A
Q. 56 The shortest distance between the lines

C
and is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

0

Shortest Distance between Two Lines -
36
Distance between two skew lines
If L1 and L2 are two skew lines, then there is one and only one line perpendicular to each of lines L1 and L2
which is known as the line of shortest distance.
Vector form
S
R
E
E
R
A
C
If is the shortest distance vector between L1 and L2, then it being perpendicular to both and ,
therefore, the unit vector along would be
where "d" is the magnitude of the shortest distance vector. Let θ be the angle between and .
Then
0
Hence, the required shortest distance is
36
S
R
-

E

E
R
A
C
Correct Option (4)
Q. 57 If the area of an equilateral triangle inscribed in the circle, is

sq.units then c is equal to:
Option 1:
-25
Option 2:
13
Option 3:
25
Option 4:
20
Correct Answer:
0
25
36
Solution:

General form of a circle -
S
R
- wherein
E
centre =
radius =
E
Equilateral triangle -
R
Centriod, circumcentre, orthocentre and incentre coincide.

A
From the concept

C

Radius=

Q. 58 Let in [2,3] when 'c' of L.M.V.T equals ?
Option 1:
0
36
Option 2:
Option 3:
S
R
Option 4:
E
E
Correct Answer:
R
Solution:
A
As we have learned
Lagrange's mean value theorem -

C
If a function f(x)
1. is continuous in the closed interval [a,b] and
2. is differentiable in the open interval [a, b] then

f(x) is continous and diffrentiable in given interval to it satisfies condition of L.M.V.T so there exist 'c' such
that f'(c)

0
but c (2,3) ,\
36
so
Q. 59 In an experiment with 15 observations on , the following results were available.

One observation that was 20 was found to be wrong and was
S
replaced by the correct value 30. Then the corrected variance is
R
Option 1:
E
188.66
Option 2:
E
177.33
R
Option 3:
8.33
A
Option 4:
78.00
C
Correct Answer:
78.00
Solution:
As we learnt in
Variance -
In case of discrete data

-
0
36
Q. 60
Option 1:
S
R
Option 2:
E
E
Option 3:
R
A
Option 4:
C
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt
Result for integration by parts -

- wherein
It works on integration by parts of

Result for integration by parts -
0
- wherein
36
It works on integration by parts of
S
R
E
E
R
A
C

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CAREERS360

Q. 2 A particle has an initial velocity and an acceleration of Its speed after 10 s is

Acceleration of Block sliding down over rough inclined plane -

are pseudo forces).

{i.e free surface is perpendicular to the resultant force acting on it.}

Q. 4 A body of mass 5 kg under the action of constant force has velocity at t = 0s

Where and are their densities

Percentage decrease in value of 'g' -

Using the relation,

Hence the initial potential energy of water

since the volume of water does not change,

Hence the center of mass of water in the cube

The gravitational potential of water finally is

Hence the work done by gravity on water = Loss in potential energy,

Q. 9 A gas is compressed from a volume of 2 m3 to a volume of 1 m3 at a constant pressure of 100

First law of Thermodynamics -

This law is also known as Junction rule or current law

Maxwell's Cork Screw Rule -

same for both)

Efficiency of a carnot cycle -

The Induced current is given by

Speed of light formula in vacuum -

c = Speed of light in vacuum

Magnetic Energy density =

Energy is equally divided between electric and magnetic fields.

If K filled between the plates -

, S= surface area of plate.

Q. 22 Four resistances of respectively in cyclic order to form Wheatstone's

the network is ___________ .

So the answer will be 10.

As De Broglie’s Equation is given as

Correct answer is 1.

of the wire is:

Hence the option correct option is (3).

velocity of u perpendicular to uniform magnetic field.

in first excited state for

If she observes that , the wavelength of light used is :

To get an output of 1, from the NAND gate

both input should be 1.

Now Resultant of a & b should be 1.

So the Correct option is 3.

Q. 29 The gate logic may be simplified as

A and B are input.

( using de morgans theorem )

{ since we know 1+x = 1}

0.4 A and 0.2 A

0.2 A and 0.4 A

NO current will pass through

In second case : no current will pass through

Hence the option correct option is (1).

Then the percentage error in the measurement of mechanical energy is :

the string as shown in the figure.

Let the acceleration of the blocks be 'a'.

F.B.D of all the blocks combined-

First we neet to calculate minimum potential energy.

When potential energy is minimum

So minimum potential energy

K.E. + P.E. = Total mechanical energy.

Centre of Mass of a continuous Distribution -

dm is mass of small element. x, y, z are coordinates of dm part.

As we know that

After solving we get b = 2a.

Field due to mass 2m at point 0

Therefore net field