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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN

HẢI DƯƠNG DỰ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA


NĂM HỌC 2021 - 2022
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Ngày thi: 22/9/2021
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề
Đề thi gồm có 13 trang

I.LISTENING (50 points)

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU


+ Bài nghe gồm 4 phần, mỗi phần nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 15 giây, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần
nghe có tín hiệu.
+ Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước tín hiệu nhạc
kết thúc bài nghe.
+ Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng Tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a news report about a NASA mission and decide whether the
statements are True (T) or False (F).
1. Since 2016, the OSIRIS-REX has been orbiting asteroid Bennu to find a suitable landing spot.
2. Astronomers expect to learn more about the history of the Solar System by studying Bennu.
3. As the astronomers predicted, Bennu’s rough terrain presented the biggest challenge.
4. Although OSIRIS-REX successfully retrieved samples from Bennu, the exact amount is currently
unclear.
5. According to Dr. Brown, the actual analysis of photographs and materials from Bennu will begin in
2023.

Part 2. Listen to a talk about memory and answer the questions with NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS for each answer.
6. How was Dr. Frederik Sullivan’s memory at first?
________________________________________________________________________
7. Apart from a computer, what can help you improve your memory?
________________________________________________________________________
8. Besides prolonging life, what has a full and active memory been proved to be able to do?
________________________________________________________________________
9. According to Sullivan, how is the human brain?
________________________________________________________________________
10. What is the function of long-term memory?
________________________________________________________________________

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to an interview with Kevin Langtree, who has just been voted
Best Young Chef of the Year and choose the answer A, B, C or D which fits best according to
what you hear.
11. How does Kevin account for his success?
A. He tries to love every minute of the work.
B. He learns a lot from the diversity of food and people he meets.
C. He envisions how takeaway meals will become in the future.
D. He learns to stop being unkind towards fast food.

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12. What is Kevin's opinion about fish and chips?
A. He is ambivalent about having them every day.
B. He finds them indispensable in Britons' diet.
C. He thinks they do not bring the diversity that he loves.
D. He wants to incorporate them into food from different countries.

13. What does Kevin think about restaurants and takeaways in Britain?
A. Finding a parking slot to have meals is a major problem.
B. They should be restructured to display more variety.
C. Too many of them are from India and China.
D. They're all very difficult to get to without a car.

14. What does Kevin say about the American fast-food outlets?
A. They target children and young people.
B. They are cheaper than the other restaurants.
C. They make every customer look cool.
D. They are slowly taking over other fast-food outlets.

15. On mentioning root vegetables, what point does Kevin want to make?
A. British people are becoming more and more xenophobic.
B. There is greater choice, but imported foodstuffs are expensive.
C. The root vegetables produced in Britain in the past were best.
D. Cosmopolitan food reflects a generally less insular society.

Part 4. You will hear an expert talking about differences between teen and adult brains. For
questions 16-25, complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
Adolescence can be defined as the time between the (16) __________ and the full formation of a grown-
up identity and behavior.
Contrary to popular belief, adolescence can range from the age of ten to as late as (17)__________ .
The part of the brain responsible for decision making, technically known as (18)__________, continues
evolving well into a person’s mid-twenties.
The modern teenager is believed to be (19)__________, getting both smarter and more active.
The speaker suggests a case for an age limit on voters, since adults as young as 45 can begin to
experience (20)__________.
Sixteen is believed to be a better time for initiating (21)__________ as well as socially responsible
habits.
As their social learning is (22)__________, teenagers tend to be spontaneous and take greater risks.
However, by the age of 15, a teenager’s (23) __________ is virtually at its full development.
(24) __________ are being outnumbered by millennials among those eligible to vote in the USA.
Thanks to their access to information, this major bloc in the electorate can become the driving force
behind (25)__________.

II. LEXICO GRAMMAR (20 points)


Part 1. For questions 26-40, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to each of the following
questions.
26. The floral bouquets we entered into the competition were a _______ of colour, but unfortunately, we
did not win first prize.
A. wham B. riot C. drop D. buzz

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27. The police are going to ______down on illegal stock exchange activities in the streets.
A. dragging B. kicking C. dumbing D. clamping
28. I felt a bit _______ and seemed to have more aches and pains than usual.
A. out of sorts C. on the mend
B. over the worst D. under the fever
29. We hurried back to our car as we saw the clouds ________ over the mountains.
A. rolling in B. holding off C. beating down D. bucketing down
30. The spy was told to _______ the code to memory, then destroy the document.
A. slip B. bear C. put D. commit
31. He must have been hungry; he _______ that burger in record time and ordered another.
A. whipped up B. tucked in C. chopped up D. bolted down
32. Anyone who lies under oath will be charged with _______ the course of justice.
A. diverting B. perverting C. inverting D. converting
33. The best travel books of this year fall into three main categories: _________ informational, narrative,
and anecdotal.
A. truly B. fully C. literally D. purely
34. As we were in an urgent need of syringes and other medical equipment, the aid organization
promised to deliver them ________ the double.
A. at B. in C. with D. round
35. As usual, the Turners have organized a clearance sale in their stores this spring. You can get even
high-quality goods ______ the cheap.
A. at B. under C. for D. on
36. Don’t call Pam just now. Something has gone wrong with the computer; she’s ______ because she
can’t get the data she needs.
A. in a stew B. out of a rut C. in the swim D. under the sink
37. After the earthquake, the entrance hall was turned into a _________ casualty ward.
A. mainstay B. piecework C. makeshift D. wayside
38. Liverpool has several opportunities to score but __________ their chances.
A. squandered B. abused C. scattered D. spent
39. Over half of the population of this earthquake-stricken area are living _________.
A. on the house B. on the tenterhooks
C. on the breadline D. on the cards
40. His smirk suggested some vicious _____________, which terrified everyone at the meeting.
A. subtleties B. allusions C. insinuations D. inertia

Part 2. For questions 41-45, write the correct form of each bracketed word in each sentence.
41. This proposal was _______ to the one we discussed at the last meeting. (ANALOGY)
42. The opposing counsel had a last opportunity to ________ the witness to address the facts brought
out in redirect examination. (EXAMINE)
43. The government announced that more than a million dollars will be ________ for COVID-19 vaccine
research. (EAR)
44. The president of this company is merely a ________ the Chief Executive is the one who is truly in
control. (HEAD)
41. The Ministry of Education and Training decided to organize a/an _________ footballer championship
to create a common playground for all students. (COLLEGE)

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III. READING ( 50 points)
Part 1. For questions 46-55, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word.
Protecting the world’s forests is promoted as a way of reducing greenhouse gas emissions. But
some researchers say conserving forests (46)_________ will not significantly reduce emissions.
It’s estimated that protecting forests could prevent 77 billion tons of carbon dioxide from going
(47)_________the atmosphere by the year 2100. Avoiding (48)_________ is a very important aspect in
terms of carbon emission avoidance.
Indeed, emissions are reduced, but what we could observe is that there are now new emissions
occurring from leakage effect and displacement effect. In other words, preserving forests means other
types of land would be used to grow crops (49)_________. That would result in environmental losses,
losses of non-forest ecosystems that also have a (50)_________ carbon content in the soil, in the
vegetation, like wetlands savanna in Africa or grasslands, and also have a high biodiversity content.
One way is to boost yields on (51)_________ farmlands. In sub-Saharan Africa, there’s much more
potential for agricultural yields that we currently observe and much more potential for agricultural
production.
Another way to meet future food (52)_________ is by reducing waste in agricultural production.
Much food is lost through (53)_________ harvesting methods and lack of proper storage and
transportation. Also, studies have shown food worth of billions of dollars is wasted every year in
developed countries.
Given the lack of progress made in climate change negotiations, some scientists (54)_________
their comprehensive approach will be adopted now. They said that “a more achievable approach” may
be to protect non-forest areas that can store a lot of carbon and have good biodiversity. The Reduced
Emissions from Deforestation and Degradation plan would have to be altered so funds can go to
programs (55)_________ related to forests.

Part 2. For questions 56-68, read the following passage and do the tasks that follow.
Paving the way for greener architecture
Close to the town of Zermatt, high up in the Swiss Alps, stands Monte Rosa Hut. This innovative
structure is described as 90% self-reliant in regards to the energy consumption needed for the building
to operate, achieved by employing cutting-edge, eco-friendly building methods. Such examples are
indicative of the growing trend within architectural circles towards designing more ecologically sound
buildings, which both support the conservation of energy, and are less detrimental to the environment.
In the age of climate change, the contribution buildings make to global carbon emissions is under
intense scrutiny. Indeed, recent estimates claim they may account for around 30% of greenhouse gases.
Architects play a pivotal role in reducing this statistic, as well as finding feasible and sustainable
solutions to the energy crisis currently gripping the world.
Early work by the prominent US architect Frank Lloyd Wright, illustrates how the notion of
respecting the environment is nothing new within the field of architecture. Throughout his career, Wright
was a huge advocate of ensuring a good relationship between construction and nature, incorporating the
concept of ‘organic’ architecture into his designs. Its ethos rejects the idea of thoughtlessly demolishing
large areas to make way for new buildings; rather, it encompasses consideration towards the
environment and a building design that assimilates smoothly into the surroundings.
This is embodied in Wright’s famous Fallingwater building. The structure, once a private
residence, receives many tourists annually, who marvel at this breathtaking example of how to
successfully fuse together a building with its environment. The building itself was constructed on top of a
waterfall, which was ingeniously integrated into the design. Given the stunning appearance of the
building, it is a popular venue for weddings and events today. Although carbon emissions certainly would
not have been at the forefront of Wright’s mind when construction began in the 1930s, there are parallels

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made with the current movement of more architects ‘going green’.That is, the eco-friendly architects of
today design by a similar mantra to that of Wright’s — work with nature, not against it.
Several high-tech and increasingly mainstream applications improve the sustainability capacity of
a building and reduce the reliance on utility companies by drawing on the use of natural resources —
none more so than the sun andits rich source of energy. Thanks to the rapid development of
photovoltaic technology, solar energy can now be easily converted into the form of electricity required for
household appliances and lighting, thereby reducing reliance on fossil fuels for energy needs. A solar
panel is usually fixed to the roof of the building, with the most popular systems made of semi-conductors
such as silicon, incorporating an outer layer comprised of glass. As sunlight reaches the glass panel, the
rays are absorbed and later passed through an inverter — a device necessary for converting this energy
into a useable form of electricity.
The popularity of solar technology has soared in recent years and, with increasing numbers of
households endorsing this as a feasible and cost-effective method, it has been hailed as the answer to
the energy crisis. Still, the misconception exists that a high volume of sunny days are required to
produce adequate energy to meet the needs of a household. In reality, the system only requires daylight
to operate. Critics of the approach dispute its true eco-friendly label, as a number of chemicals, thought
to contribute to global warming, have been linked with the production and manufacturing methods of this
technology. Moreover, until this technology advances further it will remain an expensive option for the
masses, at least in terms of set-up costs.
As the building industry strives to achieve self-sufficient buildings, more of a focus is placed on
effective water management and collection systems. Systems for rainwater collection can be integrated
into the roof of a building at the design stage, and the water can, amongst other things, be used for
showering. In this case, water must be purified to ensure it meets safety standards. Alternatively, barrels
located around the building can collect rainwater, which can be used for watering the plants.
Architects are ever more turning their thoughts to the materials used in construction, and how
these materials impact the natural world. In fact, due to some traditional building materials being
accused of having high toxicity levels that contribute to greenhouse gases, the use of eco-friendly
material is gaining popularity. From used aluminium cans in the roofing design, to straw for insulation in
the walls, there are several examples of buildings using unusual resources. Consideration of the
materials used and careful planning on the part of the designer means that environmental damage and
overconsumption of materials is kept to a minimum. One example is the Dalby Forest Visitor Centre in
central England. This public building is largely constructed of recycled materials and made in such a way
that, if ever demolished, all components would be recyclable. Making the switch to greener architecture
has added benefits for occupants, by potentially protecting their health; traditional building materials may
be associated with various health issues, mainly thought to result from the hazardous substances found
in some materials.
Working towards a greater number of energy-efficient buildings is a top priority. As governments
around the world are waking up to the reality of climate change, many are starting to take action. In the
United Kingdom for example, newly constructed buildings will soon be required by law to conform to
greener building regulations which work towards a zero carbon status — an idea supported by many
nations.

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

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56. In spite of pressing environmental issues there is resistance within construction to apply a greener
methodology.
57. It is estimated that emissions from buildings are responsible for two-thirds of manmade atmospheric
pollution.
58. In organic architectural designs, buildings seemingly become part of thenatural world.
59. Frank Lloyd Wright’s renowned Fallingwater house required the removal of part of the waterfall
before construction could commence.
60. Wright’s philosophy shares few commonalities with the environmentally aware designers of today.
61. Historically, designers have paid very little attention to the use of natural resources in architecture.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

62. Solar power is not only more sustainable, but also more ________ energy from fossil fuels.
63. The ________ of solar technology have come under criticism for being partly responsible for
environmental damage.
64. Water collection methods help a building to be more ________ by meeting basic utility needs.
65. Increasingly, more attention is being given to how materials ________ their surroundings.
66. The Dalby Forest Visitor Centre is an example of a building constructed of ________ materials.
67. Several ailments have been connected to the use of ________.
68. Increasingly more attention is given to ________ developments at policy level.

Part 3. You are going to read an extract from a novel. Seven paragraphs have been removed from
the extract. Choose from paragraphs A-H the one which fits each gap (69 - 75). There is one extra
paragraph which you do not need to use.
The Do-gooders
The people who changed the morals of English society.
In the last decades of the 18th century, the losers seriously outnumbered the winners. Those who
were fortunate enough to occupy the upper levels of society, celebrated their good fortune by living a
hedonistic life of gambling, parties and alcohol. It was their moral right, they felt, to exploit the weak and
the poor. Few of them thought their lives should change, even fewer believed it could.

69.

But the decisive turning point for moral reform was the French revolution. John Bowlder, a popular
moralist of the time, blamed the destruction of French society on a moral crisis. Edmund Burke, a Whig
statesman agreed. 'When your fountain is choked up and polluted,' he wrote, 'the stream will not run
long or clear.' If the English society did not reform, ruin would surely follow.

70.
Englishmen were deeply afraid that the immorality of France would invade England. Taking
advantage of this, Burke was able to gain considerable support by insisting that the French did not have
the moral qualifications to be a civilised nation. He pronounced 'Better this island should be sunk to the
bottom of the sea that than... it should not be a country of religion and morals.'

71.
Sobering though these messages were, the aristocracy of the time was open to such reforms, not
least due to fear. France's attempt to destroy their nobility did much to encourage the upper classes to
examine and re-evaluate their own behaviour. Added to this was the arrival of French noble émigrés to
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British shores. As these people were dependant on the charity of the British aristocracy, it became
paramount to amend morals and suppress all vices in order to uphold the state.

72.
Whether the vices of the rich and titled stopped or were merely cloaked is open to question. But it
is clear that by the turn of the century, a more circumspect society had emerged. Styles of dress became
more moderate, and the former adornments of swords, buckles and powdered hair were no longer seen.
There was a profusion of moral didactic literature available. Public hangings ceased and riots became
much rarer.

73.

One such person was Thomas Wackley who in 1823 founded a medical journal called 'the
Lancet'. At this time, Medicine was still a profession reserved for the rich, and access to knowledge was
impossible for the common man. The Lancet shone a bright light on the questionable practices
undertaken in medicine and particularly in surgery, and finally led to improved standards of care.

74.
How though did changes at the top affect the people at the bottom of the societal hierarchy? Not
all reformers concerned themselves which changes at the authoritative and governmental levels. Others
concentrated on improving the lives and morals of the poor. In the midst of the industrial revolution, the
poorest in society were in dire straits. Many lived in slums and sanitation was poor. No-one wanted the
responsibility of improvement.

75.
Could local authorities impose such measures today? Probably not. Even so, the legacy of the
moral reform of the late 1800s and 1900s lives on today. Because of it, the British have come to expect
a system which is competent, fair to all and free from corruption. Nowadays everyone has a right to a
home, access to education, and protection at work and in hospital. This is all down to the men and
women who did not just observe society's ills from a distance, but who dared to take steps to change it.

Missing paragraphs

A. But a moral makeover was on the horizon, and one of the first people to promote it was William
Wilberforce, better known for his efforts in abolishing the slave trade. Writing to a friend, Lord Muncaster,
he stated that 'the universal corruption and profligacy of the times...taking its rise amongst the rich and
luxurious has now ... spread its destructive poison through the whole body of the people.'

B. But one woman, Octavia Hill, was willing to step up to the mark. Hill, despite serious opposition by the
men who still dominated English society, succeeded in opening a number of housing facilities for the
poor. But, recognising the weaknesses of a charity-dependent culture, Hill enforced high moral
standards, strict measures in hygiene and cleanliness upon her tenants, and, in order to promote a
culture of industry, made them work for any financial handouts.

C. At first, moralists did not look for some tangible end to moral behaviour. They concerned themselves
with the spiritual salvation of the rich and titled members of society, believing that the moral tone set by
the higher ranks would influence the lower orders. For example, Samuel Parr, preaching at London's St
Paul's Cathedral, said 'If the rich man...abandons himself to sloth and all the vices which sloth
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generates, he corrupts by his example. He permits...his immediate attendants to be, like him, idle and
profligate.'

D. In time, the fervour for improved morals strayed beyond personal behaviour and towards a new
governance. People called for a tightening of existing laws which had formerly been enforced only laxly.
Gambling, duelling, swearing, prostitution, pornography and adultery laws were more strictly upheld to
the extent that several fashionable ladies were fined fifty pounds each for gambling in a private
residence.

E. So far, however, circumspection in the upper classes had done little to improve the lives of those in
the lower classes. But that was to change. Against a backdrop of the moral high ground, faults in the
system started to stand out. One by one, people started to question the morality of those in authority.

F. The attitudes of the upper classes became increasingly critical during the latter part of the eighteenth
century. In 1768, the Lord of the Treasury was perfectly at ease to introduce his mistress to the Queen,
but a generation later, such behaviour would have been unacceptable. Such attitudes are also seen in
the diaries of Samuel Pepys, who, in 1793 rambles without criticism about his peer's many mistresses. A
few years later, his tone had become infinitely more critical.

G. Similar developments occurred in the Civil Service. Civil servants were generally employed as a
result of nepotism or acquaintance, and more often than not took advantage of their power to provide for
themselves at the expense of the public. Charles Trevelyan, an official at the London Treasury, realised
the weaknesses in the system and proposed that all civil servants were employed as a result of entrance
examinations, thus creating a system which was politically independent and consisted of people who
were genuinely able to do the job.

H. These prophecies roused a little agitation when first published in 1790. But it was the events in 1792-
93 which shocked England into action. Over in France, insurrection had led to war and massacre. The
King and Queen had been tried and executed. France was now regarded as completely immoral and
uncivilized, a country where vice and irreligion reigned.

Part 4. For questions 76-85, read the passage and choose the answer A, B, C or D which you
think fits best according to the text.

PIAGET’S STAGES OF COGNITIVE DEVELOPMENT


By charting out the typical cognitive development of children, Swiss psychologist Jean Piaget has
heavily influenced how psychiatrists delineate the progress of juvenile psychological growth. Beginning
in the 1920s and up until his death in 1980, he studied the errors schoolchildren made on various tests
and realised that children of the same age made the same kinds of reasoning errors. Based on these
recurring patterns, he identified stages in a child’s cognitive development, beginning from infancy and
extending through adulthood. Essentially, he proposed that there was a common timetable by which
children initially develop simple cognitive skills and gradually refine them into more abstract ways of
thinking. While more recent theories on the matter suggest that there is more overlap among these
stages and that different environments affect children’s progress, Piaget’s theory was nonetheless
extremely important to initial studies of cognitive development.
According to Piaget, the first stage that children go through is the sensorimotor stage, an eventful
and complex period that Piaget further divided into six sub-stages. The sensorimotor stage begins at
birth and lasts roughly until the child is two years old. During this time, the child experiences the world

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through his senses and motor skills, and he will initially develop and master the basic reflexes of infants,
such as grasping, sucking, looking, and listening. Moreover, the infant begins to develop the
fundamentals of basic cognitive functions. He develops awareness of himself and of objects as separate
entities and begins to manipulate his external environment, usually by kicking, moving objects, and
chewing on toys. The child also learns that certain actions will have certain effects, and he may perform
an action to recreate these effects. For instance, he may accidentally suck his thumb and find it
pleasurable, so he repeatedly sucks his thumb to experience the pleasure again. The child may also
experiment with different actions to test their effects, like making various sounds to get an adult’s
attention. Finally, the child also shows the basic capacity for understanding symbols, and he develops a
rudimentary use of language toward the end of this stage, most notably by identifying parents with
words like “mama” and “dada.”
In the next stage, the preoperational stage (ages 2–7), the child expands his capacity for
symbolic thinking, and he can envision the environment and manipulate it within his imagination.
Imagination thus develops more fully, as seen in the child’s tendency to role-play other people (like his
parents, firefighters, etc.), and to pretend that objects are other things, like pretending that a broom is a
horse. This stage is marked by two other distinctive characteristics. The first is egocentrism. While the
child’s language develops more fully for the purpose of social interaction, his thought process is still
limited by individual experiences, and these cognitive limitations exclude any alternative viewpoints.
Piaget determined this when he instructed several children in this age group to look at a three-
dimensional model of a mountain from a particular angle and then pick out a particular scene they saw.
All of the subjects correctly fulfilled the task, but, when asked to pick out what someone else would have
seen when looking at a different angle, they only picked out the respective scenes they saw. Basically,
they were oblivious to the fact that a viewer at a different angle would see a different scene, so they
were only able to pick out only what they saw personally. The other characteristic is that thought occurs
in an illogical and irreversible manner. A child can easily believe that things can magically increase,
decrease, or vanish, as perceptions often dictate their reality. Piaget determined this from an experiment
in which he poured equal amounts of liquid into a short thick glass and a tall thin glass and asked the
children which container had more liquid. The subjects often selected the tall thin glass because the
liquid reached a higher level and made the glass appear fuller. They believed that liquid magically
appeared to fill the taller glass, even though they were told both glasses contained the same amount.
In the final two stages, the child refines his skills or reasoning and analysis. In the concrete
operational stage (ages 7–11), the child shows evidence for logical thought and becomes less
egocentric in his thinking. He begins to grasp concepts such as mass, length, volume, time, and other
abstract measurements, and he becomes capable of solving basic logical problems and understanding
reversible logic. He can perform simple arithmetic like addition, subtraction, and multiplication, and his
understanding of how these concepts relate to each other increases. For instance, he understands that
ten minus five equals five, so five plus five equals ten. He is also able to categorize concepts, such as
identifying a tiger as a cat, a cat as an animal, and thus a tiger as an animal. In the fourth and final
stage, the formal operational stage (from puberty to adulthood), the child is finally able to think in
completely abstract terms. He is able to perform algebra, calculus, and other mathematics that utilize
symbols, formulas, and logic, and he is capable of other complex critical and analytical thought. This
also allows him to hypotheses from experiments and using these to predict the effects of certain actions.
The extent to which people achieve this degree of abstract thinking is always different, and some may
never fully or adequately grasp these skills, even as adults.

76. The word “delineate” in the passage is closest in meaning to “_______”.


A. counterbalance B. decry C. embolden D. map

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77. In paragraph 1, the author moots Piaget’s dissertations with children in order to ______.
A. collate his disquisitions with contemporary therapists’
B. denote the glitches in his procedures
C. designate how he augmented his postulates
D. exhibits how Piaget’s hypotheses are pertained
78. According to paragraph 1, what can be inferred about Piaget’s analyses?
A. They have been called into question recently.
B. They are chiefly issued from other therapists’ inquires.
C. They invalidated other schools of psychology.
D. They were never orthodox among psychiatrists.
79. According to paragraph 2, a child’s development in the sensorimotor juncture is typified by ______.
A. an aptitude for discerning reversible notions
B. a sagacity of numerical hypotheses
C. a cognizance of the entity of external objects
D. a significant diminution in egocentrism
80. The word “rudimentary” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. abortive B. basic C. makeshift D. unsophisticated
81. The phrase “oblivious to” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. heedless of B. impervious to C. insensible to D. unconscious of
82. According to paragraph 3, most children who executed Piaget’s mountain test ______.
A. were impotent to ruminate on the perspectives of other personages
B. could use their motor prowess to manipulate their surroundings
C. evinced the ability to classify objects into different categories
D. had tribulations assigning symbols to external objects
83. According to paragraph 4, all of the following are true about the formal operational juncture EXCEPT
that_________.
A. it conventionally institutes at the onset of juvenescence.
B. it is the most abiding episode of development.
C. it makes the same strides with the same ramifications all and sundry.
D. it is when people refine skills mandatory for convoluted mathematics.
84. According to the passage, at which episode would a child distinctly possible commence to
impersonate an astronaut?
A. preoperational B. formal C. concrete D. sensorimotor
85. Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about a child in the concrete
operational juncture?
A. He would be adroit to conduct and unravel the elaborate mathematical equations often wielded in
calculus.
B. He would only be able to kick, shriek, and masticate on miscellaneous objects to create changes
in his vicinities.
C. He would most likely flunk Piaget’s test that incorporated a three-dimensional model of mountain.
D. He would discern that the containers in the liquids-in-two containers test have the same amount.

Part 5. You are going to read an article containing reviews of recently-published books. For
questions 86-95, choose from reviews (A-F). The reviews may be chosen more than once.
Book Corner
A round-up of the latest fiction and non-fiction from Beth Young.
A Reading a new novelist is a bit like asking a stranger out on a date. You never quite know if this
is the start of a beautiful relationship. You check the blurbs, the publicity photograph, and flick through

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the book to look for the two essentials: entertainment and substance. Beginner’s Greek by James
Collins is certainly big on the latter, weighing in at 400-plus pages. And the quotes on the back cover
have the effect of a bunch of friends saying to you, ‘Go on, you’ll get on brilliantly’. Early indications are
that this blind date could lead to a deeper relationship. Beginner’s Greek is described by The New York
Times as a “great big sunny lemon chiffon pie of a novel” about romantic love amongst the American
middle classes. It is indeed delicious.
B In Manil Suri’s second outing The Age of Shiva we have a broad-sweeping, epic novel with an
unforgettable heroine so willful yet flawed that it calls to mind that other famous leading lady, Scarlett
O’Hara in Gone With the Wind. The story begins at a firework party in Delhi where Meera falls
disastrously in love. We follow her journey to Bombay, marriage and obsessive motherhood, with
occasional flashbacks to a childhood that was marred by political turmoil. Mathematics professor, Suri,
captures the fluidity of the role of women with a beautiful kind of precision.
C Devotees of playwright David Mamet, whose screen work includes Wag The Dog and the award-
winning Glengarry Glen Ross may be less than enamoured of Ira Nadel’s new biography, David Mamet:
A Life in the Theatre. It may seem churlish to question the minutia of incidents that abound in this
comprehensive tome, but whilst Nadel is clearly striving for accuracy one feels there ought to have been
more sifting, more mining for the gold amongst the biographical trivia. In addition, Nadel’s tone is
somewhat dry and academic and seems at odds with the brilliance of David Mamet’s own writing. That
said, the book offers a sound introduction to the life and career of the man hailed as one of America’s
most outstanding writers.
D Can any Mother help me? is the true story of a desperately lonely mother who, in 1935, appealed
to other women through the letters page of a women’s magazine. Writing under a pseudonym, the
woman known as Ubique (meaning ‘everywhere’) little realised that she would be the trigger for the
launch of a new and private magazine that would last for the next fifty years. The Cooperative
Correspondence Club was formed to offer comfort and support to wives, often well-educated women,
who craved stimulation beyond the drudgery of family life. Jenna Bailey has done a superb job of
organising and editing this compendium, adding her own insightful commentary.
E Subtitled, The Life and Times of Henry Howard, Earl of Surrey, Jessie Child’s debut historical
biography, Henry VIII's Last Victim, was the worthy winner of last year’s Elizabeth Longford Prize. Henry
Howard’s victim status is owing to the fact that he was the final person to be executed by King Henry
VIII, a mere nine days before the king himself expired. Although killed ostensibly for treason, the Earl of
Surrey’s only real crime it seems was leading an unsuccessful army campaign in France. Only 29, he
was also a distinguished poet with a fine literary voice, a persona which refutes his reputation as the
spoilt son of the Duke of Norfolk.
F This is the 25th outing for T. Keneally but he’s lost none of his writing powers. The Widow and
Her Hero takes real life events during the Second World War as its inspiration and builds a tale of love
and intrigue. Grace looks back on her life to recall her courtship with the hero of the title, the handsome
Captain Leo Waterhouse. Leo is tragically killed whilst on a secret mission but it is many years before
Grace discovers the facts about his death. Keneally made fans galore when Schindler’s Ark was
published and later made into the award-winning Steven Spielberg film, Schindler’s List. The Widow and
Her Hero will bring him even more fans.

In which review are the following mentioned?


86. A story in which someone is unaware of the impact of their action.
87. A description of the opening scene.
88. An author who exemplifies source material with their own analysis.
89. A humorous comparison with a real-life situation.
90. A character who finds out the truth about a situation.

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91. A hint that the author’s future writing career will be positive.
92. A book that would be appreciated by people without much previous knowledge of the subject.
93. A book which has already won critical acclaim.
94. A book which includes too much factual detail.
95. A mention of the profession of the author.

IV. WRITING (60 points)

Part 1. Read the following extract and use your own words to summarize it. Your summary
should be about 120 words long.

Culture shock is a psychological term, which is used to define the mental state that a person
experiences when learning to live in a new culture. Learning to cope with regular daily life is often
difficult for foreigners because they might find that many things in the new environment are totally
different from the one they have recently left. One of these differences could relate to the climate and
physical surroundings. It could be significantly hotter or colder, or more humid, so the newcomer has to
adjust to a new set of physical sensations to which their body has not been accustomed. The new
conditions and culture will require the newcomer to find and wear suitable clothing and to understand
what is appropriate. In addition to the range of food that is available, where to find it, might also be quite
different from that of a person’s own country. These difficulties can then be further compounded by
language differences if the foreigner does not know that local language. So problems arise as the
foreigner endeavours to communicate with the residents, find accommodation, get a job or access
services. Together with the new language, the newcomer may notice differences in customs: the way
people relate to each other, for example, how to greet others, whether to use first names, and what is
considered polite behaviour.
The effect of these new surroundings and difficulties can produce a range of physical, mental and
emotional responses. For example, many people feel physically uncomfortable in the new climate. At the
sight of food they may lack appetite or even feel disgust. They can experience anxiety and frustration
because of the communication problems they encounter. The behaviour of the locals around them can
result in feeling of shock or confusion. They often become angry, numb or melancholic, and look for
society of other foreigners with whom they feel more comfortable.
So what is the solution for people who find themselves in these circumstances? Well, with such a
bombardment of new experiences many people may become disillusioned and give up, and if possible,
they return home. However, those who remain eventually do adjust and become accustomed to the new
environment and culture. Some psychologists believe that more than six months are necessary to
overcome culture shock and adjust to the new society. It is important to keep in mind, however, that
every person and their circumstances are different; therefore the experiences and results I describe will
not be the same for everyone.
Therefore, if people realise that culture shock is a very common experience and that things will
improve in time, it can help them to better cope with the unpleasant reactions and feelings they might
have during the first few months in a new culture.

Part 2. The graph below provides information on the average cost of three kinds of cereals in
England and Wales over an eight-month period in 2014, while the table shows the quantities of
cereals sold during the same period.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where
relevant.
Write at least 150 words

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AVERAGE PRICE PER TONNE IN ENGLAND AND WALES

AVERAGE QUANTITIES OF CEREALS SOLD (TONNES) IN ENGLAND AND WALES

January February March April May June July August


WHEAT 76,800 85,500 163,500 56,300 30,800 50,700 66,300 131,700
BARLEY 21,500 18,900 32,400 15,700 11,300 11,500 38,100 45,100
OATS 2350 1820 3580 1700 960 600 945 2310

Part 3. Write an essay of 350 words on the following topic.


It is important to be concerned about international events, even if those events have no
direct impact on our lives. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this opinion?
Give reasons and specific examples to support your opinion.

----------------- Hết------------------
(Thí sinh không sử dụng tài liệu. Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm)

Họ và tên thí sinh: …………………………..……… Số báo danh: ……………………………………….


Cán bộ coi thi số 1: ………………………………….Cán bộ coi thi số 2………………………………….

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