IESME2020 W E

| ME-2020 | www.gateforum.
com
(PAPER – II)
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
1. The time taken to face a workpiece of 80 mm diameter for the spindle speed of 90 rpm and cross feed 0.3
mm/rev will be
(A) 4.12 min
(B) 3.24 min
(D) 2.36 min
(D) 1.48 min
Answer: (D)
Sol: Diameter of work piece (d) = 80 mm
Speed of spindle (N) = 90 rpm
L
Time taken for facing operation ( t m ) =
fN
L = Distance to be travelled by tool = 40 mm d = 80
f = feed = 0.3 mm/rev
40
tm = = 1.48 min
( 0.3  90)
Answer is option (D).
2. A feed f for the lathe operation is

N
(A) mm rev
L  Tm
L
(B) mm rev
N  Tm
Tm
(C) mm rev
NL
Tm  L
(D) mm rev
N
Answer: (B)
© All rights reserved by Thinkcell Learning Solutions Pvt. Lt(D) No part of this booklet may be reproduced or utilized in any form without the written permission.
1
| ME-2020 | www.gateforum.com
L
Sol: The taken for any lathe machining process is Tm =
fN
Where, L = Length of cut in mm
f = feed in mm/rev
N = Speed in rpm
Tm = Machining in min
L
f =
Tm N
Answer is option (B).
3. The main advantage of the radial drilling machine is that

(A) It is very compatible and handy for machining
(B) It is accurate, economical, portable and least time consuming while machining
(C) Heavy workpieces can be machined in any position without moving them
(D) Small workpieces can be machined and it can be used for mass production as well
Answer: (C)
Sol: Advantages of radial drilling machine are
1. Larger and heavier work may be machined.
2. Drilling head raised (or) lowered.
3. Drilling head moves rapidly to any desired location while work piece remains clamped.
Answer is option (C).
4. For the purpose of sampling inspection, the maximum percent defective that can be considered
satisfactory as a process average is
(A) Rejectable Quality Level (RQL)
(B) Acceptable Quality Level (AQL)
(C) Average Outgoing Quality Limit (AOQL)
(D) Lot Tolerance Percent Defective (LTPD)
Answer: (B)
Sol: Acceptable quality level is the maximum percent defective (or) the maximum number of defects per
hundred units, that for purposes of sampling inspection, can be considered satisfactory as a process
average.
So correct option is ‘B’.
2
5. Hard automation is also called

(A) Selective automation
(B) Total automation
(C) Group technology
(D) Fixed position automation
Answer: (D)
Sol: Automation of production systems can be classified into three basic types:
1. Fixed automation (Hard automation).
2. Programmable automation (soft automation).
3. Flexible automation.
Fixed automation: It is used in high volume production with dedicated equipment, which has a fixed set
of operation and designed to be efficient for this set. Continuous flow and discrete mass production
systems, use this automation. Ex: Distillation process, conveyors, paint shops, transfer lines etc.
A process using mechanized machinery to perform fixed and repetitive operations in order to produce a
high volume of similar parts. Hence this is a fixed position automation. So, answer is option (D).
6. The method of CNC programming which enables the programmer to describe part geometry using
variables is
(A) Computer assisted part programming
(B) Computer aided drafting programming
(C) Conversational programming
(D) Parametric programming
Answer: (D)
Sol: Parametric programing possesses both computer-related features as well as CNC specific features.
Computer related features like variables, arithmetic, logic statements, and looping are available in
parametric-programming. Like other computer programming languages, parametric programming is also
available in several versions like Fanuc controls. The variables are used to describe part geometry. Hence
answer is option (D).
7. Revolving joint of the robot is referred to as

(A) L joint
(B) O joint
(C) T joint
(D) V joint
3
Answer: (D)
8. Repairing of a machine consists of 5 steps that must be performed sequentially. Time taken to perform
each of the 5 steps is found to have an exponential distribution with a mean of 5 minutes and is
independent of other steps. If these machines break down in Poisson fashion at an average rate of 2/hour
and it there is only one repairman, the average idle time for each machine that has broken down will be
(A) 120 minutes
(B) 110 minutes
(C) 100 minutes
(D) 90 minutes
Answer: (A)
Sol: Given that,
Time taken to complete each step in repairing machine = 5 minutes
Time taken to complete ‘5’ steps = 5 × 5 = 25 minutes
i.e., service time for repairing each machine = 25 minutes
1
 = units min ute
25
Machines are break down in Poisson’s ratio with an average rate of 2/hour
2units 2
i.e.,  = = units min
hour 60
Average idle time for each machine which has break down =Waiting time of machine in the queue with
single server.
 2
  
i.e., Wq = =  60  = 125 minutes
 (  −  )  1  1 2
  − 
 25  25 60 
Hence nearest answer is option (A).
9. A problem of the total float within which an activity can be delayed for start without affecting the floats of
preceding activities is called
(A) Safety float
(B) Free float
(C) Independent float
(D) Interfering float
Answer: (C)
4
Sol: Independent float is that portion of the total float within which an activity can be delayed for start without
affecting the float of the preceding activities. It is calculated for an activity by subtracting the tail event
slack from its total float. Hence the answer option is (C).
10. An oil engine manufacturer purchases lubricant cans at the rate of Rs. 42 per piece from a vendor. The
requirement of these lubricant cans is 1800 per year. If the cost per placement of an order is Rs. 16 and
inventory carrying charges per rupee per year is 20 paise, the order quantity per order will be
(A) 91 cans
(B) 83 cans
(C) 75 cans
(D) 67 cans
Answer: (B)
Sol: Given that, annual demand of cans is ( R ) = 1800 per year
Ordering cost for placing the order is ( C0 ) = 16 Rs
Cost of lubricant can = 42 Rs per can

Inventory carrying cost is 20 paise per rupee of can cost (0.2 rupee)
Per year ( CC ) = 0.2  42rupees can year
2C0 R 2  16  1800
Economic order quantity is ( EOQ ) = = = 82.80  83 cans
CC 0.2  42
11. Consider the following data regarding the acceptance sampling process:
N = 10,000, n = 89, c = 2, P = 0.01, and Pa = 0.9397
The average total inspection (ATI) will be
(A) 795
(B) 687
(C) 595
(D) 487
Answer: (B)
Sol: Given that,
N = lot size = 10,000, n = sample size = 89
C = Accepted numbers for the given lot (surplus data)
Quality of lot (P) = 0.01
Probability of acceptance ( Pa ) = 0.9397
5
Average Total Inspection (ATI) will be find as follows,

ATI = n + (1 − Pa )( N − n )
= 89 + (1 − 0.9397 )  (10,000 − 89 )
= 686.63  687
So, answer is option ‘B’.
12. The Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI) technique employed during inspection for castings of tubes and
pipes to check the overall strength of a casting in resistance to bursting under hydraulic pressure is
(A) Radiographic inspection
(B) Magnetic particle inspection
(C) Fluorescent penetrant
(D) Pressure testing
Answer: (D)
Sol: Pressure testing is a non-destructive test performed to ensure the integrity of the pressure shell on new
pressure equipment (or) on previously installed pressure and piping equipment that has undergone an
alteration (or) repair to its boundary (s). Pressure testing is required by most piping codes to verify that a
new, modified (or) repaired piping system is capable of safely withstanding its rated pressure and is leak
tight. Hence the answer is option ‘D’.
13. Consider the situation where a microprocessor gives an output of an 8-bit word. This is fed through an 8-
bit digital-to-analogue converter to a control valve. The Control valve requires 6.0 V being fully open. If
the fully open state is indicated by 11111111, the output to the valve for a change of 1-bit will be
(A) 0.061 V
(B) 0.042 V
(C) 0.023 V
(D) 0.014 V
Answer: (C)
Sol: Output voltage for fully open = 6.0V
Number of internals = 28
6
Change in output voltage = = 0.023V
28
6
14. Which of the following factors are to be considered while selecting a microcontroller?
(1) Memory requirements
(2) Processing speed required
(3) Number of input/output pins
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (D)
15. Which of the following statements regarding interface circuit are correct?
1. Electrical buffering is needed when the peripheral operates at a different voltage or current to that on
the microprocessor bus system or there are different ground references.
2. Timing control is needed when the data transfer rates of the peripheral and the microprocessor are
different.
3. Changing the number of lines is needed when the codes used by the peripherals differ from those
used by the microprocessor.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (A)
16. Alternative paths provided by vertical paths from the main rung of a ladder diagram, that is, paths in
parallel, represent
(A) Logical AND operations
(B) Logical OR operations
(C) Logical NOT operations
(D) Logical NOR operations
Answer: (B)
17. The resolution of an encoder with 10 tracks will be nearly

(A) 0.15°
(B) 0.25°
(C) 0.35°
(D) 0.45°
7
Answer: (C)
360 360
Sol: Resolution = = 10 = 0.35
2n 2
18. Which of the following features is/are relevant to variable reluctance stepper motors?
1. Smaller rotor mass; more responsive
2. Step size is small
3. More sluggish
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (A)
Sol: Soft iron is used for manufacturing rotor in case of variable reluctance motor, having small rotor mass and
quick response.
19. Which of the following statements regarding hydraulic pumps are correct?
1. The gear pump consists of two close-meshing gear wheels which rotate in opposite directions.
2. In vane pump, as the rotor rotates, the vanes follow the contours of the casing.
3. The leakage is more in vane pump compared to gear pump.
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (B)
Sol: Gear pump is positive displacement pump. It has two meshed gears revolving about their respective axes.
These pumps have a disadvantage of small leakage due to a gap between teeth and the pump housing.
Vane pumps generate a pumping action by tracking of vanes along the casing wall. In vane pump vanes
are located on the slotted rotor. The rotor is eccentrically placed inside the casing. When the prime mover
rotates the rotor, the vanes are thrown outward due to centrifugal force. In vane pumps leakage is less and
its volumetric efficiency is around 95%. Hence answer is option ‘B’.
20. The selection of the right controller for the application depends on
1. The degree of control required by the application.
2. The individual characteristics of the plants.
8
3. The desirable performance level including required response, steady-state deviation and stability.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (D)
21. Consider a system described by

x = Ax + Bu
y = Cx + Du
The system is completely output controllable if and only if
(A) The matrix CB CBA CB2 A CBn −1A D is of rank n
(B) The matrix CB CBA CA2 B CAn −1B D is of rank m
(C) The matrix BC BAC BA2C BAn −1C D is of rank m
(D) The matrix BC ABC CA2 B CBn −1A D is rank of n
Where:
x = State vector (n-vector)
u = Control vector (r-vector)
y = output vector (m-vector)
A= n × n matrix
B = n × r matrix
C = m × n matrix
D = m × r matrix
Answer: (B)
22. Which one of the following symbols is used as the notation for designating arm and body of a robot with
joined arm configuration?
(A) TRL
(B) TLL, LTL, LVL
(C) LLL
(D) TRR, VVR
Answer: (D)
9
Sol: Robot configuration Symbol

(Arm & Body)
Polar configuration →TRL
Cylindrical configuration → TLL, LTL,
Cartesian configuration →LLL
Joint ed arm configuration →TRR, VVR
23. A complaint motion control of robots can be understood by the problem of controlling of
(A) Position and velocity of joints
(B) Position and acceleration of the end-effector
(C) Manipulator motion and its force interactions with the environment
(D) Joint velocities of given end-effector velocity
Answer: (C)
24. For the vector v = 25i + 10j + 20k, perform a translation by a distance 8 in the x-direction, 5 in the y-
direction and 0 in the z-direction. The translated vector Hv will be
1 
 20 
(A)  
33 
 
15 
33 
15 
(B)  
 20 
 
1 
15 
33 
(C)  
1 
 
 20 
1 
15 
(D)  
 20 
 
33 
Answer: (B)
10
Sol: Given data, V = 25i + 10 j + 20k

Translation in x direction = 8
Translation in y direction = 5
Translation in z direction = 0
1 0 0 8   25  33
0 1 0 5  10  15 
Translation vector =  =
0 0 1 0   20   20
    
0 0 0 1  1   1 
Directions: Each of the next six (06) items consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Statement (I)’
and the other labelled as ‘Statement (II)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select
the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) Both statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the correct
explanation of Statement (I).
(B) Both statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true, but statement (II) is not the correct
explanation of Statement (I).
(C) Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is false.
(D) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is true.
25. Statement (I): The greater the chemical affinity of two metals, the more restricted is their solid solubility
and greater is the tendency of formation of compound.
Statement (II): Wider the separation of elements in the periodic table, greater is their chemical affinity.
Answer: (A)
Sol: The greater the chemical affinity of two metals, the more restricted is their solid solubility and the greater
is the tendency towards compound formation. Generally, the farther apart the elements are in the periodic
table, the greater is their chemical affinity.
As we move along the periodic table their atomic number will be increased, hence their difference in
atomic size is more, hence they can’t make solid solution instead they can make chemical compounds due
to their more chemical affinity. Hence statement II is correct explanation for statement-I. Hence answer is
option ‘A’.
11
26. Statement (I): The size of a memory unit is specified in terms of the number of storage locations
available, 1 K is 210 = 1024 locations and thus a 4 K memory has 4096 locations.
Statement (II): Erasable and programmable ROM (EPROM) is a form of memory unit used for ROMs
that can be programmed and their contents altered.
Answer: (B)
27. Statement (I): Microprocessors which have memory and various input/output arrangements, all on the
same chip, are called microcontrollers.
Statement (II): The microcontroller is the integration of a microprocessor with RAM, ROM, EPROM,
EEPROM and I/O interfaces, and other peripherals such as timers, on a single chip.
Answer: (A)
28. Statement (I): Capacitive proximity sensor can only be used for the detection of metal objects and is best
with ferrous metals.
Statement (II): One form of capacitive proximity sensor consists of a single capacitor plate probe with
the other plate being formed by the object, which has to be metallic and earthed.
Answer: (D)
29. Statement (I): SCARA configuration provides substantial rigidity for the robot in the vertical direction,
but compliance in the horizontal plane.
Statement (II): A special version of the Cartesian coordinate robot is the SCARA, which has a very high
lift capacity as it is designed for high rigidity.
Answer: (C)
30. Statement (I): The stopper motor is a device that produces rotation through equal angles, the so-called
steps, for each digital pulse supplied to its input.
Statement (II): Stepper motors can be used to give controlled rotational steps but cannot give continuous
rotation, as a result their applications are limited to step angles only.
Answer: (C)
Sol: Stepper motors are different from all other types of electrical drives in the sense that they operate on
discrete control pulses received and rotating in discrete steps. These motors are widely employed in
industrial control, specifically for CNC machines, where open loop control in discrete steps are
acceptable. These motors can also be adapted for continuous rotation. Hence statement I is correct, and
statement II is wrong. So answer is option ‘C’.
12
31. A stone weighs 400 N in air and when immersed in water it weighs 225 N. If the specific weight of water
is 9810 N m3 , the relative density of the stone will be nearly
(A) 5.9
(B) 4.7
(C) 3.5
(D) 2.3
Answer: (D)
Sol: Weight of stone in air = 400N
Weight of stone in water = 225N
Buoynace force = Weight of water displaced = 400 – 225 = 175N
Specific weight of water (  water ) × Volume of store = 175 N
9810  Vstone = 175N

 175 
Vstone =  
 9810 
Weight of stone in air = (Specific weight of stone) × Vstone
 175 
400 =  stone   
 9810 
 9810  400 
 stone =  
 175 
 9810  400 
 stone   400
= =
175
Relative density of stone = = 2.28  2.3
 water 9810 175
 Option ‘D’ is correct.
32. A flat plate 0.1m2 area is pulled at 30 cm/s relative to another plate located at a distance of 0.01 cm from
it, the fluid separating them being water with viscosity of 0.001 Ns m 2 . The power required to maintain
velocity will be
(A) 0.05 W
(B) 0.07 W
(C) 0.09 W
(D) 0.11 W
13
Answer: (C)
Sol: Area of plate ( A) = 0.1m2
V = 30cm sec
30cm 30  m  m
Velocity of plate ( V ) = =   = 0.3
sec 100  sec  sec
Viscosity of fluid between the plates ( ) = 0.001 N.sec m2 y = 0.01cm
du
Shear stress at the moving plate is (  ) = 
dy
V−0
 =  
 y 
 0.3 
 
 = ( 0.001)  0.01  = 3N m 2
 100 
 
Shear force acting on the moving plate (F) =  A = 3  0.1 = 0.3N
Power required to maintain velocity (P) = F × V = 0.3 × 0.3 = 0.09 watts
So, answer is option ‘C’.
33. When the pressure of liquid is increased from 3 MN/m2 to MN/m2, its volume is decreased by 0.1%. The
bulk modulus of elasticity of the liquid will be
(A) 3  1012 N m 2
(B) 3  109 N m 2
(C) 3  108 N m 2
(D) 3  104 N m 2
Answer: (B)
Sol: Initial pressure ( PA ) = 3MN m2
Final pressure ( Pf ) = 6MN m2
Charge in pressure ( P ) = ( Pf − PA ) = ( 6 − 3) = 3MN m2 = 3 106 N m2
 V 
% Decreased in volume   100  = 0.1%
 V 
V  0.1 
 = 
V  100 
14
Bulk modulus of elasticity ( k ) =

P
=
( 3 10 ) = 3 109 N m2
6
 V   0.1 
   
 V   100 
So, the answer is option ‘B’.
34. A curve that is everywhere tangent to the instantaneous local velocity vector, is
(A) Streak line
(B) Path line
(C) Normal line
(D) Streamline
Answer: (D)
Sol: Streamline is an imaginary line (curve) drawn in flow field in such a way that tangent drawn at any point
on this line represents the direction of the velocity vector at that instant. Hence option ‘D’ is correct.
35. A 120 mm diameter jet of water is discharging from a nozzle into the air at a velocity of 40 m/s. The
power in the jet with respect to a datum at the jet will be
(A) 380 kW
(B) 360 kW
(C) 340 kW
(D) 320 kW
Answer: (B)
Sol: Diameter of jet (d) = 120 mm = 0.12m
Velocity of Jet ( V) = 40m sec
 2 
a jet =
4
( d ) = ( 0.122 ) = 0.01131m 2
4
Velocity head of jet with respect jet as datum
V = 40m sec
V2 402
( H) = = = 81.55 m
2g ( 2  9.81)
d = 120 mm
Power available at jet,
P = QH Datum
= 9810  a jet  v  81.55
= 9810  0.01131  40  81.55
= 361.922 kW
15
36. Which of the following applications regarding Navier-Stokes equations are correct?
(1) Laminar unidirectional flow between stationary parallel plates.
(2) Laminar unidirectional flow between parallel plates having no relative motion.
(3) Laminar flow in circuit pipes.
(4) Laminar flow between concentric rotating cylinders.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: (A)
Sol: To have laminar flow between two concentric rotating cylinders, the gap should between then should be
very small and also cylinders lengths should be sufficiently large to make this possible. On account of
uniform angular motion of cylinders, the laminar flow must be steady and with these assumption of
laminar flow and steady flow the variation of velocity between the cylinders will be linear whereas the
above three applications i.e., flow between stationary parallel plates, flow between parallel plates having
no relative motion and flow in circular pipes the velocity variation is non linear. Hence, we can say that
laminar flow between concentric case of Navier Stokes equation. This rotating cylinders concept is also
used for measurement of viscosity of fluid between them since the velocity variation is linear and easy to
measure viscosity and hence this application can be taken as limiting case of Navier Stokes equation.
Hence answer is option (A).
37. A crude oil having a specific gravity of 0.9 flows through a pipe of diameter 0.15 m at the rate of 8 lps. If
the value of μ is 0.3 Ns m 2 , the Reynolds number will be nearly
(A) 295
(B) 235
(C) 205
(D) 165
Answer: (C)
Sol: Specific gravity of oil ( s ) = 0.9
Diameter of pipe ( d ) = 0.15m
 8  m
3
Discharge of oil ( Q ) = 8 1ps =  
 100  sec
Viscosity of oil (  ) = 0.3 N.sec m2
16
VD
Reynold’s number ( Re ) =

 = density = s  100 = 0.9  100 = 900 kg m3
Q
V = velocity of oil =
A
Qd 900  8  0.15
 Re = = = 203.72  205
A   1000   0.15 2  0.3
( )
4
38. Two pipes of lengths 2500 m each and diameters 80 cm and 60c m respectively, are connected in parallel.
The coefficient of friction for each pipe is 0.006 and the total flow is 250 litres/s. The rates of flow in the
pipes are nearly
(A) 0.17 m3 s and 0.1 m3 s
(B) 0.23 m3 s and 0.1 m3 s
(C) 0.17 m3 s and 0.4 m3 s
(D) 0.23 m3 s and 0.4 m3 s

Answer: (A)
Sol: Coefficient of friction ( f '1 = f '2 ) = 0.006
L1 = 2500 m
Friction factor ( f1 = f 2 ) = 4  0.006 = 0.024
In parallel flow head loss is same in both pipes

h f1 = h f2
d1 = 80 cm
f1L1Q12 f 2 L2 22 Q12 Q22
=  =
12.1d15 12.1d52 d15 d52
52 Q = 250 lines sec
Q12 Q 22 Q  0.8 
=  1 = 
( 0.8) ( 0.6 ) Q 2  0.6 
5 5
Q1 = 2.053Q2
Q = Q1 + Q 2 d 2 = 60 cm
 250 
  = 2.053Q 2 + Q 2
 1000  L2 = 2500 m
 Q 2 = 0.082 m3 sec  0.1m3 sec
Q1 = 2.053  0.082 = 0.168  0.17 m3 sec
So, answer is option ‘A’.
17
39. A fluid of mass density 1790 kg m3 and viscosity 2.1 Ns m 2 flows at a velocity of 3 m/s in a 6 cm
diameter pipe. The head loss over a length of 12 m pipe will be nearly
(A) 62.0 m
(B) 54.0 m
(C) 46.5 m
(D) 38.5 m
Answer: (D)
Sol: Density of fluid ( ) = 1790 kg m3
Viscosity of fluid (  ) = 2.1 N.sec m2
Velocity of fluid (V) = 3m/sec

Diameter of pipe ( d ) = 6cm = 0.06m
length of pipe ( ) = 12m

Head loss in a pipe ( h f ) = ?
VD 1790  3  0.06

Reynolds number ( R e ) = = = 153.43  2000
 2.1
Hence, the flow is laminar.
According to hagen Poiseuille’s equation,
32VL 32  2.1 3  12
( hf ) = = = 38.26  38.5m
gd 2
1790  9.81 0.062
So, answer is option ‘D’.
40. Which of the following characteristics regarding fluid kinematics is/are correct?
1. Streamline represents an imaginary curve in the flow field so that the tangent to the curve at any
point represents the direction of instantaneous velocity at that point.
2. Path lines, streamlines and streak lines are identical in steady flow.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (C)
Sol: In steam flow, the streamlines remain fixed with respect to the co-ordinate axes. Hence streamlines in
steady flow also represent the path lines and streak lines.
18
Streamline represents an imaginary curve in the flow field so that the tangent to the curve at any point
represents the direction of instantaneous velocity at that point.
Hence both statements are correct. So, answer is option ‘C’.
41. To maintain 0.08 m3/s flow of petrol with a specific gravity of 0.7, through a steel pipe of 0.3 m
diameter and 800 m length, with coefficient of friction of 0.0025 in the Darcy relation, the power required
will be nearly
(A) 0.6 kW
(B) 1.0 kW
(C) 2.6 kW
(D) 3.0 kW
Answer: (B)
Sol: Flow rate of petrol ( Q) = 0.08 m3 sec
Specific gravity of petrol (s) = 0.7

Diameter of pipe (d) = 0.3m
Length of pipe ( ) = 800m
Coefficient of friction ( f ') = 0.0025
Friction factor ( f ) = 4f ' = 4  0.0025 = 0.01
Head loss according to Darcy Weisbach equation is

fLV2 fLQ2 0.01 800  0.082
hf = = = = 1.741 m
2gd 12.1d5 12.1 0.35
Powered required,
P = Qh f = 0.7 1000  9.81 0.08 1.741
= 0.956kW 1.0kW
42. The diameter of a nozzle d for maximum transmission of power through it, is
1
 D5  4
(A)  
 8fL 
1
 D5  2
(B)  
 8fL 
1
 8D5  4
(C)  
 fL 
19
1
 8D5  2
(D)  
 fL 
Where:
D = Diameter of pipe
f = Coefficient of friction
L = Length of pipe
Answer: (A)
Sol:
Pipe
H Nozzle
D d
H = heat available for pipe

H f = head loss in pipe
H
For maximum power transmission, H f =
3
H 2H
 Head available for nozzle = H − Hf = H − =
3 3
 2H  4gH
Velocity of jet in nozzle ( Vnozzle ) = 2g   =
 3  3
fLQ2
Head loss in pipe Hf =
12.1D5
Hf 12.1D5 H 12 1D5

Q= =
fL 3  fL
Since discharge is same, Qpipe = Qnozzle
H  12.1D5  2
 = d  Vnozzle
3  fL 4
H  12.1D5  2 4gH H  12.1D5 2 16gH
= d   =  d4 
3fL 4 3 3fL 16 3
20
1
 12.1  D5  16  4
d= 2 
   16  9.81  fL 
1
 D5  4
d= 
 8FL 
43. A piston-cylinder device with air at an initial temperature of 30° undergoes and expansion process for
which pressure and volume are related as given below:
P(kPa) 100 37.9 14.4
V ( m3 ) 0.1 0.2 0.4
The work done by the system for n= 1.4 will be

(A) 4.8 kJ
(B) 6.8 kJ
(C) 8.4 kJ
(D) 10.6 kJ
Answer: (D)
Sol: Given device is piston-cylinder, hence it is closed system. In closed system work done by the system is
Pi Vi − Pf Vf
given by, W =
n −1
It is given that, n = 1.4
1
And P1 = 100 kPa P2 = 37.9kPa P3 = 14.4 kPa
P
V1 = 0.1 m3 V2 = 0.2 m3 V3 = 0.4 m3 2
3
 Work done during process changing its state from ‘1’ to ‘3’ is
P1V1 − P3 V3
W1−3 =
n −1 V
=
(100 103  0.1) − (14.4 103  0.4) = 10.6 kJ
(1.4 − 1)
44. A domestic food freezer maintains a temperature of –15°C. The ambient air temperature is 30°C. If heat
leaks into the freezer at the continuous rate of 1.75 kJ/s, the least power necessary to pump this heat out
continuously will be nearly
(A) 0.1 kW
(B) 0.2 kW
21
(C) 0.3 kW
(D) 0.4 kW
Answer: (C)
Sol: Given that,
T2 = −15C = −15 + 273 = 258K T1 = 30C
T1 = 30C = 30 + 273 = 303K
Q1
It is asked least work required, the work will be minimum
only when refrigerator operates on reversed Carnot cycle.
Ref
For reversed Carnot cycle, W=?
T2 Q
COP = = 2 Q2 = 1.75 kJ sec ( kW)
( T1 − T2 ) W
( 258) =
1.75
( 303 − 258) W T2 = −15C
 W = 0.3kW
Hence, correct answer is option ‘C’.
45. An ideal gas is flowing through an insulated pipe at the rate of 3 kg/s. There is a 10% pressure drop from
an inlet to exit of the pipe. The values of R = 0.287 kJ/kg.K and To = 300 K. The rate of energy loss for
the pressure drop due to friction, will be nearly
(A) 34 kW
(B) 30 kW
(C) 26 kW
(D) 22 kW
Answer: (C)
Sol: Insulated pipe
1 2
Mass flow rat of gas ( m) = 3 kg sec
Atmospheric temperature ( T0 ) = 300K , R = 0.287 kJ kgK
Pressure at exit of pipe ( P2 ) = 0.9  Pressure pressure at entrance of pipe ( P1 )
P2 = 0.9  P1
22
According to Gauss-Stodola theorem the rate of loss of available energy (exergy) (or) Irreversibility in a
flow and non-flow process is
( I ) = ( T0 )( S)universe = ( T0 ) ( ( S)system + ( S)surrounding )

Since there is no heat exchange with the surrounding
( S)surroundings = 0
(
 I = ( T0 ) ( S)system )
Applying steady flow energy equation between state ‘1’ and state ‘2’
C12 C2
h1 + + gz1 + Q = h 2 + 2 + gz2 + w
2000 2000
Neglecting change in Kinetic energies and potential energies
i.e., C1 = C2 and z1 = z 2 and no work and
Het transfers during the process the above equation becomes, h1 = h 2
Since gas is ideal, h = Cp T
Cp T = Cp T2
 T   P 
 ( S)system =  mcp  2  − mR n  2  
  T1   P1  
  0.9 P1  
=  0 − ( 3)( 0.287 ) n    = +0.0861 kJ K
  P1 
I = ( 300)( 0.0861) = 25.83kW  26kW
46. A cyclic heat engine operates between a source temperature of 800°C and a sink temperature of 30°C. The
least rate of heat rejection per kW net output of engine will be nearly
(A) 0.2 kW
(B) 0.4 kW
(C) 0.6 kW
(D) 0.8 kW
Answer: (B)
Sol: Least amount of heat rejection occurs when heat engine works on Carnot cycle.
For Carnot engine,
H.E =
( T1 − T2 ) = Wnet
T1 Q1
23
T1 = 800 + 273 = 1073K T1 = 800C

T2 = 30 + 273 = 303K
(1073 − 303) = 1  Q = 1.39 kW Q1
(1073) Q1
1
Wnet = Q1 − Q2 H.E
1 = 1.39 − Q 2 Wnet = 1kW
Q 2 = 1.39 − 1 = 0.39 kW  0.4 kW
Q2
T2 = −15C
47. A fictitious pressure that, if it acted on the piston during the entire power stroke, would produce the same
amount of net work as that produced during the actual cycle is called
(A) Quasi equivalent pressure
(B) Mean equivalent pressure
(C) Mean effective pressure
(D) Quasi static pressure
Answer: (C)
Sol: Mean effective pressure is a frictions pressure that, if it acted on the piston during the entire power stroke,
would produce the same amount of network as that produced during the actual cycle.
Wnet = mean effective pressure  Piston area  stroke
= Pm  Displacement volume
P P
Wnet

Pm
Vmin Vmax V Vmin Vmax V
48. An ideal cycle based on the concept of combination of two heat transfer processes, one at constant volume
and the other at constant pressure, is called
(A) Otto cycle
(B) Dual cycle
(C) Diesel cycle
24
(D) Carnot cycle

Answer: (B)
Sol: Dual cycle for an air standard I.C engine is as follows.
Q
P 3 4
Q
2 5
1
V
In dual cycle heat is supplied during constant volume and constant pressure processes. Hence answer is
option (B).
49. The ideal thermodynamic cycle for the development of gas-turbine engine is
(A) Otto
(B) Stirling
(C) Ericsson
(D) Brayton
Answer: (D)
Sol: An air standard cycle for gas turbine engine is Brayton (or) Joule cycle. So, answer is option ‘D’.
50. If the pressure at exhaust from the turbine is the saturation pressure corresponding to the temperature
desired in the process heater, such a turbine is called
(A) Condensing turbine
(B) Extraction turbine
(C) Pass out turbine
(D) Back pressure turbine
Answer: (D)
Sol: Many industries such as paper, sugar, and textile mills, chemical plants etc., require process heat, in the
form of saturated steam at specified temperatures for heating and drying. Steam is found convenient for
may such applications since isothermal conditions can be maintained during seating on one side while the
steam is condensing on the other side. This steam is obtained by replacing condenser with process heater
in Rankine cycle. The exhaust steam from the turbine severs as process steam. In this arrangement, the
process of the exhaust steam is kept equal to the saturation pressure corresponding to the saturation
25
temperature of process steam desired in the heater. Such a turbine having a specifically desired exhaust
pressure, is referred to as a back-pressure turbine. Hence correct option is ‘D’.
51. The purpose of providing fins on heat transfer surface is to increase

(A) Temperature gradient so as to enhance heat transfer by convection
(B) Effective surface area to promote rate of heat transfer by convection
(C) Turbulence in flow for enhancing heat transfer by convection
(D) Pressure drop of the fluid
Answer: (B)
Sol: Convective heat transfer is given by
Q = hA ( T )
From the above we can say that, convective heat transfer can be increased by increasing effective surface
area. This will be done by providing fins on the heat transfer surface. Hence correct answer is option ‘B’.
52. For fully developed laminar pipe flow the average velocity is
(A) One-half of the maximum velocity
(B) One-third of the maximum velocity
(C) One-fourth of the maximum velocity
(D) Two-third of the maximum velocity
Answer: (A)
Sol: In a fully developed laminar flow through circular pipes velocity distribution according to Hagen
Poiseuille’s equation is
 1  dp
u = −  (R2 − r2 )
 4  dx
For maximum velocity,
r=0 u max
du
=0
dr
−1 dP
 ( −2r ) = 0 r=R
4 dx
r=0
−1  dP  2
 u max =  (R )
4  dx 
1  −dP  (
u max   ( R 2 ) )
Discharge through pipe is Q = (  ) =
2
 R
8  dx  2
26
Q = Apipe  u Average
 u max  R  
 = R  u average
2

 2 
u max
 u average =
2
53. The overall heat transfer coefficient due to convection and radiation for a steam maintained at 200°C
running in a large room at 30°C is 17.95 W m 2 K. If the emissivity of the pipe surface is 0.8; the value of
 = 5.67  10−8 W m 2 K 4 ; the heat transfer coefficient due to radiation will be nearly
(A) 17 W m 2 K
(B) 14 W m 2 K
(C) 11 W m 2 K
(D) 8 W m2 K
Answer: (C)
Sol: Heat can be transferred from steam to large room by convection and radiation.
Large room
d
Steam 30°C=T2
T1 = 200C
Pipe
Emissivity of pipe ( 1 ) = 0.8
Heat transfer by radiation from pipe to room is as follows,

 ( T14 − T24 )
Q rad =
 1 − 1 1 1 − 2 
 + + 
 A11 A1F12 A 2  2 
F12 = 1sin ce F11 = 0 ( since convex surface )
 ( T14 − T24 )  A1
Q R ad =
1 1 A1  1 −  2  
 − 1 + +  
 1 F12 A 2   2  
27
A1
Since ‘A2’ is large, →0
A2
QR ad = 1 ( T14 − T24 )  A1
= 0.8  5.67  10−8  ( 4734 − 3034 ) = 1888.14 W m 2

QR ad
A1
To find equivalent convective heat transfer coefficient,
Q R ad Qconv
=
A1 A1
 1888.14 = h ( T1 − T2 )
1888.14
h= = 11.1 W m 2 K
( )
170
 Answer is option ‘C’.
54. Large heat transfer coefficients for vapour condensation can be achieved by promoting
(A) Film condensation
(B) Dropwise condensation
(C) Cloud condensation
(D) Dew condensation
Answer: (B)
Sol: It traces of oil are present during the condensation of steam on a highly polished surface, the film of
condensate is broken into droplets, and the situation is known as dropwise condensation. The present of
condensate acts as a barrier to heat transfer from the vapour to the metal surface, and the drop wise
condensation offers much less resistance to heat flow on the vapour side than the film wise condensation.
So, option ‘B’ is correct.
55. Which one of the following valves is provided for starting the engine manually, during cold weather
conditions?
(A) Starting jet valve
(B) Compensating jet valve
(C) Choke valve
(D) Auxiliary air valve
Answer: (C)
Sol: The choke value is used when starting a cold engine. When doing a cold start, the choke value should be
closed to limit the amount of air going in. This increases the amount of fuel in the cylinder, and helps to
28
keep the engine running, while it is trying to warm up. Once the engine has warmed up, a temperature
sensing spring slowly opens the choke valve to allow the engine to breath fully. Hence the answer is ‘C’.
56. A 4-cylinder, 4-stroke single acting petrol engine consumes 6 kg of fuel per minute at 800 rpm when the
air fuel ratio of the mixture supplied is 9 : 1. The temperature is 650 K and pressure is 12.5 bar at the end
of compression stroke. Take R = 300 Nm/kg.K, diameter of cylinder as 8 cm, stroke of cylinder as 10 cm.
The compression ratio will be nearly
(A) 6.2
(B) 5.7
(C) 5.2
(D) 4.6
Answer: (A)
Sol: Petrol engine will work on Otto cycle, 1-2 is an isentropic
T
compression process of petrol & air mixture from state 3
‘1’ to state ‘2’.
4
VC = V2 = clearance volume
2
VS = Stroke volume ( V1 − V2 )
1
Given that, P2 = 12.5 bar, T2 = 650K, R = 300 N.m kgK
VC VS S
mfuel = 6kg min and mair = 6  9 = 54 kg min
 54 + 6  60
Mass flow rate of air and petrol (fuel) supplied per cylinder =  = = 15kg min
 4  4
According to ideal gas equation,
P2 V2 = m( Air + fuel) R T2
15
12.5  105  V2 =  300  650
60
V2 = 0.039m3 sec = VC
Diameter of cylinder (D) = 8cm, Stroke of cylinder (L) = 10cm

ALN 4 (
0.082 )  0.1  800
Volume flow rate of air in each cylinder is = =
2  60 2  60
VS = 3.35  10−3 m3 sec
VS  VC this is practically not correct
15kg 15
Hence taking m( Air + Fuel) = = kg sec
hour 3600
29
15
12.5  105  V2 =  300  650
3600
V2 = VC = 6.5  10−4 m3 sec
VC + VS ( 6.5  10 + 3.35  10 )
−4 −3
Compression ratio ( rc ) = = = 6.15  6.2

VC ( 6.5 10−4 )
Hence answer is option (A).
57. Ice is formed at 0°C from water at 20°C. The temperature of the brine is –8°C. The refrigeration cycle
used is perfect reversed Carnot cycle. Latent heat of ice = 335 kJ/kg, and cpw = 4.18. The ice formed per
kWh will be nearly

(A) 81.4 kg
(B) 76.4 kg
(C) 71.8 kg
(D) 68.8 kg
Answer: (A)
(
Sol: Heat to be removed from water = m CPw ( 20 − 0 ) + latent of heat )
= ( 4.18  ( 20 − 0 ) + 335)  m water = ( 418.6 )  m water
m water = mass of ice formal = mice ( kg )
Given that power (work) input = 1kWhr = 3600 kJ

Since the brine is available at -8°C and water should be converted into ice at 0°C from 20°C. Hence
refrigerator should operate between –8°C and 20°C and since it is reversed Carnot engine.
( COP )ref =
( −8 + 273) = 9.464
( 20 − ( −8))
Heat to be removed
( COP )ref = 9.464 =
work input
9.464 =
( 418.6) mice
3600
9.464  3600
 mice = = 81.39kg  81.4 kg
( 418.6)
30
58. A Freon 12 simple saturation cycle operates at temperatures of 35°C and –15°C for the condenser and
evaporator. If the refrigeration effect produced by the cycle is 111.5 kJ/kg and the work required by the
compressor is 27.2 kJ/kg, the value of COP will be nearly
(A) 4.1
(B) 3.6
(C) 3.1
(D) 2.6
Answer: (A)
T1 = 35C
Sol: Q2 = refrigeration effect produced by the cycle
= Heat to be removed Q1
= 111.5kJ kg
Work given to the compressor, Ref

W = 27.2kJ kg
Q2 111.5
 ( COP )Ref = = = 4.099  4.1 Q2
W 27.2
T2 = −15C
59. A cold storage is to be maintained at –5°C while the surroundings are at 35°C. The heat leakage from the
surroundings into the cold storage is estimated to be 29 kW. The actual COP of the refrigeration plant
used is one-third of an ideal plant working between the same temperatures. The power required to drive
the plant will be
(A) 10 kW
(B) 11 kW
(C) 12 kW
(D) 13 kW
Answer: (D) T1 = 35C
Sol: Heat leakage from the surrounding
Q1
= Heat to be removed
= Q2 = 29 kW
Ref
Theoretical COP = Ideal COP W
= ( COP )Ideal =
T2
=
( −5 + 273) = 6.7
( T1 − T2 ) (35 − ( −5)) Q2
T2 = −5C
31
1
Given that actual ( COP )act =  ( COP )Ideal
3
1
( COP )act =  6.7 = 2.233
3
Q2
( COP )act = ,
W
here W = work required to drive refrigerator
29
2.233 =
W
29
W= = 12.98  13kW
2.233
So, answer is option ‘D’.
60. A single acting two-stage air compressor deals with 4 m3/min of air at 1.013 bar and 15°C with a speed of
250 rpm. The delivery pressure is 80 bar. If the inter cooling is complete, the intermittent pressure after
first stage will be
(A) 9 bar
(B) 8 bar
(C) 7 bar
(D) 6 bar
Answer: (A)
Sol: In multistage compression with inter cooling complete (or) Inter cooling is perfect i.e., air is cooled at
constant pressure to its initial pressure. The intermediate pressure will be Pi = P1P2
P1 = Initial pressure (or) Atmospheric pressure = 1.013 bar
P2 = Delivery pressure = 80 bar
Pi = 1.013  80 = 9 bar

61. Which of the following are the advantages of Nano-composite materials?

1. Decreased thermal expansion coefficients
2. Higher residual stress
3. Reduced gas permeability
4. Increased solvent resistance
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
32
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only

(D) 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: (B)
62. A rod of copper originally 305 mm long is pulled in tension with a stress of 276 MPa. If the modulus of
elasticity is 110 GPa and the deformation is entirely elastic, the resultant elongation will be nearly
(A) 1.0 mm
(B) 0.8 mm
(C) 0.6 mm
(D) 0.4 mm
Answer: (B)
Sol: Given data,
= 305 mm,  = 276 MPa
E = 110GPa,  = ?
 276
 = L=  305 = 0.76mm  0.8mm
E 110  103
63. A 1.25 cm diameter steel bar is subjected to a load of 2500 kg. The stress induced in the bar will be
(A) 200 MPa
(B) 210 MPa
(C) 220 MPa
(D) 230 MPa
Answer: (A)
Sol: Given data,
d = 1.25 cm = 12.5mm,
P = 2500 kg = 2500  9.81N
P 4P
= = 2
A d
4  2500  9.81
= = 200MPa
  12.52
64. The maximum energy which can be stored in a body up to the elastic limit is called
(A) Proof resilience
(B) Modulus of resilience
(C) Impact toughness
(D) Endurance strength
Answer: (A)
33
65. A cast iron bed plate for a pump has a length of 100 μm If the Young's modulus of cast iron is 210 GN/m2
and the specific surface energy is 10 J/m2, the fracture strength required will be nearly
(A) 1.0  108 N m 2
(B) 1.2  108 N m 2
(C) 1.4  108 N m 2
(D) 1.6  108 N m 2

Answer: (B)
Sol: Given data,
E = 210  109 N mm2
r = 10J m2 , C = 100  10−6 m
Fracture strength
 2E 
0.5
=
 C 
0.5
 2  210  109  10 
= −6 
   100  10 
= 115,624, 457.6 N m 2
= 1.15  108 N m 2
= 1.2  108 N m 2
66. A 13 mm diameter tensile specimen has 50 mm gauge length. If the load corresponding to the 0.2% offset
is 6800 kg, the yield stress will be nearly
(A) 31 kg mm 2
(B) 43 kg mm 2
(C) 51 kg mm 2
(D) 63 kg mm 2
Answer: (C)
Sol: Given data,
d = 13mm, L = 50mm
P = 6800 kg
P 6800
 yt = = = 51 kg mm 2
A 
 132
4
34
67. The magnitude of the velocity of any point on the kinematic link relative to the other point on the same
kinematic link is the product of
(A) A square root of an angular velocity of the link and the distance between the two points under
consideration
(B) An angular velocity of the link and the square of distance between the two points under
consideration
(C) A square of an angular velocity of the link and the distance between the two points under
consideration
(D) An angular velocity of the link and the distance between the two points under consideration
Answer: (D)
68. In a mechanism, the number of Instantaneous centre (I-centres) N is

n ( n − 1)
(A)
2
n ( 2n − 1)
(B)
2
2n ( n − 1)
(C)
3
n ( 2n − 1)
(D)
3
where : n = Number of links
Answer: (A)

69. In cycloidal motion of cam follower, the maximum acceleration of follower motion f max at  = is
4
h2
(A)
2 2
3h2
(B)
22
2h2
(C)
2
3h2
(D)
2
where:
h = Maximum flower displacement
35
ω = Angular velocity of cam

ϕ = Angle for the maximum follower displacement for cam rotation
Answer: (C)
Sol: Displacement equation,
 1  2  
x = h  − sin  
 0 2  0  
dx  1 d 2  2  d 
Velocity, V = = h  − cos   
dt  0 dt 20  0  dt 
h   2  
V= 1 − cos  
0   0  
Acceleration,
d 2 x h  2  2  d  22 h  2 

a= =  sin   = sin  
dt 2 0  0  0  dt  2  0 

0 = ,  =
4
2 h 2
22 h
a= . (1 ) =
2 2
Hence option ‘C’ is correct.
70. A shaft of span 1m and diameter 25 mm is simply supported at the ends. It carries a 1.5 kN concentrated
load at mid-span. If E is 200 GPa, its fundamental frequency will be nearly
(A) 3.5 Hz
(B) 4.2 Hz
(C) 4.8 Hz
(D) 5.5 Hz
Answer: (D)
Sol: Given data, E = 200GPa = 200  109 Pa, d = 25mm = 0.025m
W = 1.5 kN
d = 25 mm
= 1m
1 g
Fundamental natural frequency will be find out by using deflection method i.e., f n =
2 
36
W 3 1.5  103  13
Where  = =
48EI    0.0254 
48  200  109   
 64 
 = 8.1487  10−3
1 9.81
fn = = 5.52 Hz
2 8.1487  10−3
So, correct answer is option ‘D’.
71. A vibrating system consists of mass of 50 kg, a spring with stiffness of 30 kN/m and a damper. If damping
is 20% of the critical value, the natural frequency of damped vibrations will be
(A) 16 rad/s
(B) 20 rad/s
(C) 24 rad/s
(D) 28 rad/s
Answer: (C)
Sol: Given data,
m = 50 kg, k = 30 kN m,  = 0.2
0.5
 30  103 
d = n 1 − 2 =   (1 − 0.2 )2 0.5
= 24 rad sec
 50 
72. A refrigerator unit having a mass of 35 kg is to be supported on three spring, each having spring stiffness
s. The unit operates at 480 rpm. If only 10% of the shaking force is allowed to transmit to the supporting
structure, the value of stiffness will be nearly
(A) 2.7 N/mm
(B) 3.2 N/mm
(C) 3.7 N/mm
(D) 4.2 N/mm
Answer: (A)
Sol: Given data,
m = 35kg, N = 480 rpm
= 0.1, K = ?
1
T.R ==
1 − r2
1 −1
0.1 =  1 − r2 =
1 − r2 0.1
1 − r 2 = −10
37
r = 11 = 3.31
2 ( 480 )
  60 k
= 3.31  n =  n = =
n 3.31 3.31 m
8071.45
k= N m = 2690.48 N m = 2.7 N mm
3
73. In which one of the following tooth profiles, does the pressure angle remain constant throughout the
engagement of teeth?
(A) Cycloidal
(B) Involute
(C) Conjugate
(D) Epicycloid
Answer: (B)
74. If the axes of the first and last wheels of a compound gear coincide, it is called
(A) Simple gear train
(B) Compound gear train
(C) Epicyclic gear train
(D) Reverted gear grain
Answer: (D)
75. In a reciprocating engine, the force along the connecting rod FQ is

FP
(A)
n − sin 2 
2
FP
(B)
2 n − sin 2 
2
nFP
(C)
2 n − sin 2 
2
nFp
(D)
n 2 − sin 2 
where:
FP = Force on piston
L
n=
r
 = Angle for crank from IDC
38
Answer: (D)
FP
Sol: FQ =

n sin  = sin 
sin 
sin  =
n
FP FP .n
FQ = =
 sin  
2
nt − sin 2 
1−  
 n 
76. A mass m1 attached to a shaft at radius r1, rotating with angular velocity ω rad/s, can be balanced by
another single mass m2 which is attached to the opposite side of the shaft at radius r2, in the same plane, if
(A) m1r2 = m2 r1
(B) m1r2 = m2 r2
(C) m1r11 = m2 r22
(D) m1r21 = m2 r12

Answer: (B)
F1
Sol:
m1
r1
r2
m2
If a mass ‘m1’ is placed at distance of ‘ r1 ’ on a rotating shaft with angular velocity ‘  ’, will be subjected
to a centrifugal force ( F1 ) = m1r112 in the upward direction. For dynamic balancing of this shaft a mass
‘m2’ is placed at a distance of ‘r2’ on the opposite side of shaft in the same phase then the centrifugal force
produced by this mass ‘m2’ in the vertically downward direction.
i.e., F2 = m 2 r2 2 should be equal to F1 = m1r112
 m 2 r2 2 = m1r12  m1r1 = m 2 r2
 Correct answer is option ‘B’.
39
77. For a single cylinder reciprocating engine speed is 500 rpm, stroke is 150 mm, mass of reciprocating parts
is 21 kg; mass of revolving parts is 15 kg at crank radius. If two-thirds of reciprocating masses and all the
revolving masses are balanced, the mass at a radius of 150 mm will be
(A) 7.5 kg
(B) 10.5 kg
(C) 12.5 kg
(D) 14.5 kg
Answer: (D)
Sol: Given data,
N = 500 rpm, 2r = 150 mm,
m 2 = 21 kg, m1 = 15 kg,
2
C= ,
3
b = 150 mm, B = ?
Bb = ( m1 + cm 2 ) r
 2 
15 + 3 ( 21)   75
B= = 14.5 kg
150
78. If the axes of the rolling of the ship and of the stabilizing rotor are parallel, it will result in
(A) A higher bow and lower stern
(B) A lower bow and higher stern
(C) Turning towards left
(D) No gyroscopic effect
Answer: (D)
Sol: The rolling axes and precision axes are parallel, so gyroscopic couple is zero.
79. Coaxing is a process of

(A) Improving the fatigue properties attained by under-stressing and then raising the stress in small
increments
(B) Decreasing the hardness by full annealing
(C) Increasing the uniaxial tensile strength by heating above recrystallization temperature and
quenching in oil media
(D) Maintaining the ductility of the material by chemical treatment
Answer: (A)
40
Sol: Fatigue limit (or) endurance limit of some metals may be improve by under stressing. A still increase in
the fatigue limit of the same metals will be obtained by doing coaxing process, that is fatigue limit was
said to be coaxed to higher values by a procedure of gradually increasing the applied load in small
increments an allowing a relatively large number of cycles to stress to occur after each new increase in
load. Hence option (A) is correct.
80. According to the distortion-energy theory, the yield strength in shear is

(A) 0.277 times the yield stress
(B) 0.377 times the maximum shear stress
(C) 0.477 times the yield strength in tension
(D) 0.577 times the yield strength in tension
Answer: (D)
Sol: According to Distortion-energy theory,
0.5
 yt = 12 +  22 − 1 2 
For pure shear, 1 = −2
 yt = 31
 yt
 yt = 1 = = 0.577 yt
3
81. For the prediction of ductile yielding, the theory of failure utilized is
(A) Maximum strain energy theory
(B) Distortion energy theory
(C) Maximum normal strain theory
(D) Mohr theory
Answer: (B)
82. A steel specimen is subjected to the following principal stresses: 120 MPa tensile, 60 MPa tensile and –30
MPa compressive. If the proportionality limit for the steel specimen is 250 MPa; the factor of safety as per
maximum shear stress theory will be nearly
(A) 1.3
(B) 1.7
(C) 2.3
(D) 2.7
Answer: (B)
41
Sol: Given data,

1 = 120 MPa, 2 = 60 MPa and 3 = −30 MPa
P = 250 MPa, FOS = ?
p P   − 2 2 − 3 3 − 1 
safe = = = max  1 , ,
FOS 2  FOS  2 3 2 
250 120 − 60 60 − ( −30 ) −30 − 120 
= max  , , 
2  FOS  2 2 2 
125 125
= 75  FOS = = 1.66  1.7
FOS 75
83. For which one of the following loading conditions is the standard endurance strength multiplied by a load
factor, Ke = 0.9?
(A) Reversed beam bending loads
(B) Reversed axial loads with no bending
(C) Reversed axial loads with intermediate bending
(D) Reversed torsion loads
Answer: (B)
Sol: Since endurance strength is calculated by conducting rotating beam test under completely reversed
bending loads while modifying it so suitable for reversed axial loads we should multiply with load factor.
Load factor 0.85  0.9 for reversed axial loads
Load factor = 0.577 for reversed torsion loads.
Hence answer is option ‘B’.
84. A 120 mm wide uniform plate is to be subjected to a tensile load that has a maximum value of 250 kN and
a minimum value of 100 kN. The properties of the plate material are : endurance limit stress is 225 MPa,
yield point stress is 300 MPa. If the factor of safety based on yield point is 1.5, the thickness of the plate
will be nearly
(A) 12 mm
(B) 14 mm
(C) 16 mm
(D) 18 mm
Answer: (A)
Sol: Given data,
b = 120 mm ,Pmax = 250 kN
42
Pmin = 100 kN , e = 225 MPa

yt = 300 MPa, FOS = −1.5
t =?
250 + 100
Pmean = = 175 kN
2
250 − 100
PV = = 75 kN
2
175 103 75 103
mean = ; v =
120  t 120  t
Soderbergh equation,
mean  v 1
+ =
 yt e FOS
175  103 75  103 1
+ =
120  t  300 120  t  325 1.5
4.8611 2.777 1
+ =
t t 1.5
t = 11.45mm 12 mm
85. A steel connecting rod having Sut = 1000 MN m2 , Syt = 900 MN m2 is subjected to a completely reversed
axial load of 50 kN. By neglecting any column action, if the values of k e = 0.85, k b = 0.9, k a = 0.82,
k t = 1.5, q = 0.6 and N = 2, the diameter of the rod will be nearly

(A) 20 mm
(B) 23 mm
(C) 26 mm
(D) 29 mm
Answer: (B)
Sol: Given data,
Sut = 1000 MPa
Syt = 500MPa
Pmax, min = 50 kN
Corrected endurance strength,

k a .k b .k e ( 0.5ut )
e =
kf
k a = 0.82, k b = 0.9, k e = 0.85, q = 0.6, k t = 1.5
kf −1
q=
kt −1
43
kf = 0.6 (1.5 − 1) + 1 = 1.3
0.82  0.9  0.85  ( 0.5  1000 )

e = = 241.269 MPa
1.3
For reverse load, mean = 0, v =  = amplitude stress
mean  v 1
+ =
 yt e FOS
50  103 1
0+ =
 2 2
241.269  d
4
d = 22.9mm  23 mm
86. During crushing or bearing failure of riveted joints

(A) The holes in the plates become oval shaped and joints become loose
(B) There is tearing of the plate at an edge
(C) The plates will crack in radial directions and joints fail
(D) The rivet heads will shear out by applied stress
Answer: (A)
87. The double riveted joint with two cover plates for boiler shell is 1.5 m in diameter subjected to steam
pressure of 1 MPa. If the joint efficiency is 75%, allowable tensile stress in the plate is 83 MN/m2,
compressive stress is 138 MN/m2 and shear stress in the rivet is 55 MN/m2, the diameter of rivet hole will
be nearly
(A) 8 mm
(B) 22 mm
(C) 36 mm
(D) 52 mm
Answer: (B)
Sol: Given data,
D = 1.5 m, p = 1MPa
 = 0.75. t = 83 MPa
c = 138 MPa,  = 55 MPa
pD
t= + C.A
2t .
1 1500
t= + 2 = 14.048 mm
2  83  0.75
d = 6 t = 6  14.04 = 22.4 mm
44
88. A bearing supports a radial load of 7000 N and a thrust load of 2100 N. The desired life of the ball bearing
is 160 × 106 revolutions at 300 rpm. If the load is uniform and steady, service factor is 1, radial factor is
0.65, thrust factor is 3.5, k = 3 and rotational factor is 1, the basic dynamic load rating of a bearing will be
nearly
(A) 65 kN
(B) 75 kN
(C) 85 kN
(D) 95 kN
Answer: (A)
Sol: Given data,
Fr = 7000 N, FT = 2100 N
L10 = 160  106 rev, N = 300 rpm
X = 0.65, Y = 3.5
S.F = 1, k = 3
Fe = ( XFr + YFa )  S.F

= ( 0.65  7000 ) + ( 3.5  2100 ) 
= 11,900
k
C
L10 =  
P
C = (160 ) .11900 = 64.6kN 65 kN
13
89. A solid cast iron disk, 1 m in diameter and 0.2 m thick is used as a flywheel. It is rotating at 350 rpm. It is
brought to rest in 1.5 s by means of a brake. If the mass density of cast iron is 7200 kg/m3, the torque
exerted by the brake will be nearly
(A) 3.5 kN m
(B) 4.5 kN m
(C) 5.3 kN m
(D) 6.3 kNm
Answer: (A)
Sol: Given data,
D = 1m, t = 0.2m
N = 350rpm, t = 1.5sec
 = 7200 kg m3
 
Mass of disc =   D  t = 7200   12  0.2 = 1130.97 kg
4 4
45
mR 2 1130.97  0.52
Mass moment of Inertia = =
2 2
I = 141.37 kg − m 2
 2  350
= = = 24.43 rad sec 2
t 60  1.5
Torque = I = 141.37  24.43 = 3454.32N − m = 3.5 kN-m
90. The torque transmitting capacity of friction clutches can be increased by

(A) Use of friction material with a lower coefficient of friction
(B) Decreasing the mean radius of the friction disk
(C) Increasing the mean radius of the friction disk
(D) Decreasing the plate pressure
Answer: (C)
91. The ideal gas-refrigeration cycle is the same as the

(A) Brayton cycle
(B) Reversed Brayton cycle
(C) Vapour compression refrigeration cycle
(D) Vapour absorption refrigeration cycle
Answer: (B)
Sol: Ideal gas-refrigeration cycle works on reversed Brayton (or) Joule cycle. Hence answer is option ‘B’.
92. If the atmospheric conditions are 20° C, 1.013 bar and specific humidity of 0.0095 kg/kg dry air, the
partial pressure of vapour will be nearly
(A) 0.076 bar
(B) 0.056 bar
(C) 0.036 bar
(D) 0.016 bar
Answer: (D)
Sol: Given that, total pressure of air (P) = 1.013 bar
Specific humidity of air ( W ) = 0.0095 kg ( kg of dry air )
0.622PV
We know that,  =
P − PV
Where, PV = Partial pressure of water vapour
46
0.622  PV
 0.0095 =
1.013 − PV
(9.6235 10 ) − ( 0.0095 P ) = 0.622P
−3
V V
−3
 0.6315 PV = 9.6235  10
PV = 0.0152 bar
So nearest answer is ‘D’.
93. In air-conditioning systems, air may be cooled and dehumidified by

1. Spraying chilled water to air in the form of fine mist.
2. Circulating chilled water or brine in a tube placed across the air flow.
3. Placing the evaporator coil across the air flow.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (C)
Sol: In order to cool and dehumidify air the temperature of cooling medium should be below ‘DPT’ of air. This
will be possible only with help of chilled water (or) brine in a tube (or) by phasing an evaporator coil
across the air flow. But if we spray chilled water the air will cool but water vapour may not condense from
air and also there is a chance of vaporizing of water droplets from chilled water due to heat energy taken
from air. Hence option ‘C’ is correct.
94. A duct of rectangular cross-section 600 mm × 400 mm carries 90 m3/ min of air having density of
1.2kg/m3. When the quantity of air in both cases is same, the equivalent diameter of a circular duct will be
nearly
(A) 0.86 m
(B) 0.76 m
(C) 0.64 m
(D) 0.54 m
Answer: (D)
Sol: Quantity of air is same for both rectangular and circular ducts
i.e., ( mrectangular ) = ( mcircular )duct
duct
air Arectangle Vair = air Acircle Vair
47
Assume 'Vair ' is same in both ducts
ARec tan gle = Acircle

 2
( 0.6  0.4) =d
4
 d = 0.5m, so nearest by answer is option 'D'
95. A room having dimensions of 5 m × 5 m × 3 m contains air at 25° C and 100 kPa at a relative humidity of
75%. The corresponding value of ps is 3.169 kPa. The partial pressure of dry air will be nearly
(A) 106 kPa
(B) 98 kPa
(C) 86 kPa
(D) 78 kPa
Answer: (B)
Sol: Given that,
Total pressure of air ( P ) = 100kPa
Temperature of air (T)=25°C

Relative humidity ( ) = 75% = 0.75
Saturation pressure of water vapour at 25C is ( Psat ) = 3.169 kPa
Pv
We know that (  ) =
Psat
Pv
0.75 =
3.169
Partial pressure water vapour, ( Pv ) = 2.376kPa
Total pressure of air ( P ) = Pv + Pd
Where Pd = Partial pressure of dry air

100 = 2.376 + Pd
 Pd = 97.62  98 kPa
So, answer is option is (B)
96. A measure of feeling warmth or coolness by the human body in response to the air temperature, moisture
content and air motion is called
(A) Dry bulb temperature
(B) Effective temperature
48
(C) Wet bulb temperature

(D) Dew point temperature
Answer: (B)
Sol: The degree of warmth (or) cold felt by a human body depends mainly on following factory
a. Pry bulb temperature
b. Relative humidity
c. Air velocity.
Effective temperature is used to evaluate the combined effect of all these factors. It is defined as that index
which correlates the combined effects of air temperature, air velocity and relative humidity on human
body.
The numerical value of effective temperature is made equal to temperature of still saturated air (i.e., 5 8
m/min air velocity) which produces same sensation of warmth (or) coolness as produced under the given
conditions.
97. While designing a Pelton wheel, the velocity of wheel ‘u’ is

(A) K u gH
(B) 2K u gH
(C) K u 2gH
(D) 2K u 2gH
where:
K u = Speed ratio
H = Net head on turbine
g = Gravity
Answer: (C)
Sol: In Pelton wheel,
Bucket speed ( u )( or ) velocity of wheel
Speed ratio ( K u ) =
Theoretical velocity of Jet ( V )
V = 2gH, where H=net head on turbine
u
Ku =
2gH
 u = K u 2gH
So, correct answer is option ‘C’.
49
98. The turbines of the same shape will have the same
(A) Thomas number
(B) Reynolds number
(C) Specific speed
(D) Rotational speed
Answer: (C)
Sol: Specific speed of turbine is defined as the speed of a geometrical similar turbine of a such size as to
generate one unit of power under one unit of head at maximum efficiency. For geometrically similar
turbines (of same shape) specific speed should be same. So, answer is option ‘C’.
99. A centrifugal pump is required to lift 0.0125m3 s of water from a well with depth 30 m. If rating of the
pump motor is 5 kW, and the density of water is 1000 kg m 3 , the efficiency of the pump will be nearly
(A) 82%
(B) 74%
(C) 66%
(D) 58%
Answer: (B)
Sol: Discharge of water from well ( Q) = 0.0125 m3 sec , depth of well ( H ) = 30m
Power required to pump the water to a height of 30 m is
( P ) = QH = gQH
= (1000  9.81 0.0125  30 )
( P ) = 3678.75 watts = 3.678 kW
But pump is operated by a motor of 5 kW
Remaining 1.322 kW accounts for mechanical and other hydraulic losses.
3.678
pump =  100 = 73.56%  74%
5
100. An inward flow reaction turbine has an external diameter of 1 m and its breadth at inlet is 250 mm. If the
velocity of flow at inlet is 2 m/s and 10% of the area of flow is blocked by blade thickness, the weight of
water passing through the turbine will be nearly
(A) 10 kN/s
(B) 14 kN/s
50
(C) 18 kN/s
(D) 22 kN/s
Answer: (B)
Sol: Given that, diameter of turbine ( DP ) = 1m
Width of turbine blade (B1) = 250mm = 0.25 m at inlet

Velocity flow at inlet Vf1 = 2m sec( )
Because of thickness of blade, flow is blocked by 10%
 Flow rate of water at inlet ( Q) =  D1 B1 vf1  0.9 ( )
=   1 0.25  2  0.9 = 1.414 m3 sec
Weight of water at inlet = gQ = 1000  9.811.484
So, answer is option ‘B’ = 13.87 kN sec  14kN sec
101. The process of abstracting steam at a certain section of the turbine and subsequently using it for heating
feed water supplied to the boiler is called
(A) Reheating
(B) Regeneration
(C) Bleeding
(D) Binary vapour cycle
Answer: (C)
Sol: Process of abstracting steam at a certain section of the turbine is called bleeding, and this bled steam can
used for feed water heating before supplying to the boiler. So, answer is option ‘C’.
102. When blade speed ratio is zero, no work is done because the distance travelled by the blade is zero even if
the torque on the blade
(A) is minimum
(B) is zero
(C) is maximum
(D) remains the same
Answer: (C)
( Blade velocity ) Vb
Sol: Blade speed ratio = =
(Steam velocity at inlet ) V
Power developed by Turbine (P) = (Force exerted by steam on blades)  (Blade velocity)
51
P = Force  Vb
P = ( Force  r  )
P = T
Given that, blade speed ratio is zero, that means Vb = 0   = 0
So, from P = T  
Power will be zero even when torque on the blades is maximum, so answer is option ‘C’.
103. In an axial flow turbine, the utilization factor has an absolute maximum value of unity, for any degree of
reaction if the value of nozzle angle α is
(A) 270°
(B) 180°
(C) 90°
(D) 0°
Answer: (C)
Sol: In a reaction axial flow turbine, the maximum utilization factor
cos2 1
max = ; where 1 = Nozzle angle , R=Degree of reaction
1 − R sin 2 1
The value of (  )max will be ‘1’ irrespective of Degree of reaction (R) when nozzle angle is ( 1 ) = 0
So answer is option ‘D’.
104. Which of the following are essential for a good combustion chamber of turbojet engine?
1. It should allow complete combustion of fuel.
2. It should maintain sufficiently high temperatures in the zone of combustion in addition to proper
atomization of fuel thus leading to continuous combustion.
3. It should not have high rate of combustion.
4. The pressure drop should be as small as possible.
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: (A)
52
105. If mf is the mass of fuel supplied per kg of air in one second, then the mass of gases leaving the nozzle of
turbojet will be
(A) (1 − mf ) kg s
1
(B) kg s
(1 + mf )
(C) (1 + mf ) kg s
1
(D) kg s
(1 − mf )
Answer: (C)
Sol: Mass flowrate of air to the turbojet = 1 kg/sec
Mass flow rate of fuel supplied = mf kg sec
mf
Turbo jet
1kg sec (1 + mf ) kg sec
Mass flow rate of gases leaving the nozzle of turbojet = (1 + mf ) kg sec
So, answer is option ‘C’.
106. Which one of the following may be considered as a single cylinder two stroke reciprocating engine
running at 2400 rpm to 2700 rpm for rapid chain of impulses?
(A) Turbo jet
(B) Pulse jet
(C) Ram jet
(D) Athodyd jet
Answer: (B)
107. In jet propulsion of ships, when the inlet orifices are at right angles to the direction of motion of the ships,
the efficiency of propulsion η is
2u 2
(A)
V+u
2Vu
(B)
(V + u)
2
53
2u
(C)
(V + u)
2
2Vu
(D)
V + 2u
where:
V = Absolute velocity of the issuing jet
u = Velocity of the moving ship
Answer: (B)
108. 0.8 kg of air flows through a compressor under steady state conditions. The properties of air at entry are:
pressure 1 bar, velocity 10 m/s. specific volume 0.95m3 kg and internal energy 30 kJ/kg. The
corresponding values at exit are 8 bar, 6 m/s, 0.2 m3 kg and 124 kJ/kg. Neglecting change in potential
energy, the power input will be
(A) 117 kW
(B) 127 kW
(C) 137 kW
(D) 147 kW
Answer: (B)
Sol:
compressor
Given that, v1 = 10m sec, 1 = 0.95 m3 kg , u1 = 30 kJ kg, P1 = 1bar
v 2 = 6m sec,  2 = 0.2m3 kg, u 2 = 124 kJ kg, P2 = 8bar

Enthalpy at (1) is h1 = u1 + p11 = ( 30 + (100  0.95 ) ) = 125kJ kg
Enthalpy at ( 2 ) is h 2 = u 2 + p11 = (124 + 800  0.2 )
h 2 = 284 kJ kg
mass flow rate of air = 0.8 kg sec
Applying steady flow energy equation
 v2   v2 
m  h1 + 1 + gz1  + Q = m  h 2 + 2 + gz 2  + w
 2000   2000 
54
Since, heat transfer Q = 0 and neglecting charge in potential energy Z1 = Z2
 102   62 
 125 + ( ) 
0.8 = 284 +  0.8 + w
 2000   2000 
 w = 127.17 kW
109. In a power plant, the efficiency of the electric generator, turbine, boiler, cycle and the overall plant are
0.97, 0.95, 0.92, 0.92, 0.42 and 0.33 respectively. In the generated electricity, the auxiliaries will consume
nearly
(A) 7.3%
(B) 6.5%
(C) 5.7%
(D) 4.9%
Answer: (A)
Sol: (A)
In a power plant, over efficiency is given by
overall = boiler  cycle  generator  auxilaries  turbine
0.33 = 0.92  0.42  0.97  auxilaries  0.95

 auxilaries = 0.927
 power consumed = 1 − 0.927 = 0.073 = 7.3%
110. The higher power requirements for compression in a steam power plant working on Carnot vapour cycle
(A) Increases the plant efficiency as well as work ratio
(B) Reduces the plant efficiency as well as work ratio
(C) Does not affect the plant efficiency as well as work ratio
(D) Increases the plant efficiency and reduces work ratio
Answer: (B)
Network done ( w net )
Sol: Efficiency of cycle =
Heat sup plied ( Q )
Turbine work − compressor work

cycle =
Heat sup plied
w − wC
cycle = T
Q
55
Since 'w C ' is increased ' w net ' will be decreased which will intron reduces cycle efficiency
w net
work ratio =
wT
As ' w net ' decreases work ratio will also reduce.

So, answer is option ‘B’
111. For the same compression ratio, the Brayton cycle efficiency is
(A) Same as the Diesel cycle efficiency
(B) Equal to the Diesel cycle efficiency
(C) More than the Diesel cycle efficiency
(D) Less than the Otto cycle efficiency
Answer: (B)
1
Sol: Efficiency of Brayton cycle Brayton = 1 − −1
(r )
p

p 
Where rp = pressure ratio =  2 
 p1 
1
Efficiency of Otto cycle Otto = 1 −
(r)
−1
V 
Where r= compression Ratio =  1 
 V2 
Since process 1-2 i.e., Isentropic compression is same in both bray ton and Otto cycle p1v1 = p 2 v 2

 p2   V1 
 = 
 p1   V2 
−1
( −1)
 p2   v 
  = 1 
 p1   v2 
Hence for same compression ratio both bray ton Otto cycle will have same efficiency.
112. An economizer in a steam generator performs the function of preheating the

(A) Combustion air
(B) Feed water
(C) Input fuel
(D) Combustion air as well as input fuel
56
Answer: (B)
Sol: Economizer is used to preheat the feed water before sending it to the boiler by taking the heat form
exhaust gases leaving boiler.
113. Air enters the compressor of a gas turbine plant operating on Brayton cycle at 1 bar and 27°C. The
pressure ratio in the cycle is 6. If the relation between the turbine work WT and compressor work WC is
WT = 3WC and γ = 1.4, the cycle efficiency will be nearly
(A) 40%
(B) 50%
(C) 60%
(D) 70%
Answer: (A)
Sol:
3
T 2
4
1
Given that, T1 = 27C, P1 = 1 bar, r = 1.4
Pressure ratio ( rp ) =
P2
= 6,
P1
Turbine work ( WT ) = 3  compressor work ( WC )
Brayton cycle efficiency ( Brayton ) = 1 −

1 1
−1
=1− 0.4
= 40%
(r )
p
 ( 6) 1.4
So, correct answer is option (A).
114. A fluidized bed combustion system having an output of 35 MW at 80% efficiency when using a coal of
heating value 26 MJ/kg with a Sulphur content of 3.6% requires a particular limestone to be fed to it at a
calcium-sulphur molar ratio of 3.0 so as to limit emissions of SO2 adequately. The limestone used contains
85% CaCO3. The required flow rate of limestone will be
(A) 2405 kg/h
(B) 2805 kg/h
57
(C) 3205 kg/h

(D) 3605 kg/h
Answer: (A)
35
Sol: Coal burning rate = = 1.683kg/s = 6057.7kg/h
0.80  26
6057.7  0.036
Flow rate of Sulphur = = 6.81kmol/h
32
For a Ca: S molar ratio of 3.0, the flow rate of calcium is 6.81×3.0 = 20.44 kmol/h
Mass flow rate of CaCO3 required = 20.44×100 = 2044kg/h ( Molecular weight of CaCO3 = 100 )
2044
Mass flow of limestone = = 2404.7kg/h which is 40% of coal burning rate.
0.85
115. In Orsat apparatus, when the percentage of carbon dioxide, oxygen and carbon monoxide are known, the
remaining gas is assumed to be
(A) Hydrogen
(B) Sulphur dioxide
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Air
Answer: (C)
116. The partial vacuum created by the fan in the furnace and flues, draws the product of the combustion from
the main flue and allows them to pass up to the chimney. Such a draught is called
(A) Balanced draught
(B) Forced draught
(C) Induced draught
(D) Artificial draught
Answer: (C)
Sol: In induced draught system a fan (or) blower is located at (or) near the base of the chimney. The pressure
over the fuel bed is reduced below that of the atmosphere. By creating a partial vacuum in the furnace and
flues, the products of combustion are drawn from the main flow and they pass up the chimney. Hence the
answer is option (C).
58
117. Which of the following are applied (used) ways of compounding steam turbines?
1. Pressure compounding
2. Temperature compounding
3. Velocity compounding
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (D)
Sol: A steam turbine can be compounded by the following ways to reduce the exist loss
1. Velocity compounding
2. Pressure compounding
3. Pressure velocity compounding
Hence the answer is option ‘D’ is correct.
118. A steam ejector which removes air and other non-condensable gases from the condenser is known as
(A) Wet air pump
(B) Dry air pump
(C) Centrifugal pump
(D) Circulating pump
Answer: (A)
119. In a heat exchanger, 50 kg of water is heated per minute from 50°C to 110°C by hot gases which enter the
heat exchanger at 250°C. The value of Cp for water is 4.186 kJ/kg.K and for air is 1 kJ/kg.K. If the flow
rate of gases is 100 kg/min, the net change of enthalpy of air will be nearly
(A) 17.6 MJ/min
(B) 15.0 MJ/min
(C) 12.6 MJ/min
(D) 10.0 MJ/min
Answer: (C)
Sol: Mass flow rate of water ( mw ) = 50 kg min
Initial temperature of water ( Twi ) = 50C
Final temperature of water ( Two ) = 110C
Mass flow rate of hot gases ( mh ) = 100 kg min
59
Initial temperature of hot gas ( Thi ) = 250C
Final temperature of hot gas ( Tho ) = ?
Specific heat of water ( Cpw ) = 4.186 kJ K
Specific heat of hot gas ( Cph ) = 1kJ K
In heat exchanger,
Heat lost by hot gas (air) = Heat gained by water
 Enthalpy charge of hot gas = Heat lost by hot gas
= mw cpw ( Two − Twi ) = 50  4.186  (110 − 50 ) = 12.56  12.6 MJ min
120. The phenomenon that enables cooling towers to cool water to a temperature below the dry bulb
temperature of air is termed as
(A) Chemical dehumidification
(B) Adiabatic evaporative cooling
(C) Cooling and dehumidification
(D) Sensible cooling
Answer: (B)
Sol: In cooling water hot water is sprayed from the top of tower to expose a large surface area and air is
supplied from the bottom of tower. Water evaporates by taking heat from water itself and some of heat
will be transferred to air, hence water will be cooled and air will be heated and humidified and no heat
transfer takes places from (or) to cooling tower, hence it is adiabatic. Hence the total process is adiabatic
evaporative cooling. So, answer is option (B).
121. The angle through which the Earth must turn to bring the meridian of a point directly in line with the
Sun’s rays is called
(A) Altitude angle
(B) Hour angle
(C) Solar azimuth angle
(D) Zenith angle
Answer: (B)
122. In which type of collector is solar radiation focused into the absorber form the top, rather than from the
bottom?
(A) Fresnel lens
(B) Paraboloidal
60
(C) Concentrating
(D) Compound parabolic
Answer: (A)
123. A flat plate collector is 150 cm wide and 180 cm high and is oriented such that it is perpendicular to the
sun rays. Its active are is 90% of the panel size. If it is in a location that receives solar insolation of 1000
W/m2 peak, the peak power delivered to the area of the collector will be
(A) 1.23 kW
(B) 2.43 kW
(C) 4.46 kW
(D) 6.26 kW
Answer: (B)
Sol: Area of collector = 1.5 × 1.8 = 2.7 m2
Sun rays Collector
180 cm
150 cm
Insolation is the solar radiation that reaches the earth. Since the collector plate is phased perpendicular to
solar rays all insolation will fall on collector. But its effective area is only 90%. Hence total solar
insolation delivered to the area of collector = 0.9 × 1000 × 2.7 = 2430 watts = 2.43 kW.
124. A surface having high absorptance for short-wave radiation (less than 2.5 μm) and a low emittance of
long-wave radiation (more than 2.5 μm), is called
(A) Absorber
(B) Emitter
(C) Selective
(D) Black
Answer: (C)
61
125. In a solar tower power system, each mirror is mounted on a system called
(A) Regenerator
(B) Linear Fresnel
(C) Dish
(D) Heliostat
Answer: (D)
126. The ratio of PV cell’s actual maximum power output to tis theoretical power output is called
(A) Quantum factor
(B) Fill factor
(C) Quantum efficiency
(D) PV factor
Answer: (B)
127. With respect to the wind turbine blades, TSR means

(A) Tip Swift Ratio
(B) Tip Sharp Ratio
(C) Tip Speed Ratio
(D) Tip Swing Ratio
Answer: (C)
128. For a wind turbine 10 m long running at 20 rpm is 12.9 kmph wind, the TSR will be nearly
(A) 3.6
(B) 5.8
(C) 7.6
(D) 9.8
Answer: (B)
5
Sol: Wind speed = 12.9 
18
DN  (10  2 ) 20
Blade tip speed = =
60 60
blade tip speed   10  2  20  18
TSR = = = 5.8
wind speed 60  12.9  5
62
129. Which one of the following is an enclosure or housing for the generator, gear box and any other parts of
the wind turbine that are on the top of the tower?
(A) Turbine blade
(B) Nacelle
(C) Turbine head
(D) Gear box
Answer: (B)
130. The force required for producing tides in the ocean is

(A) 70% due to Moon and 30% due to Sun
(B) 30% due to Moon and 70% due to Sun
(C) 45% due to Moon and 55% due to Sun
(D) 55% due to Moon and 45% due to Sun
Answer: (A)
131. Which of the following are related to the Proton Exchange Membrane Fuel Cell (PEMFC)?
1. Polymer electrolyte
2. Hydrogen fuel and oxygen
3. Pure water and small amount of electricity
4. Nitrogen gas
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 3 and 4 only
Answer: (C)
132. Which of the following are the essential functions of fuel cells?
1. The charging (or electrolyser) function in which the chemical AB is decomposed to
A and B.
2. The storage function in which A and B are held apart.
3. The charge function in which A and B are charged with the simultaneous generation of electricity.
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (C)
63
133. The position of centroid can be determined by inspection, if an area has

(A) Single axis of symmetry
(B) Two axes of symmetry
(C) An irregular shape
(D) Centre axes of symmetry
Answer: (B)
134. Which of the following statements of D’Alembert’s principle are correct?

1. The net external force F actually acting on the body on the inertia force F1 together keep the body in
a state of fictitious equilibrium.
2. The equation of motion may be written as F + (–ma) = 0 and the fictitious force (–ma) is called an
inertia force.
3. It tends to give solution of a static problem an appearance akin to that of a dynamic problem.
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (B)
Sol: Net external force ‘F’ actually acting on the body is equal to product of mass (m) and acceleration (a) of
that body. If we want to bring the body to static equilibrium an inertia force (Fi) equal to ‘ma’ should
apply in the opposite direction and therefore their sum i.e., F + Fi ( = ma ) will become zero. This is called
of D’Alembert’s principle and a dynamic problem (akin) a static problem. Hence statement ‘1’ and ‘2’ are
correct, but statement ‘3’ is wrong. So, answer is option (B).
135. The linear relationship between stress and strain for a bar in simple tension or compression is expressed
with standard notations by the equation
(A) =E
(B) =Ev
(C) =Gv
(D)  = G
Answer: (A)
64
136. A punch is used for making holes in steel plates with thickness 8 mm. If the punch diameter is 20 mm and
force required for creating a hole is 110 kN, the average shear stress in the plate will be nearly
(A) 139 MPa
(B) 219 MPa
(C) 336 MPa
(D) 416 MPa
Answer: (B)
Sol: Given data,
t = 8 mm, d = 20 mm
F = 110 kN
F 110  103
= = = 218.83 MPa
dt   20  8
137. A rod of length 2 m and diameter 50 mm is elongated by 5 mm when an axial force of 400 kN is applied.
The modulus of elasticity of the material of the rod will be nearly
(A) 66 GPa
(B) 72 GPa
(C) 82 GPa
(D) 96 GPa
Answer: (C)
Sol: Given data,
L = 2m, d = 50 mm
L = 5mm, P = 400kN
P
 PL
E= = A = = 81,487. 33 N mm 2 = 81.4 103 MPa
 L A  L
L
= 81.4 GPa  82 GPa
138. A beam of span 3 m and width 90 mm is loaded as shown in the figure. If the allowable bending stress is
12 MPa, the minimum depth required for the beam will be
12kN 5kN 12kN
0.6m 0.9m 0.9m 0.6m
65
(A) 218 mm
(B) 246 mm
(C) 318 mm
(D) 346 mm
Answer: (B)
Sol: Given data,
L = 3m, b = 90 mm
 = 12 MPa
12 5 12
Reaction at left is = ( 2.4 ) + + ( 0.6 ) = 14.5 kN
3 2 3
Maximum bending moment = ( 4.5 1.5) − (12  0.9) = 10.95 kN-m
M 6M
= =
2 bd 2
6  10.95  106
12 =
90  d 2
d = 246.64 mm
139. A vertical hollow aluminium tube 2.5 m high fixed at the lower end, must support a lateral load 12 kN at
1
its upper end. If the wall thickness is th of the outer diameter and the allowable bending stress is 50
8
MPa, the inner diameter will be nearly
(A) 186 mm
(B) 176 mm
(C) 166 mm
(D) 156 m
Answer: (D)
Sol: Given data,
12kN
L = 2.5m, P = 12 kN
D
t = ,  = 50 MPa
8
Di = ? 2.5m
D0 = D
D
Di = D − 2t = D − 2   = 0.75D
8
D
k = i = 0.75
D0
66
32M
=
d (1 − k 4 )
3
0
32  12  103  2500
50 =
 d30  (1 − 0.754 )
d 0 = 207.54
di = 155.66mm  156mm
140. A wooden beam AB supporting two concentrated loads P has a rectangular cross-section of width = 100
mm and height = 150 mm. The distance from each end of the beam to the nearest load is 0.5 m. If the
allowable stress in bending is 11 MPs and the beam weight is negligible, the maximum permissible load
will be nearly
(A) 5.8 kN
(B) 6.6 kN
(C) 7.4 kN
(D) 8.2 kN
Answer: (D)
Sol: Given data,
b = 100 P P
d = 150
 = 11 MPa
B.M max = P  0.5 = 0.5P N − m 0.5m 0.5m
= 0.5P  103 N − mm
6M
=
bd 2
6  0.5P  103
11 =
100  1502
P = 8,250 = 8.25kN
141. Which of the following statements regarding thin and thick cylinders, subjected to internal pressure only,
is/are correct?
1. A cylinder is considered thin when the ratio of its inner diameter to the wall thickness is less than
15.
2. In thick cylinders, tangential stress has highest magnitude at the inner surface of the cylinder and
gradually decreases towards the outer surface.
67
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B)
Sol: In this cylinder the ratio of inner diameter (d) to thickness (t) of cylinder should be greater than (or) equal
d
to 15. i.e.,  15
t
Hence statement ‘1’ is wrong.
In thick cylinders, tangential stress (or) hoop stress ( h ) is maximum at inner surface of cylinder and
minimum at outer surface as follows.
Variation of ' h '
ri
r0
b
Variation of ‘ h ’ with respect to ‘r’ is h = a +
r2
As ‘r’ increases ‘ h ’ decreases, hence statement ‘2’ is correct.
So, option (B) is correct.
142. A cylindrical storage tank has an inner diameter of 600 mm and a wall thickness of 18 mm. The transverse
and longitudinal strains induced are 255 10−6 mm/mm and 60×10-6 mm/mm, and if G is 77 GPa, the
gauge pressure inside the tank will be
(A) 2.4 MPa
(B) 2.8 MPa
(C) 3.2 MPa
(D) 3.6 MPa
Answer: (D)
Sol: Diameter of pipe (d) = 600 mm
Thickness of pipe (t) = 18 mm
Shear modulus (G) = 77 GPa = 77  103 MPa
68
 pd pd  pd  1 
Longitudinal strain ( e ) =  − =  − 
 4tE 2tE  2tE  2 
pd pd pd   
Transverse strain (or) hoop strain ( eh ) = − = 1 − 
2tE 4tE 2tE  2 
1 
 −   ( 60  10−6 )
= =
e 2
eh    ( 255  10−6 )
1 − 
 2
(1 − 2 ) = 60
( 2 −  ) 255
255 − 510 = 120 − 60
450 = 135   = 0.3
E = 2G (1 +  )
E = 2  77  103  (1 + 0.3) = 2  105 N mm 2
pd  1 
R =  − 
2tE  2 
( p )( 600 )
( 60 10 ) =
−6
( 0.5 − 0.3)  P = 3.6 MPa
( 2 18  2 10 ) 5
So, answer is option (D).
143. A compressed air spherical tank having an inner diameter of 450 mm and a wall thickness of 7 mm is
formed by welding. If the allowable shear stress is 40 MPa, the maximum permissible air pressure in the
tank will be nearly
(A) 3 MPa
(B) 5 MPa
(C) 7 MPa
(D) 9 MPa
Answer: (B)
Sol: Given data,
D = 450 mm, t = 7mm
 = 40 MPa
Maximum shear stress,

h pD
max = =
2 8t
p  450
40 =  p = 4.977 MPa  5MPa
8 7
69
144. A solid bar of circular cross-section having a diameter of 40 mm of 1.3 m is subjected to torque of 340
N.m. If the shear modulus of elasticity is 80 GPa, the angle of twist between the ends will be
(A) 1.26°
(B) 1.32°
(C) 1.38°
(D) 1.44°
Answer: (A)
Sol: Given data,
d = 40mm, L = 1.3m
T = 340 N − m, G = 80 GPa
=?
TL 340  103  1300
= = = 0.021rad
GJ 80  103    404
32
180
 = 0.021 = 1.259

145. Which one of the following statements regarding screw dislocation is correct?
(A) It lies parallel to its Burgers vector.
(B) It moves in the direction parallel to its Burgers vector.
(C) It initially requires very less force to move.
(D) It moves very fast as compared to edge dislocation.
Answer: (A)
146. The percentage of pearlite in a slowly cooled melt of 0.5% carbon steel is
(A) 48.5%
(B) 52.5%
(C) 58.5%
(D) 62.5%
Answer: (C)
147. In the study of phase diagrams, the rule which helps to calculate the relative proportions of liquid and
solid material present in the mixture at any given temperature is known as
(A) Hume -Rothery rule
(B) Lever rule
(C) Gibb’s phase rule
(D) Empirical rule
Answer: (B)
70
148. The phenomenon that artificially increasing the dielectric constant of plastics containing fillers is known
as
(A) Gamma polarization
(B) Interfacial polarization
(C) Post-forming drawing
(D) Reinforcement drawing
Answer: (B)
149. The addition of alloying elements nickel to cast iron will primarily improve
(A) Wear resistance
(B) Toughness
(C) Carbide formation
(D) Machinability
Answer: (B)
150. A unification fibre-epoxy composite contains 65% by volume fibre and 35% epoxy resin. If the relative
density of the fibre is 1.48 and of the resin is 1.2, the percentage weight of fibre will be nearly
(A) 70%
(B) 75%
(C) 80%
(D) 85%
Answer: (A)
Sol: Let, V = volume of fibre-epoxy composite
Vf = volume of fibre = 0.65V
Ve = Volume of epoxy region = 0.35V
Density of fibre ( ef ) = 1.48 1000 = 1480 kg m3
Density of epoxy region ( ee ) = 1.2 1000 = 1200 kg m3
Mass of fibre ( mg ) = ( ef )( vf ) = (1480)( 0.65V ) = 962V
Mass of epoxy region ( me ) = ( ee )( ve ) = (1200)( 0.35V) = 420V
mf 962V
% weight (or) % mass of fibre = 100 = 100 = 69.61  70%
( mf + me ) (962V + 420V )
71

IESME2020 W E

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

IESME2020 W E

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

| ME-2020 | www.gateforum.

2. A feed f for the lathe operation is

3. The main advantage of the radial drilling machine is that

5. Hard automation is also called

7. Revolving joint of the robot is referred to as

Ordering cost for placing the order is ( C0 ) = 16 Rs

Cost of lubricant can = 42 Rs per can

Average Total Inspection (ATI) will be find as follows,

17. The resolution of an encoder with 10 tracks will be nearly

21. Consider a system described by

Sol: Robot configuration Symbol

Sol: Given data, V = 25i + 10 j + 20k

9810  Vstone = 175N

Viscosity of fluid between the plates ( ) = 0.001 N.sec m2 y = 0.01cm

Final pressure ( Pf ) = 6MN m2

Charge in pressure ( P ) = ( Pf − PA ) = ( 6 − 3) = 3MN m2 = 3 106 N m2

Bulk modulus of elasticity ( k ) =

Diameter of pipe ( d ) = 0.15m

Viscosity of oil (  ) = 0.3 N.sec m2

 = density = s  100 = 0.9  100 = 900 kg m3

(B) 0.23 m3 s and 0.1 m3 s

(C) 0.17 m3 s and 0.4 m3 s

(D) 0.23 m3 s and 0.4 m3 s

In parallel flow head loss is same in both pipes

Viscosity of fluid (  ) = 2.1 N.sec m2

Velocity of fluid (V) = 3m/sec

length of pipe ( ) = 12m

VD 1790  3  0.06

Specific gravity of petrol (s) = 0.7

Friction factor ( f ) = 4f ' = 4  0.0025 = 0.01

Head loss according to Darcy Weisbach equation is

H = heat available for pipe

Hf 12.1D5 H 12 1D5

P(kPa) 100 37.9 14.4

V ( m3 ) 0.1 0.2 0.4

The work done by the system for n= 1.4 will be

Mass flow rat of gas ( m) = 3 kg sec

Atmospheric temperature ( T0 ) = 300K , R = 0.287 kJ kgK

Pressure at exit of pipe ( P2 ) = 0.9  Pressure pressure at entrance of pipe ( P1 )

( I ) = ( T0 )( S)universe = ( T0 ) ( ( S)system + ( S)surrounding )

Het transfers during the process the above equation becomes, h1 = h 2

Since gas is ideal, h = Cp T

I = ( 300)( 0.0861) = 25.83kW  26kW

T1 = 800 + 273 = 1073K T1 = 800C

(1073 − 303) = 1  Q = 1.39 kW Q1

Vmin Vmax V Vmin Vmax V

(D) Carnot cycle

51. The purpose of providing fins on heat transfer surface is to increase

Emissivity of pipe ( 1 ) = 0.8

Heat transfer by radiation from pipe to room is as follows,

QR ad = 1 ( T14 − T24 )  A1

= 0.8  5.67  10−8  ( 4734 − 3034 ) = 1888.14 W m 2

 Answer is option ‘C’.

VS  VC this is practically not correct

Compression ratio ( rc ) = = = 6.15  6.2

kWh will be nearly

Given that power (work) input = 1kWhr = 3600 kJ

P1 = Initial pressure (or) Atmospheric pressure = 1.013 bar

P2 = Delivery pressure = 80 bar

Pi = 1.013  80 = 9 bar

61. Which of the following are the advantages of Nano-composite materials?

(C) 1, 2 and 4 only

(B) 1.2  108 N m 2