BASIC SURGERY 2A

SECTION 2J
Preceptorials/SGD Questions

I. The Operating Room, Equipments, Instruments, and Sutures

1. Nonflammable; Provides pneumatic power to equipment such as saws, drills, bone cement
mixers, and irrigators?
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Nitrogen
D. Argon

2. Which of the following is an example of a dilating and probing instrument?

A. Urethral sound
B. Yankauer Suction Tube
C. Poole Suction Tube
D. Endostapler

3. Which of the following is an example of an absorbable suture?

A. Surgical silk
B. Chromic catgut
C. Nylon
D. Polypropylene

4. What is the required minimum clear floor area of an outpatient surgery facility?
A. 400 square feet
B. 600 square feet
C. 250 square feet
D. None of the above

5. Which of the following is not an ideal feature of an operating room?

A. Wall finishes should be seamless, impervious, and washable
B. Has negative pressure
C. Medical gases must be outside the facility and reticulated internally
D. Floor material is non-slip and resistant to stains

6. This type of suture is made up of several strands “braided” together for a greater tensile
strength and and better pliability.
A. Monofilament suture
B.Multifilament suture
C.Both a and b
D.Neither a or b
7. Which scissors is commonly used for cutting delicate tissues (e.g. heart) and for blunt
dissections?
A. Mayo
B. Metzenbaum
C. Stitch
D. Iris

8. What is the estimated size of a transplant OR?

A. 600 sq ft
B. 700 sq ft
C. 800 sq ft
D. 900 sq ft
9. Which of the following is not included in the sterile OR personnel?
A. Surgeon
B. Anesthesiologist
C. Scrub Nurse
D. Surgical Assistant

10. This device restores a normal heartbeat by sending an electric pulse or shock to the heart
A. Anesthesia Machine
B. Suction Machine
C. Ventilator Machine
D. Defibrillator Machine

II. Asepsis and Antisepsis

11, The state of being free from disease-causing microorganisms

A. Antisepsis
B. Asepsis
C. Homeostasis
D. Sterility

12. The following are examples of Minor Surgery except?

A. Laparoscopic surgery
B. Cutaneous and arthroscopic procedures.
C. Breast surgery without reconstruction
D. Cataract surgery

13. Which of the following is an advantage of Povidone Iodine Solution?

A. Fast rapidity of action
B. Remain effective in the presence of serum
C. Excellent Gram Negative Activity
D. None of the above
14. It is worn as a barrier to fluid and microbial transmission during surgery.
A. Surgical Cap
B. Surgical Glove
C. Surgical Gown
D. All of the above

15. Which of the following is true about Proper Gloving Technique?

A. Sterile Gloves can replace handwashing
B. Any gloves can be used as long as it is latex
C. Patient must be checked of latex allergy before applying sterile gloves
D. All of the above

16. This antiseptic has the fastest onset of action.

A. Isopropyl alcohol
B. Povidone-iodine
C. Benzalkonium Chloride
D. Chlorhexidine gluconate

17. Three steps of basic preparation in surgery, except?

A. Hair removal
B. Scrubbing
C. Rinsing and then Application of antiseptic
D. None of the above

18. Which is true regarding the proper gowning of technique?

A. Have someone tie the front of the gown
B. Inside of the gown should be towards the user
C. A and B
D. None of the above

19. Which of the following is used as an antiseptic scrub sponge?

A. Chlorhexidine
B. Benzalkonium chloride
C. Betadine
D. A & C

20. Sterile items BELOW the waist level is considered to be sterile. Once a sterile field is set up,
the border of 1 inch at the edge of the sterile drape is considered non-sterile.
A. First statement is true, the second statement is false.
B. First statement is false, the second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
III. Animal Bites

21, In taking the patient’s history, it is important to ask the following, EXCEPT:
A. Type of biting animal
B. Time elapsed since injury
C. Food allergies
D. Most recent tetanus vaccination

22. Which of the following belongs to category I?

A.Touching or feeding animals
B. Animal licks on intact skin
C. Contamination of mucous membranes or broken skin with saliva from animal licks
D. Both A and B

23. Transdermal bites and exposure to bats correspond to what category of Rabies exposure?
A. Category I
B. Category II
C. Category III
D. Category IV

24. Why is tetanus given to patients with animal bites

A. Tetanus can counteract the bacteria in animal bites
B. Tetanus can serve as a booster for animal bites
C. Tetanus can serve as a protection since there is an open wound
D. Tetanus is not given to patients with animal bites

25. What microscopic finding will be seen in patients with rabies?

A. Heart failure cells
B. Negri bodies
C. Necrotic cells
D Neutrophil infiltrates

26, Which wounds should be left to heal by primary intention?

A. Puncture wounds
B. Crush injuries
C. Cat bites on face

27. What is the pathognomonic feature of rabies due to pharyngeal muscle spasm
A. Hydrophobia
B. Aerophobia
C. Prickling sensation
D. Abnormal behavior
28. These are eosinophilic, sharply outlined, pathognomonic inclusion bodies found in the
cytoplasm of certain nerve cells containing the virus of rabies
A. Inclusion bodies
B. Bollinger bodies
C. Negri bodies
D. Torres bodies

29. Tetanus toxin is produced by?

A. Clostridium tetani
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium difficile

30. The following are management of adverse reactions after anti-rabies vaccination except
A. Give 0.1% adrenaline or epinephrine (1:1,000 or 1mg/ml) underneath the skin or into
the muscle
B. Repeat epinephrine dose every 10-20 minutes for 3 doses
C. Give steroids after epinephrine
D. Give Purified Vero Cell Rabies Vaccine (PVRV) – 0.5 ml/vial and 1.0 ml/vial