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Biology
CBSE Class 12 (Term I )

Authors
Rakhi Bisht
Yukta Khatri
Juhi Bhatia

ARIHANT PRAKASHAN (School Division Series)

ARIHANT PRAKASHAN (School Division Series)
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Contents
þ One Day Revision 3-14
þ The Qualifiers 17-31
þ Latest CBSE Sample Paper 35-52

Sample Paper 1 55-71

Sample Paper 2 72-87

Sample Paper 3 88-104

Sample Paper 4 105-120

Sample Paper 5 121-136

Sample Paper 6 137-151

Sample Paper 7 152-167

Sample Paper 8 168-184

Sample Paper 9 185-201

Sample Paper 10 202-218

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Syllabus
Biology CBSE Class 12 (Term I )

THEORY
Units Term I Marks
VI Reproduction: Chapter - , and
VII Genetics and Evolution: Chapter and
Units Term II Marks
VIII Biology and Human Welfare: Chapter and
IX Biotechnology and its Applications: Chapter and
X Ecology and Environment: Chapter and
Total Theory Term I and Term II
Practicals Term I
Practicals Term II
Total

Unit-VI Reproduction
Chapter- Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Flower structure; development of male and female gametophytes;
pollination - types, agencies and examples; outbreeding devices; pollen-
pistil interaction; double fertilisation; post-fertilisation events -
development of endosperm and embryo, development of seed and
formation of fruit; special modes- apomixis, parthenocarpy, polyembryony;
Significance of seed dispersal and fruit formation.
Chapter- Human Reproduction
Male and female reproductive systems; microscopic anatomy of testis and
ovary; gametogenesis - spermatogenesis and oogenesis; menstrual cycle;
fertilisation, embryo development up to blastocyst formation, implantation;
pregnancy and placenta formation elementary idea ; parturition
elementary idea ; lactation elementary idea .
Chapter- Reproductive Health
Need for reproductive health and prevention of Sexually Transmitted
Diseases STDs ; birth control - need and methods, contraception and
medical termination of pregnancy MTP ; amniocentesis; infertility and
assisted reproductive technologies - IVF, ZIFT, GIFT elementary idea for
general awareness .

Unit-VII Genetics and Evolution

Chapter- Principles of Inheritance and Variation
Heredity and variation: Mendelian inheritance; deviations from
Mendelism incomplete dominance, codominance, multiple alleles and
inheritance of blood groups, pleiotropy; elementary idea of polygenic
inheritance; chromosome theory of inheritance; chromosomes and genes;
Sex determination - in human being, birds and honeybee; linkage and
crossing over; sex linked inheritance - haemophilia, colour blindness;
Mendelian disorders in humans -thalassemia; chromosomal disorders in
humans; Down s syndrome, Turner s and Klinefelter s syndromes.
Chapter- Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Search for genetic material and DNA as genetic material; Structure of DNA
and RNA; DNA packaging; DNA replication; Central Dogma; transcription,
genetic code, translation; gene expression and regulation - lac operon;
Genome, Human and rice genome projects; DNA fingerprinting.
MCQs Preparation Tips
Focus on Theory
MCQs can be formed from any part or
line of the chapter. So, strong command
on theory will increase your chances to
solve objective questions correctly and
quickly.
Practice of Solving MCQs
Cracking an MCQ-based examination
requires you to be familiar with the
question format, so continuous practice
will make you more efficient in solving
MCQs.
Speed & Accuracy
In MCQ-based examination, you need
both speed and accuracy, if your
accuracy is good but speed is slow then
you might attempt less questions,
resulting in low score.
Attempting MCQs in Exams
1. Read the paper from beginning to
end & attempt those questions first in
which you are confident. Now move
on to those questions which requires
thinking and in last attempt those
questions for which you need more
attention.
2. Read instructions of objective
questions carefully and find out what
is being asked, a bit carelessness can
lead you to incorrect answer.
3. Tick/Write down the correct option
only while filling the OMR sheet. Step
Learn to Identify Wrong Answers
The simplest trick is, observe the options
first and take out the least possible one
and repeat the process until you reach
the correct option.
Analyze your Performance
During the practice of MCQs you can
identify your weak & strong
topics/chapter by analyzing of incorrect
answers, in this way you will get an
awareness about your weaker topics.
Practice through Sample Papers
Solving more & more papers will make
you more efficient and smarter for
exams. Solve lots of Sample Papers
given in a good Sample Papers book.
by step solution is not required in
MCQ type questions, it is a waste
of time, you will not get extra marks
for this.
4. Most of the time, you need not to
solve the MCQ completely to get the
correct option. You can start thinking
in reverse order and choose the best
fit option.
5. As there is no negative marking for
incorrect answers, so don't leave any
question unanswered. Use your
guess if you have not exact idea
about the correct answer.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
ONE DAY
REVISION
Revise All the Concepts in a Day
Just Before the Examination...
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
1. Sexual Reproduction
It is a process of development of new organisms due
to the fusion of male and female gametes.
It occurs through flowers in plants. Such plants are
called angiospermic or flowering plants.
2. Flower
It is the site of sexual reproduction in flowering plants.
A typical flower consists of four whorls of floral
appendages, attached on the receptacle, i.e.
l
Calyx is the outermost protective whorl of flower, which
l
is usually green in colour.
l
Corolla is the second whorl of flower. It contains petals
which are brightly coloured and are fragrant.
l
l
Androecium is the male whorl which consists of
stamens.
l
Gynoecium is the female whorl which consists of
B. Female Reproductive Part It consists of pistil,
carpel or pistil.
3. Pre-Fertilisation Events
These include the development of male and female
gametophyte.
A. Male Reproductive Part It consists of a stamen,
microsporangium and a pollen grain.
l
A typical stamen has two main parts, i.e. an anther
and a long slender structure called filament.
Anther is a bilobed structure with each lobe having
two thecae. Thus, it has four microsporangia which
develop and become pollen sacs that contain
pollen grains. Ploidy level of pollen mother cell is
diploid.
l
Structure of Microsporangium Transversely, a
microsporangium appears circular in outline. It is
generally surrounded by four layers, i.e. the
3
epidermis, endothecium, middle layer and
tapetum (nourishing tissue).
l
Pollen grains are known as male
gametophytes. Each pollen grain has a
two-layered wall, i.e. sporoderm. The outer
layer is hard and known as exine. It is made up
of sporopollenin. The inner layer is thin, called
as intine. It is composed of cellulose and
pectin.
Microsporogenesis The formation of microspores
from a pollen mother cell through the meiosis is
called microsporogenesis. Pollen grains are
released by dehiscence of an anther.
These microspores later develop into
microgametophytes or matured pollen grains. This
process is known as microgametogenesis.
megasporangium (ovule) and embryo sac.
l
Pistil is the female reproductive unit of a flower.
The main parts of a pistil are stigma, style and
ovary.
Stigma is meant to receive pollen
grains, style is the slender part below the
stigma and the basal swollen part of style is
called ovary.
ONE DAY REVISION
l
Ovule (megasporangium) is attached to the
placenta by a stalk called funicle. Hilum is the
junction between ovule and funicle. Each ovule
contains two protective envelops, called
integuments.
Micropyle is present at the tip while chalaza
lies opposite to the micropylar end representing
the basal part of the nucellus. Nucellus has
food reserves.
 4 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
l
Megasporogenesis It is the process of formation of
megaspores (4) from megaspore mother cell by
meiotic division.
n
Embryo sac or female gametophyte is formed
when the nucleus of functional megaspore divides
mitotically to form two nuclei, which move to the
opposite poles and form 2-nucleate embryo sac,
which then results into the formation of 4-nucleate
and later 8-nucleate stage. This event is known as
megagametogenesis.
n
The mature embryo sac contains 7-cells and
8-nuclei (polygonum type). The 6 out of 8-nuclei
get surrounded by cell wall and are organised into
cells. Three cells present towards the micropylar
end, grouped together constitute the egg
apparatus, i.e. two synergids and one egg cell.
The 3-cells of the chalazal end are called
antipodals.
4. Pollination
Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma is
called pollination. Stamen and other whorls fall down
after pollination. Pollination is of two types
A. Self-Pollination When pollen grains reach to the
stigma of the same flower (autogamy) or to the
stigma of the another flower of the same plant
(geitonogamy), it is known as self-pollination. It is
found in both unisexual and bisexual flowers.
B. Cross-Pollination or Allogamy (Xenogamy) In this
pollination, pollen grains of one plant reach to the
stigma of flower of another plant of the same
species. It involves two plants of the same species
to produce seeds.
5. Pollen-Pistil Interaction
l
It is an essential step in fertilisation of angiosperms
because it determines the compatability and
incompatability of pollen and pistil.
l
It generally includes the events from the deposition of
pollen on the stigma till the pollen tube enters ovule.
This pollen-pistil interaction comprises of three
stages
(i) Recognition of compatible pollen
(ii) Growth of a pollen tube
(iii) Entry of pollen tube into the ovule
6. Artificial Hybridisation
ONE DAY REVISION
It is the crossing of different species to generate a
progeny by combining desirable characters which are
present in commercially superior varieties. It is used
for crop improvement programmes. This process
involves
l
Emasculation It refers to anther removal before its
dehiscence.
l
Bagging It covers emasculated flower in a bag to
prevent its contamination by unwanted pollen grains.
7. Fertilisation
It occurs just after pollination. Fusion of male and
female gametes is called fertilisation. Pollen tube
enters in ovary and after fertilisation embryo is
formed.
8. Double Fertilisation
It was discovered by SG Nawaschin in Fritillaria and
Lilium plants in 1898. In this, one of the male
gametes fuses with egg cell and forms diploid
zygote.
This is called syngamy. The other male gamete fuses
with polar nuclei and forms 3n (triploid) Primary
Endosperm Nucleus (PEN), so this is called triple
fusion. Since, two fusions, i.e. syngamy and triple
fusion occur in an embryo sac, this is called double
fertilisation.
9. Post-Fertilisation Events
l
The major post-fertilisation events include
development of endosperm and embryo, maturation
of ovules into seeds and ovary into fruits. These
events take place soon after double-fertilisation.
l
Endosperm development is of three types, i.e.
nuclear type, cellular type and helobial type. Out of
these, nuclear type is the most common one in which
the PEN undergoes repeated mitotic divisions without
cytokinesis. At this stage, endosperm is called free
endosperm nucleus.
l
Development of an embryo takes place at the
micropylar end of the embryo sac. The zygote
development gives rise to proembryo and later
globular, heart-shaped and mature embryo.
Embryos are of two types, i.e. dicot embryo which
consists of two cotyledons and monocot embryo
which consists of only one cotyledon (called
scutellum) e.g. rice, maize, etc.
l
Development of Seed and Fruit Formation After
fertilisation, ovary converts into fruit. The wall of ovary
develops into pericarp, a fleshy part of fruits. It has
three layers, i.e. epicarp, mesocarp and endocarp.
l
Ovule converts into seed which consists of seed
coat, cotyledon and embryonal axis. The seed coat
contains two layers, i.e. outer called testa (hard) and
inner called tegmen.
l
Types of fruits are as follows
n
False fruits are derived from ovary along with
thalamus or other accessory floral parts, e.g.
apple, cashewnut, strawberry, etc.
n
True fruits are derived from ovary of flower, e.g.
mango and tomato.
n
Parthenocarpic Fruits When development of fruits
in plant occurs without pollination and fertilisation,
e.g. grapes, banana, pineapple, papaya, lemon,
etc.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
10. Methods of Specific Types of Seed
Development
l
Apomixis Sometimes embryo and sporophyte develop
without fusion of male and female gametes or without
gametophyte. This is called apomixis, e.g. grass.
Hu an Reproduction
Humans are sexually reproducing viviparous
organisms, i.e. give birth to young ones. They are
unisexual organisms, i.e. male and female sexes are
separate.
1. Human Reproductive Organs
These organs are divided into primary sex organs and
secondary sex organs. Primary sex organs produce
gametes and sex hormones while secondary sex organs
play an important role in reproduction.
2. Male Reproductive System
It is located in the pelvis region. It consists of
following organs
A. Primary Sex Organs Testes are the primary sex
organs in men.
l
Testes are the site where formation of male
gametes or sperms takes place. These are
suspended in the scrotum by spermatic cords.
Each testis is divided into 200-300 compartments
called testicular lobules. Each lobule contains
1-3 convoluted seminiferous tubules, blood
vessels and nerves.
l
Scrotum is a pouch of deeply pigmented skin
arising from the lower abdominal wall present
between legs. It keeps the temperature of testes
about 2-2.5°C lower than the internal body
temperature, which is essential for sperm
production, i.e. spermatogenesis. It remains
connected with abdomen or pelvic cavity by
inguinal canals.
l
Seminiferous tubule is the structural and
functional unit of testis consisting of two
specialised cells. They are as follows
n
Sertoli cells (nurse cells) are pyramidal cells
which provide nutrition to germinal cells.
n
Male germ cells produce spermatogonia by
mitotic division which grow into primary
spermatocytes.
l
Region outside the seminiferous tubules called
interstitial spaces contain blood vessels and
Leydig cells (Interstitial cells). These cells
secrete hormones called androgens.
B. Secondary sex organs consist of the following
organs
l
The tubuli recti are straight tubules which join at
the end of seminiferous tubules. These open into
a network of wider irregular tubules called rete
5
l
Polyembryony The process of developing more
than one embryo in one seed is called
polyembryony. It occurs as a result of the presence
of more than one embryo sac in the ovule or due to
fusion with cell other than egg cell, e.g. Citrus,
Mangifera, etc.
testis which opens in vasa efferentia. They open
into epididymis and carry sperms outside the
body.
l
Epididymis is a mass of long narrow closely
coiled tubules lying along the inner side of each
testis. It temporarily stores immature sperms. It
helps the sperms in attaining maturity, acquiring
increased motility and fertilising capacity.
l
Vasa deferentia emerge from cauda epididymis
on each side, leave the scrotal sac and enter the
abdominal cavity through inguinal canal.
l
Ejaculatory ducts are two short tubes each
formed by the union of the duct from a seminal
vesicle and a vas deferens.
l
Urethra provides a common pathway for the flow
of urine and semen.
C. Male accessory glands are of two types. These are
described below
l
Prostate gland is a single large gland that
surrounds the urethra. It secretes a slightly
acidic, milky secretion with pH 6.5 which forms
20-30% of semen volume. The secretion contains
lipids, enzymes, citric acid, etc.
l
Seminal vesicles are paired tubular glands,
secreting mucus and a watery alkaline fluid that
contains fructose (acts as an energy source for
sperms). It accounts for 60% of semen volume.
Prostaglandins in secretion stimulate uterine
contractions for sperm movement.
l
Bulbourethral or Cowper’s gland secretes mucus
and alkaline fluid into urethra. The mucus helps in
lubrication of penis and neutralises urinary acids
present in urethra.
D. External genitalia consist of penis. It is the male
ONE DAY REVISION
copulatory organ.
3. Female Reproductive System
It is located in the pelvic cavity. It consists of
following organs
A. Primary sex organs Ovaries are primary sex
organs in women.
l
Ovaries produce female gametes (ovum) and
several female hormones, i.e. ovarian hormones.
The broad ligament of uterus attaches ovaries by
double-layered fold of peritoneum called
mesovarium.
 6 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
l
These are covered by cubical epithelium,
i.e. germinal epithelium. These cubical
epithelia enclose ovarian stroma and it is
divided into two zones, i.e. peripheral cortex
and inner medulla.
B. Secondary sex organs constitute following organs
l
Fallopian tubes (oviducts) are 10-12 cm long
and consist of
n
Infundibulum is broad and funnel-shaped
with its motile and finger-like projections called
fimbriae.
n
Ampulla is the widest and longest part of
Fallopian tube.
n
Isthmus a short, narrow and thick-walled
portion that follows ampulla.
n
Uterine part passes through uterine wall
and communicates with uterine cavity.
l
Uterus is 7.5 cm long and 5 cm wide. It is like
an inverted pear in shape. It lies between
urinary bladder and rectum. It receives ovum
from the Fallopian tube and forms placenta for
the development of foetus. The cervix is a
narrow opening of uterus into vagina.
l
Vagina is about 10 cm long. It is adapted for
receiving male’s penis during copulation, for
allowing menstrual flow and for serving as a
birth canal during parturition.
C. Accessory glands contain a pair of Bartholin’s
gland. It occurs on each side of vaginal orifice.
These correspond to Cowper’s gland of the male
and secrete a clear and viscous fluid under sexual
excitement. It serves as a lubrication during
copulation.
D. Mammary glands are paired structures, i.e.
breast in females. Breasts are rounded paired
structures located over the pectoral muscles on
the front wall of thorax.
l
The glandular tissue of each breast is divided
into 15-20 mammary lobes containing clusters
of mammary alveoli, which open into mammary
tubules.
l
Each breast contains a nipple in its middle,
which is surrounded by circular and pigmented
area called areola.
ONE DAY REVISION
E. External genitalia are collectively known as vulva,
which consists of mons pubis, clitoris and
hymen.
4. Gametogenesis
It is the process of formation of haploid gametes
from the undifferentiated diploid germ cells in the
gonads for sexual reproduction. It is of two types,
i.e. spermatogenesis in males and oogenesis in
females.
A. Spermatogenesis is the formation of spermatozoa
(sperms) in testes which originate from Primordial
Germ Cells (PGCs). It includes following stages
l
Multiplication Phase In this phase, the
undifferentiated germ cells present on the inner
wall of seminiferous tubules of the testes increase
in number by repeated mitotic divisions.
l
Growth Phase In this phase, some of the
spermatogonia differentiate into primary
spermatocytes.
l
Maturation Phase Each of these primary
spermatocytes undergoes first meiotic division
and produces two secondary spermatocytes
(23 chromosomes) each. They further undergo second
meiotic division to produce haploid spermatids. The
spermatids transform into spermatozoa (sperms) by
the process of spermiogenesis.
l
Differentiation Phase After spermiogenesis,
sperms get embedded in Sertoli cells and are
finally released from the seminiferous tubules by
spermiation.
l
Structure of Sperm A mature spermatozoa (sperm) is
microscopic and tadpole-shaped, about 2-5 µm in
diameter and 6 µm long. It consists of head, neck,
middle piece and a tail.
l
A cap-like structure called acrosome is present over
the head of sperm. It contains hydrolytic enzymes that
help in sperm penetration during fertilisation.
B. Oogenesis is the process of formation of a mature
female gamete. The production of eggs in females
begins before birth, i.e. during embryonic
development stage, but is completed only after
fertilisation. The following phases complete the
process
l
Multiplication Phase Cells of germinal epithelium
undergo mitotic division producing undifferentiated
germ cells called oogonia or egg mother cells. They
get temporarily arrested at prophase-I of meiotic
division. These cells (at this stage) are called primary
oocytes.
l
Growth Phase Each primary oocyte when gets
surrounded by a single layer of granulosa cells is
called primary follicle. At puberty stage,
60,000-80,000 primary follicles are left in each
ovary. The primary follicles get surrounded by more
layers of granulosa cells and new theca to form
secondary follicles.
l
Maturation Phase During this phase, the
secondary follicle transform to tertiary follicle.
These are characterised by a fluid cavity called
antrum.
n
The primary oocyte within tertiary follicle grows
in size and completes its meiotic division to
produce two daughter nuclei, i.e. secondary
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
oocyte (larger haploid cell) and first polar
body (tiny cell).
n
The tertiary follicle further changes into a
mature follicle or Graafian follicle. The
secondary oocyte forms a new membrane called
zona pellucida around it and starts its second
meiotic division, but remains in metaphase-II till it
enters into sperm. The release of the secondary
oocyte from the ovary is called ovulation.
l
Structure of Ovum Human female produces
non-motile and rounded cell called ovum. It is
yolk-free, i.e. alecithal. It contains abundant
cytoplasm called ooplasm with large nucleus
called germinal vesicle.
5. Menstrual Cycle
It is the reproductive cycle in female primates, e.g.
monkeys, apes and human beings. At puberty, the
first menstruation begins and it is called menarche.
In females, menstruation is repeated at an average
interval of about 28/29 days.
The cycle stops at 50 years of age and the stage is
called menopause.
The cycle consists of the following four phases
l
Menstrual (Bleeding) Phase It lasts for 3-5 days. The
unfertilised egg undergoes autolysis which reduces LH
level and causes regression of corpus luteum.
The endometrial lining of uterus breaks down due to
the deficiency of progesterone. The blood vessels
rupture causing bleeding through vagina.
Proliferative (Follicular) Phase It lasts for 14 days.
The primary follicles in ovary grow to become
fully mature Graafian follicles. The endometrium
regenerates through proliferation. The changes in the
ovary and uterus induce changes in FSH and
oestrogen.
The secretion of LH and FSH increases gradually
during follicular phase.
l
Ovulatory Phase Both LH and FSH attain a peak in
the middle of cycle (about 14th day). Rapid secretion
of LH induces rupture of Graafian follicle and thereby
release of ovum, i.e. ovulation.
l
Luteal (Secretory) Phase It lasts for about 10 days.
The remaining parts of Graafian follicle transform into
corpus luteum. It secretes large amounts of
progesterone essential to maintain the endometrium.
6. Fertilisation
It takes place in the ampullary-isthmic junction of the
Fallopian tube. The process of fusion of sperm with an
ovum resulting in formation of zygote (2n) is called
fertilisation.
7
7. Implantation
l
After fertilisation, meiotic division starts as zygote
moves through the isthmus of the oviduct towards
the uterus, forming 2, 4, 8, 16 daughter cells called
blastomeres. This process is called cleavage.
l
The embryo with 8-16 blastomeres forms morula
(32 cells) which at later stage transforms into
blastocyst. This process is known as blastulation.
l
The outer layer arrangement of blastomeres in
blastocyst is called trophoblast and inner group of
cells is called inner cell mass.
l
The blastocyst (64 cells) becomes embedded in
endometrium of uterus. This is called implantation,
which leads to pregnancy.
8. Placenta
It is the structural and functional unit formed between
mother and foetus. Its functions are as follows
l
Provides nutrients and oxygen to the developing
embryo.
l
Removes CO 2 and waste material from the embryo.
l
Acts as an endocrine tissue and produces several
hormones like hCG, hPL, oestrogen, progesterone,
etc.
9. Embryonic Development
Following changes take place in embryo after
implantation
l
Inner cell mass of blastula differentiates into an
outer layer called ectoderm and inner layer
called endoderm. Mesoderm develops between
these two layers.
l
Kidney, heart, gonads and blood originate from
mesodermal layer.
l
These three layers give rise to tissues and organs. By
the end of 9 months of pregnancy, the foetus
becomes fully developed and is ready for delivery.
10. Parturition
It is the process of delivery of the foetus. It is
induced by complex neuroendocrine mechanism and
the oxytocin hormone, produced due to the
foetal-ejection reflexes.
11. Lactation
l
The production and release of milk by the mammary
glands of female after birth of a young one is called
ONE DAY REVISION
lactation.
l
Colostrum is the first milk, produced by mammary
gland after delivery, under influence of prolactin
hormones. It is rich in proteins, energy and antibodies
like IgA. Thus, it provides passive immunity to the
newborn.
 8 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
Reproductive Health
1. Reproductive Health
It refers to the state of healthy reproductive organs
with normal functions. According to WHO,
reproductive health can be defined as the total
well-being in all aspects of reproduction, i.e. physical,
emotional, social and behavioural.
2. Reproductive and Child Healthcare
(RCH) Programmes
These programmes are for creating awareness
among people about various aspects of reproduction.
They provide facilities and support the buildup of a
reproductively healthy society.
Some measures taken for RCH are
l
Use of audio-visual and print media.
l
Introduction of sex education in schools.
l
Awareness about sexually transmitted diseases.
l
Instruct people about pre and post-natal care.
3. Population Explosion
The rapid increase in population over a relatively short
period is called population explosion. Expected
reasons for the population explosion may be
l
A rapid decline in death rate (mortality).
l
A reduction in Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR).
l
Decline in Infant Mortality Rate (IMR).
l
Increase in number of people of reproducible age.
Consequences of Overpopulation Some direct
consequences of overpopulation are reduced food
supply, unemployment, lack of education and poverty.
4. Birth Control (Contraception)
The regulation of conception by preventive methods
or devices that limit the number of offspring is called
birth control or contraception. An ideal
contraceptive should be user-friendly, easily available,
effective, reversible with no or least side effects and
non-interfering with the sexual drive/desire and/or the
sexual act of the user.
Methods of Birth Control
l
Natural/Traditional Methods These are based on
the principle of avoiding the chances of meeting of
sperms and ovum, e.g.
n
Period abstinence (10-17th days of menstrual
ONE DAY REVISION
phase)
n
Coitus interruptus or withdrawal before ejaculation
n
Lactational amenorrhea (absence of
menstruation during lactation)
l
Barrier Methods These prevent sperms and
ovum from physically meeting with each other in
order to prevent fertilisation, e.g. condoms, cervical
caps, diaphragms and vaults.
l
Chemical Methods Spermicides available in the
form of cream, jellies and foams are usually used
along with the above stated barriers to increase
contraceptive efficiency. The spermicides include
lactic acid, citric acid, boric acid, zinc sulphate and
potassium permanganate.
l
Intrauterine Devices (IUDs) are a form of long
reversible contraceptive methods. These are
categorised as
n
Copper releasing IUDs, e.g. Cu-T, Cu-7,
Multiload-375 and Paragard.
Copper ions released from IUDs, suppress the
NOTE
motility and fertilisation capacity of sperms.
n
Hormone releasing IUDs, e.g. Progestasert,
LNG-20 and Mirena. These make uterus
unsuitable for implantation and the cervrix hostile
to sperms.
n
Non-medicated IUDs, e.g. Lippes loop.
l
Oral contraceptives are preparations of
hormones either progestogen or progestogen-
oestrogen combinations in the form of pills, e.g.
Saheli These pills inhibit ovulation and fertilisation.
They also modify the quality of cervical mucus to
prevent or retard the entry of sperms. The emergency
contraceptives are taken within 3 days of intercourse
to prevent unwanted pregnancy, e.g. i-pill, etc.
l
Implants These are surgically placed under skin. They
act similar to oral contraceptives by blocking ovulation,
e.g. nor-plant (synthetic progesterone.)
l
Injection Contraceptives These are injection which
is given at every 3 months interval. It slowly releases
hormone which prevents ovulation, e.g.
Depo-Provera injections.
l
Surgical methods are irreversible methods used by
male and female partner to prevent any more
pregnancies. They are available in the form of
tubectomy in women and vasectomy in men.
5. Medical Termination of
Pregnancy (MTP)
MTP is intentional or voluntary termination or abortion
of pregnancy before full term or before foetus
becomes viable. Government of India legalised
MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions to prevent
misuse.
6. Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs)
These are the diseases that are mainly passed from
one person to another during sexual activities. These
are called as Venereal Diseases (VDs) or
Reproductive Tract Infections (RTIs). Some common
STDs are genital herpes, syphilis, gonorrhoea,
chlamydiasis, genital wart, hepatitis-B and AIDS. Early
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 9

symptoms of STDs are swelling in genital regions, 8. Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ARTs)
itching, fluid discharge, etc. STDs like hepatitis-B These include IVF, ICSI, ZIFT, etc., which now provide
and HIV can also be transmitted by the following hope to many infertile couples.
ways l
In Vitro Fertilisation (IVF) or Test Tube Baby
l
Sharing of contaminated injection needles, surgical Programme It is a technique of initiating the fertilisation
instruments, etc., with infected persons. process outside the female body. It is followed by
l
Transfusion of blood. embryo transfer in which the embryo is placed inside
l
From infected mother to foetus. the uterus with the intention to establish pregnancy.
l
ZIFT and IUT When the 8-celled blastomere stage
Preventive Measures for STDs
embryo obtained by in vitro fertilisation is transferred
Prevention from STDs is possible and one could be
into the Fallopian tube, the process is termed as
free of these infections by following these simple
Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT).
principles
If more than 8-celled blastomere stage is placed
l
Avoid sex with unknown/multiple partners.
directly into the lining of uterus for further
l
Always use condoms during coitus. development is called Intrauterine Transfer (IUT).
l
Use sterilised needles and syringes. l
In Vivo Fertilisation In this, embryos are formed when
l
Awareness about STDs. the fusion of the gametes takes place within the female
7. Infertility body or surrogates. This method is used to assist
It is also one of the major aspects of reproductive those females who cannot conceive or maintain
health. It is mainly of two types pregnancy to full term.
(i) Primary infertility refers to those who never had
l
Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) The ovum
children. collected from donor is transferred to the Fallopian tube
of another female, who cannot produce ova, but can
(ii) Secondary infertility refers to a situation, when a
provide a suitable environment for fertilisation and
couple had children or achieved pregnancy
further development. This is termed as Gamete Intra
previously, but are unable to conceive the next
Fallopian Transfer (GIFT).
time.
l
Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) In this, a
Some common causes of infertility in males are single sperm is carefully injected into an egg using a
l
Low semen quality microneedle. It is beneficial in case of male infertility,
l
Oligospermia (low sperm count) where sperm count is low.
l
Azospermia (absence of sperms)
• Amniocentesis is a medical procedure used in
l
Sexual dysfunction and cryptorchidism
pre-natal diagnosis of chromosomal
Some common causes of infertility in females are abnormalities and foetal infection.
l
Polycystic ovarian syndrome • Unfortunately this technique is being misused for
l
Damage or blockage of Fallopian tube sex-determination. If the sex determined comes out
to be a girl, people undertake actions that lead to
l
Age-related factors female foeticide. Thus, this procedure has certain
l
Uterine problems legal restrictions in gender based countries.
l
Previous tubal ligation

Principles of Inheritance and Variation

l
The branch of science which deals with the study of 1. Genetic Terminology
hereditary traits and variations is termed as Gene or Factor is a structure located on chromosomes
ONE DAY REVISION

genetics. which transfers a hereditary character from one

l
Inheritance is the process by which characters of generation to another generation. It is the unit of DNA.
traits are passed from parent to their progeny, i.e. The alternative forms of genes for a single trait or
l

from one generation to the next. It is the basis of
heredity. Gene is the unit of inheritance.
l
Variation is the degree by which progeny differs
character are called alleles, e.g. colour of flower (red
and white), stem height (tall and dwarf).
Homozygous A diploid condition, in which both alleles
l

from their parents. are same, e.g. TT, tt.

10 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

l
Heterozygous A diploid condition, in which both
alleles are different, e.g. Tt.
l
Monohybrid Cross A cross in which only one
pair of character is taken.
l
Dihybrid Cross A cross in which two pairs of
characters are taken.
l
Reciprocal Cross A cross where sexes of
parents are reversed.
l
Back Cross A cross between homozygous
dominant parent and heterozygous F1-hybrid is
known as back cross.
l
Test Cross A cross between homozygous
recessive parent and heterozygous F1-hybrid is
known as test cross. By this cross, it can be
identified that a plant is homozygous or
heterozygous.
The following table shows the phenotypic and genotypic
ratio(s) of a monohybrid cross for better understanding
of the above two laws
Generations/Ratios F1 F2
Phenotypic 1 3:1
Genotypic 1 1:2:1
C. Law of Independent Assortment It states that when
two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation
of one pair of characters is independent on the other
pair of characters at the time of gamete formation. It
also gets randomly rearranged in the offspring
producing both parental and new combinations of
characters. The following table explains the law of
independent assortment on the basis of ratio(s)
obtained through dihybrid cross.

2. Mendel’s Experiments Generations/Ratios F1 F2

Mendel conducted his experiments on garden Phenotypic 1 9:3:3:1
pea for seven years to investigate inheritance
Genotypic 1 1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1
pattern. He had applied statistical analysis and
mathematical logic to his experiments.
4. Deviations from Mendel’s Laws
The following contrasting traits were studied by All patterns of inheritance could not be explained on the
Mendel in pea basis of Mendel’s principles which are as follows
Characters Dominant Recessive (i) Incomplete Dominance It is a phenomenon in which
phenotype of the F1 hybrid offspring does not resemble
Stem height Tall Dwarf any of the parent, but is an intermediate between the
Flower position Axial Terminal expression of two alleles in their homozygous state.
Both phenotypic and genotypic ratio is 1 : 2 : 1, e.g.
Pod colour Green Yellow flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa.
Pod shape Inflated Constricted (ii) Codominance It is a phenomenon in which two alleles
express themselves independently when present
Seed shape Round Wrinkled together in an organism, e.g. ABO blood group in
humans.
Flower colour Purple White
(iii) Multiple Alleles More than two alternative forms (allele) of
Seed coat colour Yellow Green a gene occupying the same locus on a chromosome in a
population are known as multiple alleles, e.g. ABO blood
3. Mendel ’s Laws of Inheritance grouping.
On the basis of his observations, Mendel Human Blood Groups, their
proposed three general rules to consolidate his Genotype and Transfusion
understanding of inheritance in monohybrid
Blood Antigen Antibody Can give Can take Genotypes
cross. groups in RBC in plasma blood to blood from
These laws are given below
O None a, b O, A, B, O I° I°
A. Law of Dominance It states following rules (universal AB
l
Characters are controlled by discrete units donor)
ONE DAY REVISION

called factors. A A b A, AB O, A IA I A or IA I°
l
Factors occur in pairs.
B B a B, AB O, B IB IB or IB I°
l
In a pair of dissimilar factors, one member of
the pair is dominant while the other is AB A or B None AB O, A, B, AB IA IB
(universal
recessive. receiver)
B. Law of Segregation It states that the parents
contain two alleles during gamete formation. 5. Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance
The factors or alleles of a pair segregate from It was proposed by Boveri and Sutton in 1902. It is the
each other, such that a gamete receives only fundamental unifying theory of genetics, which identifies
one of the two factors. chromosomes as the carriers of genetic material.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
6. Crossing Over
The exchange of genetic material between non-sister
chromatids of homologous chromosomes is known
as crossing over.
Linkage and Recombination The physical
association of two genes is called linkage while the
generation of non-parental gene combinations is
called recombination.
7. Sex-Determination
The establishment of sex through differential
development in an individual at the time of zygote
formation, is called sex-determination. There are
following types of sex-determination mechanisms
observed in various organisms
Male Heterogamety
l
XX-XY type is seen in insects like Drosophila
melanogaster and humans. Males have XY type
(heteromorphic) chromosomes while females have
XX type (homomorphic) chromosomes.
Female Heterogamety
l
ZZ-ZW type is seen in birds, fowls and fishes. It is
an example of female heterogamety because female
produces two different types of gametes.
l
ZZ-ZO type female is heterogametic (ZO) and male
is homogametic (ZZ), e.g. in butterflies and moths.
Haplo-diploidy is a sex-determination mechanism in
which males develop from unfertilised eggs and are
haploid. Females develop from fertilised eggs and
are diploid. It is common in insects like honeybee,
wasps, etc.
8. Sex-Determination in Human
Males have two types of gametes, i.e. X and Y, while
females have only one type of gamete, i.e. XX. If
an ovum gets fertilised with a sperm carrying
X-chromosome, the zygote develops into a female (XX).
If an ovum fertilises with a sperm carrying
Y-chromosome then it will develop into a male (XY).
Hence, the type of sperm, which fertilises the ovum
determines the sex of a child.
9. Genetic Disorders
The disorders or illness which are caused by one
or more abnormalities in autosomes or sex
chromosomes of a person are called autosomal
11
disorders and sex-linked disorders, respectively. It
can be divided into the following
A. Mendelian Disorders These are determined by
alteration or mutation in a single gene. These
disorders can be recessive or dominant.
Some diseases are described below
(i) Colour Blindness Person suffering from this
disorder is not able to distinguish between red
and green colour. Gene controlling colour
blindness is located on X-chromosome and is
recessive.
(ii) Haemophilia (bleeder's disease) Person
suffering from this disorder is not able to form
blood clots when hurt or wounded. The
continuous bleeding causes death of the
person. This disorder is caused due to X-linked
recessive gene.
(iii) Thalassemia is an autosomal recessive
disease, which occurs due to either mutation or
deletion of genes. It results in reduced rate of
synthesis of one of the globin chains ( α or β) of
haemoglobin.
B. Chromosomal Disorders These are caused by the
absence, excess or abnormal arrangement of one or
more chromosomes. Some of the disorders are
described below
(i) Down’s Syndrome or Mongolism It is caused
by the presence of an extra copy of
chromosome number 21 in autosomes, i.e.
trisomy. An individual suffering from Down's
syndrome is short statured, have furrowed
tongue, slow motor and mental development.
(ii) Turner's Syndrome It is caused by the absence
of one X-chromosome in females. The females
have 45 (44+X) chromosomes. Females are
sterile with less developed uterus, short height
and webbed neck are the symptoms.
(iii) Klinefelter's Syndrome It is due to the presence of
an extra copy of X-chromosome in males like
44+XXY, 44+XXXY, etc. The affected individuals are
phenotypically males. The symptoms include
underdeveloped testes, presence of breast-like
structures, little growth of hairs on face and
body, sterility (no sperm formation), mental
retardation, etc.
ONE DAY REVISION
12
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
1. Nucleic Acids
These are long polymers of nucleotides. Two types of
nucleic acids are found in living systems, i.e. RNA
and DNA.
l
Mendel suggested that there are some factors or
genes which help to maintain the phenotypes and
genotypes of organisms for generation after
generation.
l
It was later established that DNA (Deoxyribonucleic
Acid) is the genetic material in majority of organisms,
while RNA acts as the genetic material in some
viruses, but has additional roles as well. RNA
functions as adapter, structural and in some cases,
as catalytic molecule.
2. DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid)
l
It is a long polymer of deoxyribonucleotides. The
length of DNA is usually defined as number of
nucleotides (or a pair of nucleotide referred to as
base pairs) present in it.
l
For example, a bacteriophage known as φ × 174 has
5386 nucleotides, bacteriophage lambda has 48502
bp, Escherichia coli has 4.6 × 10 6 bp and haploid
content of human DNA is 3.3 × 10 9 bp.
3. Structure of a Polynucleotide Chain
A nucleotide is composed of a nitrogenous base,
pentose sugar and a phosphate group.
(i) A nitrogenous base It is the nitrogen containing
organic molecule having similar physical properties
of a base.
l
There are two types of nitrogenous bases
n
Purines Adenine and Guanine.
n
Pyrimidines Cytosine, Uracil and Thymine.
l
Thymine is present in DNA, while uracil is present
in RNA in place of thymine (5-methyl uracil,
another name for thymine).
(ii) A pentose sugar Two types of sugars are present
l
Ribose (in case of RNA)
l
Deoxyribose (in case of DNA)
(iii) A phosphate group It is in the form of H 3PO 4 . 7. Search for Genetic Material
l
Nucleoside A nucleoside is formed when a
ONE DAY REVISION
nitrogenous base is linked to a pentose sugar
through N-glycosidic linkage.
l
Nucleotides are the phosphoric esters of
nucleosides.
n
Nucleotides are joined by 3′−5′
phosphodiester bonds to form a dinucleotide.
n
Alternate deoxyribose and phosphate residues
join to form the polynucleotide chain.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
4. Double Helix Structure of DNA
l
DNA is made up of two polynucleotide chains, where
the backbone is constituted by sugar, phosphate and
the bases project inside.
l
The two chains have antiparallel polarity, i.e. 5′→ 3′
for one, 3′→ 5′ for another.
l
The bases in two strands are paired through
hydrogen bond (H—bonds) forming base pairs (bp).
Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine and
vice-versa. Guanine bonds with cytosine by three
H—bonds and vice-versa. Thus, a purine always
comes opposite to a pyrimidine forming a uniform
distance between the two strands.
5. Central Dogma
In 1957, Francis Crick proposed the central dogma
in molecular biology. According to this, the genetic
information flows from DNA → RNA → Protein.
DNA Transcription Translation
replication DNA mRNA Protein
The flow of information can be in reverse direction
also, i.e. from RNA to DNA in some viruses, such as
TMV.
6. Packaging of DNA Helix
l
In prokaryotes, such as E. coli, the DNA is not
scattered throughout the cell even though they do not
have a defined nucleus. DNA (being negatively
charged) is held with some proteins (that are
positively charged) in a region termed as nucleoid.
The DNA in nucleoid is organised in large loops held
by proteins.
l
In eukaryotic cells, there is a set of positively
charged proteins called histones. Histones are rich
in basic amino acid residuces lysine and arginine.
These are organised to form a unit of eight molecules
called histone octamer.
l
The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the
positively charged histone octamer to form a
structure called nucleosome. A typical nucleosome
contains 200 bp of DNA helix.
Frederick Griffith, carried out a series of experiments
l
with Streptococcus pneumoniae and discovered the
genetic material as the transforming principle.
Avery, MacLeod and McCarty worked to determine
l
the biochemical nature of Griffith’s transforming
principle. They proved that DNA is the hereditary
material.
Hershey-Chase experiment with bacteriophage
l
proved that DNA is the genetic material
that is passed from one generation to the next.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
8. RNA World
l
Ribonucleic Acid (RNA) is said to be the first genetic
material.
l
There are following three types of RNA, i.e. messenger
RNA ( mRNA), which provides the template for
transcription, transfer RNA (tRNA) which brings amino
acids and reads the genetic code and ribosomal RNA
( rRNA), which plays structural and catalytic role during Post Transcriptional Modifications
translation.
Differences between DNA and RNA
DNA RNA
It is double-stranded with It is generally
exception of some viruses. single-stranded.
It is the genetic material in It is the genetic material
all living organisms. in some viruses only.
The sugar is deoxyribose. The sugar is ribose.
11. Genetic Code
Nitrogenous bases Nitrogenous bases
present are adenine, present are
guanine, thymine and adenine, guanine,
cytosine. cytosine and uracil.
9. Replication of DNA
The DNA replicates semiconservatively. According to
this scheme, the two strands of double-helix would
separate and act as a template for the synthesis of
new complementary strands. The process is guided by
complementary H-bonding. The process is catalysed
by various sets of enzymes which are as follows
(i) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase, uses DNA
template to catalyse the polymerisation of
deoxynucleotides.
(ii) DNA helicase, unwinds DNA strand for the formation
of a replication fork.
(iii) DNA ligase, facilitates the joining of DNA strands
together by catalysing the formation of
phosphodiester bond.
On 3′ → 5′ strand, replication is continuous and on
5′ → 3′ strand, it is discontinuous. DNA replication
12. Translation
begins at a specific and fixed position of DNA
molecule known as origin of replication.
10. Transcription in Eukaryotes and
Prokaryotes
Transcription is the process of copying genetic
information from one strand of the DNA into RNA. In
this, only a segment of DNA or only one out of the two
strands is copied into RNA.
(i) In prokaryotes, like bacteria, the transcribed mRNA
is functional, so it can be directly translated.
13
(ii) In eukaryotes, the genes are split. The coding
sequences, i.e. exons are interrupted by
non-coding sequences, i.e. introns. Introns are
removed and exons are joined together to produce
functional RNA. This is called splicing. A
transcription unit in DNA has three regions, i.e. a
promoter, the structural gene and a terminator.
Heteronuclear RNA (hnRNA) The hnRNA
undergoes two additional processes
(i) Capping, where methyl guanosine
triphosphate, is added to the 5′ end of
hnRNA.
(ii) Tailing, where adenylate residues (200-300)
are added at 3′ end in a template
independent manner.
It is the relationship between the sequence of
nucleotides on mRNA and the sequence of amino
acids in the polypeptide.
(i) Artificial Synthesis of Genetic Code Dr. Har
Gobind Khorana, developed a chemical method
for the synthesis of RNA molecule with defined
base combination to develop a genetic code.
(ii) Important Features of Genetic Code It has
following features
l
Genetic code is unambiguous and specific, i.e.
one codon codes for only one amino acid.
l
Codon is triplet and degenerate.
l
The genetic code is universal, i.e. one codon
codes for the same amino acid in all organisms.
l
AUG codon has dual function, i.e. it codes for
the amino acid methionine (met) and also acts
as an initiation codon.
l
Three codons do not code for any amino acid,
hence they function as stop codon, e.g. UAA,
UGA, UAG.
The process of polymerisation of amino acids to
form a polypeptide is known as translation. In this
process, proteins are synthesised from mRNA with
the help of ribosomes.
(i) Ribosome exists as two subunits in inactive state,
ONE DAY REVISION
i.e. small subunit and large subunit.
(ii) Different phases of translation are
l
Initiation of polypeptide synthesis
l
Elongation of polypeptide chain
l
Termination of polypeptide synthesis
14 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

13. Gene Expression in Prokaryotes The operon is regulated by the amount of lactose in the
and Eukaryotes medium, where the bacteria are grown. Therefore, this
l
Gene expression results in the formation of a regulation can also be viewed as regulation of enzyme
polypeptide. synthesis by its substrate.
l
Regulation of gene expression occurs at various 14. Human Genome Project
levels. It was a mega project of 13 years. It was aimed to
(i) In prokaryotes, it is regulated by the rate sequence every base in human genome. This project has
of initiation of transcription. yielded a lot of new information. Many new areas and
(ii) In eukaryotes, regulation is achieved at the avenues have opened up as a consequence of this
following four levels project.
l
Transcriptional level (formation of primary
15. DNA Fingerprinting
transcript). It is a technique used to find out variations in individuals
l
Processing level (regulation of splicing). of a population at DNA level. It works on the principle of
l
Transport of mRNA from nucleus to the polymorphism in DNA sequences.
cytoplasm. It has immense applications in the field of forensic
l
Translational level. science, genetic biodiversity, evolutionary biology and
l
Operon is a transcriptionally regulated system, kinship relationships.
where a polycistronic structural gene is regulated The technique has the following steps
by a common promoter and regulatory genes, (i) DNA isolation
e.g. lac (lactose) operon, ara (arabinose) operon,
(ii) Amplification
his (histidine) operon, val (valine) operon, etc.
Lac operon was proposed by Francois Jacob (iii) Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis
and Jacque Monod. (iv) Blotting (transfer of the separated DNA fragments to
l
Lac operon is the prototype (inducible) operon in synthetic membranes like nylon or nitrocellulose)
bacteria, which codes for genes responsible for (v) Hybridisation
the metabolism of lactose. (vi) Autoradiography
ONE DAY REVISION
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 17

THE
QUALIFIERS
Chapterwise Set of MCQs to Check Preparation
Level of Each Chapter

1. Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Direction (Q. Nos. 1-15) Each of the question has four options out of which only one is correct.
Select the correct option as your answer.
1. An angiosperm flower receives many pollens out of which only one, carrying two male
gametes is allowed to enter. What is the function of these male cells in a flower?
(a) Each one fertilises a separate egg cell to give rise to two seeds
(b) One fertilises an egg cell and the other fertilises another cell which gives rise to tissue of
the fruit
(c) Both fertilise a single egg cell
(d) One fertilises an egg cell and other fertilises the cell that forms endosperm

2. The events in pollen-pistil interaction are given below.

I. Pollen grain germinates to form pollen tube.
II. Pollen tube enters the ovule through micropyle.
III. Pollen grain reaches the stigma.
IV. Pollen tube grows through the tissues of stigma and style and reaches the ovary.
The sequential order of their occurrence is
(a) III ® I ® IV ® II
(b) II ® IV ® III ® I
(c) III ® IV ® II ® I
(d) II ® III ® I ® IV

3. Akash, in his experiment, directed a ray of laser light on the pollen grain to observe the
THE QUALIFIERS

results. He concluded that even though the laser beam killed the generative cell of the
pollen, it was still able to germinate and grow a pollen tube. What could be the
possible reason for this?
(a) Laser beam stimulated pollen germination and pollen tube growth
(b) Laser beam activated the region from which pollen tube emerges
(c) Contents of the killed generative cells permitted germination and pollen growth
(d) Vegetative cell was not damaged
18 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

4. How many pollen grains are formed from 5 microspore mother cells, when they
undergo meiosis?
(a) 40 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 30

5. Observe the figure given below and select the label that matches correctly with its
feature or function.
A

C
D

(a) B–Style, connects stigma to ovules

(b) C–Synergids, assist in pollen tube guidance
(c) A–Stigma, landing platform for pollens
(d) D–Ovary, develops into seed

6. Which of the following sets of statements is incorrect with regard to pollination in

flowering plants?
I. Myrmecophily is the pollination of flowers by means of wind.
II. Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed set even in the absence of pollinators.
III. Water lily is an aquatic plant, hence, is water pollinated.
IV. Entomophilous flowers are brightly coloured.
V. Well-exposed stamens, dry and non-sticky pollen grains are characteristic feature
of anemophilous flower.
VI. Recombination is the result of self-pollination.
Codes
(a) I, III and V (b) I, III and VI (c) II, III and VI (d) II, III and V

7. Ritu, in order to achieve successful results for the desired flower, performed a cross
that involved only the desired pollen grains for pollination. However, the recipient
flower was bisexual. So, she decided to remove the anthers of the plant. Which among
the following technique had she applied?
(a) Emasculation (b) Bagging
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Artificial hybridisation

8. Read the following statements and identify the correct option from the ones given
below.
THE QUALIFIERS

I. Angiosperms range in size from microscopic Wolffia to tall trees of Eucalyptus.

II. Flowers are the most remarkable feature which distinguish angiosperms from other
seed plants.
III. Double fertilisation is an event unique to angiosperms.
IV. In angiosperms, each cell of an embryo sac is diploid.
V. In angiosperms, zygote develops into an endosperm.
Codes
(a) I, II and IV (b) I, II and III (c) II, IV and V (d) II, III and V
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 19

9. Identify the different stages of embryogenesis A, B, C and D in the diagram given

below.

C
A B
D

(a) A–Two-celled stage, B–Heart-shaped, C–Globular type, D–Mature embryo

(b) A–Two-celled stage, B–Mature embryo, C–Heart-shaped, D–Globular type
(c) A–Two-celled stage, B–Globular type, C–Heart-shaped, D–Mature embryo
(d) A–Mature embryo, B–Heart-shaped, C–Globular type, D–Two-celled stage

10. Which of the following statements is not true about development of embryo?
(a) In majority of angiosperms, the zygote divides by an asymmetric mitotic division
(b) The smaller daughter cell with dense cytoplasm is situated towards the chalazal pole. It
is called terminal cell
(c) A smaller daughter cell situated towards the micropylar cell is called basal cell
(d) The early stages of embryo development are similar in monocots and dicots

11. If the haploid number in a flowering plant is 14. What shall be the number of
chromosomes in integuments, antipodal cells, embryo, endosperm and nucellus,
respectively?
(a) 14, 28, 7, 42, 21
(b) 7, 14, 42, 28, 14
(c) 28, 14, 28, 42, 28
(d) 42, 28, 14, 28, 14

12. Albuminous seeds store their reserve food in

(a) perisperm (b) cotyledons
(c) endosperm (d) hypocotyl
Direction Q Nos. 13-15 consist of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions by selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

13. Assertion (A) Self-pollination helps to purify of races, wastage of pollen is avoided and
THE QUALIFIERS

pollination is sure.
Reason (R) Cleistogamy favours self-pollination.
14. Assertion (A) Synergids play an important role in directing the pollen tube growth.
Reason (R) They secrete some chemotropically active substance.
20 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

15. Assertion (A) Nuclear endosperm does not involve wall formation after pre-nuclear
division.
Reason (R) Coconut milk is an example of cellular endosperm.

Answers For Detailed Explanations

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c)
Scan the code
6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c)

2. Human Reproduction
1. Given below are the structures of male reproductive system along with their
characteristics and/or functions.
I. Vasa efferentia – arise from rete testis
II. Epididymis–leads to vas deferens
III. Leydig cells–present in the epidermis of testis
IV. Seminiferous tubules – lined by squamous germinal epithelial cells
Choose the option(s) which contain the incorrectly matched pairs.
(a) I and II (b) III and IV (c) II and IV (d) I and III

2. A middle piece of a human sperm shows

(a) centriole and acrosome (b) centriole
(c) mitochondria (d) centriole and mitochondria

3. Identify A, B, C and D hormones in the diagram given below.

Hypothalamus
Inhibit GnRH and LH production

GnRH

Anterior lobe of
pituitary gland
A B

Leydig Sertoli
Testis
cells cells

C Stimulates D
spermatogenesis
Reproductive tract
and other organs
THE QUALIFIERS

(a) A–Inhibin, B–FSH, C–Testosterone, D–LH

(b) A–Testosterone, B–Inhibin, C–LH, D–FSH
(c) A–FSH, B–LH, C–Inhibin, D–Testosterone
(d) A–LH, B–FSH, C–Testosterone, D–Inhibin

4. Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine gland after ovulation?

(a) Graafian follicle (b) Stroma
(c) Germinal epithelium (d) Vitelline membrane
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 21

5. Consider the following statements regarding menstrual cycle.

I. Follicular phase is also known as proliferative phase.
II. Cyclic rise and fall of follicle stimulating hormone prompts the production and
growth of oocytes.
III. Luteal phase corresponds to secretory phase of the uterine cycle.
IV. Menstruation is initiated each month by falling level of oestrogen and
progesterone.
Which among the following sets of statements is/are correct?
(a) I and III (b) I, II and III
(c) II and IV (d) I, II, III and IV

6. Observe the given graph carefully related to menstrual cycle in females and choose the
correct option.
Ovulation
Uterine events hormone levels
Ovarian

Menses

Days 1 3 5 7 9 11 13 15 17 19 21 23 25 27 29/1

(a) X is FSH. It induces regeneration of endometrium

(b) Y is progesterone. It maintains the endometrium lining of uterus for implantation during
16-25 days of the cycle
(c) X is oestrogen. It is secreted by corpus luteum
(d) Y is progesterone. It is secreted by follicles

7. Medical reports of a teen-age girl suggested that the girl lacked the capacity to ovulate
at regular monthly intervals due to underlying health issues.
Which hormone(s) in the form of pills or injections should be given to the girl so that
she could ovulate every month?
(a) Relaxin
(b) Progesterone
(c) LH
(d) Both (a) and (c)

8. Ovulation in a normal human female takes place during which time of the menstrual
cycle?
(a) At the mid secretory phase
THE QUALIFIERS

(b) Just before the end of secretory phase

(c) At the onset of proliferative phase
(d) At the end of proliferative phase
22 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

9. Identify A, B, C and D in the figure given below.

A

OVUM
B

(a) A–Cytoplasm, B–Zona pellucida, C–Cells of corona radiata, D–Plasma membrane

(b) A–Cells of corona radiata, B–Cortical granules, C–Zona pellucida, D–Perivitelline space
(c) A–Zona pellucida, B–Cytoplasm, C–Cell of corona radiata, D–Perivitelline space
(d) A–Cytoplasm, B–Cortical granules, C–Zona pellucida, D–Cell of corona radiata

10. Identify the correct statement(s) with respect to hormones and their role during
pregnancy.
(a) hCG, hPL and relaxin are produced in women only during the time of pregnancy
(b) During pregnancy, the level of hormones like oestrogens, progestogens, prolactin,
thyroxine, etc., increases to several folds in maternal blood
(c) Increased production of hCG, hPL, etc., is necessary to support foetal growth and
support pregnancy
(d) All of the above

11. A 9 month pregnant lady was unable to give birth to her child due to lack of uterine
contractions which lead to parturition.
Which hormone should be given to her in order to induce uterine contractions so that
she can give birth?
(a) FSH (b) LH (c) Oxytocin (d) TSH

12. Given below are statements with respect to parturition.

I. Parturition is divided into three stages.
II. Signals of parturition originate from a fully developed foetus and placenta.
III. First stage of parturition lasts for about 6 hours.
IV. Foetus settles in head up position in the pelvic cavity before parturition.
Which among the following sets of statements is/are wrong?
(a) I and III (b) III and IV (c) II and IV (d) II and III
Direction Q Nos. 13-15 consist of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions by selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
THE QUALIFIERS

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

13. Assertion (A) Semen is a collective product of the testes, seminal vesicles and prostate
gland.
Reason (R) Cowper’s glands, seminal vesicles and prostate gland constitute the
accessory reproductive gland.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 23

14. Assertion (A) In testis, spermatogenesis occurs in the seminiferous tubules and
testosterone is secreted by interstitial cells.
Reason (R) Testosterone promotes growth and maturation of primary sex organs but
has no role in accessory sex characters.
15. Assertion (A) One polar body is released by the oocyte when sperm penetrates it.
Reason (R) When the oocyte is in Fallopian tube, it is in second metaphase stage.

Answers
For Detailed Explanations
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d)
6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (d)
Scan the code
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a)

3. Reproductive Health
1. Which technique(s) is/are used for the detection of foetal disorder
(a) Amniocentesis
(b) Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS)
(c ) Foetoscopy
(d) All of the above

2. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by females. Read the statements given
below with respect to diaphragms and choose the correct statements.
I. They act as physical barriers to the sperm entry.
II. They even prevent the spread of STIs.
III. They are placed to cover the cervical region.
IV. They act as spermicidal agents.
V. Their use is associated with an increased urinary tract infection.
Codes
(a) I, II, III and IV (b) II, III, IV and V
(c) II, IV and V (d) I, III and V

3. Observe the diagram given below and identify it. Also identify which of the following
options correctly matches with feature/use against it.

A
THE QUALIFIERS

(a) A–Male condom, it shields the user from sexually transmitted infections
(b) A–Female condom, it is kept in place after insertion with the help of ring(s)
(c) A–Female condom, it opens from both ends
(d) A–Female condom, it is more effective and user friendly than male condom
24 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

4. Observe the diagrams A and B given below and identify the option that correctly
match their features with their respective.

A B

Diagrams Side effects

(a) A–Copper-T Signs of pregnancy
B–Condom Foul vaginal discharge
(b) A–Copper-T Headache, nausea
B–Implants Abdominal pain
(c) A–Implants Headache, ovarian cyst
B–Copper-T Unexplained fever, heavy blood flow
(d) A–Implants Headache
B–Copper-T Ovarian cyst

5. Following the rules desinged for the control of population, a woman who wants to
delay pregnancy or space her children should use
(a) tubectomy (b) IUDs (c) vaults (d) vasectomy

6. Which one of the following is not a method of contraception?

(a) Condoms
(b) Pills of combination of oxytocin and vasopressin
(c) Lippes loop
(d) Tubectomy

7. Following statements are given with regard to MTP. Choose the option which is true
for MTP.
I. Voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term.
II. MTPs are considered safe upto 24 weeks of pregnancy.
III. MTPs become necessary in special cases.
IV. MTPs are always surgically performed.
V. MTPs can also be used as contraceptive method.
VI. MTPs require the assistance of a qualified medical personnel.
Codes
(a) I, III and VI (b) II, III and IV
THE QUALIFIERS

(c) I, II and III (d) I, III and V

8. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding Sexually Transmitted Diseases

(STDs)?
(a) These can be passed from one generation to another
(b) Most of the STDs, majorly affect the males
(c) They do not always cause symptoms and are diagnosed by either physical examination
in blood tests
(d) Diseases or infections include, genital herpes, hepatitis-B, HIV, etc
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 25

9. STDs can be caused by bacteria, viruses and parasites leading to

I. Minor complications like itching, fluid discharge, swelling and slight pain.
II. Major complications like pelvic inflammatory diseases.
III. Problems like infertility and abortions.
IV. Cancer of the reproductive tract.
V. Painful or frequent urination.
Choose the correct option.
(a) I, II and V
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II, III and IV
(d) I, II, III, IV and V

10. Which of the following is associated with GIFT?

(a) Transfer of fertilised embryo into Fallopian tube
(b) Fertilised egg is transferred in the uterus
(c) Ovum and sperm are transferred into uterus of the recipient
(d) It is an infertility treatment

11. Choose the correctly matched statements from the following.

I. IUT–Embryo is transferred to uterus after in vitro fertilisation.
II. GIFT–Gametes are collected and injected in the Fallopian tube.
III. AI–Taking semen from donor and transferring it to female genital tract.
IV. ZIFT–Zygote inserted into Fallopian tube.
Codes
(a) I, II and III
(b) II, III and IV
(c) III, IV and V
(d) I, II, III and IV

12. A childless couple underwent a treatment at the IVF centre. Concludingly, the embryo
at the 8 blastomeres stage was transferred inside the female body.
Which techinque would have been used in this case?
(a) GIFT (b) ZIFT
(c) MTP (d) IUT
Direction Q Nos. 13-15 consist of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions by selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
THE QUALIFIERS

(d) A is false, but R is true

13. Assertion (A) Reproductive and Child Healthcare Programmes belong to areas related
to reproduction.
Reason (R) Such programmes create awareness about various reproduction related
aspects.
14. Assertion (A) Surgical methods prevent conception.
Reason (R) They block gamete transport.
26 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

15. Assertion (A) In test tube baby programme, ova from wife/donor (female) and sperms
from the husband/donor (male) are collected and induced to form zygote under
stimulated conditions in the laboratory.
Reason (R) It is one of the special techniques which assist infertile couples to have
children.

Answers
For Detailed Explanations
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b)
6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (d)
Scan the code
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (b)

4. Principles of Inheritance and Variation

1. Consider the following statements and select the statements which are correct with
respect to the reasons as to why Mendel’s work remains unrecognised for a long time.
I. Communication was not easy.
II. Concept of factors which did not blend was not accepted.
III. Use of mathematics to explain biological problems was unacceptable.
IV. He could not provide any physical proof for the existence of factors.
Codes
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV

2. Observe and read the table given below of contrasting traits in pea plants as studied by
Mendel.

Characters Dominant traits Recessive traits

I. Seed colour
Yellow Green

II. Flower
colour

Violet White

III. Pod shape

Full Constricted

IV. Flower
THE QUALIFIERS

position

Axial Terminal

Which of the given traits are placed correctly according to Mendel’s experiment?
(a) I, II and III (b) I, II, III and IV
(c) II and III (d) II, III and IV
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 27

3. Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Expressivity of a gene is defined as the ability to express itself uniformly in all the
individuals with same genotype.
II. When one gene masks, inhibits or suppresses the expression of other, the
phenomenon is called epistasis.
III. Gene penetrance is the ability of gene to express itself in an individual that carries
it.
IV. Inhibiting genes interact in such a way that one gene produces its effect
irrespective of the presence or absence of other gene.
Codes
(a) I, II and III (b) II and IV
(c) III and IV (d) II and III
4. If a cross is made between AA and aa, the nature of F1 progeny will be
(a) genotypically AA, phenotypically a
(b) genotypically Aa, phenotypically a
(c) genotypically Aa, phenotypically A
(d) genotypically aa, phenotypically A

5. A scientist while performing an experiment on a certain plant found that red fruit (R) is
dominant over yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over shortness (t). Now, if
he crosses a plant with RRTt genotype with a plant, with rrtt genotype, what
percentage of tall plant with red fruits he find in progeny?
(a) 50% (b) 100% (c) 75% (d) 25%

6. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Genes and chromosomes occur in pairs
(b) Chromosome segregates at the time of gamete formation
(c) Only one of each pair of gene is transmitted to a gamete
(d) All of the above

7. Distance between the genes and percentage of recombination shows

(a) a direct relationship (b) an inverse relationship
(c) a parallel relationship (d) no relationship

8. The following statements are regarding sex-determination. Choose the incorrect one.
(a) There are two types of sex-determining mechanism
(b) In male heterogamety, male has autosomes and sex chromosome XY
(c) In female heterogamety, it has autosomes and one Z and one W-chromosome
(d) Female heterogamety is found in mammals

9. If Mohan have 6 girls, the percentage of probability of 7th child being a girl is
(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 100%
THE QUALIFIERS

10. In haplodiploidy determination, the male sex is

(a) haploid (b) diploid
(c) haplodiploid (d) diplohaploid

11. A hereditary disease which is never passed on from father to son is

(a) autosomal linked disease (b) X-chromosomal linked disease
(c) Y-chromosomal linked disease (d) None of these
28 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

12. If a colourblind man marries a woman who is homozygous for normal colour vision,
the probability of their son being colourblind is
(a) 0 (b) 0.5
(c) 0.75 (d) 1
Direction Q Nos. 13-15 consist of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions by selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

13. Assertion (A) The law of independent assortment can be studied by means of dihybrid
cross.
Reason (R) A dihybrid cross is a cross between heterozygous individuals at two
different loci.
14. Assertion (A) In a dihybrid cross, the two pairs of factors are located in two pairs of
homologous chromosomes.
Reason (R) Each chromosome bears two pairs of factors.
15. Assertion (A) Appearance of pink coloured flowers in F2 -generation of Mirabilis jalapa
is seen.
Reason (R) It is due to epistatic suppression of white colour alleles by red colour
alleles.

Answers
For Detailed Explanations
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a)
6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a)
Scan the code
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (c)

5. Molecular Basis of Inheritance

1. Scientist while working with sea urchin, extracted its DNA, which is double-stranded
showing 17% of the bases to be cytosine.
Now, the percentage of other three bases in this DNA are
(a) G–34%, A–24.5%, T–24.5% (b) G–17%, A–16.5%, T–32%
(c) G–17%, A–33%, T–33% (d) G–8.5%, A–50%, T–24.5%

2. A molecule to act as a genetic material has the following properties

THE QUALIFIERS

I. should be able to replicate.

II. should be structurally more stable.
III. should be more reactive and labile.
IV. should provide scope for slow changes.
Choose the correct option.
(a) I, II and III are correct (b) III alone is correct
(c) III and IV are correct (d) I, II and IV are correct
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 29

3. Lets assume that the occurrence of nitrogen bases in adjacent position in a DNA strand
is random.
Identify the minimum number of nucleotides in a DNA strand where GAAT can occur
once on the basis of probability.
(a) 512 (b) 256
(c) 1024 (d) 4096

4. Removal of introns and joining the exon in a defined order in a transcription unit is
called
(a) tailing (b) transformation
(c) capping (d) splicing

5. Consider the following statements.

I. Six codons do not code for any amino acid.
II. Codon is read in mRNA in a continuous fashion.
III. Three codons function as stop codons.
IV. The initiator codon AUG codes for methionine.
Choose the option containing incorrect statement(s).
(a) I, II and IV (b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV (d) Only I

6. Khorana and his colleague synthesised RNA molecules with repeating sequence of UG
nitrogenous bases (UGUGUGUGUGUG). It produced a tetrapeptide with alternating
sequence of cysteine and valine. It proves that the codons for cysteine and valine is
(a) UGG and GUU (b) UUG and GGU
(c) UGU and GUG (d) GUG and UGU

7. Which of the following sets of options is used in translation?

(a) hnRNA, tRNA, rRNA
(b) mRNA, tRNA, rRNA
(c) mRNA, tRNA, hnRNA
(d) hnRNA, rRNA, tRNA

8. During translation, the activation of amino acids

I. takes place through their carboxyl groups.
II. continues until a termination codon reaches the ribosome.
III. is catalysed by its own activating enzyme called aminoacyl tRNA synthetase.
IV. involves movement of second amino acid tRNA complex from A-site to P-site.
Codes
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) I and III (d) II and IV
THE QUALIFIERS

9. Similarity between hairpin model and Clover leaf model of tRNA is that
(a) Both models show three arms
(b) Both models show presence of variable arm or lump
(c) Both models show CCA nucleotide at 3 ¢ acceptor end
(d) None of the above
30 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

10. In the following diagrams of protein synthesis, name the stages (A-D).
Amino end of A
growing Aminoacyl tRNA
polypeptide

5′ end of
mRNA Large subunit of ribosome
5′ 3′
A-site
Small subunit
of ribosome

E-site D
Free polypeptide

Release factor

P-site
Termination codon

(a) A–Codon recognition, B–Peptide bond formation, C–Translocation, D–Termination

(b) A–Peptide bond formation, B–Translocation, C–Peptide chain elongation, D–Termination
(c) A–Codon recognition, B–Translocation, C–Peptide bond formation, D–Termination
(d) A–Peptide bond formation, B–Peptide chain elongation, C–Translocation, D–Termination

11. You have created a fusion between trp operon and lac operon which encodes the
enzymes for tryptophan biosynthesis, under the regulatory control of the lac operator.
Under which of the following conditions will tryptophan synthase be induced in the
strain that carries the chimeric operator fused operons?
(a) Only when both lactose and glucose are absent
(b) Only when both lactose and glucose are present
THE QUALIFIERS

(c) Only when lactose is absent and glucose is present

(d) Only when lactose is present and glucose is absent

12. Given below is a list of few processes. Choose the correct site of occurrence of the
processes.
I. Transcription (eukaryotic) II. Transcription (prokaryotic)
III. Replication (eukaryotic) IV. Translation (prokaryotic)
V. Translation (eukaryotic)
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 31

Codes
(a) I–Nucleus, II–Cytoplasm, III–Nucleus, IV–Cytoplasm, V–Cytoplasm
(b) I–Nucleus, II–Nucleus, III– Cytoplasm, IV–Cytoplasm, V–Cytoplasm
(c) I–Cytoplasm, II–Cytoplasm, III–Nucleus, IV–Cytoplasm, V–Nucleus
(d) I–Nucleus, II–Cytoplasm, III–Nucleus, IV–Cytoplasm, V–Cytoplasm
Direction Q Nos. 13-15 consist of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions by selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

13. Assertion (A) The uptake of DNA during transformation is an active process.
Reason (R) Transformation occurs only in those bacteria which have enzymatic
machinery involved in active uptake and recombination.
14. Assertion (A) Polycistronic mRNA is capable of forming a number of different
polypeptide chains.
Reason (R) It has terminator codons.
15. Assertion (A) Replication and transcription occur in the nucleus, but translation takes
place in the cytoplasm of eukaryotes.
Reason (R) In eukaryotes, mRNA is transferred from the nucleus into cytoplasm
where ribosomes and amino acids are available for protein synthesis.

Answers
For Detailed Explanations
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (d)
6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a)
Scan the code
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (a)

THE QUALIFIERS
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 35

Latest CBSE
SAMPLE PAPER
The Latest Sample Question Paper for Class XII
Term I Exam Issued by CBSE

Biology Class 12 (Term I)

General Instructions
1. The question paper contains three sections.
(a) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(b) Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(c) Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
2. Each question carries 0.70 mark.
3. There is NO negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 35 Time : 90 Minutes

Section A
(Section-A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted
20 questions would be evaluated.)

1. The structure of bilobed anther consists of

(a) 2 thecae, 2 sporangia (b) 4 thecae, 4 sporangia
(c) 4 thecae, 2 sporangia (d) 2 thecae, 4 sporangia

2. In the figure of anatropous ovule given below, choose the correct option for the
characteristic distribution of cells within the typical embryo sac.
Hilum
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Funicle
Micropyle
Micropylar pole
Outer integument
Inner integument
Nucellus
Embryo sac

Chalazal pole

Number of cells at Number of cells Number of nuclei left

chalazal end at micropylar end in central cell
(a) 3 2 3
(b) 3 3 2
(c) 2 3 3
(d) 2 2 4
 36 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

3. The coconut water from tender coconut is

(a) cellular endosperm
(b) free nuclear endosperm
(c) Both cellular and nuclear endosperms
(d) free nuclear embryo

4. Pollen grains are well-preserved as fossils because of the presence of

(a) sporopollenin
(b) cellulose
(c) lignocellulose
(d) pectocellulose

5. Which of the following statements are true related to seed X and Y ?

Seed X Seed Y
(i) Seed X is dicot and endospermic or albuminous.
(ii) Seed X is dicot and non-endospermic or non-albuminous.
(iii) Seed Y is monocot and endospermic or albuminous.
(iv) Seed Y is monocot and non-endospermic or non-albuminous.
Choose the correct option with respect to the nature of the seed.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)

6. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to hormones secreted by
placenta?
(i) Placenta secretes relaxin during later stage of pregnancy.
(ii) Placenta secretes high amount of FSH during pregnancy.
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(iii) Placenta secretes relaxin during initial stage of pregnancy.

(iv) Placenta secretes hCG and hPL during pregnancy.
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 37

7. Figure A shows the front view of the human female reproductive system and figure B
shows the development of a fertilised human egg cell.
X
Figure A

Figure B Inner cell

mass
Sperm Trophectoderm

Unfertilised Fertilised Morula Blastocyst

egg oocyte egg zygote (3-4 days) (5 days)

Identify the correct stage of development of human embryo (Figure B) that takes
place at the site X, Y and Z, respectively in the human female reproductive system
(Figure A).
Choose the correct option from the table below.
X Y Z
(a) Morula Fertilised egg Blastocyst
(b) Unfertilised egg Fertilised egg Morula
(c) Blastocyst Fertilised egg Unfertilised egg
(d) Fertilised egg Morula Blastocyst

8. Penetration of the sperm in the ovum is followed by

(a) formation of first polar body
(b) completion of meiosis-II
(c) first meiosis
(d) dissolution of zona pellucida
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9. The correct sequence of hormone secretion from beginning of menstruation is

(a) FSH, progesterone, oestrogen
(b) Oestrogen, FSH, progesterone
(c) FSH, oestrogen, progesterone
(d) Oestrogen, progesterone, FSH
 38 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

10. In the dioecious aquatic plant shown, identify the characteristics of the male flowers
that reach the female flowers for pollination.
Male flower Pistillate flowers

Water level

Staminate
flowers

Sizes of Colours of Characteristic features

the flower the flower of pollen grain
(a) Small Brightly coloured Light weight and non-sticky
(b) Large Colourless Large and sticky
(c) Small White Small, covered with mucilage
(d) Large Colourless Non-sticky

11. The thalamus contributes to the fruit formation in

(a) banana (b) orange
(c) strawberry (d) guava
12. How many types of gametes would be produced if the genotype of a parent is
AaBB?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4

13. Which of the following statements indicates parallelism in genes and

chromosomes?
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(i) They occur in pairs.

(ii) They segregate during gamete formation.
(iii) They show linkage.
(iv) Independent pairs segregate independently.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)

14. Which of the following amino acid substitution is responsible for causing
sickle-cell anaemia?
(a) Valine is substituted by glutamic acid in the a-globin chain at the sixth position
(b) Valine is substituted by glutamic acid in the b-globin chain at seventh position
(c) Glutamic acid is substituted by valine in the a-globin chain at the sixth position
(d) Glutamic acid is substituted by valine in the b-globin chain at the sixth position
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 39

15. In human beings, where genotype AABBCC represents dark skin colour, aabbcc
represents light skin colour and AaBbCc represents intermediate skin colour; the
pattern of genetic inheritance can be termed as
(a) pleiotropy and codominance
(b) pleiotropy and incomplete dominance
(c) polygenic and qualitative inheritance
(d) polygenic and quantitative inheritance

16. Which of the following combination of chromosome numbers represents the correct
sex-determination pattern in honeybees?
(a) Male 32, Female 16 (b) Male 16, Female 32
(c) Male 31, Female 32 (d) Female 32, Male 31

17. Rajesh and Mahesh have defective haemoglobin due to genetic disorders. Rajesh has
too few globin molecules while Mahesh has incorrectly functioning globin molecules.
Identify the disorder they are suffering from.
Rajesh Mahesh
(a) Sickle-cell anaemia–an Thalassemia – an autosome
autosome linked recessive trait linked dominant trait
(b) Thalassemia–an autosome Sickle-cell anaemia – an
linked recessive blood disorder autosome linked recessive trait
(c) Sickle-cell anaemia – an Thalassemia – an autosome
autosome linked recessive trait linked recessive blood disorder
(d) Thalassemia – an autosome Sickle-cell anaemia
linked recessive blood disorder – an autosome linked dominant
trait

18. Which of the following criteria must a molecule fulfil to act as a genetic material?
(i) It should not be able to generate its replica.
(ii) It should chemically and structurally be stable.
(iii) It should not allow slow mutation.
(iv) It should be able to express itself in the form of Mendelian characters.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
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19. The promoter site and the terminator site for transcription are located at
(a) 3’ (downstream) end and 5’ (upstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
(b) 5’ (upstream) end and 3’ (downstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
(c) the 5’ (upstream) end of the transcription unit
(d) the 3’ (downstream) end of the transcription unit

20. Which of the following is correct about mature RNA in eukaryotes?

(a) Exons and introns do not appear in the mature RNA
(b) Exons appear, but introns do not appear in the mature RNA
(c) Introns appear, but exons do not appear in the mature RNA
(d) Both exons and introns appear in the mature RNA
 40 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

21. In E. coli, the lac operon gets switched on when

(a) lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
(b) repressor binds to operator
(c) RNA polymerase binds to the operator
(d) lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase

22. Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty used enzymes to purify
biochemicals such as proteins, DNA and RNA from the heat-killed S cells to see which
ones could transform live R cells into S cells in Griffith’s experiment. They observed
that
(a) Proteases and RNases affected transformation
(b) DNase inhibited transformation
(c) Proteases and lipases affected transformation
(d) RNases inhibited transformation

23. A

B
A U G

AUG on the mRNA will result in the activation of which of the following RNA having
correct combination of amino acids?
Site A Site B
(a) UAC Methionine
(b) Methionine UAC
(c) Methionine AUG
(d) AUG Methionine

24. Short stretches of DNA used to identify complementary sequence in a sample are
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called
(a) probes
(b) markers
(c) VNTRs
(d) primers
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 41

Section B
(Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No. 25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section.
The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated.)
Question Nos. 25 to 28 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

25. Assertion (A) Lactational amenorrhea is the natural method of contraception.

Reason (R) It increases the phagocytosis of sperm.
26. Assertion (A) Saheli, an oral contraceptive for females, contains a steroidal
preparation.
Reason (R) It is ‘once a week’ pill with very few side effects.
27. Assertion (A) Parturition is induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism.
Reason (R) At the end of gestation period, the maternal pituitary releases prolactin
which causes uterine contractions.
28. Assertion (A) When the two genes in a dihybrid cross are situated on the same
chromosome, the proportion of parental gene combinations is much higher than
non-parental type.
Reason (R) Higher parental gene combinations can be attributed to crossing over
between two genes.
29. Concentration of which of the following substances will decrease in the maternal blood
as it flows from embryo to placenta through the umbilical cord?
Placental villi

Cavity of
uterus
Umbilical Yolk sac
cord with Embryo
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its vessels

Plug of mucus
in cervix
The human foetus within the uterus

(i) Oxygen (ii) Amino acids

(iii) Carbon dioxide (iv) Urea
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)

30. In a fertilised ovule, n, 2n and 3n conditions occur respectively in

(a) antipodal, zygote and endosperm
(b) zygote, nucellus and endosperm
(c) endosperm, nucellus and zygote
(d) antipodals, synergids and integuments
 42 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

31. A botanist studying Viola (common pansy) noticed that one of the two flower types
withered and developed no further due to some unfavourable condition, but the other
flower type on the same plant survived and it resulted in an assured seed set. Which of
the following will be correct?
(a) The flower type which survived is cleistogamous and it always exhibits autogamy
(b) The flower type which survived is chasmogamous and it always exhibits geitonogamy
(c) The flower type which survived is cleistogamous and it exhibits both autogamy and
geitonogamy
(d) The flower type which survived is chasmogamous and it never exhibits autogamy

32. During parturition, a pregnant woman is having prolonged labour pains and
childbirth has to be fastened. It is advisable to administer a hormone that can
(a) increase the metabolic rate
(b) release glucose in the blood
(c) stimulate the ovary
(d) activate smooth muscles

33. A female undergoing IVF treatment has blocked Fallopian tubes. The technique by
which the embryo with more than 8 blastomeres will be transferred into the female for
further development is
(a) ZIFT (b) GIFT
(c) IUT (d) AI

34. The mode of action of the copper ions in an IUD is to

(a) increase the movement of sperms
(b) decrease the movement of the sperms
(c) make the uterus unsuitable for implantation
(d) make the cervix hostile to the sperms

35. To produce 400 seeds, the number of meiotic divisions required will be
(a) 400 (b) 200
(c) 500 (d) 800

36. A cross is made between tall pea plants having green pods and dwarf pea plants
having yellow pods. In the F 2 -generation, out of 80 plants, how many are likely to be
tall plants?
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(a) 15 (b) 20
(c) 45 (d) 60

37. In Antirrhinum, RR is phenotypically red flowers, rr is white and Rr is pink. Select the
correct phenotypic ratio in F 1 -generation, when a cross is performed between RR ´ Rr.
(a) 1 red : 1 pink : 1 white (b) 2 pink : 1 white
(c) 2 red : 2 pink (d) All pink

38. What would be the genotype of the parents if the offspring have the phenotypes in 1:1
proportion?
(a) Aa ´ Aa (b) AA ´ AA
(c) Aa ´ AA (d) Aa ´ aa
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 43

39.
I

II

III

What is pattern of inheritance in the above pedigree chart?

(a) Autosomal dominant (b) Autosomal recessive
(c) Sex-linked dominant (d) Sex-linked recessive

40. A couple has two daughters. What is the probability that the third child will also be a
female?
(a) 25% (b) 50%
(c) 75% (d) 100%

41. Genotypic ratio of 1:2:1 is obtained in a cross between

(a) AB ´ AB (b) Ab ´ Ab
(c) Ab ´ ab (d) ab ´ ab

42. Total number of nucleotide sequences of DNA that codes for a hormone is 1530. The
proportion of different bases in the sequence is found to be
Adenine = 34%, Guanine = 19%, Cytosine = 23%, Thymine = 19%.
Applying Chargaff’s rule, what conclusion can be drawn?
(a) It is a double-stranded circular DNA
(b) It is a single-stranded DNA
(c) It is a double-stranded linear DNA
(d) It is a single-stranded DNA coiled on histones

43. A stretch of an euchromatin has 200 nucleosomes. How many bp will there be in the
stretch and what would be the length of the typical euchromatin?
(a) 20,000 bp and 13,000 ´10 -9 m
(b) 10,000 bp and 10,000 ´10 -9 m
(c) 40,000 bp and 13,600 ´10 -9 m
(d) 40,000 bp and 13,900 ´10 -9 m

44. Observe structures A and B given below. Which of the following statements are
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correct?
5′ 5′
HOCH2 O OH HOCH2 O OH
4′ C C 1′ 4′C C 1′
H H H H
H 3′ 2′ H H 3′ 2′ H
C C C C
OH OH OH H
A B
(a) A is having 2¢—OH group which makes it less reactive and structurally stable, whereas
B is having 2¢—H group which makes it more reactive and unstable
(b) A is having 2¢—OH group which makes it more reactive and structurally unstable,
whereas B is having 2¢—H group which makes it less reactive and structurally stable
(c) A and B both have —OH groups which make it more reactive and structurally stable
(d) A and B both are having —OH groups which make it less reactive and structurally
stable
 44 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

45. If Meselson and Stahl’s experiment is continued for sixth generations in bacteria, the
ratio of heavy strands 15 N/ 15 N : hybrid 15
N/ 14 N : light 14
N/ 14 N containing DNA in
the sixth generation would be
(a) 1 : 1 : 1 (b) 0 : 1 : 7
(c) 0 : 1 : 15 (d) 0 : 1 : 31

46. Two important RNA processing events lead to specialised end sequences in most
human mRNAs, …(i)… at the 5 ¢ end and …(ii)… at the 3 ¢ end. At the 5 ¢ end, the most
distinctive specialised end nucleotide, …(iii)… is added and a sequence of about 200
…(iv)… is added to the 3 ¢ end.
(a) (i) initiator codon, (ii) promoter, (iii) terminator codon, (iv) release factors
(b) (i) promoter, (ii) elongation, (iii) regulation, (iv) termination
(c) (i) capping, (ii) polyadenylation, (iii) m G ppp , (iv) poly (A)
(d) (i) repressor, (ii) co-repressor, (iii) operon, (iv) release factors

47. What are minisatellites?

(a) 10-40 bp sized small sequences within the genes
(b) Short coding repetitive region on the eukaryotic genome
(c) Short non-coding repetitive sequence forming large portion of eukaryotic genome
(d) Regions of coding strands of the DNA

48. There was a mixup at the hospital after a fire accident in the nursery division. Which of
these children belong to the parents?
FATHER MOTHER CHILD 1 CHILD 2 CHILD 3 CHILD 4 CHILD 5 CHILD 6

LANE 1 LANE 2 LANE 3 LANE 4 LANE 5 LANE 6 LANE 7 LANE 8

(a) All of the children

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(b) Children 2, 3 and 6

(c) Children 1 and 3
(d) Children 2 and 4
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 45

Section C
(Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q. Nos.49 to 54). Besides this,
6 more questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section.)

The first attempted 10 questions would be evaluated.

Subject-1 Subject-2
Peak Peak B
B
Ovulation A Ovulation
A

hCG

Follicular phase Luteal phase Follicular phase Luteal phase

Cycle start Day 7 Day 14 Day 21 Cycle end Cycle start Day 7 Day 14 Day 21 Cycle end

49. The peak observed in subjects 1 and 2 is due to

(a) oestrogen (b) progesterone
(c) Luteinizing hormone (d) follicle stimulating hormone

50. Subject 2 has higher level of hormone B, which is

(a) oestrogen (b) progesterone
(c) Luteinizing hormone (d) follicle stimulating hormone

51. If the peak of hormone A does not appear in the study for subject 1, which of the
following statement is true?
(a) Peak of hormone B will be observed at a higher point in the graph
(b) Peak of hormone B will be observed at a point lower than what is given in the graph
(c) There will be no observed data for hormone B
(d) The graph for hormone B will be a sharp rise followed by a plateau
52. Which structure in the ovary will remain functional in subject 2?
(a) Corpus luteum (b) Tertiary follicle
(c) Graafian follicle (d) Primary follicle
53. For subject 2, it is observed that the peak for hormone B has reached the plateau stage.
After approximately, how much time will be the curve for hormone B descend?
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(a) 28 days (b) 42 days

(c) 180 days (d) 280 days
54. Which of the following statements is true about the subjects?
(a) Subject 1 is pregnant
(b) Subject 2 is pregnant
(c) Both subjects 1 and 2 are pregnant
(d) Both subjects 1 and 2 are not pregnant
55. The gene that controls the ABO blood group system in human beings has three alleles,
I A , I B and i. A child has blood group O. His father has blood group A and mother has
blood group B. Genotypes of other offsprings can be
(i) I B I B (ii) I A i (iii) I B i (iv) I A I B
(v) ii
(a) i, ii, iii and V (b) ii, iii, iv and v
(c) iii, iv and v (d) i, iii and iv
 46 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

56. Placed below is a karyotype of a human being.

On the basis of the karyotype, which of the following conclusions can be drawn?
(a) Normal human female
(b) Person is suffering from colour blindness
(c ) Affected individual is a female with Down’s syndrome
(d) Affected individual is a female with Turner’s syndrome
57. Given below is a dihybrid cross performed on Drosophila.
Cross A
& %
y w y+ w+
Parental
y w
Yellow, white Wild type

& %
y w y w
F1-generation
y+w+
Wild type Yellow, white
Parental Recombinant
type(98.7%) types (1.3%)
y+ w+ y+ w

Wild type White

y w y w+

Yellow, white Yellow

F2-generation
y+w+ y+ w

y w y w
Wild type White
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y w y w+

y w y w
Yellow, white Yellow

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn on the basis of the cross?
When yellow bodied (y), white eyed (w) Drosophila females were hybridised with
brown bodied (y + ), red eyed males (w + ) and F 1 progenies were intercrossed,
F 2 -generation would have shown the following ratio.
(a) 1 : 2 : 1 because of linkage of genes
(b) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 because of recombination of genes
(c) Deviation from 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio because of segregation of genes
(d) Deviation from 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio because of linkage of genes
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 47

58. Which cellular process is shown below?

5′

(a) DNA replication

(b) Translation - Initiation
(c) Translation - Elongation
(d) Translation - Termination

59. Origin of replication of DNA in E. coli is shown below, identify the labelled parts (i), (ii),
(iii) and (iv).

(i) (ii)

(iv) (iii)
(a) (i) Discontinuous synthesis, (ii) Continuous synthesis, (iii) 3’ end, (iv) 5’ end
(b) (i) Continuous synthesis, (ii) Discontinuous synthesis, (iii) 5’ end, (iv) 3’ end
(c) (i) Discontinuous synthesis, (ii) Continuous synthesis, (iii) 5’ end, (iv) 3’ end
(d) (i) Continuous synthesis, (ii) Discontinuous synthesis, (iii) 3’ end, (iv) 5’ end

60. Transcription unit is represented in the diagram given below.

3¢ 5¢

5¢ 3¢
(i) site DNA helix

(ii) (iii)

Identify site (i), factor (ii) and enzyme (iii) responsible for carrying out the process.
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(a) (i) Promoter site, (ii) Rho factor, (iii) RNA polymerase
(b) (i) Terminator site. (ii) Sigma factor, (iii) RNA polymerase
(c) (i) Promoter site, (ii) Sigma factor, (iii) RNA polymerase
(d) (i) Promoter site, (ii) Sigma factor, (iii) DNA polymerase
 48
Explanations
1. (d) A typical mature anther is a bilobed
structure with each lobe having two thecae
(dithecous). It is a tetragonal structure having
four microsporangia, which are located at the
corners of the two lobes.
2. (b) An anatropous ovule, has one or two
protective envelops called integuments, which
encircle the ovule except at the tip where a
small opening called micropyle is located. The
basal part of an ovule just opposite to
micropyle is called chalaza. There are 3 cells at
the chalazal end, called antipodals,
3 cells are present at the micropylar end and
the central cell is left with 2 nuclei.
3. (b) The coconut at the initial development
stage is called tender coconut. The coconut
water in it represents the free nuclear
endosperm and it surrounded by kernel that
represents cellular endosperm.
4. (a) Pollen grains are well-preserved as fossils
due to the presence of sporopollenin. It makes
up the exine (outer layer) and it is one of the
most resistant organic material as it can
withstand high temperature as well as strong
acids and alkali.
5. (b) Statements (ii) and (iii) are correct as
Seed X is a dicot seed, having two cotyledons.
It is non-albuminous since it has no residual
endosperm as it is completely consumed
during the development of embryo.
Seed Y is a monocot seed, i.e. has one
cotyledon. It retains residual endosperm, thus
called albuminous.
6. (a) Statements (i) and (iv) are correct as
Placenta acts as an endocrine tissue and
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produces several hormones like human
Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG), human
Placental Lactogen (hPL), oestrogens
progesterone and so on. In the later phase of
pregnancy, a hormone called relaxin is also
released by ovary and placenta.
7. (c) In humans, the blastocyst is formed
approximately five days after fertilisation. Its
development and implantation takes place at
site X (uterus). Fertilisation of egg occurs at
site Y (Fallopian tube) and thus fertilised egg is
present at site Y and unfertilised egg is located
at site Z (ovary).
8. (b) When the sperm penetrates into the
secondary oocyte during fertilisation, the
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
second meiosis is completed in the ovum and
it results in the formation of second polar body
and a haploid ovum.
9. (c) Before the start of the menstrual cycle, the
oestrogen and progesterone levels are low.
Low levels of oestrogen and progesterone
signal the pituitary gland to generate FSH.
FSH begins the process of maturing of ovarian
follicles. The follicle produces more oestrogen.
Increased oestrogen levels trigger a sharp rise
in LH from the pituitary gland, causing the
release of egg from the follicle. The ruptured
follicle called the corpus luteum then secretes
more progesterone and oestrogen to prepare
the uterus for pregnancy. If fertilisation of
ovum does not occur, oestrogen and
progesterone levels drop and menstrual cycle
begins.
10. (c) A dioecious plant is an unisexual plant
because it has either male or female flowers.
The characteristics of male flower include
small, white coloured flowers having small,
mucilaginous pollens.
11. (c) Thalamus contributes to the fruit formation
in strawberry. In such plant species, where the
thalamus contributes to fruit formation, the
fruits are termed as false fruits.
12. (b) The number of gametes are calculated by
the formula 2 n , where n = number of
heterozygotes.
In AaBB, n = 1. Thus, 2 1 = 2 .
13. (d) Both genes and chromosomes occur in
pairs. Both genes and chromosomes segregate
at the time of gamete formation and one pair
segregate independently of another pair thus,
showing parallelism.
14. (d) Sickle-cell anaemia is an inherited disorder.
This disease is caused due to genetic mutation
which results in substitution of the glutamic
acid by valine at the sixth position of the beta
(b) globin chain. This causes the production of
abnormal haemoglobin and abnormal RBCs.
The RBCs produced are sickle-shaped. They
get entangled during the blood flow and get
destroyed thus, resulting in anaemia.
15. (d) Controlling of a character by two or more
genes is called multifactor or polygenic and
quantitative inheritance. Inheritance of skin
colour of human beings is a polygenic
quantitative inheritance pattern.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
16. (b) In honeybees, females are diploid having
32 chromosomes and males are haploid
having 16 chromosomes. This is termed as
haplodiploid sex-determination system.
17. (b) Thalassemia is an inherited blood
disorder. It occurs due to the mutation in one
gene encoding for haemoglobin, resulting in
excessive destruction of erythrocytes. This
leads to lack of RBCs or anaemia and it is an
autosomal recessive blood disorder.
Sickle-cell anaemia is also autosomal
recessive trait that affects RBCs and change
its shape. The red blood cells die early and
are also incorrectly functioning due to
impaired shape.
Therefore, Rajesh is suffering from
thalassemia and Mahesh is suffering from
sickle-cell anaemia.
18. (d) Criteria for molecule to act as a genetic
material is as follows
(i) Should be able to generate its replica.
This property can be observed in DNA
and RNA.
(ii) Molecule should be stable and not change
its shape by the influence of any other
physical and chemical changes.
(iii) Molecules should be able to mutate and
change itself and these changes should be
stable and heritable.
(iv) Molecules should be able to express
themselves in the form of Mendelian
characters.
19. (b) The promoter sequence needs to lie in
front of the start site or upstream to it in the
5¢ end and the terminator should lie in the
3¢ end downstream as transcription proceeds
in the 5¢ to 3¢ direction.
20. (b) Eukaryotic transcripts possess extra
segments called introns or intervening or
non-coding sequences. They do not appear in
mature RNA. The coding or functional
sequences are called exons. Splicing is the
process of removing introns and joining
exons to produce functional RNAs.
21. (a) Lactose acts as an inducer which binds to
the repressor and inactivates it. Thus, the
repressor fails to bind to operator region. The
RNA polymerase attaches to the operator and
transcribe lac mRNA. Lac mRNA is
polycistronic and produces all three enzymes,
b-galactosidase, permease and transacetylase.
Hence, the lac operon is switched on.
49
22. (b) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty applied
several techniques to large bacterial cultures in
order to extract and purify the ‘transforming
principle’. These experiments depicted that most
probably DNA was the ‘transforming principle’.
One of the observations leading to this
conclusion was that enzymes that degrade
proteins or RNA has no effect on the
‘transforming principle’. On the other hand,
enzymes degrading DNA (DNase) destroyed the
extract’s transforming capacity.
23. (b) AUG codes methionine and the
complementary codon of AUG will be UAC.
24. (a) Probes are small segments of DNA that
recognise complementary sequences in DNA or
RNA molecules that allow identification and
isolation of these specific sequences from an
organism.
25. (c) A is true, but R is false because
Lactational amenorrhea is based on the principle
that during the period of intense lactation after
parturition, the menstrual cycle or ovulation
does not occur. It does not increase the
phagocytosis of sperm.
26. (d) A is false, but R is true because
‘Saheli’ the new oral contraceptive for the
females contains a non-steroidal preparation
called centchroman. It is ‘once a week pill’ with
very few side effects and high contraceptive
value.
27. (c) A is true, but R is false because
The process of delivery of foetus is called
parturition. It is induced by complex
neuroendocrine mechanism. The signals of
parturition originate from the fully developed
foetus and the placenta which induces mild
uterine contractions called foetal-ejection reflex.
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The reflex triggers the release of oxytocin from
the maternal pituitary which acts on the uterine
muscles and causes stronger uterine contractions
that further stimulates the secretion of oxytocin.
This stimulatory reflex between uterine muscles
contraction and oxytocin secretion continues,
resulting in stronger contractions and eventually
leading into expulsion of baby out of uterus.
28. (c) A is true, but R is false because
When two genes in a dihybrid cross were
situated on the same chromosome, the
proportion of parental gene combinations were
much higher than the non-parental type. This is
due to the physical association or linkage of the
two genes.
 50 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

29. (a) The placenta facilitates the supply of Thus,

oxygen and nutrients including amino acids 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 =16
to the embryo thus, decreasing their (Tall (Tall (Dwarf (Dwarf
concentration in the maternal blood. green) yellow) green) yellow)
CO2 and urea are waste products of foetus
Thus, 12 plants are tall out of 16 in
which are released into the maternal blood,
F2 -generation. Now, if 80 plants are formed in
thus their concentration in maternal blood
F2 -generation, number of tall plant will be
increases.
12
30. (a) In embryo sac, n, 2n and 3n conditions are ´ 80 = 60 plants
16
present, respectively in antipodal, zygote and
endosperm. In the embryo sac, there is a large 37. (c)
RR × Rr
central cell. At the chalazal end, 3 cells are (Red colour) (Pink colour)
present termed as antipodal cells that are
R R R r
haploid (n). Now, when a male gamete (n)
fuses with egg (n) it results in the formation of
diploid zygote (2n). The other male gamete
(n) fuses with secondary nucleus (2n) to form RR Rr RR Rr
triploid endosperm (3n).
31. (a) The flower type which survived is Red Pink Red Pink
cleistogamous. Cleistogamous flowers have 2 Red : 2 Pink
both male and female reproductive whorls 38. (d) When Aa is crossed with aa parents,
and are closed even at maturity. They depict gametes produced are A, a, a, and a. The
self-fertility. Cleistogamy is a type of progeny will consist of Aa, Aa, aa, aa. So, there
self-pollination in which pollens are is 1:1 phenotypic ratio in the progeny.
transferred from the anther to stigma of same
39. (b) The pattern of inheritance shown in the
flower. Hence, they show autogamy.
pedigree chart given in question is autosomal
32. (d) To fastened the childbirth in a woman recessive because in recessive condition, trait
having prolonged labour, hormones (e.g. skips a generation and as the trait is occurring
oxytocin) should be administered to activate in both the sexes, it is autosomal and not
smooth muscles in the uterine wall to sex-linked.
stimulate contractions.
40. (b) Each pregnancy has a 50% chance of
33. (c) When an embryo containing more than resulting in a boy or girl and this does not
8 blastomeres (cells) is transferred into uterus include the possibility or chance of multiples.
of female’s body then, it is referred to as IUT Having two daughters previously will not affect
(Intra Uterine Transfer). the chances of any subsequent pregnancy. Thus,
34. (b) The mode of action of the copper ions in the chance of having a girl remain to be 50%.
an IUD is to suppress the motility (decrease 41. (b) Ab ´ Ab cross will result in a genotypic ratio
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the movement of the sperms) and fertilisation of 1 : 2 : 1.

capacity of sperms.
35. (c) For the production of 400 seeds, we
require 400 eggs and 400 pollens. 400 pollens
will be produced by 100 meiotic divisions and
400 eggs by 400 meiotic divisions. Thus, total
500 (400 + 100) meiotic divisions are required.
36. (d) A cross is made between pure tall pea
plants with green pods (TTGG) to dwarf pea
plants with yellow pods (ttgg). In
F2-generation, if 16 plants are formed then
9 are tall green, 3 are tall yellow, 3 are dwarf
green and 1 is dwarf yellow.
Possibilities of all crosses given in options are as
follows
n AB ´ AB, all progenies will be AB, genotypic
ratio is 1 : 0.
n A cross of two F1 hybrids, heterozygous for a
single trait that displays incomplete
dominance is predicted to give 1 : 2 : 1 ratio.
Thus, Ab ´ Ab progenies show genotypes AA,
Ab, Ab, bb and genotypic ratio is 1 : 2 : 1.
n Ab ´ ab progenies show genotypes Aa, Ab, ab,
bb and genotypic ratio of 1 : 1 : 1 : 1.
n ab ´ ab, all progenies show same genotype ab,
genotypic ratio is 1 : 0.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
42. (b) According to Chargaff’s base pairing rule,
the amount of adenine is always equal to
thymine amount and the amount of guanine
is always equal to cytosine amount.
Also, the ratio of A to T and G to C is always
equal to 1 for double-stranded DNA
molecule. Thus, for the data given in
question, A ¹ T and G ¹ C. Hence, it can be
concluded that it is single-stranded DNA
structure.
43. (c) Nucleosomes are fundamental
organisational units of euchromatin which
appear as ‘beads on strings’ arrangement.
Each bead of nucleosome has 200 bp which is
wound 1. 65 times around histone octamers.
The bead and linker DNA (20-40 bp average
18 bp) leads to next bead and forms the
nucleosome.
Therefore, euchromatin stretch with 200
nucleosomes contain 218 ´ 200 = 43 ,600 bp
DNA on an average with a typical length of
13 ,600 ´ 10 -9m.
44. (b) In structure A, 2 ¢¾ OH group is present
which makes it comparatively more reactive
and structurally unstable whereas structure
B lacks 2 ¢¾ OH group replaced by 2 ¢¾ H
group which makes it more stable and less
reactive.
45. (d) Meselson and Stahl found that DNA of
the first generation was hybrid ( 15Nand 14N ).
It settled in caesium chloride at a higher level
than the fully labelled DNA of parent bacteria
( 15N 15N ).
The second generation after 40 minutes
contained two types of DNA, 50 % light
( 14N 14N ) and 50% hybrid ( 15N 14N ).
Third generation (after 60 minutes),
contained two types of DNA 25% 15 N 14N
(hybrid) and 75% 14N 14N (light) with ratio of
1 : 3.
Fourth generation (after 80 minutes),
contained two types of DNA 12 .5% 15N 14N
(hybrid) and 87.5% 14N 14N (light) with ratio
of 1 : 7.
Fifth generation (after 100 minutes),
contained two types of DNA 6.25% 15N 14N
(hybrid) and 93 .75% 14N 14N (light) with ratio
of 1 : 15.
Sixth generation (after 2 hours), contained
two types of DNA 3.125% 15N 14N (hybrid)
and 96.875% 14N 14N (light) with ratio of 1 : 31.
51
46. (c) Two essential RNA processing events lead to
specialised end sequencing in most human
mRNAs that includes capping (i) at 5¢ end and
polyadenylation (ii) at 3¢ end. During capping,
m
G ppp (iii) is added and a sequence of
approximately 200 poly (A) (iv) is added to 3¢
end.
47. (c) Minisatellites are short non-coding
(10-60 base pairs long) repetitive sequence
throughout the chromosome. These are repeated
typically 5-50 times. A Variable Number
Tandem Repeat (VNTR) is a location in genome
where a short nucleotide sequence is organised
as tandem repeat. These can be found on many
chromosomes especially in minisatellites.
48. (c) The two alleles (paternal and maternal) of a
chromosome also contain different copy number
of VNTR. It is clear from the banding patterns of
DNA that parental DNA matches with child 1
and 3.
49. (c) The secretion of gonadotropins (LH and
FSH) increases gradually during the follicular
phase and stimulates follicular development as
well as oestrogens secretion by growing follicle.
Luteinizing Hormone (LH) attains a peak level
in middle of cycle and reaches its maximum
level due to rapid secretion resulting in LH
surge and inducing rupture of Graafian follicle
and thus, release of ovum.
50. (b) Subject 2 has higher level of hormone B,
which is progesterone because during luteal
phase, remaining parts of Graafian follicle
transforms to corpus luteum which secretes
large amounts of progesterone for endometrium
maintenance.
51. (c) If the peak of hormone A does not appear in
the study for subject 1, no data for hormone B
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will be observed because hormone A (LH)
causes ovulation by rupturing Graafian follicle
and if ovulation does not take place, corpus
luteum is not formed and no hormone B
(Progesterone) is produced.
52. (a) Corpus luteum will remain functional in
subject 2 because during follicular phase,
primary follicles in the ovary have grown to
become tertiary follicle, then Graafian follicle
and finally corpus luteum is generated from
Graafian follicle remains. As the graph for
subject 2 does not show a decline in
progesterone level, it means that corpus luteum
is still functional.
 52
53. (d) For subject 2, the curve for hormone B
should descend in 280 days (around 9 month)
after the foetus is delivered and endometrium
lining is no longer required for foetus
implantation.
54. (b) Subject 2 is pregnant as there is no
descending in it hormone 2 graph, which
means corpus luteum is not degenerated and
the endometrium lining is being sustained for
fertilised egg implantation.
55. (b) If father has blood group ‘A’, mother has
blood group ‘B’ and the child with blood
group ‘O’ appears in progeny, this means that
the parents are heterozygous.
Parents Man × Woman
Genotype A
I i × IBi
Gametes IA i IB
Genotypes of progeny IAIB, IAi IBi, ii
Blood groups AB A B
56. (c) It can be clearly observed in the karyotype
that there is trisomy of chromosome 21 and
affected individual is a female (two
X-chromosomes). Thus, the affected person is
female with Down’s syndrome.
57. (d) In Drosophila, the genes for body and eye
colour are located on X-chromosome. When
two genes in a dihybrid cross are situated on
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CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
the same chromosome, the proportion of
parental gene combination are higher than
non-parental type. This occurs due to physical
association or linkage of two genes while
non-parental gene combinations are formed
due to recombination between genes. Thus,
linkage leads to the deviation from 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
ratio.
58. (c) The given diagram represents elongation
phase of translation. During the elongation
stage, complexes composed of an amino acid
linked to tRNA, sequentially bind to
appropriate codon in mRNA by forming
complementary base pairs with tRNA
anticodon. The ribosomes move from codon to
codon along the mRNA, amino acids are added
one by one, translated into polypeptide
sequences, dictated by DNA and represented
i by mRNA.
59. (d) There are two strands in DNA, leading
O strand and lagging strand. DNA replication
can take place in one direction from 5¢®3¢.
Thus, in leading strand (3¢®5¢), continuous
synthesis (i) occurs and in lagging strand
(5¢®3¢), discontinuous synthesis (ii) takes
place. (iii) represents 3¢ end and (iv) represents
5¢ end.
60. (c) The labels (i), (ii) and (iii) in the given
diagram represents promoter site, sigma factor
and RNA polymerase, respectively.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 55

SAMPLE PAPER 1
BIOLOGY
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class XII (Term I) Examination

General Instructions
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
(a) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(b) Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(c) Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
2. Each question carries 0.70 mark.
3. There is NO negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 35
Roll No. Time allowed : 90 Minutes

Section A
(Section A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted
20 questions would be evaluated).

1. Among the following, which organs of the flower are non-essential?

(a) Sepals and petals (b) Anther and filament
(c) Stigma and filament (d) Petals only

2. Given below is a diagram of castor seeds. Select the incorrect statement regarding the
labelled parts.

Seed coat
Endosperm
Shoot apical
Cotyledon meristem

Hypocotyl Root tip

(a) Seed coat protects the seed from physical, temperature or water damage
(b) Endosperm provides nourishment to the developing embryo
SAMPLE PAPER 1

(c) Castor seed has single cotyledon, i.e. monocotyledonous and is albuminous
(d) Hypocotyl terminates at its lower end in the root tip

3. The correct sequence of embryo sac development is

(a) Archesporium ® Megaspore ® Megasporangium ® Embryo sac
(b) Archesporium ® Megaspore mother cell ® Megaspore ® Embryo sac
(c) Archesporium ® Megaspore ® Megaspore mother cell ® Embryo sac
(d) Megaspore mother cell ® Archesporium ® Megaspore ® Embryo sac
56 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

4. During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in

(a) endothecium (b) microspore mother cells
(c) microspore tetrads (d) pollen grains

5. Observe the following diagrams.

Seed
Achene

Endocarp Mesocarp
(A ) (B)

A. Fruit of apple B. Fruit of strawberry

Select correct statement regarding the above fruits.
(a) Both are parthenocarpic fruits which develop without fertilisation
(b) Both are true fruits which develop only from the ovary
(c ) Both are false fruits in which thalamus also contributes to fruit formation
(d) A is false fruit and B is true fruit

6. Read the following statements.

I. Each testis has about 25 compartments called testicular lobules.
II. Each testicular lobule contains one to three highly coiled seminiferous tubules in
which sperms are produced.
III. Sertoli cells act as nurse cells of testicles.
IV. Sertoli cells are activated by FSH secreted by the adenohypophysis.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
(a) I and III (b) Only I
(c) II and IV (d) III and IV

7. Identify the hormones A, B and C that are labelled in the given flowchart.
Hypothalamus

A
Pituitary

B C

Ovary Testis
Ovum Androgen

(a) A–GnRH, B–PRL, C–ICSH (b) A–GnRH, B–ICSH, C–FSH

(c) A–GnRH, B–FSH, C–LH (d) A–GH, B–FSH, C–LH
SAMPLE PAPER 1

8. Stages of fertilisation are divided into four processes, sperm preparation, sperm-egg
binding, sperm-egg fusion pronucleus and activation of zygote.
Fertilisation is a process by which
(a) a haploid spermatozoan unites with a haploid ovum to produce diploid zygote
(b) a diploid spermatozoan unites with a diploid ovum to produce diploid zygote
(c) a haploid spermatozoan unites with a haploid ovum to form haploid zygote
(d) a diploid spermatozoan unites with a haploid ovum to form diploid zygote
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 57

9. Each compartment of scrotum encloses

(a) testis and epididymis
(b) testis, epididymis, a spermatic cord
(c) testis, spermatic cord and a part of vas deferens
(d) testis, epididymis, a spermatic cord and part of vas deferens

10. Given below is the sectional view of mammary gland. Identify A, B, C and D.

(a) A–Alveolus, B–Subcutaneous fat, C–Areola, D–Alveoli

(b) A–Alveolus, B–Lactiferous duct, C–Mammary duct, D–Areola
(c) A–Alveolus, B–Mammary duct, C–Lactiferous duct, D–Lactogenic spot
(d) A–Subcutaneous fat, B–Mammary duct, C–Lactiferous duct, D–Areola

11. Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART)

(a) includes social awareness programmes to educate people about reproductive health and
diseases
(b) includes a number of special techniques which assist infertile couples to have children
(c) includes research organisation working in order to produce new and effective
contraceptives
(d) Both (b) and (c)

12. Which of the following is false for ZW-ZZ type of sex-determination?

(a) It occurs in birds and some reptiles
(b) 1:1 sex ratio is observed in progeny
(c) Females are homogametic and males are heterogametic
(d) All of the above

13. Which of the following statements is/are false?

SAMPLE PAPER 1

I. Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombination.

II. The Mendel’s law of independent assortment does not hold true for linked genes.
III. Failure of cytokinesis after DNA replication leads to polyploidy.
IV. Chromosomal aberrations are observed in cancer cells randomly irrespective of the
alleles present.
Choose the correct option.
(a) II and III (b) Only I
(c) II, III and IV (d) I, II and IV
58 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

14. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with respect to the law of
segregation?
(a) Alleles do not show blending
(b) The paired factors or alleles segregate from each other such that a gamete receives the
two factors as in the original paired form
(c) Homozygous parent produces similar types of gametes whereas heterozygous ones
produce two types of gametes each having one allele with unequal proportion
(d) All of the above

15. First husband of Asha had blood group A and their child had blood group O. She
remarried and her second husband had blood group B and their child had blood group
AB. What is the ABO genotype of Asha and also name her blood group?
(a) ii, blood group O
(b) I B i, blood group B
(c) I A I B , blood group AB
(d) I A i, blood group A

16. A tall plant of F2 -generation was crossed with a dwarf plant. This test determines the
………… of the tall plant and the cross is known as ………… .
Fill in the blanks by choosing appropriate answer from the options given below.
(a) phenotype, back cross (b) genotype, test cross
(c) genotype, reciprocal cross (d) phenotype, reciprocal cross

17. If all the sons of a couple are colourblind then

(a) mother is colourblind
(b) mother is carrier and father is normal
(c) father is colourblind
(d) mother is carrier and father is colourblind

18. Which of the following statements about Hershey and Chase experiment are correct?
I. Sulphur is present in proteins, but not in DNA.
II. Phosphorus is present in DNA, but not in proteins.
III. 32P will end up in the supernatant after centrifugation.
IV. Progeny generation of T2 -bacteriophage contains 32P.
Codes
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III and IV (d) I, II and IV

19. Which one of the following ratio is constant in DNA of different species?
(a) A + T/C + G (b) A + G/T + C
(c) A + C/U + G (d) A + U/C + G

20. Short repeating units/sequences of DNA which play important role in identifying
SAMPLE PAPER 1

criminals and also in identifying genetic relations are

(a) VNTRs (b) introns
(c) codons (d) exons

21. Which of the following is true for Okazaki fragments?

(a) Large DNA segments having promoter, initiation, coding and terminator regions
(b) Short segments of incorrect bases introduced during replication
(c) Short segments of replicated DNA which are formed from 5 ¢ ® 3 ¢ DNA template
(d) Additional nucleotides added to the ends of RNA
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 59

22. What was unique in Griffith’s experiments?

(a) DNA was found to be the genetic material
(b) RNA was found to be the genetic material
(c) Something from dead organisms could change the living cells
(d) Viruses can live in bacteria

23. The given flowchart shows central dogma reverse.

B
A DNA RNA Polypeptide
C

Enzymes used in A, B and C processes are

A B C
(a) DNA-dependent RNA-dependent DNA-dependent
DNA-polymerase DNA-polymerase RNA-polymerase
(b) DNA-dependent DNA-dependent RNA-dependent
DNA-polymerase RNA-polymerase DNA-polymerase
(c) DNA-dependent DNA-dependent RNA-dependent
RNA-polymerase DNA-polymerase DNA-polymerase
(d) RNA-dependent DNA-dependent RNA-dependent
DNA-polymerase RNA-polymerase RNA-polymerase

24. tRNA binds to mRNA through

(a) anticodon loop (b) TyC loop
(c) amino acid binding loop (d) D-loop

Section B
(Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No. 25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section.
The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated).
Question Nos. 25 to 28 consist of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

25. Assertion (A) During pregnancy, increased levels of oestrogen and progesterone are
observed.
SAMPLE PAPER 1

Reason (R) The increased production of these hormones is essential for the growth of
foetus.
26. Assertion (A) In angiosperms, the first fertilisation is called syngamy and involves the
fusion of egg nucleus with sperm nucleus.
Reason (R) Second fertilisation is called vegetative fertilisation.
27. Assertion (A) Amniocentesis gives information of any abnormality in the foetus and
many other complications regarding pregnancy.
Reason (R) Now-a-days amniotic fluid test is banned.
60 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

28. Assertion (A) Sense strand that has 5 ¢ ® 3 ¢ polarity, does not participate in
transcription.
Reason (R) Anti-sense strand that has 3 ¢ ® 5 ¢ polarity, takes part in transcription.
29. Study the figure of the human female reproductive system given below.
C

B
D
E
A

Read the following statements and select the option containing the incorrect
statement(s).
I. A–Ovary produces oestrogens required for the development of female primary sex
characters.
II. A–Vagina receives the penis during copulation.
III. B–Uterus serves as the site for implantation of the fertilised egg.
IV. C–Oviduct serves as the site for fertilisation of the egg.
Codes
(a) I and III (b) Only I (c) Only II (d) II and IV

30. Autogamy can occur in a chasmogamous flower if

(a) pollen matures before maturity of ovule
(b) ovules mature before maturity of pollen
(c) Both pollen and ovules mature simultaneously
(d) Both anther and stigma are of equal lengths

31. Vegetative/Asexual reproduction and apomixis are common to each other in

(a) type of cell division (b) clone nature of offspring
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) only in dicot plant

32. Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occurs

(a) after fertilisation
(b) before the entry of sperm into ovum
(c) simultaneously with first cleavage
(d) after the entry of sperm, but before fertilisation
SAMPLE PAPER 1

33. Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?
(a) Intrauterine devices — Increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility
and fertilising capacity of sperms
(b) Hormonal contraceptives — Prevent/retard entry of sperms, prevent ovulation and
fertilisation
(c) Vasectomy — Prevents spermatogenesis
(d) Barrier methods — Prevent fertilisation
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 61

34. Choose the correct statement regarding the ZIFT procedure.

(a) Ova collected from a female donor are transferred to the Fallopian tube to facilitate
zygote formation
(b) Zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred into the Fallopian tube
(c) Zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus
(d) Ova collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus

35. In angiosperms, if the cells of endosperm have 24 chromosomes. What will be the
number of chromosomes in the gametes?
(a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 23 (d) 32

36. What is the probability of production of dwarf offspring in a cross between two
heterozygous tall pea plants?
(a) Zero (b) 50% (c) 25% (d) 100%

37. What will be the ratio of offspring in a cross between the red coloured and pink
coloured flowers of Mirabilis jalapa?
(a) Red : Pink = 1 : 1 (b) Red : Pink = 3 : 1
(c) Red : Pink = 1 : 3 (d) Red : Pink = 2 : 3

38. Number of gametes produced by a homozygous and a heterozygous individuals of

genotype AA and Aa, respectively are
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 5 (d) many

39. Inheritance of which of the following traits is shown in the given cross?
XY × XXc
(Normal man) (Carrier woman)

XXc XX XY XcY
(Carrier daughter) (Normal daughter) (Normal son) (Diseased son)
(a) X-linked dominant trait
(b) X-linked recessive trait
(c) Autosomal recessive trait
(d) Autosomal dominant trait

40. If two persons with ‘AB’ blood group marry and have sufficiently large number of
children, these children could be classified as ‘A’ blood group : ‘AB’ blood group :
‘B’ blood group in 1 : 2 : 1 ratio. Modern technique of protein electrophoresis reveals
the presence of both ‘A’ and ‘B’ type proteins in ‘AB’ blood group individuals. This is an
example of
SAMPLE PAPER 1

(a) codominance (b) incomplete dominance

(c) partial dominance (d) complete dominance

41. The ABO blood groups are controlled by

(a) I-gene (b) c-gene (c) B-gene (d) n-gene

42. In one political strand of a DNA molecule, the ratio of A + T/ G + C is 0.3. What is the
A + G / T + C ratio of the entire DNA molecule?
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.6 (c) 1.2 (d) 1
62 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

43. The number of nucleosome present in human cell is

(a) 3 . 3 ´ 10 7 nucleosome (b) 1. 1 ´ 10 7 nucleosome
(c) 6 . 3 ´ 10 7 nucleosome (d) indefinite

44. Observe the diagram given below and choose the correct name of the scientist who
proposed this structure of DNA.
20 Å

Guanine G C Cytosine
Thymine T A Adenine
C G

T A
G C 34 Å

T A

Minor A
Major
groove G groove Sugar-phosphate
G C backbone

C G
3.4 Å
T A

Hydrogen bonds

5′ 3′

(a) Watson and Crick (b) Erwin Chargaff

(c) Bateson and Punnett (d) Wilkins and Franklin

45. What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by the following stretch of DNA?
3'–ATGCATGCATGCATG–5' Template strand
5'–TACGTACGTACGTAC–3' Coding strand
(a) 3' – AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG–5'
(b) 5' – UACGUACGUACGUAC–3'
(c) 3' – UACGUACGUACGUAC–5'
(d) 5'– AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG–3'

46. In prokaryotes (such as E. coli), ...A... nucleus is not present, the DNA is not scattered
throughout the cell. DNA is ...B... charged and holded by the ...C... charged proteins.
This structure in prokaryotes is called ...D... .
Choose the correct option for A, B, C and D.
SAMPLE PAPER 1

(a)A–undefined, B–negatively, C–positively, D–nucleoid

(b)A–undefined, B–negatively, C–positively, D–nucleus
(c)A–defined, B–negatively, C–positively, D–nucleoid
(d)A–defined, B–positively, C–negatively, D–nucleoid

47. Linker DNA is

(a) a part of nucleosome
(b) a part that joins two octamer cores
(c) ssDNA
(d) Both (a) and (b)
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 63

48. Observe the tRNA molecule shown below and choose the incorrect option regarding it.
Tyr

tRNA

A U G
U A C
mRNA
3¢
(a) It has an anticodon loop that has bases complementary to the code
(b) It has an amino acid acceptor end to which it binds to amino acids
(c) tRNAs are not specific for each amino acid
(d) tRNA looks like a clover leaf

Section C
(Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q. Nos. 49 to 54).
Besides this, 6 more questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section).

Observe the diagram given below and answer the questions that follows.

R
S

49. Identify P in the figure above and choose its correct function from the options below.
(a) P is rete testis. It transports sperms to outside
(b) P is epididymis. It secretes fluid that nourishes the sperm
(c) P is epididymis. It carries secretion of seminal vesicle
SAMPLE PAPER 1

(d) P is rete testis. It stores sperms

50. Which is correctly paired?

(a) Q – Vasa efferentia
(b) R – Ejaculatory duct
(c) S – Seminal vesicle
(d) T – Bulbourethral gland
64 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

51. Select the incorrect statement with respect to Q.

(a) It carries spermatozoa from epididymis to ejaculatory duct
(b) It arises from rete testis
(c) Q is only 2 in number
(d) It is an important part of the male reproductive system

52. Choose among the following the structure that passes through prostate gland and
carries sperms and secretion of seminal vesicle.
(a) P (b) R
(c) S (d) T

53. Seminal plasma, the fluid part of semen is contributed by

I. Seminal vesicle
II. Prostate gland
III. Urethra
IV. Bulbourethral gland
Codes
(a) I and II (b) I, II and IV
(c) II, III and IV (d) I and IV

54. Urethral meatus refers to the

(a) urogenital duct
(b) opening of vas deferens into urethra
(c) external opening of the urogenital duct
(d) muscles surrounding the urogenital duct

55. Which of the following is/are correct?

I. RNA being unstable, mutates at a faster rate.
II. Both DNA and RNA can mutate.
III. RNA shows catalytic property.
IV. Uracil instead of thymine denotes RNA presence which also adds to its stability.
Codes
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) I and IV (d) I, II and III

56. Identify A, B and C strands.

5′ 3′

5′
SAMPLE PAPER 1

3′
A B
Newly
3′5′ synthesised 5′
strands 3′
(a) A–Continuous strand, B–Template strand, C–Discontinuous strand
(b) A–Leading strand, B–Lagging strand, C–Parental strand
(c) A– 5¢-3¢ strand, B– 3¢-5¢ strand, C–Parental strand
(d) All of the above
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 65

57. Percentage of blood groups in India is given in the diagram below.

AB
B 5%
8%

O
A 51%
36%

Choose the correct option from the given statements.

(a) Only 10% of individuals are heterozygous for blood group allele
(b) Group A is the most common as it is the homozygous recessive group
(c) The alleles for blood group A and O are dominant to the allele for blood group O
(d) Any individual, selected at random from the sample population, has 1 in 20 chance of
being blood group AB

58. Given below is a highly simplified representation of the human sex chromosomes from
a karyotype.

Gene a
Gene b

The genes ‘a’ and ‘b’ could not be of

I. colour blindness and body height.
II. attached ear lobe and Rhesus blood group.
III. haemophilia and red-green colour blindness.
IV. phenylketonuria and haemophilia.
Codes
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) I, II and IV (d) I, II and III

59. A diagram of the chromosomes of a fruitfly is given below. Labels A, B, C and D are
marked to various chromosomes. Choose the correct option that indicates an autosome
labelled.
SAMPLE PAPER 1

C
A D B

(a) C (b) A
(c) B (d) D
66 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

60. Study the diagram given below of translation and choose the correct option for labels
A, B, C and D.
P-site
(Peptidyl tRNA site) A-site
Gly Leu Tyr (Amino acyl tRNA site)
Growing Ser
polypeptide chain Leu Transferase enzyme
Gly forming peptide bond
Asn
A Ser B

U
G

U
E Val

A
Amino acid
tRNA complex
tRNA tRNA

CGU CAA Large ribosomal

subunit
C U C U UGGGU C CGC A G U U A AU U U C A U C
C D
mRNA Ribosome Small ribosomal subunit

A B C D
(a) Charged/Aminoacylated tRNA Uncharged tRNA 5¢ end 3¢ end
(b) Uncharged tRNA Charged/Aminoacylated tRNA 5¢ end 3¢ end
(c) Uncharged tRNA Charged/Aminoacylated tRNA 3¢ end 5¢ end
(d) Uncharged tRNA Charged/Aminoacylated tRNA 5¢ end 3¢ end
SAMPLE PAPER 1
 OMR SHEET SP 1
Roll No.

Student Name Sub Code.

Instructions
Use black or blue ball point pens and avoid Gel & Fountain pens for filling the OMR sheet.
Darken the bubbles completely. Don’t put a tick mark or a cross mark, half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read
by the software.
✔ ✗
Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect
Do not write anything on the OMR Sheet.
Multiple markings are invalid.

1 21 41
2 22 42
3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25 45
6 26 46
7 27 47
8 28 48
9 29 49
10 30 50
11 31 51
12 32 52
13 33 53
14 34 54
15 35 55
16 36 56
17 37 57
18 38 58
19 39 59
20 40 60

Check Your Performance

Total Questions: Total Correct Questions
Score Percentage = × 100
Total Correct Questions: Total Questions

Less than 60% > Average (Revise the concepts again)

If Your Score is Greater than 60% but less than 75% > Good (Do more practice)
Above 75% > Excellent (Keep it on)
68 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

Answers
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (a)
41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (b)
51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (b) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (b)

EXPLANATIONS
1. (a) Sepals and petals have only supportive
roles and hence, are accessory or non-essential
floral organs.
Anther and filament belong to the male
reproductive organs of the flower whereas
stigma, style and ovary constitute the female
reproductive organs. Hence, they are essential
floral organs.
2. (c) Statement in option (c) is incorrect and can
be corrected as
Castor seed is dicotyledonous, i.e. with two
cotyledons and is albuminous, i.e. having
residual endosperm.
Rest of the statements are correct regarding the
labelled parts.
3. (b) In archesporium, the archesporial cell is
often divided into outer primary parietal and
inner primary sporogenous cell that acts as
megaspore mother cell. It forms four haploid
megaspores after undergoing meiosis. Out of
the four megaspores, three degenerate and one
remains functional. It further undergoes three
mitotic divisions and produces embryo sac.
Thus, option (b) is correct.
4. (b) During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs
in Microspore Mother Cell (MMC) and four
haploid microspores (microspore tetrad) are
formed.
5. (c) Statement in option (c) is correct. Rest of the
statements are incorrect and can be corrected as
The fruit of apple (A) and fruit of strawberry
(B), are false fruits, in which thalamus also
contributes to fruit formation alongside ovary.
These fruits are not parthenocarpic because
SAMPLE PAPER 1
(C). FSH stimulates ovarian follicles to grow
while LH stimulates Leydig’s cells to secrete
testosterone (Androgen).
8. (a) Fertilisation is a process of fusion of a
haploid spermatozoan (male gamete) with a
haploid ovum (female gamete) to produce a
diploid zygote.
9. (d) Scrotum in male reproductive system is a
thin external sac of skin that is divided into
two compartments. Each compartment
contains one of the two testes, the glands that
produce sperm and one of the epididymis,
where the sperm is stored. It also contains a
spermatic cord and part of vas deferens.
10. (d) A–Subcutaneous fat, B–Mammary duct,
C–Lactiferous duct, D–Areola
11. (b) Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART)
includes a number of special technique which
help infertile couples to have children. It is
increasingly being used to overcome infertility
among couples.
12. (c) Statement in option (c) is false and can be
corrected as
In ZW-ZZ type of sex-determination, the male
has two homomorphic sex chromosomes (ZZ)
and is homogametic whereas the female has
two heteromorphic sex chromosomes (ZW)
and is heterogametic.
13. (b) Statement I is false and can be corrected as
Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome
get inherited together and show less or no
recombinant.
Rest of the statements are true.
14. (a) Statement in option (a) is correct with

parthenocarpic fruits are seedless and are
formed without fertilisation.
6. (b) Statement I is incorrect and can be
corrected as
Each testis has about 250 compartments called
testicular lobules.
Rest of the statements are correct.
7. (c) Hypothalamus secretes GnRH (A)
(Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone), which
stimulates pituitary to release FSH (B) and LH
respect to the law of segregation.
Rest of the statements are incorrect and can be
corrected as
n The paired factors or alleles segregate from
each other such that a gamete receives only
one of the factor present in the origin at paired
form.
n Homozygous parent produces similar types of
gametes whereas heterozygous ones produce
two types of gametes each with one allele to
equal proportion.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
15. (d) Asha’s child from her first husband has
blood group O, i.e. genotype (ii). It means that
the child received two recessive alleles, one
from each of his parents (i from father and i
from Asha). Asha’s child from second husband
had blood group AB, i.e. genotype IA IB. As the
child’s father had blood group B, it means that
the child received IB allele from father and IA
allele from Asha. This makes it clear that
Asha’s blood group contains i and IA genes,
thus her blood group is A with genotype IA i.
16. (b) A tall plant of F2-generation was crossed
with a dwarf plant to determine the genotype of
the tall plant. Such a cross is called test cross.
17. (a) Whenever mother is a colourblind, all her
sons will be colourblind irrespective of their
father’s genotype because transmission of this
disease is done in criss-cross fashion, i.e. mother
to son and father to daughter.
Xc Xc × XY
Colourblind woman Normal man
Xc Xc X Y
XXc XcX XcY XcY
Carrier for colour blindness Colourblind
(daughters) sons
So, option (a) is correct.
18. (d) Statements I, II and IV are correct.
Statement III is incorrect and can be corrected as
35
S will end up in the supernatant after
centrifugation as sulphur is present in proteins.
19. (a) According to Chargaff’s rule of base pair,
DNA from any cell of an organism should
have a 1:1 ratio of purine and pyrimidine
bases, i.e. total amount of purines = total
amount of pyrimidines, ratio of A : T = 1 and
that of G : C =1. According to Chargaff‘s rule,
A+T/G + C ratio varies with different species,
but is constant for a species.
20. (a) VNTRs (Variable Number of Tandem
Repeats) are chromosomal regions in which a
short DNA sequence is repeated a variable
number of times end-to-end at a certain
location. They play an important role in
identifying genetic relations and also criminals.
21. (c) Okazaki fragments are the short sequences
of DNA which are formed at the lagging
strand during replication. They are formed
from 5 ¢ ® 3 ¢ DNA template.
69
22. (c) In Griffith’s experiment, he was found out
that something from dead organisms could
change the living cells. From his experiment, he
showed that dead S-bacteria (virulent) are
changing (transforming) the R-bacteria
(non-virulent) into S-type, i.e. the virulent strain.
23. (b) In 1956, Francis Crick proposed the Central
Dogma hypothesis. This explains the flow of
genetic information in any biological system.
Enzymes used in this process are
A–DNA–dependent DNA polymerase
(replication)
B–DNA–dependent RNA polymerase
(transcription)
C–RNA–dependent DNA polymerase (reverse
transcription)
24. (a) tRNA binds to mRNA through anticodon
loop, as it bears bases complementary to those
on mRNA being translated.
Other options are explained as
The amino acid loop of tRNA is involved in
binding the respective amino acid. The TyC
loop helps in binding the amino acid, while the
D-loop of tRNA is the binding site for
aminoacyl synthetase.
25. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
Oestrogen and progesterone are chief
pregnancy hormones which enable the uterus
and placenta to improve the formation of
blood vessels. The increased production of
these hormones is necessary for foetal growth.
26. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
In angiosperms, the first fertilisation is called
syngamy and involves the fusion of egg with
sperm. It is proceeded by one of the two male
gametes.
The second male gamete fuses with the polar
nuclei to produce Primary Endosperm Nucleus
(PEN). As this process involves fusion of their
nucleus it is called triple fusion. This triple
fusion is also called vegetative fertilisation.
SAMPLE PAPER 1
27. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
Amniocentesis gives information of any
abnormality in the foetus and many other
complications regarding pregnancy. It is also
called amniotic fluid test since it involves
samples of amniotic fluid. However, the test
has been banned by the Indian Government
due to its misuse in determining the sex of the
growing foetus.
70
28. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
Non-template or sense strand having 5 ¢ ® 3 ¢
polarity does not take part in transcription. As
its sequence is similar to mRNA except when
uracil is replaced by thymine.
Template or anti-sense strand having 3 ¢ ® 5 ¢
polarity, participates in transcription.
29. (b) Only statement I is incorrect and can be
corrected as
D represents ovary which produces oestrogen,
required for the development of secondary
sexual characters in females.
Rest of the statements are correct.
30. (c) Autogamy is self-pollination. In
chasmogamous flower, anthers and stigma are
exposed. For autogamy in such a flower to take
place, pollen and ovule should mature
simultaneously and anther and stigma should
lie close to each other.
31. (c) Option (c) is correct as
In vegetative/asexual and apomictic
reproduction, mitotic cell division takes place,
due to which the resultant progeny are
identical to the parents and to each other
(clone nature of offspring).
32. (d) Extrusion of second polar body from egg
nucleus occurs after the entry of sperm, but
before fertilisation.
The entry of sperm into female egg causes the
breakdown of Metaphase Promoting Factor
(MPF) and turns on Anaphase Promoting
Factor (APF). Hence, the secondary oocyte
completes its meiotic division after fertilisation
and is said to be activated.
33. (c) Statement in option (c) does not give the
defined action of contraceptive. It can be
corrected as
Vasectomy prevents transport of sperms and
not production, i.e. spermatogenesis.
34. (b) The correct statement regarding ZIFT is
option (b).
SAMPLE PAPER 1
The zygote or early embryo with upto 8
blastomeres is collected from a female donor
and transferred into the Fallopian tube, this
process is called Zygote Intra Fallopian
Transfer or ZIFT.
35. (a) In angiosperms, endosperm is a triploid
structure (3n).
\3 n = 24 (given), then n = 8
As gametes are haploid structures, therefore
number of chromosomes in gametes will be 8.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
36. (c) In a cross between two heterozygous tall
pea plants, the probability of production of
dwarf offspring is 25% and tall offspring is
75%.
37. (a) The cross between red flowered and pink
flowered plants of Mirabilis jalapa is depicted
below
% &
RR × Rr
Red Pink Parents
R R r Gametes
F1-generation
& r
R
%
R RR Rr
Thus, the ratio of offspring produce would be
Red : Pink = 1 : 1
38. (a) The formula to calculate the number of
gametes from a given genotype is 2 n .
Where, n = number of heterozygosity in the
given genotype. Thus, number/types of
gametes produced by a homozygous
individual of genotype AA is 2 ( 0) = 1 and by
heterozygous individual of genotype Aa is
2 ( 1) = 2 .
39. (b) In the given cross, the disease is inherited
from carrier female to male progeny (criss-coss
inheritance). Any trait that shows criss-cross
inheritance is located on the sex chromosome.
Presence of a single recessive gene, i.e. Xc in
carrier individuals (XXc ) does not cause the
disease, thus the trait is recessive.
40. (a) ‘AB’ blood group is characterised by the
presence of both antigens A and B, i.e. IA and
IB over the surface of RBCs.
Phenotype AB
¯
Genotype IA IB
¯
Antigen A + Antigen B
Here, both alleles are able to express
themselves forming antigens A and B. This is
called as codominance, a phenomenon in
which both the alleles in a heterozygote are
expressed.
41. (a) The ABO blood groups are controlled by
the I-gene, which has three alleles (IA , IB , i).
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
42. (d) According to Chargaff’s rule (1950), purine
and pyrimidine base pairs are present in equal
amounts in a DNA molecule.
[A + G]
i.e. [A + G] = [T + C] or =1
[T + C]
43. (a) Approximately 200 bp are present per
nucleosome. Total number of base pairs in
human’s genetic material is 6.6 ´ 10 9.
6.6 ´ 10 9
Number of nucleosome = 3.3 ´ 10 7
200
44. (a) Watson and Crick, proposed a very simple
double helix model for the structure of DNA in
1953 based on X-ray diffraction data.
45. (b) Option (b) gives the sequence of mRNA
produced by the given stretch of DNA. The
mRNA will be complementary to the DNA
strand, but in RNA, uracil will be present in
place of thymine. If the template strand is
3¢–ATGCATGCATGCATG–5¢ then the base
sequence of mRNA for the given DNA strand
will be 5¢–UACGUACGUACGUAC–3’.
46. (c) In prokaryotes (such as E. coli), defined (A)
nucleus is not present, the DNA is not
scattered throughout the cell. DNA is
negatively (B) charged and holded by the
positively (C) charged proteins. This structure
in prokaryotes is called nucleiod (D).
47. (d) Linker DNA is double-stranded DNA,
which is 38-53 bp long with histone H1, holds
the cores (octamer) together. Linker + DNA is
seen as the string in beads and string model.
So, it is a part of nucleosome.
Thus, option (d) is correct.
48. (c) Option (c) is incorrect and can be corrected as
tRNA are specific for each amino acid, e.g. for
initiation, there is a specific initiator tRNA.
Rest of the options are correct for tRNA.
49. (b) Labelled part ‘P’ is epididymis. It is a long,
coiled tube that is present on the backside of
each testicle. It secretes a fluid that provides
nourishment to the sperm.
50. (b) Option (b) is correctly matched pair.
Rest options are incorrectly matched pairs and
can be corrected as
Q–Vas deferens
S–Cowper’s gland or Bulbourethral gland
T–Seminal vesicle
51. (b) Statement in option (b) is incorrect and can
be corrected as
Q which is vas deferens, arises from cauda
epididymis.
Rest all statements are correct with respect to Q.
71
52. (b) R, showing ejaculatory ducts, pass through
prostate glands and carry sperms and
secretions from seminal vesicle.
53. (b) Seminal vesicles, prostate and
Bulbourethral glands are the male accessory
glands whose secretions constitute the semen.
Urethra does not secrete semen. The transport
of sperms from the testis to outside occurs
through urethra.
54. (c) The urethra originates from the urinary
bladder and extends through the penis to its
external opening called urethral meatus. In
other words, it is the external opening of
urogenital duct.
55. (d) Statements I, II and III are correct.
Statement IV is incorrect and can be corrected as
Presence of uracil in place of thymine in RNA
makes it less stable.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
56. (b) The labels A, B and C in the given diagram
represent leading strand, lagging strand and
the parental strand.
57. (d) As given in the pie chart, the AB blood
group percentage is 5% in India. So, it can be
said that any individual, selected at random
from sample population, has 1 in 20 chance of
being blood group AB.
58. (c) The genes ‘a’ and ‘b’ cannot be I, II and IV
because
The gene for body height and attached ear
lobes are not present on sex-chromosome and
phenylketonuria is a autosomal recessive trait.
But genes ‘a’ and ‘b’ can be of haemophilia and
colour blindness as they are recessive
sex-linked disease.
Thus, option (c) is correct.
59. (c) Drosophila have 3 pairs of autosome and one
pair sex chromosome. Sex-determination in
Drosophila is exactly similar to the human
beings, i.e. female is homogametic and male is
heterogametic.
In the given diagrams, first diagram belongs
to the female Drosophila and second diagram
SAMPLE PAPER 1
belongs to the male Drosophila.
A indicates X-chromosome in female Drosophila.
B indicates autosome
C indicates X-chromosome in male Drosophila.
D indicates Y-chromosome in male Drosophila.
Thus, option (c) is correct.
60. (b) The labels A, B, C and D in the given
diagram represent uncharged tRNA, charged/
aminoacylated tRNA, 5¢ end and 3¢ end,
respectively.
72 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

SAMPLE PAPER 2
BIOLOGY
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class XII (Term I) Examination

General Instructions
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
(a) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(b) Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(c) Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
2. Each question carries 0.70 mark.
3. There is NO negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 35
Roll No. Time allowed : 90 Minutes

Section A
(Section-A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted
20 questions would be evaluated.)

1. Unisexuality of flowers are responsible for preventing

(a) autogamy and geitonogamy
(b) geitonogamy, but not xenogamy
(c) Both geitonogamy and xenogamy
(d) autogamy, but not geitonogamy

2. The following is the diagram of TS of anther. Identify the parts labelled as A, B and C.
A
B
SAMPLE PAPER 2

(a) A–Connective tissue, B–Endothecium, C–Pollen grains

(b) A–Endothecium, B–Connective tissue, C– Pollen grains
(c) A–Pollen grain, B–Connective tissue, C–Endothecium
(d) A–Endothecium, B–Pollen grain, C–Connective tissues
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 73

3. Endothecium and tapetum in anther are derived from

(a) primary sporogenous layer (b) primary parietal layer
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

4. Which one of the following is resistant to enzyme action?

(a) Pollen exine (b) Leaf cuticle (c) Cork (d) Wood fibre

5.
D

B
C
F

In the above diagram, parts labelled as A, B, C, D, E and F are respectively identified as

(a) Synergids, Polar nuclei, Central cell, Antipodals, Filiform apparatus and Eggs
(b) Polar nuclei, Egg, Antipodals, Central cell, Filiform apparatus and Synergids
(c) Egg, Synergids, Central cell, Filiform apparatus, Antipodals and Polar nuclei
(d) Central cells, Polar nuclei, Filiform apparatus, Antipodals, Synergids and Eggs

6. Consider the following statements.

I. Leydig cells provide nutrition to germ cells.
II. Vasa efferentia open into epididymis.
III. Spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty.
IV. Uterus opens to the exterior by an aperture called vaginal orifice.
Codes
(a) I and II are correct (b) Only II is correct
(c) I and II are correct (d) II and III are correct

7. Identify A, B and C in the figure given below.

A
I
Foetal life
B

II
Birth
Childhood
SAMPLE PAPER 2

Puberty
C
First
Adult polar body
III
reproductive
life Ovum
Second
polar body

(a) A–Secondary oocyte, B–Oogonia, C–Primary oocyte

(b) A–Oogonia, B–Primary oocyte, C–Secondary oocyte
(c) A–Secondary oocyte, B–Primary oocyte, C–Oogonia
(d) A–Oogonia, B–Secondary oocyte, C–Primary oocyte
74 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

8. Menstrual flow occurs due to the lack of

(a) progesterone (b) FSH
(c) oxytocin (d) vasopressin

9. The main function of fimbriae of Fallopian tube is to

(a) help in development of ovary
(b) help in collection of the ovum after ovulation
(c) help in development of ova
(d) help in fertilisation

10. Identify the contraceptives shown below and select the correct option.

A B C D

A B C D
(a) Implants Cu-T Condom for male Condom for female
(b) Condom for male Implants Cu-T Condom for female
(c) Cu-T Implants Condom for male Condom for female
(d) Condom for female Implants Cu-T Condom for male

11. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of an ideal contraceptive?

(a) User friendly (b) Easily available
(b) Least side effects (d) Irreversible

12. Which is correct about traits chosen by Mendel for his experiment on pea plant?
(a) Terminal pod was dominant (b) Constricted pod was dominant
(c) Green pod colour was dominant (d) Tall plants were recessive

13. Mendel‘s experiment became successful because he

I. used purelines.
II. considered one character at a time.
III. maintained statistical record of experiments.
IV. had knowledge of linkage and incomplete dominance.
Codes
(a) I and II (b) I, II and III
SAMPLE PAPER 2

(c) I and IV (d) II, III and IV

14. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) Each back cross is a test cross
(b) Each test cross is a back cross
(c) Test cross and back cross are the same
(d) Reappearance of similar characters in a test cross is called a back cross
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 75

15. When a pure tall plant (TT) having rounded seeds (RR) is crossed with dwarf plant (tt)
having wrinkled seeds (rr) and their F1 progeny are crossed among themselves to
produce F2 -generation, how many phenotypes will be observed?
(a) 16 (b) 9 (c) 4 (d) 2

16. In human blood group inheritance,

(a) I A and I B are codominant (b) I A and I B are dominant over i
(c) I A is dominant over I B (d) Both (a) and (b)

17. Suraj and Vijay both have genetic disorders. Suraj shows an over all masculine
development along with sterility, whereas Vijay is short statured with furrowed
tongue. Identify the disorders they are suffering from.
Suraj Vijay
(a) Klinefelter‘s syndrome Down’s syndrome
(b) Down‘s syndrome Klinefelter‘s syndrome
(c) Turner‘s syndrome Down’s syndrome
(d) Klinefelter‘s syndrome Klinefelter‘s syndrome

18. Choose the correct statements about biochemical characterisation of transforming

principle in Griffith’s experiment.
I. It was done by Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty.
II. Scientists purified biochemicals (proteins, DNA, RNA, etc.) from heat-killed S-cell.
III. It was seen that DNA alone from heat-killed S-type bacteria caused R-type bacteria
to become transformed into S-type virulent bacteria.
IV. Proteases and RNase did not affect transformation.
Codes
(a) I and II
(b) III and IV
(c) I and III
(d) All statements are correct

19. In E. coli, the lac operon gets switched on when

(a) repressor binds to operator
(b) lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase
(c) lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
(d) RNA polymerase binds to operator

20. Choose the correct option.

(a) Pyrimidines include adenine and guanine
(b) Pyrimidines include cytosine, uracil and thymine
(c) Purines include adenine and thymine
SAMPLE PAPER 2

(d) Purines include guanine and cytosine

21. The sensitivity of DNA fingerprinting can be increased by

(a) using introns sequences
(b) using exons sequences
(c) using polymerase chain reactions
(d) All of the above
76 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

32
22. A viral DNA is labelled with P and the protein of the virus is labelled with 35 S.
Which molecules would be present inside the bacterial cell after transduction?
(a) 32 P (b) 35 S
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

23. The diagram shows an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the
blanks A to C.
Proposed by C

A B
DNA mRNA Protein

(a) A–Transcription, B–Replication, C–James Watson

(b) A–Translation, B–Transcription, C–Erwin Chargaff
(c) A–Transcription, B–Translation, C–Francis Crick
(d) A–Translation, B–Extension, C–Rosalind Franklin

24. The net electric charge on DNA and histones is

(a) positive (b) negative
(c) negative and positive, respectively (d) zero

Section B
(Section-B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No. 25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section.
The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated.)
Question Nos. 25 to 28 consist of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

25. Assertion (A) Exine of pollen grain is composed of sporopollenin which is resistant to
strong acid or base, enzymatic degradation and high temperature.
Reason (R) Germ pores do not have sporopollenin.
26. Assertion (A) In vasectomy, a small portion of vas deferens is either removed or tied
up.
Reason (R) In tubectomy, a small portion of Fallopian tube is either tied up or
SAMPLE PAPER 2

removed.
27. Assertion (A) Uterus looks like an inverted pear.
Reason (R) The inner glandular layer that lines the uterine cavity is termed as
myometrium.
28. Assertion (A) The gamete contributed by male is responsible for sex-determination in
humans.
Reason (R) Sex in humans is a polygenic trait that depends upon a cumulative effect of
certain genes on X-chromosome and some on Y-chromosome.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 77

29. Observe the diagram given below and identify the correct statements with respect to it.

Head

Middle piece

Tail

I. Middle piece of the sperm utilises fructose as a source of energy to provide motility
to the sperm.
II. Head of the sperm contains a cap-like structure called acrosome.
III. An elongated haploid nucleus marks its presence inside the head.
IV. Tail helps the sperm cell in digestion of the egg wall.
Codes
(a) I, II and IV (b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II and III (d) I and II

30. Pollen tablets are available in the market

(a) for in vitro fertilisation (b) for breeding programmes
(c) as food supplements (d) for ex situ conservation

31. A scientist working on Calotropis tries to pollinate the same flower from which he took
pollens but failed to do so, what could be the possible reason for it?
(a) Calotropis is a water based plant, hence, undergoes hydrophily
(b) Calotropis is unisexual hence, self-pollination is impossible
(c) A form of physical barrier makes self-fertilisation impossible in Calotropis
(d) Pollen grains in Calotropis are small, hence, cannot undergo pollination

32. A young girl in her early 20s consult to her doctor regarding her irregular
menstruation cycle. Her doctor prescribes some medicines to her. What can be the
reason for her irregular menstrual cycle?
(a) Lack of oestrogen (b) Lack of FSH
(c) Lack of oxytocin (d) Lack of vasopressin

33. A female who is unable to ovulate, but can provide a suitable environment for
SAMPLE PAPER 2

fertilisation and for the development of the foetus. Which ART technique will be useful
for her?
(a) Artificial insemination (b) GIFT
(c) MTP (d) ZIFT

34. Stage of cells at which it is transferred into uterus after induced fertilisation of ova in
the laboratory is
(a) embryo at 4 blastomeres stage (b) embryo at 2 blastomeres stage
(c) morula (d) zygote
78 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

35. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of

(a) generative cell
(b) vegetative cell
(c) microspore mother cell
(d) microspore

36. If a boy’s father has haemophilia and his mother has one gene for haemophilia, what is
the chance that the boy will inherit the disease?
(a) 25% (b) 50%
(c) 75% (d) 100%

37. If both parents of a male child are normal, what are the chances of the child being
colourblind?
(a) It is impossible
(b) It is possible only if father’s mother was colourblind
(c) It is possible only if mother’s father was colourblind
(d) It is possible even when all the four grandparents had normal vision

38. In sex linkage, reciprocal cross yields

(a) criss-cross result (b) identical result
(c) distinct result (d) None of these

39. In a cross indulding two traits or characters, what does the ratio 9:3:3:1 denote?
(a) Interaction of the alleles from the two genes involved
(b) Multigenic inheritance
(c) Multiple allelism
(d) Independent segregation of the alleles of two genes

40. Genes of sex-linked characters are located on the

(a) chromosome 18
(b) chromosome 13
(c) chromosome 14
(d) sex chromosome

41. Homologous chromosomes which are present in male and female both are known as
(a) heterosomes (b) replosomes
(c) androsomes (d) autosomes

42. The type of RNA specifically responsible for directing the proper sequence of amino
acids in protein synthesis is
(a) ribosomal RNA (b) messenger RNA
(c) chromosomal RNA (d) viral RNA
SAMPLE PAPER 2

43. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids and the
base at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how
many codons will be altered?
(a) 1 (b) 11
(c) 33 (d) 333
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 79

44.
Tyr
A

A U G
U A C C mRNA

What does the anticodon loop of the tRNA contain?

(a) A site for binding the amino acids
(b) Bases that are complementary to the codes
(c) They have UAA codons
(d) They have UAG codons

45. In bacteria, which enzyme catalyses the transcription of mRNA, tRNA and rRNA?
(a) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
(b) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
(c) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
(d) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

46. ............... helps in the removal of RNA primers.

(a) DNA polymerase-I
(b) RNA polymerase-II
(c) DNA polymerase-II
(d) DNA polymerase-III

47. VNTR belongs to the class of satellite DNA referred to as

(a) microsatellite DNA (b) minisatellite DNA
(c) megasatellite DNA (d) repetitive DNA

48. Given below is a diagram of nucleosome.

A B

C
SAMPLE PAPER 2

Core of histone molecules

Identify which of the following is correctly labelled?

(a) A–RNA (b) B–H1 histone
(c) C–H12 histone (d) Both (b) and (c)
80 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

Section C
(Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q. Nos. 49 to 54). Besides
this, 6 more questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section.)
Observe the given diagram and answer the questions that follows.
Y
Z

W
V

49. Identify the labels V, W and Y.

(a) Cytoplasm, Zona pellucida, Plasma membrane
(b) Cortical granules, Corona radiata, Zona pellucida
(c) Cortical granules, Plasma membrane, Corona radiata
(d) Cytoplasm, Corona radiata, Zona pellucida

50. The structure with label W is formed of radially elongated follicular cells.
(a) True (b) False
(c) Cannot say (d) Partially true or false

51. Identify the labels X and Z.

(a) Zona pellucida, Plasma membrane
(b) Perivitelline space, Zona pellucida
(c) Cortical granules, Zona pellucida
(d) Perivitelline space, Nucleus

52. In humans, at which stage does ovum get released from ovary?
(a) Ovulatory phase
(b) Luteal phase
(c) Maturation phase
(d) Menstrual phase

53. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ovum?

(a) Nucleus of an ovum has prominent nucleolus
(b) It lacks centrioles
(c) Only one ovum formed from one oogonium
(d) It has very small amount of ooplasm
SAMPLE PAPER 2

54. Which of the following structures does the sperm come in contact with, during
fertilisation?
(a) V (b) Z
(c) Y (d) X
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 81

55. Consider the following statements.

I.100% parental combinations are found in F 2 -generation.
II.F 2 phenotypic ratio is 3 : 1 in monohybrid cross.
III.The contrasting traits in Mendelian experiment show blending in F 1 -generation.
IV. Progenies of test cross can easily be analysed to predict the phenotype of the test
organisms.
Which of the following statements given above are correct?
(a) I, II and IV (b) I, III and IV (c) II, III and IV (d) I and II

56. Choose correct option for A, B, C and D in the given figure.

TT × tt
T t
T B t
A C
D

(a) A–tt, B–TT, C–TT, D–TT (b) A–Tt, B–Tt, C–Tt, D–Tt
(c) A–TT, B–TT, C–Tt, D–TT (d) A–Tt, B–Tt, C–Tt, D–TT

57. In an experiment, the following crosses were obtained in the fruitfly, Drosophila. True
breeding red-eyed flies with plain thoraxes were crossed with pink-eyed flies with
striped thoraxes. The F 1 flies were then test crossed against the double recessive ones.
Red eye plain thorax ´ Pink eye striped thorax
The following F 2 -generation resulted from the cross

80 16 12 92

Red eye Red eye Pink eye Pink eye

Plain thorax Striped thorax Plain thorax Striped thorax

What percentage number of recombinants can result from the test cross?
(a) 12 (b) 14
(c) 16 (d) 28

58. Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram of a lac operon.

A B C

i p o z y a

mRNA RNA Repressor

polymerase operator D
SAMPLE PAPER 2

compound
Repressor

(a) A–Regulatory gene, B–Promoter, C–Operator, D–Structural gene

(b) A–Regulatory gene, B–Promoter, C–Structural gene, D–Operator
(c) A–Regulatory gene, B–Structural gene, C–Promoter, D–Operator
(d) A–Regulatory gene, B–Structural gene, C–Operator gene, D–Promoter gene
82 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

59. Given diagram depicts the experiment of Meselson and Stahl. Identify the type of
isotopic DNA formed after 40 minutes (A, B, C and D).
Generation-I Generation-II
15N-DNA 14N-DNA
A
15N-DNA
B
20 min 40 min C
D

(a) A– 14 N-DNA, B– 15 N-DNA, C– 14 N-DNA, D– 15 N-DNA

(b) A– 14 N-DNA, B– 15 N-DNA, C– 14 N-DNA, D– 14 N-DNA
(c) A– 14 N-DNA, B– 14 N-DNA, C– 15 N-DNA, D– 15 N-DNA
(d) A– 14 N-DNA, B– 15 N-DNA, C– 15 N-DNA, D– 15 N-DNA

60. Observe the diagram given below and identify the correct statement.
5′ 3′

5′
3′
A B

3′5′ 5′
3′
(a) On A and B replications are discontinuous
(b) On A replication is continuous while on B replication is discontinuous
(c) On A and C replications are continuous
(d) On C and B replications are discontinuous
SAMPLE PAPER 2
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12 32 52
13 33 53
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Check Your Performance

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84 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

Answers
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (d)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (a)
51. (d) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (b)

EXPLANATIONS
1. (d) Unisexuality of flowers can prevent
autogamy wherein pollen moves to the female
part of the same flower, but not geitonogamy
wherein pollen is transferred to another flower
on the same plant.
2. (a) A–Connective tissue, B–Endothecium,
C–Pollen grains
3. (b) The cells of the primary parietal layer
obtained from archesporial cells divide to form
endothecium, middle layers and tapetum.
4. (a) Pollen exine is made up of sporopollenin
which is resistant to enzyme actions leading to
chemical and biological decomposition. It
preserves pollen grains during fossilisation.
5. (a) A – Synergids, B – Polar nuclei,
C – Central cell, D – Antipodals,
E – Filiform apparatus, F – Eggs
6. (d) Statements II and III are correct while I and
IV are incorrect. Incorrect statements can be
corrected as
n Sertoli cells provide nutrition to germ cells while
Leydig cells synthesise and secrete androgens.
n Vagina opens to the exterior by an aperture
called vaginal orifice.
7. (b) A – Oogonia, B – Primary oocyte,
C – Secondary oocyte
8. (a) Menstrual flow occurs due to the lack of
progesterone. Progesterone is secreted by corpus
luteum and is essential for the maintenance of
endometrium. Thus, in the absence of
progesterone, the endometrium starts to
SAMPLE PAPER 2
11. (d) An ideal contraceptive should be user
friendly, easily available with minimal side
effects and reversible. Hence, irreversible is
not a characteristic feature of an ideal
contraceptive.
12. (c) Option (c) is correct about traits chosen
by Mendel for his experiment on pea plant
as green pod colour is dominant.
Other options are incorrect and can be
corrected as
Terminal position of flower and constricted
pod-shape is recessive trait whereas tall
plant height is a dominant trait.
13. (b) Mendel performed his experiments using
purelines and considered one character at a
time, he also maintained statistical records of
his experiments. However, he had no
knowledge of linkage and incomplete
dominance.
Thus, option (b) is correct.
14. (b) Statement in option (b) is correct as
Each test cross is a back cross, but each
back cross is not a test cross. Thus, test
cross is a type of back cross.
15. (c) Four types of phenotypes will be
observed, i.e. tall round, tall wrinkled, dwarf
round and dwarf wrinkled.
16. (d) In ABO blood group system when, IA
and IB are present together, they both
express their own types of sugars this is due

degenerate. This leads to menstrual flow in
which the endometrial wall gets shed off.
9. (b) The main function of fimbriae of Fallopian
tube is to collect the egg released from ovary
after ovulation and draw it into the Fallopian
tube.
10. (b) A represents a male condom
B represents implants
C represents copper-T
D represents female condom
to the codominance. IA and IB are completely
dominant over i.
Thus, option (d) is correct.
17. (a) Suraj suffers from Klinefelter’s syndrome
in which there is an additional copy of
X-chromosome, i.e. XXY. Such individuals
have masculine development along with
female development and are sterile.
Vijay suffers from Down‘s syndrome. There
is an extra copy of chromosome 21 in this
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
disorder. Individuals with Down’s syndrome
are short with small round head, furrowed
tongue with physical and mental development
is retarded.
18. (d) All the given statements are correct.
Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn
McCarty worked to determine the biochemical
nature of transforming principle in Griffith
experiment. They purified biochemicals from
heat-killed S-cells and discovered that DNA
alone from heat-killed S-type bacteria existed
R-type bacteria transformed into virulent
S-type bacteria. They also discovered that
protein and RNA digesting enzymes, i.e.
proteases and RNases did not affect
transformation and that the transforming
substance was neither protein nor RNA.
19. (c) In the presence of an inducer like lactose,
the repressor gets inactivated by its interaction
with inducer. This allows RNA polymerase
access to the promoter and as a result,
transcription proceeds. Thus, lac operon gets
switched on.
20. (b) Option (b) is correct as
Pyrimidines consist of cytosine, thymine and
uracil. Purines include adenine and guanine.
21. (c) PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is the
technique in which many copies of DNA can
be produced in a short period of time. It can
increase the sensitivity of DNA fingerprinting.
22. (a) Bacteria infected with virus having
radioactive DNA (with 32 P) were radioactive,
which indicated that DNA was the material
that passed from virus to bacteria. Bacteria
infected with virus having radioactive proteins
(with 35 S) were not radioactive.
23. (c) A–Transcription, B–Translation, C–Francis
Crick
The process of copying genetic information
from one strand of DNA into RNA is
transcription. The process of formation of
polypeptide by the polymerisation of amino
acids is known as translation. Central dogma
was proposed by Francis Crick which stated
that the genetic information flows from
DNA ® RNA ® Protein.
24. (c) DNA is negatively charged whereas
histones carry positive charge. Thus, the net
electric charge is negative and positive,
respectively for DNA and histones.
Thus, option (c) is correct.
85
25. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
Wall or covering of pollen grain is called
sporoderm. It is composed of two layers, outer
exine and inner intine. The outer exine is made
up of sporopollenin which is resistant to
chemical and biological decomposition so
pollens remain preserved for long periods. At
certain places, exine remains thin and lacks
sporopollenin. These places are termed as
germ pores.
26. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens
is removed or tied up via., a small cut on the
scrotum while in tubectomy, a small part of
Fallopian tube is removed or tied up via., a
small cut in abdomen or through vagina.
27. (c) A is true, but R is false because
The shape of the uterus is like an inverted
pear. The wall of the uterus has three layers,
external membranous perimetrium, middle
layer of smooth myometrium and inner
glandular layer of endometrium.
28. (c) A is true, but R is false because
In humans, sex is determined by sex
chromosomes. Sex chromosomes in human
female are XX and in male are XY. Human
male produces X and Y chromosomes
containing gametes while females produce
only X-containing gametes. Therefore, male
determine sex of offspring and it is a
monogenic trait.
29. (c) Statements I, II and III are correct because
Sperm is a microscopic structure composed of
a head, neck, middle piece and tail. Head of
the sperm contains a cap-like structure called
acrosome that has enzymes which help in
digestion of egg wall. It also contains an
elongated haploid nucleus. Middle piece of the
sperm utilises fructose as its energy source to
provide motility to the sperm.
Statement II is incorrect and can be corrected
SAMPLE PAPER 2
as
Tail helps the sperm cell to swim in order to
reach the egg cell.
30. (c) Pollen grains are believed to be rich in
nutrients. They are taken as tablets and syrups
to improve health. They also enhance
performance of athletes and race horses. Thus,
pollen tablets are available in the market as
food supplements.
86
31. (c) The scientist was unable to self-pollinate the
flower due to herkogamy. When a some form
of physical barrier makes self-pollination
impossible, the condition is referred as
herkogamy. Such a condition is found in
Calotropis.
32. (a) Lack of oestrogen in her body is the leading
cause of her irregular menstrual cycle because
oestrogen regulates the manstrual cycle. Rise
in oestrogen level helps in the growth of uterus
lining and fall of oestrogen level help in
shedding of endometrium lining.
33. (b) GIFT stands for Gamete Intra Fallopian
Transfer. It involves transfer of an ovum
collected from donor into the Fallopian tube of
another female who cannot produce one, but
can provide suitable environment to
fertilisation and further development of foetus.
34. (c) After induced fertilisation, embryo at
morula stage more than 8 celled blastomere
stage is transferred into the uterus for further
development.
35. (a) Each pollen grain contains vegetative cells
and a generative cell. In flowering plants, the
vegetative cell produces the pollen tube and
the generative cell divides to form two sperm
cells or male gametes.
36. (b) The boy’s father is haemophilic and his
mother is a carrier then
Haemophilic man Carrier woman
(Father) (Mother)
× So, 99 bases = 33 codons will be altered due to
XhY XhX
Gametes Xh Y Xh X
F1-generation Xh Xh XhY XY
XhX
Haemophilic Carrier Haemophilic Normal
daughter daughter son son
This couple will have one haemophilic
daughter while the other one will be a carrier.
But in case of son, they will have one
haemophilic son while other will be
SAMPLE PAPER 2
unaffected. Hence, this is 50% chances that the
boy will inherit the disease.
37. (c) Colour blindness is a sex-linked recessive
disease in which an X-linked recessive allele is
passed from an affected male, to a daughter
who is a heterozygous carrier and
subsequently to an affected grandson.
Thus in given case, maternal father is likely to
be colourblind. Such criss-cross trait is called as
diagynic trait.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
38. (a) In the case of sex linkage, reciprocal cross
shows a criss-cross inheritance pattern, i.e. male
transmits its sex-linked genes to all daughters,
who in turn transmit them to half of their male
progeny.
39. (d) Obtaining a 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio in case of a
cross involving two characters (dihybrid
cross), denotes that the alleles of the two genes
have segregated independently.
40. (d) The characters are said to be sex- linked if
their genes are located on the sex chromosome.
According to modern genetics, the
X-chromosome linked character, is called
sex-linked character, while Y-linked characters
are called male limited characters.
41. (d) Autosomes are homologous chromosomes,
i.e. chromosomes which contain the same
genes (regions of DNA) in the same order
along their chromosomal arms.
42. (b) Messenger RNA (mRNA) brings coded or
genetic information from the nucleus or from
DNA to the cytoplasm and takes part in
protein synthesis. They are responsible for
directing the proper sequence of amino acids
in protein synthesis.
43. (c) 999 bases in an RNA codes for a protein
with 333 amino acids.
If base at 901 position is deleted, the first 900
bases will be normal, while bases after 901th
position will be altered that is 99 bases will be
altered. 3 bases = 1 codon.
deletion of one base at 901 th position.
44. (b) The stop codons are UAA, UAG and UGA.
These codons are absent in the tRNA
molecules. tRNA possesses an amino acid
acceptor end which is the site for binding the
amino acids. Finally, the anticodon loop of the
tRNA contains bases that are complementary
to the codes.
45. (a) In bacteria, there is no specific enzyme to
catalyse the different types of RNAs (rRNA,
tRNA, mRNA).
Only one DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
catalyses the formation of all types of RNAs. In
case of eukaryotes, there are three types of
RNA polymerase for catalysing different types
of RNAs.
46. (a) RNA primers are removed by DNA
polymerase-I. It also plays role in DNA repair.
47. (b) VNTR is referred to as minisatellite DNA,
which repeats about 20-50 times.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 87

48. (b) A–DNA, B–H1 histone and C–Histone Hence In F1-generation,

octamer A = Tt, B = Tt, C = Tt, D = Tt
Hence, option (b) is correct. All tall progenies are obtained.
49. (d) The V, W and Y are 57. (b) Recombination frequency can be
V–Cytoplasm calculated as
Number of recombinants
W–Cells of corona radiata ´ 100
Total number of progeny
Y–Zona pellucida
Number of recombinants = 16 + 12 = 38
50. (a) The structure W is corona radiata and is
formed of radially elongated follicular cells. Total number of progeny
51. (d) X- Perivitelline space, Z- Nucleus = 80 + 16 + 12 + 92 = 200
52. (a) In humans, ovum is released from the ovary 38
Recombinant frequency = ´ 100
at ovulatory phase. 200
53. (d) Statement in option (d) is not a characteristic = 14%
of an ovum and can be corrected as Hence, option (b) is correct.
An ovum consists a lot of ooplasm.
58. (a) A–Regulatory gene. It is responsible for
54. (c) During fertilisation, the sperm comes in producing repressor proteins.
contact with structure Y which is zona pellucida B–Promoter. It is the binding site for RNA
layer of ovum and induces change in the polymerase in order to carryout
membrane to block the entry of other sperm. transcription.
55. (d) Statements I and II are correct, while III and C–Operator. It controls the gene expression
IV are incorrect. Incorrect statements can be by binding the receptor and inhibiting
corrected as transcription.
n The contrasting trands in Mendelian D–Structural gene. It codes for synthesis of
experiments do not show blending neither in certain polypeptides.
F1 nor in F2 -generation. 59. (b) A– 14 N-DNA
n Progenies of test cross can easily be analysed to
predict the genotype of the test organism. B– 15 N-DNA

56. (b) The given cross is a monohybrid cross where C– 14 N-DNA

two homozygous parents tall plant (TT) and D– 14 N-DNA
dwarf plant (tt) are crossed to produce 60. (b) The given figure is of replicating fork in
F1-generation. which the tamplate with polarity 3¢ ® 5¢, i.e.
TT × tt
T t
‘A’, replication is continuous and the
tamplate with polarity 5 ¢ ® 3 ¢, i.e. ‘B’
T Tt (B) t replication is discontinuous in it and C is the
Tt (A) Tt (C) parental strand.
Tt (D) Hence, option (b) is correct.
SAMPLE PAPER 2
88 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

SAMPLE PAPER 3
BIOLOGY
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class XII (Term I) Examination

General Instructions
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
(a) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(b) Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(c) Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
2. Each question carries 0.70 mark.
3. There is NO negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 35
Roll No. Time allowed : 90 Minutes

Section A
(Section-A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted
20 questions would be evaluated.)

1. The surrounding white coconut meal represents

(a) free-nuclear endosperm (b) cellular endosperm
(c) ruminate endosperm (d) Both (b) and (c)

2. Which of the following undergoes meiosis-I division during spermatogenesis?

(a) Primary spermatocytes (b) Secondary spermatocytes
(c) Sertoli cell (d) Leydig cell

3. In the figure given below, find out the type of seed and identify coleoptile, coleorhiza
and epiblast, respectively.
A

B
SAMPLE PAPER 3

E
F
G

(a) Monocot–A, B and C (b) Dicot–F, A and C

(c) Monocot–B, G and D (d) Dicot–D, E and A
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 89

4. Patterns and designs in the exine of pollen grains are the characteristic features of
(a) species of plants (b) genus of plants
(c) order of plants (d) None of these

5. Which of the following statements are true with respect to A and B ?

A B

I. A can be left in place for upto 10 years.

II. B contains progestogens only.
III. A supress fertilising capacity of sperm.
IV. B has similar mode of action as that of pills.
Choose the correct option.
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) III and IV (d) I and IV

6. Identify the correct sequence of female gametophyte formation in angiosperms.

(a) Nucellus, megaspore tetrad, megaspore mother cell, megaspore, female gametophyte
(b) Megaspore mother cell, megaspore tetrad, megaspore, nucellus, female gametophyte
(c) Nucellus, megaspore mother cell, megaspore tetrad, megaspore, female gametophyte
(d) Megaspore tetrad, nucellus, megaspore mother cell, megaspore, female gametophyte

7. Read the following statements and select the correct option(s).

I. Maintenance of hygiene and sanitation during menstruation is very important.
II. Primary oocytes surrounded by a layer of granulosa cells are called primary
follicles.
III. Seminal plasma is rich in fructose, calcium and certain enzymes.
IV. In females, uterus is single and also called womb.
(a) Only I (b) I and II
(c) Only III (d) All of these

8. Given below is the diagram of human ovary showing different stages of follicles.
B C

A D
SAMPLE PAPER 3

E
F
90 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

Select the option which correctly identifies the parts labelled as C, D and F.
C D F
(a) Primary follicle Secondary follicle Corpus luteum
(b) Secondary follicle Graafian follicle Corpus luteum
(c) Tertiary follicle Primary follicle Secondary follicle
(d) Tertiary follicle Graafian follicle Corpus luteum

9. Amniocentesis is the detection of

(a) chromosomal pattern by taking amniotic fluid
(b) chorionic fluid from developing embryo
(c) chromosomal pattern after childbirth
(d) chromosomal pattern before fertilisation

10. Several mammary ducts join to form a wider mammary ampulla, which is connected to
(a) lactiferous duct (b) seminiferous duct
(c) seminiferous tubules (d) nipple

11. The given figure is the enlarge view of microsporangium showing wall layers
A, B, C and D.
A

Which of the following layers has dense cytoplasm and more than one nucleus?
(a) B and C (b) Only D
(c) Only C (d) A and C

12. Type of gametes produced by a homozygous and a heterozygous individuals of

genotype AABB and AaBB, respectively are
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 5 (d) many

13. Which of the following is true about linkage ?

SAMPLE PAPER 3

I. It is phenomenon in which more recombinants are produced in F 2 -generation.

II. More parental combinations are produced in F 2 -generation.
III. Genotype which are present in F 1 hybrid, reappear in high frequency in
F 2 -generation.
IV. It is a phenomenon in which two chromosomes are linked.
Choose the correct option.
(a) Only I (b) Only II
(c) I and III (d) III and IV
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 91

14. The sensitivity of DNA fingerprinting can be increased by

(a) using intron sequences (b) using exon sequences
(c) using polymerase chain reactions (d) All of these

15. Which one of the following pairs is incorrect match of codon and amino acid coded by
it?
(a) CCA – Proline
(b) CGU – Arginine
(c) UCG – Alanine
(d) UAU – Tyrosine

16. Theoretically in incomplete dominance one allele functions as normal, while another
allele may function as
(a) normal allele (b) non-functional allele
(c) normal but less efficient allele (d) All of these

17. A marriage between normal vision man and colourblind woman will produce which of
the following types of offspring?
(a) Normal sons and carrier daughters
(b) Colourblind sons and carrier daughters
(c) 50% colourblind sons and 50% carrier daughters
(d) 50% colourblind sons and normal daughters

18. Given below are four diseases paired with their characteristics. Find which of the
following is incorrectly matched pair.
(a) Additional X-chromosome — Klinefelter‘s syndrome
(b) Sex-linked recessive trait — Thalassemia
(c) Metabolic error linked to autosomal recessive trait — Phenylketonuria
(d) Additional 21st chromosome — Down’s syndrome

19. What happens when the DNA replication starts?

(a) The phosphodiester bonds between the adjacent nucleotide breaks
(b) The bonds between the nitrogen base and deoxyribose sugar break
(c) The leading strand produces okazaki fragments
(d) The hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides of two strands break

20. Which of the following statements stands incorrect regarding DNA polymerase
enzyme in eukaryotes?
(a)DNA polymerase initiates replication
(b)DNA polymerase fills the gap when RNA primer is removed
(c)DNA polymerase is not involved in the post-replication DNA repair
(d)DNA polymerase adds deoxyribonucleotides at the 3 ¢ —OH group of growing DNA
SAMPLE PAPER 3

strand

21. The fact that a purine always base pair through hydrogen bonds with a pyrimidine
base leads to ……… in the DNA double helix.
(a) the antiparallel nature
(b) the semiconservative nature
(c) uniform width throughout DNA
(d) uniform length in all DNA
92 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

22. The frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a
measure of the distance between genes was explained by
(a) Gregor J Mendel (b) Alfred Sturtevant
(c) Sutton-Boveri (d) TH Morgan

23. If both the strands of DNA act as template during transcription, then what will
happen?
(a) The segment of DNA would code for two RNAs with different sequences
(b) Two RNA will be produced simultaneously complementary to each other
(c) There will be formation of double-stranded RNA
(d) All of the above

24. Refer to the given mRNA segment which can be translated completely into a
polypeptide.
A B
CGUGUU AUC

5’ 3’

Which of the following codons may correspond with A and B?

(a) A–AUG, GUG, B–UAA, UAG or UGA
(b) A–UAA, UGA, B–AUG, GUG or UAG
(c) A–AUG, UGA, B–GUG, UAA or UGA
(d) A–AUG, GAG, B–UAA, UUU or UGA

Section B
(Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No. 25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section.
The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated.)
Question Nos. 25 to 28 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

25. Assertion (A) Placental tissue is present inside the ovary.

Reason (R) Placenta bears ovules.
26. Assertion (A) The powerhouse of sperm is the middle piece.
Reason (R) The numerous mitochondria coiled around axial filament produce energy
for tail movement.
SAMPLE PAPER 3

27. Assertion (A) Study of karyotypes is used for detection of chromosomal aberrations.
Reason (R) Karyotypes can be utilised for sex-determination of unborn child.
28. Assertion (A) Untranslated regions are RNA sequences before initiation codon and after
termination codon.
Reason (R) Untranslated regions give stability to mRNA and elevates translational
efficiency.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 93

29. Observe the given diagram and select the incorrect statement regarding it.

I
II

III

(a) It represents the TS of mature dithecous anther

(b) I is single - layered protective covering
(c) Cells of II degenerate to provide nourishment to growing microspore mother cells
(d) The cells of III are uninucleated and monoploid

30. After implantation, finger-like projections appear on the trophoblast called … A… .

They are surrounded by … B… and maternal blood.
Here, A and B refer to
(a) A–chorion, B–foetal cell
(b) A–chorionic villi, B–uterine tissue
(c) A–uterine tissue, B–chorionic villi
(d) A–foetal cell, B–chorion

31. For some reasons if the vasa efferentia in the human male reproductive system get
blocked, then the gamete transport will not occurs from
(a) testes to epididymis (b) epididymis to vas deferens
(c) ovary to uterus (d) vagina to uterus

32. X is a colourless, nectarless and odourless flower having light and non-sticky pollen
grain and large feathery stigma. Then by which of the following means pollination is
possible in flower X?
(a) Anemophily (b) Hydrophily
(c) Entomophily (d) Zoophily

33. An ‘ART’ in which the semen collected either from the husband or a healthy donor is
artificially introduced either into the vagina or into the uterus is
(a) Intrauterine devices (b) Intrauterine insemination
(c) Interuterine insemination (d) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection

34. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases do not specifically affect
reproductive organs?
(a) Genital warts and hepatitis-B (b) Syphilis and genital herpes
(c) AIDS and hepatitis-B (d) Chlamydiasis and AIDS
SAMPLE PAPER 3

35. Human skin colour is a classic example for polygenic trait. The phenotype reflects the
contribution of each allele, i.e. the effect of each allele is additive. Let us assume that
three genes, i.e. A, B and C control skin colour in human with the dominant forms A, B
and C responsible for dark skin colour and the recessive forms a, b and c for light skin
colour. Then which of the following genotype will show darkest skin colour?
(a) AABBCc (b) AaBbCc
(c) AABBCC (d) AaBBCc
94 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

36. It is said that Mendel proposed that the factor controlling any character is discrete and
independent. His proposition was based on the
(a) results of generation of a cross
(b) observations that the offspring of a cross made between the plants having two
contrasting characters shows only one character without any blending
(c) self-pollination of F1 offsprings
(d) cross-pollination of F1 -generation with recessive parent

37. Read the given cross carefully and identify the type of disorder.

X X
X Y
Unaffected carrier
mother Unaffected father Normal Changed

X X X X X Y X Y
Unaffected Unaffected Affected Unaffected
carrier daughter son son
daughter

(a) Thalassemia (b) Phenylketonuria

(c) Haemophilia (d) Myotonic dystrophy

38. In a maternity ward, nurse forgot to put the identity bracelets on babies. There were
three babies that were not distinguished easily. The parents wanted to be sure and
asked for blood tests. A particular father was homozygous type A and mother was type
O. Among the listed options, there baby could be
(a) AB (b) O
(c) A (d) Any of these

39. Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a
polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as
(a) plastidome (b) polyhedral bodies
(c) polysome (d) nucleosome

40. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Structural gene in transcription unit is monocistronic in eukaryotes and polycistronic in
bacteria
(b) Monocistronic genes in eukaryotes are split
(c) Exons are non-coding and introns are coding sequences of gene
(d) Intervening sequences do not appear in mature or processed RNA
SAMPLE PAPER 3

41. Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate serve dual purposes. The purposes are

(a) act as substrate and decrease reaction rate
(b) provide energy for polymerisation and act as substrate
(c) decrease reaction rate and provide energy for polymerisation
(d) Synthesise RNA primer and decrease reaction rate
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 95

42. Select the incorrect statement.

(a) In lac operon, the three structural genes lie adjacent to each other
(b) The operator gene’s base sequence determines which strand of DNA helix attract RNA
polymerase
(c) Lac operon of E. coli is an example of inducible operon
(d) Inducer is a chemical which inactivates repressor by modifying its structure

43. Genes A, B and C are linked. Genes A and B are more close than A and C.
I. A might be present before B and C.
II. B might be between A and C.
III. C might be present between A and B.
IV. More crosses cannot occur between A and C than A and B.
Find out the correct option for the given information.
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) III and IV (d) I, II and IV

44. In E. coli, which of the following events will not occur when lactose is present?
I. Lactose acts as an inducer which binds to the repressor and forms an inactive
repressor.
II. The repressor fails to bind to the operator region.
III. The RNA polymerase binds to the operator and transcript lac mRNA.
IV. The repressor protein binds to the operator region of the operon and as a result
prevents RNA polymerase to bind to the operon.
Choose the corrcet option.
(a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV
(c) Only IV (d) Only III

45. Observe the given sequence of steps and select the correct option.
A B C
DNA ¾® hnRNA ¾® mRNA ¾® Proteins
A B C
(a) Replication Transcription Translation
(b) Transcription Splicing Translation
(c) Replication Processing Transcription
(d) Transcription Replication Translation

46. Choose the incorrect option.

(a) HGP is closely associated with bioinformatics
SAMPLE PAPER 3

(b) HGP will help in developing new ways to diagnose, treat and some day prevent
disorders affecting humans
(c) Fragment sequenced during HGP are done by method developed by Frederick Sanger
(d) Repetitive DNA sequences are stretches of DNA repeated 2-3 times in a DNA sequence

47. SNP or Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms is

(a) location on RNA where the single base differs
(b) location on proteins where the single base differs
(c) location on genome where the single base of DNA differs
(d) location on genome where many bases of DNA differs
96 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

48. Regulatory proteins are the accessory proteins that interact with RNA polymerase and
affect its role in transcription. Which of the following statements is correct about
regulatory protein?
(a) They only increase expression
(b) They only decrease expression
(c) They interact with RNA polymerase, but do not affect the expression
(d) They can act both as activators and as repressors

Section C
(Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q. Nos. 49 to 54).
Besides this, 6 more questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section. The first attempted
10 questions would be evaluated.)
Observe the given diagram and answer the questions that follows.
X
Y
Z

Cells shed by
growing foetus

Foetus
Syringe with needle
withdraws a small
amount of fluid
and cells

49. Identify the labels X and Y.

X Y
(a) Amnion Chorion
(b) Uterine wall Placenta
(c) Uterine wall Amnion
(d) Placenta Uterine wall

50. What is the function of Z ?

(a) Z is an amniotic fluid which prevents embryo desiccation
(b) Z is yolk sac which functions as site of early blood cell formation
SAMPLE PAPER 3

(c) Z is amnion which takes part in placenta formation

(d) None of the above

51. Which of the following diseases cannot be diagnosed by the technique shown in
diagram?
(a) Down’s syndrome (b) Turner’s syndrome
(c) Jaundice (d) Klinefelter’s syndrome
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 97

52. The given diagram represents an invasive technique. In contrast, a non-invasive

technique of detecting foetal disorder is
(a) fetoscopy (b) chorionic villi sampling
(c) ultrasound imaging (d) amniocentesis

53. Several hormones secreted by structure Y to maintain pregnancy are

(a) hCG, hPL, progestogens, oestrogens
(b) hCG, hPL, oestrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
(c) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
(d) hCG, progestogens, oestrogens, glucocorticoids

54. Which of the following is correct for hPL that is secreted by structure Y?
(a) Stimulate corpus luteum to secrete progesterone till the end of pregnancy
(b) Stimulate growth of mammary glands during pregnancy
(c) Support foetal growth and maintain pregnancy
(d) Inhibit uterine contractions

55. A, B and D are three independently assorting genes with their recessive alleles a, b and
d, respectively. A cross was made between individuals of Aa bb DD genotype with aa
bb dd. Find out the type of genotypes of the offspring produced.
I. AabbdD II. aabbDD
III. AabbDd IV. aabbDd
V. aAbbDd
Choose the correct option.
(a) I, III and III (b) III and IV
(c) II and III (d) I, II and V

56. The given figure represents an individual inflicted with chromosomal disorder.
Flat back of head Broad flat face

Many loops on
finger tips

Palm crease
Big and wrinkled
tongue
Congenital
heart disease
SAMPLE PAPER 3

On the basis of figure, which of the following conclusion can be drawn?

(a) This disorder is caused due to the absence of X-chromosome
(b) This disorder occurs due to polyploidy
(c) This disorder was first described by Langdon
(d) This disorder is caused due to the presence of an additional copy of Y-chromosome
98 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

57. Given below is a Punnett‘s square which represents the patterns of inheritance in a
dihybrid cross where yellow (Y) and round (R) seed condition is dominant over white
(y) and wrinkled (r) seed coat.
% YR Yr yR yr
&
YR F L W X
Yr I M O V
yR G C B A
yr N D E H

A plant of type ‘G’ will produce seeds with the genotype identical to seeds produced
by the plants of
(a) D (b) L (c) B (d) W

58. Identify A, B, C and D in the diagram given below.

Tyr
A

B
C

A U G
– D mRNA
3¢

(a) A–Variable arm, B–D-loop, C–T-loop, D–UAC

(b) A–Amino acid arm, B–T-loop, C–Variable arm, D–TAC
(c) A–Amino acid arm, B–T-loop, C–Variable arm, D–UAC
(d) A–Amino acid arm, B–D-loop, C–Variable arm, D–TAC

59. Identify A, B and C.

3′ 5′
A
5′ 3′
RNA σ Terminator

3′ 3′
B
5′ 5′
Promoter σ DNA helix
RNA polymerase Sigma factor
SAMPLE PAPER 3

3′ 5′
C
5′ 3′
ρ RNA
RNA polymerase
Rho factor

Choose the correct option.

(a) A–Elongation, B–Initiation, C–Termination
(b) A–Initiation, B–Termination, C–Elongation
(c) A–Initiation, B–Elongation, C–Termination
(d) A–Termination, B–Initiation, C–Elongation
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 99

60. Steps in DNA fingerprinting are

Isolation of DNA
¯
Digestion of DNA by A
¯
Separation of DNA by B
¯
Transfering of DNA to C
¯
DNA hybridisation using D
¯
Detecting of hybridised DNA by E
Complete the accompanying A, B, C, D and E in the flowchart are
(a) A–Restriction endonuclease, B–Electrophoresis, C–Nitrocellulose or Nylon membrane,
D–Labelled VNTR probe, E–Autoradiography
(b) A–Electrophoresis, B–Restriction endonuclease, C–Nitrocellulose or Nylon, D–Labelled
VNTR probe, E–Autoradiography
(c) A–Restriction endonuclease, B–Electrophoresis, C–Labelled VNTR probe,
D–Nitrocellulose or Nylon, E–Autoradiography
(d) A–Restriction endonuclease, B–Electrophoresis, C–Nitrocellulose or Nylon,
D–Autoradiography, E–Labelled VNTR probe

SAMPLE PAPER 3
 OMR SHEET SP 3
Roll No.

Student Name Sub Code.

Instructions
Use black or blue ball point pens and avoid Gel & Fountain pens for filling the OMR sheet.
Darken the bubbles completely. Don’t put a tick mark or a cross mark, half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read
by the software.
✔ ✗
Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect
Do not write anything on the OMR Sheet.
Multiple markings are invalid.

1 21 41
2 22 42
3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25 45
6 26 46
7 27 47
8 28 48
9 29 49
10 30 50
11 31 51
12 32 52
13 33 53
14 34 54
15 35 55
16 36 56
17 37 57
18 38 58
19 39 59
20 40 60

Check Your Performance

Total Questions: Total Correct Questions
Score Percentage = × 100
Total Correct Questions: Total Questions

Less than 60% > Average (Revise the concepts again)

If Your Score is Greater than 60% but less than 75% > Good (Do more practice)
Above 75% > Excellent (Keep it on)
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 101

Answers
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (a)

EXPLANATIONS
1. (b) In coconut, the surrounding white kernel
known as coconut meal is cellular endosperm
and coconut milk (coconut water) in the
centre is free nuclear endosperm, made up of
thousands of nuclei.
2. (a) The primary spermatocytes undergoes
meiosis-I during spermatogenesis and form
two haploid cells called secondary
spermatocytes which have 23 chromosomes
only.
3. (c) The given diagram is a LS of monocot
embryo where B, G and D represents
coleoptile, coleorhiza and epiblast. Monocot
seed possesses only one cotyledon.
4. (a) Patterns and designs in the exine of pollen
grains are the characteristic features of species
of plants as it differ from one species to
another.
5. (c) Both statements III and IV are correct for
diagrams A and B.
7. (d) All the given statements are correct.
8. (d) The given figure represent LS of ovary
where C, D and F represents tertiary follicle,
Graafian follicle and corpus luteum,
respectively.
The other labelling are
A–Blood vessels, B–Primary follicle and
E–Ovum.
9. (a) Amniocentesis is a foetal sex-determination
test based on the analysis of chromosomal
pattern using the amniotic fluid surrounding
the developing embryo.
10. (a) Several mammary ducts join to form a wider
mammary ampulla, which is connected to the
lactiferous duct through which milk is sucked
out by infants.
11. (b) The cells of tapetum contain dense
cytoplasm and more than one nucleus. It also
nourishes the developing pollen grain.

Cu-T (A) is an IUD which is insertid into
uterus by expert nurses or doctors. These
release copper ions which supresses the
sperm motility and fertilisation capacity of
sperm.
Implants (B) contain progestogen only or
combined with oestrogen. These are placed
under the skin and act similar to pills, but
their effective period are much longer than
pills.
Hence, layer D–Tapetum is the correct answer.
12. (a) The formula to calculate the number of
gametes from a given genotype is 2 n .
Where, n = number of heterozygosity in the
given genotype. Thus, number/types of gametes
produced by a homozygous individual of
genotype AABB is 2 ( 0) = 1 and by heterozygous
individual of genotype AaBB is 2 ( 1) = 2 .
13. (b) Statement II is the only correct statement
about linkage.
SAMPLE PAPER 3

6. (c) In angiosperms, the ovule body consists of
a mass of parenchymatous cells known as
nucellus. In the hypodermal region towards
the micropylar end develops a primary cell,
which due to further division forms a diploid
megaspore mother cell. The latter undergoes
meiotic division to form megaspore tetrad.
Usually the chalazal megaspore remains
functional while other three degenerate. The
functional megaspore is the first cell of female
gametophyte.
Rest of the statements are incorrect and can be
corrected as
l Genotype which were present in F1 hybrid,
reappear in low frequency in F2 -generation.
l Linkage is the phenomenon in which two genes
are physically linked.
14. (c) PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is the
technique in which many copies of DNA can be
produced in a short period of time. It can
increase the sensitivity of DNA fingerprinting.
102
15. (c) Option (c) represents incorrectly matched
pair and it can be corrected as
UCG codon codes for serine amino acid. Rest
other pairs are correctly matched.
16. (d) In incomplete dominance, the two genes of
an allelomorphic pair are not related as
dominant or recessive, but each of them
express themselves partially. In this
phenomenon, one allele may function
normally and the other may either function
normally, may be non-functional or may
perform normally, but with less efficiency. This
occurs due to some changes in the allele which
modifies the information present in it.
Thus, option (d) is correct.
17. (b) The marriage between colourblind woman
and normal vision man will result in
colourblind sons and carrier daughters.
XY × X CX C
(Normal man) (Colourblind woman)
XX C XX C X CY X CY
Carrier daughters Colourblind sons
Hence, option (b) is correct.
18. (b) Option (b) is incorrectly matched pair and
can be corrected as
Thalassemia is an autosomal linked recessive
blood disease. It is transmitted to offspring
when both the parents are unaffected carrier
for the gene.
19. (d) When the DNA replication initiates, the
hydrogen bonds that are present between the
two nucleotides of the two strands will break.
20. (c) Statement in option (c) is incorrect and can
be corrected as
DNA polymerase is known to have shown its
involvement in the post-replication DNA
repair as well.
Rest all statements are correct.
21. (c) The diameter of the strand is always
SAMPLE PAPER 3
constant due to a pairing of purine (adenine
and guanine) and pyrimidine (cytosine and
thymine). This specific bonding gives uniform
width to the DNA.
22. (b) Alfred Sturtevant was the first to explain
the concept of chromosomal mapping. It is
constructed on the basis of recombination
frequency between gene pairs on the same
chromosome. This frequency is directly
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
proportional to the distance between these two
genes.
It can be used to determine the exact location
of a gene on the chromosome.
23. (d) If both the strands of DNA acts as template,
two molecules of RNA having different
sequences would produce. They may get
wound to form double stranded RNA as
sequences of two strands will be
complementary to each other.
24. (a) Here, A would represents start codon and
B would be a stop condon.
A–AUG, GUG, B–UAA, UAG or UGA
25. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
Placenta is a ridge of tissue in the inner wall of
ovary which bears one or more ovules and the
way in which placenta is distributed with the
ovary is known as placentation.
26. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
There are mitochondria in the middle piece of
the human sperm coiled around the axial
filament called mitochondrial spiral. They
provide energy for sperm movement. So, it is
referred to as the powerhouse of the sperm.
27. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
Karyotype is the chromosome complement of
cell, individual or group of similar individuals
that provides description of number, types and
other characteristics of chromosomes. Any
change in the chromosome number is detected
immediately. Chromosomal abnormality
detection technique has made it possible to
identify the sex of developing foetus by
drawing amniotic fluid and preparing
karyotypes from cells derived from foetus
floating in this fluid.
28. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
Sequences of RNA before the initiation codon
and after the termination codon are termed as
untranslated sequences. Untranslated regions
are one of the crucial gene expression
regulators. They provide stability of mRNA
and elevates translational efficiency too.
29. (d) Statement in option (d) is incorrect and it
can be corrected as
The cells of III, i.e. tapetum are multinucleate
and polyploid. These are nutritive in function.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
30. (b) After implantation finger-like projections
appear on the trophoblast called chorionic villi
(A). They are surrounded by uterine tissue (B)
and maternal blood.
31. (a) Vasa efferentia arises from rete testis and
opens into narrow closely coiled tubule lying
in testis called epididymis which stores
sperms. Thus, if vasa efferentia gets blocked
then sperms will not be transported from testes
to epididymis.
32. (a) Anemophily is the mode for transferring
pollen grain from a mature anther to stigma
accomplished by pollinating agent, i.e. wind.
Anemophilic flowers are colourless, odourless
and nectarless. Also the pollens are light and
non-sticky whereas stigma is large and
feathery.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
33. (b) Intrauterine Insemination (IUI) is method
of ART in which the semen collected either
from donor or husband is artificially
introduced into the vagina or into the uterus of
female.
34. (c) AIDS and hepatitis-B are sexually
transmitted diseases, which do not specifically
affect reproductive organs. AIDS affects the
overall immune system of the individual and
hepatitis-B affects the liver. These are called
STDs because they spread via body fluids,
unsafe sex or use of needles, etc.
35. (c) The genotype with all the dominant alleles
(AABBCC) will have the darkest skin and that
with all recessive alleles (aabbcc) will have the
lightest skin colour.
36. (b) Observations that the offspring of a cross
made between the plants having two
contrasting characters shows only one
character without any blending.
When plants having two contrasting characters
are crossed, F1-generation shows dominant
phenotype and the recessive phenotype is not
lost, but appears in F2-generation. Thus,
suggesting that there is no blending of
Mendelian factors in F1-generation, but they
stay together and only one of them is
expressed. At the time of formation of gametes,
these two factors obviously separate or
segregate, otherwise recessive type will not
appear in F2-generation. The gametes which
are formed are always pure for a particular
character. That is why it is called as principle
of segregation or law of purity of gametes.
37. (c) The given cross show the transmission
mutant gene from carrier female to some of the
103
male progeny while the female progenies are
either carrier or unaffected.
Hence, it is sex- linked recessive disease. From
the given options only haemophilia is sex
linked recessive disease while
phenylketonuria, thalassemia are autosomal
linked recessive disorder and myotonic
dystrophy is autosomal dominant disorder.
38. (c) Father Mother
IA IA × i i
% IA IA
&
i A
I i IAi
i IAi IAi
Thus, the baby of this couple will have A blood
group only.
39. (c) Polysome is a string of ribosomes associated
with a single mRNA. Polysome helps to
produce a number of copies of the same
polypeptide.
40. (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect and
can be corrected as
The coding sequences or expressed sequences
are called exons. Intervening sequences or
non-coding sequences in an unprocessed RNA
are called introns.
Rest of the statements are correct.
41. (b) Option (b) is correct as
The phosphorylated nucleotides are deATP
(deoxy Adenosine Triphosphate), deCTP
(deoxy Cytidine Triphosphate), deTTP (deoxy
Thymidine Triphosphate). These triphosphates
serve dual purpose.
These act as substrate as well as provide
energy for polymerisation of nucleotides by
releasing energy after dissociating the
phosphate group.
42. (b) Statement in option (b) is incorrect. It can
be corrected as
The promoter gene marks the site at which
RNA polymerase enzyme binds. Its base
sequence determines which DNA helix attract
SAMPLE PAPER 3
RNA polymerase.
43. (a) Since, genes A and B are more close than
genes A and C, therefore gene A has to be
present before genes B and C with gene B
present in between genes A and C.
Other options are incorrect and can be
corrected as
l Gene C is not present between genes A and B.
l More crosses would occur between A and C
than A and B.
104
44. (c) In E. coli, the lac operon gets switched on
when lactose is present. The events which occurs
in the presence of lactose are
(i) Lactose acts as an inducer which binds to the
repressor and forms an inactive repressor.
(ii) The repressor fails to bind to the operator
region.
(iii) The RNA polymerase binds to the operator
and transcript lac mRNA.
45. (b) The given sequence of steps will be
Transcription Splicing
DNA ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾
¾® hnRNA ¾ ¾ ¾¾®
mRNA ¾Translation
¾ ¾ ¾¾® Proteins
46. (d) Option (d) is incorrect and can be corrected as
Repetitive DNA sequences are stretches of DNA
sequences that are repeated many times,
sometimes hundred to thousand times.
Rest of the options are correct.
47. (c) There are about 1.4 million locations where
single base DNA differences occurs. These
locations are called SNPs (snips) or Single
Nucleotide Polymorphism in humans.
48. (d) Regulatory protein is a term used in genetics
to describe a protein involved in regulating gene
expressions. There are often needed to switch a
gene on (activator) or to switch off a gene
(represssor).
Regulatory sequences (proteins) control the
functions of structural genes and are called
regulatory genes. The important regulatory
genes are promoters, terminators, operators and
repressor.
To regulate the process of transcription,
transcription factors (a sequence of specific
DNA-binding factor) alone or with other
proteins, promote (as an activator) or stop the
activity of RNA polymerase to DNA.
49. (b) The labels X and Y represent uterine wall and
placenta, respectively.
50. (a) Z represents amniotic fluid which helps the
developing baby to move inside the mother’s
SAMPLE PAPER 3
womb for proper growth and thus, prevents
embryo desiccation.
51. (c) Amniocentesis is a test to identify foetal
disorder based on the chromosomal pattern in
the amniotic fluid surrounding the developing
embryo. It helps in detecting genetic diseases like
Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome,
Klinefelter’s syndrome, etc.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
52. (c) Non-invasive techniques are available to
determine the foetal condition. These
techniques does not harm the foetus.
Therefore, ultrasound imaging is a
non-invasive technique.
53. (a) The hormones secreted by structure Y or
placenta to maintain pregnancy are hCG,
hPL, progestogens and oestrogens.
54. (b) human Placental Lactogen (hPL) is also
known as human Chorionic
Somatomamotropin (hCS), it stimulates the
growth of mammary glands during
pregnancy. hCG stimulate corpus luteum to
secrete progestogen and oestrogen.
Progesterone support foetal growth maintain
pregnancy and inhibit utrine contraction.
55. (b) The given cross Aa bb DD X aa bb dd, is
a trihybrid cross, accordingly the type of
offspring produced would be,
AabbDD aabbdd Parents
×
AbD abD abd Gametes
AabbDd aabbDd Offsprings
56. (c) The individual is inflicted with Down’s
syndrome. This was first described by
Langdon Down (1866). The cause for this
genetic disorder is trisomy, i.e. addition of
one extra copy of chromosome number 21.
57. (d) The ‘G’ is formed by the fusion of YR and
yR, hence has the genotype of YyRR.
Similarly plant ‘W’ is formed by the fusion
of yR and YR and also has the same
genotype of YyRR.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
58. (c) In the given tRNA, A, B, C and D
represents A–Amino acid arm B–T-loop,
C–Variable arm and D–UAC. Since, it is
tRNA here uracil will bind with adenine
instead of thymine.
59. (a) A represents Elongation, B represents
Initiation, C represents Terminations.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
60. (a) A–Restriction endonuclease,
B–Electrophoresis, C–Nitrocellulose or
Nylon membrane, D–Labelled VNTR probe,
E–Autoradiography
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 105

SAMPLE PAPER 4
BIOLOGY
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class XII (Term I) Examination

General Instructions
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
(a) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(b) Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(c) Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
2. Each question carries 0.70 mark.
3. There is NO negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 35
Roll No. Time allowed : 90 Minutes

Section A
(Section-A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted
20 questions would be evaluated.)

1. Seed is a result of
(a) meiotic division occurring in an unfertilised ovule
(b) mitotic division occurring in a fertilised egg
(c) mitotic division occurring in an unfertilised ovule
(d) None of the above

2. Identify A, B and C given in the figure of an embryo sac by choosing correct labelling
from the options given below
A

B
SAMPLE PAPER 4

(a) A–Synergids, B–Polar nuclei, C–Egg cell

(b) A–Synergids, B–Central cell, C–Polar nuclei
(c) A–Antipodals, B–Polar nuclei, C–Synergids
(d) A–Antipodals, B–Central cell, C–Egg cell
106 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

3. From among the situations given below, choose the one that prevents both autogamy
and geitonogamy.
(a) Monoecious plant bearing unisexual flowers
(b) Dioecious plant bearing only male or female flowers
(c) Monoecious plant with bisexual flowers
(d) Dioecious plant with bisexual flowers

4. To achieve 3-celled stage in angiosperms, which cell of the pollen grain divides to form
two male gametes?
(a) Vegetative cell
(b) Generative cell
(c) Microspore mother cell
(d) None of the above

5. Which of the following statements are true for the given structures X and Y.
Carpels

Stigma

Structure X Structure Y

I. Structure X is syncarpous and structure Y is apocarpous.

II. Structure X is apocarpous and structure Y is syncarpous.
III. Structures X and Y both are multicarpellary.
IV. Structures X and Y both are monocarpellary.
Codes
(a) I and III (b) III and IV
(c) II and III (d) I, II and IV

6. Read the following statements.

I. Spermatogonia and spermatids are diploid.
II. The extrusion of second polar body from nucleus occurs after the entry of sperm
and completion of fertilisation.
III. Spermatogenesis and sperm differentiation under the control of FSH and
SAMPLE PAPER 4

testosterone.
IV. A change in ovum after penetration of sperm is the formation of second polar body.
V. The secondary oocyte in the Graafian follicle forms a new membrane called zona
pellucida surrounding it.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) I, II, III and V (b) I and III
(c) Only III (d) II, III, IV and V
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 107

7. The figure given below represents embryonic development. Select from the options
given below, the correct explanation for the labelled parts A, B, C and D.
B
C
A

A B C D

(a) A– represents the fertilised zygote (b) B– represents stage of morula formation
(c) C– represents blastocyst (d) D– represents blastocyst implantation

8. Cleavage is the rapid mitotic division occurring on the way through isthmus to
oviduct. It occurs in
(a) gametes (b) zygote
(c) sperm (d) ova

9. Mammary glands are considered to be the part of reproductive system in the female
because
(a) mammary glands are the secondary sexual characters
(b) they are well-developed in female and vestigial in male
(c) after puberty, breast size increases due to the secretion of oestrogen
(d) All of the above

10. Observe the diagram shown below.

Now, identify Method –X

Type of reproductive system –Y
Name of operated part–Z
X Y Z
(a) Tubectomy Male Fallopian tubes
(b) Vasectomy Female Vas deferens
SAMPLE PAPER 4

(c) Tubectomy Female Vas deferens

(d) Tubectomy Female Fallopian tubes

11. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum is assisted by reproductive
technology is called
(a) GIFT (b) ZIFT
(c) ICSI (d) ET
108 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

12. Which among the following cannot be detected in a growing foetus with the help of
amniocentesis?
(a) Down’s syndrome (b) Tetanus
(c) Colour blindness (d) Cystic fibrosis

13. Which of the following statements are false?

I. A dominant allele determines the phenotype when paired with a recessive allele.
II. A recessive allele is weaker than a dominant allele.
III. A recessive allele do not shows its effects when paired with a dominant allele.
IV. A dominant allele is always better for an organism.
Codes
(a) I, II and IV (b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II and III (d) I, III and IV

14. Identify the incorrect statement for sex-determination in humans.

(a) Humans contain 23 pairs of autosomes
(b) Females produce only one type of ovum
(c) Genetic makeup of sperm determine the sex of the child
(d) In males, two types of gametes are produced

15. A colourblind man, whose parents had normal vision and whose paternal and
maternal grandparents had normal vision, probably he inherited the gene for colour
blindness from his
(a) maternal or paternal grandmother (b) maternal or paternal father
(c) father (d) mother

16. What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has an overall masculine
development, gynaecomastia and is sterile?
(a) Klinefelter’s syndrome (b) Edward’s syndrome
(c) Down’s syndrome (d) Turner’s syndrome

17. Mother and father of a person with ‘O’ blood group have ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood groups,
respectively. What would be the genotype of both mother and father?
Mother Father
(a) Homozygous for ‘A’ blood group Heterozygous for ‘B’ blood group
(b) Heterozygous for ‘A’ blood group Homozygous for ‘B’ blood group
(c) Heterozygous for ‘A’ blood group Heterozygous for ‘B’ blood group
(d) Homozygous for ‘A’ blood group Homozygous for ‘B’ blood group

18. Which of the following statements about Griffith’s experiment are correct?
SAMPLE PAPER 4

I. S-strain have mucus (polysaccharide) coat.

II. S-strain are virulent and cause pneumonia infection, while R-strain do not.
III. Transforming principle is associated with genetic material of R-strain.
IV. Transformation of R-strain into S-strain can take place in a test tube.
Codes
(a) I and III (b) III and IV
(c) I, II and IV (d) II, III and IV
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 109

19. UTRs present on mRNA refer to

(a) Untranscribed regions at both 5¢ end and 3¢ end
(b) Untranslated regions at 5¢ end
(c) Untranslated regions at both 5¢ end and 3¢ end
(d) Untranslated regions at 3¢ end

20. If double-stranded RNA is produced during transcription, it

(a) would prevent RNA from being translated into protein
(b) would not prevent RNA from being translated into protein
(c) will lead to continuous synthesis of RNA
(d) will give rise to double-stranded RNA with lower stability

21. Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E. coli that involves the lac i gene products
is
(a) positive and inducible because it can be induced by lactose
(b) negative and inducible because its repressor protein prevents transcription
(c) negative and repressible because its repressor protein prevents transcription
(d) feedback inhibition because excess of b-galactosidase can switch off transcription

22. Mendel selected pea plant to carry out his experiments because pea plant has all
characters. Identify and choose from the options below, the character that is not
Mendelian.
Characters Dominant Recessive
(a) Flower position Axillary Terminal
(b) Seed-shape Round Wrinkled
(c) Pod-shape Inflate Constricted
(d) Leaf-shape Ovale Elongated

23. Observe the diagram given below and answer the question that follows.
Bacteriophage
Radioactive ( 32P) labelled DNA
Radioactive (35S) labelled
protein capsule

Infection

Blending
SAMPLE PAPER 4

Centrifugation

No radioactive (35S) Radioactive (32P)

detected in cells detected in cells
+ +
Radioactive (35S) No radioactivity
detected in supernatant detected in supernatant
110 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

Hershey and Chase used 35 S and 32 P to prove that DNA is the genetic material. Their
experiments proved that DNA is genetic material because
(a) progeny viruses retained 32 P, but not 35 S
(b) retention of 32 P in progeny viruses indicated that DNA was passed on
(c) loss of 35 S in progeny viruses indicated that proteins were not passed on
(d) All of the above

24. Given below are steps of DNA replication.

I. Exposure of DNA strand.
II. Pairing of bases.
III. Synthesis of RNA primer.
IV. Activation of deoxyribonucleotides.
V. Formation of chain.
VI. Proofreading and DNA repair.
VII. Attachment of DNA polymerase enzyme at the ori site.
Select the correct arrangement of events occurring during replication.
(a) III ® I ® VII ® II ® V ® IV ® VI (b) VII ® IV ® I ® III ® II ® V ® VI
(c) VII ® III ® I ® II ® V ® IV ® VI (d) I ® III ® II ® VII ® IV ® V ® VI

Section B
(Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No. 25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section.
The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated.)
Question Nos. 25 to 28 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

25. Assertion (A) Only cross-pollination occurs in unisexual flowers.

Reason (R) The only way to prevent self-pollination in bisexual flowers is self sterility.
26. Assertion (A) Vigorous contraction of the uterus at the end of pregnancy causes in
expulsion.
Reason (R) Stimulatory reflex between the uterine contraction and oxytocin secretion
results in stronger contractions.
SAMPLE PAPER 4

27. Assertion (A) In barrier methods, ovum and sperms are prevented from meeting
physically.
Reason (R) Barrier methods can be used during intercourse to prevent the entry of
ejaculated semen into the reproductive tract of the female.
28. Assertion (A) Pairing and segregation of a pair of chromosomes would lead to the
separation of a pair of factors that they carry.
Reason (R) Two alleles from a pair of genes are located on similar sites of
non-homologous chromosomes.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 111

29. Consider the figure given below.

B F C

A D

Choose the incorrect pair.

(a) B – Antrum is fluid-filled cavity found in it
(b) C – Primary oocyte completes its Ist meiotic division inside it
(c) F – Haploid cell formed after Ist meiotic division
(d) D – Mature tertiary follicle which ruptures during ovulation

30. A particular species of plant produces light, non-sticky pollen in large numbers and its
stigmas are long and feathery. These modifications facilitate pollination by
(a) insects (b) water (c) wind (d) animals

31. A pregnant women recently visited a gynaecologist and was suggested to get a blood
test. which of the following hormones will be increased in blood due to gonadotropin
activity in a normal pregnent female.
(a) High levels of FSH and LH stimulate the thickening of endometrium
(b) High levels of FSH and LH facilitate implantation of the embryo
(c) High level of hCG stimulate the synthesis of oestrogen and progesterone
(d) High level of hCG stimulate the thickening of endometrium

32. A married couple want to follow a birth control measure which is easy to use and have
less side effects and the effects are reversible.
Which of the following birth control measure can be considered as the most effective
and reliable in this case?
(a) Oral method (b) Use of physical barriers
(c) Intra uterine devices (d) Sterilisation techniques

33. Implants (the progesterone or progesterone-oestrogen combination) are used by the

females usually under the
(a) skin of the inner arm above elbow (b) vagina
(c) upper skin of stomach (d) cervix

34. Filiform apparatus is characteristic

(a) cellular thickening at antipodal cell (b) cellular thickening at micropylar end
SAMPLE PAPER 4

(c) cellular thickening at synergid cells (d) cellular thickening at nuclear end

35. Small, inconspicuous flowers which are colourless and without nectar are the
characteristics of
(a) anemophilous flowers (b) ornithophilous flowers
(c) chiropterophilous flowers (d) entomophilous flowers

36. A cross between pure tall pea plant with green pods and dwarf pea plant with yellow
pods will produce ............ tall F2 plants out of 16.
(a) 15 (b) 7 (c) 12 (d) 13
112 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

37. Rrrr (progeny) Red (dominant) flowered (heterozygous) were crossed with white
flower (rrrr). The result will be
(a) 350 red: 350 white (b) 450 red: 250 white
(c) 380 red: 320 white (d) None of these

38. When a tall and red flowered individual is crossed with a dwarf and white flowered
individual, phenotype in the progeny is dwarf and white. What will be the genotype of
tall and red flowered individual?
(a) TTRR (b) TtRR (c) TtRr (d) TTRr

39. If a genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal, but carrier female to
only some of the male progeny, the disease is
(a) autosomal dominant (b) autosomal recessive
(c) sex-linked dominant (d) sex-linked recessive

40. There are five daughters and no son in a family. It may be due to
(a) father produced only X containing sperms
(b) father produced no sperms at all
(c) Y type sperms are weaker and not effective
(d) by chance each time X sperm fertilised the egg

41. Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of maize
plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridised, the F2 segregation will show
(a) segregation in the expected 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio
(b) segregation in 3:1 ratio
(c) higher number of the parental types
(d) higher number of the recombinant types

42. In a DNA, percentage of thymine is 20% then what will be the percentage of guanine?
(a) 20% (b) 40% (c) 30% (d) 60%

43. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of
base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 ´10 9 bp , then the
length of the DNA is approximately
(a) 2.5 m (b) 2.2 m (c) 2.7 m (d) 2.0 m

44. Identify the labels A, B, C and D is the given diagram of mRNA.

A B C D

5′ 3′

A B C D
(a) Methylated cap Initiation codon Termination codon Poly A tail
SAMPLE PAPER 4

(b) Poly A tail Termination codon Initiation codon Methylated cap

(c) Methylated cap Non-coding region Coding region Poly A tail
(d) Methylated cap Coding region Non-coding region Poly A tail
32
45. In Hershey and Chase experiment, radioactive P was used to culture bacteriophage
which resulted in radioactive
(a) viral DNA (b) bacterial capsule
(c) viral protein (d) plasma membrane of bacteria
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 113

46. It took .............years to study the human genome project entirely and it was completed
in ......... .
(a) 12, 2013 (b) 13, 2003 (c) 10, 2000 (d) 3, 1993

47. A mechanism that can cause a gene to move from one linkage group to another is
(a) translocation (b) inversion (c) crossing over (d) duplication

48. Identify the RNA strand transcribed from the below transcription unit along with its
polarity.
A T GC A T GC A T A C

U A C G U A C G U A U G U A C G U A C G U A T G
(a) (b)
5′ 3′ 3′ 5′
U T C G U A C G U A T G U A C G U A G C A A T G
(c) (d)
5′ 3′ 5′ 3′

Section C
(Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q. Nos. 49 to 54).
Besides this, 6 more questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section. The first attempted
10 questions would be evaluated.)
Observe the diagram given below and answer the questions that follows

Y
Z

49. The labelled part of gynoecium that determines the compatible nature of pollen is
(a) X (b) Y and W (c) Z (d) X and Y

50. Which of the following best describes the function of Z?

(a) It acts as a nourishment medium for the newly formed zygote
(b) It acts as a conduit to transport male gametes from stigma to ovule
SAMPLE PAPER 4

(c) It acts as a conduit to transport male gametes from ovule to stigma

(d) It stores the digested parts of the degraded tissues of stigma and style

51. Structure present inside W is a

(a) differentiated megasporangium (b) dedifferentiated megasporangium
(c) integumented megasporangium (d) redifferentiated megasporangium

52. Starting from the innermost part, the correct sequence of parts in an ovule is
(a) egg, nucellus, embryo sac, integument (b) egg, embryo sac, nucellus, integument
(c) embryo sac, nucellus, integument, egg (d) egg, integument, embryo sac, nucellus
114 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

53. Micropyle exists in

(a) seed (b) ovule
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) fruit

54. In a flower, if the megaspore mother cell forms megaspores without undergoing
meiosis and if one of the megaspores develops into an embryo sac, its nuclei would be
(a) haploid (b) diploid
(c) a few haploid and a few diploid (d) with varying ploidy

55. ‘A’ is a sex-linked recessive disorder which occur due to mutation in certain genes
present in the X-chromosome. Identify ‘A’
(a) Klinefelter (b) Haemophilia
(c) Phenylketonuria (d) Thalassemia

56. The given figure represents karyotype of an individual who inflicts with this
chromosomal disorder.

1 2 3 4 5

6 7 8 9 10 11 12

13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

or
21 22
XY 23 XX

Choose the correct statement regarding those who suffer from this chromosomal
disorder.
(a) This disorder occurs due to failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division
which results in the gain of chromosome
(b) This disorder occurs when cytokinesis does not take place after telophase stage, resulting
in an increase in a complete set of chromosome
(c) This disorder results in sterility among individuals
(d) Both (a) and (c)

57. Observe the cross shown below

Parents XY × XXc
Normal Normal (Carrier)
SAMPLE PAPER 4

male female

XX XXc XY XcY
Offspring Normal Normal Normal Colourblind
daughter daughter son son
(Carrier)

From the above cross it is clear that colour blindness is a

(a) autosomal trait (b) X-linked recessive trait
(c) X-linked dominant trait (d) None of these
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 115

58. Name the enzyme that is transcribed by gene Z.

Inactive repressor
(a) Lac A (b) b-galactosidase
(c) Amylase (d) Lipases

59. Given below is a sequence of steps of transcription in a eukaryotic cell.

DNA polymerase (A) RNA splicing (B)
DNA hn RNA Spliced RNA
Methyl
guanosine
triphosphate (D)
mRNA (C)
5′ 3′

What would be the result if step (D) does not occur during this process?
(a) Transcription is halted/affected (b) Translation is affected
(c) Translation is increased (d) None of these

60. Study the figure given below

Paternal chromosome
Maternal chromosome
Chromosome 7 Chromosome 7

Chromosome 2 Chromosome 2

Chromosome 16 Chromosome 16
DNA from individual A DNA from individual B

Number of short C A B
Number of short tandem repeats

tandem repeats 12
11
0 1 10
9
8
Chromosome 7 7
6
5
Chromosome 2
SAMPLE PAPER 4

4
3
2
Chromosome 16 1
Unknown DNA sample (C) Amplified repeats, separated by size on a gel

Name the technique depicted in figure

(a) DNA fingerprinting (b) DNA replication
(c) Transcription (d) Translation
 OMR SHEET SP 4
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CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 117

Answers
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (d)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (b)
51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (a)

EXPLANATIONS
1. (b) Seed is a result of mitotic division occurring
in a fertilised egg.
2. (c) A represents antipodals. They provide
nourishment to egg cell.
B represents polar nuclei. They act as food
supply unit for seed in dormancy after
fertilisation.
C represents synergids. They guide the entry
of pollen tube and release of sperm cells.
3. (b) Dioecious plants (bearing only male or
female flowers) prevent both autogamy and
geitonogamy.
4. (b) The generative cell of a pollen grain divides
to form two male gametes in order to achieve
the 3-celled stage in angiosperms.
start with the same tissues, but normally only
females generate the correct hormonal signals
to promote development of this glands at
puberty. Thus, these are vestigial in males. Its
size increases due to the secretion of oestrogen.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
10. (d) Tubectomy is the surgical method in
females in which small part of Fallopian tube is
removed surgically. These techniques are
highly effective, but poorly reversible.
11. (c) ICSI (Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection) is
a specialised procedure to form an embryo in
laboratory. In this process a sperm is directly
injected into the ovum placed in a nutrient
broth.

5. (a) Both the given structures are the pistil of
different flowers. In which structure X is
syncarpous and structure Y is apocarpous
while both are multicarpellary.
6. (d) Statements II, III, IV and V are correct.
Statement I is incorrect and can be corrected as
Spermatogonia are diploid and spermatids are
haploid.
7. (d) From the given figure, it is clearly observed
that
A represents fusion of male and female
gametes
B represents 2-celled blastomere
C represents 8-celled blastomere
D represents blastocyst implantation
12. (b) Amniocentesis is a procedure to detect
genetic disorders like Down’s syndrome,
colour blindness, etc., by using the sample
collected from the amniotic fluid of the
expecting mother.
However, tetanus is not a genetic disorder thus
cannot be detected.
13. (b) Statement I is correct. Statements II, III and
IV are incorrect and can be corrected as
l A recessive allele is not weaker than the
dominant allele.
l A recessive allele does not show its effect
because of modified or different enzymes. A
recessive allele can express in few cases, e.g.
incomplete dominance.
l It is not necessary that dominant allele is
always better.
SAMPLE PAPER 4

8. (b) Zygote divides rapidly by mitotic division

when it moves through the isthmus to the
oviduct towards the uterus. This rapid division
is called cleavage.
9. (d) All statements are correct.
The mammary glands are not the part of the
female reproductive tract, but are important in
secondary sexual characteristics.
The mammary glands develop in the tissue
underneath the skin. Both male and females
14. (a) The statement in option (a) is incorrect and
can be corrected as
Humans contain 22 pairs of autosomes and one
pair of sex chromosome, i.e. pair of
X-chromosome in females whereas one
X-chromosome and Y-chromosome in males.
Rest of the statements are correct.
15. (d) A male always carries X-chromosome from
his mother. Thus, if a male is colourblind, this
gene is inherited from his mother only.
118
16. (a) In Klinefelter’s syndrome, the affected
individual has overall masculine development,
gynaecomastia and is sterile. This condition is
due to the presence of an extra X-chromosome
in males. It can be represented by the karyotype
(44 + XXY).
17. (c) When both mother and father are
heterozygous for ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood groups,
respectively. Then few of their progeny would
have ‘O’ blood group. This can be explained as
Father Mother
Parents
(B group) (A group)
I Bi
Gametes IB i IA
F1-generation I A I B I Bi IAi
'AB' blood 'B' blood 'A' blood
group group group
18. (c) Statements I, II and IV are correct. Statement
III is incorrect and can be corrected as
Transforming principle is associated with
genetic material of S-strain.
19. (c) UTRs present on mRNA refer to
Untranslated Regions present at both 5¢ end
(before start codon) and 3¢ end (after stop
codon). These are the additional sequences that
are not translated. These are required for
efficient translation process.
20. (a) Double-stranded RNA have more stability
than the single-stranded DNA.
If double-stranded RNA is formed during
transcription, then it would be difficult to
separate the strands of RNA, due to which the
translation will be halted.
21. (b) Gene regulation governing lactose operon of
E. coli that involves the lac i gene products is
negative and inducible because its repressor
protein prevents transcription.
Lac i gene produces an inhibitor or repressor
that induces negative regulation of lac operon.
SAMPLE PAPER 4
The repressor binds to the operator gene and
stops its working. Repressor is meant to block
the operator gene, so that structural genes are
unable to form mRNA, thus stopping the
transcription of genes.
On the other hand, lactose operon is inducible
operon system. It is a regulated unit of genetic
material which is switched on in response to
the presence of a chemical.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
22. (d) Mendel selected pea plant as it had all the
seven characters which included stem height,
flower colour, flower position, seed-shape,
seed colour, pod-shape and pod colour.
However, leaf-shape was not included in
those characters.
23. (d) Hershey and Chase used 35 S and 32 P to
prove that DNA is genetic material. Their
experiments prove DNA as genetic material
because
32 35
(i) Progeny viruses retained P, but not S.
32
I Ai (ii) Retention of P in progeny virus indicates
that DNA was passed on.
(iii) Loss of 35 S in progeny viruses indicated
i that the proteins were not passed on.
24. (b) The correct sequence of events which occur
during replication is
ii
VII ® IV ® I ® III ® II ® V ® VI
'O' blood
group DNA polymerase enzyme attaches at the ori
site and activation of deoxyribonucleotides
occurs. The DNA strands are exposed and
synthesis of RNA primer occurs on the
template DNA. Base pairing occurs which
leads to chain formation and elongation.
Proofreading and DNA repair is done at the
end.
25. (c) A is true, but R is false.
In unisexual flowers like hemp, cross
pollination becomes obligatory.
In plants with bisexual flowers,
self-pollination can be prevented by self
sterility, dichogamy, heterostyly, etc. Plants in
which pollen of a flower is unable to bring
about fertilisation in same flower are called
self sterile.
26. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation for A.
Vigorous contraction of the uterus at the end
of pregnancy causes parturition. The signals of
parturition originate from a fully developed
foetus and the placenta.
This stimulates the release of oxytocin which
acts on uterine muscle and cause stronger
uterine contractions. The stimulatory reflex
between uterine contraction and oxytocin
secretion continues, resulting in stronger
contraction.
27. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
Barrier methods include preventing the sperms
and ovum to meet physically.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 119

Parents Tall green × Dwarf yellow

Such methods can be used during intercourse
TT yy ttYY
to prevent the entry of ejaculated semen into
the females reproductive tract. tY
Gametes Ty
28. (c) A is true, but R is false.
According to chromosomal theory of
F1-generation TtYy
inheritance given by Sutton and Boveri, Self-fertilisation
chromosomes possess Mendelian factors or F2-generation 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
genes. They segregate and assort independent Tall yellow : Tall green : Dwarf yellow : Dwarf green
during meiosis and recombine in zygote
during fertilisation. Total tall plants = 12
Like genes, chromosomes also occur in pair, 37. (a) The cross of red dominant heterozygous
and the two alleles from a pair of genes are progeny with white flower is shown below
located on similar sites of a homologous Rrrr × rrrr
(Red dominant) (White recessive)
chromosome.
rr rr
29. (a) Option (a) contains the incorrect match. It
can be corrected as Rrrr Rrrr
Rr
(Red) (Red)
Antrum is the fluid-filled cavity which is
found in tertiary follicle or Graafian follicle rr rrrr rrrr
(White) (White)
(C and D).
Rest of the matches are correct. Ratio Red : White
1 : 1
30. (c) Wind pollination requires light and 350 : 350
non-sticky pollen grains so that, they can be
transported with wind currents and its stigma Thus, option (a) is correct.
are long and feathery to easily trap airborne 38. (c) Recessive allele in a zygote appears only if
pollen grains. both of its parents have this allele, i.e. they are
31. (c) Statement in option (c) is correct. Rest of heterozygous.
the statements are incorrect and can be Thus, individual would have TtRr genotype.
corrected as 39. (d) The sex-linked recessive disease shows its
l High levels of FSH and LH stimulates transmission from unaffected carrier female to
ovulation not the thickening of endometrium some of the male progeny, e.g haemophilia.
for the implantation of the embryo. The heterozygous female (carrier) of
l High level of oestrogen stimulates the haemophilia may transmit the disease to sons.
thickening of the endometrium. The possibility of a female becoming a
32. (b) Use of physical barriers like condoms are haemophilic is extremly rare because mother of
easily available and have least side effects and such a female has to be at least carrier and
does not have any permanent effect. father should be haemophilic.
33. (a) Implants are inserted under the skin of the 40. (d) There are five daughters and no son in the
inner arm above the elbow. These steroid family because by chance, each time X sperm
capsules slowly release the progesterone or fertilised the egg.
progesterone-oestrogen combination for about 41. (c) The closely located gene show the tendency
5 years. of linkage and they are transmitted together to
34. (c) Filiform apparatus are the special the next generation.
SAMPLE PAPER 4

finger-like cellular thickening of synergid
cells. It guards the pollen tube inside the
ovule towards the embryo sac.
35. (a) Small, inconspicuous flowers which are
colourless, odourless and nectarless are
characters of anemophilous flowers (flowers
pollinated by wind).
36. (c) Tall is dominant over dwarf and yellow
pods are dominant over green pods.
If two closely located genes show linkage, they
do not show crossing over and result in
formation of higher number of the parental
type.
42. (c) According to Chargaff’s rule, the ratio of
purine bases to pyrimidine bases is equal.
A=T;C=G
If T is 20% then A is 20% similarly C and G are
30% each.
120
43. (b) The distance between two consecutive base
pairs is 0.34 nm (0.34×10 -9m). The length of
DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell
can be calculated by multiplying the total
number of bp with distance between the two
consecutive bp, i.e. 6.6 ´10 9 bp ´ 0 .34 ´ 10 -9
m/bp = 2.2 m (the length of DNA).
Thus, option (b) is correct.
44. (c) In the given figure
A–Methylated cap
B–Non-coding region
C–Coding region
D–Poly A tail
45. (a) Hershey and Chase grew some viruses on a
medium that contained radioactive
phosphorus ( 32 P) and some others on medium
that contained radioactive sulphur ( 35 S).
Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive
phosphorus contained radioactive DNA, but
not radioactive protein because DNA contains
phosphorus, but protein coat lacks it.
Similarly, viruses grown on radioactive
sulphur contained radioactive protein coat but
not radioactive DNA because DNA does not
contain sulphur.
46. (b) Human genome project was completed in
13 years in 2003.
47. (a) Translocation refers to change in location of
genes from one linkage group to another. It is
separation of a chromosome segment and its
union to non-homologous chromosome.
48. (a) The RNA strand transcribed from the
shown transcription unit will be
U A C G U A C G U A U G
5′ 3′
49. (a) X is stigma. It determines the compatible
nature of pollen.
50. (b) Z represents pollen tube. It acts as a conduit
to transport male gametes from stigma to
ovule.
51. (c) An ovule is an integumented
SAMPLE PAPER 4
megasporangium found in angiosperms,
which develops into seed after fertilisation.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
52. (b) Starting from the innermost part, the
correct sequence of parts in an ovule is egg,
embryo sac, nucellus and integument.
53. (c) Micropyle is found in both seed and ovule.
In seed, it is the pore through which water
goes inside during germination. In ovule, the
absence of integument forms micropyle.
54. (b) If MMC (Megaspore mother cell) forms
megaspores without meiosis, the megaspores
will be diploid (2n). If this diploid megaspore
develops into embryo sac its nuclei would also
be diploid except for the polar cell which
would be tetraploid.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
55. (b) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive
disorder which occurs due to the mutation in
certain genes which are involved in blood
clotting. This defect mostly affect males as they
have only one X-chromosome whereas females
remain carrier.
56. (a) The given karyotype is of a person
suffering from Down’s syndrome. This
syndrome occurs due to failure of segregation
of chromatids during cell division resulting in
a gain of chromosome.
57. (b) Colour-blindness is a X-linked recessive
trait which occur due to defect in either red or
green cone of eye resulting in failure to
discriminate between red and green colour.
This defect mostly affect male because the gene
for colour blindness is located on
X-chromosome and males have only one
X-chromosome whereas females remains
carrier.
58. (b) The gene product of lac z is b-galactosidase
which cleaves lactose into glucose and
galactose.
59. (b) The capping (D) helps in translation. The
initiation factor involved in protein synthesis
recognises the cap to help initiate the
translation by ribosomes which will be affected
if the cap is not present on transcript.
60. (a) The figure is depicting a schematic
representation of the technique of DNA
fingerprinting.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 121

SAMPLE PAPER 5
BIOLOGY
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class XII (Term I) Examination

General Instructions
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
(a) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(b) Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(c) Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
2. Each question carries 0.70 mark.
3. There is NO negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 35
Roll No. Time allowed : 90 Minutes

Section A
(Section-A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted
20 questions would be evaluated.)

1. An ovule is a
(a) differentiated megasporangium (b) dedifferentiated megasporangium
(c) integumented megasporangium (d) redifferentiated megasporangium

2. The given diagram shows discharge of gametes in the egg apparatus. Identify the
labelled parts as A, B and C.
A

C
SAMPLE PAPER 5

(a) A–Polar nuclei, B–Female gametes, C–Synergid cell

(b) A–Male gametes, B–Synergid cells, C–Polar nuclei
(c) A–Synergid cell, B–Male gametes, C–Polar nuclei
(d) A–Polar nuclei, B–Male gametes, C–Synergid cell
122 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

3. Advantage of cleistogamy is
(a) higher genetic variability (b) more vigorous offspring
(c) no dependence on pollinators (d) vivipary

4. Flowers, which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are
usually pollinated by
(a) water (b) bee (c) wind (d) bat

5. Which of the following statements are true for X and Y?

X Y
I. X is a type of pistil present in Michelia.
II. X is a type of pistil present in Papaver.
III. Y is a type of pistil present in Michelia.
IV. Y is a type of pistil present in Papaver.
Codes
(a) I and III (b) II and IV (c) II and III (d) I and IV

6. Read the following statements.

I. Scrotum keeps the temperature of testes about 9-10°C lower than the internal body
temperature.
II. Each testicular lobule contains 5 to 6 highly coiled seminiferous tubules in which
sperms are produced.
III. Seminiferous tubule is the structural and functional unit of testes in which sperms
are produced.
IV. Sertoli cells are activated by FSH secreted by the adenohypophysis.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
(a) I and III (b) I and II (c) II and IV (d) III and IV

7. Study the chart given below.

Blastocyst
SAMPLE PAPER 5

Contains two types of cell

A B

Select the option containing the correct identity of A and B.

(a) A–Trophoblast, B–Inner cell mass
(b) A–Placenta, B–Embryoblast
(c) A–Placenta, B–Trophoblast
(d) None of the above
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 123

8. What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?

(a) Spermatid, Spermatocyte, Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa
(b) Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatozoa, Spermatid
(c) Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa, Spermatocyte, Spermatid
(d) Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatids, Spermatozoa

9. Which one of the following is not the function of placenta?

(a) Facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embryo
(b) Secretes oestrogen
(c) Facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and waste material from embryo
(d) Secretes oxytocin during parturition

10. Lactational amenorrhea is the

(a) absence of menses in adult age (b) absence of menses in elderly age
(c) absence of menses during lactation (d) no menses during pregnancy

11. The following graph shows relative concentrations of the four hormones present in the
blood plasma of a woman during her menstrual cycle. Identify the hormones A, B, C
and D.

C
Increasing concentration

B
of hormone

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 2122 23 24 25 26 27 28
Days
(a) A–FSH, B–Progesterone, C–LH, D–Oestrogen
(b) A–LH, B–Progesterone, C–FSH, D–Oestrogen
(c) A–FSH, B–Oestrogen, C–LH, D–Progesterone
(d) A–LH, B–Oestrogen, C–FSH, D–Progesterone

12. The phenotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross in F2 -generation is

(a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 : 1
(c) 2 : 1 : 1 (d) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

13. Which of the following option represents a test cross correctly?

(a) Pp × pp (b) Pp × PP
(c) Pp × Pp (d) PP × pp
SAMPLE PAPER 5

14. Select the incorrect statements from the options given below with respect to dihybrid
cross.
I. Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations.
II. Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations.
III. Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations.
Codes
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) I and III (d) I, II, III and IV
124 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

15. A person with type A blood group may safely receive a transfusion of
(a) type-AB (b) type-A and type-O
(c) type-A and type-AB (d) type-AB and type-O

16. The popular blood grouping, called the ABO grouping, is named ABO and not ABC.
The ‘O’ in it, refers to having.
(a) Overdominance of this type of genes for A and B types
(b) No antigens of A and B on RBCs
(c) Either anti-A or anti-B on RBCs
(d) Other antigens beside A and B on RBCs

17. Two columns I and II are given below where Column I contains some scientist names
while Column II contains their discoveries. Identify the incorrectly matched pair of
scientist and his discovery.
Column I Column II
(Scientists ) (Discoveries)
(a) Gregor J Mendel Law of inheritance
(b) Sutton and Boveri Chromosomal theory of inheritance
(c) Henking Discovered X-body
(d) de Vries Linkage

18. DNA fingerprinting involves separation of negatively charged DNA fragments based
on their size using
(a) liposome enzyme (b) PEG
(c) electrophoresis (d) polymerase enzyme

19. Which among the following is a factor due to which the two strands of a long DNA
molecule fail to separate in its entire length?
(a) Enzymes (b) RNA
(c) Phosphate groups (d) High energy

20. Which of the following statement is correct about tRNA?

(a) It binds with amino acid at its 3 ¢-end
(b) It has five double-stranded regions
(c) It looks like clover leaf in the 3-dimensional structure
(d) Each tRNA contains four unpaired bases

21. With regard to mature mRNA in eukaryotes

(a) exons and introns do not appear in the mature RNA
(b) exons appear, but introns do not appear in the mature RNA
(c) introns appear, but exons do not appear in the mature RNA
SAMPLE PAPER 5

(d) Both exons and introns appear in the mature RNA

22. The human chromosome with the highest number of genes in them is
(a) chromosome 21 (b) chromosome X
(c) chromosome 1 (d) chromosome Y
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 125

23. The result of which of the following reaction experiments carried out by Avery et al., on
Streptococcus pneumoniae has proved conclusively that DNA is the genetic material?
(a) Live R-strain + DNA from S-strain + RNase
(b) Live R-strain + DNA from S-strain + DNase
(c) Live R-strain + Denatured DNA of S-strain + Protease
(d) Heat-killed R-strain + DNA from S-strain + DNase

24. Identify the RNA and its amino acid which will activate due to the presence of UAC on
mRNA.
B

U A C
Site A Site B
(a) AUG tyr
(b) tyr AUG
(c) UAC tyr
(d) tyr UAC

Section B
(Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No. 25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section.
The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated.)
Question Nos. 25 to 28 consist of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

25. Assertion (A) Pollen wall is made up of intine and exine.

Reason (R) Both exine and intine have depositions of sporopollenin.
SAMPLE PAPER 5

26. Assertion (A) The process of oogenesis is different from spermatogenesis.

Reason (R) Oogenesis is initiated during embryonic development stage when millions
of oogonia are formed in each fetal ovary.
27. Assertion (A) ABO blood group system provides a good example of multiple alleles.
Reason (R) In ABO blood group system, I A and I B alleles present together, express
their own types.
126 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

28. Assertion (A) If the base sequence of one DNA strand is known, the sequence of other
DNA strand can be predicted.
Reason (R) Both the DNA strands are complementary in nature.
29. A pouch commonly known as scrotum, enclosed the human testes outside the
abdominal cavity. What is the purpose served by scrotum?
(a) Acceleration of maturation of sperms
(b) Providing more space for the growth of epididymis
(c) Maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the body temperature
(d) Providing a secondary sexual feature in order to exhibit the male sex

30. Xenogamy involves transfer of pollen grain from the anther of a flower to the stigma of
different flower. Which of the following can be exemplified under xenogamy?
I. Papaya II. Mirabilis
III. Oxalis IV. Maize
Codes
(a) Only I (b) I and II
(c) Only III (d) I and IV

31. ‘Transfer of pollen grain from anther to stigma is known as pollination’. Many events
occur in order to achieve fertilisation. Here, some statements are given regarding those
events. Choose the correct statement.
(a) Pollination gives the guarantee of the promotion of post-pollination events that lead to
fertilisation
(b) The events ‘from pollen deposition on stigma until pollen tubes enter the ovule’ are
together referred to as pollen-pistil interaction
(c) Pollen-pistil interaction is a dynamic process involving pollen recognition followed by
only promotion (not rejection) of the pollen
(d) Pistil has no ability to recognise the pollen, whether right or wrong type

32. Which of the following contraception are made up of rubber and are inserted into the
female reproductive tract to cover the cervix during intercourse?
(a) Diaphragm (b) Vaults
(c) IUDs (d) Both (a) and (b)

33. The spermatogonia undergo division to produce sperms by the process of

spermatogenesis.
Choose the correct option with reference to above statement.
(a) Spermatogonia have 46 chromosomes and always undergo meiotic cell division
(b) Primary spermatocytes divide by mitotic cell division
(c) Secondary spermatocytes have 23 chromosomes and undergo second meiotic division
(d) Spermatozoa are transformed into spermatids
SAMPLE PAPER 5

34. In a fertilised embryo sac, the haploid, diploid and triploid structures are
(a) synergid, zygote and primary endosperm nucleus
(b) synergid, antipodal and polar nuclei
(c) antipodal, synergid and primary endosperm nucleus
(d) synergid, polar nuclei and zygote
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 127

35. If an endosperm has 36 number of chromosomes then find out the number of
chromosome in an male and female gamete.
(a) 18, 18 (b) 17, 18
(c) 20, 20 (d) 12, 12

36. Mendel’s principle of segregation means that the germ cells always receive
(a) one pair of alleles
(b) one quarter of the genes
(c) either one allele from father or one allele from mother
(d) any pair of alleles

37. The number of different genotypes observed in the F2 -generation of a dihybrid cross
are
(a) 9 (b) 12
(c) 4 (d) 6

38. Represented below is the inheritance pattern of a certain type of disorder in humans.
Which one of the following conditions could be an example of this pattern?

Female Male
(mother) (father)

Daughter Son

(a) Myotonic dystrophy (b) Down’s syndrome

(c) Haemophilia (d) Thalassemia

39. A person with Turner’s syndrome has

(a) 44 autosomes and XXY sex chromosome (b) 44 autosomes and XO sex chromosome
(c) 44 autosomes and XYY sex chromosome (d) 44 autosomes and XXX sex chromosome

40. A man whose father was colourblind marries a woman, who had a colourblind mother
and normal father. What percentage of male children of this couple will be
colourblind ?
(a) 25% (b) 0%
(c) 50% (d) 75%

41. Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one trait. The phenomenon is
called
(a) multiple allelism (b) mosaicism
SAMPLE PAPER 5

(c) pleiotropy (d) polygeny

42. Pyrimidine common for both DNA and RNA is

(a) adenine (b) guanine
(c) cytosine (d) thymine

43. Rate of DNA polymerisation of DNA polymerase is

(a) 1000 bp/s (b) 2000 bp/s
(c) 3000 bp/s (d) 5000 bp/s
128 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

44. If the percentage of cytosine is 18% then what will be percentage of adenine?
(a) 32% (b) 64%
(c) 36% (d) 23%

45. Which of the following option shows the correctly labelled region in the given DNA
replication fork?
Template DNA
(parental strands)

Continuous 5′ Discontinuous
synthesis 5′
synthesis

5′ 5′
3′ 3′
B
A

(a) Only A (b) Only B

(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

46. In prokaryotes, control of the rate of ...A... is the pre-dominant site for the control of
gene expression. In a transcription unit, the activity of ...B... at a given promoter is in
turn regulated by interaction with ...C... proteins, which affect its ability to recognise
the start sites.
Complete the statement by filling the correct options in given blanks.
(a) A–RNA replication, B–DNA polymerase, C–accessory
(b) A–transcriptional initiation, B–RNA polymerase, C–accessory
(c) A–translational initiation, B–RNA polymerase, C–accessory
(d) A–DNA replication, B–RNA polymerase, C–accessory

47. The fact that a purine always paired with a pyrimidine through hydrogen bonds. This
leads to
(a) the antiparallel nature of DNA
(b) the semiconservative nature of DNA
(c) uniform width throughout DNA
(d) uniform length in all DNA

48. Given below is the model of lac operon showing events in the presence of inducer.
p i p o z y a In the presence of inducer
Transcription

Repressor mRNA lac mRNA

Translation
β -galactosidase Permease Transacetylase
SAMPLE PAPER 5

Inducer

(Inactive repressor)

But if the inducer is absent, then which of the following event will not occur
(a) i gene regulates and produces repressor mRNA which translates repressor
(b) the repressor protein binds to the operator region of the operon and as a result prevent
RNA polymerase to bind to the operon
(c) the operon is switched ON
(d) Both (a) and (b)
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 129

Section C
(Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q. Nos. 49 to 54). Besides
this, 6 more questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section.)

Observe the given diagram and answer the following questions that follows
B
tRNA

A U G
U A C mRNA
5¢ 3¢

49. Identify the labels A and B in the given diagram.

(a) Anticodon loop, D-loop
(b) Variable loop, Anticodon loop
(c) Codon loop, Variable loop
(d) D-loop, Amino acid acceptor end

50. Choose the statement(s) with incorrect description about tRNA.

I. It looks like a clover leaf.
II. It is not specific for each amino acid.
III. Particular triplet codon in mRNA is read by tRNA.
Codes
(a) Only I (b) Only II
(c) I, II and III (d) II and III

51. The presence of an adapter molecule that would on one hand read the code and on the
other hand attach to particular amino acids was postulated by
(a) James Watson (b) Francis Crick
(c) Griffith (d) Rosalind Franklin

52. Before postulation of genetic code, tRNA was called as

(a) rRNA (b) mRNA
(c) sRNA (d) sedimentary RNA
SAMPLE PAPER 5

53. The differences between mRNA and tRNA is that

(a) mRNA bears anticodon, but tRNA has codons
(b) mRNA is usually smaller than tRNA
(c) tRNA has more elaborated 3D structure due to extensive base pairing
(d) mRNA has more elaborated 3D structure due to extensive base pairing

54. In the protein synthesis, tRNA carrying the amino acid enters from which site of the
ribosome?
(a) A-site (b) P-site
(c) Anticodon site (d) R-site
130 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

55. By choosing the correct option from the ones given below, correctly identify the parts
labelled as A, B and C in the given figure.
A

A B C
(a) Chalaza Nucellus Micropyle
(b) Chalaza Embryo sac Micropyle
(c) Micropyle Nucellus Chalaza
(d) Micropyle Embryo sac Chalaza

56. Identify the labelling of given diagrams.

C
B

(a) A–MMC, B–Megaspore dyad, C–Nucleus

(b) A–Nucellus, B–Megaspore dyad, C–MMC
(c) A–Nucellus, B–MMC, C–Megaspore dyad
(d) A–MMC, B–Nucellus, C–Megaspore dyad

57. Name A, B and C hormones in the given figure.

A B
Positive feedback

From mother’s posterior pituitary

From ovaries
Stimulates uterus to contract
Induces oxytocin Stimulates placenta to make
receptors on
C
uterus
Stimulates more
contractions of uterus
SAMPLE PAPER 5

(a) A–Prostaglandin, B–Oxytocin, C–Oestrogen

(b) A–Oestrogen, B–Oxytocin, C–Prostaglandin
(c) A–Oestrogen, B–Prostaglandin, C–Oxytocin
(d) A–Prostaglandin, B–Oestrogen, C–Oxytocin
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 131

58. Choose the correct option for the labellings A, B, C and D given in the following
diagram.

C B
D

(a) A– Testis–possesses 3-4 testicular lobule (b) B– Seminal vesicle–storage of sperm

(c) C– Vas deferens–helps in sperm transfer (d) D– Prostate gland–secretes seminal fluid

59. The given diagram X shows birth control method.

X
Read the given statements carefully and choose the correct option for X.
I. X is done in males. II. In X, vas efferentia is cut and tied.
III. In X, Fallopian tube is cut and tied. IV. X block the transport of gametes.
V. In X, vas deferens is cut and tied.
Codes
(a) I and III (b) II and IV
(c) III and IV (d) I , II and III

60. The chart given below shows embryonic development in various months of pregnancy.
Months Embryonic development
1st month Formation of heart
2nd month Development of limbs and digits
3rd month Development of external genital organs
5th month .........A.........
SAMPLE PAPER 5

6th month .........B.........

Identify the embryonic development at 5th and 6th month.

A B
(a) Hair on head Eyelids separate
(b) Eyelashes formed Formation of lungs
(c) Major organs are formed Hearing of heartbeat
(d) Body covered with fine hair Formation of eyelashes
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CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 133

Answers
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (b)
51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (a)

EXPLANATIONS
1. (c) An ovule is an integumented
megasporangium found in angiosperms,
which develops into seeds after fertilisation.
2. (d) In the diagram, A represents polar nuclei,
B represents male gametes, one them will fuse
with female gamete and other will fuse with
polar nuclei to form PEN (Primary Endosperm
Nucleus), while C represents synergids cell.
3. (c) Cleistogamous flowers are not dependent
on pollinators. These are bisexual flowers
which never open, i.e. always remain closed. In
such flowers, the anthers and stigma lie very
close to each other. When anthers dehisce in
the flower buds, pollen grains come in contact
with the stigma of the same flower, i.e.
autogamy occurs. So, these flowers produce
assured seed set, even in the absence of
pollinators.
4. (c) The flowers with packed inflorescence and
single ovary are wind pollinated. These
flowers produce pollen grains in large
numbers and such pollen grains are light
weighted, sometimes winged, e.g. cereals and
grasses.
5. (c) X is multicarpellary, syncarpous (fused)
pistil of Papaver, while Y is multicarpellary,
apocarpous (free) pistil of Michelia.
6. (b) Statements I and II are incorrect and can be
corrected as
n Scrotum keeps the temperature of testes about
2-2.5°C lower than the internal body
8. (d) The correct sequence of sperm formation is
Spermatogonia ® Spermatocyte ® Spermatid
® Spermatozoa.
Spermatogonia are present on the inside wall
of seminiferous tubule which undergoes
mitotic division and increase their number.
Primary spermatocytes are some of the
spermatogonia, which periodically undergo
meiosis and form secondary spermatocytes.
These undergo the second meiotic division to
produce four, equal haploid spermatids. The
spermatids are further transformed into
spermatozoa (sperm) and are finally released.
9. (d) Option (d) is not correct function of
placenta because
Maternal pituitary secretes oxytocin during
parturition. It is not a function of the placenta.
The functions of placenta are to supply oxygen
and nutrients to embryo, secrete oestrogen,
facilitate removal of carbon dioxide and waste
materials from embryo. Thus, rest other
options are the functions of placenta.
10. (c) Lactational amenorrhea is the absence of
menstruation during lactation. It is a natural
contraception method in which the chances of
conception are almost nil in a breastfeeding
mother due to the absence of ovulation. This
method is effective only upto a maximum
period of six months after childbirth.
11. (c) A–FSH, B–Oestrogen, C–LH, D–Progesterone
12. (a) The phenotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross
in F2-generation is 3 : 1.
SAMPLE PAPER 5

temperature. 13. (a) Option (a) represents a test cross.

n Each testicular lobule contains 1 to 3 highly
A test cross is a cross between heterozygous
coiled seminiferous tubules in which sperms
F1-generation and recessive parents, i.e.
are produced.
Pp × pp
Rest of the statements are correct. (F1-generation) (Recessive parent)
7. (a) The blastocyst contains two types of cells, 14. (d) All the statements are incorrect and can be
outer layer of cells called trophoblast (A) which corrected as
gets attached to the endometrium and the n Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome
inner group of cells attached to trophoblast get inherited together and show less or no
called inner cell mass (B). recombination.
134
n Genes far apart on the same chromosome show
higher recombinations.
n Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome
show high recombinations than tightly linked
ones.
Thus, option (d) is correct.
15. (b) A person with type A blood group may
receive blood A and O type. Blood transfusion
can be done either with the same group, i.e. A
or O as O blood has no antigen and is
considered as universal donor.
16. (b) The most popular blood grouping is named
ABO and not ABC as ‘O’, here refers to no
antigens on RBC, A and B blood groups have A
and B antigens, respectively. The blood group
AB have both antigens A and B on RBCs.
17. (d) All the match pairs are correct except option
(d). Incorrect match pair can be corrected as
Linkage was first discovered by TH Morgan.
18. (c) DNA fingerprinting involves separation of
DNA fragments based on their size by using
electrophoresis.
In this technique, DNA samples are loaded into
well at one end and an electric current is
applied to segregate them based on their size.
19. (d) The separation of entire length of DNA
helix needs a lot of energy. Therefore,
separation occurs only to a certain extent.
20. (a) Statement in option (a) is correct about
tRNA.
Attachment of an amino acid to the
3-adenosine yields an amino acid tRNA.
Rest statements are incorrect and can be
corrected as
n All tRNAs have 73-93 nucleotides that fold into
4 base paired stems and 3 loops and not five
double-stranded regions.
n tRNA looks like a clover leaf in the secondary
structure and L-shaped in 3-dimensional
structure.
n Each tRNA has three and not four unpaired
bases.
SAMPLE PAPER 5
21. (b) In mRNA of eukaryotes, exons appear, but
introns do not. This is because introns are
intervening or non-coding sequences and exons
are coding or expressed sequences. Through
splicing introns are removed and exons are
joined to form mRNA.
22. (c) The human chromosomes having the
highest number of genes, is chromosome 1 with
2968 genes.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
23. (b) R-strain is rough and harmless, while
S-strain is smooth and virulent form of
Streptococcus pneumoniae. In their experiment,
Avery et al., found out that only when DNA
from S-type bacteria was added to a culture of
R-type bacteria, R-type got converted to S-type
strain.
This transformation of R into S-type did not
occur on addition of RNA or protein from
S-type bacteria. Also, when DNase enzyme
was added, i.e. live R-strain + DNA (S-strain)
+ DNase, the transformation did not occur. It
proved conclusively that DNA, indeed is the
genetic material.
24. (a) The RNA and its amino acid which will
activate due to the presence of UAC on mRNA
is AUG and tryosine.
25. (c) A is true, but R is false.
Wall of the pollen grain is composed of two
layers, outer exine, which is a hard outer layer
made up of sporopollenin and inner intine.
Only exine has sporopollenin depositions,
intine is devoid of sporopollenin.
26. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
The process of oogenesis differs from that of
spermatogenesis. Oogenesis is initiated during
embryonic development when millions of
oogonia are formed in each fetal ovary.
Whereas spermatogenesis begins at puberty.
27. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
ABO blood group is considered as a good
example of multiple alleles, since it is
controlled by I gene which has three alleles,
IA , IB and i governing the same character and
showing multiple allelism.
In ABO blood group system, IA and IB alleles
present together, express their own
phenotypes due to codominance.
28. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
Polynucleotide chains like DNA, have base
pairings which are complementary to each
other. Thus, if the base sequence of one strand
is known, the sequence of the other can be
easily predicted.
29. (c) Scrotum enclosed the human testes outside
the abdominal cavity to maintain the scrotal
temperature lower than the body temperature
by 2 to 2.5°C. Since, it favours the process of
spermatogenesis.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
30. (d) Xenogamy is a type of cross-pollination in
is transferred to stigma of another flower. It is
observed in both maize and papaya.
31. (b) Statement in option (b) is correct.
Rest of the statements are incorrect and can be
corrected as
n Pollination does not give the guarantee of the
promotion of post-pollination events that lead
to fertilisation.
n Pollen-pistil interaction is a dynamic process
involving pollen recognition followed by
promotion or inhibition of the pollen.
n The pistil has the ability to recognise the
pollen, whether it is of the right type
(compatible) or of the wrong type (in
compatible).
32. (d) Diaphragm, vaults and cervical caps are
made up of rubber and insertid into female
reproductive tract to cover the cervix during
intercourse.
33. (c) Option (c) contains the correct statement.
Rest of the statements are incorrect and can be
corrected as
n Spermatogonia are diploid cells present on the
inside wall of seminiferous tubules that
multiply by mitotic divisions.
n Primary spermatocyte undergoes meiosis-I to
give rise to secondary spermatocytes (haploid).
n Each secondary spermatocyte has 23
chromosomes and undergoes meiosis-II to
give rise to two haploid spermatids which are
transferred to spermatozoa by spermiogensis.
34. (a) In a fertilised embryo sac, the haploid,
diploid and triploid structure are synergid,
zygote and Primary Endosperm Nucleus
(PEN), respectively.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
35. (d) Option (d) is correct. The ploidy of
endosperm is 3n.
Number of chromosome in given endosperm
= 36
36
\Haploid number = = 12
3
Male and female gametes are haploid in
nature. Therefore, they contain number (n) of
chromosomes, i.e. 12.
36. (c) Mendel’s principle of segregation means
that the germ cells (gametes) always receive
either one allele from father or one allele from
mother. The law of segregation states that
hereditary characters in the form of allele
segregate from each other during the
135
formation of gametes. Half of the gametes
carry one allele and other half carry other allele
for a character.
37. (a) The genotypic ratio of a dihybrid cross is
1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1
Thus, we see that 9 different genotypes are
observed in the F2-generation.
38. (c) Haemophilia could be an example of this
pattern. It is a sex-linked or X-linked disease.
The gene of haemophilia goes to son from
mother and to daughter from father. In this
disease, the blood fails to clot when exposed
to air resulting in continuous bleeding that
leads to death.
39. (b) A person with Turner’s syndrome has
44 autosomes and XO sex chromosome. Such
disorder is caused due to the absence of one of
the X-chromosome.
40. (c) Colour blindness is a sex-linked recessive
genetic disorder involving the X-chromosome.
Thus, according to the situation given in the
question, a man whose father was colourblind
will be normal, i.e. XY and a woman whose
mother was colourblind and father was normal
is a carrier, i.e. XXC .
Thus, when marriage happens between two
such individuals, percentage of male children
to be colourblind is 50% (this can be easily
observed from the cross given below)
Carrier Normal
mother father
X XC × X Y
C
XX XY XC X X Y
(Normal (Normal (Carrier (Colourblind
daughter) son) daughter) son)
41. (c) When a single gene expresses more than
one trait. This phenomenon is called
pleiotropy.
42. (c) There are two types of nitrogenous bases
purines (adenine and guanine) and
pyrimidines (cytosine, uracil and thymine).
SAMPLE PAPER 5
Cytosine is common for both DNA and RNA.
Thymine is present in DNA whereas uracil is
present in RNA at the place of thymine.
43. (b) Rate of DNA polymerisation of DNA
polymerase is 2000 bp/s.
44. (a) According to Chargaff’s rule, the ratio
between adenine and thymine and guanine
and cytosine are constant and equal.
\ If Cytosine = 18%
136
Guanine = 18%
A + T + G + C = 100%
A + T + 18 + 18% = 100%
A + T + 36% = 100% ( A = T)
A + A + 36% = 100%
2 A + 36% = 100%
2 A = 100 - 36%
64%
A=
2 C is chalaza. It is the tissue where integuments
A = 32%
Hence, percentage of adenine will be 32%.
45. (b) The DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
catalyses polymerisation only in one direction
that is 5 ¢ ® 3 ¢. On one strand (the template
with polarity 3 ¢ ® 5 ¢), the replication is
continuous, while on the other (the template
with polarity 5 ¢ ® 3 ¢), it is discontinuous.
46. (b) A–transcriptional initiation, B–RNA
polymerase, C–accessory
47. (c) The distance between the two strands of
the DNA helix is always uniform due to the
pairing of a purine (adenine and guanine) with
a pyrimidine (cytosine and thymine). This
specific bonding gives uniform width
throughout the DNA.
48. (c) In absence of inducer (lactose), the operon
is switched OFF as the repressor protein binds
to the operator region of operon, which
prevents RNA polymerase to bind to the
operon.
Hence, event given in option (c) will not occur
in the absence of inducer (lactose).
49. (d) The labels A and B in the given diagram
represents D-loop and amino acid acceptor
end, respectively.
50. (b) Statement II is incorrect and can be
corrected as
tRNA are specific for each amino acid, e.g. for
initiation, there is a specific initiator tRNA.
51. (b) Sir Francis Crick discovered the adapter
SAMPLE PAPER 5
molecule of tRNA. But its 3D structure or
compact form was identified by Klug in 1974.
52. (c) tRNA was termed as sRNA (soluble RNA)
before the postulation of genetic code. Its role
as an adapter molecule was reported later.
53. (c) The difference between mRNA and tRNA is
that tRNA has more elaborated 3D structure
than mRNA due to the extensive base pairing.
tRNA is also smaller than mRNA.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
54. (a) In the process of protein synthesis, tRNA
carrying the amino acids enters from the A-site
of the ribosome. Peptide bonds that are formed
between the amino acids are present on P and
A-site.
55. (d) A is micropyle. It helps in water absorption
during seed germination.
B is embryo sac. It gives rise to endosperm and
forms egg cell or nucleus which gives rise to
new plant.
and nucellus are joined.
56. (c) A is nucellus. It acts as a nourishing tissue
for the growing embryo.
B is Megaspore Mother Cell (MMC). It
develops into a female gametophyte.
C are megaspore dyad.
57. (b) A-Oestrogen, B- Oxytocin, C-Prostaglandin
During parturition, fully developed foetus
sends signal which in turn induce mild uterine
contraction which result in stretching of cervix,
referred as foetal-ejection reflex. This
stretching exert positive feedback on posterior
pituitary to secrete oxytocin and prostaglandin
which stimulates vigorous contraction of
uterus.
58. (c) Option (c) is the correct whereas options (a),
(b) and (d) are incorrect and can be corrected as
n Each testis (A) possesses about 250
compartments called testicular lobules.
n Seminal vesicle (B) secretes mucus and a
watery alkaline fluid rich in nutrients like
fructose, citric acid, inositol and
prostaglandins. It provides energy to the
spermatozoa.
n Prostate gland (D) releases an alkaline fluid
that is rich in citrate ions, calcium phosphate
and proteolytic enzymes to aid in sperm
motility.
59. (c) X is tubectomy done in females. It is a
process of sterilisation in which Fallopian
tubes are cut and tied to block gamete
transport, hence option (c) is correct.
60. (a) Gestation period in human beings is of
9 months. In this time period, zygote develops
from a cell to a fully grown foetus. The first
movement of foetus and appearance of hair on
head are observed during 5th month of
pregnancy while by the end of 6th month, its
body is covered with fine hair, eyelashes are
formed and eyelids starts to separate.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 137

SAMPLE PAPER 6
BIOLOGY
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class XII (Term I) Examination

General Instructions
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
(a) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(b) Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(c) Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
2. Each question carries 0.70 mark.
3. There is NO negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 35
Roll No. Time allowed : 90 Minutes

Section A
(Section-A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted
20 questions would be evaluated.)

1. Which among the following events takes place after double fertilisation?
(a) Pollen grain germinates on stigma
(b) Primary Endosperm Nucleus (PEN) develops into endosperm
(c) Discharge of two male gametes into embryo sac
(d) Pollen tube enter the embryo sac

2. Given below is a diagram of microsporangium of a mature anther. Correctly identify

the lables A, B and C by choosing the right answer from options given below.
A

B
SAMPLE PAPER 6

(a) A – Endothecium, B–Tapetum, C–Middle layer

(b) A– Endothecium, B–Middle layer, C–Tapetum
(c) A– Tapetum, B–Middle layer, C – Endothecium
(d) A– Endothecium, B–Ectothecium, C–Tapetum
138 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

3. Select the incorrect statement.

(a) Cells of tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus
(b) Cells of tapetum undergo meiosis and produce microspore tetrads
(c ) Sporogenous tissue is present at the centre of each microsporangium
(d) None of the above

4. Most wind-pollinated flowers have

(a) a strong smell (b) brightly coloured petals
(c) large nectaries (d) long projecting stigmas

5. The diagram shown below represents the structure of flower. Which of the following
option is true for X, Y and Z?

x Z

(a) X is the site of pollination and Y is fertilisation site

(b) Y is the pollination site and X is the site for fertilisation
(c) Y is the pollination site and Z is the fertilisation site
(d) Z is the site for pollination and Y is fertilisation site

6. Read the following statements about menstrual cycle and select the correct statements.
I. Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy.
II. The changes in the ovary and the uterus are induced by changes in the levels of
ovarian hormones only.
III. LH surge induces ovulation.
IV. If fertilisation occurs, corpus luteum degenerates immediately.
Codes
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) I and III (d) II and IV

7. The figure given below represents the human foetus within the uterus.
A
SAMPLE PAPER 6

B
D
C
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 139

Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and D.

A B C D
(a) Umbilical cord Placental villi Yolk sac Embryo
(b) Yolk sac Umbilical cord Embryo Placental villi
(c) Placental villi Yolk sac Embryo Umbilical cord
(d) Placental villi Embryo Yolk sac Umbilical cord

8. Trophoblast of blastocyst attaches to the

(a) endometrium (b) myometrium
(c) perimetrium (d) mesoderm

9. Which sequence of events is correct?

(a) Menstruation ® Ovulation ® Fertilisation ® Implantation
(b) Menstruation ® Ovulation ® Implantation ® Fertilisation
(c) Ovulation ® Menstruation ® Fertilisation ® Implantation
(d) Ovulation ® Menstruation ® Implantation ® Fertilisation

10. Which of the following contraceptive methods has poor reversibility?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

11. Pills have to be taken daily for period of …A… days, starting preferably within first
five days of menstrual cycle. After a gap of …B… days, it has to be repeated in the
same pattern.
(a) A–27, B–1 (b) A–21, B–7
(c) A–22, B–5 (d) A–24, B–4

12. How many types of gametes can be produced by a genotype AA Bb CC Dd?

(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 12 (d) 27

13. Which is incorrect regarding haemophilia?

I. It is a dominant disease.
II. It is a recessive disease.
III. A single protein involved in blood clotting is affected.
SAMPLE PAPER 6

IV. Affect males more than females.

Codes
(a) I and IV (b) II and III
(c) Only I (d) Only IV
140 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

14. Among the following, which cannot be explained on the basis of Mendel’s law of
dominance?
(a) Factors control a particular trait
(b) Out of a pair of factors, one is dominant and other is recessive
(c) Factors always occur in pair
(d) Alleles do not show any blending. Both characters recover as such in F1 -generation

15. In Mendelian dihybrid cross, when heterozygous round yellow are self- crossed, round
green offspring are represented by the genotype
(a) RrYy, RrYY, RRYy (b) Rryy, RRyy, rryy
(c) rrYy, rrYY (d) Rryy, RRyy

16. ZZ-ZW type of sex-determination found in

(a) honeybee (b) moths
(c) fishes (d) butterflies

17. A tall plant and a small plant are crossed and produce offspring that are all tall. What
is the genotype of the offspring and to which generation do they belong?
Genotypes Generations
(a) Heterozygous F1
(b) Heterozygous F2
(c) Homozygous F1
(d) Homozygous F2

18. Read the statements given below and select the correct option.
I. Loosely packed and lightly stained regions of chromatin is heterochromatin.
II. A nucleoside is composed of nitrogenous base and pentose sugar.
III. There are two hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine.
IV. The double helical structure of nucleic acid is a consequence of its secondary
structure.
Codes
(a) I, III and IV are correct, II is incorrect
(b) II and III are correct, I and IV are incorrect
(c) II, III and IV are correct, I is incorrect
(d) II is correct, I, III and IV are incorrect

19. What is the difference in the transformation experiment of Griffith and that of Avery,
MacLeod and McCarty?
(a) Use of heat killed R-type
(b) Use of deoxyribonuclease
(c ) Use of proteins
SAMPLE PAPER 6

(d) Use of S-type

20. Genetic code is

(a) sequence of nitrogenous bases on hnRNA
(b) sequence of nitrogenous bases on tRNA
(c) sequence of nitrogenous bases on rRNA
(d) sequence of nitrogenous bases on DNA
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 141

21. Identify the correct statement.

(a) DNA is dependent on RNA for synthesis of proteins
(b) DNA and RNA both function as genetic material
(c) DNA being more stable, is the preferred genetic material but for the transmission of
genetic information, RNA is better
(d) All of the above

22. Who amongst the following scientists had no contribution in the development of the
double helix model for the structure of DNA?
(a) Rosalind Franklin (b) Maurice Wilkins
(c) Erwin Chargaff (d) Meselson and Stahl

23. Observe the sequence of nucleotides in the given segment of mRNA and the respective
amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain to answer the following question.
mRNA AUG UUU AUG CCU GUU UCU UAA
Polypeptide Met→Phe→Met→Pro→Val→Ser
Nucleotide sequence of the DNA strand from which this mRNA was transcribed is
(a) TAC AAA TAC GGA CAA AGA ATT
(b) AUG UUU AUG CCU GUU UCU UAA
(c) UAC AAA UAC GGA CAA AGA AUU
(d) ATG TTT ATG CCT GTT TCT TAA

24. Which term describes the alternative forms of a factor controlling a particular
characteristic?
(a) Alleles (b) Genes
(c) Chromosomes (d) Genotypes

Section B
(Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No. 25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section.
The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated).
Question Nos. 25 to 28 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
25. Assertion (A) Chasmogamous flowers require external pollinating agents to carry out
pollination.
SAMPLE PAPER 6

Reason (R) Cleistogamous flowers do not expose their sex organs.

26. Assertion (A) All copulations do not lead to pregnancy.
Reason (R) Fertilisation and pregnancy occurs only if the ovum and sperms are
simultaneously transported to isthmic junction.
27. Assertion (A) In India, safe and legal abortions are allowed only upto 12 weeks of
pregnancy.
Reason (R) This is done to avoid sex selective abortions as sex of the foetus can only be
determined after 20 weeks of pregnancy.
142 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

28. Assertion (A) Cutting the DNA sequences of two different people using the same
restriction enzyme yields different fragments of variable length.
Reason (R) DNA sequence is arranged tandemly in many copy numbers that varies
from chromosome to chromosome in an individual.
29. Observe the diagram of sperm shown below and answer the question regarding it.

Head

Neck

Body

Tail

Regarding male pronucleus which among the following statement is correct?

I. Only the sperm nucleus enter the ovum during fertilisation.
II. Both head and neck of sperm contribute to pronucleus formation.
III. Male pronucleus contains mitochondria.
IV. Sperm head contains pronucleus having diploid set of chromosomes.
Codes
(a) Only II (b) III and IV (c) Only I (d) II and IV

30. Among the sets of terms given below, identify those that are associated with the
gynoecium.
(a) Stigma, Ovule, Embryo sac, Placenta (b) Thalamus, Pistil, Style, Ovule
(c) Ovule, Ovary, Embryo sac, Tapetum (d) Ovule, Stamen, Ovary, Embryo sac

31. A botanist is planning for an artificial hybridisation programme that involves

dioecious plants, which of the following steps would not be relevant?
(a) Bagging of female flower (b) Dusting of pollen on stigma
(c) Emasculation (d) Collection of pollen

32. During parturition, the prolonged pain faced by the mother has to be relieved. It is
advisable to administer a hormone that can
(a) relax the pelvic ligaments (b) decrease the metabolic rate
SAMPLE PAPER 6

(c) stimulate the ovary (d) release blood glucose

33. A female has accidently conceived a baby due to failure of contraceptive. She is willing
to get an abortion done. MTP is of much risk in which phase of pregnancy?
(a) 2nd trimester (b) 1st trimester (c) 1st week (d) 2nd week

34. Spermicidal creams are used in addition to condoms, diaphragms, cervical cap and
vaults for
(a) lubrication (b) killing germs
(c) increasing contraceptive effectiveness (d) None of these
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 143

35. In an angiospermic plant, the number of mitotic divisions, required to form 200 pollens
are
(a) 200 (b) 250 (c) 50 (d) 400

36. What will be the genetic constitution of the offspring of a cross of individuals
heterozygous (Zz) for an allele?
(a) All ZZ (b) All zz
(c) 1/2 ZZ: 1/2 zz (d) 1/4 ZZ: 1/2 Zz : 1/4 zz

37. When heterozygous red (dominant) flower is crossed with white flower the progeny
would be
(a) 100 red : 100 white (b) 450 red : 250 white
(c) 380 red : 320 white (d) None of these

38. If a tall plant is crossed with a dwarf plant and obtained progeny is half tall and half
dwarf plants. Then, the genotype of the progeny will be
(a) TT ´ tt (b) Tt ´ tt (c) TT ´ Tt (d) Tt ´ Tt

39. If a character is always transmitted directly from the father to all his sons and from
their sons to all their sons, then which chromosome carries the gene for the character?
(a) Autosomes (b) X-chromosome
(c) Y-chromosome (d) None of these

40. Parents of blood groups O and AB cannot have a child of group AB because
(a) gene A or B is absent in one of the parent
(b) gene A is dominant over O
(c ) gene B is dominant over O
(d) genes A and B are absent in one of the parent

41. Which of the following cross will produce terminal flower in garden pea?
(a) AA ´ Aa (b) Aa ´ Aa (c) Aa ´ AA (d) AA ´ aa

42. In one polynucleotide strand of a DNA molecule, the ratio of A + T/G + C is 0.7. What is
the A + G/T + C ratio of the entire DNA molecule?
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.6 (c) 1.2 (d) 1

43. Find out the number of base pairs in E. coli DNA, if its DNA is 1.36 mm long.
(a) 4 ´ 10 6 bp (b) 3 ´ 10 6 bp
(c) 2 ´ 10 6 bp (d) 7 ´ 10 6 bp

44. Observe the given diagram of lac operon.

p i p 0 z y I
SAMPLE PAPER 6

Identify the incorrect statement for lac operon model.

(a)Lactose acts as inducer which inactivates repressor
(b)RNA polymerase stay away from promoter in the presence of repressor
(c)Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as negative regulation
(d)The repressor of the operon is synthesised during specific periods from r-gene

45. In Meselson and Stahl’s experiment using E. coli, the duration between the appearance
of equal amounts of light and heavy DNA was
(a) two generations (b) 30 minutes
(c) 20 minutes (d) four generations
144 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

46. Enzyme …A… acts over the ori site and unwinds the two strands of DNA by
destroying …B… bonds.
(a) A-helicase, B-glycosidic (b) A-helicase, B-hydrogen
(c) A-unwindase, B-phosphodiester (d) A-helicase, B-phosphodiester

47. Transcription unit

(a) starts with TATA box
(b) starts with palindrome regions and ends with rho factor
(c) starts with promoter region and ends with terminator region
(d) starts with CAAT region

48. From the diagram shown below, identify which children belong to the parents?

(a) All of the children (b) Children 1, 2 and 4

(c) Children 2 and 3 (d) Children 1 and 3

Section C
(Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q. Nos. 49 to 54). Besides
this, 6 more questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section. The first attempted 10
questions would be evaluated.)
Observe the diagram given below and answer the following questions regarding
gametogenesis in human female.
Hypothalamus
Negative feedback
Positive feedback

A Name the hormone

Anterior pituitary
B Name the hormone
C Name the organ
SAMPLE PAPER 6

Name the hormone

D

Uterus

49. Identify the label A and D in the given flowchart.

(a) A–FSH, D-Progesterone
(b) A–GnRH, D–Oestrogen and progesterone
(c) A–GnRH, D–Oxytocin
(d) A–LH, D–Oxytocin
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 145

50. Name the hormone B and identify its function.

(a) LH, controlling hormone
(b) LH and FSH, controlling hormone
(c) LH and FSH, follicular growth and ovulation
(d) FSH, sexual development

51. What is the function of A in the given flowchart?

(a) Controlling hormone (b) Sexual development hormone
(c) Follicular growth hormone (d) None of these

52. Identify the label C and its role.

(a) Fallopian tube, ova production (b) Fallopian tube, fertilisation
(c) ovary, fertilisation (d) ovary, ova production

53. Which hormone induces the rupture of Graafian follicle?

(a) Hormone A (b) Hormone B
(c) Hormone D (d) Both hormones A and B

54. Which hormone’s increasing level will have a bad effect on hormone B?
(a) GnRH (b) Progesterone
(c) GH (d) Erythropoitin

55. Consider the following statements.

I. The frequency of crossing over decreases with increasing age.
II. F2 phenotypic ratio is 3 : 1 in monohybrid cross.
III. Dihybrid test cross ratio is 1 : 1 in F2 -generation.
IV. Linked genes tends to separate frequently.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I, II and IV (b) I, III and IV
(c) II, III and IV (d) I and II

56. The DNA fingerprinting analysis of four family members is shown below.
W X Y Z
SAMPLE PAPER 6

Study the obtained band pattern and assign designation to each family member W, X,
Y and Z.
(a) W – Father X – Mother
Y – Child Z – Paternal uncle
(b) W – Child X – Father
Y – Mother Z – Maternal uncle
(c) W – Father X – Child
Y – Mother Z – Paternal uncle
(d) W – Child X – Father
Y – Maternal uncle Z – Mother
146 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

57. Given diagram depicts a pair of homologous chromosomes during meiosis.

A B C D

A B C D

a b c d

a b c d

Maximum crossing over will occur between genes

(a) A and a, D and d (b) C and d, c and D
(c) B and c, b and C (d) A and d, a and D

58. Refer to the polypeptide chain, that is being translated by mRNA.

Met - Pro - Lys - Gly - Arg -Cys

The possible codon sequence of this chain would be

(a)AUG CCU AAA GGU CGU UGU
(b)AUG CUU AUA GCG GAG UAU
(c)GUG UUA UUU AUG UAG CGA
(d)CUC ACA CAC GAG UGG CGG

59. Study the following tRNA molecules related with their anticodon pairing with
respective codons. Which type of tRNA is impossible?
Sar Tyr AA AA AA

T1 T2 T3 T4 T5
tRNA

U C A Anticodon A U G A U U A U C A C U
A G U Codon U A C mRNA U A A U A G U G A
5¢ 3¢ 5¢ 3¢ 5¢ 3¢ 5¢ 3¢ 5¢ 3¢

(a) T1 and T2 (b) T1 , T2 and T3

(c) T1 and T4 (d) T3 , T4 and T5

60. The given diagram illustrates.

SAMPLE PAPER 6

(a) Chromosome walking

(b) Crossing over
(c) Human genome project
(d) Method of DNA fingerprinting
 OMR SHEET SP 6
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Student Name Sub Code.

Instructions
Use black or blue ball point pens and avoid Gel & Fountain pens for filling the OMR sheet.
Darken the bubbles completely. Don’t put a tick mark or a cross mark, half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read
by the software.
✔ ✗
Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect
Do not write anything on the OMR Sheet.
Multiple markings are invalid.

1 21 41
2 22 42
3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25 45
6 26 46
7 27 47
8 28 48
9 29 49
10 30 50
11 31 51
12 32 52
13 33 53
14 34 54
15 35 55
16 36 56
17 37 57
18 38 58
19 39 59
20 40 60

Check Your Performance

Total Questions: Total Correct Questions
Score Percentage = × 100
Total Correct Questions: Total Questions

Less than 60% > Average (Revise the concepts again)

If Your Score is Greater than 60% but less than 75% > Good (Do more practice)
Above 75% > Excellent (Keep it on)
148 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

Answers
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (c)
51. (a) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (a) 59. (d) 60. (c)

EXPLANATIONS
1. (b) Options (a), (c) and (d) show events taking
place before fertilisation.
PEN is formed after double fertilisation. The egg
cell fuses with first male gamete and the fusion
of second male gamete with secondary nucleus,
forms PEN which later develops into
endosperm and provides nourishment to the
developing embryo.
2. (b) A is endothecium. It is the inner lining of a
mature anther. It helps in production of pollens.
B is middle layer. It is located between
endothecium and tapetum (C).
3. (b) Statement given in option (b) is incorrect and
can be corrected as
Tapetum does not form tetrads rather provides
nourishment to the developing pollen grain.
Cells of sporogenous tissue undergo meiotic
division to form microspore tetrad.
4. (d) Long projecting stigmas act as a net to trap
pollen grains that are passing by in the wind.
Thus, option (d) is correct.
5. (b) Pollination takes place at the top of the
stigma (Y) while fertilisation occurs within the
ovary (X).
6. (c) Statements I and III are correct.
l
Lack of menstruation may be indicative of
pregnancy. During pregnancy, the levels of
oestrogen and progesterone are high in the
blood, which are required for the maintenance
of uterus lining and thus, menstruation does
not occur.
SAMPLE PAPER 6
7. (c) The labels in the figure represent
A–Placental villi B–Yolk sac
C–Embryo D–Umbilical cord
8. (a) The blastomeres in the blastocyst are
arranged into an outer layer called
trophoblast and the inner cell mass.
Trophoblast layer gets attached to
endometrium and the inner cell mass
differentiates into embryo.
9. (a) Fertilisation is expected to occur after
ovulation, not after menstruation when the
uterus wall is discharged and need to be built
up again. Similarly, implantation follows
fertilisation.
10. (c) Figure (c) is of vasectomy which is a
surgical contraception method performed in
males. In vasectomy, a small part of the vas
deferens is removed or tied up through a
small cut on the scrotum. This prevents
sperm transport. Vasectomy has poor
reversibility. There is no effect on erectile
functioning.
11. (b) Pills have to be taken daily for 21 (A) days
starting within the first 5 days of menstrual
cycle. After a gap of 7 (B) days (during which
menstruation occurs) these has to be repeated
in the same pattern till the female desires to
prevent conception.
12. (b) In accordance to Mendel’s law of
independent assortment, the number of
gametes formed in any genotype/individual
is directly related to the number of

l
On 14th day of the menstrual cycle, there is a
heterozygous genes present in pairs on
rapid increase in LH called LH surge that
homologous chromosomes (n).
induces ovulation.
The relation is given as 2 n , where n is the
Statements II and IV are incorrect and can be
number of heterozygous gene pairs. In this
corrected as
case, we have 2 pairs of such genes Bb and
l
The changes in the ovary and the uterus are Dd. AA and CC are homozygous pairs and
induced by changes in levels of ovarian and
will not cause different combinations on their
pituitary hormones.
own.
l
If fertilisation occurs, corpus luteum secrete
Thus, the correct answer is 2 2 = 4.
progesterone and till 16th week of pregnancy.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 149

13. (c) Statement I is incorrect and can be corrected 21. (d) All the given statements are correct.
as Thus, option (d) is correct.
Haemophilia is not a dominant disease rather is
22. (d) Meselson and Stahl proved that DNA
a recessive one that affects more males than
replication is a semiconservative process by
females. In this, a single protein involved in
experimenting with E. coli. Thus, they did not
blood clotting gets affected. Due to this, a
have any contribution in the development of
simple cut in an affected individual result in
DNA double helix.
non-stop bleeding.
23. (a) The mRNA strand is complementary to
14. (d) Blending of alleles is not explained on the
DNA strand with U in place of T.
basis of law of dominance.
Thus, option (a) is correct.
15. (d) In Mendelian dihybrid cross, when
heterozygous round yellow (Rr Yy) are self 24. (a) There are alleles on each corresponding
crossed, round green offsprings are chromosome. Alleles of a gene act to control
represented by RRyy, Rryy genotypes . certain inborn characteristics.
25. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
Parents Rr Yy Rr Yy
correct explanation of A.
¯ ¯ Chasmogamous flowers require external
pollinating agents to carry out pollination.
Gametes RY Ry rY ry × RY Ry rY ry
These flowers open at maturity to expose
¯ pollen and stigma for cross pollination,
e.g. Oxalis.
%
RY Ry rY ry Cleistogamous flowers do not expose their sex
& organs to avoid cross pollination,
RY RRYY RRYy RrYY RrYy e.g. Cammelina.
26. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Ry RRYy RRyy RrYy Rryy
explanation of A.
rY RrYY RrYy rrYY rrYy Fertilisation will take place if the ovum and
sperms are simultaneously transported to the
ry RrYy Rryy rrYy rryy ampullary-isthmic junction. Ovums are
released only once a month. Thus, all
RR, Rr – Round
copulations does not lead to pregnancy.
rr – Wrinkled
27. (c) A is true, but R is false. R can be corrected as
YY, Yy – Yellow
Legal abortions are done on the advice of a
yy – Green registered practioner only, within 12 weeks of
16. (c) ZZ-ZW type of sex-determination is found pregnancy. No abortions should occur after
in fishes, birds and fowls. 20 weeks of a successful pregnancy. Sex organs
is foetus begin to develop in 12 weeks of
17. (a) From the cross results, it can be deduced
pregnancy.
that the parent plants are pure strains of tall
and short plants. Hence, all offsprings show 28. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
heterozygous genotype with similar phenotype explanation of A.
and belong to F1-generation. DNA of an organism has specific sequence
18. (c) Statements II, III and IV are correct. which can be cleaved by restriction enzymes
Statement I is incorrect and can be corrected as to form variable length DNA fragments.
SAMPLE PAPER 6

DNA sequence is tandemly arranged in many

The loosely packed and lightly stained regions
copies numbers varying as per chromosome.
of chromatin denote euchromatin.
29. (c) Only statement I is correct regarding male
19. (b) Use of deoxyribonuclease (DNase) enabled
pronucleus. Other statements are incorrect and
Avery, MacLeod and McCarty to prove that
can be corrected as
DNA is the genetic material. This enzyme was l
Only the head of the sperm contributes
not used by Griffith in his experiments.
towards pronucleus formation.
20. (d) Genetic code comprises the sequence of l
Male pronucleus lacks mitochondria.
nitrogenous bases (A, G, T and C) on DNA. l
Sperm head contains pronucleus having
These bases arrange in different manner to haploid set of chromosomes.
form a triplet codon.
150 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

30. (a) Gynoecium is the female reproductive part white flowered plants will be produced in
of a flower and is also called pistil. Each pistil equal ratios. The cross can be given as
has three parts, i.e. stigma, style and ovary. Rr rr
Inside the ovarian cavity, the placenta is (Red flower) (White flower)
located. Arising from placenta is the ovule. The
functional megaspore undergoing the meiotic R r r
division develops into embryo sac. Thus,
option (a) is correct.
F1 → Rr rr
31. (c) If the female parent produces unisexual 1 : 1
(dioecious) flowers, there is no need for 38. (b) It is a test cross and thus the genotype of
emasculation. Because in a dioecious flower, progeny will be Tt ´ tt.
only single reproductive structure is present,
39. (c) As all the sons have the gene for the
thus chances of self-pollination are not there.
character therefore, Y-chromosome is the
32. (a) Relaxin hormone relaxes the pelvic carrier as Y-chromosome is a sex chromosome
ligaments of mother to prepare for the only present in males and not in females.
childbirth.
40. (d) AB individual contain IA IB genotype.
33. (a) MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy) is Whereas O individual do not contain any of
considered safe until Ist trimester (12 weeks) of these alleles. Thus, IA IB could not be produced
the pregnancy. It becomes more risky after the in progeny.
Ist trimester period of pregnancy as the foetus
becomes intimately associated with the 41. (b) Axillary position (A) is dominant over
maternal tissue. terminal (a) position.
When Aa ´ Aa is crossed, we get 3:1 ratio, i.e.
34. (c) Spermicidal creams contain chemicals,
three axillary flowers and one terminal flower.
which kill the sperms. If they are used along
Parents Aa Aa
with the barrier contraceptive methods, then
these increases contraceptive efficiency.
Gametes A a A a
35. (c) Pollen grains or Microspores are produced
from Microspore Mother cell (MMC). MMC is & A a
diploid and undergoes meiosis to form 4 %
haploid microspores which develop into pollen Aa
A AA
grains.
So, 4 pollen grains = 1 meiotic division a Aa aa

200 pollen grains = 200 / 4

Among given options, only Aa ´ Aa can
= 50 meiotic divisions. produce terminal flower.
36. (d) 42. (d) According to Chargaff’s rules (1950),
Gametes Z z purine and pyrimidine base pairs are present
in equal amounts in a DNA molecule,
Z ZZ Zz i.e. [A + G] = [T + C]
[A + G]
z Zz zz Or =1
[T + C]
When two heterozygous individuals (Zz
43. (a) In the given case, the number of base pairs
crossed with Zz) are crossed then two types of
for E. coli would be 4 ´ 10 6 bp. It can be
SAMPLE PAPER 6

gametes are formed (Z, z). The individuals in

calculated as
F2 will be 1/4 ZZ, 1/2 Zz and 1/4 zz.
Average distance between two base pairs of
37. (a) When heterozygous red (dominant) flower DNA is 3.4 Å. Length of E. coli DNA is =
(Rr) is crossed with white flower (rr), red and 1.36 ´ 107Å.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
So, number of nucleotides
1.36 ´ 107 Å
= = 0.39 ´ 107
3.4Å
= 3.9 ´ 106 ~= 4 ´ 10 6 bp
44. (d) The statement in option (d) is incorrect
and can be corrected as
The repressor of the operon is synthesised
from the i gene. The repressor protein binds to
the operator region of the operon and prevents
RNA polymerase from transcribing the
operon.
Rest of the statements are correct.
45. (a) Equal amount of heavy and light DNA was
observed in E. coli culture after the two
generations in Meselson and Stahl’s
experiment. In forming two generations, E. coli
needs about 40 minutes.
46. (b) Enzyme helicase (A) acts over the ori site
and unwinds the two strands of DNA by
destroying hydrogen (B) bonds.
47. (c) Transcription unit is the distance between
sites of initiation and termination by RNA
polymerase. It include more than one gene.
RNA polymerase produce transcription unit
that extends from the promoter to terminator
sequences.
48. (d) The two alleles (paternal and maternal) of a
chromosome contain different copy number of
VNTR (Variable Number of Tandem Repeat).
It is clear from the banding pattern of DNA
that parental DNA matches with children 1
and 3.
49. (b) A represents Gonadotropin Releasing
Hormone (GnRH) and D represents oestrogen
and progesterone. Both of these (oestrogen and
progesterone) are important for sexual
development in women.
50. (c) B is LH (Luteinizing Hormones) and FSH
(Follicle Stimulating Hormone). Both of these
hormones stimulate follicular growth and
ovulation.
51. (a) A is Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone
(GnRH). It is a controlling hormone which
regulate or control the functioning of pituitary
gland. It is first released when signalled by the
biological clock.
52. (d) C is ovary. The paired ovaries produce ova.
151
53. (b) Hormone B induces rupture of mature
Graafian follicle and thereby, the release
secondary oocyte.
54. (b) The rising level of progesterone inhibits the
release of GnRH which in turn inhibits the
production of LH and FSH (hormone B).
55. (d) Statements I and II are correct. Statements
III and IV are incorrect and can be corrected as
l
Dihybrid test cross ratio is 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 in
F2 -generation, i.e. show 4 phenotypes and
genotypes in equal proportions.
l
Linked genes do not separate frequently.
These genes remain together because linked
gene lie very closely to each other.
56. (c) DNA fingerprinting is a technique of
determining nucleotide sequence of certain
areas of DNA, which are unique to each
individuals.
In the given analysis, X has bands similar to
both W and Y; upper band is common between
X and Y while lower band is common between
X and W. Z has band similar to W while it has
no similarity with X and Y. This indicates that
Z is relative to W and can be paternal uncle
to X.
57. (d) Increase in distance between two genes
increases the frequency of crossing over while
closeness of the genes reduces the chances of
crossing over. Since, A and d, a and D are
located far away, maximum crossing over
would occur between them.
58. (a) Option (a) represents correct sequence of
codons. Methionine is coded by AUG, proline
by CCU, lysine by AAA, glycine by GGU,
arginine by CGU and cystine by UGU.
59. (d) According to the question, we observe
T1, that have sequence of anticodon UCA and
codon AGU, so according to it, T1 can exist as
tRNA.
T2, that have sequence of anticodon AUG and
codon UAC, so according to it, T2 can exist as
tRNA.
T3, T4 and T5 have sequence of codon UAA,
SAMPLE PAPER 6
UAG and UGA that are stop codons thus, these
tRNA cannot exist.
60. (c) The given image illustrates human genome
project that was started to determine the
nucleotide sequence of the entire human
nuclear genome.
152 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

SAMPLE PAPER 7
BIOLOGY
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class XII (Term I) Examination

General Instructions
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
(a) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(b) Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(c) Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
2. Each question carries 0.70 mark.
3. There is NO negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 35
Roll No. Time allowed : 90 Minutes

Section A
(Section-A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted
20 questions would be evaluated.)

1. The product of meiotic division is

(a) primary spermatocytes (b) secondary spermatocytes
(c) spermatid (d) Both (b) and (c)

2. Refer to the diagram and choose the correct option.

I II
(a) They show microsporogenesis (b) I represents the part of ovule
SAMPLE PAPER 7

(c) II represents mature embryo sac (d) Both (b) and (c)

3. Chalazal pole is present

(a) opposite to micropyle (b) at the origin of integuments
(c) opposite to nucellus (d) near the embryo sac

4. Out of the following hormones, which hormone is not a secretory product of human
placenta?
(a) Oxytocin (b) Prolactin
(c) Oestrogen (d) Progesterone
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 153

5. Identify A to F in the given diagram.

A

C
E
D
F

(a) A–Pollen tube, B–Ovary, C–Ovule, D–Antipodal cell, E–Pollen grain, F–Polar nuclei
(b) A–Polar nuclei, B–Antipodal cell, C–Ovule, D–Ovary, E–Pollen tube, F–Pollen grain
(c) A–Pollen grain, B–Pollen tube, C–Ovary, D–Ovule, E–Antipodal cell, F– Polar nuclei
(d) A–Antipodal cell, B–Ovule, C–Ovary, D–Polar nuclei, E–Pollen grain, F–Pollen tube

6. Read the following statements.

I. The uterus is present in single pair and is also called womb.
II. The shape of uterus is like an inverted pear.
III. The uterus opens into vagina through a narrow cervix.
IV. Birth canal is formed by cervical canal and vagina.
V. Perimetrium of uterus wall is external and thick, myometrium is middle thin layer
of smooth muscles and endometrium is inner glandular layer.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV
(c) IV and V (d) I and V

7. Read the graph and correlate the uterine events that take place according to the
hormonal levels on A. 6-15 days, B. 16-25 days, C. 3-5 days (if the ovum is not
fertilised).
Ovarian hormone levels

Oestrogen

Progesterone

1 5 10 15 20 25 29
SAMPLE PAPER 7

Days
(a) A–Degeneration of endometrium, B–Myometrium thickness, becomes vascularised ready
to receive and implant embryo, C–Regeneration of endometrium
(b) A–Degeneration of endometrium, B–Endometrium thickness increases, becomes
vascularised, ready to receive and implant ovum, C–Regeneration of endometrium
(c) A–Regeneration of endometrium, B–Endometrium becomes thick and vascularised,
ready to receive and implant embryo, C–Degeneration of endometrium
(d) A–Regeneration of myometrium, B–Endometrium becomes thick and vascularised, ready
to receive and implant embryo, C–Degeneration of endometrium
154 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

8. Choose the incorrect pair.

(a) Finger-like projections – Fimbriae
(b) Narrow part of oviduct – Ampulla
(c) Part of oviduct joining the uterus – Isthmus
(d) None of the above

9. Level of LH is maximum
(a) just before ovulation (b) just after ovulation
(c) at the time of ovulation (d) during menstrual bleeding phase

10. What is the figure given below showing in particular?

(a) Ovarian cancer (b) Uterine cancer

(c) Tubectomy (d) Vasectomy

11. To ensure the results of available contraceptive measures, a paid survey was conducted
by a firm. Group A was advised to use the preparation of progestin to check ovulation.
Whereas group B was advised to avoid intimacy for a certain period.
Identify the measures adopted by groups A and B.
Group A Group B
(a) Saheli Coitus interruptus
(b) Copper-T Lactational amenorrhea
(c) Norplant Rhythm method
(d) Oral contraceptives Coitus interruptus

12. In Mendel’s studies, inflated pod of pea is a/an

(a) dominant character
(b) incompletely dominant character
(c) recessive character
(d) abnormal character

13. Read the following statements.

I. Mendelian factors are now called genes.
SAMPLE PAPER 7

II. Characters blend in homozygous condition only.

III. All characters in human show dominance.
IV. Hugo de Vries was involved in rediscovery of Mendel’s works.
Which of the above statements are true?
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) I and IV (d) III and IV
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 155

14. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to monohybrid and dihybrid
cross?
(a) A monohybrid cross is performed for one generation whereas dihybrid cross is
performed for two generations
(b) A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross involved two
parents
(c) A monohybrid cross produces a single progeny whereas a dihybrid cross produces two
progenies
(d) A monohybrid cross involves individuals with one heterozygous character, whereas a
dihybrid cross involves individuals with two heterozygous characters

15. If two pea plants having red (dominant) coloured flowers with unknown genotypes are
crossed, 75% of the flowers are red and 25% are white. The genotypic constitution of
the parents having red coloured flowers will be
(a) Both homozygous (b) One homozygous and other heterozygous
(c) Both heterozygous (d) Both hemizygous

16. Among the seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plant as studied by Mendel, the
number of traits related to flower, pod and seed, respectively were
(a) 2, 2, 2 (b) 2, 2, 1 (c) 1, 2, 2 (d) 1, 1, 2

17. Shruti took a survey and found out that when a haemophilic man marries a normal
woman, progeny population would have girls who will be carrier and boys who will
be normal. Which among the following determines their genotypes correctly?
Offsprings Genotypes
(a) 1 girl Xh Xh
(b) 2 girls Xh X
(c) 1 boy Xh Y
(d) 2 boys XY h

18. Consider the following statements.

I. Furrowed tongue with partially open mouth.
II. Short statured and small round head.
III. Slow mental development.
IV. Short neck and small ears.
Choose the correct option.
(a) Down‘s syndrome (b) Turner’s syndrome
(c) Klinefelter‘s syndrome (d) Patau’s syndrome

19. One turn of the helix in a B form DNA is approximately

(a) 2 nm (b) 20 nm (c) 0.34 nm (d) 3.4 nm
SAMPLE PAPER 7

20. The purine to pyrimidine ratio in a DNA molecule is

(a) 1: 1 (b) need not be 1 : 1 (c) 1: 2 (d) 2: 1

21. S-type strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae is

(a) capsulated, virulent, smooth (b) non-capsulated, avirulent, rough
(c) capsulated, avirulent, rough (d) non-capsulated, virulent, smooth

22. Heat-killed S-cells along with R-cells were injected into the mice to conclude that
(a) mice survived and showed live S-cells (b) mice died and showed live S-cells
(c) mice survived and showed live R-cells (d) mice died and showed live R-cells
156 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

23. Observe the diagrams A and B carefully and choose the correct option.
Bacteriophage
Radioactive ( 32P) labelled DNA
Radioactive (35S) labelled
protein capsule

Infection

Blending

Centrifugation

A B

A B
35 32
(a) Radioactive S detected in cells No radioactive P detected in cells
35 32
(b) Radioactive S detected in Radioactive P detected in
supernatant supernatant
35 32
(c) Radioactive S detected in cells Radioactive P detected in cells
35
(d) Radioactive S detected in No radioactivity detected in
supernatant supernatant

24. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about chromosomal theory of
inheritance?
(a) All hereditary characters must be with sperms and egg cells as they provide bridge one
generation to the next
(b) The hereditary factors must be carried by the nuclear material
(c) Chromosomes are also found in pairs like the Mendelian alleles
(d) All of the above

Section B
(Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No. 25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section.
The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated).
Question Nos. 25 to 28 consist of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
SAMPLE PAPER 7

(c) A is true, but R is false

(d) A is false, but R is true
25. Assertion (A) In a microsporangium, the tapetal cells possess little cytoplasm and
generally have a single prominent nucleus.
Reason (R) During microsporogenesis, the microspore mother cells undergo meiotic
divisions to produce haploid microspore tetrads.
26. Assertion (A) Trophoblast forms the embryo in humans.
Reason (R) Implantation occurs in blastocyst/blastula stage.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 157

27. Assertion (A) Inability to produce children in spite of unprotected sexual practices is
called infertility.
Reason (R) The reasons for infertility could be physical injury, congenital disease,
drugs, etc.
28. Assertion (A) Eukaryotic mRNA requires post-transcription processing for the
formation of functional mRNA.
Reason (R) Eukaryotic transcripts possess extra non-functional segments called
introns.
29. The function of D in the figure given below is

D B

(a) production of female gamete (b) nourishment of developing embryo

(c) collection of ovum (d) lubrication of vagina during intercourse

30. Primary archaesporial cell develops from the cells of

(a) nucellus towards micropylar end
(b) inner integument towards micropylar end
(c) nucellus towards chalazal end
(d) outer integument towards chalazal end
Female flower
31. Raman took Vallisneria plant in order to collect information for
his science project and made the following observations.
I. Single white female flowers grow on long stalks.
II. Pollen grains are light and thread-like.
III. Pollination is achieved through air and/or by insects.
IV. Female flower possesses a long pedicel.
Which of the following observations made are correct?
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) I, II and III (d) I, II and IV

32. A class X student, Aakash, wanted to observe the phenomenon of pollination. So, he
SAMPLE PAPER 7

took a complete flower. However, he later observed that the flower had already lost its
stamens. What will happen in this condition?
(a) The flower will reproduce parthenogenetically
(b) The flower will self pollinate
(c) New flowers will not be produced
(d) Same variety of flowers are formed
158 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

33. With increasing population, the government has decided to rule in certain schemes and
strategies which could help to bring down the population graph. Select the statements
which include steps implemented by the government to control the growing
population?
(a) Advertising the benefits of small family, slogans like ‘hum do hamare do’, etc.
(b) Raising the marriageable ages, 18 for females and 21 for males
(c) Controlling the contraceptive measures
(d) Both (a) and (b)

34. What are the early symptoms of Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs)?
(a) Fever, constipation and slight pain in joints
(b) Nausea, headache and severe joint pain
(c) Itching, fluid discharge, swelling in the genital region
(d) None of the above

35. In which species both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented?

(a) Oxalis (b) Mirabilis (c) Cucurbita (d) Papaya
36. A normal-visioned man whose father was colourblind and mother was normal, marries
a woman whose father was also colourblind, but mother was normal. They have their
first child as a daughter. What are the chances that this child would be colourblind?
(a) 100% (b) 0 % (c) 25% (d) 50 %

37. The transference of genes from one chromosome to another during synapsis is termed as
(a) linkage (b) dominance
(c) crossing over (d) independent assortment

38. An unfertilised human egg contains

(a) Two X-chromosomes (b) One X and one Y-chromosome
(c) One Y-chromosome (d) One X-chromosome

39. XX-XY type of sex-determination is observed in case of

(a) humans (b) Drosophila (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) birds

40. Law of Mendel which is not completely applicable is

(a) law of segregation (b) law of independent assortment
(c) law of dominance (d) Both (b) and (c)

41. Which cross will result in most pink flowers?

(a) Red ´ Red (b) Red ´ Pink (c) Red ´ White (d) Pink ´ Pink

42. Observe the below given diagram of a transcription unit.

Transcription start site
SAMPLE PAPER 7

Promoter Terminator
Structural gene Template strand
3′ 5′

5′ 3′
Coding strand

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) There are two main regions on a transcriptional unit
(b) Structural gene codes for enzyme or protein
(c) Promoter is the binding site for RNA polymerase
(d) Terminator is located at 3 ¢ end (downstream)
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 159

43. In DNA, 20% bases are adenine. What percentage of bases are pyrimidines?
(a) 30% (b) 60% (c) 50% (d) 20%

44. Observe the diagram and choose the correct option.

5′ 5′
3′ 3′
A
B 3′ mRNA
Capping
Cap Polyadenylation
mG RNA splicing or tailing
ppp C
5′ m 3′
Gppp D
5′
mG 3′
ppp m
5′ Gppp
5′
Messenger RNA (mRNA)

(a) It represents replication in prokaryote

(b) It represents transcription in prokaryote
(c) It represents transcription in eukaryote
(d) It represent transcription in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes

45. Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animals cell?
(a) rRNA (b) tRNA (c) mRNA (d) miRNA

46. Haemophilia rarely occurs in woman as it is a …(i)… gene disease. It is lethal in

…(ii)… condition.
(a) (i) autosomal, (ii) X h X h (b) (i) dominant, (ii) X h Y
(c) (i) recessive, (ii) X h X h (d) (i) dominant, (ii) X h X h

47. The backbone of RNA consists of which of the following sugars?

(a) C 5 H10 O 4 (b) C 5 H10 O 5 (c) C 6 H10 O 8 (d) C 6 H12 O 7

48. Refer to the diagram showing DNA replication and choose the incorrect option
regarding it.
5′ 3′

5′ Discontinuous
3′
synthesis
SAMPLE PAPER 7

3′ 5′
5′ 3′

(a) On 3¢ ® 5¢ template, new strand is formed by the addition of deoxribonucleotides to

3¢ end of primer RNA
(b) Okazaki fragments on 5¢ ® 3¢ template are formed by DNA polymerase-III
(c) RNA primer is removed from 5¢ end by 5¢ ® 3¢ exonuclease activity of DNA
polymerase-I
(d) None of the above
160 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

Section C
(Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q. Nos. 49 to 54). Besides
this, 6 more questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section.
The first attempted 10 questions would be evaluated.)
Observe the diagram given below and answer the questions that follows

R
S

49. Identify the labels Q, S and T.

(a) Egg cell, antipodals and synergids (b) Antipodals, egg cell and synergids
(c) Polar nuclei, egg cell and synergids (d) Antipodals, polar nuclei and synergids

50. Growth of pollen tube towards embryo sac is

(a) geotropic (b) thigmotaxis (c) chemotaxis (d) phototaxis

51. Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to label ‘P’?
(a) It acts as a conduit to transport the male gametes from pollen grain to the ovule
(b) It is a tubular structure produced by male gametophyte of seed plants
(c) Its growth is influenced by the chemical contained in it
(d) Both (a) and (b)

52. Identify the structure A and its correct characteristic.

(a) A is Stigma. It is the top of the female part of flower
(b) A is Stigma. It receives pollen grains
(c) A is Style. It induces the growth of pollen tube
(d) Both (a) and (b)

53. Fertilisation in case of angiosperms is called double fertilisation because it involves

(a) fusion of two male gametes in a pollen tube with two different eggs
(b) syngamy and triple fusion
SAMPLE PAPER 7

(c) fusion of two male gametes with one egg

(d) fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei

54. Number of nuclei taking part is double fertilisation is

(a) 2 (b) 5
(c) 3 (d) 4
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 161

55. Choose correct option for A, B, C and D in the given figure.

TT × tt
T t
T B t
A C
D

(a) A and B are heterozygous while C and D are homozygous

(b) A, B, C and D are heterozygous
(c) A, B and C are heterozygous, D is homozygous
(d) A and C are homozygous, B and D are heterozygous

56. Observe the diagram given below and answer the following questions that follows.
Possibility I Possibility II

Anaphase-I (Meiosis-I) Anaphase-I (Meiosis-I)

Anaphase-II (Meiosis-II) Anaphase-II (Meiosis-II)

The given process is likely to occur

(a) in honeybees (b) during gamete formation
(c) in bisexual organisms (d) Any of the above

57. Observe the cross given below and identify the phenomenon responsible for it.
AA aa Parents
Red White

A a Gametes

Aa F1-generation
Pink

A a Gametes

a
Aa A
A Pink a
AA aa
Red White F2-generation
Aa
SAMPLE PAPER 7

Pink

(a) Codominance (b) Incomplete dominance

(c) Dominance (d) Variation
162 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

58. Given below is the diagram of DNA structure as proposed by Watson and Crick.

Guanine G C Cytosine
Thymine T A Adenine
C G

T A
G C
T A
A
G
G C
C G
T A

Hydrogen bonds

5′ 3′

The width of DNA is

(a) 18 Å (b) 20 Å (c) 35 Å (d) 34 Å

59. In the given figure below, identify the site where linker DNA gets attached.
A B

Core of histone molecules

(a) B (b) C (c) A (d) None of these

60. The two figures A and B given below show structures of pentose sugar.
HOCH2 OH HOCH2 OH
O O
SAMPLE PAPER 7

OH OH OH H
A B

Which of the two structures is more reactive?

(a) A (b) B
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
 OMR SHEET SP 7
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Student Name Sub Code.

Instructions
Use black or blue ball point pens and avoid Gel & Fountain pens for filling the OMR sheet.
Darken the bubbles completely. Don’t put a tick mark or a cross mark, half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read
by the software.
✔ ✗
Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect
Do not write anything on the OMR Sheet.
Multiple markings are invalid.

1 21 41
2 22 42
3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25 45
6 26 46
7 27 47
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10 30 50
11 31 51
12 32 52
13 33 53
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Check Your Performance

Total Questions: Total Correct Questions
Score Percentage = × 100
Total Correct Questions: Total Questions

Less than 60% > Average (Revise the concepts again)

If Your Score is Greater than 60% but less than 75% > Good (Do more practice)
Above 75% > Excellent (Keep it on)
164 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

Answers
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (c)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (a)

EXPLANATIONS
1. (d) Both spermatids and secondary
spermatocytes have got haploid number of
chromosomes as these are formed after meiotic
divisions.
2. (b) In the given diagrams, parts of ovule are
shown. I represents large megaspore mother
cell whereas II represents the dyad of
megaspores.
3. (a) Chalazal pole is present just opposite to the
micropylar end and represents the basal part of
the ovule.
4. (a) Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior
pituitary gland during parturition. It contracts
the uterus and promotes progress of labour.
5. (c) A represents pollen grains. They represent
the male gametophyte.
B represents pollen tube which helps in
transfer of male gametes through style to reach
egg.
C represents ovary. It develops into fruit.
D represents ovule. It forms seed.
E represents antipodal cells. They are three in
number.
F represents polar nuclei. Two polar nuclei, on
fusion form a central cell.
Thus, option (c) is correct.
6. (b) Statements II, III and IV are correct,
whereas I and V are incorrect. Incorrect
statements can be corrected as
l The uterus is single and is also called womb.
l Perimetrium of uterus is external and thin,
myometrium is the middle thick layer of
SAMPLE PAPER 7
Phase C is the menstrual phase during which
endometrium degenerates and it lasts for
3-5 days in case the egg is not fertilised. The
level of progesterone and oestrogen falls
during this phase.
Thus, option (c) is correct.
8. (b) Option (b) represents the incorrect pair and
can be corrected as
Ampulla is the wider part of oviduct.
Rest all the pairs are correct.
9. (c) The level of LH is maximum at the time of
ovulation (i.e. ovulatory phase) in the
menstrual cycle. It is called as LH surge. It
induces rupture of Graafian follicles and
thereby the release of ovum, i.e. ovulation.
10. (c) Tubectomy is a surgical method in females
wherein Fallopian tubes are cut and tied
surgically in order to prevent further
pregnancies.
Though this method is highly effective, it
cannot be reversed.
11. (c) The group A used norplant and group B
practiced rhythm method.
12. (a) Inflated or full pod-shape is a dominant
character whereas constricted pod-shape is
recessive.
13. (c) Statements I and IV are correct. Whereas II
and III are incorrect. Incorrect statements can
be corrected as
l Characters blend in both homozygous and
heterozygous conditions.
Not all characters (only some) show

smooth muscles and endometrium is the inner
glandular layer.
7. (c) During A, i.e. 6-15 days, there is
regeneration of endometrium lining through
proliferation. This is called follicular phase.
Phase B, i.e. 16-25 days, mark the thickening of
endometrium in order to receive and implant
embryo. Progesterone level increases during
this phase.
dominance in humans, e.g. straight hair and
fair skin are recessive characters.
14. (d) Statement in option (d) is correct with
respect to monohybrid cross and dihybrid
cross.
Rest of the statements are incorrect and can be
corrected as
l Both monohybrid and dihybrid crosses can be
performed for one or more generations.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
l Both monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross
involves two parents.
l Both monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross
can produce two or more progenies.
15. (c) In given situation, genotype of parents
having red coloured flowers will be
heterozygous.
Rr Rr
(Red) ´ (Red)
R r R r
RR Rr Rr rr
White
Red
3 1
75% 25%
16. (a) Mendel worked on garden pea and choose
seven characters for his study. He studied 2
traits related to flower, i.e. colour and position,
2 traits related to pod, i.e. shape and colour
and 2 traits related to seed, i.e. shape and
colour and one trait related to stem, i.e. height.
17. (b) When a haemophilic man marries a normal
woman, the daughters produced will be
carriers and represented by genotype X h X. The
girls will be phenotypically normal and the
sons will be normal with genotype XY.
18. (a) The given statements are the symptoms
caused due to Down‘s syndrome or trisomy 21.
19. (d) B-DNA is right-handed DNA where the
double-strand is coiled in right-handed fashion
around a common axis.
The pitch of helix per turn is 3.4 nm with
10 base pairs per turn of helix. The distance
between adjacent base pairs is 0.34 nm.
20. (a) Chargaff’s rules state that DNA from any
cell of any organisms should have a 1:1 ratio
(base pair rule) of pyrimidine and purine
bases. More specifically, the amount of
guanine should be equal to cytosine and the
amount of adenine should be equal to thymine.
21. (a) S-type strain of S. pneumoniae is capsulated,
virulent and smooth in appearance.
22. (b) As a part of his experiments, Griffith tried
injecting mice with heat-killed S bacteria.
Unsurprisingly, the heat-killed S bacteria did
not cause disease in mice. However, when
harmless R bacteria were combined with
harmless heat-killed S bacteria and injected
165
into a mouse, the mouse develop pneumonia
and died. When Griffith took a blood sample
from the dead mouse, he found that it
contained living S bacteria.
23. (d) Hershey and Chase used 35 S and 32 P to
prove that DNA is genetic material.
In diagram A, no radioactive 35 S was detected
in cells, however, it was detected in
supernatant. Similarly in diagram B,
radioactive 32 P was detected in cells and not in
the supernatant.
Thus, option (d) is correct.
24. (d) All given statements are correct about
chromosomal inheritance.
Thus, option (d) is correct.
25. (d) A is false, but R is true because
Tapetum is the microsporangium’s innermost
wall layer. It nourishes the developing pollens.
The tapetal cells enlarge radially and become
filled with dense protoplasmic contents as well
as nutrients. Tapetal cells are generally
multinucleate or their nucleus becomes
polyploid. Microsporogenesis refers to the
process of formation of haploid microspores
from microspore mother cell via meiosis.
26. (d) A is false, but R is true because
Implantation is defined as the attachment of
the early embryo known as blastocyst, to the
uterus lining. A blastocyst is made up of a
hollow sphere of trophoblast cells, inside of
which is a small group of cells called inner cell
mass. Trophoblast contributes to fetal
membrane systems, while the inner cell mass is
destined largely to become the embryo.
27. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
When a couple cannot conceive even after
having unprotected sexual intercourse, they
are termed as infertile. These are lots of reason
for infertility that involve physical injury, use
of drugs, disease and so on.
28. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
SAMPLE PAPER 7
In eukaryotic organism, the monocistronic
structural genes have interrupted coding
sequences thus, the genes are split. The coding
sequences are called exons. These are
sequences that appear in mature or processed
RNA. The exons are interrupted by non-coding
sequences (introns) or intervening sequences
that do not appear in mature or processed
RNA. Thus, post-transcription processing
involves introns splicing and fusion of exons to
form functional mRNA.
166 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

29. (a) D is ovary. It is an important part of female This trait is passed to children but daughters
reproductive system as it produces the female produced by this couple are carrier, not the
gamete or ovum. colourblind.
30. (a) In angiosperms, during megasporogenesis, XXc XY
Parents Carrier Normal
the primary archaesporial cell develops in the woman man
hypodermal region of nucellus towards the Gametes X Xc X Y
micropylar end of the ovule. It grows in size,
develops a prominent nucleus and undergoes
further divisions. Progeny XX XY XcX XcY
Normal Normal Carrier Colourblind
31. (d) Statements I, II and IV are correct. girl boy girl boy
Female Vallisneria flowers have long pedicel
and single white flowers grow on long stalks. 37. (c) Crossing over is the reciprocal exchange of
Pollen grains are light and thread-like. segments between non-sister chromatids of a
pair of homologous chromosomes.
Statement III is incorrect and can be corrected
It results in recombination of genes. The
as
non-sister chromatids in which exchange of
Pollination in case of Vallisneria is achieved by
segments take place, are known as crossovers
water and is called hydrophily.
or recombinants, while other chromatids which
32. (c) The stamen is responsible for half of the are not involved in exchange of segments are
reproductive phase in flowering plants. called non-crossovers or parental types.
Without the stamen and the pollens, new
38. (d) An unfertilised human egg contains only
flowers could not be produced.
one X-chromosome.
33. (d) In order to control the growing population, A human sperm has either of an X or a Y
the government has implemented various chromosome therefore, it determines the sex of
strategies which help in bringing the
the child after fertilisation.
population graph down.
39. (c) XX-XY type of sex-determination is
These include advertisements stating the
observed in Drosophila melanogaster and
benefits of small families and slogans like
humans.
‘hum do hamare do’, etc.
40. (d) Law of independent assortment is only
Raising the marriageable ages, 18 for females
applicable to those factors or genes which are
and 21 for males and also giving extra
not linked. Similarly, law of dominance is not
beneficiary to small families.
applicable in case of codominance and
Thus, option (d) is correct. incomplete dominance.
34. (c) Sexually transmitted diseases are defined as So, laws of Mendel which is not completely
diseases that can be transmitted during sexual applicable are law of independent assortment
intercourse. The early symptoms observed in and law of dominance.
STDs are itching, slight pain, swelling in Thus, option (d) is correct.
genital region and fluid discharge from the
41. (c) Crossing homozygous red and white
body.
flowers will result in intermediate pink
35. (d) In some species like papaya, both flowers.
autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented. In
42. (a) Statement is option (a) is incorrect and can
these plants male and female flowers are
be corrected as
present on different plants (dioecy).
The transcriptional unit has three main regions,
SAMPLE PAPER 7

36. (b) In the given condition, the man would be the promoter, the structural gene and the
normal and his wife would be carrier of this terminator.
disease. Rest all statements are correct.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
43. (c) The percentage of pyrimidines bases will be
50%. According to Chargaff’s rule,
\ If A = 20%, then T =20%
A + T = 40%
Thus, G + C = 100 - 40 = 60%
Thus, G = 30% and C = 30%
Hence, total percentage of pyrimidine bases
(T + C) are 20 + 30 = 50%.
44. (c) The given diagram represent transcription
in eukaryotes because post-transcriptional
modifications in hnRNA occur in eukaryotes
only.
45. (a) rRNA is the most abundant form of RNA as
it is responsible for coding and protein
synthesis in cell and is also associated with
ribosomes.
46. (c) Haemophilia rarely occurs in woman as it is
a recessive (i) gene disease. It is lethal in X h X h
(ii) condition.
47. (b) The backbone of RNA is made up of ribose
sugar ( C5H10O5 ).
48. (d) All the given statements are correct. Thus,
option (d) is correct.
49. (b) Q –Antipodals. They are three haploid cells
in most of the angiosperms which provide
nourishment to egg cell.
S–Egg cell. It is haploid female gamete that
forms a zygote after fertilisation. The zygote
leads to a diploid embryo.
T–Synergids. They are two specialised cells
which are responsible for cessation of pollen
tube growth and release of sperm cells.
50. (c) Growth of pollen tube towards the embryo
sac is induced by the chemicals like auxin
hormone. Thus, it is chemotaxis.
51. (c) The label ‘P’ is pollen tube.
Statement in option (c) is not correct and can
be corrected as
The growth of pollen tube is influenced by the
interaction between stigma, style and the
pollen grain.
167
Rest all statements are correct with respect to
label P.
52. (d) The structure with label ‘A‘ is stigma. It is
the top of the female part of the flower. It also
acts as a landing platform for pollen grains.
Thus, option (d) is correct.
53. (b) Double fertilisation is a unique
phenomenon that occurs in angiosperms only.
It involves two types of fusion, i.e. syngamy
and triple fusion.
54. (b) 5 nuclei take part in double fertilisation,
i.e. 2 sperm nuclei, 2 polar nuclei and 1 egg
nucleus.
55. (b)
TT × tt
T t
T Tt (B) t
Tt (A) Tt (C)
Tt (D)
Thus, A, B, C and D are heterozygous.
56. (b) The process of gametogenesis or gamete
formation is shown in the diagram given in
question. This clearly indicates towards the
Mendel’s law of independent assortment.
The two factors of each character assort or
separate independent of the factors of other
characters at the time of gamete formation
(gametogenesis) and get randomly rearranged
in the offspring thus, producing both parental
and new combination of traits.
57. (b) The given cross is a monohybrid cross with
incomplete dominance, thus showing pink
flowers as intermediate results.
58. (b) The structure of DNA proposed by Watson
and Crick is that of B-DNA. It is arranged in a
right-handed double helix and is 20 Å wider.
59. (a) The linker DNA attaches to site B (Histone
H1) of the nucleosome core.
60. (a) Pentose sugar shown in figure A is more
reactive due to the presence of —OH group at
SAMPLE PAPER 7
2 ¢ carbon also.
168 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

SAMPLE PAPER 8
BIOLOGY
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class XII (Term I) Examination

General Instructions
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
(a) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(b) Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(c) Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
2. Each question carries 0.70 mark.
3. There is NO negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 35
Roll No. Time allowed : 90 Minutes

Section A
(Section-A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted
20 questions would be evaluated.)

1. Approximate length and width of testis are

(a) 4-5 cm and 2-3 cm (b) 5-6 cm and 3-4 cm
(c) 6-7 cm and 4-5 cm (d) 7-8 cm and 8-9 cm

2. In the figure of an anther given below, choose the correct option for the number of
lobes, thecae and microsporangia present in it.
Pollen grain

Pollen sacs

Line of a
dehiscence
SAMPLE PAPER 8

Filaments

Numbers of lobe Numbers of theca Numbers of

microsporangia
(a) 2 4 4
(b) 2 2 4
(c) 2 3 4
(d) 2 4 2
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 169

3. Megasporogenesis is the
(a) formation of fruits (b) formation of seeds
(c) formation of megaspores (d) Both (b) and (c)

4. Out of the following, choose the post-fertilisation event(s).

(a) Endospermogenesis
(b) Embryogenesis
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Megasporogenesis

5. Which of the following statements are true for X and Y ?

X Y

I. Pollination in X is done by biotic pollinator.

II. Pollen grains of X are coated with protective covering.
III. Pollination in X and Y is done by abiotic pollinator.
IV. To sustain pollinators visit, Y provides rewards to them.
Choose the correct answer from the given options.
(a) I and III (b) II and III
(c) III and IV (d) I and IV

6. Which of the following statements are correct for human female reproductive system?
I. Vagina opens to the interior by an aperture called cervix.
II. Uterine part passes through the uterine wall and communicates with the uterine
cavity.
III. Each ovary is about 2-4 cm in length and is connected by an ovarian ligament to the
SAMPLE PAPER 8

uterus.
IV. Birth canal is formed by cervical canal and vagina.
V. Perimetrium of uterus wall is external and thick, myometrium is middle thin layer
of smooth muscles and endometrium is inner glandular layer.
Codes
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV
(c) IV and V (d) I and V
170 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

7. In Column I, diagram of male reproductive is given and in Column II, list of male
reproductive parts.
Column I Column II
1. Ejaculatory duct
2. Rectum
3. Prostate gland
4. Glans penis
D A 5. Penis
6. Bulbourethral
B gland
C
7. Vas deferens

Identify the reproductive part from Column I and its correct labelling from Column II
by choosing correct option given below.
(a) A–7, B–5, C–6, D–3 (b) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–6
(c) A–3, B–2, C–1, D–6 (d) A–1, B–4, C–6, D–3

8. What happens during the follicular phase of menstrual cycle?

(a) Proliferation of endometrium
(b) Reduction in blood supply to endometrium
(c) Regression of endometrium
(d) No effect on endometrium

9. The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce

(a) oestrogen only (b) progesterone only
(c) human chorionic gonadotropin (d) relaxin only

10. In case of a couple, where the male is having erectile dysfunction, which technique will
be suitable for fertilisation?
(a) Intra Uterine Transfer
(b) Gamete Intracytoplasmic Fallopian Transfer
(c) Artificial Insemination
(d) Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection

11. Contraceptive methods or devices are used to limit the number of offsprings. One of
the contraceptive method is given below. Identify its basic action and use.
SAMPLE PAPER 8
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 171

Basic actions Uses

(a) Chemicals which kill sperms Take twice a week
(b) Prevent development of egg Taken daily for 3 weeks
(c) Inhibits ovulation Taken daily for 7 days during menstruation
(d) Supress sperm mortality Inserted by doctors

12. In haemophilia, the affected protein is a part of a cascade of protein which is involved
in the
(a) formation of RBCs (b) formation of WBCs and platelets
(c) coagulation of blood (d) anticoagulation

13. Which of the following statements are false?

I. A dominant allele determines the phenotype both in homozygous and
heterozygous conditions.
II. A recessive allele is weaker than a dominant allele.
III. A recessive allele shows its effects in heterozygous condition only.
IV. A dominant allele is always better for an organism.
Codes
(a) I, II and IV (b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II and III (d) I, III and IV

14. In man, the mechanism of sex-linked inheritance occurs generally from

(a) father to daughter to grandson (b) father to daughter
(c) daughter to grandson (d) father to son to grandson
15. If a cross between two individuals produces offsprings with 50% dominant characters
(A) and 50% recessive character (a), then the genotype of parents are
(a) Aa ´ Aa (b) Aa ´ aa
(c) AA ´ aa (d) AA ´ Aa
16. Which of the following combination of sex chromosomes represent the correct sex-
determination pattern in peacock?
(a) ZW male, ZZ female (b) ZZ male, ZW female
(c) XO male, XY female (d) XY male, XX female
17. Arjun and Ridhima are both suffering from genetic disorder. Condition of Arjun is due
to excess of chromosome while Ridhima’s condition is due to reduced globin
molecules. Identify the disorder they are suffering from.
Arjun Ridhima
(a) Klinefelter’s–Autosomal-linked recessive Thalassemia–An autosome-linked
SAMPLE PAPER 8

dominant
(b) Thalassemia–Sex-linked recessive disease Klinefelter–Sex-linked dominant disease
(c) Klinefelter’s–Aneuploidy Thalassemia–Autosome-linked recessive
trait
(d) Thalassemia–Autosome-linked recessive Klinefelter–Polyploidy
trait
172 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

18. Consider the following statements.

I. rRNA provides the template for synthesis of proteins.
II. tRNA brings amino acids and reads the genetic code.
III. RNA polymerase binds to promoter and initiates transcription.
IV. A segment of DNA coding for polypeptide is called intron.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and III (b) I and IV (c) I, II and III (d) II and III

19. Which of the following is incorrect about nucleotides?

(a) A nucleotide contains ribose sugar or deoxyribose sugar
(b) A nucleotide contains pyrimidine bases and purine bases
(c) A nucleotide contains protein, carbohydrates and fats
(d) A phosphate group is present in a nucleotide

20. Select the incorrect statement.

(a) Ribosome consists of structural RNA and proteins
(b) Protein synthesis begins when large subunits of ribosome encounter mRNA
(c) Prokaryotes use same RNA polymerase to transcribe all the genes
(d) Transcription and translation in a bacterial cell occurs simultaneously

21. Splicing is the process where

(a) exons are removed from growing tRNA strand
(b) introns are removed from growing polypeptide chain
(c) introns are removed from heterogeneous nuclear RNA
(d) exons are removed from mRNA

22. Jacob and Monod studied lactose metabolism in E. coli and proposed operon concept, it
is applicable for
(a) all prokaryotes (b) all prokaryotes and some eukaryotes
(c) all prokaryotes and all eukaryotes (d) all prokaryotes and some protozoans

23. Which of the following groups of codons, code for amino acid serine?
(a) CUU, CUC, CUA and CUG (b) UAU, UAC, UGU and UGC
(c) UCU, UCC, UCA and UCG (d) UGU, UGC, UGA and UAC

24. The given figure shows the structure of transcription unit. Identify A, B and C from the
given option below.
C
A
3′ 5′

5′ 3′
B
SAMPLE PAPER 8

A B C
(a) Coding strand Promoter Structural gene
(b) Template strand Promoter Terminator
(c) Template strand Coding strand Terminator
(d) Coding strand Template strand Structural gene
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 173

Section B
(Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No. 25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section.
The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated).
Question Nos. 25 to 28 consist of two statements. Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

25. Assertion (A) Parthenocarpy involves the formation of seedless fruits.

Reason (R) Apomixis occurs without fertilisation.
26. Assertion (A) Ovum retains most of the contents of the primary oocyte and is much
larger than a spermatozoa.
Reason (R) It needs energy to go about in search of a spermatozoa for fertilisation.
27. Assertion (A) Rapid decline in death rate, MMR and IMR have lead to staggering rise
in population.
Reason (R) Increased population growth rate has lead to an absolute scarcity of even
the most basic requirements, i.e. food and shelter.
28. Assertion (A) In transcription, the strand with 3¢ ® 5¢ polarity acts as the template
strand.
Reason (R) The enzyme DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses the
polymerisation in only one direction, i.e. 5¢ ® 3¢.
29. The hormone ‘A’ acts on one of the structure ‘B’ shown in figure and stimulate secretion
of some factors which help in the process of spermiogenesis. What are ‘A’ and ‘B’?
IV

III

II

I
SAMPLE PAPER 8

A B
(a) Testosterone IV
(b) ICSH I
(c) FSH II
(d) LH III
174 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

30. What is the fate of the male gametes discharged in the synergid?
(a) All fuse with the egg
(b) One fuses with the egg, other(s) fuse(s) with synergid nucleus
(c) One fuses with the egg and other fuses with central cell nuclei
(d) One fuses with the egg other(s) degenerate(s) in the synergid

31. A botanist treated some pollen grains with enzymes, chemical and high termperature
to break exine. After that he observed the pollen under the microscope and found that
exine is still intact. Why exine is not broken down?
(a) Because exine is cellulosic in nature
(b) Because pollen grains are small
(c) Because exine is coated with sporopollenin
(d) None of the above
32. Uterine endometrium, epithelial glands and connective tissues are broken in menstrual
phase. This is due to
(a) oversecretion of FSH
(b) lack of oestrogen
(c) lack of progesterone
(d) overproduction of progesterone
33. In which ‘Assisted Reproductive Technology’ (ART), ‘test tube baby’ procedure is
applied?
(a) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT)
(b) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)
(c) In Vitro Fertilisation and Embryo Transfer (IVF and ET)
(d) Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT)

34. Cu-T helps in the prevention of pregnancy by preventing

(a) ovulation
(b) implantation
(c) fertilisation
(d) All of the above

35. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to

(a) megasporangium (b) megasporophyll
(c) megaspore mother cell (d) megaspore
36. A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea
plant. When the F 1 plants were selfed, the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of
(a) 1 : 2 : 1 :: Tall heterozygous : Tall homozygous : Dwarf
(b) 3 : 1 :: Tall : Dwarf
SAMPLE PAPER 8

(c) 3 : 1 :: Dwarf : Tall

(d) 1 : 2 : 1 :: Tall homozygous : Tall heterozygous : Dwarf
37. Tall (T) is completely dominant over dwarf (t). Red flower colour (R) is incompletely
dominant over white (r), the heterozygote being pink. Plant having genotype of TtRr is
self-pollinated. What would be the proportion of plants with dwarf and pink
characters in its progeny?
2 1 9 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
16 16 16 16
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 175

38. Mendel found that the reciprocal crosses yield identical results. From that, it was
concluded
(a) there is no dominance of any trait
(b) sex has no influence on the dominance of traits
(c) there is independent assortment of traits
(d) sex plays a role in deciding the dominance of a trait

39. Father has blood group A and mother’s blood group is B. Both are heterozygous. If
they have identical twins, the percentage probability of both having blood group A is
(a) 100% (b) 50%
(c) 25% (d) 6.25%

40. A colourblind man marries the normal daughter of a colourblind man. In their progeny,
(a) all their sons will be colourblind
(b) half of their sons and daughters will be colourblind
(c) none of their daughters will be colourblind
(d) all their daughters will be colourblind

41. Which of the following cross will give recessive progeny in F 1-generation?
(a) TT ´ tt (b) Tt ´ tt
(c) tt ´ tt (d) TT ´ TT

42. Which of the following is correctly depicted in the below diagram?

Generation-I Generation-II
A-DNA
15N-DNA
B-DNA
20 min 40 min C-DNA
D-DNA
(a) Equal amount of light DNA and hybrid DNA was observed in E. coli culture after two
generations
(b) The generation time of E. coli culture is 40 minutes
(c) DNA replicates semiconservatively
(d) Amount of light DNA was more than that of hybrid DNA in E. coli culture after two
generations

43. The double helix of the DNA is made up of polynucleotide chains. Towards which side
is the backbone constituted by sugar-phosphate and bases, projected?
(a) Towards inside
(b) Towards outside
(c) One base inside and the other outside
(d) Bases remain intine of sugar-phosphate
SAMPLE PAPER 8

44. Regulation of lactose operon (lac operon) by repressor is referred to as

(a) aminoacylation
(b) inducer
(c) positive regulation
(d) negative regulation
176 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

45. In Meselson and Stahl’s experiment (1958), DNA extracted from the culture one
generation after the transfer from 15 N to 14 N medium had a hybrid (or intermediate)
density. Why?
(a) Because the generation time of E. coli (culture) was about 20 minutes
(b) Because it would take 20 minutes for RNA replication
(c) Because it would take 20 minutes for replication of DNA to RNA (transcription)
(d) Because it would take 20 minutes for translation RNA to protein

46. For initiation, the ribosomes bind to the ...A... at the start codon and ...B... is
recognised by the initiator ...C... .
Choose the correct option for A, B and C.
(a) A–mRNA, B–AUG, C– tRNA (b) A–mRNA, B–AUG, C–tRNA
(c) A–rRNA, B–AUG, C–tRNA (d) A–rRNA B–AUG, C– mRNA

47. How genetic and physical maps were generated in HGP?

(a) By using DNase (b) By using RNase
(c) By using restriction endonuclease (d) By using automated DNA sequences

48. Find the binding sequence of the following amino-acyl tRNA complexes during
translaton to a mRNA transcribed by a DNA segment having the base sequence
3¢ TACATGGGTCCG 5¢.
Amino
acid

A U G U A C C C G G G U Anticodon
a b c d

Choose the right answer in which the correct alphabets are shown.
(a) b, a, d, c (b) a, b, d, c
(c) b, a, c, d (d) a, b, c, d

Section C
(Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q.Nos.49 to 54). Besides this, 6
more questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section. The first attempted 10 questions would be
evaluated.)
Observe the given diagram and answer the following questions that follows.
E C
SAMPLE PAPER 8

D
B

A
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 177

49. Which of the following event cannot occur in a woman having blockage at site F ?
(a) Ovulation (b) Copulation
(c) Fertilisation (d) Parturition

50. Copper-T, an IUD is inserted by nurses or doctors in ..... ... .

(a) D (b) A (c) E (d) F

51. Female with block structure F can become mother by which one of the following ART?
(a) GIFT (b) ZIFT (c) IUT (d) ICSI

52. Which hormone is responsible for maintaining thick blood lining in structure ‘E’
during pregnancy?
(a) Oestrogen (b) Oxytocin
(c) LH (d) Progesterone

53. A contraceptive method in which the structure F is blocked, is

(a) hysterectomy (b) ovariotomy (c) tubectomy (d) vasectomy

54. The part of Fallopian tube closest to the ovary is

(a) ampulla (b) isthmus
(c) infundibulum (d) cervix

55. Consider the following statements and select the statement(s) which are correct with
respect to the reasons as to why Mendel could not find out about linkage?
I. Some genes are linked, but they are too far apart for crossing over to be
distinguished from independent assortment.
II. Linked genes were never tested for the same time in same cross.
III. All seven genes were present on the same chromosomes.
IV. All seven genes were present on seven different chromosomes.
Codes
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III and IV (d) Only IV

56. On the basis of given figure which of the following conclusion can be drawn?
SAMPLE PAPER 8

(a) Affected individual is suffering from Down’s syndrome

(b) Affected individual is suffering from Turner’s syndrome
(c) Affected individual is suffering from chromosomal disorder
(d) Affected individual is suffering from Mendelian disorder
178 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

57. The given sex-determination chart is of honeybee.

Parents Female Male
32 16

Meiosis Mitosis

Gametes
16 16 16

F1-generation Male Female

16 32

Which of the following is incorrect with respect to the sex-determination in honeybees?

(a) Offspring formed by the union of a sperm and egg develops into male
(b) Unfertilised egg develops as a drones
(c) Haplo-diploid sex-determination is seen in honeybees
(d) None of the above

58. Refer to the diagram given below and choose the correct option.

5′ 5′
3′ 3′

A
Intron
Cap
mG Polyadenylation
ppp
or tailing
5′ Exon
3′
mG
ppp
B
5′ Poly A tail

mG
ppp
mG 3′
ppp
C
5′
5′
(a) A represents the formation of a polypeptide chain
(b) In steps B, exons are removed and introns are joined
(c) Steps A, B and C occur in the nucleus of the cell
(d) All of the above

59. The diagram represents the ‘central dogma’ of molecular biology. Choose the correct
combination of labelling.

D
SAMPLE PAPER 8

(a) A–Protein, B–RNA, C–DNA, D–Translation, E–Transcription

(b) A–RNA, B–DNA, C–Protein, D–Transcription, E–Translation
(c) A–Transcription, B–Translation, C–Protein, D–DNA, E–RNA
(d) A–DNA, B–RNA, C–Protein, D–Transcription, E–Translation
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 179

60. Strand X in the figure shows a small part of a nucleic acid molecule.

T
Strand X
G

Which of the following strands are complementary to strand X?

1. 2. 3. 4.

A T A U

C A C A

A C A C

G T G U

T G U G

(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 2 (d) 3 and 4
SAMPLE PAPER 8
 OMR SHEET SP 8
Roll No.

Student Name Sub Code.

Instructions
Use black or blue ball point pens and avoid Gel & Fountain pens for filling the OMR sheet.
Darken the bubbles completely. Don’t put a tick mark or a cross mark, half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read
by the software.
✔ ✗
Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect
Do not write anything on the OMR Sheet.
Multiple markings are invalid.

1 21 41
2 22 42
3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25 45
6 26 46
7 27 47
8 28 48
9 29 49
10 30 50
11 31 51
12 32 52
13 33 53
14 34 54
15 35 55
16 36 56
17 37 57
18 38 58
19 39 59
20 40 60

Check Your Performance

Total Questions: Total Correct Questions
Score Percentage = × 100
Total Correct Questions: Total Questions

Less than 60% > Average (Revise the concepts again)

If Your Score is Greater than 60% but less than 75% > Good (Do more practice)
Above 75% > Excellent (Keep it on)
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 181

Answers
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (c)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (d) 60. (c)

EXPLANATIONS
1. (a) Each human testis is oval in shape, with a
length of about 4-5 cm and a width of about
2-3 cm.
2. (b) A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed
with each lobe having two thecae
(dithecous). The anther consists of four
microsporangia, located at the corner, two in
each lobes. Hence, option (b) is correct.
3. (c) Megasporogenesis is the process of
formation of megaspores.
4. (c) Endospermogenesis and embryogenesis
are the post-fertilisation events during which
formation of endosperm and embryo take
place. Whereas, megasporogenesis is the
formation of megaspores and it is a
pre-fertilisation event.
Thus, option (c) is correct.
5. (b) Statements II and III are true for X and Y.
In both X and Y, pollination is done by
abiotic pollinator. X is pollinated by water
therefore pollens have mucilaginous
covering to protect them from wetting. Y is
pollinated by wind and have light,
non-sticky pollen grain. Hence, option (b) is
correct.
6. (b) Statements II, III and IV are correct.
Statements I and V are incorrect and can be
corrected as
l Vagina opens to the exterior by an aperture
called vaginal orifice.
l Perimetrium of uterus is external and thin,
9. (b) The main function of mammalian corpus
luteum is the secretion of progesterone, which is
essential for the maintenance of endometrium.
10. (c) Artificial insemination is commonly used in
cases, where male partners are unable to
inseminate the female due to very low sperm
counts in the ejaculate or erectile dysfunctioning.
In this method, the semen is collected either
from husband or a healthy donor and then
artificially introduced into the vagina or into the
uterus of the female.
11. (b) Oral contraceptives contain either oestrogen
or combination of both progesterone and
oestrogen. These prevent egg development and
inhibit ovulation. These are very reliable if taken
daily for 3 weeks (21 days), after a gap of 7 days
(during menstruation). It has to be repeated till
the female desire.
12. (c) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease,
which is transmitted through affected allele on
X-chromosome. In this disease, a single protein
that is a part of the cascade of proteins involved
in the clotting of blood is affected. Due to this, in
an affected individual, a simple cut result in
non-stop bleeding.
13. (b) Statements II, III and IV are false and can be
corrected as
l A recessive allele is not weaker than the
dominant allele.
l A recessive allele does not show its effect in
heterozygous condition. However in
homozygous condition, it expresses itself. A
SAMPLE PAPER 8

myometrium is the middle thick layer of recessive allele can express in few cases, e.g.
smooth muscles and endometrium is the incomplete dominance.
inner glandular layer. l It is not necessary that dominant allele is always
7. (d) A–1, B–4, C–6, D–3 better.
A–Ejaculatory duct B–Glans penis 14. (c) Men normally have X and Y combination of
C–Bulbourethral gland D–Prostate gland sex chromosome while women has two X
chromosomes. Since, men only have one X
8. (a) During the follicular phase of menstrual
chromosome and women has two X
cycle, the endometrium of the uterus
chromosomes therefore only men are affected
regenerates through proliferation.
while women are carrier of X-linked recessive
182
disorders. So, if a man A is affected it will pass
on the trait to daughter ‘B’ which can be a
carrier but the grandson of men ‘A’ will be
affected. Hence, in men, the mechanism of
sex-linked inheritance occurs generally from
daughter to grandson.
15. (b) If a cross between two individuals
produces offspring with 50% dominant
character (A) and 50% recessive character (a),
then the genotype of parents are Aa and aa.
Parents Aa aa
A a
a Aa aa
F1-generation
a Aa aa
Genotypic ratio of offspring = 1:1
Hence, the offspring in F1- generation shows
50% dominant character and 50% recessive
character.
16. (b) In peacock (bird), females have dissimilar
chromosome pair, i.e. ZW, while male have
two similar chromosome pairs, i.e. ZZ.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
17. (c) Arjun and Ridhima, both are suffering from
genetic disorders. Arjun is suffering from
Klinefelter’s syndrome which occurs due to
addition of chromosome resulting is 47
chromosome instead of 46. Ridhima is
suffering from thalassemia which occurs due
to reduced rate of synthesis of either a or
b-globin chain in haemoglobin. Thalassemia is
autosome linked recessive trait.
Hence , option (c) is correct.
18. (d) Statements II and III are correct.
Statements I and IV are incorrect and can be
corrected as
l rRNA provides the site for protein synthesis.
Whereas mRNA serves as template for protein
synthesis.
l A segment of DNA coding for polypeptide is
called cistron. Intron is the non-coding
segment.
SAMPLE PAPER 8
19. (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect and
can be corrected as
Nucleotides do not have proteins,
carbohydrates and fats. They contain a sugar, a
phosphate group and a nitrogenous base.
Rest of the statements are correct about
nucleotides.
20. (b) Statement in option (b) is incorrect and can
be corrected as
Ribosome consists of structural RNAs and
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
about 80 different proteins. In its inactive state,
it exists as two subunits, a large subunit and a
small subunit. When the smaller subunit
encounters the mRNA, the process of
translation of the mRNA to protein begins with
the binding of the mRNA to the smaller
ribosome unit. Rest statements are correct.
21. (c) In splicing, introns (non-coding regions) are
removed from heterogeneous nuclear RNA
and exons (coding regions) are joined to form a
mature mRNA.
22. (a) Jacob and Monod studied lactose
metabolism in E.coli and proposed operon
concept. This concept is applicable for all
prokaryotes.
23. (c) The group of codons, code for amino acid
serine are UCU, UCC, UCA and UCG.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
24. (c) In the given structure of transcription unit,
A–Template strand (has polarity 3 ¢ ® 5 ¢)
B–Coding strand
C–Terminator [located toward 3¢-end
(downstream) of coding strand]
25. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
Parthenocarpy involves the formation of
seedless fruits, because the fruit formation
from parthenocarpy does not involve
pollination and fertilisation and hence, fruits
develop without seed formation.
Apomixis is a mechanism that mimics sexual
reproduction and produces seeds without the
union of male and female gametes. The diploid
egg cell is formed without meiotic division and
develops into embryo without fertilisation, e.g.
members of Asteraceae and grasses.
26. (c) A is true, but R is false. R can be corrected as
Sperm needs energy to move about in female
reproductive tract in search of ova, so that
fertilisation can take place.
27. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
Rapid decline in death rate, MMR (Maternal
Mortality Rate) and IMR (Infant Mortality
Rate) have all happened due to significant
improvement in quality of life, increased
medical facilities, awareness about
reproduction related facts such as pre and
post-natal care of mother, vaccination of
children, etc., supported by better living
conditions.
As a result, there has been a staggering rise in
population.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 183

28. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 37. (a) TtRr × TtRr Parents
explanation of A.
In transcription, the strand with 3 ¢ ® 5 ¢
polarity acts as the template from which TR Tr tR tr TR Tr tR tr Gametes
mRNA is transcribed and is called the
template strand. TR Tr tR tr
This is because the enzyme DNA-dependent
TR TTRR TTRr TtRR TtRr
RNA polymerase catalyses the
polymerisation in only one direction 5 ¢ ® 3 ¢. Tr TTRr TTrr TtRr Ttrr F1-generation

29. (c) Hormone FSH (A) acts on Sertoli cells (B) tR TtRR TtRr ttRR ttRr
and stimulates the secretion of factors which tr TtRr Ttrr ttRr ttrr
help in the process of spermiogenesis.
30. (c) The male gametes enter into ovary Plants with dwarf and pink characters (ttRr) are
through filiform apparatus of synergids. One 2/16.
of male gamete fuses with the egg and the 38. (b) In most plants, any cross can be made in two
other fuses with the central cell nuclei. ways, depending on which phenotype is used as
31. (c) The exine of pollen grain is intact despite male or female. For example, the two crosses.
treating it with chemical and high Phenotype A (female) ´ Phenotype B (male),
temperature because of the sporopollenin Phenotype B (female) ´ Phenotype A (male) are
present in the exine. reciprocal crosses.
Mendel made reciprocal crosses in which he
32. (c) Uterine endometrium, epithelial glands
pollinated a white flower with pollen from a
and connective tissues are broken in
purple-flowered plant and in one he did the
menstrual phase due to lack of progesterone.
reverse and produced the same result (all purple
33. (c) ARTs are the technologies adopted for the flowers).
correction of infertility in males and females. He concluded that it makes no difference which
In in vitro fertilisation and embryo transfer, way the cross is made. If one pure-breeding
test tube baby proceduce is applied where parent is purple-flowered and the other is white
the egg and sperm are fertilised under flowered, all plants in the F1 have purple flowers.
laboratory conditions and then embryo is The purple flower colour in the F1-generation is
transferred into female or donor uterus for identical with that in the purple-flowered
further development. parental plants.
34. (c) The copper ions released by Cu-T So, Mendel found that the reciprocal crosses
suppress sperm motility and their fertilising yield identical results. From that it was
capacity. Thus, fertilisation is prevented. concluded sex has no influence on hte
dominance of traits.
35. (a) The ovule of an angiosperm is technically
equivalent to megasporangium. 39. (c) Parents A (I A i) × B (I B i )
Father Mother
36. (d) Parents TT ´ tt
IA i
(Tall) (Dwarf)
IB I AI B I Bi
F1 -generation Tt (Heterozygous tall) F1-generation
i I Ai ii
On selfing T t
Pollen ® Possible blood group = AB, A, B and O
SAMPLE PAPER 8

Egg ® T TT Tt % of having ‘A’ blood group

1
(Tall) (Tall) F2 - = 25% (as th offspring has A blood group)
4
t Tt tt generation
So, the probability of having ‘A’ blood group in
(Tall) (Dwarf)
twins is 25%.
Phenotypic ratio = 3 :1 [Tall : Dwarf] 40. (b) Half of their sons and daughters will be
Genotypic ratio = 1 : 2 : 1 colourblind because the daughter’s father is
colourblind, hence she will be a carrier of this
[Tall homozygous : Tall heterozygous : gene. Now, that she marries a colourblind man
Dwarf] then,
184
XCX × X Y
C mRNA sequence would be AUG UAC CCA
(Carrier woman) (Affected man)
XC X
C C C
XC X X X X F1-generation
Y XC Y XY
50% of their daughter will be colourblind, while
the other 50% will be carrier. Similarly, 50% of
their son will colourblind, while the other 50%
will be unaffected.
41. (c) Out of the crosses given in the option, the
appropriate option is the cross between both
homozygous recessive parents, i.e. tt ´ tt.
As only parents having recessiveness can have
recessive, F1 progeny.
tt × tt Parents
t t Gametes
tt F1-generation
42. (a) The given diagram is from Meselson and
Stahl experiment and clearly depicts that equal
amount ot light DNA and hybrid DNA was
observed in E. coli culture after two generations.
43. (a) Watson and Crick proposed that DNA
consists of two strands that are helically coiled.
Each strand has a backbone made up of
alternating deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
that joins two sugars via phosphodiester bond.
Bases are stacked inside and show
complementarity with bases of opposite strand
through hydrogen bonds.
44. (d) Lac operon is regulated by lac repressor and
CAP-cAMP complex. Lac repressor turns the
gene off. Such a regulation is called negative
regulation.
45. (a) In Meselson and Stahl’s experiment, the
generation time (replication time) of E. coli
culture was about 20 minutes. Therefore, the
DNA extracted after the interval of 20 minutes in
the experiment had heavy 15 N incorporated in
its genetic material and had a hybrid density.
46. (a) For initiation, the ribosomes bind to the
mRNA (A) at the start codon and AUG (B) is
SAMPLE PAPER 8
recognised by the initiator tRNA (C).
47. (c) For generating genetic and physical maps,
restriction endonuclease was used. For
sequencing the human DNA, the entire DNA
from a cell is isolated and converted into
random fragments of relatively smaller size by
using restriction endonuclease enzyme and
cloned in suitable host using specialised vectors.
48. (a) The given DNA sequence is
TAC ATG GGT CCG. The corresponding
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
GGC. Thus, among tRNA sequences given in
diagram, binding would occur in following
sequence UAC AUG GGU CCG.
49. (c) Female having blocked Fallopian tubes (F)
can copulate and ovulate but the process of
fertilisation is not possible as the transport of
gamete is blocked.
50. (c) Copper-T is an IUD inserted in female
uterus (E) through vagina by doctors and
trained nurses.
51. (c) Intra-Uterine Transfer (IUT) is a
procedure in which embryo with more than
8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus
for further development, when female’s
Fallopian ducts (F) are blocked.
52. (d) Progesterone is responsible for
maintaining blood lining in uterus (E) for
implantation of fertilised egg.
53. (c) Tubectomy is a surgical contraceptive
method in which the Fallopians tubes are cut
and tied surgically to block the transport of
gametes.
54. (c) Infundibulum is closest to the ovary.
55. (a) Statements I and II are the correct reasons
for why Mendel could not find out about
linkage. Statements III and IV are incorrect
and can be corrected as
The genes for all the traits were present on
four different chromosomes or were located
for apart on the same chromosomes.
56. (c) The affected individual is suffering from
chromosomal disorder (Klinefelter’s
syndrome) resulting in tall stature and
feminine character like development of
breasts, etc.
57. (a) Statement in option (a) is incorrect and
can be corrected as
Offspring formed by the union of a sperm
and egg develops into female. Rest
statements are correct with respect to the
sex-determination in honeybees.
58. (c) The diagram shows transcription
occurring in eukaryotes. It is carried out in
the nucleus of the cell and involves three
stages, initiation, elongation and termination.
59. (d) The correct combination is as follows
A–DNA, B–RNA, C–Protein,
D–Transcription, E–Translation
60. (c) The strand which is complementary to
strand X is 2 only.
A T GA C
T A C T G
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 185

SAMPLE PAPER 9
BIOLOGY
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class XII (Term I) Examination

General Instructions
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
(a) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(b) Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(c) Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
2. Each question carries 0.70 mark.
3. There is NO negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 35
Roll No. Time allowed : 90 Minutes

Section A
(Section-A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted
20 questions would be evaluated.)

1. Wind-pollinated plants differ from insect-pollinated plants in having

(a) small petals and sticky pollen
(b) small coloured petals and heavy pollen
(c) coloured petals and large pollen
(d) no petals and light pollen

2. Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and D in the given figure and select the correct
option.
A

C
SAMPLE PAPER 9

A B C D
(a) Seed coat Scutellum Epicotyl Hypocotyl
(b) Seed coat Scutellum Hypocotyl Epicotyl
(c) Seed coat Cotyledon Endosperm Hypocotyl
(d) Seed coat Endosperm Cotyledon Hypocotyl
186 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

3. 60% of the angiosperms shed their pollens at the

(a) 2-celled stage (b) 3-celled stage
(c) 4-celled stage (d) 1-celled stage

4. Cross-pollination is preferred over self-pollination because

(a) it is easy
(b) it results in a better offspring
(c) the new varieties are formed
(d) parthenogenesis can be induced

5. The given diagrams depict two plants of the same species. Identify the true statements
regarding P1 and P2 .

P1

P2

I. P1 represents geitonogamy and P2 represents autogamy.

II. P1 depicts xenogamy and P2 represents geitonogamy.
III. P1 depicts geitonogamy and P2 represents xenogamy.
IV. P1 represents allogamy and P2 depicts autogamy.
Codes
(a) Only I (b) II and III
(c) Only III (d) None of these

6. Consider the following statements related to the human male reproductive system.
I. Middle piece of spermatozoon is also termed as powerhouse of spermatozoon.
II. Semen is a collection of secretions from the seminal vesicles, prostate gland,
Cowper’s glands and sperms from testes.
SAMPLE PAPER 9

III. The secretion of prostate gland also helps in lubrication of the penis.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) I and III (b) II and III
(c) I and II (d) Only I
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 187

7. The given figure shows schematic representation of a menstrual cycle in human

female. Identify the three phases (A, B and C) of menstrual cycle.
Cycle begins here

A
C

A B C
(a) Proliferative phase Menstrual phase Secretory phase
(b) Menstrual phase Proliferative phase Secretory phase
(c) Secretory phase Menstrual phase Proliferative phase
(d) Menstrual phase Secretory phase Proliferative phase

8. Vasa efferentia are the ductules that lead from

(a) testicular lobules to rete testis (b) rete testis to vas deferens
(c) vas deferens to epididymis (d) epididymis to urethra

9. Why cannot a woman get pregnant again during pregnancy?

(a) A woman ovulates during pregnancy, but the oviducts are plugged with protective
mucus to prevent sperm from entering
(b) High levels of hCG in women’s bodies kill sperm
(c) A woman cannot have intercourse during pregnancy due to the presence of a protective
mucus plug that develops in the cervix
(d) High levels of oestrogen and progesterone, secreted by the corpus luteum or placenta
during pregnancy inhibit the secretion of gonadotropins and prevent ovulation

10. The given figure represents locations in human female reproductive system that are
affected by different birth control measures. Identify them and select the correct
option.
Uterus

Fallopian tube
SAMPLE PAPER 9

Q P

Cervix
Vagina
188 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

P Q R S
(a) Copper-T Birth control pills Tubectomy Condom
(b) Birth control pills Copper-T Tubectomy Diaphragm
(c) Birth control pills Diaphragm Tubectomy Copper-T
(d) Copper-T Birth control pills Condom Diaphragm

11. Which of the following factors can cause problems related to reproductive health?
(a) Misuse of amniocentesis
(b) Myths and misconceptions regarding sex-related aspects
(c) Congenital or acquired infertility
(d) All of the above

12. If F1 -generation consists of all tall progenies and the ratio of F2 -generation is 3 : 1
(tall : dwarf), then it describes
(a) law of segregation (b) law of dominance
(c) incomplete dominance (d) law of independent assortment

13. Which of the following is true about linkage ?

I. It is phenomenon in which more recombinants are produced in F 2 -generation.
II. More parental combinations are produced in F 2 -generation.
III. Genotypes which were present in F 1 hybrid, reappear in high frequency in
F 2 -generation.
IV. It is a phenomenon in which two chromosomes are linked.
Choose the correct option.
(a) Only I (b) Only II
(c) I and III (d) III and IV

14. A true breeding line is characterised by the presence of

(a) stable trait inheritance due to the continuous self- pollination
(b) varying traits in different generations due to the cross pollination
(c) single trait in all generations due to allogamy
(d) varying trait inheritance in a single generation due to geitonogamy

15. A cross is performed on wheat plant for the determination of grain colour in progeny.
Following the cross, AABBCC (dark colour) ´ aabbcc (light colour), in F 2 -generation,
less than 5% progeny is likely to resemble either of the parent. This cross is an example
of
(a) polygenic inheritance
(b) pleiotropic inheritance
(c) recombination
SAMPLE PAPER 9

(d) incomplete linkage

16. Linked genes that were observed by Morgan were present on

(a) X-chromosome
(b) different chromosome
(c) heterologous chromosome
(d) paired chromosome
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 189

17. A homozygous tall plant (T) bearing red (R) flowers is crossed with a homozygous
dwarf plant (t) bearing white flowers (r). What is the dihybrid ratio of the cross and the
phenotype in F 2 -generation?
Dihybrid ratios Phenotypes
(a) 13 : 3 Tall and red, dwarf and red
Tall and red, tall and white, dwarf and red and
(b) 9:3:3:1
dwarf and white
(c) 13 : 3 Tall and red, dwarf and white
Tall and red, tall and white, dwarf and white or
(d) 9:3:3:1
dwarf and red

18. Read the following statements and choose the option with incorrect statements.
I. DNA is composed of A + T + U + G.
II. Adenine is a nitrogenous base.
III. Living state is non-equilibrium steady state.
IV. Pitch of DNA is 34Å.
Codes
(a) I, III and IV (b) Only I
(c) II, III and IV (d) I and II

19. Polynucleotide phosphorylase enzymes are also called

(a) Crick et. al enzymes (b) Servo Ochoa enzymes
(c) James Watson enzymes (d) Mendel enzymes

20. During chain elongation, formation of peptide bond between carboxyl group of 1st
amino acid and amino group of 2nd amino acid by
(a) peptidyl transferase (b) aminoacyl synthetase
(c) chloramphenicol (d) aminoacyl transferase

21. Which of these statements is true regarding RNA?

(a) mRNA carries coded information for polypeptide synthesis
(b) rRNA binds to tRNA to catalyse the formation of phosphodiester bonds
(c) Genomic RNA is always single-stranded
(d) Synthesis of rRNA occurs in cytoplasm by RNA polymerase-III

22. Few steps involved in polypeptide synthesis are given below. In which of the following
steps does tRNA participates?
I. Activation of amino acids by binding with aminoacyl tRNA synthetase enzyme.
II. Elongation of polypeptide chain.
SAMPLE PAPER 9

III. Translation of mRNA to form a polypeptide.

IV. Transcription of DNA into RNA.
(a) I, III and IV (b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II and IV (d) I, II and III
190 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

23. The given diagram of the lac operon showing an operon of inducible enzymes. Identify
components and enzymes (A, B, C, D and E).
i p o z y a

mRNA Transcription
lac mRNA

D Translation
Enzymes
A B C
E
(a) A–Galactosidase, B–Permease, C–Transacetylase, D–Repressor protein,
E–Inducer (lactose)
(b) A–Galactosidase, B–Permease, C–Transacetylase, D–Inducer (lactose),
E–Repressor protein
(c) A–Galactosidase, B–Transacetylase, C–Permease, D–Repressor protein,
E–Inducer (lactose)
(d) A–Permease, B–Transacetylase, C–-Galactosidase, D–Repressor protein,
E–Inducer (lactose)

24. Which of the following are all nucleotides?

(a) Adenosine, cytidylic acid, cytosine
(b) Adenylic acid, cytidylic acid, guanylic acid
(c) Cytidine, adenine, adenylic acid
(d) Uracil, thymidine, thymidylic acid

Section B
(Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No. 25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section.
The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated).
Question Nos. 25 to 28 consist of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

25. Assertion (A) Exalbuminous seeds do not have any residual endosperm, as it is
completely consumed during development of embryo.
Reason (R) Wheat, castor, pea and groundnut are all the examples of exalbuminous
seeds.
26. Assertion (A) The endometrium undergoes cyclic changes during menstruation.
SAMPLE PAPER 9

Reason (R) The myometrium exhibits strong contractions during delivery of baby.
27. Assertion (A) Use of condoms safeguards a person against STDs like AIDS and also
keep a check on unwanted pregnancy.
Reason (R) Certain contraceptives are planted under the skin of upper arm to the
prevent pregnancy.
28. Assertion (A) Y-chromosome causes maleness.
Reason (R) If the number of X-chromosome is more than one, femaleness dominates.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 191

29. Observe the diagram of cleavage shown below. Choose the correct statements
regarding cleavage.
Zona pellucida Blastomeres
Micromeres
Macromeres

Blastomeres Zona pellucida

2-celled stage 4-celled stage 8-celled stage 16-celled stage

I. Cleavage divisions bring about considerable increase in the mass of protoplasm.

II. With more cleavage divisions, the resultant blastomeres become smaller and
smaller.
III. The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged into two layers, i.e. trophoblast and
endometrium.
IV. Cleavage divisions result in a solid ball of cell called morula.
Which of the above two statements are correct?
(a) I and III (b) II and IV
(c) I and II (d) III and IV

30. The portion of embryonal axis between plumule (future shoot) and cotyledons is called
(a) hypocotyl (b) epicotyl
(c) coleorhiza (d) coleoptile

31. A botanist studying Citrus, noticed that Citrus have embryos that were generated by
apomixis. These apomictic embryos in Citrus will arise from
(a) synergids
(b) maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule
(c) antipodal cells
(d) diploid egg

32. A regular cycling woman is not menstruating, which one of the following is the most
likely to be the root cause?
(a) Maintenance of the hypertrophical endometrial lining
(b) Maintenance of high concentration of sex hormones in the bloodstream
(c) Regression of well-developed corpus luteum
(d) Fertilisation of the ovum

33. A childless couple wants to conceive a child of their own. Which technique can be used
to help them overcome this infertility?
(a) Vasectomy (b) Tubectomy
(c) ART (d) Oral pills
SAMPLE PAPER 9

34. GIFT technique is useful for women,

(a) whose fimbriae fail to capture ovum
(b) who have sperm antibodies in their cervical secretion
(c) who have atleast one potent Fallopian tube
(d) All of the above

35. If endosperm cell has 27 number of chromosomes then find out the chromosome
number in the definitive nucleus.
(a) 9 (b) 18 (c) 28 (d) 36
192 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

36. A tobacco plant heterozygous for a recessive character is self-pollinated and 1200 seeds
are subsequently germinated. How many seedlings would have the parental genotype?
(a) 1200 (b) 600
(c) 300 (d) 750

37. Short hair is due to a dominant gene L and long hair is due to its recessive allele l (in
rabbit). A cross between a short-haired female and a long-haired male produces a litter
of 1 long-haired and 7 short-haired bunnies. What are the genotypes of the parents?
(a) LL (male) ´ ll (female)
(b) ll (male) ´ LL (female)
(c) Ll (female) ´ ll (male)
(d) Ll (male) ´ ll (female)

38. Genes A and B are necessary for normal hearing. A deaf man marries a deaf woman
and all their children have normal hearing. The genotype of the parents are
(a) AAbb and AAbb (b) Aabb and aaBb
(c) AAbb and aaBB (d) aaBB and aaBb

39. Which two processes are best represented by diagram shown below?
Tt Tt

T t T t

TT Tt Tt tt

(a) Recombination and codominance

(b) Segregation and recombination
(c) Segregation and intermediate inheritance
(d) Codominance and gene linkage

40. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded
plant is crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded
plants would you expect in F1-generation?
(a) 50 : 50 (b) 9 : 1
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 1

41. In the F2 progeny of a dihybrid cross, the expected genotypic proportion of

individuals homozygous for both the dominant character will be
(a) 1/16 (b) 3/16
(c) 9/16 (d) 12/16

42. If a double-stranded DNA consists of 20% of cytosine, what will be the percentage of
SAMPLE PAPER 9

adenine in it.
(a) 20% (b) 40%
(c) 60% (d) 30%

43. Estimated number of genes in human beings is

(a) 3000 (b) 80000
(c) 20,500 (d) 3 ´ 10 9
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 193

44. In the given figure, the child is suffered from

Flat back of head Broad flat face

Many loops on
finger tips

Palm crease
Big and wrinkled
tongue
Congenital
heart disease

(a) Turner’s syndrome (b) Down’s syndrome

(c) Klinefelter’s syndrome (d) Haemophilia
15
45. Escherichia coli fully labelled with N is allowed to grow in 14 N medium. The two
strands of DNA molecule of the first generation bacteria have
(a) different density and do not resemble parent DNA
(b) different density, but resemble parent DNA
(c) same density and resemble parent DNA
(d) same density, but do not resemble parent DNA

46. mRNA is synthesised on …A… template in …B… direction.

(a) A–DNA, B–3¢ ® 5¢ (b) A–tRNA, B–5¢ ®3¢
(c) A–DNA, B–5¢ ®3¢ (d) A–tRNA, B–3¢ ® 5¢

47. Removal of introns and joining of exons in a defined order during transcription is
called
(a) looping (b) inducing
(c) slicing (d) splicing

48. Given below is a diagram of lac operon.

p i p o z y a

Repressor mRNA
SAMPLE PAPER 9

Which of the following statements concerning the regulatory genes (i), associated with
the lac operon are correct?
(a) mRNA is transcribed from the i gene whether lactose is present or not
(b) mRNA is transcribed from the i gene only when the lactose is present
(c) mRNA is transcribed from the i gene only when the lactose is not present
(d) Lactose inhibits the translation of i gene mRNA
194 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

Section C
(Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q. Nos. 49 to 54). Besides
this, 6 more questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section. The first attempted 10
questions would be evaluated.)
Observe the given diagram and answer the questions that follows.

D
C

49. Identify the labels C and D.

(a) C–Interlobular connective tissue, D–Pectoralis major muscle
(b) C–Areola, D–Pectoralis major muscle
(c) C–Areola, D–Interlobular connective tissue
(d) C–Pectoralis major muscle, D–Areola

50. What is the function of structure B?

(a) Milk reservoir (b) Supports ducts
(c) Determines the breast size (d) None of these

51. The glandular tissue of each breast is divided into 15-20 mammary lobes containing
clusters of cells called ………… .
(a) Structure A (b) Structure C
(c) Structure B (d) Structure E

52. What does the structure E opens into?

(a) Mammary glands (b) Mammary tubules
(c) Mammary ducts (d) Glandular tissue

53. The ejection of milk into structure A is stimulated by which hormone?

SAMPLE PAPER 9

(a) Prolactin (b) Oxytocin

(c) Progesterone (d) Oestrogen

54. The given diagram is modified form of

(a) sebaceous gland
(b) lacrimal gland
(c) sweat gland in both male and female
(d) modified sweat gland in female only
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 195

55. Consider the following statements regarding ABO blood group in human.
I. ABO blood groups are controlled by the gene I.
II. It is controlled by multiple alleles.
III. Codominance can be manifested phenotypically in human.
IV. It follows the Mendel’s law of inheritance.
Which of the statement(s) given above are correct?
(a) Only I (b) I and II
(c) II and III (d) IV and II

56. Observe the cross shown below.

& %
Rr × Rr
Parents (Pink) (Pink)

Gametes R r R r

F1 - generation &
R r
%
R RR Rr

r Rr rr

Genotypic ratio RR : Rr : rr
1:2:1
Phenotypic ratio Red : Pink : White

What does the cross represent?

(a) Incomplete dominance
(b) Codominance
(c) Polygenic inheritance
(d) Pleiotropy

57. Study the given test cross and choose the correct option for F2 -generation.
(Homozygous (Homozygous Parents
dominant) recessive)
AB AB ´ ab ab Genotypes

F1-generation
AB/ab
Dihybrid

AB AB ab ab Gametes
SAMPLE PAPER 9

F2-generation

AB/AB AB/ab AB/ab ab/ab

(a) Hybrid cross (9:3:3:1)
(b) Hybrid cross (3:1)
(c) Dihybrid cross (12:4)
(d) Dihybrid linked gene cross (3:1)
196 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

58. Identify and choose which of the following is incorrect regarding this project.

(a) It is called the mega project which starts in 1990

(b) It is closely associated with the development of a new area like bioinformatics
(c) Methodologies involve expressed sequence tags and sequence annotation
(d) It is not associated with non-human organisms DNA sequences

59. Which is A and B in given diagram?

′ B

A B
(a) Lagging strand Movement of helicase
(b) RNA primer DNA helicase
(c) Single strand DNA helicase binding protein
(d) RNA primer RNA helicase

60. Which option shows correctly labelled region in the given diagram of DNA
replication?
5′
SAMPLE PAPER 9

A
3′

Lagging strand C

5′
B
3′
(a) A and C (b) Only C (c) A and B (d) B and C
 OMR SHEET SP 9
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1 21 41
2 22 42
3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25 45
6 26 46
7 27 47
8 28 48
9 29 49
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11 31 51
12 32 52
13 33 53
14 34 54
15 35 55
16 36 56
17 37 57
18 38 58
19 39 59
20 40 60

Check Your Performance

Total Questions: Total Correct Questions
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Above 75% > Excellent (Keep it on)
198
Answers
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (a)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (c)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (b)
41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (b)
51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (b)
EXPLANATIONS
1. (d) Wind-pollinated flowers are small, their
petals are either absent or reduced, while
pollen grains are light, small and dusty and
thus easy to be carried by wind.
Whereas in the insect pollinating flowers, the
petals are bright and scented, so that the
insects get attracted to it.
Thus, wind-pollinated plants differ from
insect-pollinated plants in having no petals
and light pollen.
2. (d) The labels A, B, C and D in the given
figure are seed coat, endosperm, cotyledon
and hypocotyl.
Thus, option (d) is correct.
3. (a) 60% of angiosperms shed their pollens at
2-celled stage and in rest 40%, the pollens are
shed at 3-celled stage.
4. (c) Cross-pollination is preferred over
self-pollination for the following reasons
l
Cross-pollination produces variety in
species by recombination of genes,
whereas self-pollination maintains the
purity of plants and does not contribute to
variety.
l
Genetic recombination in cross-pollination
produces healthier progenies generation to
generation whereas in self-pollination,
progenies become weaker and more prone
to diseases.
So, the cross-pollination is preferred over
self-pollination because the new varieties are
formed.
5. (c) P1 is geitonogamy which is a type of
pollination in which pollens of one flower
SAMPLE PAPER 9
are transferred to stigma of another flower
belonging to either the same plant or
genetically similar plant.
P2 is xenogamy or cross-pollination in which
pollens are transferred from anther of one
flower to the stigma of genetically different
flower. Hence option (c) is correct.
6. (c) Statements I and II are correct while
statement III is incorrect. Incorrect statement
and can be corrected as
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (b)
16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (a)
26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (b)
36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (a)
46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (a) 49. (b) 50. (a)
56. (a) 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (b)
The secretions of Bulbourethral glands help in
lubrication of penis.
7. (c) The arrow '¯' represents the beginning of the
cycle. Day 1-5 is the bleeding phase or menstrual
phase. Hence, B is menstrual phase.
C is proliferative phase as Graafian follicle mature
after the end of menstrual phase.
On day 14, the ovulation occurs and if the ovum
does not fertilise then it forms corpus luteum and
this phase is called secretory phase represented by
A.
8. (b) The seminiferous tubules are closed at one end
but on the opposite side, they join the network of
rete testis where fine ciliated ductules, the vasa
efferentia arise. Cilia help in the conduction of
sperms. The rete testis is thus, a network of tubules
that conduct sperm from seminiferous tubules of
testis to vasa efferentia.
9. (d) During pregnancy, the levels of hormones such
as oestrogens, progesterone, cortisol prolactin and
thyroxine increase several folds in the maternal
blood, so as to support the foetal growth, metabolic
changes and maintenance of pregnancy. However,
this change will lead to the inhibition of the
gonadotropins such as LH and FSH and prevent
any ovulation.
As a result, a woman cannot get pregnant during
the pregnancy time.
10. (b) Birth control pills (P) are a kind of medicine
with hormones. They alter or inhibit ovulation and
fertilisation and also modify the quality of cervical
mucus to prevent or retard the entry of sperms.
l
Diaphragm (S) prevents the sperm from entering
the uterus by covering the cervix.
l
Tubectomy (R) is a surgical process in which
oviduct is cut or tied upto prevent fertilisation.
l
Copper-T (Q) is a small device with a fine copper
wire wrapped around a plastic frame. It is placed
inside uterus to prevent pregnancy.
11. (d) All the listed factors can cause problems related
to reproductive health.
Thus, option (d) is correct.
12. (a) In F1-generation, the dominant phenotype
appears, the recessive phenotype is not lost, but
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
eventually reappears in F2-generation. This tells
that there is no blending of Mendelian factors in
F1-generation, but they remain together and only
one is expressed. At the time of gamete formation,
these two factors will separate or segregate
otherwise recessive type will not appear in
F2-generation. The gamete may carry either
dominant or recessive factors, but not both as we
find in F1 individuals. This is why it is called
‘principle of segregation’ or ‘Mendel’s first law’.
While a 3 : 1 ratio in F2 suggests that segregation
of alleles does occur which can be confirmed by
using test cross.
13. (a) Only statement I is correct about linkage.
Rest of the statements are incorrect and can be
corrected as
l
Less parental combinations are produced in
F2 -generation.
l
Genotypes which were present in F1 hybrid,
reappeared in low frequency in F2 -generation.
l
Linkage is the phenomenon in which two genes
are physically linked.
14. (a) A true breeding line is one that have
undergone continuous self-pollination, shows
stable trait inheritance and expression for several
generations.
15. (a) Polygenic inheritance refers to the kind of
inheritance in which the trait is produced from the
cumulative effects of many genes. Grain colour in
wheat is an example of polygenic inheritance.
16. (a) After observing, the white-eye inheritance
pattern, Morgan hypothesised that a factor or
gene, controlling eye colour was located on
X-chromosome. Female flies have two X
chromosomes and males have one X and one Y
chromosome.
17. (b) The dihybrid ratio of the cross will be
9 : 3 : 3 : 1 that is 9 (tall plants with red flowers),
3 (tall plants with white flowers), 3 (dwarf plants
with red flowers) and 1 (dwarf plant with white
flowers).
18. (b) Only statement I is incorrect and can be
corrected as
DNA consists of two types of purines (adenine [A]
and guanine [G]) and two types of pyrimidines
(cytosine [C] and thymine [T]). Uracil (U) is
present in RNA in place of thymine (T).
Rest all statements are correct.
19. (b) Polynucleotide phosphorylase enzyme is used
in polymerising RNA with defined sequences in a
template independent manner (enzymatic
synthesis of RNA). It is also called Servo Ochoa
enzymes.
20. (a) During translation, polypeptide elongation
occurs by regular addition of varying amino acids.
199
First and subsequent peptide bond formation
occurs between free carboxyl group of
peptidyl t RNA at P-site and free NH2 group
of aminocyl t RNA at A site with the help of
peptidyl transferase enzyme.
21. (a) Statement in option (a) is true regarding
RNA and other statements are incorrect.
Incorrect statements can be corrected as
l
rRNA is formed in nucleus. rRNA attaches
with proteins to form large and small
ribosomal subunits which combine to form
ribosomes in cytoplasm.
l
Genomic RNA may be single-stranded or
double-stranded.
l
Synthesis of rRNA occurs in nucleolus.
22. (d) Steps in statements I, II and III are related
with t RNA as these are steps of polypeptide
synthesis, i.e. translation. Steps in statement
IV is not related with t RNA.
This is because transcription involves copying
of genetic information from the template
DNA strand to RNA. t RNA does not
participates in this process.
23. (a) The labels in the given diagram depict
A–b-galactosidase B–Permease
C–Transacetylase D–Repressor protein
E–Inducer
24. (b) Adenylic acid, cytidylic acid and guanylic
acid are nucleotides. A nucleotide is made up
of three components, nitrogen base
(adenosine, cytosine, guanine), ribose sugar
and a phosphate group. These are monomer
unit of nucleic acid, i.e. RNA and DNA.
Whereas adenine, cytidine, thymidine are
nucleosides.
Uracil, cytosine and adenosine are
nitrogenous bases.
25. (c) A is true, but R is false.
In certain seeds, the endosperm persists and
stores as food reserves. Such seeds are termed
as endospermic or albuminous. For example,
castor, maize, wheat, etc.
In others, the endosperm is entirely eaten up
by the growing embryo. Such seeds are called
SAMPLE PAPER 9
exalbuminous, e.g. pea, gram, etc.
26. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
The wall of uterus has three layers of tissue.
The external thin membranous perimetrium,
middle thick layer of smooth muscle,
myometrium and inner glandular layer called
endometrium lines the uterine cavity. The
endometrium undergoes cyclic changes
during menstrual cycle while the
200
myometrium exhibits strong contractions
during delivery of baby.
27. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
STDs like AIDS can be prevented by using
condoms that are a kind of barrier
contraception as it prevents the meeting of
sperm and ovum. Some contraceptives are
planted under the skin are called implants
and these have synthetic steroid preparation.
It works similar to contraceptive pills.
28. (c) A is true, but R is false.
In mammals, presence of Y-chromosome is
needed for the development of male sex
phenotype. Hence Y-chromosome is needed
for maleness. If moreover the presence of
single Y-chromosome is enough even if
several X-chromosomes are present. However
that individual will suffer from klinefelter’s
syndrome.
29. (b) Statements II and IV are correct while I and
III are incorrect. Incorrect statements can be
corrected as
l
Cleavage divisions bring about considerable
decrease in the mass of protoplasm.
l
Blastomeres arrange themselves to form
inner cell mass and trophoblast.
30. (b) The seed coat encloses an embryo which is
differentiated into plumule, radicle and
cotyledons. Plumule is the upper terminal part
of embryo which elongates and develops into
the future shoot. The lower end of embryo is
radicle, which develops into future root. In a
seed, one (in monocots) or two (in dicots)
cotyledons may be present. The part of
embryonic axis between the plumule and
point of attachment of cotyledons is called
epicotyl.
31. (b) In Citrus, apomictic embryos arise from
maternal sporophytic tissue-like nucellus and
integuments in ovule. This type of embryo is
called adventive embryo.
32. (d) For fertilisation to take place, one of the
sperm must attach itself to the ovum and
SAMPLE PAPER 9
penetrate through its surface. Therefore,
fertilisation of ovum is most likely the root
cause why menstruation is not taking place in
regular cycling woman.
33. (c) Couples who are not able to produce
children inspite of unprotected sex are called
infertile. Various methods are now available
to help such couples these special techniques
are called Assisted Reproductive Technologies
(ARTs).
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
34. (d) GIFT refers to Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer
in which an ovum is collected from a donor into
the Fallopian tube another female. It is useful for
women with atleast one potent Fallopian tube. It
can help those fimbriae does not function
efficiently or presence of spermicidal antibodies
in cervical secretions.
Thus, option (d) is correct.
35. (b) The endosperm is triploid in nature.
Thus, 3n = 27. Whereas, definitive nucleus is
diploid in nature.
Thus, 2n = 18. Hence, option (b) is correct.
36. (b) When heterozygous plants are self-pollinated,
50% of the progeny would be parental type.
Hence, 600 seeds would have parental genotype.
37. (c) Out of 8 bunnies, 1 is long-haired and 7
short-haired. For female (short-haired) Ll and
long-haired male its ll. When these two are
crossed, it produces Ll, Ll, ll and ll, where it
produces 50% short-haired and 50% long haired.
38. (c) The genotype of the parents are AAbb and
aaBB because both the genotypes lack A and B
genes, respectively and thus, the parents are deaf.
But the cross of AAbb and aaBB produces
genotypes AaBb which has both A and B gene
and thus the children have normal hearing.
39. (b) Correct answer is segregation and
recombination. These are the processes that occur
during the formation of sex cells. In these
processes, a pair of similar that is homologous
chromosomes in the nucleus forms doublets and
mutually recombine. In recombination, the DNA
molecule is broken at the same place in both
homologous chromosomes. If the original parts of
the some chromosomes subsequently rejoin, no
recombination occurs.
40. (a) Yellow (Y) seeds are dominant to green (y). So,
a heterozygous yellow seeded plant will have
genotype Yy.
Yy yy
Y y
y Yy yy F1
y Yy yy
So, when these two plants are crossed the
F1-generation will have ratio of yellow : green as
50 : 50.
41. (a) Dihybrid cross is a cross between two
different lines or genes that differ in two observed
traits. According to Mendel’s statement, between
the alleles of both these loci, there is a
relationship of completely dominant recessive
traits. And in the F2 progeny, the proportion of
dominant trait seems to appear 3 times out of 16.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
Therefore, in the F2 progeny of a dihybrid cross,
the expected genotypic proportions of individual
homozygous for both the dominant character will
be 1/16.
42. (d) According to Chargaff’s rule, the amount of
adenine is always equal to thymine and amount of
guanine is equal to cytosine. Also, purines and
pyrimidines are always in equal amounts, that is
A + G =T + C
Thus, cytosine = 20%. So, guanine will also be 20%
and adenine and thymine are 30% each.
43. (c) Human genome has 3.1647 million nucleotide
base pairs (3 ´ 109 bp). Whereas the average gene
size is 3000 bP. The human genome consists of
approximately 20,500-25,000 genes.
44. (b) Babies with Down’s syndrome have an extra
copy of the 21st chromosome. The symptoms
include
(i) Broad and flat facial features
(ii) small and flat head
(iii) Short neck
(iv) Big and wrinkled tongue
(v) Eyes that slant upward
(vi) Palm crease
45. (b) This experiment was performed by Meselson
and Stahl to demonstrate the semiconservative
nature of DNA replication, i.e. each parent strand
of DNA serves as template for the synthesis of
new daughter strands.
It is because of this that when a bacteria were
transferred to another medium, the daughter
strands were formed and thereby hybrid DNA
was obtained, i.e. they have different density, but
resemble parent DNA.
46. (c) The RNA polymerase read the template DNA
(A) strand in 3¢® 5¢ direction and the mRNA is
formed in 5¢® 3¢ (B) direction.
47. (d) Splicing is a modification of the nascent
pre-messenger RNA transcript in which introns
are removed and exons are joined.
48. (a) Statement in option (a) is correct.
In lac operon model, regulatory gene is
continuously working, whether lactose (inducer)
is present or not. It transcribes mRNA which
codes for repressor. When this repressor binds
with lactose (inducers) it inhibits translation of
operator gene (not i gene). Thus, lactose presence
affects operator gene not i gene.
49. (b) The labels C and D in the given figure
represent areola and pectoralis major muscle,
respectively.
201
50. (a) Several mammary ducts join to form
wider mammary ampulla (B) which stores
milk (i.e. milk reservoir) and is thus,
connected to lactiferous duct through which
milk is sucked out.
51. (d) Structure E represents alveoli. The cell of
alveoli secretes milk, which is stored in the
cavities (lumens) of alveoli.
52. (b) Structure E opens into mammary tubules.
The tubules of each lobe join to form a
mammary duct.
53. (b) The ejection of milk into the mammary
ducts (A) is stimulates by oxytoxin hormone.
54. (c) The mammary glands are modified form
of sweat glands in both males and females.
55. (b) Statements I and II are correct whereas III
and IV are incorrect. Incorrect statements can
be corrected as
l
Codominance cannot be manifested
phenotypically in humans as ABO blood
group in humans has three alleles of gene I
(IA , IB , i).
l
ABO blood grouping system in humans
does not follow Mendel’s laws of
inheritance.
56. (a) It can be observed that dominant allele
(R) have incomplete dominance over
recessive allele (r), which made it possible to
distinguish RR as red, Rr as pink and rr as
white.
57. (d) Option (d) is correct for F2-generation.
The linked genes do not show independent
assortment, but remain together and are
inherited enblock producing only parental
type of progeny. They give a dihybrid ratio of
3: 1 and a test cross ratio of 1: 1.
58. (d) Option (d) is incorrect and can be
corrected as–During human genome project,
many non-human organisms such as bacteria,
yeast, C. elegans, Drosophila, plants, etc., DNA
were also sequenced.
59. (b) The figure depicts the process of DNA
replication. A is RNA primer. It is the starting
SAMPLE PAPER 9
point of DNA synthesis in the lagging strand.
B is DNA helicase that unwinds the two
strands during replication.
60. (b) According to the diagram given in the
question, only part that is correctly labelled is
C that is lagging strand because replication in
lagging strand is opposite to leading strand
with short Okazaki fragments being formed
which later gets linked together.
202 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

SAMPLE PAPER 10
BIOLOGY
A Highly Simulated Practice Question Paper
for CBSE Class XII (Term I) Examination

General Instructions
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
(a) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(b) Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(c) Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
2. Each question carries 0.70 mark.
3. There is NO negative marking.
Maximum Marks : 35
Roll No. Time allowed : 90 Minutes

Section A
(Section-A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted
20 questions would be evaluated.)

1. Centre of each microsporangium is occupied by

(a) sporogenous tissue (b) tapetum
(c) central tissue (d) microspore mother cell

2. Given below is the TS of testis showing sectional view of a few seminiferous tubules.
Identify the parts labelled as A-D and select the correct option.

D
A
B

C
SAMPLE PAPER 10

(a) A–Sertoli cells, B–Spermatozoa, C–Interstitial cells, D–Sperms

(b) A–Sertoli cells, B–Secondary spermatocyte, C–Interstitial cells, D–Spermatozoa
(c) A–Interstitial cells, B–Spermatogonia, C–Sertoli cells, D–Sperms
(d) A–Sertoli cells, B–Spermatogonia, C–Interstitial cells, D–Spermatozoa

3. The lengthwise running groove on anther which separate theca is called

(a) rupture line (b) line of dehiscence
(c) suture of anther (d) None of these
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 203

4. Which structure is a short narrow lumen that follows ampulla and joins the uterus?
(a) Infundibulum (b) Ampulla
(c) Cervical canal (d) Isthmus

5. Which of the following statements are true for X and Y.

I. ‘X‘ inhibits transport of gametes.

II. ‘X’ involves cutting and tieing of vasa efferentia.
III. ‘Y‘ inhibits implantation.
IV. ‘Y‘ inhibits transport of gametes.
Choose the correct option.
(a) I and III (b) II and III (c) Only IV (d) II and IV

6. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to the female reproductive
organs of flower?
I. The stigma serves as a landing platform for pollen grains.
II. Ovarian cavity is also known as ovarian locule and is present inside the ovary.
III. Placenta is located inside the ovarian cavity.
IV. The ovule is attached to the placenta by funicle.
Codes
(a) I, II and III (b) I, II and IV (c) I and III (d) I, II, III and IV

7. In Column I, diagram of female reproductive system is given and in Column II, list of
female reproductive parts is given.
Column I Column II
1. Rectum
A
2. Clitoris
B
3. Vaginal orifice
C 4. Pubic symphysis
5. Uterus
D
SAMPLE PAPER 10

6. Urinary bladder
7. Cervix

Identify the correct labelling and part given in columns I and II by choosing correct
option.
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 6 4 1 (b) 7 5 4 3
(c) 2 6 4 5 (d) 5 4 3 2
204 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

8. In monocot embryo,
(a) scutellum is absent
(b) two cotyledons are found
(c) suspensor cell is 6-10 layers
(d) suspensor is single-celled

9. Find the correct pathway of milk flow in human mammary gland.

(a) Alveoli lumen, Mammary tubules, Mammary ampulla, Lactiferous duct
(b) Alveoli lumen, Mammary tubules, Mammary duct, Mammary ampulla, Lactiferous duct
(c) Mammary tubules, Mammary duct, Alveoli lumen, Lactiferous duct
(d) Mammary tubules, Mammary duct, Lactiferous duct, Alveoli lumen

10. In oogenesis, when a diploid cell in the ovary undergoes meiosis, how many ova
result?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

11. Given below is the graph showing hormonal secretion during menstrual cycle.
Ovarian hormone levels

Oestrogen

Progesterone

1 5 10 15 20 25 29
Days

Following are the events of menstrual cycle. Which of these are correctly paired with
the time period assuming it as a normal menstrual cycle?
(a) Release of egg — 5th day
(b) Regeneration of endometrium — 5-10 days
(c) Nutrient secretion for implantation — 11-18 days
(d) Rise in progesterone level — 1-15 days

12. When there are more than two alleles controlling the same character. These are called
(a) pleiotropy (b) polyalleles
(c) multiple alleles (d) All of these

13. Which of the following statements are correct reasons for why fruitfly is excellent
model for genetics?
SAMPLE PAPER 10

I. Small life cycle (two weeks).

II. Can be feed on simple synthetic medium.
III. Single mating produce large number of progeny.
IV. Clear differentiation of sexes.
V. Many heredity variations cannot be seen with low power microscopes.
Choose the correct option.
(a) I, II and III (b) III, IV and V
(c) I, IV and V (d) I, II, III and IV
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 205

14. Which of the following option is correct for starch synthesis in pea seeds controlled by
single gene which has two allelic forms, B and b?
(a) BB is round seed with large starch synthesis
(b) bb is wrinkled seed with large starch synthesis
(c) Bb is round seed with less starch synthesis
(d) All of the above

15. Identify the incorrect statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood
groups.
(a) A person will have only two of the three alleles
(b) When I A and I B are present together, they express same type of sugar
(c) Allele ‘I’ does not produce any sugar
(d) The gene I has three alleles

16. A plant of F1 -generation has genotypes ‘AABbCC’. On selfing of this plant, the
phenotypic ratio in F2 -generation will be
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 1
(c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (d) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1

17. Some terms and their information is given in columns I and II, identify which of the
following is incorrect matched pair.
Column I Column II
The observations that genetic elements
(a) Law of segregation 1.
separate when gametes are formed
In a heterozygous organism, only one allele
(b) Codominance 2.
expresses itself
An organism that has one copy of each allele
(c) Heterozygous 3.
for a given characteristic
Principle that describes the probability of
(d) Rule of multiplication 4.
any two or more events happening together

18. Which of the following statements about Hershey and Chase experiment are correct?
I. The viruses grown in the presence of 32 P contained radioactive DNA.
II. Phosphorus is present in DNA, but not in proteins.
III. 32P will end up in the supernatant after centrifugation.
IV. Progeny generation of T2 -bacteriophage contains 32P.
Codes
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) III and IV (d) I, II and IV
SAMPLE PAPER 10

19. The process of translation requires

(a) transfer of genetic information from a polymer of nucleotides to a polymer of amino
acids
(b) splicing, where the exons are removed and introns are joined in a defined order
(c) a nucleic acid is copied to form amino acids
(d) DNA that undergoes capping and tailing
206 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

20. According to operon concept, the regulatory gene regulates biochemical reaction in a
cell by
(a) inhibiting transcription (b) inactivating enzymes
(c) inactivating replication (d) inhibiting migration of mRNA

21. Which of the following is/are incorrect about the promoter gene?
(a) The promoter is located toward 3¢ end (downstream) of the structural gene
(b) Promoter is a DNA sequence that provides binding site for RNA polymerase
(c) The presence of promoter in a transcription unit defines the template and coding strands
(d) Both (b) and (c)

22. If following is the sequence of nucleotides in mRNA, predict the sequence of amino
acids coded by it
AUG UUU UUC UUC UUU UUU UUC
(a) Met–Phe–Phe–Phe–Phe–Phe–Phe (b) Met–Phe–Leu–Leu–Phe–Phe–Leu
(c) Ser–Leu–Phe–Leu–Phe–Leu–Phe (d) Arg–Leu–Leu–Leu–Leu–Leu

23. In the polynucleotide chain of DNA, a nitrogenous base is linked to the — OH of

(a) 2 ¢ C pentose sugar (b) 3¢ C pentose sugar
(c) 5¢ C pentose sugar (d) 1¢ C pentose sugar

24. Which one of the following organic compound is given below?

NH2
N
N

N NH

(a) Lecithine -a component of cell membrane

(b) Adenine - nitrogenous base
(c) Triglyceride - major source of energy
(d) Uracil - component of DNA

Section B
(Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No. 25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section.
The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated).
Question Nos. 25 to 28 consist of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
SAMPLE PAPER 10

(c) A is true, but R is false

(d) A is false, but R is true

25. Assertion (A) Infertility is the inability to produce children inspite of unprotected
intercourse.
Reason (R) ART can help out such infertile couples.
26. Assertion (A) IUT is transfer of embryo with more than 8 blastomeres into the
Fallopian tubes.
Reason (R) IUT is a popular method to form embryos via., in vitro fertilisation.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 207

27. Assertion (A) Megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis division to form megaspore.
Reason (R) All the four megaspores form female gametophyte.
28. Assertion (A) Mendel conducted artificial pollination experiments for his genetic
studies using true breeding pea lines.
Reason (R) A true breeding line is unstable and can only express for the one or two
generations.
29. Placenta is the life support system for the foetus. It connects the foetus with the mother
during gestation period.
Placental villi

Cavity of
uterus
Yolk sac
Umbilical cord
with its vessels Embryo

Plug of mucus
in cervix

Which among the following is not the function of placenta?

I. Secretes relaxin
II. Facilitates removal of CO 2 and O 2
III. Secretes oxytocin
IV. Supplies oxygen and nutrients
Choose the correct option.
(a) I and II (b) Only I
(c) III and IV (d) Only III

30. Which of the following statements is incorrect in accordance with the viability of the
mammalian sperm?
(a) Structure of the sperm represents a head, middle piece and a tail.
(b) Viability of sperm is determined by its motility.
(c) The interior portion of the head of the sperm is covered by acrosome that contains
enzymes which help in motility.
(d) The head of the sperm contains a haploid nucleus.

31. Which of the following events is not associated with ovulation in human female?
(a) Decrease in oestradiol
SAMPLE PAPER 10

(b) Full developement of Graafian follicle

(c) Release of secondary oocyte
(d) LH surge

32. No new follicles develop in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle because
(a) Follicles do not remain in the ovary after ovulation
(b) FSH levels are high in the luteal phase
(c) LH levels are high in the luteal phase
(d) Both (b) and (c)
208 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

33. Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of
moth, where none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other?
(a) Banana (b) Yucca (c) Hydrilla (d) Viola

34. …A… makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to …B… .
(a) A–Hormone releasing IUD, B–spermatogonia
(b) A–Hormone releasing IUD, B–sperms
(c) A–Sperms, B–hormonal releasing IUD
(d) A–Sperms, B–ova

35. From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify the one which does
not specifically affect the sex organs.
(a) Syphilis (b) AIDS
(c) Gonorrhoea (d) Genital warts

36. Obtaining 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio in a dihybrid cross denotes

(a) that the alleles of two genes are interacting with each other
(b) that it is a multigenic inheritance
(c) that it shows multiple allelism
(d) that the alleles of two genes segregate independently

37. If Mendel had studied 8 traits using pea plant with 14 chromosomes, he would
(a) not have proposed that chromosomes are carriers of hereditary factor
(b) not have discovered the law of independent assortment
(c) have not discovered sex linkage
(d) have discovered polygenic inheritance

38. Among the following, which can be explained on the basis of Mendel’s law of
segregation?
(a) When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of characters is
independent of the other pair of characters
(b) Out of a pair of factors, one is dominant and other is recessive
(c) Factors always occur in pair
(d) Alleles do not show any blending. Both characters recover as such in F2 -generation

39. Complete the following flowchart given below (A-C)

α-thalassemia β-thalassemia

Chromosome 16 Chromosome 11

A B C
SAMPLE PAPER 10

Name of genes
(a) A–HBA3, B–HBA1, C–HBA2 (b) A–HBA1, B–HBA2, C–HBB
(c) A–HBB, B–HBA1, C–HBA2 (d) A–HBA1, B–HBB, C–HBA2

40. In four ’O’ clock plants, the gene for red flower colour, denoted by R, shows
incomplete dominance over the gene for white flower colour denoted by r. The
resultant progeny is heterozygous (Rr) and have pink flowers. What will be the ratio of
the offsprings if a cross is made between red and pink flowers?
(a) 75% red flowers, 25% pink flowers (b) 100% red flowers
(c) 50% red flowers, 50% pink flowers (d) Red: Pink: White in ratio 1 : 2 : 1
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 209

41. Which of the following statements is relevant to sex-linked characters?

(a) Always follow criss-cross inheritance
(b) Do not follow criss-cross inheritance
(c) Mostly present on Y-chromosome
(d) Only present on X-chromosome

42. E. coli has only 4.6 ´ 10 6 base pairs and completes the process of replication within
18 minutes, then the average rate of polymerisation is approximately
(a) 2000 bp/s (b) 3000 bp/s
(c) 4000 bp/s (d) 1000 bp/s

43. While analysing the DNA of an organism, a total number of 5386 nucleotides were
found out of which the proportion of different bases were Adenine = 29%, Guanine =
17%, Cytosine = 32%, Thymine = 17%. Considering the Chargaff‘s rule it can be
concluded that
(a) it is a double-stranded circular DNA (b) it is single-stranded DNA
(c) it is a double-stranded linear DNA (d) No conclusion can be drawn

44. Observe the given process of transcription in bacteria given below.

3′ 5′
5′ 3′
I

3′ 5′

5′ 3′

RNA II

3′ 5′
5′ 3′

III
RNA

Identify the factors involve in I, II and III steps of transcription.

I II III
(a) s r s
(b) s r r
(c) s s r
(d) r s s

45. In a 3.2 kbp long piece of DNA, 820 adenine bases were found. What would be the
SAMPLE PAPER 10

number of cytosine bases?

(a) 780 (b) 1560 (c) 740 (d) 1480

46. Satellite DNA is important because it

(a) codes for proteins needed in cell cycle
(b) shows high degree of polymorphism in population and also the same degree of
polymorphism in an individual, which is heritable from parents to children
(c) does not code for proteins and is same in all members of the population
(d) codes for enzymes needed for DNA replication
210 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

47. Given below is a structure of double helix DNA.

3′
5′
Cytosine
Guanine G C

Thymine T A
C G Adenine

T A

G C

T A
A
Sugar-phosphate
G backbone

G C

C G

T A
Hydrogen
bonds

5′ 3′

Which of the following statements is not related to the structure of double helical DNA?
(a) The helix makes one complete spiral turn every 34 Å
(b) The diameter of the helix is 20 Å
(c) The distance between adjacent nucleotide is 4.2 Å
(d) Each strand of helix has a backbone made up of alternating ribose sugar and phosphate

48.
15N15N 14N15N 14N14N 14N15N

Heavy Hybrid Light Hybrid

Which heavy isotope is used in above experiment for proving the semiconservative
mode of DNA?
(a) 15 NH4 Cl (b) 14 NH3 Cl 2 (c) 13 NH2 Cl 3 (d) 15 NH3 Cl 2

Section C
(Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q. Nos. 49 to 54). Besides
this, 6 more questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section.
The first attempted 10 questions would be evaluated.)
SAMPLE PAPER 10

Observe the given diagram and answer the questions that follows.
P
Q
R

X Y
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 211

49. What gets transferred between plants X and Y in the process indicated by Q?
(a) Ova (b) Nutrients (c) Pollen (d) Seeds

50. Which of the following is correct in accordance with the three processes shown in the
diagram?
(a) All the three processes bring about genetic variability in the offspring of the plants
X and Y
(b) Wind acts as an agent for the process Q if both the plants belong to genus-Salvia
(c) Flowers of both the plants X and Y should have fragrance and nectar in order to
complete the processes P and Q if they are entomophilous
(d) Flowers of both the plants X and Y need to produce sticky pollens in order to complete
‘Q’ if both of them belongs to the genus–Cannabis

51. Among P, Q and R, the one that would result in greater adaptability of a certain species
to environmental changes is/are
(a) P (b) P and Q (c) Q (d) All of these

52. Which type of pollination is shown by R and P ?

(a) Xenogamy, Autogamy (b) Autogamy, Geitonogamy
(c) Chasmogamy, Xenogamy (d) Cleistogamy, Autogamy

53. Pollination show in flower ‘R’ is responsible for

(a) outbreeding depression (b) inbreeding depression
(c) cross-breeding depression (d) Both (a) and (c)

54. To prevent self-pollination as shown in ‘P’ and ‘R‘ anther from flower bud are removed
before they dehisce by the process of
(a) emasculation (b) bagging
(c) embryo rescue (d) budding

55. Which of the following options demonstrate tall and dwarf pea plants in the same
proportions?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

TT tt Tt tt TT Tt tt tt

56. Read the given statements carefully.

I. Incomplete or mosaic inheritance is an example of pre-Mendelian concept of
blending inheritance.
II. Test cross is a special type of back cross.
SAMPLE PAPER 10

III. Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed in cancer cells.

IV. Thalassemia is a Mendelian disorder.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) I and II only (b) II, III and IV
(c) II and IV only (d) I and IV only
212 CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)

57. Given below is a sex-determination chart of an organism.

Parents Female Male
2n n

Meiosis Mitosis

Gametes n n n

F1-generation Male Female

n 2n

Identify in which of the following organisms, this type of sex-determination is found.

(a) Cockroaches and ants
(b) Birds and reptiles
(c) Butterflies and moths
(d) Honeybees, ants and wasps

58. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase made a big contribution proving DNA role as the
hereditary molecule. The experiment is shown in the figure A and C are the presence or
absence radioactivity detected in cells B and D are the presence or absence of
radioactivity detected in supernatant cells. Identify the labelled parts as A, B, C and D,
respectively.
Bacteriophage
Radioactive ( 32P) labelled DNA
Radioactive (35S) labelled Experiment 2
protein capsule
Experiment I

1. Infection

2. Blending

3. Centrifugation

C
A +
+ D
B

(a) A-No radioactivity ( 35 S) detected in cells, B-Radioactivity ( 35 S) detected in supernatant,

C-No radioactivity ( 32 P) detected in cells, D-Radioactivity ( 32 P) detected in supernatant
(b) A-No radioactivity ( 35 S) detected in cells, B-Radioactivity ( 35 S) detected in supernatant,
C-Radioactivity ( 32 P) detected in cells, D-No radioactivity ( 32 P) detected in supernatant
SAMPLE PAPER 10

(c) A-Radioactivity ( 35 S) detected in cells, B-No radioactivity ( 35 S) detected in supernatant

C-Radioactivity ( 32 P) detected in cells, D-No radioactivity ( 32 P) detected in supernatant
(d) A-No radioactivity ( 35 S) detected in cells, B-Radioactivity ( 32 P) detected in supernatant,
C-Radioactivity ( 35 S) detected in cells, D-No radioactivity ( 32 P) detected in supernatant
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 213

59. The structure of one nucleotiode is given below.

Phosphate
Sugar

Base

Which of the following figures show two nucleotides correclty joined together?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

60. The process by which a DNA molecule makes its identical copies is known as DNA
replication. Given below is the parental strand of DNA.

Parent strand
of DNA

Identify which of the following new strand shows the semeiconservative mode of
replication?

(a) (b) (c) (d) Both (b) and (c)

SAMPLE PAPER 10
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CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 215
Answers
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (c)
51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (a) 55. (b) 56. (b) 57. (d) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (c)

EXPLANATIONS
1. (a) Sporogenous tissue occupies the centre of each
microsporangium. Each cell of this tissue is a
potential pollen mother cell and can give rise to
microspore tetrad.
2. (d) In the given diagram, A–Sertoli cells (which
provide nourishment), B–Spermatogonia (these
are diploid and contain 46 chromosome ),
C–Interstitial cells (secrete testicular hormone),
D–Spermatozoa (the male gamete)
3. (b) The dehiscence (release of pollen grain) of
anther occurs through the line of dehiscence
which is the running groove on anther
longitudinally. It separates the theca of anther.
4. (d) Isthmus is a short narrow lumen that follows
ampulla and joins the uterus.
5. (c) X and Y represent vasectomy and tubectomy
in which vas deferens in male and oviduct in
female is cut and tied surgically, so as to inhibit
sperm transport in males and gametes transport
(sperm and ovum) in female to prevent
fertilisation. Hence, option (c) is correct.
6. (d) All the given statements are correct.
7. (b) A–7, B–5, C–4, D–3
A–Cervix, B–Uterus, C–Pubic symphysis,
D–Vaginal orifice
8. (d) In monocot embryo, suspensor is single- celled.
9. (b) The correct pathway of milk flow in human
mammary gland is
Alveoli lumen ® Mammary tubules ® Mammary
duct ® Mammary ampulla ® Lactiferous duct
10. (a) In oogenesis, when a diploid cell in the ovary
undergoes meiosis, one ovum is produced.
12. (c) When there are more than two alleles
controlling the same character.
These are called multiple alleles.
13. (d) Statements I, II, III and IV are correct
while statement V is incorrect. Incorrect
statement can be corrected as
In fruitfly (Drosophila) many heredity
variations can be seen with low power
microscope.
14. (a) Option (a) is correct. This can be
explained as
Occasionally a single gene product may
produce more than one effect. Like starch
synthesis in pea seeds is controlled by one
gene having two alleles (B and b). Thus, the
phenotype and genotype expressed are
l BB–round seed, large starch synthesis.
l bb–wrinkled seed, less starch synthesis.
l Bb–round seed, intermediate starch
synthesis.
Thus, if we take size as a phenotype, allele B
shows complete dominance over ‘b’, but if
we take starch synthesis as a phenotype,
allele B and b show incomplete dominance.
15. (b) Statement in option (b) is incorrect and
can be corrected as
IA and IB are compeletely dominant of Io ,
when IA and IB are present together, they
both express their own sugar and thus
behave as codominant alleles.
16. (a) Genotype of F1-generation is AABbCC,
SAMPLE PAPER 10

11. (c) Option (c) is correctly matched pair. number of gametes produced by it
Endometrium secretes nutrients for implantation = 2n = 21 = 2
during 11-18 days. Hence, there will be two gametes, ABC and
Rest other options are incorrectly matched pairs AbC. On selfing, the phenotype of F2 would
and can be corrected as be 3:1.
l Release of egg (ovulation) occurs on the 14th day. %
& ABC AbC
l The endometrium lining starts regenerating
during the 5th and the 13th day. It is the ABC AABBCC AABbCC
proliferative phase.
l Rise in progesterone levels is seen during 15th to AbC AABbCC AAbbCC
27th day of the 28 days menstrual cycle.
216
17. (b) Match pair in option (b) is incorrect and can
be corrected as-When in a heterozygous
organism both alleles express themselves is
called codominance.
18. (d) Statements I, II and IV are correct.
Statement III is incorrect and can be corrected as
35
S will end up in the supernatant after
centrifugation as sulphur is present in proteins.
19. (a) The process of translation requires transfer of
genetic information from a polymer of
nucleotides to a polymer of amino acids.
20. (a) According to operon concept, the regulatory
gene regulates biochemical reaction in a cell by
inhibiting transcription.
21. (a) Statement in option (a) is incorrect and can
be corrected as
The promoter is located toward 5 ¢ end
(upstream) of the structural gene.
22. (a) AUG codes Methionine (Met)
UUU codes Phenylalanine (Phe)
UUC codes Phenylalanine (Phe)
Thus, the sequence of amino acid coded will be
Met-Phe-Phe-Phe-Phe-Phe-Phe.
23. (d) In a DNA polynucleotide chain, a
nitrogenous base is linked to the hydroxy
( ¾ OH) of 1¢ C pentose sugar.
It is represented in the structure given below
NH2
N The interior portion of the head of the sperm
N is covered by acrosome that contains
O
N
HO P O N
O egg. These enzymes breakdown the outer
Nitrogenous
O–
4' 1'
base
3' 2'
Phosphate
OH H
Deoxyribose
sugar
24. (b) The given structure is of adenine, it is a
nitrogenous base.
25. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
SAMPLE PAPER 10
correct explanation of A.
Infertility is defined as the inability to produce
children despite unprotected intercourse.
Couples which fail to give birth to young ones
inspite of unprotected intercourse are said to be
infertile.
Assisted Reproductive Technique (ART) that
further includes techniques like GIFT, ZIFT can
help out infertile couples to have children. It
also helps in reducing the infection risks at the
time of parturition, pregnancy and lactation.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
26. (d) A is false, but R is true because
IVF method, popularly called test tube baby
programme involves collection of ova from
female and sperms from male. These are then
introduced to form zygote under artificial but
similar conditions in the laboratory followed
by Embryo Transfer (ET) either by ZIFT in
which the zygote (with upto 8 blastomeres)
can be transferred to the Fallopian tube or by
IUT in which the embryos with more than 8
blastomeres are transferred into the uterus.
27. (c) A is true, but R is false because
Megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis
only which results in the formation of four
haploid megaspores.
Out of four megaspores, only the chalazal
megaspore remains functional and gives rise
to female gametophyte. Rest three undergo
degeneration.
28. (c) A is true, but R is false because
Mendel conducted artificial pollination
experiments for his genetic studies using true
breeding pea lines.
A true breeding line is purely stable and can
express for several generations.
29. (d) Secretion of oxytocin is not the function of
placenta. During parturition oxytocin is
released by pituitary gland.
30. (c) The statement given in option (c) is
incorrect and can be corrected as
enzymes which helps the sperm to enter the
membrane of ovum, i.e. zona pellucida
allowing haploid nucleus in sperm cell to join
with haploid nucleus in ovum.
Rest all the statements are correct in
accordance with the viability of the
mammalian sperm.
31. (a) Decrease in oestradiol is not associated
with ovulation in human female. Oestradiol
is also known as oestrogen which is a
primary female sex hormone. During the
ovulation in human females, level of
oestradiol increases. Its main function is to
mature and maintain the reproductive tract.
32. (a) No new follicles develop in the luteal
phase of menstrual cycle because after
ovulation, follicles do not remain in the
ovary. It is because during this phase,
Luteinizing Hormone (LH) and Follicle
Stimulating Hormone (FSH) levels decrease.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I) 217

Instead, the already ruptured follicle closes
after releasing the egg and forms a corpus
luteum during luteal phase, which produces
progesterone.
33. (b) Out of the given options, only Yucca
gloriosa has developed an obligate symbiotic
relationship with the moth, Pronuba yuccasella.
The moth cannot complete its life cycle
without the association with Yucca flowers.
The moth deposits its eggs in the locule of the
ovary and the flower in turn gets pollinated
by the moth. The larvae of the moth come out
of the eggs as the seeds start developing.
34. (b) Hormone releasing IUDs (A) make the
uterus unsuitable for implantation and the
cervix hostile to sperms (B).
35. (b) AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency
Syndrome) is caused by HIV virus in humans.
It is transmitted through sexual contact from
infected person to a healthy person. The HIV
virus does not directly affect sex organs as
such but produces other set of symptoms in
the body of infected person.
36. (d) Cross that involves two contrasting traits
is called dihybrid cross. The two factors of
each trait separate at the time of
gametogenesis independently. This forms
both parental and new combinations of traits.
It clearly explains the Mendelian law of
independent assortment.
37. (b) If Mendel had studied 8 traits using pea
plant with 14 chromosomes, he would not
have discovered the law of independent
assortment because then the characters would
not be able to differentiate individually to
move on to the next generation.
38. (d) Option (d) can be explained using law of
segregation
According to the law, the parents contain two
alleles during gamete formation, the factors or
alleles of a pair segregate from each other,
such that gamete receives only one of the two
factors. Hence, alleles do not show any
with pink flowers then in F1-generation, 50%,
red flowers and 50% pink flowers are obtained.
Parents R R (Red flowers) × R r (Pink flowers)
Gametes R R r
Progeny RR Rr
(Red flowers) : (Pink flowers)
1 : 1
41. (d) Sex-linked characters are inherited due to
the X-linked gene. Only X-linked recessive
characters follow criss-cross inheritance. The
criss-cross inheritance characters are inherited to
the second generation through the carrier of
first generation, which is always a female
because they have two X-chromosomes while
man have only one X-chromosome so, they are
always affected.
42. (c) E. coli has 4.6 ´ 10 6 base pairs.
It completes replication process in 18 minutes,
i.e. 18 ´ 60 seconds.
4.6 ´ 10 6 bp
Rate of polymerisation =
18 ´ 60 s
4.6 ´ 10 5 46 ´ 10 4
= =
18 ´ 6 108
460000
= = 4259 . 25 bp/s
108
or approximately 4000 bp/sec
Thus, the correct option is (c).
43. (b) According to Chargaff’s rule, A = T, G = C
also the ratio of A to T and G to C is 1 for
double-stranded DNA but here A ¹ T and G ¹ C
Hence, it can be concluded that it is a single-
stranded DNA.
44. (c) The factors involve in initiation is sigma (s ) it
is also called initiation factor while the factor
involve in termination of transcription is Rho
(r ). RNA polymerase is capable of catalysing
elongation while to initiate and to terminate the
transcription it associate with (s ) and (r ). Hence,
option (c) is correct.
SAMPLE PAPER 10

blending and both characters are recovered as 45. (a) According to Chargaff’s equivalency rule.
such in F2-generation. A+ G
=1
39. (b) a-thalassemia is controlled by two closely T+ C
linked genes HBA1 and HBA2 on
A = T, G = C
chromosome 16. While b-thalassemia is
controlled by a single gene HBB on If A = 820 then T = 820
chromosome 11. A + T = 820 + 820 = 1640
40. (c) Incomplete dominance is reported in 3. 2 kbp = 3200 bp \ (1kbp= 1000 bp)
Mirabilis jalapa. When red flowers are crossed
218
G + C = 3200 - 1640
G + C = 1560
1560
So, Cytosine = = 780 bases
2 On crossing
46. (b) Satellite DNA is important because it shows
high degree of polymorphism (variation at
genetic level) in population and also the same
degree of polymorphism in an individual,
which is heritable from parents to children.
Satellite DNA does not code for proteins or
enzymes, but are different in all the members
of a population.
47. (c) Statement in option (c) is incorrect and can
be corrected as-The distance between adjacent
nucleotide is 3.4 Å.
48. (a) 15 NH4Cl was used by Meselson and Stahl
in order to prove the semiconservative mode of
DNA.
49. (c) The process indicated by Q is pollination. It
involves transfer of pollen grains from anther
to the stigma of a flower. However, the stigma
can be of the same flower (self-pollination) or
of other flower of another plant (cross-
pollination).
50. (c) In order to complete the process of
pollination as depicted here by P and Q via
entomophily (or insect pollination via insects),
the flowers of both the plants X and Y should
have fragrance and nectar in order to attract
insects. These insects act as pollinating agents
to complete pollination.
51. (c) Q (Xenogamy) results in greater
adaptability of a certain species to
environmental changes as it favours cross
pollination.
52. (b) The pollination shown by R is autogamy,
because here transfer of pollen takes place
from anther to stigma of same flower while in
P shows geitonogamy because here transfer of
pollen grain takes place from anther to stigma
of different flower, but of same plant.
SAMPLE PAPER 10
53. (b) Pollination shown in R is autogamy, i.e.
self-pollination. Continuous self-pollination is
responsible for inbreeding depression in
flowering plants.
54. (a) To prevent self-pollinations anther from
flower bud are removed before they dehisces
by the process of emasculation.
55. (b) This is an example of a test cross wherein a
cross is made between a heterozygous tall and
homozygous dwarf individuals resulting in the
same proportion of tall and dwarf plants.
CBSE Sample Paper Biology Class XII (Term I)
Parents Tt × tt
(Tall) (Dwarf)
Gametes T t t
formed
Progeny
& % t
T Tt
(Tall)
t tt
(Dwarf)
Phenotypic ratio obtained =
Tall : Dwarf
1:1
56. (b) Statements II, III and IV are correct, while
statement I is incorrect. Incorrect statement
can be corrected as
Incomplete (partial or mosaic) dominance is
the phenomenon where none of the two
contrasting alleles or factors are dominant. The
expression of the character in a hybrid or F1
individual is intermediate or a fine mixture of
the expression of the two factors (as found in
homozygous state). Incomplete or mosaic
inheritance is not an example of pre-Mendelian
concept of blending inheritance because the
parental types also reappear in the
F2-generation.
57. (d) Haploid-diploid mechanism or
Haplodiploidy is a unique phenomenon in
which an unfertilised egg develops into a male
and a fertilised egg develops into a female.
Therefore, the female is diploid (2n) and the
male is haploid (n). Eggs are formed by
meiosis and sperms by mitosis. Fertilisation
restores the diploid number of chromosomes
in the zygote which gives rise to the female. If
the egg is not fertilised, it will still develop but
into a male (arrhenotoky or arrhenotokous
parthenogenesis). It is seen in hymenopterous
insects such as honeybees, wasps, sawflies and
ants.
58. (b) A–No radioactivity ( 35 S) detected in cells
B–Radioactivity ( 35 S ) detected in supernatant
C–Radioactivity ( 32 P) detected in cells
D–No radioactivity ( 32 P) detected in
supernatant
59. (b) The two nucleotides are always linked
together through phosphodiester bond
between the 5 ¢ phosphate group of one
nucleotide and the 3 ¢ hydroxyl group of
another. Hence, option (b) is correct.
60. (c) In semiconservative mode both the DNA
strands contains one old and one new strand
as shown in option (c) hence it is correct.