Centro Escolar University

College of Dentistry
PRE-BOARD THEORETICAL EXAMINATION
0106A
RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY AND COMMUNITY DENTISTRY

1. To ensure better thermal and protective insulation of the pulp during a capping
procedure, calcium hydroxide should be:
A. applied to a thickness of 3.0mm
B. placed in all cavity preparations
C. covered with a stronger base
D. preceded by application of a cavity varnish
E. preceded by application of a zinc phosphate cement

2. A dentist is preparing tooth #27 for an occlusal amalgam restoration. Once the ideal
outline form and depth have been established, the dentist notice that caries remains on
the facial, pulpal and lingual walls of the preparation. The next step in treatment is to:
A. extend the outline form
B. remove the caries with a spoon excavator
C. remove the caries with a larger round bur
D. place CAOH over caries

3. A dentist inadvertently sealed a small carious lesion in the occlusal surface of a maxillary
first molar. This would most likely result in:
A. arrested caries C. discoloration of the tooth
B. extension of caries D. increased microleakage

4. A Class II cavity preparation in a primary molar for dental amalgam restoration will not
require a gingival bevel, because the enamel rods in the area incline:
A. Facially C. gingivally E. vertically
B. Lingually D. occlusally

5. Which of the following is the least likely to cause rampant caries in geriatric patients?
A. Poor oral hygiene
B. A decreased salivary flow
C. A change in the oral microflora
D. The side effects of medication

6. During the preparation of a Class II cavity, which of the following permanent teeth pulp
horns will be the most subject to accidental exposure?
A. Distofacial of a maxillary first molar.
B. Distofacial of a mandibular first molar.
C. Facial of a mandibular first premolar.
D. Lingual of a mandibular first premolar.

7. Which of the following is the most effective way to reduce injury to the pulp during a
restorative procedure?
A. Prepare dentin with slow-speed burs.
B. Use anesthetics without vasoconstrictors
C. Minimize dehydration of the dentinal surface.
D. Keep the dentinal surface clean by frequent irrigation.

8. A composite restoration is wider than the diameter of the light tip of the curing unit. In this
situation, the restoration is cured by:
A. moving the tip over the surface for the required time
B. placing the tip stepwise over each area and exposing each area for the
required time.

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 C. Positioning the tip far enough from the surface to illuminate the entire surface
D. Centering the tip on the surface and curing the entire restoration from this position.

9. What is the major difference between a Class V cavity preparation for amalgam and one
for composite resin by the acid-etch technique?
A. depth
B. convenience form
C. position of retention points
D. angulation of the enamel cavosurface margins.

10. The copal resin varnish that is placed in the cavity preparation before the amalgam is
condensed provides:
A. sealing of the margins for the lifetime of the restoration
B. long-term sealing of several years duration
C. short-term sealing of the margins
D. no sealing of the margins

11. How should the margins of a dental amalgam restoration be trimmed?

A. By carving along the margins with a sharp instrument that rests on the tooth
surface.
B. By carving from the restoration to the tooth with a sharp instrument.
C. By carving from the tooth to the restoration with a sharp instrument
D. By burnishing from the tooth to the restoration until the amalgam is trimmed to the
margin.

12. In preparing Class I cavity for dental amalgam, the dentist will diverge the mesial and
distal walls toward the occlusal surface. This divergence serves to:
A. Prevent undermining of the marginal ridges.
B. Provide convenience form
C. Resist the forces of mastication
D. Extend the preparation into areas more readily cleansed.

13. Bonding of composite restorative materials to dentin depends on:

A. difunctional coupling agents C. etching with dilute phosphoric acid
B. dehydration of the dentin D. covalent bonding

14. In a Class V amalgam preparation for an incipient lesion, the ideal internal form of the
preparation has which of the following features?
A. The axial wall is flat.
B. The mesial and distal walls converge.
C. The occlusal and gingival walls converge
D. The axial wall is uniformly deep into dentin.

15. A newly condensed amalgam restoration seems to chip away when being carved. What
is the likely cause of this problem?
A. A low-copper alloy was used.
B. Moisture contamination occurred.
C. The alloy was incompletely wetted with mercury.
D. The amalgam was not condensed with the recommended pressure.
E. The amalgam was condensed after its working time elapsed.

16. The dentist bevels the gingival margins of a gold onlay preparation. This process serves
each of the following, except:
A. to remove loose enamel rods
B. to facilitate finishing
C. to minimize marginal opening
D. to minimize the need for gingival extension

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17. The dentist adjusts the shade of a restoration using a complementary color. This
procedure will result in
A. increased value C intensified color
B. decreased value D. increased translucency

18. Each of the following is a reason for beveling a preparation for restoration with composite
resins, except:
A. To expose more inorganic tooth structure
B. To increase the surface area of enamel for etching
C. To expose the ends rather than the sides of enamel rods
D. To enhance the enamo-resin marginal seal.

19. Which of the following is most related to the initiation of caries in the elderly?
A. Erosion C. gingival recession
B. Attrition D. a defective restoration

20. Visible light curing units are most hazardous to the

A. Retina B. lens C. cornea D. iris

21. Duration of treatment regimens affect patient compliance. The severity of disease
perceived by the patient affects patient compliance.
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false.
D. The first statement is false, the second is true.

22. An evaluation of which of the following represents the most important aspect in shade
selection (for the restoration to match an existing dentition)?
A. Hue B. value C. chroma D. size E. shape

23. Tooth bleaching affects a color change in which of the following tooth parts?
A. Dentin only C. Both dentin and enamel
B. All of the enamel D. Only the surface of enamel

24. Why is a matrix for a Class II dental amalgam restoration extended occlusally to the
cavity preparation?
A. It serves as a guide to determine the completed restoration.
B. It allows for overfilling the amalgam.
C. It prevents escape of the amalgam during condensation

25. The reduction of which of the following represents the most significant advantage of acid-
etch technique?
A. Microleakage C. Setting shrinkage of the matrix
B. Pulpal irritation D. Coefficient of thermal expansion

26. After the dentist has completed an etching procedure on a Class III composite
preparation, the preparation becomes contaminated with saliva. In response, the dentist
should do which of the following?
A. Blow away the saliva with air, then proceed.
B. Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the preparation, then proceed
C. Wipe away the saliva with a cotton pellet, rinse the preparation with water, dry it
with air, then proceed
D. Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the preparation with air, then repeat
the etching procedure.

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27. Which of the following is the best methods for evaluating centric occlusion on a newly
placed onlay restoration?
A. Shim stock C. Patient feedback
B. Articulating paper D. Occlusal indicator wax

28. Which of the following is the most likely postoperative complication of bleaching a tooth
that has not been adequately obturated?
A. Fracture D. Chronic apical periodontitis
B. Discoloration E. External cervical root resorption
C. Acute apical periodontitis

29. For most effective cutting and long usefulness of a tungsten carbide bur, it should be:
A. rotating slowly before contacting the tooth.
B. Rotating rapidly before contacting the tooth.
C. Placed in contact with the tooth before starting
D. Rotating rapidly before entering into the oral cavity.

30. A posterior tooth under a heavy occlusal load has cusps undermined with caries. The
restorative material of choice would be:
A. cast gold C. composite resin
B. silver amalgam D. direct filling gold E. both A & B

31. The proper zone of a gas-air blowpipe flame used for melting casting gold alloys is:
A. the reducing zone
B. the oxidizing zone
C. the zone closed to the nozzle
D. a combination of oxidizing and reducing zone.

32. The rate at which carious destruction of dentin progresses tends to be slower in older
adults than in young persons because of the:
A. change in pH of saliva with aging
B. increase in intertubular organic content
C. generalized dentinal sclerosis with aging
D. decrease in sugar consumption of older adults.

33. Which of the following is most related to turbulence of molten gold in the casting
process?
A. Venting C. temperature of the ring
B. volume of metal D. placement of sprue E. position of the ring

34. Class V cavities are found in:

A. premolars and molars only
B. proximal surfaces of premolars and molars
C. pits in lingual surfaces of anterior teeth
D. the occlusal 2/3 of facial and lingual surfaces of molars
E. the gingival 1/3 of facial and lingual surfaces of anterior and posterior teeth

35. Streptococcus murtans is considered to be a principal etiologic agent of caries because

it produces organic acids and it:
A. forms a gelatinous matrix
B. metabolizes substrate from saliva
C. derives energy from constituents
D. lives symbiotically with Lactobacillus acidophilus

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36. In a Class III composite preparation, retention should be placed:
A. in the axial wall
B. entirely in dentin
C. at the DEJ
D. at the expense of facial and lingual walls, but not the axial wall

37. The position of mesial and distal cavity margins in a Ferrier Class V direct filling gold
restoration should be:
A. in an easily cleansable area
B. perpendicular to the gingival margins
C. parallel to the long axis of the tooth
D. just past the extent of the carious lesions
E. at the respective line angles of the tooth

38. An indispensable factor in the etiology of dental caries is:

A. pH of saliva
B. poor oral hygiene D. malformation of tooth structure
C. salivary amylase activity E. activity of oral microorganisms

39. Which of the following factors contribute the greatest amount of retention to the onlay
restoration?
A. near parallel axial wall C. cusp reduction and contrabevels
B. flat pulpal and gingival walls D. proximal cavosurface margin bevels

40. Most detrimental to the strength of a posterior tooth in cavity preparation is an increase
in:
A. axial depth C. gingival depth
B. pulpal depth D. faciolingual width
E. mesiodistal dimension of the cavity.

41. An ion-releasing composite material that reduces secondary caries formation at the
margin of a restoration by inhibiting bacterial growth:
A. ceromers C. flowable composites
B. ormocers D. smart composites E. compomers

42. The ability of the handpiece to withstand lateral pressure on the revolving tool without
decreasing its speed or reducing its cutting efficiency is called:
A. vibration B. torque C. amplitude D. heat production E. pressure

43. Most commonly used modification in an onlay preparation for teeth that exhibit the split-
tooth syndrome:
A. collar preparation C, slot preparation
B. skirt preparation D. facial and lingual surface groove extension

44. The occlusal marginal enamel for an inlay restoration:

A. 30 degrees C. 140 degrees
B. 40 degrees D. 90 degrees E. none of these,

45. A retention groove whose length is in a longitudinal plane and in dentin:

A. skirt B. slot C. lock D. collar E. none.

46. A retention groove whose length is in a transverse plane and in dentin:

A. skirt B. slot C. lock D. collar E. none.

47. Thin extensions of facial and lingual proximal margins of an onlay preparation:
A. Collar B. slot C. locks D. skirts E. coves

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48. Refers to a laminated restoration using glass ionomer to replace dentin and composite
resin to replace enamel.
A. composite veneers C. sandwich technique
B. labial veneers D. laminates E. none of these.

49. Contain acidic functional groups that can participate in an acid/base

reaction following polymerization of the resin molecule:
A. composite resin C. compomers
B. glass ionomers D. giomers E. none of these

50. The gingival-to-occlusal divergence of the cavity walls for class II inlay cast metal
restoration :
A. 2-3 degrees C. 2-5 degrees
B. 2-4 degrees D. 2-5 degrees E. 3-5 degrees.

51. In determining the caries rate for older adults, an epidemiologist usually uses the DMFT
index, because it can be difficult to ascertain why teeth are missing.
A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related
C. The statement is correct, but the reason is not
D. The statement is not correct, but the reason is accurate
E. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

52. Water irrigation devices in oral health regimens are useful in:
A. eliminating plaque
B. diluting bacterial products
C. reducing periodontal pockets
D. eliminating gingival inflammation

53. A timed series of service activities requiring physical, human and financial resources to
achieve health policy objectives;
A. Civic action C. outreach program
B. Dental mission D. health program E. public program

54. It describes the chain of superiors from the highest to the lower ranks;
A. Centralization C. scalar principle
B. Span of control D. administration E. autonomy

55. It is today’s design for tomorrow’s action;

A. Planning B. coordination C. objective D. strategy E. action

56. The maximum production with the least coast with available resources;
A. Principle of allocations C. principle of administration
B. Principle of management D. principle of efficiency
E. both A & D

57. The following are purposes of fluoride varnish, except;

A. promote mineralization of the tooth C. retard cavity formation
B. reserve the process of cavity formation D. decrease pH level
E. none of the above

58. Refers to measures taken to diagnose a disease that is already present.

A. Tertiary prevention C. primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention D. any of the three.

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59. Measures taken before the disease occurs to reduce susceptibility;
A. tertiary prevention C. primary prevention
B. secondary prevention D. any of the three.

60. Methods of imposing people’s values & judgment of what is important on the raw data;
A. limited resources C. priority determination
B. allocation D. both A & C E. none of these

61. They are involved in the treatment and care of a patient when extensive disease is
involved;
A. para-dental professional C. dental hygienists
B. dental assistant D. dental auxiliaries E. all of these.

62. The Magna Carta of Public Health Worker;

A. RA 4419 B. RA 7305 C. RA 7530 D. RA 572 E. none of these

63. “In union there is strength” is the principle of;

A. autonomy C. esprit de corps
B. organization D. dental health E. centralization

64. This model was developed with the specific intention of addressing noncompliance
issues in behavior that results in negative health consequence.
A. Self-care motivational model C. behavioral learning model
B. Contemporary community health model D. Fayol’s model
E. none of the above

65. In conducting health education, it involves 2 or more teachers working cooperatively with
certain group of students on a subject matter.
A. Developmental method C. discussion method
B. Team teaching method D. lecture method E. both A & C

66. Freedom of control from others in matters affecting the quality of work.
A. Autonomy C. authority
B. esprit de corps D. discipline E. projection

67. Nutritional disposal, food establishments, transportation, community education and

housing are the factors under;
A. health related socio-economic factors C. population analysis
B. health status D. health resource analysis
E. none of the above

68. It is a scientific discipline concerned with the application of statistical method of problems
in biology and medicine:
A. public health C. statistics
B. biostatistics D. sampling E. none of these

69. It is concerned in making estimates, predictions, generalizations, conclusions about a

population based on information from a sample.
A. descriptive statistics C. inferential statistics
B. inscriptive statistics D. differential statistics E. none of these.

70. It is the study of the distribution and frequency of disease and injury in human
populations and those factors making groups susceptible to disease and injury:
A. epidemiology C. descriptive epidemiology
B. dental epidemiology D. experimental epidemiology E. none of these.

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71. It is most often used in studies to determine the etiology of a disease:
A. experimental epidemiology C. descriptive epidemiology
B. analytical epidemiology D. epidemiology
E. none of these

72. It is commonly used in the area of occupational health hazards:

A. retrospective follow-up studies C. prospective cohort study
B. case control study D. epidemiology
E. none of these

73. It measures the acid forming ability of microorganisms present in saliva or oral tissue:
A. dental caries activity C. pH test
B. susceptibility test D. both A & B only E. A & C only

74. Proportion of a population affected with a disease at a given point in time:

A. incidence B. rate C. ratio D. prevalence E. none of these.

75. Optimal level of fluoride in drinking water:

A. 7-12ppm B. 0.7-1.2ppm C. 0.07-0.12ppm D. 0.7-12ppm

76. It is the laying down of foundation of the organization by bringing together several leaders
to have a better understanding of the community.
A. Mobilization C. core grouping
B. Training D. area selection E. setting up an organization

77. The following are the physical characteristics of a community, except:

A. size B. location C. gender D. occupational groupings

78. The S for the supportive factor of primary health care program refers to:
A. success of primary health care
B. strengthening intersectoral collaboration
C. sanitation of community
D. safe water supply
E. none of the above.

79. The T for supportive factor of primary health care program:

A. training and help manpower development
B. treatment of common diseases and injuries
C. both A & B
D. none of these.

80. The CPTIN index assessment is based on the evaluation of specified index teeth for:
A. gingival inflammation C. presence of supra/-subgingival calculus
B. depth of periodontal pockets D. both A & B
E. all of the above.

81. An index which use a dichotomous scoring system:

A. CPTIN B. NIDR-GI C. GI D. PI E. none of these.

82. Fluorosis index was formulated by:

A. Greene and Vermillion C. Gayford
B. Dean D. Hussy E. none of them.

83. ART was pioneered in the mid 80’s in:

A. Africa B. Germany C. Thailand D. Zimbabwe E. Pakistan

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84. An index that measure the number of surfaces and teeth affected by dental caries:
A. RCI B. GI C. DMF D. UTN E. PI

85. An index that is designed to be repeated following patient oral hygiene education:
A. OHI-S B. PHP-M C. PI D. GI E. none of these.

86. This index assess pockets, bleeding, plaque, retentive factors and periodontal treatment
needs:
A. CPTIN B. GI C. PI D. OHI-S E. none of these.

87. It is a continuing effort to imbibe community life by removing legal and social barriers that
impose segregation to a group of people.
A. Entry into Community C. Community Study
B. Area Selection D. Integration E. both C & D.

88. It is an objective mathematical description of a diagnosis based on carefully determined

criteria under s specified conditions.
A. indices B. prevalence C. incidence D. epidemiology E. none of these.

89. It is used to delineate disease patterns in community.

A. dental epidemiology C. descriptive epidemiology
B. experimental epidemiology D. epidemiology E. none of these.

90. It is the adjustment of the fluoride content of a community’s water supply to an optimal
level for the prevention of dental caries.
A. fluoride supplements C. fluoride mouthrinse program
B. school water fluoridation D. none of these E. all of these.

91. Lack of planning in community layout is evident in ___community:

A. mature B. immature C. progressive D. organize E. none of these

92. It is a set of educational economic and environmental incentives to support behavioral

changes that lead to a better level of health .
A. health promotion C. preventive dentistry
B. public health D. all of these E. none of these.

93. All are under analytical epidemiology, except:

A. cohort study
B. establishes a relationship between a factor and a disease
C. prevalence
D. all of the choices
E. none of these.

94. The effectivity date of the Magna Carta of Public Health workers:
A. April 26, 1992 C. April 17, 1992
B. march 26, 1992 D. March 17, 1992 E. Jan. 28, 1992.

95. The following are the values to be adopted by a public health workers:
A. just C. service to mankind
B. humane D. both A & B E. all of the above.

96. It is commonly used in the area of occupational health hazards:

A. retrospective follow-up studies C. prospective cohort study
B. case control study D. epidemiology
E. none of these.

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 97. Refers to the measures taken to diagnose a disease that is already present:
A. tertiary prevention C. secondary prevention
B. pathogenesis D. prepathogenesis E. primary prevention

98. Are activities that are aimed at the early diagnosis and prompt treatment of disease in
order to prevent sequelae.
A. tertiary prevention C. secondary prevention
B. pathogenesis D. prepathogenesis E. primary prevention.

99. Detained analysis of the working of the organization:

A. standing order C. organizational chart
B. records D. budgeting E. procedure manual.

100. Process of putting the plan into operation:

A. implementation C. monitoring
B. evaluation D. revision E. planning.

“If the LORD hadn’t wanted us to reach for the stars….

He wouldn’t had given us the power to dream…”

/dent
07-11-2006

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