PCW9 Revision 0 Penetrant Testing July 2010

End of Course Examination (General & Specific – Multi Sector)

Name: ………………………………………………………. Date: ……………………………..

Each question has only one correct answer!

Please enter your answers on the answer sheet:

General Part

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PCW9 Revision 0 Penetrant Testing July 2010
End of Course Examination (General & Specific – Multi Sector)

General Part

1. Using a post-emulsified system when is it acceptable to move directly from the

penetrant removal stage to the developer application stage (i.e. without drying)?

(a) When the developer is a non-aqueous solvent suspension

(b) When the developer is dry powder
(c) When the developer is an aqueous suspension
(d) Never

2. Which penetrant system is the most sensitive?

(a) Solvent removable red dye penetrant, non-aqueous suspension developer

(b) Solvent removable fluorescent penetrant, non-aqueous suspension
developer
(c) Post emulsifiable fluorescent penetrant, non-aqueous suspension
developer
(d) Post emulsifiable fluorescent penetrant, dry developer

3. The wavelength of the UV-A light emitted by a mercury vapour arc bulb with a
properly fitted Woods Filter is:

(a) in the range from 315 nm to 400 nm

(b) in the range from 265 nm to 300 nm
(c) in the range from 450 nm to 770 nm
(d) in the range from 215 nm to 365 nm

4. High viscosity liquids:

(a) are never good penetrants

(b) may be good penetrants but compared with a less viscous penetrant they
generally require a longer dwell time
(c) may be good penetrants but compared with a less viscous penetrant they
generally require a shorter dwell time
(d) may be good penetrants but such liquids are too easily washed out of
defects

5. The best definition of ‘emulsifier’ is:

(a) it is a type of cleaner

(b) it is an oil that is soluble in water
(c) it is a substance that will make a non-water soluble oil water washable
(d) it is a type of solvent

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PCW9 Revision 0 Penetrant Testing July 2010
End of Course Examination (General & Specific – Multi Sector)

6. Using a post-emulsifiable system, excessive background fluorescence is most

likely caused by:

(a) excessive emulsification time

(b) insufficient emulsification time
(c) wash water that is too warm (more than 50°C)
(d) dwell time too long

7. Which of the following is true?

(a) Dry powder developer is ideally applied to a damp surface.

(b) Non-aqueous solvent suspended developer is ideally applied using a
brush.
(c) Dye penetrant inspection is ideal for materials like wood or concrete
(d) Wire brushing is a pre-cleaning method which is not ideal for soft
metals like aluminium

8. Cracked aluminium comparitor blocks must be thoroughly cleaned after use.

Why?

(a) No, this is not correct there is no reason to clean them

(b) If they are not cleaned dried penetrant will block the cracks making the
block unsuitable for re-use
(c) If they are not cleaned the penetrant will become acidic as it dries and
this will corrode the surface making the cracks too deep
(d) Any penetrant left in the cracks will make them too easy to detect when
the block is re-used

9. Concerning emulsification time when using hydrophilic remover which of the

following statements is true?

(a) Emulsification time is not critical, anything from 5 to around 20 minutes

is generally considered a good practice.
(b) Emulsification time should never be longer than 45 seconds
(c) Emulsification time should always be exactly 1 minute
(d) Emulsification time is critical. The emulsification time as determined
by experimentation must not be exceeded.

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PCW9 Revision 0 Penetrant Testing July 2010
End of Course Examination (General & Specific – Multi Sector)

10. The best penetrants have a contact angle:

(a) of 90° or more

(b) of 45° ± 5°
(c) of 120° or more
(d) of 5° or less

11. Non-aqueous solvent suspended developer is:

(a) generally the most sensitive developer

(b) suitable for application by immersion
(c) suitable for application by brushing
(d) all of the above

12. Probably the most important property of a liquid which is to be used as a

penetrant is:

(a) high surface tension

(b) high viscosity
(c) low specific gravity
(d) low contact angle (good wetability)

13. The fluorescent dye in a fluorescent penetrant generally:

(a) absorbs 365 nm UV-A and emits 550 nm yellow-green

(b) absorbs 315 nm UV-A and emits 480 nm yellow-green
(c) absorbs 400 nm UV-A and emits 650 nm yellow-green
(d) absorbs 365 nm UV-A and emits 750 nm yellow-green

14. Generally the least effective method of applying lipophilic emulsifier is:

(a) dipping
(b) flowing
(c) spraying
(d) brushing

15. Factors that affect development time are:

(a) the nature of the discontinuity sought

(b) the test surface temperature
(c) the type of remover used
(d) all of the above

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PCW9 Revision 0 Penetrant Testing July 2010
End of Course Examination (General & Specific – Multi Sector)

16. Penetrant testing should not normally be performed at surface temperatures below
10°C. The main reason for this is:

(a) an increase in penetrant viscosity

(b) a decrease in penetrant viscosity
(c) if the temperature is lower than this the penetrant may de-emulsify
(d) contraction causes the cracks to close and penetrant cannot enter

17. The flashpoint of the penetrant, solvent remover & non-aqueous solvent based
developer should be:

(a) as low as possible

(b) less than 10°C
(c) between 10°C & 50°C
(d) as high as possible

18. The most reliable penetrant method for the detection of wide, shallow
discontinuities is:

(a) solvent removable

(b) fluoro-dry deposit
(c) water washable
(d) post-emulsified

19. Factors that affect the rate of penetration include:

(a) surface temperature

(b) surface condition & cleanliness
(c) viscosity
(d) all of the above

20. A good penetrant has:

(a) high surface tension

(b) low contact angle
(c) the right amount of viscosity
(d) all of the above

21. The type of penetrant that is least suitable for testing a component that has a
rough surface is:

(a) visible water washable

(b) fluorescent water washable
(c) visible solvent removable
(d) fluorescent post-emulsified

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PCW9 Revision 0 Penetrant Testing July 2010
End of Course Examination (General & Specific – Multi Sector)

22. The main advantage of the solvent removable method is:

(a) it is the most sensitive method

(b) it is ideal for rough surfaces
(c) it is ideal for small parts that have complex geometry
(d) it is the most portable technique, ideal for use in an on-site environment

23. The rate at which a liquid will flow over a surface is primarily a function of:

(a) its surface tension

(b) its specific gravity
(c) its wetting ability
(d) its viscosity

24. If penetrant testing has to be performed at a temperature below 10°C penetration

time must be extended because of:

(a) A decrease in wetting ability

(b) A decrease in surface tension
(c) An increase in viscosity
(a) A decrease in contact angle

25. Desirable properties for a penetrant include:

(a) High contact angle

(b) Low surface tension
(c) High flash point
(d) None of the above

26. Water based developer may become contaminated with fluorescent penetrant. In
order to check for contamination:

(a) after thorough mixing, shine the UV-A light into the bath and look for
sparkly bits
(b) process 2 identical stainless steel test panels, one using in-use developer,
one using a control sample. Place both samples under the black light &
compare the results
(c) return a sample of the bath to the developer manufacturer for testing
(d) use a refractometer

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PCW9 Revision 0 Penetrant Testing July 2010
End of Course Examination (General & Specific – Multi Sector)

27. Aqueous developer may be water soluble or water suspended. One advantage of
water soluble is:

(a) it requires less mixing, the powder remains in solution & does not settle
out as in a suspension
(b) it is more sensitive than water suspended
(c) it is more tolerant to contamination
(d) it does not require any corrosion inhibitor to be added

28. ‘Meniscus’ is the name used to describe the shape of the surface of a liquid in a
capillary tube. A good penetrant will form a:

(a) positive (convex) meniscus

(b) negative (concave) meniscus
(c) horizontal meniscus
(d) vertical meniscus

29. The main reason why a Woods Filter is used in penetrant inspection is:

(a) safety – it filters out harmful short wavelength UV-B & UV-C
(b) to tune the black light source to the optimum wavelength for maximum
fluorescence
(c) it removes most of the visible light from the mercury vapour bulb beam,
thus improving sensitivity
(d) safety – it filters out harmful long wavelength infrared

30. Virtually all visible dye penetrants are red – why?

(a) The average human eye is very sensitive to the contrast provided by red
on a white background
(b) All the best penetrating oils are naturally red
(c) The red dye is chemically very stable so red penetrants have excellent
shelf-life
(d) Red is the international colour for danger

31. Capillary action or capillarity chiefly depends on:

(a) viscosity and wetting ability

(b) wetting ability and surface tension
(c) surface tension and viscosity
(d) specific gravity and density

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PCW9 Revision 0 Penetrant Testing July 2010
End of Course Examination (General & Specific – Multi Sector)

32. Some materials, such as titanium and nickel alloys, can be harmed by penetrant
testing residues. In order to reduce the tendency for this to happen, the
concentration, in penetrant test consumables, of two of elements in particular, is
strictly controlled. These elements are:

(a) Sulphur and chlorine

(b) Nitrogen and oxygen
(c) Carbon and selenium
(d) Helium and Argon

33. Which of the following factors has the least significant effect on penetrant test
sensitivity?

(a) emulsification time

(b) penetration time (dwell time)
(c) development time
(d) method of penetrant application

34. In a post emulsified penetrant test system under what circumstances is it

beneficial to use a water pre-wash immediately prior to emulsifier application?

(a) This is always beneficial

(b) When the emulsifier is lipophilic
(c) When the emulsifier is hydrophilic
(d) This is never beneficial

35. Which penetrant testing consumable is typically used in a concentration of 5 to

30% in water?

(a) lipophilic emulsifier

(b) hydrophilic emulsifier
(c) water washable penetrant
(d) non-aqueous developer

36. A big advantage of using water based developer is that:

(a) components can be transferred straight from the wash station to the
developer without the need for drying
(b) it is more sensitive than either dry powder or non-aqueous solvent
suspended developer
(c) it is ideal for use on-site
(d) all of the above are big advantages

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PCW9 Revision 0 Penetrant Testing July 2010
End of Course Examination (General & Specific – Multi Sector)

37. If the procedure specifies that the penetrant shall be applied by immersion with a
dwell time of 10 minutes which of the following would be acceptable?

(a) Immerse for the full 10 minute dwell time

(b) 1 minute immersion followed by 9 minutes drain
(c) 5 minutes immersion followed by 5 minutes drain
(d) All of the above

38. If applying penetrant by immersion it is good practice to:

(a) agitate the component at intervals throughout the immersion time

(b) make sure that the component is as deep in the penetrant as possible so
as to maximise the penetrant pressure
(c) both (a) an (b)
(d) not allow the component to sink to the bottom of the penetrant tank
because contaminants, water especially, tend to form a layer in the
bottom of the tank

39. An example of a material that cannot be tested using a standard dye penetrant
method is:

(a) magnesium alloy

(b) glass
(c) nickel alloy
(d) none of the above

40. Microwatts per square centimetre (mW/cm2) is the unit usually used to measure:

(a) black light intensity

(b) white light intensity
(c) the concentration of powder in an aqueous suspension
(d) the efficiency of a Woods Filter

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PCW9 Revision 0 Penetrant Testing July 2010
End of Course Examination (General & Specific – Multi Sector)

Name: ………………………………………………………. Date: ……………………………..

Each question has only one correct answer!

Please enter your answers on the answer sheet:

Specific Part

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PCW9 Revision 0 Penetrant Testing July 2010
End of Course Examination (Specific – Multi Sector)

1. Welding defects that can be detected by penetrant testing may occur in:

(a) The parent material

(b) The heat affected zone
(c) The fusion zone
(d) Any of the above locations

2. BS EN 3452-1 requires that the penetration time in the temperature range 10°C to
50°C should generally be between:

(a) 10 and 30 minutes

(b) 5 and 60 minutes
(c) 5 and 720 minutes
(d) 10 and 360 minutes

3. BS EN 3452-1 requires that the development time in the temperature range 10°C
to 50°C should generally be between:

(a) 10 and 30 minutes

(b) 5 and 60 minutes
(c) 5 and 15 minutes
(d) 10 and 60 minutes

4. A common cause of centreline cracking in fusion welds is:

(a) Excessive restraint

(b) Welding with damp electrodes
(c) Loss of gas shielding
(d) Welding current too low

5. Actions that can help in interpreting penetrant indications in a steel weld include:

(a) Wipe with a solvent moistened wipe, re-apply developer

(b) Observe the shape of indications as they form
(c) Carry out light grinding of the surface, then repeat the penetrant test
(d) All of the above may help

6. Defects that cause penetrant indications which typically follow the edge of the
cap in a fusion weld include:

(a) Toe cracks

(b) Undercut
(c) Cold lap
(d) All of the above

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PCW9 Revision 0 Penetrant Testing July 2010
End of Course Examination (Specific – Multi Sector)

7. How many types of excess penetrant removal are listed by BS EN 3452-1?

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6

8. The welding process that is limited to the “vertical-up” welding position is:

(a) SAW
(b) MMA
(c) ESW
(d) ERW

9. An example of a service induced defect that can be detected using penetrant

methods is:

(a) Fatigue cracking

(b) Lamellar tearing
(c) Centreline cracking
(d) Lack of penetration

10. Shielding gasses used in TIG welding include:

(a) argon
(b) helium
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) nitrogen

11. Lamellar tearing in association with a weld in carbon steel is more likely to occur
if:

(a) the parent material has a high sulphur content

(b) TIG welding is used
(c) no preheat is used
(d) the weld bevels are rusty

12. A crater crack is a type of:

(a) hydrogen induced crack

(b) solidification crack
(c) chevron crack
(d) lamellar tear

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PCW9 Revision 0 Penetrant Testing July 2010
End of Course Examination (Specific – Multi Sector)

13. A strong penetrant indication is detected in an austenitic stainless steel weld.

Actions that may help identify the nature of the defect causing the indication
include:

(a) wipe away the indication using a solvent moistened rag; re-apply the
developer and watch carefully as the indication returns.
(b) clean the component and perform a magnetic particle test.
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above

14. The arc welding process that is generally least likely to suffer from lack of fusion
is:

(a) SAW
(b) MIG
(c) MAG
(d) MMA

15. If shielding gas flow is interrupted in MIG or MAG welding the weld defect that
will occur is:

(a) porosity
(b) slag inclusions
(c) delayed hydrogen cracks
(d) lack of fusion

16. The small, sometimes star shaped, defect that occurs at the centre of a weld run
where the arc is broken and that is usually easy to detect using penetrant methods
is:

(a) undercut
(b) cold lap
(c) a crater crack
(d) an arc strike

17. How many types of penetrant are listed by BS EN 3452-1?

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6

18. Failure to properly dry MMA electrodes will probably result in:

(a) slag inclusions

(b) porosity
(c) lack of fusion
(d) undercut

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PCW9 Revision 0 Penetrant Testing July 2010
End of Course Examination (Specific – Multi Sector)

19. Which of the following is a very large square cross section piece of wrought
material in the early stages of manufacture?

(a) A slab
(b) A billet
(c) A bloom
(d) An ingot

20. In accordance with BS EN 3452-1, which of the following is allowed to exceed

50°C?

(a) The component which is being tested

(b) The wash water
(c) The hot air in the recirculating oven
(d) None of the above

21. Corrosion testing of a dye penetrant involves:

(a) soaking a sample of material in penetrant for a prolonged period

followed by visual examination and weighing to check for any loss of
material
(b) repeatedly applying a penetrant system to a production component &
checking for signs of degradation
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above

22. Forging processes are designed to produce components with:

(a) the desired shape

(b) the desired orientation of grain flow
(c) good mechanical properties
(d) all of the above

23. Laminations or stringers in rolled or forged products are usually caused by:

(a) non-metallic inclusions in the original cast material

(b) segregation
(c) a forging or rolling temperature that is too high
(d) dissolved hydrogen in the original cast material

24. In penetrant testing good ventilation is most important if using:

(a) water washable fluorescent penetrant & dry powder developer

(b) solvent removable red dye penetrant & non-aqueous solvent suspended
developer
(c) post emulsifiable fluorescent penetrant, hydrophilic remover & water
suspended developer
(d) ventilation is equally important in all cases

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PCW9 Revision 0 Penetrant Testing July 2010
End of Course Examination (Specific – Multi Sector)

25. Surface scale could be removed from a forging by grit blasting, but a better
removal method if the component is to be penetrant tested would be:

(a) vapour degreasing

(b) hot solvent degreasing
(c) steam cleaning
(d) acid pickling

26. Flashpoint can be defined as:

(a) the boiling point of a flammable liquid

(b) the temperature above which the vapour over a flammable liquid will
spontaneously ignite
(c) a forging defect that affects closed die forgings
(d) the temperature below which the vapour over a flammable liquid will
spontaneously ignite

27. The casting process which produces castings that could be inspected with high
sensitivity penetrant systems is:

(a) gravity die casting

(b) sand casting
(c) pressure die casting
(d) investment casting

28. When performing fluorescent inspections how long should the inspector wait in
the darkened area to allow ‘night vision’ to develop (dark adaptation)?

(a) 30 seconds
(b) at least 1 hour
(c) 5 to 10 minutes
(d) about 30 minutes

29. A black light that has a damaged filter emits:

(a) UV-A
(b) UV-B
(c) UV-C
(d) all of the above

30. The serious forging defect typically caused by working the metal at an incorrect
temperature is called:

(a) a burst
(b) a flake
(c) a clink
(d) a seam

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PCW9 Revision 0 Penetrant Testing July 2010
End of Course Examination (Specific – Multi Sector)

31. The service life of a mercury vapour arc bulb can be significantly shortened by:

(a) switching it on and off more than is strictly necessary

(b) voltage fluctuations in the power supply
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

32. Grit blasting and other mechanical methods of precleaning should be avoided
especially when the component is aluminium. In order to avoid a loss of
sensitivity if a mechanical method has to be used it should be followed by:

(a) water blasting

(b) vapour degreasing
(c) etching
(d) solvent cleaning

33. A penetrant indication in a section of forged steel bar is a series of strong rounded
indications running in a straight line along the full length of the bar. The defect
indicated is probably:

(a) a lamination
(b) a burst
(c) a grinding crack
(d) a seam

34. A large number of rounded penetrant indications are observed when an

aluminium casting is tested using a fluorescent water washable method. When
the casting is wiped with a solvent moistened rag and the developer is re-applied
the indications reappear. What is the probable cause?

(a) Porosity
(b) Non-metallic inclusions
(c) Insufficient pre-cleaning
(d) Sinks

35. Which of the following defects create non linear indications?

(a) Porosity
(b) Crater cracks
(c) Hot tears
(d) All of the above

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