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2 U P C A T 2 0 1 5 – S e t B 2

SECTION 2: SCIENCE PROFICIENCY NAME: _________________________________ Commented [W1]: UPCAT 2014 Simulated Exam Set A

Time -– 50 minutes SCHOOL: _______________________________ Breakdown: 60 Questions


Earth Science = 20
60 Questions (86 – 145) SIMULATED EXAM – SET B Biology = 15
Chemistry = 15
Physics = 10
For each question, decide which is the best answer choice, and darken the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

86. Which among the following reasons why does 89. According to the Dust-Cloud theory, the earth and
biodegradable waste should not be thrown into other planets formed within the large rotating disk
the sea? of gas and dust which produced the sun as its
A. Marine life will die from odoriferous smell. center. In the earliest stage of earth, it is a smaller
B. Garbage takes out the nutrients in the sea. disk of dust and gas rotating within the larger
C. Eutrophic abundance of nutrients among cloud. In some time, this cloud began to shrink
algae. and condensed. This is also the theory of other Commented [A2]:

D. Carbon compounds will be placed in reverbed terrestrial planet as these gases were compressed
systems. by a gravitational force. What is the proof that
Earth’s core is hotter than Mercury’s?
87. What geologic structure is formed when a tectonic A. Distance of earth in the sun is greater as
plate converges another plate, after which magma compared to mercury
erupts to the surface? B. Presence of active volcano in earth is greater
A. ridge as compared to mercury Commented [A5]:

B. fault C. Presence of atmospheric ice in earth


C. mountain D. Earth’s rotational speed is lesser than mercury
D. volcano Commented [A3]:

90. A farmer is planning to invest in buying land in an


88. Solar winds or solar flares are violent events in the arid area. Which among the following should the
sun. They are sudden eruptions which sprays farmer consider if he is planning to build a
fountains of hot gases 100,000 miles or more out business in that area?
into space. Which of the following is a A. Build state of the art irrigation system
manifestation of solar winds? B. Convert hills into plains
A. Gases circulating in mars C. Buy arid area adapting plants Commented [A6]:

B. Comets revolve around the sun D. Make the area for mineral and coal mining
C. Brilliant displays of auroras in the north and
south polar Commented [A4]:

D. Concave lens can concentrate sun’s energy


and can burn objects in earth

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91. Geothermal power stations are similar to other 93. Which among the sun-earth-moon position will
steam turbine thermal power stations wherein give a maximum high-tide at night?
heat from a fuel source, such as the Earth’s core,
is used to heat water or another working fluid. The A.
working fluid is then used to turn a turbine of a
generator, thereby producing electricity. The fluid
is then cooled and returned to the heat source.
Resources of geothermal energy range from the B.
shallow ground to hot water and hot rock found a
few miles beneath the Earth's surface, and down
even deeper to the extremely high temperatures
of molten rock called magma. Where would be a C.
good area to put a geothermal plant, aside from
near an active volcano?
A. sedimentary basin Commented [G7]: ANSWER: A
B. under seawater D.
Explanation: Many geothermal power plants are built on
C. on top of a mountain
sedimentary basins. The geothermal energy is basically
D. along the shoreline a form of thermal energy that has its origin in
radioactive decay of various minerals inside the Earth's
core. Sedimentary basins are the location for almost all
92. Which of the rock formations in the diagram is the 94. Given the Moh’s Scale:
of the world's hydrocarbon reserves. Geothermal power
youngest? Mineral Scale Number plants are predominantly built on the edges of tectonic
Talc 1 plates because these areas ensure the best possible
economics of new geothermal energy projects.
Gypsum 2
Commented [AA8]:
Calcite 3
C Fluorite 4
B Apatite 5
Orthoclase 6

A Quartz 7
D E Topaz 8
Corundum 9
Diamond 10
A. A
B. B
A finger nail has an index of 2.3 while a window
C. C glass has an index of 5.8. What mineral can a
D. D and E
fingernail scratch?
A. Gypsum Commented [A9]:

B. Calcite
C. Topaz
D. Window Glass

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95. Weathering is the natural disintegration and water level due to the presence of the storm. The
decomposition of rocks and minerals. Why is rise may come rapidly, flooding coastal lowlands
weathering not possible in the moon? in the process. PAGASA predicted a storm surge
A. Moon’s gravity is 1/6 of the earth. will hit the Philippines even before Typhoon
B. Moon revolves around the earth and not in the Yolanda entered the country but they did not
sun. expect the damages to be that massive. The storm
C. Moon has no atmosphere. surge that accompanied Yolanda was described as Commented [A10]:

D. Moon has large and dark craters. tsunami-like. This is somehow reminiscent of the
tsunami that hit Japan in the year 2011. Tsunamis
96. Cloud seeding can be done by dispersing Silver can be created when there is a sudden disturbance
Iodide or dry ice (solid carbon dioxide) into clouds on the Earth’s crust and deformation on the sea
to induce precipitation. Cloud seeding has also floor. This deformation vertically displaces the
been used to dissipate fog, modify hurricanes, and overlying water and creates violent underwater
decrease lightning and hail in thunderstorms. The disturbance. What is the main characteristic of
results have been remarkable but never tsunamis that differentiates it from a storm surge?
guaranteed increase precipitation on all trials. The A. Tsunamis are tidal waves.
Beijing Weather Modification Office has B. Tsunamis are created when a body of water is
researched on the application of cloud seeding to displaced usually by an earthquake. Commented [G12]: ANSWERT: B
control weather. During the 2008 Beijing C. Tsunamis are always accompanied by
Explanation: A tsunami is created when a body of water
Olympics, the Chinese governments executed typhoons and other forms of weather
is displaced by:
cloud seeding to clear the air of pollutants and to disturbances. -an underwater earthquake
keep it from raining over the Bird’s Nest stadium D. Tsunamis are single waves that only hit the -an earthquake near the coast
-a landslide where a lot of material is dumped into the
while the games were going on. They managed to shorelines by the Pacific Ocean.
sea
deliver as they have promised. What could be an -a volcano collapse, dumping a lot of material into the
obvious negative effect of cloud seeding in China? 98. Global climate change is being attributed to the sea
A. Excessive precipitation and unanticipated atmospheric increase in which two gases While a storm surge is caused by a low pressure weather
system raising the height of the water higher than
drought produced as by-products of human activities?
ordinary sea level.
B. Significant increase of Silver contamination on A. nitrous oxide and sulfur dioxide
crops and water B. methane and carbon dioxide Commented [G11]: ANSWER: B
C. Unpredictable weather C. ozone and carbon dioxide
Explanation: Cloud seeding may have different negative
D. Increase in thunderstorms and typhoons that D. ozone and methane
effects, but are not yet fully proven or justified. The
may hit the country within the same year of silver content of crops and water can be easily measured
cloud seeding in the area and can be directly correlated to cloud seeding within
the certain area.

99. Stars are self-luminous celestial bodies consisting


of a mass of gas held together by its own gravity.
97. Storm surge is an abnormal rise of water On the other hand, planets and moons do not
generated by a storm. It creates a change in the produce their own light. Both Jupiter and Venus

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are described as the two most luminous planets This is a picture of the different layers of a star:
because they appear as bright stars with the
unaided eye on certain times of the year. What
would be the best explanation for this occurrence?
A. Jupiter and Venus have bright moons that
illuminate them.
B. The gases of Jupiter and Venus are in
continuous combustion on their surface,
therefore giving off a bright appearance.
C. Jupiter and Venus created an impact from
Image from: buffonescience7.wikispaces.com
collision with asteroids from space, thus The star’s core is where the light and energy-
formation of visible fireballs. producing reactions take place. Stars are fuelled
D. They both reflect sunlight efficiently which by the nuclear fusion reactions at their core. In
make them stand out from the other planets. most stars, the core is the hottest part unless the Commented [G13]: ANSWER: D
star runs out of its current fuel and starts fusing
elements in a shell around its core out to the Explanation: Planets do not produce their own light.
100. The Law of Superposition states that in
surface or the photosphere. While these shells are They appear luminous because of a nearby bright star.
undisturbed strata of sedimentary rock, the oldest In this case, Jupiter and Venus both belong to the solar
burning they are the temporary hotspots of the
rock layer is at the bottom, the youngest at the system. These planets appear bright on Earth because
star, while the core gets hotter and hotter. Given
the sun illuminates them.
top. If geologists can determine which way was that the following stars have sufficient fuel, which
originally “up” in a stack of layers, they can put is the hottest?
those strata in the correct historical order. Rarely, A. Core of a young blue star Commented [G15]: ANSWER: A

after a sequence of layers has been deposited and B. Core of the Sun
Explanation: The core is the hottest part of the star. Blue
compressed to form rock, it may be literally C. Corona of the Sun
stars are the hottest. Therefore, the core of a blue star is
overturned by the thrusting of the Earth’s crust as D. Photosphere of a white dwarf star the hottest of all.

continental plates collide. In rare cases like this,


how can the original sequence of the rocks be 102. Which statement best explains why the same side

determined? of the Moon is viewed from Earth as the Moon goes

A. Collect samples in near-by undisrupted areas. through its phases? Commented [G14]: ANSWER: A
B. They cannot be determined. A. The Moon does not rotate as it revolves
around Earth. Explanation: There are areas that are not disrupted by a
C. Carbon-date the fossils that are formed within
new rock layer. Nearby undisturbed areas have the
the sedimentary rock layers B. The Moon’s period of rotation equals Earth’s
highest probability of having the same original sequence
D. They are totally in the reverse order of oldest period of rotation. as the area that has been disrupted. Thus the order can
C. The Moon’s period of rotation equals Earth’s be obtained by sampling them.
to youngest
101. The following star colors are arranged from period of revolution around the Sun.

highest to lowest temperature: D. The Moon’s period of rotation equals the


Blue >> White >> Yellow >> Orange >> Red Moon’s period of revolution around Earth.
103. Plate tectonic movement stretch, bend and strain
rocks. Most rocks resist these forces brought by
contact. There is a possibility that the crust, which
is made up of rocks, snaps when too much force

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from contact occurs and earthquake can B. RER  Nucleus  Lysosomes  Golgi-
materialize. Which of the following best explains complex
this phenomenon? C. Nucleus  RER  Golgi-complex 
A. All rocks have an elastic limit. Lysosomes Commented [G16]: ANSWER: A
B. Human activities increase surface temperature D. Lysosomes  Nucleus  RER  Golgi-
Explanation: Rocks are hard and strong. They can
of Earth which loosens the crust and allows complex
withstand certain level of pressure and force but they
movement to occur are also capable of breaking due to their elastic limit.
C. Rapid decrease of underground water that 106. A man affected with Hemophilia, a genetic disease Commented [W18]:
stiffens the Earth’s mantle that manifests with defective blood clotting
D. Deep ground oil drilling induces vibration that mechanism. He is married to a carrier woman who
loosens the rocks on the crust. is 60 years old. They have a son, 20 years old and
daughter who is 30 years old. What is the
104. Nitrates occur in small amounts and are required probability of the daughter having that disease?
for proteins to function. Nitrates, in excess A. 0%
concentration in streams and other surface waters B. 25%
can accelerate aquatic plant growth causing rapid C. 50% Commented [AA19]:

oxygen depletion. In addition to that, nitrates at D. 75%


high concentrations in surface and groundwater
used for human consumption are toxic for the 107. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

children. Children could have the blue-baby A. DNA has thymine while RNA has uracil.

syndrome which affects the ability of the blood to B. DNA is a helical structure while RNA is a

carry oxygen. This syndrome is very fatal and may straight chain structure.

increased susceptibility to illness and may even C. DNA does not have “oxygen” component in

result to death. Which among the following is an the 2-carbon ribose while RNA has.

advantage of having nitrates? D. DNA can only be found in nucleus while RNA

A. Nitrates, in high percentages of can only found in ribosomes. Commented [W20]:

concentration, are used by plants to make


food.
B. Nitrates can cure the so-called blue-baby
syndrome.
C. Nitrates maintain sustainability of life. Commented [AA17]:

D. All of the above


108. Fungal spores germinate to form haploid hyphae.

105. A genetic code for an enzyme will be transcribed In some fungi, such as mushrooms, the fusion of

and translated to synthesize it. What is the correct hyphae results in a unique dikaryotic phase in

pathway in order to manufacture an enzyme? their life cycles, in which each cell contains two

A. Nucleus  RER  Lysosomes  Golgi- haploid nuclei from different parents. The

complex dikaryotic mycelium forms a fruiting body - the


mushroom – in which the specialized cell will fuse.
These diploid cells will produce new generation of

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spores. Which of the following statement is TRUE A. The characteristics of part passes down to
about the reproduction of fungi? the offspring. Commented [W25]:

A. The cells in the mushroom will undergo B. Animals that seem related have similar base
mitosis to form the new generation of spores. genes and DNA.
B. The cells in the mushroom will undergo C. Animals of similar genetics are formed in the Commented [W21]:

meiosis to form the new generation of spores. same areas.


C. Spores produced are diploid. D. Fossils of some animals show resemblance
D. The cells in the fruiting body have haploid among its structure and function.
chromosomes.
113. Given the gene: 5’–GCCTACGGC–3’. Which of the
109. Some flowers are wind pollinated and some are following is FALSE?
insect pollinated. Which of the following is the A. This gene is composed of DNA.
characteristic of a wind pollinated flower most B. The complementary strand is
likely to have? 3’-CGGATGCCG–5’.
A. Produce large fruits C. The mRNA produced from this gene is
B. Small flowers with inconspicuous petal 3’–CGGATCGGC–5’.
Commented [W22]:

C. Flowers with large ovules and ovary Commented [W26]:


D. The ratio of A:T and C:G is 1:1.
D. Less allergies related to pillar grains
114. If ants suddenly stray away from its colony to
110. Tadpoles eat algae while frogs eat insects. What is gather food, which mechanism can they find their
the possible effect on the morphological way back?
difference of tadpole and insects? A. They can sense their colony through thermal
A. Tadpoles have gills while frog have lungs cells found in skin.
B. Tadpoles have fins while frogs have arms and B. Their brain can process a memory in order to
legs. memorize the trails.
C. Tadpoles has longer intestines while have C. They leave chemical marks on the trail of their
shorter one. environment. Commented [W23]:

D. Tadpoles have slimy skin while frog have D. They can detect other ants’ motion signals
porous skin. through their antennae.
111. Which among the following is a correct description 115. A pea pod with yellow seeds and purple flower has
of an artery and veins? been hybrid to a pea pod with green seeds and
A. Arteries have thinner walls compared to veins. white flower. This hybrid gave rise to a pea pod
B. Arteries carry oxygenated hemoglobin blood. with yellow seed and purple flower. If plant is self-
C. Arteries carry blood away from the heart. pollinated, what is the probability of getting a Commented [W24]:

D. Arteries receive less blood pressure compare white flower with yellow seeds? Yellow seed and
to veins. purple flower is dominant.
1
A.
4
112. Which of the following ideas does NOT support the
1
theory of evolution? B.
25

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3
C. 118. A new vaccine was discovered as a treatment for a Commented [W27]:
16
3 certain viral chicken disease. What should a
D.
4 scientist do in order to test for the effectivity of
the vaccine?

116. The apparatus was set up as shown in the A. Administer the vaccine to 50 chickens and

diagram. After some time had elapsed, the Visking expose all of them to the disease.

Tubing containing liquid Y collapsed while the B. Administer the vaccine to 25 of 50 chickens

tubing containing liquid Z was firm and hard. and expose all 50 chickens to the disease. Commented [W30]:

Which of the options (A, B, C, D) could be the C. Expose 25 of 50 chickens to the disease then

correct description of the liquids at the start of the vaccinate all 50 chickens.

experiment? D. Expose all 50 chickens to the disease then


vaccinate 25 of them.

119. The mRNA codon for some amino acids are listed
below.
VVV: phenylalanine
AUG: methionine
CCU: proline
AAA: lysine
Liquid X Liquid Y Liquid Z
GGC: glycine
A. 10% NaCl water 25% NaCl Commented [W28]:
solution solution

25% NaCl 10% NaCl water


What is the correct DNA code for an amino acid of
B.
solution solution methionine --- lysine --- proline ?

C. water 25% NaCl 10% NaCl


solution solution A. 5’ – TAC – TTT – GGA – 3’

D. 10% NaCl 25% NaCl water B. 5’- AUG – AAA – CCU – 3’


solution solution C. 5’ – AGG – TTT – TAC – 3’
D. 5’ – CCU – AAA – AUG – 3’

117. Most animals go through a reproduction cycle. 120. Two vessels contain different gases. Gas A has a

What is the best reason for this? greater molecular weight than Gas B. What would

A. Males can mate with many females during happen if the value in the tube is kept open for 30

breeding season minutes?

B. Infants or offspring can be born in optimal


conditions
C. For the maturation and growth of an animal
before it can reproduce again
D. For the perpetration of their species. Commented [W29]:

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A. B. Ionic: A and F; Covalent: F and G Commented [A33]:

C. Ionic: G and D; Covalent: B and D


D. Ionic: A and C; Covalent: B and G
B.
123. Which among the following compounds will give a
correct ionic formula?
C. A. B2C3
B. BF Commented [A34]:

C. F3E2
D. D. C3A Commented [A31]:

124. Which of the following is true about the element


121. The following is a chemical reaction of ethane. below?
19
10
X
C2H6 + 85kJ  2C(S) + 3H2
A. Ratio of proton to neutron is 1:1
B. The number of neutrons is 19.
2C(S) + 2O2  2CO2 + 788 kJ

19 +2
Which of the following is TRUE?
C.
10
X : the number of electrons is 8. Commented [A35]:

A. 703 kJ is released in the environment. 19 +2


Commented [A32]:

B. 703 kJ is absorbed by the total system.


D.
10
X gains two more electrons.

C. 873 kJ is released in the environment.


125. A radioactive material represented as X has a half-
D. 873 kJ is absorbed by the total system.
life which is 100 days. How much of the original
will be left after 300 days?
A. one-third of the original
B. one-fourth of the original
C. one-eighth of the original Commented [A36]:

D. one-tenth of the original


For questions 122 – 123, refer to the figure below
126. Which of the following electron configurations in
ground state is possible?
IA IIA IIIA IVA VA VIA VIIA VIIIA
A. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 3p7
A H
B. 1s1 2s2 2p5
B C D F G I
C. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2
E
D. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d1 Commented [A37]:

127. Which of the following illustrates a physical


122. Which of the following pair will form an ionic and
change?
covalent bonding
A. A clothe is bleached during hot summer day
A. Ionic: A and B; Covalent: G and H

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B. White sugar solution when heated at 100C IV. Putting glass of water in a freezer
turns to brown
C. Benzoic acid (C2H202) melted at 122C in a A. I and II only
capillary tube B. III and IV only Commented [A38]:

D. Plants increase in height and diameter after 7 C. I, III, III only


days D. All of the above.

128. Which among the following is correctly paired? 131. Refer to the diagram below.
A. cheddar cheese : heterogeneous Commented [A39]:

B. liquid soap : homogeneous


C. sugar : element
D. orange juice : compound

129. The diagram shows a compressed 15-L gas at Which among the following chemical equations
300K. best describes the diagram?
A. 9M + 5N  M6N + 2N2
B. 9M + 5N  3M3N + N2
C. 9M + 5N  3NM3 + 2N Commented [A41]:
300K D. 9M + 5N  M9N + N2
15 L

What will happen to the final volume if the 132. Which compound has the most oxygen atoms?
pressure is halved at constant pressure? A. 3 mol H2O
A. Vfinal = Vinitial × 2 B. 1 mol Ca3(PO4)2 Commented [A40]:

B. Vfinal = Vinitial + 2 C. 2 mole Al(OH)3 Commented [A42]:

C. Vfinal = Vinitial ÷ 2 D. 4 mol CO


D. Vfinal = Vinitial – 2

130. Colligative properties are physical properties of 133. The following are gases with their respective
solutions that depend in the number but not in the mass.
kind of solute particles which are present. CO2 44 g/mole
Examples of which are boiling paint elevation, O2 32 g/mole
freezing point depression, vapor pressure NO 30 g/mole
lowering, and increase in osmotic pressure. Which H2 2 g/mole
of the following is an application of colligative What can you hypothesize about the rate of their
properties? effusion?
I. Ice creams have salts A. CO2 will travel faster that O 2.
II. A boiling water has common table salt B. H2 travels the fastest. Commented [A43]:
III. Water is kept boiling for 60 minutes C. CO2 travels the fastest.

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D. NO will travel at slower rate that O 2. 136. You are spear fishing in waist-deep water when
you spot a fish. If you are standing behind the fish,
134. This graph shows a salt solution in a varying where should you aim the spear to catch the fish?
pressure and temperature. A. You should aim it right behind the fish. Commented [W46]: Physics Lesson 8-3**
Answer: A
B. You should aim it right in front of the fish. As the light from the fish leaves the water it bends away from the
normal.
C. You should aim it exactly where the fish
seems to be.
D. You should aim it a bit to the side of the fish.
1 atm

137. Mark travels to four different moons. He notices


0.006 atm that his weight is different for every moon he
travels to. The table below shows the acceleration
-36C -50C due to gravity to four different moons.
Moon Acceleration due to gravity
Which of the following is TRUE? Alpha 11 m/s2
A. NaCl solution freezes at 0C at 0.006 atm. Beta 13 m/s2
B. NaCl solution freezes at 0C at 1 atm. Gamma 15 m/s2
C. NaCl solution melts at -36C at 1 atm. Omega 17 m/s2
D. NaCl solution melts and boils at -36C at
0.006 atm. In which moon will he able to jump the highest in
Commented [A44]:

one jump? Assuming Mark leaves the ground with


the same speed.
A. Alpha Commented [W147]:

B. Beta
C. Gamma
D. Omega
138. The table below shows the velocity of the car per
second.
135. When butane burns, it forms carbon dioxide and Time (s) Velocity (m/s)
water. This is the unbalanced chemical reaction: 0 0
C4H10 + O2  CO2 + H2O
1 2
2 4
If 20 moles of butane was reacted to excess
3 6
oxygen, how many moles of CO2 are formed?
4 8
A. 8 moles CO2
5 8
B. 20 moles CO2
6 8
C. 80 moles CO2 Commented [A45]:

D. 160 moles CO2


Which one of the following DOES NOT describe the
motion of the car?

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A. constant acceleration then constant velocity


141. The graph below shows the speed versus time
B. increasing speed then zero acceleration
graph of a complete parachute jump from a small
C. 2 m/s2 acceleration then zero acceleration
aircraft.
D. increasing acceleration then constant velocity Commented [A48]:

speed (m/s)
139. Acceleration is defined as the rate of change in
velocity. The formula for acceleration is: B

∆𝑣 𝑣𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑎𝑙 − 𝑣𝑖𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 A
𝑎= = C
𝑡 𝑡
D
Newton’s second law states that, “The acceleration
time (s)
of an object is directly proportional to the net
force acting on it and inversely proportional to its
At what portion in the graph is the diver falling
mass.” This law is also known as the Law of
with decreasing acceleration?
Acceleration. In formula:
A. A Commented [P51]:

B. B
𝐹
𝑎= C. C
𝑚
D. D
A 25-kg box, initially at rest, is acted upon by a
net force of 200 N for 8 s and causes it to 142. Starting from rest, an airplane requires 20

accelerate uniformly. What is the final velocity of seconds and 400 meters of runway to become

the box after 8 s? airborne. Its velocity when it leaves the ground is

A. 50 m/s A. 20 m/s

B. 64 m/s B. 30 m/s Commented [W149]:

C. 75 m/s C. 40 m/s Commented [W52]: Physics Lesson 2-2**


Answer: C
D. 80 m/s D. 80 m/s d = Vit +1/2at2
140. A 65-g mass is placed at the 20-cm mark of a 143. Which of the diagrams could represent the path of 400 = 0 + 0.5(a)(20)2
a = 2 m/s2
uniform meter stick as shown in the figure. If a a light through a glass block in air? Vf = Vi + at
Vf = 0 + (2)(20)
pivot is placed at the 40-cm mark and the meter A. C. Vf = 40 m/s

stick remains horizontal, determine the mass of Commented [A53]:

the meter stick?

0 20 40 60 80 100

65g B. D.

A. 65 g
B. 115 g
C. 130 g Commented [A50]:

D. 145 g

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144. In the following circuit, when four identical bulbs C. A man on top of the hill
are connected to a dry cell, bulb 3 does not light D. A man on his mountain bike speeding down
up and the rest light up. the hill

bulb 2

bulb 1
m2 m4
bulb 3

m1 m3
bulb 4

Which of the following is(are) insulator?


A. m2 only
B. m3 only
C. m2 and m3 only Commented [acts54]: Physics Lesson 7-3 ***
Answer: C
D. m3 and m4 only
145. Gravitational potential energy is energy an object
possesses because of its position in a gravitational
field. Which of the following has the most
gravitational potential energy?
A. A truck at the top of a hill Commented [A55]:

B. A truck speeding down the hill

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