Physics SAMS

Draft
Accredited Specimen Assessment Materials

Pre-publication version: March 2011 GCSE Physics
Specimen Assessment Materials
For first teaching from September 2011
For first assessment from Summer 2012
For first award in Summer 2013
Subject Code: 1210
Foreword
The awarding bodies have prepared new specifications to comply with revised GCSE and subject
criteria. The specimen assessment materials accompanying new specifications are provided to give
centres guidance on the structure and character of the planned assessments in advance of the first
assessment. It is intended that the specimen assessment materials contained in this booklet will help
teachers and students to understand, as fully as possible, the markers’ expectations of candidates’
responses to the types of tasks and questions set at GCSE level. These specimen assessment materials
should be used in conjunction with CCEA’s GCSE Physics specification.
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Pre-publication version: March 2011

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BLANK PAGE
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GCSE Physics
Specimen Assessment Materials
Contents
Specimen Papers 1
Unit P1 Foundation Tier 3
Unit P1 Higher Tier 21
Unit P2 Foundation Tier 41
Unit P2 Higher Tier 63
Mark Schemes 87
General Marking Instructions 89
Unit P1: Foundation Tier 91
Unit P1: Higher Tier 101
Unit P2: Foundation Tier 111
Unit P2: Higher Tier
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Controlled Assessment 131
Controlled Assessment Task (CAT) and Guidance Notes for Teachers 133
Controlled Assessment Task: Candidate Response Booklet A 137
Controlled Assessment Task: Candidate Response Booklet B 143
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Controlled Assessment Mark Scheme 151

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Subject Code xxxxx

QAN xxxx/xxxx/
A CCEA Publication © 2011
You may download further copies of this publication from www.ccea.org.uk

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SPECIMEN PAPERS
DIVIDER FRONT
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1
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SPECIMEN PAPERS
DIVIDER BACK
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Centre Number
71
Candidate Number
General Certificate of Secondary Education

2011
Science: Physics
Unit P1
Foundation Tier
[CODE]
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SPECIMEN PAPER
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TIME
1 hour 15 minutes
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
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Write your Centre Number and Candidate Number in the spaces provided
at the top of this page.
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Write your answers in the spaces provided in this question

paper.
Answer all questions.
For Examiner’s
INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES use only
The total mark for this paper is 80. Question
Marks
Figures in brackets printed down the right-hand side of pages indicate the Number
marks awarded to each question or part question. 1
Quality of written communication will be assessed in questions 1(b) and 2
3(b).
3
4
5
6
7
Total
Marks
3
1 (a) A petrol engine converts the chemical energy in the fuel to both useful forms of
energy and unwanted forms of energy. Measurements show that for every 1000J
of input energy only 350J of useful output energy is produced.
(i) Using these measurements calculate how much unwanted energy is

produced.
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Unwanted energy = ________J [1]
Write down the formula used to calculate the efficiency of this petrol
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(ii)
engine.
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__________________________ [1]
(iii) Calculate the efficiency of this petrol engine.

You are advised to show clearly how you get your answer.
Efficiency = ________________ [2]
4
(b) The reliability of power stations is measured by their ability to maintain a constant
output of electricity. Discuss, with explanation, the reliability of wind farms,
nuclear power stations and coal-fired power stations. In each case give the type of
energy which is initially obtained from the energy resource from which the
electricity is finally derived.
In this question you will be assessed on your written communication skills

including the use of specialist science terms.
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
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_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________ [6]
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(c) The most common energy resources used in Europe today are:
oil natural gas coal

nuclear energy hydroelectric wind energy
(i) Choose one non-renewable energy resource from the list above and explain
why it is non-renewable.
Non-renewable energy resource:
Explanation:
[2]
(ii) Choose one renewable energy resource from the list above and explain why
it is renewable.
Renewable energy resource:
Explanation:
T [2]
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(iii) Global warming in seen by many as a major threat to many countries.
Nuclear power is seen by some as a solution to the energy needs of a country
without causing further global warming.
Explain why this is the case.
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_____________________________________________________________
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_____________________________________________________________ [2]
(iv) Name the fuel used in nuclear power stations.
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________ [1]
6
2 (a) (i) Mass is measured in kilograms (kg) and weight is measured in
newtons (N). State what is meant by mass and what is meant by weight.
Mass is
Weight is
[2]
(ii) State how the weight of an object is calculated when its mass is known.
____________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________ [2]
(b) (i) A car is pulled forward and begins to move along a road in the direction
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shown below. After a few seconds the car is moving at a constant speed of
2m/s.
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Label clearly the two horizontal forces acting on the car.
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[2]
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(ii) What can you say about the size of these two forces?
____________________________________________________________ [1]
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(iii) The car then accelerates forward along the horizontal road. It takes 3
seconds to increase its speed from 2m/s to 20m/s. Calculate the acceleration
(rate of change of speed).
Acceleration = ________________m/s2 [3]
(c)
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The diagram shows an object moving in a circle.
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(i) On the diagram draw an arrow to show the direction of the centripetal force
acting on the object. Label this arrow F. [1]
(ii) On the diagram draw an arrow to show the direction the object would move
if this force were removed. Label this arrow v. [1]
(iii) What happens to the size of this centripetal force if the mass of the object
moving in the circle is increased?
____________________________________________________________ [1]
8
3 (a) John wants to measure the density of a rock.
He finds the volume of the rock using the apparatus shown below.
(i)
cylinder show?
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What volume does the smallest division on the scale of the graduated
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Volume =______________ [2]
(ii) Using data taken from the diagram calculate the volume of rock.
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Volume =__________cm3 [2]
(iii) The mass of the rock was measured and found to be 36g.
Calculate the density of the rock.
Remember to give the correct unit for density.
Density of the rock = _____________ [3]
9
(iv) John then measures the mass and the volume of a number of rocks. He then
plots his results on a graph as shown below.
Which three rocks are made of the same material?

Explain how you used the graph to arrive at this conclusion.
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____________________________________________________________
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____________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________ [3]
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(b) Using the ideas of the kinetic theory, describe and explain how solids change to
liquids and liquids change to gases.

_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
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_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
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_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________ [6]
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4 (a) Kevin climbs a rope as shown in the diagram below.
(i) He climbs a vertical distance of 3.0 metres and he weighs 400 newtons.
Calculate the work done by Kevin as he climbs the rope.
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Work done =________________ J [2]
(ii) He takes 6.0 seconds to climb the 3.0 metres.

Calculate the power generated by Kevin as he climbed the rope.
Power = ________________ W [3]
12
(b) A nail gun fires nail of mass 5g with a speed of 20m/s.
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Calculate the kinetic energy of the nail as it leaves the gun.
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Kinetic energy =________________J [3]
13
5 To study the motion of a ball down a curved runway the apparatus shown below was
set up. The ball is released at various points along the runway. The height above the
table at each point is H. When it reaches the bottom it travels through the air and the
point where it hits the floor is marked.
The distance S from the bottom of the table to this point of impact is measured.
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For each value of H the ball was released three times and the value of S in each case
recorded. The measurements of the height H and the distance S were taken and are
shown in the table below.
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Height (H) Distance S in cm Average

in cm First value Second value Third value value of S
in cm
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10 60 61 59 60
20 88 90 92 90
30 111 110 109
40 120 122 118
(a) (i) Using the data given in the table calculate the average value of S for each
height H.
Write your answers in the spaces on the table.

You may use the space below for your calculations.
Two values have been calculated for you.
[2]
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(ii) Plot a graph on the grid below to help you find out if the average distance S
is proportional to the height H.
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[5]
(iii) Is the average distance S proportional to the height H?

Explain your answer.
____________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________ [3]
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6 (a) The diagram below represents a helium atom.
(i) Name the particles or the part of the atom indicated by the arrows.
Write your answers in the boxes provided. [1]
(ii) Although the atom contains charged particles it is electrically neutral.

Explain why this is so.
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____________________________________________________________
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____________________________________________________________ [2]
(iii) Helium has the chemical symbol He. Complete the symbol for the nucleus
of the helium atom above by writing the appropriate numbers in the smaller
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boxes.
For each box state what the number means. Write your answer to this part
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in the larger box.
[4]
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(b) A radioactive atom decays by emitting a beta (β) particle.
(i) What is a beta (β) particle?
____________________________________________________________ [1]
(ii) The radioactive material which emitted this beta (β) particle has a half-life
of 46 days.
Explain what this means.
____________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________ [2]
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7 To measure the range of alpha (α) particles in air the apparatus shown below was
set up. The number of alpha particles reaching the detector in a 30 second
period was measured at increasing distances from the source of alpha particles.
The graph below shows the results of this investigation.
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(i) When the detector is 6cm from the alpha particle source how many alpha
particles reach the detector every second.
Number of α particles per second = ________________ [2]
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(ii) State the approximate range of α particles indicated by the graph.
Range = ________________cm [2]
(iii) Explain why the detector does not give a reading of zero.
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________ [2]
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___________________________________________
THIS IS THE END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

___________________________________________
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Centre Number\
71
Candidate Number

2011
Science: Physics
Unit P1
Higher Tier
[CODE]
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SPECIMEN PAPER
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TIME
1 hour 30 minutes
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Write your answers in the spaces provided in this question paper.

For Examiner’s
INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES use only
The total mark for this paper is 100. Question
Marks
Quality of written communication will be assessed in questions 1(b), 2(b), 2
3(b) and 7(e).
3
4
5
6
7
Total
Marks
21
1 (a) Many countries see global warming as a major threat.
(i) Some countries see nuclear power stations as a solution to their energy
needs which doesn’t cause further global warming. Explain why.
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________ [2]
(ii) State the main environmental disadvantage of using nuclear power to

generate electricity.
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________ [2]
(iii) Uranium is used as the fuel in most nuclear power stations. How does the
amount of uranium needed compare with the amount of coal or oil needed
to fuel a power station with the same energy output?
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__________________________________________________________ [1]
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(iv) All power stations, when they come to the end of their useful life have to
be de-commissioned. What does this
mean?______________________________________________________
____
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__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________ [1]
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(v) State one problem of decommissioning a nuclear power station compared

with one that used fossil fuel.
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________ [1]
(vi) Using wind energy in the form of wind turbines (wind farms) for
generating electricity is never likely to be a solution to our energy needs.
Explain why.
__________________________________________________________ [1]
(vii) Many view wind farms as an eyesore on the landscape.

State one other environmental disadvantage they have.
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________ [1]
22
(b) The reliability of power stations is measured by their ability to maintain a
constant output of electricity. Discuss, with explanation, the reliability of wind
farms, nuclear power stations and coal-fired power stations. In each case give
the type of energy which is initially obtained from the energy resource from
which the electricity is finally derived.

_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
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_______________________________________________________________
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_______________________________________________________________ [6]
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2 (a) A car sits at rest at the top of a roller coaster ride as shown in the diagram below.
The brake is released and the car travels down the slope.
(i) On the diagram mark and label two forces acting on the car when it
is moving. [2]
(ii) At the bottom of the slope the car reaches a speed of 27m/s and continues
along a horizontal track in which a braking system is operated.
The deceleration of the car is 6m/s2.
Calculate the time taken to come to rest.
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Time taken = ________________seconds [3]

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(iii) The mass of the car is 1000kg.

The force applied to the car by the braking system is 5000N.
Calculate the additional frictional force provided by air resistance which
brings the car to rest.
Additional Frictional Force = ________________N [3]
24
(b) A sky diver jumps from an aircraft and for a time falls through the air without
her parachute open. After a time she opens the parachute.
The graph below shows how the velocity of a skydiver changes as she falls
through the air. Her parachute opens at the time marked.
Describe and explain how her acceleration changes as she descends. You
should concentrate on the periods OA, BC and DE.
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_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________ [6]
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3 (a) John was asked to measure the density of a number of rocks.
He measured the mass and volume of a number of each and plotted his results
on a graph as shown below.
(i) Which three rocks are made of the same material?
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Explain how you used the graph to arrive at this conclusion.
__________________________________________________________
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__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________ [3]
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(ii) One of the rocks was found to have a density of 3.5g/cm3.

What would be the mass of this rock if its volume was 4cm3?
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Mass = ________________g [1]
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(b) Using the ideas of kinetic theory, describe and explain how solids change to
liquids and liquids change to gases.

_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
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_______________________________________________________________
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_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________ [6]
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4 (a) Kevin climbs a rope as shown in the diagram below.
(i) He climbs a vertical distance of 3.0 metres and he weighs 400 newtons.
Calculate the work done by Kevin as he climbs the rope.
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Work done = ________________J [2]

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(ii) Kevin can develop a power of 200 W as he climbs the rope.

Calculate how long it takes him to climb 3.0 metres up the rope.
Time = ________________s [3]
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(b) A nail gun fires a nail of mass 5g.
The nail leaves the gun with a kinetic energy of 1J.
(i) Calculate the velocity of the nail as it leaves the gun.
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Velocity = ________________ m/s [3]
(ii) The nail gun is used to fix two pieces of wood together as shown in the
photograph. The nail penetrates a distance of 0.005m into
the wood.
Calculate the average force opposing the nail as it penetrates into
the wood.
Opposing force = ________________N [4]
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(c) An electric motor is used to raise a load.
Describe, in detail, how the apparatus could be used to measure the output power
of the motor.
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_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
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_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
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_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________ [4]
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5 (a) To study the motion of a ball down a runway, the apparatus shown below was set
up. The ball is released at various points along the runway. The height above the
table at each point is H. When it reaches the bottom it travels through the air and
the point where it hits the floor is marked. The distance S from the bottom of the
table to this point of impact is measured.
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For each value of H the ball was released several times and an average value of S
was calculated. The measurements of the height H and the average value of the
distance S are shown in the table below.
Height (H) Average value

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in cm of S in cm
10 60
20 90
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30 110
40 120
(i) Give two reasons why repeating the measurements is good

experimental practice.
1 __________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
2 __________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________ [2]
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(ii) Plot a graph on the grid below to help you find out if the distance S is
proportional to height H.
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[5]
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(iii) Is the distance S proportional to the height H? Explain your answer.
____________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________
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6 (a) A large steel beam weighs 20,000N.
A crane is used to raise this large steel beam into a vertical position, pivoting it
about one end. The crane exerts a force F to just lift the end A of the beam off the
ground. The length of the beam is 5m. This arrangement is shown in the diagram
below.
(i)
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The beam can be treated as a lever. Mark clearly with the letter P
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the pivot. [1]
(ii) On the diagram above, draw an arrow to show where and in what direction
the weight of the beam acts.
Assume the beam is of uniform width. [2]
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(iii) By applying the principle of moments, calculate the size of the upward force
F that the crane must exert to just raise end A of the beam
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off the ground.

Remember the beam weighs 20,000N.
Upward force F = ________________ N [4]
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(b) A car travelling at 20m/s collides with another car. The passenger, who is not
wearing a seatbelt, continues to move forward hitting the dashboard in a
collision that lasts 0.1 seconds.
(i) Calculate the value of the force that the windscreen exerts on the
passenger’s head. Assume the mass of the passenger is 50kg.
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(ii) Explain, in detail, how a seat belt would have protected the passenger
from serious injury.
__________________________________________________________
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__________________________________________________________ [2]
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(iii) To test springs that might be used in the crumple zone of a car the following
tests were carried out. A 1kg mass was dropped from different heights H
onto a platform attached to a spring as shown in the diagram below. The
compression of the spring C was measured.
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The measurements obtained are shown in the table below.
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Height Compression
(H) in m (C) in cm
0 0
1 0.45
2 0.63
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3 0.77
4 0.89
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It is believed that the variables H and C are related by the equation

C2 = kH.
k is a constant that depends on the strength of the spring.
1. Without drawing a graph use the values in the table to show that this
equation is correct.
2. Find the value for k.
Show all calculations in the space below and give values to two decimal
places.
k = ________ [4]
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7 (a) Radioactive substances emit alpha, beta and gamma radiations.
In the table below describe the nature of each of these radiations.
Radiation Nature
Alpha (α)
Beta (β)
Gamma (γ) [3]
(b) A radioactive atom of uranium decays by emitting a beta (β) particle.
(i) Complete the decay equation for this process by writing the appropriate
numbers in the boxes.
[4]
(ii) The beta (β) decay process for this radioactive material has a half-life of 46
days.
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How many days pass before the activity falls by 75% of its initial value?
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Days passed = ________ [1]
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(c) To measure the range of alpha (α) particles in air the apparatus shown below
was set up. The number of alpha particles reaching the detector in a 30 second
period was measured at increasing distances from the source of
alpha particles.
The graph below shows the results of this investigation.
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State the approximate range of α particles indicated by the graph.
Range = ________cm [2]
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(d) In the oil industry several companies may share the same oil pipeline to
transport their oil.
They need to know when one company’s oil stops and another
company’s begins.
Each company adds a radioactive substance (radioisotope) to the first part of

the batch of oil. A detector (Geiger counter) and counter will then show when
the oil containing this radioisotope passes.
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What type of radiation must be emitted by the radioisotope in the oil for this method
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to work? Give a reason for your answer.
Type of radiation ________________
_______________________________________________________________
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_______________________________________________________________
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_______________________________________________________________ [2]
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((e) In 1910 an historic experiment was carried out. The experiment was designed to
find out more about the structure of the atom. In the experiment alpha (α)
particles were directed at a very thin metal foil.
Describe and explain the observations that were made and how each one
provides information on the charge, the size and the mass of the nucleus
of the atom.
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This question you will be assessed on your written communication skills
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________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________
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________________________________________________________________
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________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________ [6]
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Centre Number
71
Candidate Number
2011
Science: Physics
Unit P2
Foundation Tier
[CODE]
SPECIMEN PAPER
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TIME
1 hour 30 minutes
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INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES For Examiner’s

use only
The total mark for this paper is 90.
Question
Marks
marks awarded to each question or part question.
1
Quality of written communication will be assessed in questions 1(c)(ii)
and 8(a). 2
3
4
5
6
7
8
Total
Marks
41
1 (a) Two mirrors, M1 and M2, are placed at right angles to one another. The
diagram below shows a ray of light incident on mirror M1 and at an angle
of 27° to its surface.
(i)
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On the diagram, accurately draw the path of the ray reflected from
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mirror M1 and M2. [2]
(ii) Calculate the angle of reflection at mirror M2.
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Angle of reflection at mirror M2 = ________________° [2]
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(b) The diagram below shows a fish in a pond. A person looking into the pond
sees the fish not at its true position but at the position shown in the diagram.
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Complete the diagram to show how the man sees the fish. Draw an arrow on
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the given ray to show its direction. [2]
(c) The diagram shows a ray of white light being dispersed by a triangular glass
prism.
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(i) On the diagram label the two colours at the top and bottom of the
spectrum. [1]
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(ii) Explain, in detail, how this spectrum is produced by the prism.
In this question you will be assessed on your written communication

skills including the use of specialist science terms.
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
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__________________________________________________________ [6]
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2 (a) (i) All waves have a wavelength and a frequency. Electromagnetic
waves have changing electric and magnetic fields. Name one other
property common to all electromagnetic waves.
_______________________________________________________ [1]
(ii) In the boxes below write the names of the various groups of
electromagnetic waves in order of increasing wavelength (as shown
by the arrow).
Some have been done for you.
[2]
(iii) Which electromagnetic wave is used for the following?
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Making toast ___________________________
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Sterilising plastic syringes ________________ [2]
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(b) Sonar uses ultrasound to detect objects under water.
A pulse of ultrasound is emitted upwards by a submarine deep below the ice
sheet in the Arctic ocean as shown below.
Some time later the submarine detects an echo and a short time after that it
detects a second echo.
(i)
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Explain why two echoes are produced in this case.
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First echo _________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
Second echo _______________________________________________

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__________________________________________________________ [2]
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(ii) To measure the distance to the ocean floor the submarine emits a pulse
of ultrasound downwards. The echo of this pulse is detected 0.4s after
it was emitted.
The speed of ultrasound in water is 1500m/s.
Use the equation distance = speed × time to help you calculate the
distance from the submarine to the floor of the ocean.
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Distance to the ocean floor = ________________m [3]

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3 A length of rope and a slinky coil can be used to demonstrate different types of wave.
The patterns obtained are shown in the diagrams below.
(a) (i) On each diagram add arrows to show the way in which the hand should
be moved to produce each wave and in the space provided state the type
of wave being produced.
________________
________________ [4]
(ii)
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What do the waves transfer as they move from left to right?
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________________ [1]
(b) The wave pattern obtained by the rope is shown again below.
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(i) State the amplitude of the wave _________________ [1]
(ii) State the wavelength of the wave ________________ [1]
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The end of the rope makes 24 vibrations in 8 seconds.
(iii) Calculate the frequency of the wave.
Make sure you also give the unit for the frequency in your answer.
Frequency = ________________ [2]
(iv)
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Calculate the speed of the wave travelling along the rope.
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Speed = ________________m/s [3]
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4 John is carrying out an investigation on the properties of shadows. He places a
wooden object between the source of light and a screen as shown in the diagram
below.
He moves the screen further from the object. The distance between the screen and
the object D, is measured. For each distance D, the height of the shadow on the
screen is measured.
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John’s results are shown in the table below.
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Distance D in cm 20 30 40 50 60
Height of the shadow H in cm 8 10 12 14 11
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(a) John has incorrectly recorded one of the values for the height H. Circle this
incorrect value in the table. Write in the space below the correct value for H.
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Correct value for H = ________cm [2]
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(b) (i) Plot a graph showing John’s measurements on the grid below. Make
sure to use the corrected value of H.
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D
[5]
(ii) State if the height (H) of the shadow is proportional to distance (D)
between the object and the screen. Give a reason for your answer.
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________ [2]
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(iii) Use your graph to find the height of the wooden object.
Height of wooden object = ________cm [1]
5 Two resistors are connected to a 12V battery as shown in the circuit below.
(a) Calculate the total resistance of the circuit.
T
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Total resistance = ________Ω [1]
(b) Use the equation I = V/R to calculate the current in the circuit.
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Current = ________A [2]
(c) Calculate the voltage across the 2Ω resistor.
Voltage = ________V [2]
52
(d) The current is allowed to flow through the circuit for 30 seconds.
Use the equation Q = I × t to calculate the electric charge that has moved
around the circuit in this time. Remember to give the unit for charge.
Charge = ________ [3]
6 The diagram below shows the planets in our Solar System.
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(a) (i) State the names of the planets labelled A, B and C.
A ________________
B ________________
C ________________ [3]
(ii) What force provides the centripetal force that keeps the planets moving
around the Sun?
________________________________________________________ [1]
53
(b) When the planet Mars is observed over a period of many months its path across
the background of stars is at first in one direction. Then its motion reverses
direction for a number of days before resuming its original path.
This movement is shown in the diagram below.
T
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(i) What is this motion called? ___________________________________ [1]
(ii) Which model of the solar system was able to explain this motion?
State the main feature of this model.
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________ [2]
54
(c) Observations of light from the stars in distant galaxies tells us that the galaxies
are moving away, in other words space is expanding. The table below gives
some information on the distance to some of our closest galaxies, and the speed
with which they are moving away. Our own galaxy, the Milky Way, is
included in the table.
Galaxy Distance from the Milk Way Speed in km/s

in millions of light years
Milky Way (our galaxy) 0 0
Virgo 80 1200
Persues 350 5400
Hercules 650 10000
Ursa Major 1000 15000
The astronomer Erwin Hubble, in a law named after him, proposed that the
speed of the galaxy v and the distance d to the galaxy are related by the
equation:
v = Hd
where H is a constant known as Hubble’s constant.
(i)
T
To test the validity of Hubble’s Law a graph can be drawn.
What quantity would you plot on:
AF
The x – axis ________________
The y – axis ________________ [2]

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(ii) Using the measurements in the table and the grid below draw a graph to
test the validity of Hubble’s Law. [4]
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(iii) Does the graph validate Hubble’s Law? Explain your answer.
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________ [3]
56
7 (a) A bicycle generator uses a magnet rotating near a coil to produce an
alternating current (a.c.).
(i) Sketch on the axes below how this alternating current varies with time.
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[1]
(ii) Explain how an alternating current differs from a direct current (d.c.).
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________ [2]
57
(b) Power stations use much larger generators to produce electricity. This
electricity is connected to the grid which supplies electricity to homes and
businesses. Transformers play an important role in this distribution of
electrical energy. The diagram below shows how electricity from the power
station is distributed to homes.
(i) Write the names of the types of transformer in the appropriate boxes.
[1]
(ii) In the appropriate boxes, label the part of the distribution system where
the voltage is high and another part where it is much lower. [1]
(iii)
T
Why are high voltages used in the distribution of electricity?
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__________________________________________________________ [1]
(c) An iron core is a major part of the construction of a transformer.

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(i) Complete the diagram to show the other main components.

Label each component. Mark clearly on your diagram the part that the
input voltage is applied to and the part that provides the output voltage. [3]
58
(ii) Is the output voltage a.c. or d.c?
________________ [1]
8 (a) Explain fully how the various wires and other components within a three pin
plug protect the user from electric shock should a fault occur.

_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
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_______________________________________________________________
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_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
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_______________________________________________________________ [6]
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59
(b) To test the wiring of a three-pin plug connected to a metal kettle the equipment
shown below was set up. C1 and C2 are metal clips. C1 is connected to the
metal body of the kettle.
When clip C2 is connected to the earth pin of the three-pin plug what should be
observed if the wiring of the plug is correct? Explain your answer.
T
_______________________________________________________________
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_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
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_______________________________________________________________ [3]
(c) An electric fire with a rating of 2kW is left on for 3 hours.

D
Calculate the cost of this if electricity costs 14 pence per kilowatt-hour.
Cost = ________ pence [2]
60
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___________________________________________

___________________________________________
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Centre Number
71
Candidate Number

2011
Science: Physics
Unit P2
Higher Tier
[CODE]
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SPECIMEN PAPER
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TIME
1 hour 45 minutes
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at the top of the page.
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Answer all questions. For Examiner’s
use only
Question
Marks
INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES Number
1
The total mark for this paper is 115.
2
Figures in brackets printed down the right-hand side of pages indicate the
Quality of written communication will be assessed in questions 2(b) and 4
6(b)(ii).
5
6
7
8
9
Total
Marks
63
1 (a) The diagram below shows water waves approaching the boundary between deep
water and shallow water. Jack records his observations of the refracted waves.
(i) What two errors have been made by Jack?
1 ___________________________________________________________
T
2 ___________________________________________________________ [2]
AF
(ii) On the diagram below show how the refracted waves would travel in the
shallow water.
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[3]
64
(b) Jane stands in front of a plane mirror as shown below.
By drawing appropriate rays on the diagram determine the shortest length of
mirror needed to allow Jane is to see all of her face, i.e. from the top of her
head to the bottom of her chin.
T Shortest length of mirror = ________________ cm [3]

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65
(c) A ray of light is shone into a rectangular glass block as shown below.
(i) The critical angle for the glass is 41°. Explain what this means.
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________ [2]
(ii) The path of the ray through the glass allows it to strike the shorter side.
The ray meets the shorter side at angle to the normal of 50º.
Complete the diagram to show the path of the ray through and out of the
glass block.
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[3]
(iii) Explain why the light follows the path you have drawn at the side BC.
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________ [2]
66
2 (a) An object O is placed in front of a convex lens as shown below.
(i) On the diagram, using a ruler, draw rays that can be used to locate the
position of the image. The image should be clearly marked. [4]
(ii) The diagram is full scale. How far from the centre of the lens L is the
image formed?
T
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Distance of image from L = ________________cm [2]
(iii) Which of the properties listed below describe the image formed?
R
Ring those three that are correct.

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Real Virtual
Magnified Diminished
Upright Inverted
[3]
67
(b) Describe and explain how you would measure the focal length of a convex lens.
State the measurements you would take and how you would improve the accuracy
of your measurement. You may use the space below to illustrate your answer
with a diagram.

_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
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_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
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_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
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_________________________________________________________________
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_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________ [6]
68
3 (a) (i) In the boxes below write the names of the various groups of
electromagnetic waves in order of increasing wavelength (as shown by
the arrow). Some have been done for you.
[3]
(ii) The microwaves used in a microwave oven have a frequency of

2.45 × 109Hz. The speed of light is 3 × 108m/s.
Calculate the wavelength of these microwaves.
T
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Wavelength = ________________ m [3]
69
(b) Sonar uses ultrasound to detect objects under water.
To measure the distance to the ocean floor the submarine emits a pulse of
ultrasound downwards.
(i) The echo of this pulse is detected 0.4s after it was emitted. The speed of
ultrasound in water is 1500m/s.
Calculate the distance from the submarine to the floor of the ocean.
T
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Distance to the ocean floor = ________________ [4]
(ii) Radar uses electromagnetic waves to detect the flying aircraft. Explain
why Sonar would not be an appropriate method for this.
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________ [2]
70
(c) When an earthquake happens waves are sent out from the site of the quake.
These are known as P waves and S waves. The P waves are longitudinal waves
and the S waves are transverse waves.
Describe how the particles that make up the rocks of the earth move when each
type of wave passes.
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________ [3]
4 John is carrying out an investigation on the properties of shadows.

He places a wooden object between the source of light and a screen as shown in the
diagram below.
T
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He moves the screen further from the object. The distance between the screen and
the object D, is measured. For each distance D, the height of the shadow on the
screen is measured.
John’s results are shown in the table below.
Distance D in cm 20 30 40 50 60
Height of the shadow H in cm 8 10 12 14 11
(a) John has incorrectly recorded one of the values for the height H. Circle this
incorrect value in the table. Write in the space below the correct value for H.
Correct value for H = ________________ cm [2]
71
(b) (i) Plot a graph showing John’s measurements on the grid below. Make
sure to use the corrected value of H.
T
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[5]
(ii) State if the height (H) of the shadow is proportional to distance (D)
between the object and the screen. Give a reason for your answer.
___________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________ [2]
(iii) Use your graph to find the height of the wooden object.
Height of wooden object = ________________cm [1]
72
5 (a) Three resistors are connected to a battery as shown in the circuit below.
(i) Calculate the total resistance of the circuit.
T
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Resistance = ________________ Ω [4]
(ii) Calculate the current through the 24Ω resistor.
R
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Current = ________________ A [2]
(iii) A piece of wire of negligible resistance is connected between the points X

and Y. Calculate the current that flows through the 24Ω resistor.
Current = ________________ Α [2]
73
(b) Complete the circuit diagram below by adding an ammeter, a voltmeter and a
device which will allow a pupil to investigate how the current passing through a
particular component changes as the voltage across it is varied.
T [3]
AF
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(c) For each of the graphs shown below, state the component that would produce
the graph. Write the name of the component in the space provided.
(i)
________________ [1]
(ii)
T
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________________ [1]
(iii)
________________ [1]
75
(d) The resistance of a piece of wire depends on its length and its cross sectional area.
(i) On the axes below draw the shape of the graph that would be obtained if the
resistance of different lengths of copper wire was measured, the cross
sectional area of each wire being the same.
[1]
(ii) On the axes below draw the shape of the graph that would be obtained if the
T
resistance of copper wire of different cross sectional areas was measured,
the length of each being the same.
AF
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[1]
76
6 (a) An electric fire with a rating of 2kW is left on for 3 hours.
Calculate the cost of this if electricity costs 14 pence per kilowatt-hour.
Cost = ________________ pence [2]
(b) (i) A label on an electric motor gives the following information:
T
AF
.
Use the information on the label to calculate the fuse which should be used
in the plug connected to the motor.
The available fuses are: 1A, 3A, 5A and 13A.
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Fuse = ________________ A [4]
77
(ii) Explain carefully how the various wires and other components within the
three pin plug protect the user from electric shock should a fault occur
within the motor.
In this question you will be assessed on your written communication

skills including the use of specialist science terms.
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
T
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
AF
_____________________________________________________________ [6]
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78
(c) To test the wiring of a three-pin plug connected to a metal kettle the equipment
shown below was set up. C1 and C2 are metal clips, C1 is connected to the
metal body of the kettle.
When clip C2 is connected to the earth pin of the three-pin plug what should be
observed if the wiring of the plug is correct?
T
________________________________________________________________
AF
________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________
R
________________________________________________________________ [3]
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79
7 (a) The diagram below shows the Sun.
On the diagram, draw carefully and label the path:
(i) a planet would take [1]
(ii) a moon would take [1]
(iii) State one property of the motion of the planets that suggests our solar
T
system was formed from a gas cloud (nebula).
____________________________________________________________
AF
____________________________________________________________ [1]
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(b) Observations of light from the stars in distant galaxies tell us that the galaxies
are moving away, in other words space is expanding. How do we know from
observations that a galaxy is moving away from us?
________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________ [2]
(c) (i) The table below gives some information on distance to some of our
closest galaxies and the speed with which they are moving away.
Our own galaxy, the Milky Way, is included in the table.
Galaxy Distant from the Milky Speed in km/s

Way in millions of light
years
Milky Way (our galaxy) 0 0
Virgo 80 1200
Persues 350 5400
Hercules 650 10 000
Ursa Major 1000 15 000
T
The astronomer Erwin Hubble, in a law named after him, proposed that
the speed of the galaxy v and the distance d to the galaxy are related by
AF
the equation:
v = Hd
where H is a constant known as Hubble’s constant.
R
To test the validity of Hubble’s Law a graph can be drawn.

What quantity would you plot on:
D
the x–axis ________________
the y–axis ________________ [2]
81
(ii) Using the measurements in the table and grid below draw a graph to test the
validity of Hubble’s Law.
T
AF
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[4]
(iii) Does the graph validate Hubble’s Law? Explain your answer.
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________ [3]
82
8 (a) The diagram below shows a wire coil and a strong magnet. The coil is
connected to a sensitive ammeter which has a zero at the centre of its scale.
Describe and explain carefully what you would observe with this apparatus
when the following actions take place.
(i) The magnet is moved towards the coil.
__________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________ [1]
(ii) The magnet is placed at rest inside the coil.
T
__________________________________________________________
AF
__________________________________________________________ [1]
(iii) The magnet is then pulled back out of the coil.

R
__________________________________________________________
D
__________________________________________________________ [2]
83
(b) The diagram below shows the layout of a power pack that is found in most
schools. The power pack contains a transformer. There is a moveable switch
which can be turned so it touches the contacts A to K, this allows the output
voltage (secondary voltage) to be varied.
(i)
T
The input primary voltage is 240V.
AF
The maximum value of the output voltage is 20V.
The primary coil has 6,000 turns of wire.
Calculate the number of turns on the secondary coil.
R
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Number of turns on secondary = ________________ [3]
There are 50 turns of wire between consecutive pairs of terminals A to K, i.e.

between A and B there are 50 turns and B and C there are 50 turns and so on.
(ii) In what voltage steps can the secondary voltage output be varied?
Voltage step = ________________ V [3]
84
9 Michael carries out an investigation into the expansion of a metal as it is heated.
He measures the length of a metal bar at various temperatures.
His results are shown in the table below.
Table 1
Temperature in °C 0 20 40 60 80
Length of the bar in mm 2017.96 2018.42 2018.88 2019.32 2019.77
The expansion of the bar at a particular temperature is defined as:
Expansion of the bar = length at that particular temperature – length at 0°C
Michael predicts that the expansion of the metal bar is proportional to the rise in
temperature of the bar.
(a) Complete the table 2 below using values for temperature rise against
expansion of the metal bar.
Table 2
Temperature rise
in °C
T
AF
Expansion of the bar
in mm
[2]
R
(b) Michael’s prediction is correct. Show how the values given in table 2 support
this.
D
Do not draw a graph. Show all calculations in the space below.
[3]
85
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___________________________________________

___________________________________________
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86
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MARK SCHEMES DIVIDER PAPER FRONT
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MARK SCHEMES DIVIDER PAPER BACK
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Science: Physics
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GENERAL
MARKING
INSTRUCTIONS
89
General Marking Instructions and Mark Grids
Introduction
Mark schemes are intended to ensure that the GCSE examination is marked consistently and fairly.
The mark schemes provide markers with an indication of the nature and range of candidates’
responses likely to be worthy of credit. They also set out the criteria that they should apply in
allocating marks to candidates’ responses. The mark schemes should be read in conjunction with
these marking instructions.
Quality of candidates’ responses

In marking the examination papers, examiners should be looking for a quality response reflecting
the level of maturity which may reasonably be expected of a 16-year-old which is the age at which
the majority of candidates sit their GCSE examinations.
Flexibility in marking
Mark schemes are not intended to be totally prescriptive. No mark scheme can cover all the
responses which candidates may produce. In the event of unanticipated answers, examiners are
expected to use their professional judgement to assess the validity of answers. If an answer is
particularly problematic, then examiners should seek the guidance of the Supervising Examiner.
Positive marking
T
Examiners must be positive in their marking, giving appropriate credit for description, explanation
and analysis, using knowledge and understanding and for the appropriate use of evidence and
reasoned argument to express and evaluate personal responses, informed insights and differing
AF
viewpoints. Examiners should make use of the whole of the available mark range of any particular
question and be prepared to award full marks for a response which is as good as might reasonably
be expected of a 16-year-old GCSE candidate.
Awarding zero marks

R
Marks should only be awarded for valid responses and no marks should be awarded for an answer
which is completely incorrect or inappropriate.
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Types of mark scheme

Mark Schemes for questions which require candidates to respond in extended written form are
marked on the basis of levels of response which take account of the quality of written
communication.
Other questions which require only short answers are marked on a point for point basis with marks
awarded for each valid piece of information provided.
90
2011
Science: Physics
Foundation Paper 1
[CODE]
SPECIMEN
T
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MARK
SCHEME
91
1 (a) (i) 650J [1]
(ii) Efficiency = useful output energy/input energy
Work and power are alternatives to energy.

Input and output alone are not acceptable. [1]
(iii) 350/1000 [1] = 0.35 or 35% [1]
The method is not required for full marks.

1 mark may be awarded for correct substitution of values if the final
value is incorrect. [2]
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92
(b) Indicative content
Wind farms – not reliable – constant supply of input energy is not constant
since the wind is not constant
Nuclear power station – reliable – constant supply of input energy in the form
of heat from nuclear fission
Coal fired power station – reliable – constant supply of input energy in the
form of chemical energy from coal
Response Mark
Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to describe fully with
reasons the reliability and primary source of energy for all three types of
[5–6]
electricity generation. They use good spelling, grammar and punctuation and the
form and style are of a high standard.
Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to describe the reliability of
two types of electricity generation with reasons and they identify clearly the primary
[3–4]
source of energy in only two of the cases. They use satisfactory spelling, grammar
T
and punctuation and the form and style are of a satisfactory standard.
AF
Candidates describe the reliability correctly but fail to clearly identify the reasons,
they identify the primary source of energy in only two of the cases. Their spelling,
[1–2]
grammar, punctuation, form and style are of a limited standard and little use is made
of appropriate specialist terms.
R
Response not worthy of credit [0]

D
[6]
93
(c) (i) Oil/gas/coal/nuclear [1]
Explanation – have a limited supply [1] [2]
(ii) Hydroelectric/wind [1]

Explanation – have an infinite supply/will not run out [1] [2]
(iii) Does not release greenhouse gases [1]

Carbon dioxide named in the answer [1] [2]
(iv) Answer – uranium [1] [1]
[17]
T
AF
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94
2 (a) (i) Mass is the amount of matter in an object or a measure of the number [1]
of atoms/molecules in an object or is an unchanging property of
an object
Weight is the pull or the force of gravity on an object. [1]
(ii) Multiply the mass in kg [1]

by 10 [1] [2]
(b) (i) Arrow to the right – labelled forward/pulling/engine force [1]

Arrow to the left – labelled friction [1] [2]
(ii) They are equal [1]
(iii) Acceleration = change of speed/time taken [1]

= (20 – 2)/3 or 18/3 [1]
= 6(m/s2) [1]
T
1 mark may be awarded for the recall of the equation
The second line is worth 2 marks as it is a substituted equation [3]
AF
(c) (i) Arrow towards the centre labelled F
No label give [0] [1]
(ii) Arrow up or down the page labelled v

R
No label give [0] [1]
Increases [1]
D
(iii)
[13]
95
3 (a) (i) Smallest division = 2cm3

For identifying that 5 divisions = 10cm3 give 1 mark [2]
(ii) 36 – 18 [1]
= 18cm3 [1]
The method is not required for full marks. [2]
(iii) mass M
Density = or D = [1]
volume V
36
= [1]
18
Density = 2g/cm3 [1]
(iv) A C D [1]
They are on a straight line [1]
That passes through the origin (0,0) [1]
T
Mark each line independently [3]
AF
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96
• Solids, liquids and gases are made up of atoms/molecules
• In solids the atoms/molecules are vibrating
• Heat gives them more kinetic energy
• This causes more vigorous vibrating
• When some of them overcome the bonds the solid turns to liquid
• As more energy is given to the liquid the remaining atoms/molecules
overcome the bonds and a gas is formed.
Response Mark
Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to describe and explain
fully all the changes of state and clearly link the energy supplied with increased
[5–6]
vibration and the spacing between atoms/molecules. They use good spelling,
grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a high standard.
Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to describe and explain the
changes of state, however, the linking between energy supplied, increased vibration
[3–4]
and spacing of atoms/molecules is not always present. They use satisfactory
T
spelling, grammar, punctuation and the form and style are of a satisfactory standard.
AF
Candidates make limited use of specialist terms to describe the changes of state,
however, linking between energy supplied, increased vibration and spacing of
[1–2]
atoms/molecules is not given. Their spelling, punctuation, grammar, form and style
are of a limited standard.
R

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[6]
[16]
97
4 (a) (i) Work = Force × Distance or W = F × D or 400 × 3 [1]
Work done = 1200(J) [1]
(ii) Work done

Power = or P = W [1]
Time Taken t
=1200/6 [1]
=200(W) [1]
Allow ecf from (i)
Method not required for full marks [3]
(b) KE = ½mv2 [1]

½ × 0.005 × 202 [1]
Kinetic energy = 1(J) [1]
Failure to convert g to kg will give an answer of 1000(J), gives a
maximum of 2 marks [3]
[8]
T
AF
5 (a) (i) Average values of S: 110 [1] and 120 [1] cm [2]
(ii) Both axes labelled [2]

4 points correctly plotted [2]
½ each round down
R
Smooth curve through the point [1] [5]

D
98
(iii) S is not proportional to H [1]
Explanation – a straight line passing through origin cannot be drawn
through the points. [2]
or S does not double when H doubles [1] [3]
[10]
6 (a) (i) From the left – clockwise: electron, neutron, proton [1]
all needed for 1 mark
(ii) It (the atom) contains the same number of electrons as protons [2]
Allow 1 mark for: Accept equal amounts/numbers of positive and
negative charges
(iii) 3 [1] is the number of neutrons and protons/mass number [1]

2 [1] is the number of protons/atomic number [1] [4]
(b) (i) Fast moving electron [1]
T
After 46 days for this time [1]
AF
(ii)
its activity or number of unstable atoms or nuclei will decrease to half
the initial value[1] [2]
[10]
R
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7 (i) 600 [1] ÷ 30 =

20 [1] α particles per second [2]
(ii) 13cm
12 or 14 give 1 mark [2]
(iii) Background activity [1], will be detected [1] [2]
[6]
99
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AF
BLANK PAGE
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100
2011
Science: Physics
Higher Paper 1
[CODE]
T SPECIMEN
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MARK
SCHEME
101
1 (a) (i) It does not release greenhouse gases [1]
Carbon dioxide named in the answer [1] [2]
(ii) Radioactive waste [1]

Requiring storage for thousands of years [1] [2]
(iii) Less [1]
(iv) Shutting down [1]
(v) Special precautions dealing with radioactive materials [1]
(vi) Not reliable or wind not always present

[1]
(vii) Destroys the habitats of animals or noisy

[1]
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102
Wind farms – not reliable – constant supply of input energy is not constant since
the wind is not constant
Nuclear power station - reliable – constant supply of input energy in the form of
heat from nuclear fission
Coal fired power station – reliable – constant supply of input energy in the form
of chemical energy from coal
Response Mark
Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to describe fully with
reasons the reliability and primary source of energy for all three types of electricity
[5–6]
generation. They use good spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and
style are of a high standard.
Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to describe the reliability of
two types of electricity generation with reasons and they identify clearly the primary
[3–4]
source of energy in only two of the cases. They use satisfactory spelling, grammar
T
AF
Candidates describe the reliability correctly but fail to clearly identify the reasons,
they identify the primary source of energy in only two of the cases. Their spelling,
[1–2]
grammar, punctuation, form and style are of a limited standard and little use is made
of appropriate specialist terms.
R

D
[6]
[15]
103
2 (a) (i) Any two from:
• Weight acting vertically down
• Friction upwards along the slope
• Reaction force acting up at right angles to slope [2]
(ii) v = u + at or 0 = 27 − at [1]
t = 27/6 [1]
Time taken = 4.5s [1]
(iii) F = ma or F = 1000 × 6 = 6000N [1]

Additional Force = 6000 – 5000 [1]
= 1000N [1]

Each step can be awarded 1 mark as shown if full credit cannot be
given [3]
T
AF
R
D
104
Relating to OA
• constant acceleration
• resultant force is the weight minus air resistance
Relating to BC
• acceleration is zero.
• weight and the air resistance cancel so resultant force is zero
Relating to DE
• constant deceleration
• upward resultant force due to the air resistance provided by parachute
being greater than the weight.
Response Mark
Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to describe accurately

the accelerations, linking each explicitly with their explanation of resultant force.
[5–6]
They use good spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a
high standard.
T
AF
Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to describe partially at least
2 of the observations, linking each with their explanation of resultant force. They
[3–4]
use satisfactory spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a
satisfactory standard.
R
Candidates describe some of the observations but the linking with resultant force is
D
unclear. Their spelling, punctuation, grammar, form and style are of a limited [1–2]
standard and little use is made of appropriate specialist terms.
[6]
[14]
105
3 (a) (i) A C D [1]
They are on a straight line [1]
That passes through the origin (0,0) [1]
Mark each line independently [3]
(ii) 4 × 3.5 = 14g [1]

• Solids, liquids and gases are made up of atoms/molecules
• In solids the atoms/molecules are vibrating
• Heat gives them more kinetic energy
• This causes more vigorous vibrating
• When some of them overcome the bonds the solid turns to liquid
• As more energy is given to the liquid the remaining
atoms/molecules overcome the bonds and a gas is formed.
Response Mark
Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to describe and explain
T
fully all the changes of state and clearly link the energy supplied with increased
[5–6]
vibration and the spacing between atoms/molecules. They use good spelling,
AF
Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to describe and explain the
changes of state, however the linking between energy supplied, increased vibration
and spacing of atoms/molecules is not always present. They use satisfactory [3–4]
R
spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a
D
Candidates make limited use of specialist terms to describe the changes of state,
however linking between energy supplied, increased vibration and spacing of
[1–2]
atoms/molecules is not given. Their spelling, punctuation, grammar, form and style
are of a limited standard.
[6]
[10]
106
4 (a) (i) Work = Force × Distance or W = F × D or 400 × 3 [1]
Work done = 1200(J) [1]
(ii) Time taken = work/power or t = W/P [1]

= 1200/200 [1]
= 6 s [1]
Guidance – method not required for full marks

The first mark is for a re-arranged equation only [3]
(b) (i) v2 = 2Ek/m [1]

= 2 × 1/0.005 = 400 [1]
v = 20m/s [1]
Guidance – method not required for full marks

The first mark is for a re-arranged equation only
Failure to convert g to kg award max of 2 marks [3]
(ii) Work done = kinetic energy [1]
F=
1
[1]
T
Work done = Force × Distance or 1 = 0.005 × F [1]
AF
0.005
Force = 200(N) [1]
(c) Any four from:

R
• Known or measured weight

• Measured distance e.g. between two markers or length of string
D
• Switch on motor
• Time to move measured distance
• Use of the appropriate formula to calculate power
• Repeat find an average [4]
[16]
107
5 (a) (i) To get a more accurate value [1]
To reduce errors/mistakes [1] [2]

4 points correctly plotted [2]
½ each round down
Smooth curve through the point [1]
[5]
T
AF
(iii) S is not proportional to H [1]
Explanation – a straight line passing through origin cannot be drawn
through the points. [2]
R
or S does not double when H doubles, give [1] [3]

D
[10]
108
6 (a) (i) P marked in the lower right corner of beam. [1]
(ii) Arrow from the centre of the beam (judge by eye) [1]
Acting downwards [1] [2]
(iii) Principle of moment given as ACM = CM or implied [1]

20 000 x 2.5 [1] = F x 4 [1]
50000
F= = 12500(N) [1]
4
(b) (i) Momentum (change) = force x time [1]

50 × 20 [1] = F × 0.1 [1]
1000
F= = 10000 (N) [1]
0.1
OR
Force = mass × acceleration/F=ma [1]
T
=50 × (20/0.1) [1]
=50 × 200 [1]
AF
=10000(N) [1]
(ii) Seat belts increase the time to come to a stop [1]

This reduces the force [1] [2]
R
(iii) Calculations to show this: (0.45)2 /1 = 0.20

(0.63)2 /2 = 0.20
D
(0.77)2 /3 = 0.20
(0.89)2 /4 = 0.20
Each calculation is worth ½ mark round down [2]
C2/H is a constant so the equation is correct [1]
Value of k = 0.20 [1]
Do not penalise values quoted to more than two decimal places. [4]
[17]
109
7 (a) Alpha – He nucleus/2 protons combined with 2 neutrons [1]
Beta – electrons [1]
Gamma – electromagnetic radiation [1] [3]
93 Np + −1 β
U → 238
(b) (i) 238 0
92
Give 1 mark to each correct number on the RHS of the equation [4]
(ii) 92 days
[1]
(c) 13cm [2]

If answer is 12 or 14, give [1] mark only [2]
(d) Gamma [1]

The only radiation that can penetrate the metal of the pipeline [1]
The radiation must be correctly identified before the mark for the
explanation can be given [2]
(e) Indicative content

• Repulsion between nucleus and the alpha particles – so the nucleus is
positively charged
T
• Most of the alpha particles passed through without deflection – so the
AF
nucleus is small
• A few alpha were scattered back – so the nucleus is more massive
Response Mark
R
Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to describe fully all 3
observations, linking each explicitly with its explanation. They use good spelling, [5–6]
D
Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to describe at least 2 of the
observations and their explanation. They use satisfactory spelling, grammar and [3–4]
punctuation and the form and style are of a satisfactory standard.
Candidates describe some of the observations but the explanations are not linked
explicitly to each observation. Their spelling, grammar, punctuation and style are [1–2]
of a limited standard and little use is made of appropriate specialist terms.
[6]
[18]
110
2011
Science: Physics
Foundation Paper 2
[CODE]
SPECIMEN
T
AF
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MARK
SCHEME
111
1 (a) (i) Ray from A to Mirror M2 [1]
Reflected rays from M2 [1]
Judge by eye if the angles of incidence are equal to the angles of

reflection. The ray from M2 should be parallel to the incident ray on M1. [2]
(ii) one correct step in calculations [1] : e.g. 90 – 27 = 63; use of alternate
angles = 27° [1]
Correct answer gets full marks
[2]
(b) Refracted ray towards man’s head [1]

Arrow in correct direction [1]
Arrow can be on either ray.
If the ray from the fish meets the surface perpendicularly and is shown
refracting towards the man award [0] [2]
T
AF
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112
(c) (i) Red above and violet/blue below [1]
(ii) Indicative content

• White light consists of seven (different) colours
• Different colours travel at different speeds in glass
• They take different paths through the glass
• Violet (blue) slowed down most – so refracted most
• Red slowed down least – so refracted least
Response Mark
Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to describe fully the
dispersion of white light. Explanation of refraction in terms of change of speed [5–6]
must be clearly linked with the amount refraction and the colour. They use good
spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a high quality.
Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to describe partially the
dispersion of white light. The explanation of refraction in terms of change of speed
may not be clearly linked with amount of refraction and the colour. They use [3–4]
T
satisfactory spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a
AF
Candidates describe some of the observations but fail to link the explanation of
refraction with the change of speed and the colour. Their spelling, grammar, [1–2]
punctuation, form and style are of a limited standard and little use is made of
appropriate specialist terms.
R

D
[6]
[13]
113
2 (a) (i) Any one from:
• EM waves are transverse
• EM waves can travel through a vacuum
• EM waves travel at the same speed (in a vacuum) [1]
(ii) Gamma Ultra violet Visible Infra red Radio [2]
All five in correct order give [2]

Any three neighbouring in the correct order [1]
(iii) Infra-red [1]

Gamma [1] [2]
(b) (i) First echo – reflection from the lower surface of the ice [1]
Second echo – reflection from the top surface of the ice [1] [2]
(ii) 1500 × 0.4 [1]

2 [1]
300(m) [1]
T
Method is not required for full marks [3]
AF
[10]
R
D
114
3 (a) (i) Top diagram arrow(s) up and down page ↕ [1]
Transverse [1]
Bottom diagram arrow(s) left and right ↔ [1]
Longitudinal [1] [4]
(ii) Energy [1]
(b) (i) 0.3m [1]
(ii) 0.8m [1]
(iii) 3 [1]
Hz [1]
The unit mark may be awarded regardless of the numerical answer even
if no numerical answer shown [2]
(iv) v = fλ [1]
v = 3 x 0.8 [1]
2.4(m/s) [1] [3]
T
Method is not required. Allow full marks for correct answer.
AF
Allow error carried forward (ecf) for wavelength and frequency.
[12]
R
D
115
4 (a) H = 11 ringed [1]
Correct value of H = 16 [1] [2]
(b) (i) Both axes labelled [2]

5 points correctly plotted ½ each round down [2]
Best fit line (with intercept on H axis) [1] [5]
(ii) Conclusion – D and H not proportional [1]

Reason – Line not through origin [1] [2]
T
AF
(iii) Answer consistent with their intercept on the H axis.
Typically 4cm ± 0.2cm [1]
R
[10]
D
5 (a) 8 (Ω) [1]
(b) I=12/8 [1]

1.5(A) [1]
(c) V=IR or V=1.5 × 2 [1]

3V [1]
Allow ecf from (ii) for current
(d) Q = 1.5 x 30 [1]

45 [1] C [1]
Allow ecf from (ii) for current
[8]
116
6 (a) (i) A = Earth [1]
B = Mars [1]
C = Saturn [1] [3]
(ii) Gravity [1]
(b) (i) Retrograde motion [1]
(ii) Heliocentric [1]

Sun at the centre (planets orbit it) [1] [2]
(c) (i) X – axis: Distance [1]

Y – axis: Speed [1] [2]

5 points including 0,0 plotted, ½ each round down [2]
Best line fit [1] [4]
T
AF
R
D
(iii) Hubble’s Law is valid [1]

Straight line [1]
Passing through the origin [1] [3]
[16]
117
7 (a) (i)
The shape is not important as long as the graph cuts the horizontal
time axis [1]
(ii) Alternating current reverses direction (periodically) [1]

Direct current flows in one direction [1] [2]
(b)
(i)
T
2 correct labels for [1] [1]
AF
(ii) 2 correct labels for [1] [1]
(iii) To reduce energy losses (in the cables) [1]

R
(c) (i) Two coils wrapped around iron core [1]

D
Primary labelled and connected to input [1]

Secondary labelled and connected to output [1]
Ignore the number of turns on each coil [3]
(ii) a.c. [1]
[10]
118
8 (a) Indicative content
• Live wire in contact with metal case
• Metal case connected to earth wire
• This offers a low resistance path
• The current becomes very large
• Blowing the fuse
• Disconnecting the motor from the mains supply [6]
Response Mark
Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to describe fully and in
a logical order how the fuse blows to protect the user. They use good spelling, [5–6]
Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to partially describe how the
fuse blows to protect the user. The points shown above are not all in the correct
[3–4]
sequence. They use satisfactory spelling grammar and punctuation and the form
and style are of a satisfactory standard.
T
Candidates describe some of the observations but the sequence is not shown in a
logical order. Their spelling, grammar, punctuation, form and style are of a limited [1–2]
AF
Response not worthy of credit 0

R
(b) The bulb should light [1]

D
There is a conducting path [1]

From the earth pin to the metal kettle [1] [3]
(c) No of kWh = 6 or 3 × 2 [1]

84 pence [1]
[11]
119
T
AF
BLANK PAGE
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120
2011
Science: Physics
Higher Paper 2
[CODE]
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SPECIMEN
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MARK
SCHEME
121
1 (a) (i) Angle of refraction is wrong [1]
Too many drawn [1] [2]
(ii) At least three waves drawn parallel to each other [1]

Angle of refraction correct [1]
Wavelength smaller [1] [3]
(b) 11cm [1]

Ray from top of head to mid point of 10cm section [1]
Ray from the chin to the mid point of the 12cm section [1] [3]
(c) (i) It is the angle of incidence in the glass [1]

Giving an angle of refraction of 90° [1]
Alternate answer:
If the angle of incidence in the glass is greater than 41° [1]
then total internal reflection TIR occurs [1] [2]
(ii) Ray bent towards the normal as it enters the glass [1]
Ray strikes the side BC and is reflected [1]
Ray travels to side CD, bending away from normal as it enters
the air [1]
T [3]
AF
R
D
(iii) The angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle [1]
So total internal reflection occurs [1]
Accept TIR as meaning total internal reflection [2]
[15]
122
2 (a) (i)
Ray from top of O parallel to principal axis refracted through F [1]

Ray from the top of O through centre of lens undeviated [1]
Rays intersect to the right of the lens [1]
Image marked at the intersection of rays [1] [4]
(ii) 2.8 to 3.2cm
Outside this range award only 1 e.g., 2.4 to 2.7 or 3.3 to 3.6 [2]
(iii) Rings around:

Real [1]
Inverted [1]
Diminished [1]
T
Deduct 1 mark for each response greater than three [3]
AF
R
D
123
• Choose a distant object
• The light from this object is parallel rays
• Arrange lens in front of screen
• Move lens until sharp image of object seen on screen
• The image is formed at the focus
• This is the focal length
• Repeat and take average
Response Mark
Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to fully describe the
method to measure the focal length, giving a precise explanation for the choice of
[5–6]
object and the location of the image (using all above points). They use good
spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a high standard.
Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to describe the method used
to measure the focal length (using 5-6 of the above points). Reasons for the choice
of object and location of the image are not fully explained. They use satisfactory [3–4]
T
spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a satisfactory
standard.
AF
Candidates describe the method used to measure the focal length (using some or all
of the above points). Reasons for the choice of object and location of the image are
[1–2]
not explained. Their spelling, grammar, punctuation, form and style are of a limited
R
D
[6]
[15]
124
3 (a) (i) Gamma Ultra violet Visible Infra red Radio [3]
All five in the correct order award 3 marks
Any three neighbouring in the correct order award 1 mark
(ii) v = fλ or λ = v/f [1]

λ = 3×108/2.45×109 [1]
λ = 0.12(m) [1]
(b) (i) Distance = speed × time [1]

1500 × 4 [1]
2 [1]
= 300(m) [1]
(ii) Sound travels more slowly than em waves [1]

Aircraft would have moved a large distance by time reflected wave
returns [1]
or
Sound is absorbed by atmosphere [1]
T
Little sound energy would reach aircraft/reflected back to source [1] [2]
AF
(c) The particles vibrate [1]
In P wave parallel to the direction of propagation [1]
In S waves at right angles in the direction of propagation [1]
Guidance – ‘vibrate’ is essentially for the mark, ‘move’ alone is not
However accept back and forth or up and down [3]
R
[15]
D
125
4 (a) H = 11 ringed [1]
Correct value of H = 16cm [1] [2]
(b) (i) Both axes labelled [2]

5 points correctly plotted ½ each round down [2]
Best fit line – (with intercept on H axis) [1] [5]
(ii) Conclusion – D and H not proportional [1]

Reason – Line not through origin [1] [2]
T
AF
(iii) Answer consistent with their intercept on the H axis typically 4cm ± [1]
0.2cm
R
[10]
D
126
5 (a) (i) 1 1 1
= + [1]
Rt R1 R 2
1 1 1 1 30 + 20
= + or = or equivalent [1]
Rt 20 30 Rt 600
R t = 12 ( Ω ) [1]
Circuit resistance = 12+24 = 36 [1]
(ii) I = V/R [1]

0.33 or 1/3(A) [1]
Method is not required for full marks
Ecf for total resistance from (i) [2]
(iii) For recognising that total resistance is now 24Ω [1]

0.5A [1]
(b) Ammeter in series with battery [1]

Variable resistor in series with battery [1]
Voltmeter in parallel with component [1] [3]
(c) (i)
T
Wire/resistor at constant temperature [1]
AF
(ii) Filament Bulb [1]
(iii) Diode [1]

R
(d) (i) Straight line through the origin [1]

D
(ii) Curve of negative slope [1]
[16]
127
6 (a) No. of kWh = 6 or 3 × 2 [1]
84 pence [1]
(b) (i) P = IV [1]

800 = I × 220 [1]
800
I= = 3.6 [1]
220
5A [1]
(ii) Indicative content

• Live wire in contact with metal case
• Metal case connected to earth wire
• This offers a low resistance path
• The current becomes very large
• Blowing the fuse
• Disconnecting the motor from the mains supply
Response
T Mark
AF
Candidates must use appropriate specialist terms throughout to describe fully and in
a logical order how the fuse blows to protect the user (using all of the above points).
[5–6]
They use good spelling, grammar and punctuation and the form and style are of a
high standard.
R
Candidates must use some appropriate specialist terms to partially describe how the
fuse blows to protect the user (using 4-5 of the above points). The points shown
D
[3–4]
above are not all in the correct sequence. They use satisfactory spelling, grammar
Candidates make limited use of specialist terms to describe some or all of the
observations but the sequence is not shown in a logical order. Their spelling, [1–2]
punctuation, grammar, form and style are of a limited standard.
[6]
(c) The bulb should light [1]

There is a conducting path [1]
From the earth pin to the metal kettle [1] [3]
[15]
128
7 (a) (i)
(ii)
[2]
(iii) Any one from:

• Planets orbit the sun in same direction
• Planets orbit the sun in the same plane [1]
(b) Light from stars in this galaxy [1]

Is red shifted [1] [2]
(c) (i) X – axis: Distance [1]

Y – axis: Speed [1] [2]
(ii)
T
Both axes labelled [1]
AF
Points including 0,0 plotted ½ each round down [2]
Best line fit [1]
R
D
[4]
(iii) Hubble’s Law is valid [1]

Straight line [1]
Passing through the origin [1] [3]
[14]
129
8 (a) (i) The needle on the meter momentarily deflects or
The needle deflects and returns to zero [1]
(ii) The needle is at rest or no deflection [1]
(iii) The needle momentarily deflects [1]

But in the opposite direction [1] [2]
(b) (i) Np/Ns = Vp/Vs [1]

6,000/Ns = 240/20 [1]
500 turns [1]
(ii) 6000/50 = 240/Vs [1]

120 = 240/Vs or Vs = 240/120 [1] for either step
Vs = 2V [1]
Method is not required for full marks. If final answer incorrect, allow
[1] mark for identifying 50 turns as 1/10 of total [3]
[10]
9 (a) Temperature Rise

T20 40 60 80
AF
Expansion 0.46 0.92 1.36 1.81 [2]
½ each correct column round down
(b) Ratio of expansion/temp rise = constant [1]

R
Each value shown ½ mark round down [2]

0.46/20 = 0.23, 0.92/40 = 0.23
1.36/60 = 0.23, 1.81/80 = 0.23
D
allow marks for inverse approach [3]
[5]
130
T
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CONTROLLED ASSESSMENT DIVIDER FRONT
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131
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CONTROLLED ASSESSMENT DIVIDER BACK
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132
GCSE Physics
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CONTROLLED
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ASSESSMENT TASK (CAT)

AND
GUIDANCE NOTES FOR
TEACHERS
133
Controlled Assessment Task (CAT) – Efficiency: Electric Motors
An energy efficiency rating must, by law, be shown on all fridges, freezers,

fridge/freezers, washing machines, tumble dryers, washer dryers, dishwashers,
electric ovens and light bulb packaging in the UK. A more energy efficient
product will help you cut down your energy usage, and therefore reduce your
gas and electricity bills.
Many of these products contain electric motors, the efficiency of which

contributes to the overall energy efficiency rating of the product.
Plan and carry out an investigation on one or more of the different factors that
affect the efficiency of an electric motor.
Guidance Notes for Teachers
Candidates should be given the opportunity to carry out an investigation on one of the different
factors which affect the % efficiency of an electric motor.
Candidates should identify the independent variables as either the load (mass) lifted, the height
T
through which the load is lifted or the voltage supplied.
AF
One possible method might be to measure the total energy input of the motor using the
voltmeter/ammeter method, however joulemeters may be used if available. The useful energy
output is calculated by measuring the load and the vertical distance moved and applying the
equation PE = mgh. The % efficiency can then be found for each load.
R
Note: This is only one suggested method. Candidates should be encouraged to engage with the
scientific process by making their own planning decisions.
D
Candidates will be expected to process their results so that they calculate at least five % efficiencies
for a range of the chosen independent variable. This data must be contained within their results
table and will be required for plotting a line graph in the formally assessed Part C of the controlled
assessment task (CAT).
During the CAT, candidates must complete Part A: Planning and Risk Assessment and Part B:
Data Collection in the Pupil Response Booklet A enclosed with this document. Part A is to be
carried out under medium supervision and is formally assessed. Part B is to be carried out under
limited supervision and is not formally assessed.
Candidates must complete Part C: Processing, Analysis and Evaluation in Pupil Response Booklet
B enclosed with this document. Part C of the CAT is carried out under high control and is formally
assessed.
Confidentiality
These guidance notes and subsequent Candidate Response Booklet B must be kept confidential at
all times and stored in a secure place e.g. a metal lockable cabinet.
134
Health and Safety
Centre must ensure that all health and safety issues are addressed and that teachers supervise
candidates to ensure that there is compliance with the necessary health and safety requirements
during the data collection part of the CAT.
Marking
Part A of the CAT should be marked using the generic mark descriptors for Planning and Risk
Assessment as detailed in section 6.6 of the specification.
Part C of the CAT should be marked using the mark scheme provided.
Please refer to the specification for more detailed guidance on the procedures and controls for
carrying out the controlled assessment task.
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135
T
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BLANK PAGE
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136
2011
GCSE Physics
Controlled Assessment Task
Candidate Response Booklet A
SPECIMEN
T
Efficiency: Electric Motors
AF
An energy efficiency rating must, by law, be shown on all fridges, freezers,
fridge/freezers, washing machines, tumble dryers, washer dryers, dishwashers,
electric ovens and light bulb packaging in the UK. A more energy efficient
product will help you cut down your energy usage, and therefore reduce your
gas and electricity bills.
R
Many of these products contain electric motors, the efficiency of which

D
contributes to the overall energy efficiency rating of the product.
Plan and carry out an investigation on one or more of the different factors that
affect the efficiency of an electric motor.
Part A: Planning and Risk Assessment (Maximum of 18 marks)

Part B: Data Collection
Quality of written communication will be assessed in Part A
Date: ______________________ Candidate Name: _________________________________
Teacher Moderator
Mark Mark
Signature of candidate: ___________________________ Planning
Risk
Assessment
Signature of teacher
marking this booklet: _____________________________ Total
137
Part A: Planning and Risk Assessment
When completing your Hypothesis and Plan you will be assessed on your written communication
skills, including the use of specialist, scientific terms.
Your Hypothesis (Say what you think will happen.)
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Your Plan
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140
Risk Assessment
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141
Part B: Data Collection
Draw a blank results table. Use this to record and process your data.
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Centre Number
71
Candidate Number
2011
GCSE Physics
Controlled Assessment Task
Candidate Response Booklet B
Part C: Processing, Analysis and Evaluation
Instructions
• Use blue or black ink.
• Complete your candidate name and centre number.
• Answer all questions in the spaces provided.
Information to candidates T
• The maximum mark for this paper is 27.
• The marks are shown in brackets
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• You may consult all the information and results contained in your Candidate Response Booklet A.
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Question Teacher Mark Moderator Mark

1
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2
3
4 Teacher Moderator
5 Total Total
6
Date: ______________________ Candidate Name: ___
Signature of candidate: _______________________________
Signature of teacher marking this booklet: ________________________________________
143
1 On the graph grid below, use the information in your results table to plot an
appropriate graph. Remember to draw a line of best fit.
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[4]
144
2 Use your results and information from your graph to explain what you found
out in your investigation and whether this agreed with the hypothesis you made
at the start.
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_______________________________________________________________ [5]
3 (a) State one factor that you kept the same in your investigation. Explain how this
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made it a fair test.
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_______________________________________________________________ [2]
145
(b) If you were doing your experiment again, state one improvement you would
make and explain why you would make it.
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_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________ [2]
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146
4 An electric crane manufacturer carries out a number of tests on the efficiency
of the electric motor used in one of its electric cranes. The results for each test
are shown below and overleaf on graphs 1–3.
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Graph 1
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147
T
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Graph 2
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Graph 3
148
(a) Which graph is from an investigation most similar to your own?
_______________________________________________________________
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_______________________________________________________________ [2]
The following questions relate to the graph you have chosen in part 4(a).
(b) Are there any anomalous results in the graph you have chosen?
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________ [2]
(c) Describe fully the trend shown by the results on the graph and compare this
trend with the results for your own investigation.
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149
5 Compare the largest % efficiency in your experiment with the largest % efficiency
plotted on the graph you have chosen in Question 4(a).
(a) What is the largest % efficiency plotted:

(i) On your chosen graph: ________%
(ii) On your own graph: ________% [1]
(b) Estimate the ratio of the above % efficiencies.
_____________________ [1]
(c) Look at the graph you have chosen. Could this experiment be carried out in
the school science laboratory? Give a reason for your answer.
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_______________________________________________________________ [1]
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6 Look carefully at graph 3.
(a) Draw a best fit line for this graph.
[1]
(b) Estimate the % efficiency of the motor when the operating voltage is 40V.
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________________V [1]
(c) The manufacturer recommends that the motor should not be used at an
operating voltage of <100V. Explain why this is the case.
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_______________________________________________________________ [2]
150
2011
GCSE Physics
Controlled Assessment
[CODE]
SPECIMEN
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MARK
SCHEME
(Part C – Processing, Analysis, Evaluation)
151
GCSE Physics – Controlled Assessment Task
Efficiency: Electric Motors Text
Marking Guidelines – Part C (Processing, Analysis and Evaluation)

Answer Mark Additional Guidance
1 X axis: scaled correctly, labelled
with correct quantity and unit [1]
Tolerance for plotting points is +/- 1 small
Y axis: scaled correctly, labelled
[2] square both vertically and horizontally.
with correct quantity and unit [1]
Allow one plotting error.
Points plotted correctly [1]
Line of best fit drawn correctly [1]
2 Valid statement which reflects the [1]

trend seen.
Reference to graph/results [1]
Links the independent and

dependent variable. [1]
Correctly states if outcomes

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agree/disagree with hypothesis [1]
Valid statement explaining why

their conclusion either
agrees/disagrees with their
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hypothesis [1]
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3(a) Any controlled variable [1] Allow weight for load/mass
Only one factor can be changed [1] No mark for “To make it a fair test”
3(b) States one valid improvement [1]
A variety of responses may be worthy of

Explains correctly why credit. Teachers should use their
improvement should be made [1] professional judgement when considering
these responses
152
Question Answer Mark Additional Guidance
4(a) Graph 1, 2 or 3 as appropriate to
candidate’s own independent
variable [1]
Same independent variable

or equivalent [1]
4(b) Graph 1: Yes

Explanation: 150kg for load does
not fit the pattern/trend.
or
Graph 2: Yes
Explanation: 25m result for
height does not fit the Accept “One result does not fit the
[2]
pattern/trend pattern/trend”
or
Graph 3: Yes
Explanation: 30V result for
voltage does not fit the
pattern/trend.
4(c) Graph 1:
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Increases at start [1]
Then decreases [1]
or
Graph 2:
As height increases, efficiency
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increases [1]
Graph not linear (or equivalent)
[1]
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or
Graph 3:
(linear) increase at start [1]
Then levels off [1] [2]
Valid comparison with their own
results [1]
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5(a) Correctly reads maximum % Must be exact
efficiency from both chosen graph
and own results [1]
5(b) Correct ratio calculated [1] Allow inverse ratio
5(c) Values too large [1] Allow correct reference to safety
6(a) Line of best fit drawn correctly [1]
6(b) Efficiency is 3.2(%) +/- 0.2(%) [1] Allows +/- 0.2(%) efficiency
This equates to +/- 1small square
6(c) Below 100V [1]
The efficiency decreases [1]
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Mark Specification Grid
GCSE Physics – Controlled Assessment Task
Assessment Objectives
AO2 AO3 HSW
Part A w – (ii)a
Planning and Risk 18

Assessment
Part B
Data Collection
Part C Question
1 4 w(iii)c
Processing, Analysis 2 5 w(i)a
and Evaluation 3(a)
3(b)
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2
w(ii)a
w(ii)d
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4(a) 2 w(i)a
4(b) 2 w(iii)a
4(c) 3 w(iii)a
5(a) 1 w(iii)a
5(b) 1
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5(c) 1 w(iii)a
6(a) 1 w(iii)a
6(b) 1 w(iii)c
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6(c) 2
Totals 23 22

Mark Specification Grid
Science: Physics
Unit 1 Foundation Specimen Paper
Question Spec Ref AO 1 AO2 AO3 Low Standard HSW
G-E D-C
1. (a)(i) 1.2.1 1 1
(ii) 1.2.4 1 1 w-(iii) a
(iii) 1.2.4 2 2 w-(iii) a
(b) 1.2.1 6 6 w-(iii)c
(c) 1.2.3 2 2 w-(iii)a
1.2.3 2 2 w-(iii)a
1.2.3 2 2 w-(iii)a
1.2.3 1 1 w-(iii)a
2. (a)(i) 1.1.10 2 2 w-(iii) a
(ii) 1.1.10 2 2 w-(iii) a
(b)(i) 1.1.6 2 2 w-(iii)-a
(ii) 1.1.6 1 1 w-(iii) a
(iii) 1.1.3 1 2 3 w-(iii) a
(c)(i) 1.1.17 1 1 w-(iii) a
(ii) 1.1.17 1 1 w-(iii) a
(iii) 1.1.17 1 1 w-(iii) a
3. (a)(i) 1.1.12 2 2 w-(i),b
(ii) 1.1.12 2 2 w-(i),b
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(iii) 1.1.13 1 2 3 w-(iii)a
(iv) 1.1.13 3 3 w-(i),a
(b) 1.1.14 3 3 6 w-(iii) a
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4. (a)(i) 1.2.7 1 1 2 w-(iii) a
(ii) 1.2.8 1 2 3 w-(iii) a
(b) 1.2.10 1 2 3 w-(iii) a
5.(i) Math req 2 2 w-(i),a
(ii) Math req 5 5 w-(i),a
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(iii) Math req 3 3 w-(iii) c

6. (a)(i) 1.4.4 1 1 w-(iii) a
(ii) 1.4.4 2 2 w-(iii) a
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1.4.5
(iii) 1.4.6 2 2 4 w-(iii) a
(b)(i) 1.4.9 1 1 w-(iii) a
(ii) 1.4.14 2 2 w-(iii) a
7.(i) 1.4.11 2 2 w-(i) b
(ii) 1.4.11 2 2 w-(i) b
(iii) 1.4.12 2 2 w-(iii) a
Totals 36 27 17 40 40

Mark Specification Grid Science: Physics
Unit 1 Higher Specimen Paper
Question Spec Ref AO 1 AO2 AO3 Standard Higher HSW
D-C B - A*
1. (a)(i) 1.2.3 2 2 w-(iii) a
(ii) 1.2.3 2 2 w-(iii) a
(iii) 1.2.3 1 1 w-(iii) a
(iv) 1.2.3 1 1 w-(iii) a
(v) 1.2.3 1 1
(vi) 1.2.3 1 1 w-(iii) a
(vii) 1.2.3 1 1 w-(iii) a
(b) 1.2.1 6 6 w-(iii)c
2. (a)(i) 1.1.6 2 1 w-(iii) a
1
(ii) 1.1.4 1 2 3 w-(iii) a
(iii) 1.1.9 1 2 2 1 w-(iii) a
(b) 1.1.8 3 3 6 w-(iii) a
3. (a)(i) 1.1.13 3 3 w-(i),a
(ii) 1.1.13 1 1
(b) 1.1.14 3 3 6 w-(iii) a
4 (a)(i) 1.2.7 1 1 2 w-(iii) a
(ii) 1.2.8 1 2 3 w-(iii) a
(b)(i) 1.2.10 1 2 3 w-(iii) a
(c)
(ii) 1.2.7
1.2.9
1
4
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4
4 w-(iii) a
w-(iii) a
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5. (i) * 2 2 w-(ii) c
(ii) Math req 5 5 w-(i),a
(iii) Math req 3 3 w-(iii) c
6. (a)(i) 1.3.2 1 1 w-(iii) a
(ii) 1.3.3 2 2 w-(iii) a
(iii) 1.3.4 1 3 4 w-(iii) a
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(b)(i) 1.1.20 1 3 4 w-(iii) a

(ii) 1.1.20 2 2 w-(iii) a
(iii) 1.1.21 4 4 w-(i) a
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w-(i) b
7. (a) 1.4.9 3 3 w-(iii) c
(b)(i) 1.4.10 4 4 w-(iii) a
(ii) 1.4.14 1 1 w-(iii) a
(c) 1.4.11 2 2 w-(i) a
(d) 1.4.15 2 2 w-(iii) a
(e) 1.4.2 6 6 w-(iii) a
Totals 42 36 20 58 42

Unit 2 Foundation Specimen paper
Question Spec Ref AO 1 AO2 AO3 Low Standard HSW
G-E D-C
1.(a) (i) 2.1.9 2 2
(ii) 2.1.9 2 2
(b) 2.1.11 2 2
(c) (i) 2.1.13 1 1
(ii) 2.1.13 6 6
2.(a)(i) 2.1.6 1 1
(ii) 2.1.6 2 2
(iii) 2.1.6 2 2
(b) (i) 2.1.5 2 2
(ii) 2.1.5 3 3
3.(a)(i) 2.1.1 2 2 4
(ii) 2.1.1 1 1
(b) (i) 2.1.2 1 1
(ii) 2.1.2 1 1
(iii) 2.1.2 2 2
(iv) 2.1.2 3 3
4.(a) Math req 2 2 w(ii)d
(b)(i) Math req 5 5 w(iii)c
(ii) Math req 2 2 w(iii)c
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(iii) Math req 1 1 w(iii)c
5(a) 2.2.15 1 1
(b) 2.2.10 2 2
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(c) 2.2.10 2 2
(d) 2.2.5 1 2 3
6.(a) (i) 2.3.2 3 3
(ii) 2.3.4 1 1
(b)(i) 2.3.5 1 1
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(ii) 2.3.5 2 2
(c) (i) Math req 2 2 w(i)c
(ii) Math req 4 4 w(iii)c
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(iii) Math req 3 3 w(i)b

7.(a)(i) 2.2.32 1 1
(ii) 2.2.32 2 2
(b) (i) 2.2.35 1 1
(ii) 2.2.35 1 1
(iii) 2.2.35 1 1
(c) (i) 2.2.34 3 3
(ii) 2.2.34 1 1
8(a) 2.2.24 6 6 w(iv)a
(b) 2.2.25 3 3
(c) 2.2.22 2 2
Totals 38 33 19 45 45

Unit 2 Higher Specimen paper
Question Spec Ref AO 1 AO2 AO3 Standard Higher HSW
D-C B - A*
1 (a)(i) 2.1.3 2 2 w-(iii)a)
(ii) 2.1.3 3 3 w-(iii)a)
(b) 2.1.9 3 3
(c)(i) 2.1.14 2 2 w-(iii)a)
(ii) 2.1.14 3 3
(iii) 2.1.14 2 2 w-(iii)a)
2(a)(i) 2.1.17 4 4 w-(iii)a)
(ii) 2.1.17 2 2
(iii) 2.1.17 3 3 w-(iii)a)
(b) 2.1.16 6 6 w-(iii)a)
3 (a)(i) 2.1.6 3 3 w-(iii)a)
(ii) 2.1.2 1 2 3 w-(iii)a)
(b)(i) 2.1.5 4 4 w-(iii)a)
(ii) 2 2
(c) 2.3.17 3 3 w-(iii)a)
4(a) Math req 2 2 w- (i)b)
(b)(i) Math req 5 5 w- (i)b)
(b)(ii) 2 2
(b)(iii) Math req 1 1 w- (i)b)
5 (a)(i)
(ii)
2.2.18
2.2.10
1
1
T 3
1
4
2
w-(iii)a)
w-(iii)a)
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(iii) 2.2.6 2 2 w-(iii)a)
2.2.10
(b) 2.2.10 3 3 w-(iii)a)
(c)(i) 2.2.10 1 1 w-(iii)a)
(ii) 2.2.11 1 1 w-(iii)a)
(iii) 2.2.12 1 1 w-(iii)a)
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(d)(i) 2.2.19 1 1 w-(iii)a)

(ii) 2.2.19 1 1 w-(iii)a)
6(a) 2.2.22 2 2 w-(iii)a)
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(b)(i) 2.2.26 1 2 1 4 w-(iii)a)

(ii) 2.2.25 6 6 w-(iii)a)
(c) 2.2.24 3 3 w-(iii)a)
7 (a)(i),(ii) 2.3.2 2 2 w-(iii)a)
(iii) 2.3.1 1 1 w-(iii)a)
(b) 2.3.12 2 2 w-(iii)a)
(c)(i) Math req 2 2 (w-(i)b)
(ii) Math req 4 4 (w-(i)b)
(iii) Math req 3 3 (w-(i)b)
8(a)(i) 2.2.32 1 1 w-(iii)a)
(ii) 2.2.32 1 1 w-(iii)a)
(iii) 2.2.32 2 2 w-(iii)a)
(b)(i) 2.2.34 1 2 3 w-(iii)a)
(ii) 2.2.34 3 3 w-(iii)a)
9(a) Math req 2 2 (w-(i)b)
(b) Math req 3 3 (w-(i)b)
Totals 46 44 25 57 58

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Controlled Assessment Mark Scheme 151

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A CCEA Publication © 2011

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Pre-publication version: March 2011

General Certificate of Secondary Education

Write your answers in the spaces provided in this question

(i) Using these measurements calculate how much unwanted energy is

(iii) Calculate the efficiency of this petrol engine.

Efficiency = ________________ [2]

In this question you will be assessed on your written communication skills

oil natural gas coal

Non-renewable energy resource:

Renewable energy resource:

(iv) Name the fuel used in nuclear power stations.

Acceleration = ________________m/s2 [3]

Volume =__________cm3 [2]

Density of the rock = _____________ [3]

Which three rocks are made of the same material?

In this question you will be assessed on your written communication skills

Work done =________________ J [2]

(ii) He takes 6.0 seconds to climb the 3.0 metres.

Power = ________________ W [3]

Kinetic energy =________________J [3]

Height (H) Distance S in cm Average

Write your answers in the spaces on the table.

(iii) Is the average distance S proportional to the height H?

(ii) Although the atom contains charged particles it is electrically neutral.

in the larger box.

(i) What is a beta (β) particle?

The graph below shows the results of this investigation.

Number of α particles per second = ________________ [2]

Range = ________________cm [2]

THIS IS THE END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

General Certificate of Secondary Education

Write your answers in the spaces provided in this question paper.

(ii) State the main environmental disadvantage of using nuclear power to

(v) State one problem of decommissioning a nuclear power station compared

(vii) Many view wind farms as an eyesore on the landscape.

In this question you will be assessed on your written communication skills

Time taken = ________________seconds [3]

(iii) The mass of the car is 1000kg.

Additional Frictional Force = ________________N [3]

In this question you will be assessed on your written communication skills

(i) Which three rocks are made of the same material?

(ii) One of the rocks was found to have a density of 3.5g/cm3.

Mass = ________________g [1]

In this question you will be assessed on your written communication skills

Work done = ________________J [2]

(ii) Kevin can develop a power of 200 W as he climbs the rope.

Time = ________________s [3]

(i) Calculate the velocity of the nail as it leaves the gun.

Velocity = ________________ m/s [3]

Opposing force = ________________N [4]

Height (H) Average value

(i) Give two reasons why repeating the measurements is good

(iii) Is the distance S proportional to the height H? Explain your answer.

off the ground.