GQE Sample Paper A: Section-II

THE INSTITUTION OF ENGINEERS, SRI LANKA

GENERAL QUALIFYING EXAMINATION

PAPER A
(SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER)
SECTION II

Time allowed 2 ½ Hours (150 minutes)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
1. This paper contains 60 Multiple Choice Questions in 19 pages.
2. Each question has 5 answers.
3. Answer all Questions.
4. This is a closed book examination.
5. To answer a question, draw a circle around the number corresponding to the correct answer
among the 5 answers.
6. Marks will not be awarded if more than one answer is given to a question, or when the
encirclement is not uniquely identifiable to a particular answer.
7. Negative marks are NOT given for incorrect answers.
8. Separate sheets are provided for rough-work and all sheets of rough work should be attached
to the Question paper.
9. Question paper with answers (and rough-work-sheets) must be handed over to the
invigilators at the end of the examination.
10. Removal of an examination paper or part thereof or rough-work sheets away from the
examination hall is an examination offence.
11. Only calculators approved by the Examination Division of IESL are permitted.
12. Possession of unauthorized material during the examination is an examination offence.
13. All examinations are conducted under the current rules and regulations of the IESL.
14. This paper has the following composition of questions.
No Syllabus sub-area No of Questions
4 Electrical Installations 15
5 Energy Systems 15
6 Control Systems 15
7 Microelectronics 15

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 GQE Sample Paper A: Section-II

Q61 What are the roots of the characteristic equation ?

i. -2,-2,1
ii. 5,8,4
iii. 1,5,8
iv. 8,4,0
v. -2,-2,-1

Q62 A system has following characteristic equation. What is the range of K for a stable
system?

i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
v.

Q63 What is the closed loop transfer function, T(s) = Y(s)/R(s), of the system presented in
following figure. Here ,

i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
v.

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 GQE Sample Paper A: Section-II

Q64 Select the incorrect statement regarding the general terms of manual tuning of PID
parameters

i. Percentage overshoot will increase when increasing the proportional gain

ii. Steady state error will decrease when increasing proportional gain
iii. Percentage overshoot will increase when increasing integral gain
iv. Settling time will decrease when increasing integral gain
v. Both percentage overshoot and settling time will decrease when increasing the
derivative gain

Q65 A Bode plot of a system is given in following figure. What are phase margin and gain
margin respectively for the stability?

i. 120 deg, 20 dB
ii. 0 deg, 0 dB
iii. 80 deg, 40 dB
iv. 40 deg, 20 dB
v. 10 deg, 10 dB

Q66 A sampled data system is given by, . What is the range of K for a
stable system?

i. For any K
ii.
iii.
iv.
v. Not stable for any K

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Q67 Consider following system represented in state variable form

Here, , , and .
Find the observer gain matrix for placing the observer two poles at -1.

i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
v.

Q68 Consider following open loop sampled data system

What is the overall transfer function when the sampling time .

Consider Zero-order hold as .

i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
v.

Q69 What are the responses of first three sampling instants, and of following
discrete system ?

i. 1,2,1
ii. 1,-1.5,0.5
iii. 1, 3.5, 5.75
iv. 1,3,5
v. 1,0.5,0.5

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 GQE Sample Paper A: Section-II

Q70 Identify the logic function of the following ladder diagram.

i. AND
ii. OR
iii. NOR
iv. XOR
v. NAND

Q71 Select the answer which includes sensors and actuators used in automation.

i. inductive sensor, capacitive sensor, microcontroller, light sensor, pneumatic actuator

ii. Pneumatic actuator, capacitive proximity sensor, inductive proximity sensor, vision
sensor, level sensor
iii. Pneumatic actuator, proximity sensors, digital signal processor, vision sensor, laser
range finder
iv. Pneumatic actuator, proximity sensors, digital signal processor, Field Programmable
Gate Arrays (FPGAs), laser range finder
v. inductive sensor, capacitive sensor, multimeter, light sensor, pneumatic actuator

Q72 Dynamics of a system is represented by following state space model. Determine the
required state variable feedback using Ackermann's formula for placing the closed-loop
poles at Assume that the complete state vector is available for feedback.

Here, , , and .

i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
v.

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 GQE Sample Paper A: Section-II

Q73 Select the incorrect statement regarding automation processes and ladder diagram-based
programs.

i. Counters can be used in ladder diagrams to count number of vehicles in an

automated car park
ii. On Delay timer are used of delaying the start of motors
iii. Latch circuits are used in implementing on/off switches with push buttons
iv. Timers cannot be used for sequencing a series of automation processes
v. Logic functions are used in ladder diagrams

Q74 What is a state variable form of the following system with the mathematical model given
by the differential equation?

i.

ii.

iii.

iv.

v.

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 GQE Sample Paper A: Section-II

Q75 A Nyquist plot of following system is observed to check the stability in frequency
domain. Please select the answer with correct Nyquist plot and the status of the closed
loop system. Open loop transfer function is given by

Stable, Unstable,
i ii

Stable, Unstable,
iii iv

Unstable,
v

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Q76 Heat rate of a 20MW diesel generator (DG) is 9000 kJ/kWh. What is the efficiency of the
DG?

i. 35%
ii. 40%
iii. 45%
iv. 50%
v. 55%

Q77 The main chemical ingredient of Natural Gas is:

i. Propane
ii. Butane
iii. Methane
iv. Octane
v. Hydrogen

Q78 A factor which is least likely to change the demand for electricity is:

i. National economic development

ii. National population growth
iii. Increase in the number of consumers
iv. Increase in the number of energy sources
v. Increase of per capita income

Q79 The peak voltage developed by a polycrystalline silicon solar cell is nearly,

i. 0.5 V
ii. 5V
iii. 12V
iv. 36V
v. 50V

Q80 The penetration of renewable energy in the world electricity generation by end 2019 is:

i. 10%
ii. 15%
iii. 20%
iv. 25%
v. 30%

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 GQE Sample Paper A: Section-II

Q81 Sri Lanka’s largest primary energy source is:

i. Crude oil
ii. Hydro Power
iii. Solar
iv. Biomass
v. Wind

Q82 The most commonly used sales unit for LNG in the world market is $/MMBTU. It’s
meaning is:

i. $ per Million BTU

ii. $ per Trillion BTU
iii. $ per Thousand BTU
iv. $ per Million Million BTU
v. $ per Mega BTU

Q83 Which is not an identified Pillar or focus area in the National Energy Policy published by
the Government of Sri Lanka in August 2019?

i. Assuring energy security

ii. Enhancing self-reliance
iii. Improving energy efficiency and conversion
iv. Providing energy at the lowest cost
v. Providing access to energy services

Q84 The solar insolation available in Colombo district is closer to:

i. 5 kWh/m2/day
ii. 10 kWh/m2/day
iii. 15 kWh/m2/day
iv. 20 kWh/m2/day
v. 25 kWh/m2/day

Q85 The typical efficiency of modern day commercially available Polycrystalline Silicone
solar cells could be:

i. 8%
ii. 18%
iii. 28%
iv. 38%
v. 48%

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 GQE Sample Paper A: Section-II

Q86 A device which directly convert chemical energy to electrical energy is:

i. PV Cell
ii. Fuel Cell
iii. Turbine
iv. Motor
v. Reactor

Q87 Calorific value of Auto Diesel is closer to:

i. 10000 kJ/kg
ii. 20000 kJ/kg
iii. 30000 kJ/kg
iv. 40000 kJ/kg
v. 100000 kJ/kg

Q88 Peak efficiency of a 20MW modern Pelton turbine is closer to:

i. 50%
ii. 60%
iii. 70%
iv. 80%
v. 90%

Q89 The average CO2 concentration in the atmosphere before the beginning of the industrial
revolution is:

i. 180 ppm
ii. 280 ppm
iii. 380 ppm
iv. 480 ppm
v. 580 ppm

Q90 The swept area of a wind turbine is 11314 m2. The approximate blade length of the
turbine is:

i. 30 m
ii. 40 m
iii. 50 m
iv. 60 m
v. 70 m

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Q91 What is the voltage at point A, if ideal diode approximation is used?

i. 10V A
ii. 6V
iii. 4V
iv. 3V
v. 9V

Q92 Consider the Zener diode circuit shown below. What is VL, if Vss=24V, R=1kΩ, RL=5kΩ,
Vz=22V?

i. 22V
ii. 20V
iii. 24V
iv. 4V
v. 5V

Q93 Which of the following statements is true regarding the biasing of a transistor (BJT)?

i. Base bias is not subjected to the variations in transistor current gain.

ii. Base bias is not subject to temperature effects.
iii. Emitter bias almost eliminates the temperature and current gain effects.
iv. The transistor current gain is required when solving circuits with emitter bias.
v. Base biasing is used in amplifiers.

Q94 The main application of Phase Locked Loop circuits is,

i. Demodulate a signal or recover a signal from a noisy communication channel

ii. Isolate the DC part of a signal
iii. Amplify analog signals
iv. Invert the input signal
v. Isolate the AC part of a signal

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 GQE Sample Paper A: Section-II

Q95 Which one of the following is not a commonly used noise reduction technique?

i. Shielding conductors
ii. Use of Twisted Pair Cables
iii. Signal Isolation
iv. Signal amplification
v. Grounding

Q96 Which of the following statements is correct regarding a Real Time Operating Systems?

i. An RTOS is comparatively faster in execution

ii. In an RTOS a deadline can be set
iii. Any operating system can be an RTOS
iv. RTOSs are used only in embedded devices
v. RTOSs can be used only with multi-core processors

Q97 Following figure shows a multistage AC amplifier. The purpose for using capacitors C2
and C4 are,

i. Pass AC to the net stage

ii. Pass DC to the next stage
iii. Stabilize the Q point of the amplifier
iv. Match the impedance
v. Smoothen the AC waveform

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 GQE Sample Paper A: Section-II

Q98 A 4-bit binary up counter using flip-flops A, B, C, D (D most significant) is to have a

reduced maximum count using the CLR facility. For a count length 0 to 10, the inputs to
the NAND gate that generates CLR are taken from Q outputs of flip-flops,

i. A& B
ii. A,C & D
iii. B&D
iv. A,B & D
v. A,B &C

Q99 For a square wave input, the output of the circuit shown in the figure is a,

i. Square wave
ii. Sinusoidal wave
iii. DC voltage
iv. Triangular wave
v. Spikes

Q100 Which of the following biasing methods should be used when handing switching (digital)
signals?

i. Common Base bias

ii. Common Emitter bias
iii. Common Collector bias
iv. Voltage divider bias with common emitter
v. Dual supply emitter bias

Q101 Node voltages Vb and Vd respectively in the circuit shown in the figure, assuming ideal
operational amplifier, are,

i. -5.142 V , 6.288 V
ii. 5.142 V, -6.857 V
iii. -1.715 V, - 6.288 V
iv. 1.715 V , 6.857 V
v. -1.715 V , -5.142 V

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 GQE Sample Paper A: Section-II

Q102 A, B and C inputs are supplied to the following circuit, having standard representation.
The correct order of outputs X, Y and Z are given by,

i. X:11110000
Y:00011000
Z:10101010

ii. X:11001100
Y:00110011
Z:10010010

iii. X:11000000
Y:00110000
Z:10010000

iv. X:11100011
Y:00001101
Z:01010111

v. X:11110000
Y:00011100
Z:01010001

Q103 A 14-bit digital to analog converter has a total range of 10V. You want to output 8.36 V
from the digital to analog converter. What integer value should you input to the digital to
analog converter

i. 16965
ii. 51025
iii. 27394
iv. 13696
v. 68486

Q104 In a Voltage-controlled voltage source (VCVS) amplifier,

i. The input impedance is very high and the output impedance is very low
ii. The input impedance is very low and the output impedance is very low
iii. The input impedance is very high and the output impedance is very high
iv. The input impedance is very low and the output impedance is very high
v. (Input impedance) = (output impedance)

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 GQE Sample Paper A: Section-II

Q105 The network shown in the Figure, can be used as:

i. A NAND logic gate

ii. A NOR logic gate
iii. An AND logic gate
iv. An OR logic gate
v. An Inverter logic gate

Q106 The IEC standard impulse waveform generally used in impulse testing to represent surges
is,

i. 1.2/50 µs
ii. 1.1/50 µs
iii. 1/50 µs
iv. 1/60 µs
v. 1.1/60 µs

Q107 Impulse testing of transformers is done to determine the ability of,

i. Bushings to withstand vibrations

ii. Insulation to withstand transient voltages
iii. Windings to withstand voltage fluctuations
iv. Windings to withstand transient voltages
v. All of the above.

Q108 The electricity act prevailing in Sri Lanka at the moment is,

i. Act no. 19
ii. Act no. 20
iii. Act No. 31
iv. Act No. 40
v. Act No. 41

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 GQE Sample Paper A: Section-II

Q109 As per the IET Wiring Regulation, what is the recommended earth electrode resistance
for TT?

i. Less than 100 Ω

ii. Less than 10 Ω
iii. Less than 5 Ω
iv. Less than 1 Ω
v. None of above

Q110 Which of the following statement is incorrect?

i. TT earthing system has very low earth loop impedance.

ii. IT earthing system has negligible earth fault current.
iii. Residual current devices are compulsory for TT system.
iv. Residual current devices are not recommended to use in IT systems.
v. Only over current devices can be used as residual current devices in TN-C systems.

Q111 As per the IET Wiring Regulation, in order to comply with the ‘protective measure’,
which of the following is/are required?

i. basic protection
ii. protective earthing and protective equipotential bonding
iii. automatic disconnection in the event of a fault
iv. All above
v. None of above

Q112 The allowable maximum temperature limit under normal load condition for metallic
accessible part of a non-hand-held equipment with arm’s reach is,

i. 20 0C
ii. 35 0C
iii. 65 0C
iv. 75 0C
v. 90 0C

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 GQE Sample Paper A: Section-II

Q113 Which of the followings is not a condition for selection of overcurrent protective
equipment? (Notations have their usual meanings).

i. I2>1.45 Iz
ii. In>Ib
iii. In<Iz
iv. Isc<IsCB
v. All above

Q114 A certain installation has 150 kW, 400V, 0.9 pf, 3 phase load. Load is to be fed by a 4
core cable. Length of the cable will be 150 m. If the cable surrounding temperature is
350C, cable runs in a separate path (without any other cables) and allowable total voltage
drop is 5% of nominal voltage, what is the allowable maximum voltage drop of the
cable?

i. 0.378 mV/A/m
ii. 0.347 mV/A/m
iii. 0.424 mV/A/m
iv. 0.512 mV/A/m
v. 0.554 mV/A/m

Q115 IK 04 means

i. equipment to resist mechanical impacts ≤ 0.14 J

ii. equipment to resist mechanical impacts ≤ 0.20 J
iii. equipment to resist mechanical impacts ≤ 0.35 J
iv. equipment to resist mechanical impacts ≤ 0.40 J
v. equipment to resist mechanical impacts ≤ 0.50 J

Q116 Soil resistivity of a certain site was measured using 4 point Wenner method. The meter
reading was 2 Ω at 3 m probe separation. Market has 20 mm diameter and 1.2 m long rod
type copper earth electrodes which can be connected together to make longer earth rod.
How many earth rods should be connected in series to achieve the earth electrode
resistance below 10 Ω?
i. 4 rods
ii. 5 rods
iii. 6 rods
iv. 7 rods
v. 8 rods

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 GQE Sample Paper A: Section-II

Q117 Followings are some of the tests that should be performed at an electrical installation.
A: Continuity of protective conductors
B: Polarity check
C: Insulation resistance
D: Earth loop impedance
What are the tests that should be carried out before the supply connection?

i. Only A
ii. Only B
iii. Only A and C
iv. All above
v. None of above

Q118 Which of the following statement is correct?

i. Minimum dimension of cables that connect the PE conductor terminal of Class I

SPD to the equipotential bonding rail is 16 mm2.
ii. Minimum dimension of cables that connect the PE conductor terminal of Class I
SPD to the equipotential bonding rail is 6 mm2.
iii. Minimum dimension of cables that connect the PE conductor terminal of Class II
SPD to the equipotential bonding rail is 4 mm2.
iv. Minimum dimension of cables that connect the PE conductor terminal of Class II
SPD to the equipotential bonding rail is 2.5 mm2.
v. Minimum dimension of cables that connect the PE conductor terminal of Class III
SPD to the equipotential bonding rail is 2.5 mm2.

Q119 Which of the following statement is incorrect?

i. 10 A, Type B MCB will trips instantaneously, if the current flow through it is more
than 30 A.
ii. 10 A, Type B MCB will not trips instantaneously, if the current flow through it is
less than 20 A.
iii. 10 A Type C MCB will trips instantaneously, if the current flow through it is more
than 30 A.
iv. 10 A Type C MCB will trips instantaneously, if the current flow through it is more
than 50 A.
v. 10 A Type D MCB will not trip instantaneously, if the current flow through it is less
than 50 A.

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 GQE Sample Paper A: Section-II

Q120 Which of the following statement is correct?

i. It is better to have lower protection level (Up) for SPDs.

ii. It is better to have lower nominal current (In) for SPDs.
iii. It is better to have lower Impulse current (Iimp) for SPDs.
iv. It is better to have lower continuous operating voltage (Uc) for SPDs.
v. It is better to have lower temporary over voltage rating (TOV) for SPDs.

End of Question Paper

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