MAGNET BRAINS TEST PAPER - 1

TERM I
CLASS X
SOCIAL SCIENCE - CODE 087

TIME-90 MINUTES MM-40M

General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains four sections.
2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
4. Section C has 12 questions (Case based). Attempt any 10
questions.
5. Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the
questions.
6. All questions carry equal marks.
7. There is no negative marking.

SECTION – A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 questions)

1. Identify the ideology under which European governments

were driven by following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815.

A. Liberalism
B. Conservatism
C. Imperialism
D. Globalisation
2. Identify the vision of a society that is too ideal to actually
exist.
A. Absolutist
B. Monarchy
C.Utopian
D. Autocratic

3. Which among the following claimed that true German culture

was discovered among common people?
A. Louis Philippe
B. Johann Gottfried Herder
C. Karol Karpinski
D. Carl Welcker

4 Identify the major revolution which emerged due to

economic reasons?
A. The Liberal Revolution
B. Germany's War with Austria
C. Greek War of Independence
D. Revolution of Silesians Weavers

5. What did the Civil Code of 1804 bring about? Select the best
suitable option from the following
A. Established Equality before law
B. Abolished privileges based on birth
C. Abolished Right to Property
D. Both (A) and (B)
6. Choose the incorrect pair regarding the names of Primitive
Subsistence Farming given options
A. Brazil- Roca
B. Mexico-Masole
C. Indonesia-Ladang
D. Vietnam-Ray

7. The First International Earth summit adopted Agenda 21 to

Choose the correct option
A. Conserve resources
B. Support human activities
C. Achieve sustainable development
D. Meet future requirements

8. Red soil is mostly found in which of the following regions

A. Upper Ganga Plains
B. Parts of Jammu and Kashmir
C. Eastern and Southern part of Deccan Plateau
D. Piedmont Zone of Western Ghats

9. India has land under a variety of relief features,Which of the

following features ensure perennial flow of some rivers,
provide facilities for tourism and ecological aspects?
A. Plains
B. Placaus
C. CIslands
D. Mountains
10. Tea in Assam is a plantation crop, while Rice in Odisha is an
example of which type of crop?
A. Primitive Subsistence Crop
B. Commercial Crop
C. Subsistence Crop
D. Plantation Crop

11. Which of the following countries emerged as an Independent

state in 1948?
A. Belgium
B. Sri Lanka
C. India
D. France

12. What was the major objective of LTTE in Sri Lanka?

A. Establish autonomy for Buddhist people
B. Attain Independence for christans
C. End Sinhala rule
D. Demand separate homeland for Tamil

13. Australia is an example of which one orally

A. Holding-together
B. Coming-together
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. Can't say

14. According to the State Panchayati raj act which of the

following local body must meet at least two to four times in a
year?
A. Gram Sabha
B. Panchayat Samiti
C. Gram Panchayat
D. Mandal Samiti
15. Who among the following is appointed as an officer of
Municipal corporation?
A. Sarpanch
B. Ward Commissioner
C. Mukhiya
D. Mayor

16. Which among the following institutions plays an important

role in overseeing the implementation of constitutional
provisions and procedures?
A. Union government
B. State government
C. Judiciary
D. Local government

17. Which of the following institutions has been created in each

state to conduct Panchayat and Municipal elections?
A. State Election Commission
B. Local Election
C. Regional Election Commission
D. Town Area Committee

18. Identify the term which is used for the average income of a
person.
A. Total Income
B. Per Capita Income
C. Gross Income
D. National Income
19. Continuous use of land over a long period of time without
taking appropriate measures to conserve and manage it.
Which of the following is the outcome as per the given
statement?
A. Gully erosion.
B. Fallow land.
C. Land degradation
D. Soil erosion

20. Which of the following statement relates to sustainable

development?
A. Cutting trees for construction of dams
B. Groundwater depletion
C. Rise in literacy level
D. More reliance on renewable sources

21. Which of the following is a demerit of using average income

as a measure of development
A. Average income fails to indicate the economic stability of
a country.
B. Calculation of Average income is a tedious process
C. Average income does not indicate disparity in income
level.
D. Average income is always lower than the actual income of
people

22. Basic services like health, education and infrastructure

usually comes under public sector. The reason is
A. It need better management
B. It require timely updation
C. It require equal and quality distribution
D. These are profit carning arcus
23. The sum of the total production of all goods and services in
the three sectors are combinedly called as
A. NDP
B. GNI
C. GDP
D. Ni

24. Which of the following objectives is not mentioned in the

MNREGA 2005?
A. To give at least 100 days of guaranteed work in rural areas.
B. It is required to provide employment within 10 km of an
applicant's home and to pay maximum wages.
C. If the government fails in its duty to provide employment, it
will give unemployment allowances to the people.
D. To implement 'Right to work.

SECTION – B
(Attempt any 18 out of 22 questions)

25. Following image depicts the fear of repression which drove

many fiberal-nationalists underground. Which of the
following event is marked as per the given image? Identify.
 A. Signing of Treaty of Vienna
B. Founding of Young Europe in Berne, 1833
C. Giuseppe Mazzini unifying Italy
D. William I unifying Germany

NOTE: Following question is for Visually impaired candidates

in lieu of Q25.
Identify the name of the Prussian King who was proclaimed
German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles.
A. William I B. William II
C. Henry VII D. Louis IV

26. Which of the following statements about the French

Revolution are correct?
I. After the end of the French Revolution it was proclaimed
that it would be who would henceforth constitute the
nation and shape its destiny
II. France will have a constitutional monarchy and the new
republic will be headed by a member of the royal
family.
III. A centralized administrative system will be put in place
to formulate uniform laws for all citizens
IV. Imposition of internal customs duties and dues will
continue to exist in France.
Options:
A. (ii) and (iii)
B. (ii) and (iv)
C. (i) and (iii)
D. (iii) and (iv)
27. Which of the following terms best describes the situation
when an abstract idea like greed or envy is expressed
through a person or a thing?
A. Suffrage
B. Allegory
C. Alliance
D. Treaty

28. Why was Otto von Bismarck considered as the chief architect
of German unification ? Choose the correct option from the
following :
A. He formed an alliance with Italy and France for the
unification process.
B. He carried out the nation- building process with the Army
and the Bureaucracy.
C. He carried along with Liberalist and Romantic scholars for
cultural movement
D. He granted autonomy to Prussia with the Conservatives.

29. Which of the following soils are more common in piedmont

plains such as Duars. Chos and Terai?
A. Black Soil
B. Alluvial Soil
C. Laterite soil
D. Red soil

30. Which among the following is the example of Potential

Resource?
A. Plantation
B. Ponds
C. Wind energy
D. Petroleum
31. Read the following statements and choose the correct code.
i. In a federation, the powers of the federal and provincial
governments are clearly demarcated.
ii. India is a federation because the powers of the Union
and State Governments are specified in the Constitution
and they have exclusive jurisdiction on their respective
subjects.
iii. Sri Lanka is a federation because the country is divided
into provinces.
iv. India is no longer a federation because some power of
the states have been devolved to the local government
bodies.
Options:
A. Only A
B. Both A and B
C. Only C
D. Both C and D

32. Consider the following statements about ‘Holding Together’

Federation
i. A large country divides its power between constituent
states and the national government
ii. The Central government tends to be more powerful
vis-à-vis the states.
iii. The Central government and the state always seem to
have equal powers.
iv. Constituent states have unequal powers
Codes:
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (ii) and (m)
C. (i), (ii) and (iv)
D. Only (iv)
33. Two Statements are given in the question below as Assertion
(A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the
appropriate option
Assertion (A): In India, power is shared among different levels
of the government.
Reason (R): This gives minority communities, a fair share in
power
Options:
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, but R not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

34. Match the following.

List I List II

I. Gram Sabha 1. Gram Panchayats group together

to form this unit
II. Gram Panchayat 2. Mandals in a district together
constitute it.
III. Zila Parishad 3. It reviews the performance of the
Gram Panchayat.
IV. Mandals 4. Decision-making body for the
entire village.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
A. I-4, II-1, III-2, IV-3
B. I-2, II-4, III-3, IV-1
C. I-3, II-4, III-2, IV-1
D. I-1, II-3, III-4, IV-2
35. How does the Judiciary act as an umpire in a federal nation?
A. Judiciary rules over Centre and State.
B. Centre and Judiciary work collectively.
C. Courts can change structure of Constitution.
D. Courts use the power to interpret the Constitution.

36. Identify the region/area of India with the help of the following
information.
i. The Central Government has special powers in running
these areas.
ii. These areas are too small to become an independent
state.
Select the appropriate option from the following.
Options:
A. Towns
B. District
C. Union Territories
D. City

37. Which of the following options helps the local-government to

deepen democracy in India?
i. Constitutional status for local-self government.
ii. It inculcates the habit of democratic participation.
iii. Parliamentary bills for the local-self government.
Options:
A. Only (1)
B. Only (ii)
C. Only (iii)
D. Both (i) and (ii)
38. Identify the correct statements about Unitary form of
government.
i. There is either only one level of government or the
sub-units are subordinate to the central government.
ii. The central government. The central government can
pass on orders to the provincial government.
iii. Laws made by the centre are equally enforced in the rest
of the states without territorial distinction.. IV The powers
of state governments are guaranteed by the
Constitution.
Options:
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (i), (ii) and (iii)
D. Only (iv)

39. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion

(A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the
appropriate option.

Assertion (A): Human Development mentions how much

socio-economic development has happened in a country.

Reason (R): Comparison of national Income of two countries

explains Human Development Index.
Options:
A. Both A und R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of
C. A is true but R false.
D. A is false but R is true.
40. Match the following.

Column A Column B

I. Goods used up during the 1. Economic Activities

production process.

II. Goods which are ready for use. 2. Intermediate Goods

III. Activities which contribute to 3. Gross Domestic

the flow of goods and services in Product
an economy.

IV. Value of all final goods and 4. Final Goods

services produced in a country
during a particular year.
Options:
A. I-2, II-4, III-1, IV-3
B. I-2, II-4, III-3, IV-1
C. I-3, II-2, III-1, IV-4
D. I-1, II-3, III-4, IV-2

41. Read the following data carefully and select the appropriate
answer from the given options.

State Infant Literacy Net Attendance Ratio

Mortality Rate % (Per 100 persons)
Rate per 2017-18 secondary stage (age 14
1,000 live and 15 years) 2017-18
births (2017)

Haryana 30 82 61

Kerala 10 94 83

Bihar 35 62 43
 Why Bihar has a High Infant Mortality Rate as compared to
other states? Identify the reason from the given options.
Options:
A. Due to lack of health facilities
B. Due to lack of education facilities
C. Low guidance
D. Both (A) and (B)

42. Which among the following is a developmental goal for the

landless rural labourer?
A. To educate their children
B. More days of work and better wages
C. To get basic facilities
D. None of the above

43. Which among the following options is called as intermediate

goods?
A. Goods and services that finally reach to the consumers.
B. Goods and services that intermediately reach to the
consumers.
C. Goods that are used in the production of final goods and
services.
D. Goods that are used initially to produce a material.

44. Which one among the following workers are not very
productive in tertiary sector?
A. Educated and trained professionals
B. Repair persons and daily wage-earners
C. People in defense services
D. People working in health centers and hospitals
45. In the question given below, there are two statements marked
as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and
choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Development involves thinking about the ways

in which we can work towards achieving goals of holistic
growth.

Reason (R): Holistic growth is economic growth.

Options:
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true,but R is not correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true

46. A man is employed on a food processing farm where he has to

do a lot of manual work. His wife and daughter also help him
in his work on the farm every day . Which type of employment
is this an example?
A. Underemployment
B. Seasonal employment
C. Over employment
D. Cyclical employment

SECTION – C
(This section consists of two cases. There are a total of 12
questions in this section.
Attempt any 10 questions from this section.)

Directions (Q. Nos. 47-52) Read the source given below and
answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate
option.
 The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke
Metternich. The delegates drew up the Treaty of Vienna of
1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had
come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars.
The Bourbon dynasty , which had been deposed during the
French Revolution , was restored to power and France lost the
territories it had annexed under Napoleon. A series of states
were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French
expansion in future. Thus, the kingdom of the Netherlands,
which included Belgium, was set up in the North and Genoa
was added to Piedmont in the South.

47. What was France's largest fear at the Congress of Vienna?

Select the best suitable option from the following in reference
to the context.
A. Losing French Colonies
B. War with the United States
C. The Rise of Prussian Power
D. Britain's Challenge

48. Which one of the following was not implemented under the
Treaty of Vienna of 1815?
A. Restoration of Bourbon Dynasty.
B. Setting up series of states on the boundaries of France.
C. Restoration of monarchies.
D. Diluting the German Confederation of 39 states.
49.
Assertion (A) By the settlement of Vienna, Belgium was
annexed to Holland to set up a powerful state in North-East
border of France.

Reason (R) The Congress was hosted by the Austrian

Chancellor Duke Metternich.
Options:
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true

50. Why was the Treaty of Vienna drawn up in 1815? Which one of
the following is the prominent cause?
A. To abolish tariff barriers.
B. To divide the German Confederation of 39 states.
C. To restore the monarchies
D. None of above

51. Which of the following is not the result of the Treaty of Vienna
of 1815?
A. France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon.
B. Poland was given to Russia
C. Prussia was handed over to England
D. None of the above

52. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion

(A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the
appropriate option.
Assertion A: Regimes of 1815 did not tolerate criticism and
dissent.

Reason (R): Conservative regimes were autocratic

 Options:
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.

Directions (Q. Nos. 53 - 58) Read the source given below and
answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate
option.

Wheat This is the second most important cereal crop. It is the

main food crop, in North and North-Western part of the
country. This Rabi crop requires a cool growing season and a
bright sunshine at the time of ripening . It requires 50 to 75 cm
of annual rainfall evenly distributed over the growing season.
There are two important wheat-growing zones in the country
- the Ganga-Satluj plains in the North-West and black soil
-region of the Deccan . The major wheat -producing states
are Punjab , Haryana , Uttar Pradesh , Madhya Pradesh, Bihar
and Rajasthan.

53. Wheat is the second most important cereal crop in India after
which of the following crops? Select the best suitable option
from the following
A. Maize
B. Paddy
C. Sugarcane
D. Pulses
54. What kind of geographical conditions are required for the
growth of wheat? Choose the correct option from the
following.
A. 50 to 75 cm of annual rainfall
B. Bright sunshine at the time of ripening.
C. A cool growing season
D. All of these

55. Which among the following is also a Rabi crop like wheat?
Choose the correct option.
A. Paddy
B. Mustard
C. Maize
D. Bajra

56. Which type of soil is required for wheat production? Identify

from the following options.
A. Sandy soil
B. Clayey soil
C. Loamy soil
D. Both (b) and (c)

57. Read the following statements and choose the incorrect

option from the given options.
I. Wheat is the second most important cereal crop.
II. It provides food to people residing in the North and
North-Western part of the country.
III. Bright sunshine at the time of ripening is important for this
crop.
IV. The major wheat-producing states are Tamil Nadu,
Kerala, and Andhra Pradesh
 Options:
A. Only (i)
B. Both (II) and (III)
C. Only (III)
D. Only (I)

58. In the question given below , there are two statements

marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the
statements and choose the correct code.

Assertion (A) A high average income is not indicative of the

overall or human development in a country.

Reason (R) Average income does not cover indicators like

level of literacy rate, health facilities in a country

Options:
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
 On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with
the help of specified information.

59. On the political map of India, 'A' is marked as a Dam. Identify

it from the following options.
a. Hirakund
b. Bhakra-Nangal
c. Sardar - Sarovar
d. Rana Pratap Sagar

60. On the same map, 'B' is also marked as a major Tea

cultivating state. Identify it from the following options.
a. Odisha
b. Karnataka
c. Madhya Pradesh
d. Bengal
Note- The following questions are for the Visually Impaired
Candidates in lieu of
questions 59 and 60.

59. Which of the following dam is located in Uttarakhand?

A. Salal
B. Bhakra Nangal
C. Tehri
D. Rana Pratap Sagar

60. Which one of the following is a principal cereal crop?

A. Rice
B. Wheat
C. Jowar
D. Bajra