PODAR INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL

Pre-Board 2 (2022-23)
Grade: X Maximum Marks: 80
Subject: Social Science Duration: 3 hours

● Please check that this question paper contains 8 printed pages + 1 map
General Instructions:
i. Question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions
in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Section A – Question no. 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
iii. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
iv. Section C – Question no. 25 to 29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
v. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are Long Answer Type Questions, carrying 5
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
vi. Section E – Question no. 34 to 36 are Case-based Questions with three sub
questions and are of 4 marks each.
vii. Section F – Question no. 37 is Map-based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37.1
from History (2 marks) and 37.2 from Geography (3 marks).
viii. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has
been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be
attempted.
ix. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question,
wherever necessary.

SECTION A
Multiple Choice Questions (1X20=20)

1. Identify ‘Horizontal power sharing’ arrangements among the following in 1

modern democracies.
A. Different social groups
B. Different organs of government
C. Different parties, pressure groups and movements
D. Governments at different levels

2. Which among the following is NOT a problem of resource development? 1

A. Indiscriminate exploitation of resources
B. An equitable distribution of resources
C. Depletion of resources for satisfying the greed of few individuals
D. Accumulation of resources in few hands

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3. Which of the following measures does NOT establish Sinhala supremacy in 1
Sri Lanka?
A. Equal political rights to Sri Lankan Tamils.
B. Protecting and fostering Buddhism by the state.
C. Sinhala considered as the only official language.
D. Preferential policies for government jobs.

4. Why is the active involvement of people at local level regarded as a 1

decisive test for a democracy such as India?
A. It helps in the mobilisation of people belonging to the country's
smallest political unit in decision-making.
B. It ensures equal and optimum distribution of the economic
resources of the country among the masses.
C. It generates an interest in the colonial past of the country and aids in
the spread of nationalism.
D. It helps in mobilising the local politically charged youth to
participate in nation-building.

5. Seema gave her friends three clues about a mineral. 1

It is made up of a series of plates or leaves.
It is used in electric and electronic industries.
Koderma Gaya-Hazaribagh belt of Jharkhand is its leading producer.
What mineral is being referred to by Seema?
A. Mica
B. Iron ore
C. Bauxite
D. Manganese

6. Choose the incorrect option from the major steps taken towards the 1
decentralisation in 1992.
A. At least one-third of all positions are reserved for men.
B. The State Election Commission is created in each state to conduct
panchayat and municipal elections.
C. Regular elections are held for local government bodies.
D. The State governments are required to share some powers and
revenues with local government bodies.

7. Which of the following books was published by Raja Ram Mohan Roy? 1
A. Chandrika
B. Sambad Kaumudi
C. Punjab Kesari
D. Shamsul Akhbar

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8. Which among the following best signifies the idea of Liberal Nationalism of 1
nineteenth century Europe?
A. State planned socio-economic system
B. Freedom for individual and equality before law
C. Supremacy of state-oriented nationalism
D. Emphasis on social justice

9. Arrange the following in chronological order: 1

I. Print culture created the conditions for the French Revolution.
II. Martin Luther’s writings led to beginning of the Protestant
Reformation.
III. Menocchio reinterpreted the message of the Bible.
IV. Johann Gutenberg invented Printing press.
OPTIONS:
A. III, II, I and IV
B. I, II, III and IV
C. IV, III, II and I
D. IV, II, III and I

10. Why did the Simon Commission come to India? Identify the correct reason 1
from the options given below.
A. To initiate the salt law in India.
B. To suggest changes in the functioning of the constitutional system
in India.
C. To look into the functioning of the British.
D. To control the campaign against the British in cities.

11. Which one of the following best describes Human Development Index 1
(HDI)?
A. Improvement in science, information and technology
B. Improvement in information and communication
C. Improvement in health, education and income
D. Improvement in investment, finance and technology

12. ‘Caste alone cannot determine elections in India’. Identify the reason/s that 1
justifies the statement.
I. No party wins the votes of all the voters of a caste or community.
II. Some political parties are known to favour same castes and are seen
as their representatives.
III. No parliamentary constituency in the country has a clear majority of
one single caste.

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 IV. Mobilising and securing political support has brought new
consciousness among the lower castes.
Options:
A. Only I
B. Only IV
C. Both I and III
D. All I, II, III and IV

13. Which of the following options best defines ‘liberalisation’? 1

A. To impose tax on economic activities
B. To set economic barriers on trade
C. To remove barriers set by the government
D. To control economic activities of the country

14. In India, there were three major alliances in the 2004 parliamentary 1
elections. What does the term ‘alliance’ mean?
A. When two parties together form the government.
B. When the Leftist and Rightist together form the government.
C. When state and national parties together form the government.
D. When several parties in a multiparty system join for the purpose of
contesting elections and winning power.

15. Which of the following statements defines ‘Sustainable Development’? 1

A. Fulfilling needs of the present generation by considering the needs
of future generations as well.
B. Utilisation of natural resources by the past, present and forthcoming
future generations.
C. Sustainable use of natural resources without considering the need of
the future generation.
D. To meet the needs of future generations even if the needs of the
present generation go unmet.

16. Which of the following correctly defines ‘Unclassed forests’? 1

A. Forests and wastelands belonging to both government and private
individuals and communities.
B. Forest lands protected from any further depletion.
C. Forest lands left untouched by the local people.
D. Forest lands used specifically for conservation of wild animals.

17. On which of the following rivers, the Sardar Sarovar Dam is built? 1
A. Narmada
B. Mahanadi

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 C. Krishna
D. Kaveri

18. Analyse the situations given below. Which of the following falls under an 1
organised sector?
A. Natu works in a factory. In addition to his salary, he also gets
provident funds as per the rules laid by the government.
B. Shyam works in a shop. He has not received any formal letter saying
that he has been employed in the shop.
C. Raju works in an air conditioner repair shop. He does not have
secured employment. He can be asked to leave at any time for no
reason.
D. Baburam works as a labourer on a nearby farm. He is not paid for
the days he doesn’t work.

19. In the following question, two statements are given as Assertion (A) and 1
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Loan from moneylenders is one of the major sources of
formal credit.
Reason (R): The Reserve Bank of India supervises the functioning of formal
sources of credit.
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true.

20. Consider the following statements related to the disguised unemployment 1

and identify the correct option.
I. This kind of unemployment occurs when people are employed only
during the particular season of the year.
II. This kind of unemployment is hidden in contrast to someone who does
not have a job and is clearly visible as unemployed.
Option:
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

SECTION B
VERY SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS (2X4=8)
21. “Not everyone welcomed the printed books, and those who did also had 2
fears about it.’’ Justify the statement by giving two arguments.

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22. Why are political parties necessary in democratic countries? 2
23. Explain how mining causes land degradation. 2
OR
Explain any two main features of alluvial soil found in India.
24. Differentiate between public sector and private sector of the economy. 2

SECTION C
SHORT-ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS (3X5=15)
25. How had the Napoleonic Code exported to the other regions under the 3
French control? Explain with examples.
26. “Political parties, pressure groups and movements are essential for power 3
sharing arrangements as they control and influence that in power.” Justify
the statement.
27. “Roadways have an edge over railways in India.” Justify the statement. 3
OR
“A dense and efficient network of transport and communication is a
prerequisite for local, national and global trade of today.” Justify the
statement.
28. Why is the economic strength of a country measured by the development 3
of manufacturing industries? Explain with examples.
29. Analyse the role of credit for economic growth and development of a 3
country.

SECTION D
LONG-ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS (5X4=20)
30. Explain the impact of the Great Depression on Indian economy. 5
OR
Explain the role of Bretton Woods institutions in post Second World War
settlement.
31. “The impact of globalisation has not been uniform.” Justify the statement 5
with suitable arguments.
OR
‘’There are several factors that MNCs take into consideration to set up
their production units in a particular place.’’ Justify the statement with
suitable points.
32. Describe any five features of plantation farming. 5
OR
Describe geographical conditions required for the cultivation of cotton.
Mention two major cotton producing states of India.
33. “Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation.” 5
Examine the statement.
OR

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 “Democracy is a better than any other forms of government.” Examine the
statement.

SECTION E
CASE-BASED QUESTIONS (4x3=12)

34. Read the extract given below and answer the questions: 4
When new products are produced people have to be persuaded to buy
them. They have to feel like using the product. How was this done? One
way in which new consumers are created is through advertisements. As
you know, advertisements make products appear desirable and necessary.
They try to shape the minds of people and create new needs. Today we
live in a world where advertisements surround us. They appear in
newspapers, magazines, hoardings, street walls, television screens. But if
we look back into history we find that from the very beginning of the
industrial age, advertisements have played a part in expanding the
markets for products, and in shaping a new consumer culture.
When Manchester industrialists began selling cloth in India, they put
labels on the cloth bundles. The label was needed to make the place of
manufacture and the name of the company familiar to the buyer. The
label was also to be a mark of quality. When buyers saw MADE IN
MANCHESTER written in bold on the label, they were expected to feel
confident about buying the cloth.

34.1 Why did the Manchester industrialists begin to put label on the cloth 1
bundles that were sent to India?
34.2 ‘The labels not only carry words and texts but also images of Indian 1
Gods and Goddesses’. Why do you think Manchester industrialists
imprinted images of Indian gods and goddesses on the cloth bundles?
34.3 Explain the role played by advertisements in creating new consumers 2
for the British products.

35. Read the extract given below and answer the questions: 4
This sharing of power between the Union Government and the State
governments is basic to the structure of the Constitution. It is not easy to
make changes to this power sharing arrangement. The Parliament cannot
on its own change this arrangement. Any change to it has to be first
passed by both the Houses of Parliament with at least two-thirds majority.
Then it has to be ratified by the legislatures of at least half of the total
States. The judiciary plays an important role in overseeing the
implementation of constitutional provisions and procedures. In case of
any dispute about the division of powers, the High Courts and the
Supreme Court make a decision. The Union and State governments have

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 the power to raise resources by levying taxes in order to carry on the
government and the responsibilities assigned to each of them.

35.1 Why is the Supreme Court given the power to resolve disputes 1
between the states?
35.2 What is the prerequisite to amend the power sharing arrangement in 1
the Indian Constitution?
35.3 How is sharing of power between the union and state governments 2
basic to the structure of the Constitution of India? Explain.

36. Read the extract given below and answer the questions: 4
This underemployment can also happen in other sectors. For example
there are thousands of casual workers in the service sector in urban areas
who search for daily employment. They are employed as painters,
plumbers, repair persons and others doing odd jobs. Many of them don’t
find work every day. Similarly, we see other people of the service sector
on the street pushing a cart or selling something where they may spend
the whole day but earn very little. They are doing this work because they
do not have better opportunities.

36.1 “This underemployment can also happen in other sectors.” What do 1

you mean by ‘underemployment’?
36.2 In which sector is underemployment more prevalent and why? 1
36.3 “There are thousands of casual workers in the service sector in urban 2
areas who search for daily employment.” Suggest any two ways to
generate employment in urban areas.

SECTION F
MAP SKILL BASED QUESTION (2+3=5)

37. 37.1 Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of 2
India.
Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
A. The place where Jallianwala Bagh incident took place.
B. The place where Gandhiji organised ‘Satyagraha’ in favour of cotton
mill workers.
37.2 On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the 3
following with suitable symbols.
a. Bengaluru software technology park
b. Indira Gandhi international airport
c. Narora Nuclear Power Plant
d. Paradip Sea Port
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Name:____________________________ Roll No: ______________
Std: Div: ______________ Date: ______________

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