Swe MCQ 888

• Based on usability, Energy Resources are classified into _____
a) primary, secondary and tertiary resources

b) primary and secondary resources
c) primary, secondary, intermediate and tertiary resources
d) primary, intermediate and secondary resources
View Answer
• Answer: d
Explanation: On the basis of usability, Energy Resources are classified into
Primary, Intermediate and Secondary Resources. Primary Resources are present
in nature prior to human interference or modification. Intermediate Resources
are obtained from primary resources after one or more stages of transformation
while Secondary Resources are the form of energy that is finally supplied to the
consumer for utilization.
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• Which of the following is not a type of primary resource?

a) Crude Oil
b) Coal
c) Hydrogen Energy
d) Sunlight
View Answer
• Answer: c
Explanation: Hydrogen is mainly obtained from Fossil Fuels, which are primary
sources of energy. Therefore, Hydrogen energy is a secondary source of energy.
Crude Oil, Coal, and Sunlight are the primary source of energy since they can be
directly obtained from nature.
• The ratio of energy received from a raw energy source to energy spent to obtain the
raw energy source is called as _____
a) consumption ratio
b) fuel ratio
c) energy yield ratio
d) joule ratio
View Answer
• Answer: c
Explanation: The ratio of the energy provided by a system (like Wind Energy
Conversion Systems) over its lifetime to the energy required to make it is called its
energy yield ratio.
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• Energy Resources which are being used for many decades are known as _____
a) conventional energy sources
b) non-conventional energy sources
c) primary energy sources
d) fuel cells
View Answer
• Answer: a
Explanation: Conventional sources of energy are those sources that are being
used traditionally for a long time i.e. coal, petroleum, firewood, etc. Non-
conventional sources are relatively new in terms of utilization.
• A new renewable energy system is designed to harvest energy from wind. The total
energy required to build the system is 240 kJ. The energy yield ratio of the system is
14:3. The total energy provided by the system over its lifetime is _____
a) 18,000 kJ
b) 54,000 kJ
c) 1,120 kJ
d) 2,258 kJ
View Answer
• Answer: c
Explanation: We know that the energy yield ratio (Ey) of a system is given by
Ey = EsEr
Where Es = Energy supplied by the system over its lifetime
And, Er = Energy required to build the system
Therefore, Ey = Es240=143
Or, Es = 240 x 143
Or, Es = 1120 kJ.
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• Which of the statements is correct about Solar Energy?

a) It is a renewable and conventional source of energy
b) It is a non-renewable and non-conventional source of energy
c) It is a renewable and non-conventional source of energy
d) It is a non-renewable source of energy
View Answer
• Answer: c
Explanation: Solar energy is a source of energy that has not been used
traditionally and is relatively new in terms of usage. Hence it is a non-
conventional source of energy. It is unlimited and inexhaustible and hence is a
renewable source of energy.
• Wind and Hydrogen energy are examples of_________

a) primary sources
b) primary and secondary sources respectively
c) secondary sources
d) tertiary sources
View Answer
• Answer: b
Explanation: Wind energy is directly available in the environment, so it is a
primary energy source while Hydrogen energy is obtained from fossil fuels and
hence is a secondary energy source.
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• On the basis of long-term availability, resources are classified into____

a) conventional and non-conventional resources
b) renewable and non-renewable resources
c) primary and secondary resources
d) commercial and non-commercial resources
View Answer
• Answer: b
Explanation: On the basis of traditional use resources are classified into
conventional and non-conventional resources. On the basis of long-term
availability, resources are classified into renewable and non-renewable resources.
Based on the usability of energy, resources are classified into primary,
intermediate and secondary resources. Based on commercial applications,
resources are classified into commercial and non-commercial resources.
• Which of these Energy resources is/are widely used in industries?

a) Coal and Gasoline
b) Wood
c) Biogas
d) Crop Residue
View Answer
• Answer: a
Explanation: Coal and gasoline are commercial resources that are widely used in
industries such as Steel, Cement, Electricity, etc. Firewood and crop residue are
generally used for domestic purposes. Biogas has some industrial uses such as
for electricity generation but is not used widely.
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• Which of these resources does not produce CO2 during electricity generation?
a) Coal
b) Methane
c) Uranium
d) Biogas
View Answer
• Answer: c
Explanation: Coal, Methane, and Biogas produce CO2 during electricity generation
as all of them have some carbon content, which on combustion produces CO 2.
Uranium produces energy by the process of nuclear fission and does not produce
CO2.
• On the basis of origin, energy resources are classified into natural and artificial
resources.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
• Answer: b
Explanation: Based on Origin, energy resources are classified into Fossil fuels,
Nuclear, Solar, Wind, Biomass, Geothermal, Tidal, Ocean thermal, Ocean wave
and Hydro energy.
• Which of these is the major contributor to world pollution?

a) Commercial resources
b) Non-Commercial Resources
c) Renewable Resources
d) Nuclear Energy
View Answer
• Answer: a
Explanation: Commercial resources are the major contributor to world pollution.
Resources like Coal, Coke, Gasoline, etc which are used commercially produce a
large chunk of total CO2 produced on earth. To combat this problem and for
sustainable development, renewable sources should replace these forms of
energy.
• Half of the world’s energy needs are fulfilled by renewable energy sources.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
• Answer: b
Explanation: 89 percent of the total energy produced is from non-renewable
resources i.e. Coal(27%), Natural Gas(24%), Oil(34%) and Nuclear Energy(11%).
Only 11% of the world’s energy needs are fulfilled by Renewable resources.
• Which of the energy resources were considered for large scale use after the oil crisis
of 1973?
a) Conventional Sources
b) Non-Conventional Sources
c) Non-renewable sources
d) Primary Sources
View Answer
• Answer: b
Explanation: The oil crisis of 1973 caused oil prices to increase drastically. This
also caused the inflation in the price of other commercial resources. Government
of all the countries felt the need for alternative sources of energy and non-
conventional sources like solar and wind energy were developed for large scale
use.
• The unit of energy yield ratio is _____

a) joule
b) watt
c) joule/Kelvin
d) dimensionless
View Answer
• Answer: d
1. World Energy Needs are rising due to _________

a) deforestation
b) increasing population and Industrialization
c) inflation
d) natural calamities
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The increasing world population has caused the world energy needs to
rise significantly. Apart from the rapid growth of industries, the formation of new
ones has increased the energy needs of the world. Due to these reasons,
Conventional sources of energy are not enough, and hence we need alternative
energy sources.
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2. Which of the following is a disadvantage of Hydro Power?

a) They cause deforestation and affect wildlife
b) They cause harmful emissions
c) They are an unstable source of energy
d) They are not suitable for long-distance electricity transmission
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For building Hydroelectric dams, a large area is required for which
deforestation is done to clear the area which affects the local wildlife. Sometimes
Dams also cause floods in Forests which damages it. Building a dam also affects the
aquatic life.
3. Which of the following statement is true about conventional energy sources?

a) They cause minimum pollution
b) They are available in limited quantity
c) Coal is the most used conventional energy source in the world
d) There are sufficient reserves of Coal, Petroleum and Natural gas for the next 300
years
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Conventional energy sources like Coal, Petroleum, Natural gas, etc, are
major causes of pollution and ozone layer depletion. There are limited reserves of
conventional energy sources, which are bound to be finished. At the current rate of
consumption, the approximate lifetime of the world’s petroleum, natural gas, and
coal reserves are 50 years, 52.8 years, and 153 years, respectively. Oil is the most
used energy source in the world. At present 31 percent of the world energy needs
are fulfilled by Oil.
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4. All of the conventional energy sources are Non-Renewable.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Apart from Hydro Power, all other Conventional energy sources are
Non-renewable. In Hydropower generation flowing water is used to generate
electricity. It is considered a renewable energy source because the water cycle is
constantly renewed by the sun.
5. To focus on Renewable and Other alternative sources of energy, ______ was

established in March 1981 by the Government of India.
a) commission for additional sources of energy
b) commission for alternative sources of energy
c) council of scientific & industrial research
d) centre for science and environment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Realizing the importance of Non-Conventional energy sources, in March
1981 the government of India established a Commission for Additional Sources of
Energy (CASE), in the Department of Science and Technology. Council of Scientific &
Industrial Research (CSIR) was established in September 1942 to bring Science and
Technology to India. CSE (Centre for Science and Environment) was established in
1980 and works on environment-development issues in India.
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6. IREDA was developed by the Government of India _______

a) to implement more efficient methods for using Conventional Energy sources
b) to promote the Development of Non-Conventional Energy Sources
c) to develop Nuclear Energy in India
d) to control pollution
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Ltd (IREDA) was
established in 1987 to promote the use of Non-Conventional sources of energy. It is
operated by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
7. Apart from supplying energy, fossil fuels are used for_________
a) storing energy in solar ponds
b) drying Vegetables
c) rotating turbine in Hydro Power plants
d) manufacture of Organic Chemicals
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Solar pond collects thermal energy from sunlight. The salt content of
the pond increases with depth. It doesn’t require any fuel for storing energy. Apart
from fulfilling energy needs, fossil fuels are also used as feedstock materials for the
manufacture of organic chemicals. Solar dryers are used to dry foods i.e. Fruits,
Vegetables, etc. In Hydroelectric power plants, turbines are rotated by the Kinetic
Energy of water.
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8. The only country having a full-fledged ministry for Development of New and
Renewable Resources is _____
a) India
b) Bangladesh
c) USA
d) China
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: India is the only country having a full-fledged ministry devoted to
Developing New and Renewable Energy Sources. Ministry of New and Renewable
Energy or MNRE is a ministry of the Government of India. The ministry was
established as the Ministry of Non-Conventional Energy Sources in 1992.
9. CASE was established after the Oil Crisis of 1973.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Energy Crisis of the 1970s i.e. Oil crisis of 1973 and Energy Crisis of
1979 caused a shortage of petroleum (and other commonly used sources) and
elevation in its price. This led to the establishment of the Commission for Additional
Sources of Energy (CASE) in the Department of Science & Technology (India) in March
1981. It involved the formulation of policies, their implementation, and Research and
Development in the field of New and Renewable energy sources.
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10. Which of the following schemes was launched by MNRE?

a) MNREGA
b) UJJWALA
c) KUSUM
d) JWALA
View Answer
Answer: c
1. Conventional Energy Sources are cheaper than Non-Conventional Sources.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: At present Conventional Energy Sources are cheaper than Non-
Conventional sources. Since the Non-Conventional sources are relatively new in
terms of usage, the technology for harnessing energy from these sources is not well
developed. The cost/kWh of electrical energy obtained from different conventional
sources are as follows:
Coal- 1.65 ₹/kWh
Diesel- 3.00 ₹/kWh
Hydropower- 1.00 ₹/kWh
Nuclear – 1.20 ₹/kWh
which is less than the cost/kWh of the non-conventional sources.
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2. Which of the following pollutants are emitted by the burning of fossil fuel?
a) Oxides of Carbon, Nitrogen, and Sulphur
b) Oxides of Carbon, Uranium, and Radium
c) Calcium Halides and Oxides of Nitrogen
d) Noble Gases
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fossil fuels generate Oxides of Carbon like CO and CO2, Oxides of
Nitrogen like NO and NO2, and Oxides of Sulphur like SO2 and SO3. Apart from that
particulate matter and heat is also generated by fossil fuels.
3. _____ is a petrochemical and is used as raw material for chemical, pharmaceutical,

and paint industry.
a) Plutonium
b) Uranium
c) Coal
d) Protactinium
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Coal is a valuable petrochemical and is used as a raw material in many
industries i.e. Chemical, Pharmaceutical, and Paint industry. From a long-term
perspective, it is essential to conserve coal for future needs as a raw material.
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4. Which of the following statements is not true about radioactive waste?

a) It has radioactivity quotient of dangerous levels.
b) The disposed radioactive waste is to be guarded for a long period
c) It has low radioactivity quotient
d) Its radioactivity decreases with time
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The waste generated in Nuclear power plants has radioactivity
quotients of dangerous levels, it remains above the safe limit for a long time, and this
is a health hazard. The radioactive waste is to be guarded for a long time until its
radioactivity level comes to a safe limit.
5. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of Hydro Power?

a) A large land area submerges into the water leading to deforestation
b) It causes dislocation of a large population and rehabilitation
c) It causes ecological disturbances like earthquake
d) It causes calamities like landslides
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: To clear the land area deforestation is done and sometimes it is needed
to dislocate the local people to clear areas for dams. Large dams have abilities to
trigger earthquakes. The earliest Dam Induced Earthquake was observed in Algeria in
1932.
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6. Sweden banned _______ in 1984.

a) pesticides
b) new nuclear power plants
c) biogas plants
d) mining of fossil fuels
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Due to various hazards associated with Nuclear Energy Sweden banned
New Nuclear power plants since 1984 and has plans to dismantle the existing plants.
7. Which Oxides of Nitrogen are generated by burning of fossil fuel?

a) NO and NO2
b) NO2, NO3, and N2O5
c) N2O5 and N2O3
d) NO3 and N2O5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Burning of fossil fuels cause emission of Nitrogen Oxides. NO and
NO2 are the major Nitrogen oxides produced by the combustion of fossil fuel. These
oxides cause smog and contribute to acid rain.
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8. 3 percentage of the total greenhouse gas emissions are due to Hydropower plants.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydropower plant doesn’t require burning of fuel so no pollutants are
emitted. It converts the potential energy of falling water to kinetic energy which is
converted to electricity.
9. Which Uranium isotope is used in nuclear power plants?

a) U-235
b) U-234
c) U-215
d) U-218
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: U-235 and U-238 are naturally occurring isotopes of Uranium. U-235 is
ideal for Nuclear energy because it splits easily and gives off a lot of energy. U-238,
on the other hand, has a longer half life and takes more time to decay. U-215 and U-
218 are artificially produced isotopes of Uranium.
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10. Based on the following statements, choose the correct option.

Statement I: The technology for harnessing fossil fuels is well developed.
Statement II: Fossil fuels are a cheap source of energy.
a) Statement -I is true, Statement -II is true and Statement -II is the correct explanation
of Statement -I
b) Statement-I is true, Statement -II is true and Statement -II is not the correct
explanation of Statement-II
c) Statement -I is true and Statement -II is false
d) Statement -I is false and Statement -II is true
View Answer
Answer: b
1. ______ energy sources provide energy in dilute form.

a) Non-Renewable
b) Conventional
c) Nuclear
d) Renewable
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Renewable Energy sources are generally unreliable and dilute. These
resources are not available constantly. The efficiency of conversion of these energy
sources is low, so a large land area is required to concentrate the energy.
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2. Non-Conventional Energy sources have a high gestation period.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Non-conventional energy sources require lower time for setting up the
power plant as compared to conventional energy sources. Solar power plants and
wind power plants have gestation period of 15 months and 1.5 years respectively. On
the other hand, thermal power plants have a gestation period of 5-6 years.
3. Based on the following options, choose the correct option.

Statement I: Non-Conventional energy is available in nature free of cost.
Statement II: Non-Conventional energy is exhaustible in nature.
a) Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation
of Statement I
b) Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I
c) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
d) Statement II is true and Statement I is false
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Most of the renewable energy sources such as wind and solar energy
are available in nature free of cost. They are inexhaustible and cannot be depleted by
human activity.
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4. The availability of Renewable energy sources is _____

a) uncertain
b) constant
c) high
d) regular
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Renewable energy sources i.e. wind energy, solar energy, wave energy,
tidal energy, etc are intermittent in nature. Most of them are non-dispatchable due
to their variable nature.
5. The cost of harnessing energy from Non-Conventional Energy sources is low.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Non-conventional energy plants employ expensive equipment. This
increases the cost of harnessing energy from them.
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6. Which of the following statements is not true about Renewable Energy?

a) They do not cause pollution
b) Their transportation is difficult
c) They cause ecological imbalance
d) They have a low gestation period
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Non Renewable energy sources such as fossil fuels cause emission of
greenhouse gases which disturb the ecological balance. Renewable energy sources,
on the other hand, do not cause ecological imbalance.
7. Renewable energy-based power plants have ______

a) negligible fuel cost
b) low energy availability
c) negligible production capacity
d) fuel storage tanks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Renewable energy-based plants require negligible to no fuel for their
operation. That’s why they cause negligible pollution.
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8. Renewable energy plants require ________than traditional generators.
a) more fuel
b) less maintenance
c) higher operating cost
d) more uranium
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Renewable energy plants require very little maintenance after
installation. They require very fewer operating costs as compared to traditional fossil
fuel generators. They need negligible amount of fuel for operation. They do not
employ uranium.
9.Most of the Renewable energy sources are ________

a) location-specific
b) universally available
c) highly efficient
d) polluting
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: One of the major limitations of renewable sources is that they are
location specific. States without rivers can’t have hydropower dams, and states with
wind speed less than 23km/hr at 50 m height can’t have wind energy plants.
Renewable energy sources are not universally available due to their location
specificness. They have low efficiency due to their dilute nature. Most of the
Renewable energy sources do not require any fuel and hence cause minimum to low
pollution.
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10. The storage of renewable energy sources is expensive.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following has caused global warming since the past 150 years?
a) Anthropogenic greenhouse gas emissions
b) Ice age greenhouse gas emission
c) Emissions of sulphur
d) Emissions of aerosols
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Anthropogenic greenhouse gas emissions is accused of causing global
warming especially due to the expansion of industries since the past 150 years.
Sulphur and aerosol emissions cool the planet.
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2. Which of the following has caused global warming?

a) Burning of biomass
b) Burning of fossil fuels
c) Releasing CFCs into the atmosphere
d) Melting metals
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Burning fossil fuels for various industrial and domestic processes since
the past 100-150 years has led to global warming. Releasing CFCs into the
atmosphere damages the ozone layer.
3. What is the major problem with wind energy?

a) Generates energy from wind
b) It is a renewable source of energy
c) Requires large area of land
d) Compact and does not require large area of land
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The major problems with wind energy is that it requires large area of
land. It also poses a threat to wildlife habitat like destruction of birds. It is a
renewable source of energy because it generates energy from wind.
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4. How does acid rain affect the environment?

a) By precipitating clean and fresh rainwater only in freshwater bodies
b) By precipitating clean and fresh rainwater in all water bodies at once
c) By consuming all polluted water and precipitate clean water from water cycle
d) By precipitating acidic rainwater
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Acid rain is basically rainwater which is acidic. It is caused by dissolution
of harmful gases like sulphur dioxide and carbon monoxide in clouds during
precipitation thereby polluting the clean rainwater.
5. What is the pH level of acid rain?

a) Between 3-4
b) Between 6-8
c) 7
d) Between 11-14
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Acid rain is acidic. Any acid has a pH value less than 7. So, the pH level of
acid rain lies between 3-4. Practically, substances with pH values lying between 6-8
are considered neutral.
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6. Which of the following is/are directly harming the atmosphere?

a) Contamination of water bodies
b) Ozone layer depletion and emission of acidic gas
c) Global climate change and contamination of water bodies
d) Land fills and industrial emissions into water bodies
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ozone layer depletion, emission of greenhouse gases and emission of
acidic gas directly harm the atmosphere. Land fills and water pollution indirectly
harm the atmosphere.
7. Which of the following is/are major contributor(s) of acid rain?

a) Sulphur
b) Sulphur and sulphur dioxide
c) Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide
d) Nitrogen dioxide and argon
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide are major contributors of acid
rain. They are released by smelters for nonferrous ores, industrial boilers and
vehicles.
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8. Which of the following energy sources is affected when energy crops compete with
food production?
a) Solar
b) Wind
c) Hydro
d) Biomass
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Biomass energy generation is strongly affected when energy crops
compete with food production. Energy crops are specifically grown to be used as
energy sources and not for food. If it competes with food crops then its production
may decrease.
9. What is a solar cooling technology?

a) Sun’s thermal energy is transferred to a heat transfer fluid which passes through a
heat exchanger
b) Sun’s thermal energy is transferred to a heat transfer solid which passes through a
heat exchanger
c) Sun’s nuclear energy is transferred to a heat transfer fluid which passes through a
cold exchanger
d) Sun’s thermal energy is transferred to a heat transfer fluid which passes through a
cold exchanger
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A solar cooling technology is a system that transfers sun’s thermal
energy to a heat transfer fluid (also called as working fluid). This fluid then passed
through a heat exchanger where the heat is moved from one system to another
thereby achieving cooling.
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10. What does ozone protect the earth from?
a) Sound waves
b) Harmful UV radiation
c) Visible radiation
d) Greenhouse effect
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ozone protects the earth and its creatures from the harmful UV
radiations. These radiations are known to damage the eye and cause many skin
diseases.
11. Wind plants affect the habitat of _______

a) tigers
b) whales
c) birds and bats
d) fish
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Win plants affect the habitat of birds and bats. They tend to obstruct the
path of birds. In fact, this may even result in killing them.
12. Which of the following is an example of a nuclear accident?

a) Construction of dams
c) Nuclear fusion
d) Nuclear reactor core melt
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Nuclear reactor core melt is an example of a nuclear accident. Nuclear
fusion is a type of nuclear reaction. Construction of dams and burning fossil fuels are
not examples of nuclear accidents.
13. What happens when a nuclear reactor core is damaged?

a) Significant amounts of radioactive isotopes are released
b) Significant amounts of radio-inactive isotopes are released
c) Significant amounts of nitrogen oxides are released
d) Greenhouse gases are released
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When a nuclear reactor core is damaged significant amounts of
radioactive isotopes are released. These isotopes are extremely harmful to both,
humans and environment. In fact, they may cause diseases that last for generations.
14. Aerosols, CFCs and freons damage the ozone layer.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Aerosols, CFCs and freons damage the ozone layer. They react with
ozone molecules and reduce the amount of ozone molecules in the stratosphere.
This lets harmful UV radiation into earth.
15. Dams and reservoirs lead to adverse environmental and sociological impacts.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following is the cleanest fossil fuel?

a) Natural gas
b) Petrol
c) Petroleum
d) Coal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Natural gas is often described as the cleanest fossil fuel. Petroleum is a
raw form of fossil fuel found in oceans and seas. Petrol is a processed product of
petroleum.
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2. What is IPCC?
a) A government organization that provides scientific information regarding climate
change and its effects
b) An intergovernmental body of UN that provides scientific information regarding
climate change and its effects
c) An intergovernmental organization that provides scientific information regarding
d) A private company that sells scientific information regarding climate change
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: IPCC stands for “Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change”. It is an
intergovernmental body of UN that provides scientific information regarding climate
change and its effects. It is non-profit organization.
3. What is the objective of the main international treaty on climate change?

a) To provide scientific information on climate change
b) To destabilise the greenhouse gas concentrations so that anthropogenic actions
interfere with the climate system
c) To stabilise the greenhouse gas concentrations so that anthropogenic actions do not
d) To bring peace between all countries
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The objective of the main international treaty on climate is to stabilise
the greenhouse gas concentrations so that anthropogenic actions do not interfere
with the climate system. The treaty itself does not provide information on climate
change.
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4. What is the aim of Paris Agreement in 2015? Note that C indicates Celsius.
a) To keep the decrease in global average temperature to below 2 degree C
b) To keep the decrease in global average temperature to above 2 degree C
c) To keep the increase in global average temperature to above 2 degree C
d) To keep the increase in global average temperature to below 2 degree C
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Paris Agreement is an agreement within United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change dealing with greenhouse gas emissions. Its long term
goal is to keep the decrease in global average temperature to below 2 degree C.
5. Which of the following IPCC assessment reports was a critical input in Paris
Agreement?
a) Fifth Assessment Report
b) First Assessment Report
c) Second Assessment Report
d) Tenth Assessment Report
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: IPCC’s fifth Assessment Report (AR) was a critical scientific input into
Paris Agreement held in 2015. The AR5 report was developed through a scoping
process involving climate change experts from all relevant disciplines.
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6. Where is the ozone hole located?

a) Asia
b) Antarctica
c) Europe
d) America
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ozone hole is located over Antarctica. It was and still is the largest
observed ozone hole. It was caused due continuous emissions of CFCs and freons.
7. What is main potential water pollutant from a geothermal reservoir?

a) Carbon
b) Silicon
c) Sulphur
d) Nitrogen
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The main water pollutant from a geothermal reservoir is sulphur. This is
because underground reservoirs contain large amounts of sulphur and other
minerals.
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8. How does a geothermal plant prevent the leakage of sulphur into environment?
a) By trapping it inside the reservoir during extraction of hot water
b) By trapping it inside the reservoir before extraction of hot water
c) By disposing it into water bodies
d) By using a closed-loop water system
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Most geothermal plants prevent leakage of sulphur and other minerals
into the environment by using a closed-loop water system. The spent water is
pumped directly back into the geothermal reservoir.
9. Which of the following gases is commonly emitted into the atmosphere from an
open-loop geothermal system?
a) Hydrogen sulphide
b) Hydrogen
c) Carbon
d) Silicon
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrogen sulphide is commonly emitted into the atmosphere from an
open-loop geothermal system. Carbon and silicon are not gases. Even if hydrogen is
emitted it is not the most common one.
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10. How does hydrogen sulphide from geothermal plants contribute towards pollution?
a) By reacting with acidic gases to cleans the precipitating rainwater
b) By forming sulphur dioxide
c) By changing into one of the noble gases
d) By reacting with ozone
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydrogen sulphide reacts and changes into sulphur dioxide. Sulphur
dioxide contributes to the formation of acid rain which is harmful to the
environment.
11. Which of the following is the largest emitter of sulphur dioxide?

a) Geothermal plants
b) Photosynthesis
c) Coal plants
d) Respiration
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If not the coal plants are one of the largest emitters of sulphur dioxide.
Photosynthesis releases oxygen and respiration releases carbon dioxide. Though
geothermal plants release hydrogen sulphide which converts into sulphur dioxide,
their contribution is negligible when compared to coal plants.
12. Land requirement of a geothermal plant depends on _______

a) greenhouse gas emissions
b) hydrogen sulphide emissions
c) the wildlife
d) amount of power capacity
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Land requirement of a geothermal plant depends on the amount of
power capacity. It also depends on other factors like the substation and the type of
energy conversion system.
13. Which of the following is one of the major problems caused by a geothermal plant
to land?
a) Land subsidence
b) Land fertilisation
c) Reservoir cleansing
d) Noble gas emissions
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Land subsidence is one of the major problems caused by a geothermal
plant to land. It is basically the sinking of land surface due to various activities in the
plant and reservoir. Geothermal plants neither fertilise the land nor emit noble
gases.
14. Photovoltaic manufacturing requires hazardous materials.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Manufacturing of photovoltaics require hazardous materials like arsenic
and cadmium. Consumption of such metals even in small amounts could be deadly
for the workers in the factory.
15. Life cycle assessment is a good indicator of the net environmental impact of any
technology.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is “3E”?
a) Energy, economy and environment
b) Reduce, reuse and recycle
c) Energy, economy and envision
d) Ergonomics, evolution and economy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: “3E” is a nomenclature used for energy, economy and environment. It
describes the interrelation between them. “3Rs” are used for reduce, reuse and
recycle.
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2. Which of the following is the 7th goal of the eight millennium goals of United Nations?
a) To eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
b) To ensure environment sustainability
c) To reduce child mortality
d) To develop a global partnership for development
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The seventh goal of the eight millennium development goals of UN is to
ensure environment sustainability. The first is to eradicate extreme poverty and
hunger. The fourth is to reduce child mortality and the eight is to develop a global
partnership for development.
3. Which of the following is relates the three elements of “3E”?
a) Energy from fossil fuels
b) Energy from natural gas
c) Renewable energy sources and technology
d) Economy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Renewable energy sources and their respective technologies relate the
three elements of “3E”. This is because the renewable technology incorporates an
environment-centered strategy thereby forcing the economy to adopt it as well.
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4. Which of the following ensures sustainable growth?

a) Positive economic growth, deterioration of environment with economic expansion
and energy resource meeting energy demands
b) Negative economic growth, deterioration of environment with economic expansion
c) Positive economic growth, non-deterioration of environment with economic
expansion and growth of energy resource not meeting energy demands
d) Positive economic growth, deterioration of environment with economic expansion
and growth of energy resource meeting energy demands
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is necessary that the environment does not deteriorate with economic
expansion for sustainable growth. Also, positive economic growth and growth of
energy resource meeting energy demands are key elements of sustainable growth.
5. Sustainable development requires that energy resource ________

a) cannot be exhausted completely
b) can be complete exhausted
c) can destroy the environment
d) cannot meet the growing demand
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sustainable development requires that energy resource cannot be
exhausted completely. If any one resource is at the brink of exhaustion, it has to be
substituted by another or a shift to another source has to be made.
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6. Which of the following contributes towards growth of economic and energy?

a) Intermittent capital and human resource investment
b) Continuous capital and human resource investment
c) Decrement in capital and human resource investment
d) No capital and human resource investment
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Continuous capital and human resource investment contributes
towards the growth of economy and energy. Continuous investments lead to
inventions and innovations which can disrupt the economy and make pervasive
changes.
7. Which of the following energy resources seems inexhaustible?

a) Natural gas
b) Coal
c) Sun
d) Petrol
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sun seems an inexhaustible source of energy. Coal, natural gas and
petrol are fossil fuels which are already being consumed at an alarming rate.
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8. For sustainable development, environment damage rate _____ environment recovery

rate.
a) should be greater than the
b) should be exponentially greater than the
c) should be same as the
d) should be lesser than the
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For sustainable development, environment damage rate should be less
than environment recovery rate. If it is greater even by a small margin, the system
cannot sustain itself due to positive feedback.
9. Which of the following best describes the aim of sustainable consumption and
production?
a) To reduce resource consumption, waste generation and emissions across the full life
cycle of processes and products
b) To increase resource consumption, waste generation and emissions across the full
life cycle of processes and products
c) To reduce resource consumption, increase waste generation and emissions across
the full life cycle of processes and products
d) To increase resource consumption, reduce waste generation and emissions across
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sustainable consumption and production aims to reduce resource
consumption. It also aims to reduce waste generation and emissions across the full
life cycle of processes and products.
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10. Which of the following best describes green economy?

a) A high carbon, resource inefficient and socially inclusive economy
b) A low carbon, resource efficient and socially inclusive economy
c) A low carbon, resource inefficient and socially exclusive economy
d) A high carbon, resource efficient and socially inclusive economy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A green economy is a low carbon, resource efficient and socially
inclusive economy. Without the society being consciously involved, the green
economy cannot be created let alone sustain.
11. What is the goal of sustainability in any process?

a) To maintain the process finitely
b) To eventually eliminate the process
c) To maintain the process indefinitely
d) To support damaging the environment
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The goal of sustainability is to maintain the process indefinitely without
endangering natural biotic system. Damaging the environment or anything else at
the cost of maintaining the process goes against the definition.
12. What are the three pillars of sustainable development?

a) Energy, economy and ergonomics
b) Environment, economy and evolution
c) Energy and evolution
d) Energy, economy and environment.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The three pillars of sustainable development are energy, economy and
environment. Ergonomics is the scientific study of understanding human interactions
with other elements of a system.
13. What is the main problem with development of countries?

a) Strain on environment to absorb the damage and self-heal
b) Decrement in poverty
c) Higher energy consumption per capita
d) Lower energy consumption per capita
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main problem with development of countries is the strain it puts on
the environment to absorb the damage. It also unarguably assumes that the
environment will heat by itself without any cost. Decrement in poverty and high
energy consumption per capita are the consequences of development.
14. Sustainable development binds together the concern for natural systems with
social and political challenges.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sustainable development binds together the concern for natural
systems with social, economic and political challenges faced by humans. Ideally, the
society grows without destroying the environment. It might even treat the damage
that has already been done.
15. Sustainability can be achieved by replacing existing resources with other resources
of equal value.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following best describes world energy consumption?

a) Total energy produced and used by humanity
b) Total energy consumed by humanity
c) Total energy consumed by humans in the biological pyramid
d) Total energy produced by humans in the biological pyramid
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: World energy consumption is the total energy produced and used by
humanity. It includes all energy harnessed from every source.
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2. Which of the following is NOT included in world energy consumption?

a) Solar energy
b) Energy from food
c) Energy from wind
d) Energy from fossil fuels
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Energy from food is not included in world energy consumption. Since
the energy consumption from biomass is difficult to calculate, it has not been well-
documented.
3. World energy consumption is measured _______

a) quarterly
b) half-yearly
c) yearly
d) every decade
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: World energy consumption is generally measured year. It involves all
energy harnessed from every possible energy source towards humanity’s endeavors.
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4. Which of the following energy sources is majorly used?

a) Wind energy
b) Nuclear energy
c) Hydrogen energy
d) Fossil fuels
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Burning fossil fuels supplies more than 80 percent of world’s energy. It
is the major cause of some of the world’s pressing problems like global warming and
climate change.
5. Which of the following is perceived to contribute towards world population growth?

a) Uganda
b) USA
c) UK
d) Germany
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Developing countries like Uganda, Botswana, India, China, etc. are
perceived to contribute towards immense growth of world population. This is
because of poverty and high infant mortality rate.
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6. Why is there a demand for renewable sources of energy?

a) Because they emit greenhouse gases
b) Because of low or zero carbon footprint
c) Because of the decreasing global temperatures
d) Because they are more efficient
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Renewable energy sources are required because they have zero or
extremely low carbon footprint. Thus, greenhouse gas emissions from such sources
are negligible as compared to fossil fuels.
7. As the population grows, the demand for energy ________

a) decreases
b) remains the same
c) increases
d) becomes volatile
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As world population increases, the demand for energy increases. This is
because energy demand and consumption per capita increases.
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8. Which of the following countries will experience a major increment in energy

demand?
a) USA
b) France
c) UK
d) China
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: China will experience a major increment in energy demand. China is the
most populated country in the world and its population is expected to increase.
Moreover, China is a developing country. Though the Chinese government have
taken steps to curb the growth, catering to the demands of the existing population is
extremely challenging.
9. Despite significant investments in renewable sector, why are fossil fuels still used?
a) Because of logistic, structural and operational issues
b) Because people do not trust the renewable sector
c) Because fossil fuels are cheap
d) Because global warming is a hoax
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Despite significant investments in renewable energy sector, fossil fuels
still dominate and supply 80% of world’s energy. This is mainly because of logistic,
structural and operational issues. For instance, it is a financial challenge to replace
the existing machinery.
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10. Which of the following institutions publish energy data?

a) NASA
b) International Energy Agency (IEA)
c) ISRO
d) Microsoft
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Institutions such as the International Energy Agency (IEA), the U.S.
Energy Information Administration (EIA) and the European Environment Agency (EEA)
publish energy data. NASA and ISRO are space agencies. Microsoft is a for-profit
software solution company.
11. What is total primary energy supply?

c) Sum of energy production minus storage changes
d) Sum of energy production including storage changes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Total primary energy supply (TPES) is the sum of energy production
minus storage changes. TPES can be used as an estimator for energy consumption
as yearly changes in energy storage are negligible.
12. What is the unit of total primary energy supply?

a) Watts
b) Joules
c) Newtons
d) Watt-hours
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Total primary energy supply (TPES) is measured in watt-hours (Wh). In
2013, IEA estimated that TPES was 157.5 petawatt hours. Watts is the unit of power.
Joules is the unit of energy. Newtons is the unit of force.
13. What was the growth in energy demand in the year 2018 as stated by IEA?
a) 2.3%
b) 1.3%
c) 1%
d) 0.5%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In 2018, the growth in energy demand was 2.3%. This was remarkable
because until then the average annual growth rate was 1.3%. Emissions also increase
as the demand for energy increases.
14. World energy consumption is a power source metric of civilization.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: World energy consumption is a power source metric of civilization. It
has deep implications for humanity in terms of policy making and political decisions.
15. It estimated that the world energy consumption will grow by 50% between 2018
and 2050.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following leads the energy production in low-carbon sources?

a) Photovoltaics
b) Wind energy
c) Solar thermal power systems
d) Nuclear energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar energy, especially photovoltaics are becoming popular low-carbon
energy sources. Photovoltaic systems are installed in both, industries and houses to
meet their respective energy demands.
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2. Which of the following countries is least dependent on fossil fuels?
a) India
b) Iceland
c) USA
d) England
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Iceland is least dependent on fossil fuels. The energy requirement of
Iceland is satisfied by many other non-fossil fuel energy sources like geothermal
power plants.
3. Which of the following developed enjoys low electricity prices?

a) Belgium
b) Italy
c) Sweden
d) Germany
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sweden enjoys low electricity prices. It costs about 0.21 USD per KWh in
Sweden. Germany is one of the most expensive places in terms electricity prices with
a cost of 0.33 USD per KWh.
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4. According to EIA, what is the globally projected increase in transportation energy

between 2018 and 2050?
a) Less than 10%
b) Between 10 and 20%
c) Greater than 100%
d) Between 30 and 50%
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Transportation energy is projected to increase by 40% between 2018
and 2050. The increase is largely driven by growing energy demands in developing
countries.
5. Which of the following best describes the reason for projected increase in
transportation energy in developing countries?
a) Energy demand per capita increases and hence the net energy required in every
process increases
b) Energy demand per capita decreases and hence the net energy required in every
process increases
c) Energy demand per capita decreases and hence the net energy required in every
process decreases
d) Energy demand per capita increases and hence the net energy required in every
process decreases
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As developing countries improve their quality of living, the energy
demand per capita increases. As energy demand per capita increases, the net energy
required in every process increases.
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6. Which of the following is the most usable form of energy for future?
a) Solar
b) Electricity
c) Thermal
d) Nuclear
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Electricity is the most usable form of energy for future. As automation
increases, every device/machine will operate on electricity. Solar, thermal and
nuclear may be raw sources of energy but they cannot be used directly for most
activities.
7. Which of the following sources are amongst the fastest growing energy sources?
a) Solar and wastewater
b) Wind and hydro
c) Hydro and solar
d) Wind and wastewater
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Solar and hydro are amongst the fastest growing energy sources.
Though wind and nuclear may be good competitors but solar and hydro energy have
penetrated into the daily lives of common man.
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8. What is an energy policy?

a) A method to address issues of energy development
b) A free and liberal methodology towards energy development
c) A manner in which governments decide to stop energy development
d) A manner in which governments decide to address issues related to energy
development
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Energy policy is basically a methodology formed by an entity (usually
governments) to address issues related to energy development. This includes energy
production, distribution and consumption.
9. What is the main aim of implementing eco-energy policies?

a) To tackle global warming and climate change
b) To reduce energy consumption
c) To manage energy production and consumption at the cost of degrading the
environment
d) To prevent illegal energy production
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main aim of implementing an eco-energy-oriented policy is to tackle
global warming and climate change. The idea is to manage energy production,
distribution and consumption without damaging the environment.
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10. Renewable energy has the potential to mitigate climate change.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. In terms of total primary energy consumption, India stands _______

a) third
b) second
c) first
d) fifth
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In terms of total primary energy consumption, India stands third
globally. United States and China are the two countries ahead of India.
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2. Where is the largest coal belt in India?

a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Jharkhand
c) Assam
d) Kerala
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The largest coal belt in India is at Jharia located in the Dhanbad
neighbourhood in the state of Jharkhand. Jharia is famous for its rich coal resources
used to make coke.
3. Which of the following majorly account for thermal power in India?

a) Oil
b) Solar thermo-mechanical systems
c) Coal and lignite
d) Biomass
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Coal and lignite account for 67% of India’s installed capacity. The
electricity sector in India had an installed capacity of over 250 GW by the end of July
2014. Solar thermo-mechanical systems are renewable systems and are not amongst
the major contributors.
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4. When (year) was India the third largest electricity producer in the world?
a) 2019
b) 2010
c) 2017-18
d) 2014-15
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: India was the third largest electricity producer in the world during 2014-
15. However, only 80% of the population had access to mains power.
5. Which of the following is a non-commercial form of energy used for cooking in India?
a) Cow dung
b) Coal
c) Hydro
d) Electricity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cow dung is a non-commercial form of energy used for cooking in India.
It comes under the category of biomass and is burnt to generate energy for cooking.
Coal, hydro and electricity are commercial forms of energy.
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6. What is the largest thermal power plant in India?

a) Mundra Thermal Power Station
b) Vindhyachal Thermal Power Station
c) Sasan Ultra Mega Power Plant
d) Talcher Super Thermal Power Station
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Vindyachal Thermal Power Station in the Singrauli district of Madhya
Pradesh is the largest power plant in India. It has an installed capacity of 4760MW. It
is a coal based plant and is operated by NTPC.
7. What is the second largest thermal power plant in India?

a) Tiroda Thermal Power Plant
c) Mundra Thermal Power Station
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Mundra Thermal Power Station located in Kutch district of Gujarat is the
second largest thermal power plant in India. It has a capacity of 4260 MW.
Vindhyachal Thermal Power Station is the largest one.
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8. Which of the following states is known oil reserves?

a) Jharkhand
b) Odisha
c) Madhya Pradesh
d) Assam
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Assam, Gujarat, Nagaland and Rajasthan are known for their oil
reserves. Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha are known for coal reserves.
9. Which of the following states is known for gas reserves?

a) Nagaland
b) Odisha
c) Maharashtra
d) Jharkhand
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Nagaland, Assam, Rajasthan, etc. are known for their gas reserves. Most
states containing oil reserves also contain gas reserves. Jharkhand and Odisha are
known for their coal reserves.
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10. _______ is found in coastal Odisha, Kerala and Andhra Pradesh.

a) Uranium
b) Thorium
c) Coal
d) Gas
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Thorium is found in coastal Odisha, Kerala and Andhra Pradesh. Though
coal is found in Odisha and Andhra Pradesh, it is not found in Kerala. Uranium is
mainly found in Jharkhand and Rajasthan.
11. _______ is the largest windfarm in India?
a) Vindhayachal
b) Mundra
c) Muppandal
d) Talcher
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Muppandal is the largest windfarm in India. Vindhyachal, Mundra and
Talcher are names of thermal power stations which operate on coal.
12. Where is Muppandal Windfarm located in India?

a) Assam
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Kerala
d) Tamil Nadu
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Muppandal windfarm is located in Tamil Nadu. It has a capacity of 1500
MW and is the largest wind power plant in India.
13. In 2017, India ranked _______ in coal consumption.

a) second
b) third
c) First
d) Fifth
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In 2107, India ranked second after China in coal consumption. Energy
for more than half of the commercial sector is supplied by coal in India.
14. India has 22 nuclear reactors in operation.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: India has 22 nuclear reactors in operation in 7 nuclear plants. The total
installed capacity is 6780 MW.
15. India is a net energy importer.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. How is India’s oil consumption met?

a) Through imports
b) Through exports
c) Through chemical industries
d) Through distillation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 79% of India’s oil consumption is met through imports. Chemical
industries only help if crude oil is available. Distillation is the process of separating
out contaminants from a liquid.
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2. What is the biggest nuclear power plant in India?

a) Vindhyachalul
b) Kudankulam
c) Mundra
d) Muppandal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Kundankulam Nuclear Power Plant is the largest nuclear power plant in
India. Vindhyachal and Mundra are thermal power stations. Muppandal windfarm is
the largest wind power plant in India.
3. Where Kundakulam Nuclear Power Plant located in India?

a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Telangana
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Gujarat
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Kundakulam Nuclear Power Plant is located in Kundakulam in
Tirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu. It is the largest nuclear power plant in India with a
capacity of 2000 MW.
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4. Which sector dominates hydroelectric power production in India?

a) Private
b) NGOs
c) Food industry
d) Public sector
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Public sector dominates hydroelectric power production in India. It
accounts for about 92.5% percent of India’s hydroelectric power. Private sector, food
industry and NGOs do not dominate hydroelectric power production in India.
5. Why can’t the government exploit the hydroelectric potential of Godavari, Narmada
and other rivers flowing through central India?
a) Because of opposition from tribal population
b) Because of finances
c) Because disputes between central and respective state governments
d) Because of poor land quality
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Government is unable to exploit the hydroelectric potential of Godavari,
Narmada and other rivers flowing through central India. This is because of
opposition from tribal population. They are worried that construction of dams might
damage their habitat.
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6. Which of the following is an example of public sector hydroelectric companies?

a) Hindustan Petroleum
b) NHPC
c) BHEL
d) BPCL
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC), Northeast Electric
Power Company (NEEPCO) and Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam (SJVNL) are examples of public
sector hydroelectric companies. Hindustan Petroleum deals with supply and trade of
petrol and diesel. BHEL is a public sector company on electricals and electronics.
7. Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka have ______ biomass power.

a) less than 100 KW
b) about 1 MW
c) more than 1 GW
d) more than 100 GW
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka have more than 1 GW of
biomass power. This power is grid interacted. These three states are leading in
electricity generation from biomass.
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8. What is the maximum conversion efficiency of thermal power plants?

a) Between 10 and 20%
b) 5%
c) Between 20 and 40%
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The maximum conversion efficiency of thermal power plants is around
45-46%. In a hot country like India, by reducing the inlet air temperature through
absorption chiller the maximum conversion efficiency can be attained.
9. Industrial sector in India consumes ______ total commercial energy produced.

a) more than half of the
b) less than 10% of the
c) less than half of the
d) the amount as the domestic sector consumes from
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The industrial sector in India consumes about 56% — more than half of
the total commercial energy produced. This sector includes energy intensive
industries like aluminum, iron, textile, pulp and paper.
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10. The industrial sector in India has a higher energy intensity as compared to that of
developed countries.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The industrial sector in India has a higher energy intensity as compared
to that of developed countries. The energy intensity in India is about 3 times that of
US and 4 times that of UK.
11. Why is the energy intensity of Indian industrial sector higher than that of the
developed countries?
a) Because of less number of energy intensive industries
b) Because of lower population
c) Because of large number of energy intensive industries
d) Because of large population
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As compared to the developed countries, Indian industrial sector has a
higher energy intensity. This is because of the large number of energy intensive
industries like textile, pulp and paper.
12. How can energy consumption in industrial sector be reduced?

a) By not recycling
b) By using old and outdated technology
c) By wasting heat
d) By cascading and process control
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Energy consumption in industrial sector can be reduced by cascading,
improvement in process and process control. Recycling and updating technology
also contributes towards reduction in energy consumption.
13. What does the energy consumption in Indian transport sector depend on?
a) Fuel price
b) Driver
c) Ergonomics
d) Fuel tank
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Energy consumption in Indian transportation sector depends on fuel
price, vehicle efficiency, infrastructure quality, etc. It does not depend on ergonomics
and the fuel tank.
14. Kerosene is used for cooking and lighting lamps in rural parts of India.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Kerosene is used for cooking and lighting lamps in rural parts of India.
Apart from kerosene, animal waste, firewood and other crop waste are also used for
various domestic purposes.
15. Air conditioning is the major electricity consumer in commercial sector.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is solar radiation?

a) Energy radiated from the sun in all directions
b) Energy radiated from earth in all directions
c) Radiation travelling in space
d) Energy radiated from sun that travels in ether
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar radiation is the energy radiated from sun in all directions. Energy
radiated from earth is not solar radiation. Any random radiation traveling in space is
called cosmic rays.
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2. What are three relevant bands of solar radiation?
a) UV, infrared and far infrared
b) UV, visible and infrared
c) Ultrasonic, infrared and visible
d) UV, ultrasonic and near infrared
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The three relevant bands of solar radiation are ultraviolet (UV), infrared
and visible bands. Far infrared and near infrared are components of infrared.
Ultrasonic is related to sound waves.
3. Which two bands of solar radiation are majority in the total solar radiation reaching
earth?
a) UV and visible
b) Visible and ultrasonic
c) Visible and infrared
d) Infrared and UV
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Infrared and UV are the major components of the total solar radiation
reaching earth. Infrared radiation makes up 49.4% and visible light makes up 42.3%.
Only 8% of the total radiation is in the UV band.
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4. Which of the following affects the amount of solar radiation received by a location or
water body?
a) Shape of the water body
b) Time at night
c) Rotational speed of earth
d) Altitude and latitude
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A variety of factors affect the amount of solar radiation received by a
location or water body. Some of them are altitude and latitude of the location, cloud
cover over the location and the time of day. No solar radiation is received at night.
Rotational speed of earth is constant and doesn’t affect the amount of solar radiation
received.
5. What is direct solar radiation?
a) Solar radiation directly received by earth’s surface from sun
b) Cosmic radiation directly received by earth’s surface
c) Solar radiation received by earth’s surface after reflection
d) Cosmic radiation received by earth’s surface after reflection
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Direct solar radiation is solar radiation directly received by earth’s
surface from sun. It is called direct because no scattering or reflection occurs. Cosmic
radiation is not same solar radiation.
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6. What is indirect solar radiation?

b) Solar radiation received by earth’s surface after scattering
c) Cosmic radiation directly received by earth’s surface
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Indirect solar radiation is solar radiation received by earth’s surface
after scattering or reflection. It is called indirect because the incident radiation is not
directly received by earth’s surface. Every cosmic radiation need be radiation from
sun.
7. What type of radiation does earth emit?

a) UV
b) Visible
c) Infrared
d) Longitudinal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Earth emits infrared radiation. This is typically called as outgoing long-
wave radiation (OLR) of wavelength between 3 and 100um. They are also called as
thermal radiation.
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8. What is the electromagnetic spectrum?
a) Radiation spectrum consisting only of UV and visible rays
b) All rays falling in the category of infrared and UV rays
c) All rays falling in the category of gamma and x-rays
d) Radiation spectrum encompassing all types of radiation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As the name suggests, electromagnetic spectrum is a term used to
define all types of existing radiation. It ranges from gamma rays to radio waves. Solar
radiation received by earth is just a small part of the spectrum.
9. Which of the following type of UV radiation inhibits photosynthetic reaction in

phytoplankton?
a) UV-A
b) UV-C
c) Infrared
d) Gamma rays
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: UV-A and UV-B radiation inhibit photosynthetic reaction in
phytoplankton. Infrared and gamma rays are not the types of UV radiation.
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10. Which of the following is responsible for thermal energy?

a) UV
b) Infrared
c) Gamma
d) UV-A
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Infrared radiation is responsible for thermal and heat energy. They lie
on the opposite side of the spectrum from ultraviolet light. This radiation has a
wavelength greater than 700nm.
11. How do infrared radiation cause heat?

a) By exciting neutrons of the substance that absorb them
b) By de-exciting electrons of the substance that absorb them
c) By exciting electrons of the substance that absorb them
d) By exciting protons of the substance that absorb them
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Infrared radiation cause heat by exciting electrons. When they are
absorbed by substances, they interact and excite electrons by transferring energy.
This leads to heat as the atom (or electron) is said to be in excited state.
12. Why are surfaces of water bodies warmer than the depths?
a) Because water does not absorb UV radiation
b) Because water does not absorb thermal radiation
c) Because water absorbs visible radiation
d) Because water absorbs thermal radiation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Surfaces of water bodies are warmer than the depths. This is because
most of the infrared radiation is absorbed in the first meter of the water’s surface.
Hence, they don’t make it to the depths.
13. What is photosynthetically active radiation (PAR)?

a) Radiation best suited for photosynthesis
b) All radiation in which photosynthesis occurs
c) Radiation in which photosynthesis does not occur
d) Radiation which deactivates the ongoing photosynthesis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) is the radiation best suited for
photosynthesis. It is basically wavelength range in which photosynthesis occurs with
ease. This range is between 400nm and 700nm – visible range.
14. UV-A, UV-B and UV-C are three wavelength ranges of ultraviolet radiation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: UV-A, UV-B and UV-C are three wavelength ranges of ultraviolet
radiation. These wavelengths can directly affect the DNA of water inhabitants as well
as harmful photochemicals.
15. Energy of the wavelength increases with frequency and decreases with the size of
wavelength.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following is used to measure the flux of outgoing long-wave radiation?
a) Watt/square meter
b) Watt
c) Joules
d) Watt/cubic meter
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The flux of energy transported by outgoing long-wave radiation is
measured in watt/square meter. While Watt is used to measure power, Joule is used
to measure energy.
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2. Which of the following process is involved in long-wave radiation?

a) Adsorption
b) Scattering
c) Evaporation
d) Condensation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In earth’s climate system, the processes involved in long-wave radiation
are absorption, scattering and emissions. The emissions are from atmospheric gases,
aerosols, clouds and the surface. Condensation is the process of gas converting to
liquid due to decrease in temperature.
3. How does earth lose its excess solar radiation?

a) By storing the radiation in its core
b) By using the radiation to generate more magma
c) By radiative cooling
d) By conductive cooling
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Earth loses its excess solar radiation by radiative cooling. The outgoing
long-wave radiation takes the excess energy from earth back into the space.
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4. How do all the living organisms on receive energy?

a) From wind
b) From fossil fuels
c) From earth’s heat
d) From sun
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Sun is the source of energy for all living organisms on earth. It provides
energy for photosynthesis which triggers the biological food cycle and food web.
Thus, the energy is transferred between organisms as described in the biological
energy pyramid.
5. What is earth’s energy budget?

a) Balance between received energy and emitted energy after the distribution of
energy throughout the five components of earth’s climate system
b) Balance between received energy and emitted energy before the distribution of
c) Balance between received energy and emitted energy
d) Balance between received energy and emitted energy without the distribution of
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Earth’s energy budget is the balance between received energy and
emitted energy after the distribution of energy throughout the five components of
earth’s climate system. It is important to note the outgoing energy is the energy after
distribution.
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6. What happens to earth when incoming energy is greater than the outgoing energy?
a) Earth’s temperature decreases
b) Earth’s temperature increases
c) Earth’s temperature is not affected
d) Water level rises
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the incoming energy is greater than the outgoing energy, the
earth’s temperature rises. This results in global heating and the entire planet feels
the “heat”.
7. What happens to earth when incoming energy is less than the outgoing energy?
a) Earth’s temperature is not affected
c) Earth’s temperature decreases
d) Entire planet freezes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the incoming energy is lesser than the outgoing energy, the
earth’s temperature decreases. This results in global cooling. If the difference is large
and average global temperature decreases even by 1 degree Celsius, the entire
planet may be covered with snow.
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8. What is solar irradiance?

a) Solar radiation received by earth
b) Solar radiation directly received by earth’s surface
c) Solar radiation received by earth’s surface after scattering
d) Intensity with which the solar radiation enters the earth’s atmosphere
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Solar irradiance is the intensity with which the solar radiation enters the
earth’s atmosphere. Solar radiation directly received by earth’s surface is called
direct solar radiation. Solar radiation received by earth’s surface after scattering is
called indirect solar radiation.
9. During night, the net-all-wave radiation is dominated by _____

a) long-wave radiation
b) short-wave radiation
c) visible range
d) gamma rays
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: During night, the net-all-wave radiation is dominated by long-wave
radiation. The long-wave radiation dominates the net all-wave radiation in polar
regions as well. It is important to note that net-all-wave radiation is for a surface.
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10. Why is the earth’s temperature nearly stable?

a) Because the outgoing radiation dominates the incoming solar radiation
b) Because the incoming short-wave solar radiation nearly equals the outgoing long-
wave radiation
c) Because the incoming long-wave solar radiation dominates the outgoing short-wave
radiation
d) Because the incoming long-wave solar radiation dominates the outgoing long-wave
radiation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Earth’s temperature is nearly stable. This is because the incoming short-
wave solar radiation nearly equals the outgoing long-wave radiation. Any variation in
the global average temperature is detrimental to the planet.
11. Which of the following best describes intensity?

a) Energy supplied to a bulb
b) Power supplied to a bulb
c) Brightness of glowing bulb
d) Energy the bulb radiates as heat
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Intensity is best described by the brightness of a glowing bulb. Energy
the bulb radiates as heat is the power that is wasted by the bulb during its operation.
12. Solar irradiance is measured in ______

a) watts
b) meters/sec
c) newtons
d) watts/square meter
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Solar irradiance is measured in watts/square meter. It is the amount of
radiant flux on an area and hence those units. Speed and velocity are measured in
meters/s.
13. Which of the following influences solar irradiance?

a) Scattering elements like clouds
b) Shape of the location receiving the radiation
c) Type of the radiation
d) Type of the receiving surface
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar irradiance received by a location or water body depends on the
elevation above sea level, angle of sun and scattering elements like clouds. It does
not depend on the type of radiation and type of receiving surface.
14. Ozone absorbs UV light and hence affects solar irradiance.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ozone absorbs UV light and hence affects solar irradiance. The lower
the angle of the sun, the larger the amount of ozone the light has to pass through.
15. The distance that the solar radiation has to travel will be lowest when the sun is
directly overhead.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is extraterrestrial radiation?

a) Intensity of sun at the top of earth’s atmosphere
b) Intensity of sun at the top of its atmosphere
c) Energy of sun at the top of earth’s atmosphere
d) Force of sun on earth
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Extraterrestrial radiation is the intensity of sun at the top of earth’s
atmosphere. The radiation carries energy from sun to the earth. Sun majorly exerts a
gravitational force on other celestial bodies of the solar system including earth.
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2. Which of the following is used to measure extraterrestrial radiation?

a) Pressure
b) Watts/square meter
c) Joules/square meter
d) Torque
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Since extraterrestrial radiation is also a radiation, it is measured in
Watts/square meter. This unit is used to measure flux or intensity which is essentially
energy radiated per unit time per unit area.
3. Extraterrestrial radiation received by earth ________ throughout the year.

a) is constant
b) monotonically decreases
c) varies
d) monotonically increases
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Extraterrestrial radiation received by earth varies throughout the year. It
is neither a constant function nor a monotonically increasing or decreasing function
of earth’s distance from the sun.
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4. Why does the extraterrestrial radiation received by earth vary throughout the year?
a) Because earth’s orbit is circular
b) Because of radiation losses when travelling through ether
c) Because of radiation losses when travelling through vacuum
d) Because earth’s orbit is elliptic
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The extraterrestrial radiation received by earth varies throughout the
year. This is primarily because of the earth’s elliptical orbit. This results in varying
earth-sun distances throughout the year.
5. What is the average extraterrestrial irradiance received by earth (solar constant)?

a) 1361 Watts/square meter
b) 1361 Watts
c) 1250 Watts/square meter
d) 1250 Joules
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The average extraterrestrial irradiance received by earth (solar
constant) is approximately 1361 Watts/square meter. It varies by + 3% throughout
the year. Note that irradiance is always measured in Watts/square meter.
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6. What is all-wave radiation?

a) Sum of shortwave and long-wave-up-dwelling radiation minus sum of shortwave and
long-wave-down-dwelling radiation
b) Sum of shortwave and long-wave-down-dwelling radiation minus sum of shortwave
and long-wave-up-dwelling radiation
c) Difference of shortwave and long-wave-up-dwelling radiation plus difference of
shortwave and long-wave-down-dwelling radiation
d) Difference of shortwave and long-wave-down-dwelling radiation plus difference of
shortwave and long-wave-up-dwelling radiation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: All-wave radiation is the sum of shortwave and long-wave-down-
dwelling radiation minus sum of shortwave and long-wave-up-dwelling radiation. As
the name suggests, it is the net radiation received where net is calculated by
difference between net incoming and net outgoing radiation.
7. Which of the following blocks the outgoing long-wave radiation?

a) Earth
b) Seas
c) Clouds
d) Airplanes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Clouds tend to block the outgoing long-wave radiation. This results in
lower flux of long-wave radiation being emitted into the atmosphere. Earth emits the
long-wave radiation. Even if airplanes block or reflect the outgoing long-wave
radiation, the amount is negligible.
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8. How do clouds block the outgoing long-wave radiation (OLR)?

a) By emission
b) By adsorption and scattering
c) By absorption and adsorption
d) By scattering and absorption
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Clouds block the outgoing long-wave radiation by scattering and
absorption. They absorb the incident OLR and scatter them thereby resulting in
reflection of the radiation back to earth.
9. What is albedo?
a) Measure of diffused reflection of solar radiation out of the total amount received by
astronomical body
b) Measure of absorption of solar radiation out of the total amount received by
astronomical body
c) Measure of diffused reflection of solar radiation out of the total amount received
d) Measure of absorbed of solar radiation out of the total amount received by
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Albedo is the measure of diffused reflection of solar radiation out of the
total amount of solar radiation received by an astronomical body. Due to reflection,
the amount of outgoing long-wave radiation from earth is affected.
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10. Higher the cloud albedo ________
a) less is the amount of solar radiation reflected back to earth
b) more is the amount of solar radiation reflected back to earth
c) less is the amount of solar radiation received from sun
d) more is the amount of solar radiation received from sun
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Higher the cloud albedo, more is the amount of solar radiation reflected
back to earth. Cloud albedo is a measure of the amount of outgoing solar radiation
reflected back to earth. It has nothing to do with the incoming solar radiation
received from sun.
11. Which of the following gases absorb outgoing long-wave radiation?

a) Carbon
b) Natural gas
c) Water vapour
d) Argon
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Water vapour, carbon dioxide and ozone absorb the outgoing long-
wave radiation. Carbon is not a gas. Natural gas and Argon do not absorb the
outgoing long-wave radiation.
12. Greenhouse gases ________ outgoing long-wave radiation.

a) emit
b) transmit
c) are conducive for
d) hinder
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Greenhouse gases hinder outgoing long-wave radiation. They absorb
some wavelengths thereby preventing thermal radiation from reaching space and
adding heat back to the atmosphere (and earth).
13. If not all, most of the outgoing long-wave radiation is emitted to space ________
a) in the absence of greenhouse gases and cloud cover
b) in the presence of greenhouse gases but absence of cloud cover
c) in the absence of greenhouse gases but presence of cloud cover
d) in the presence of greenhouse gases and cloud cover
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If not all, most of the outgoing long-wave radiation (OLR) is emitted to
space in the absence of greenhouse gases and cloud cover. Absence of both,
prevents absorption and reflection of OLR back to earth.
14. Presence of greenhouse gases leads to global warming.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Presence of greenhouse gases leads to global warming. This is because
they absorb some wavelengths of the outgoing long-wave radiation and re-emit
them back into the earth. This increases the net amount of heat in the planet.
15. Outgoing long-wave radiation depends on the temperature of radiating body.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What would happen if the sun’s radiation reaches the earth’s surface without
depletion?
a) Life would cease to exist
b) Life would be more vibrant
c) The earth’s average global temperature would become stable
d) The average global temperature of earth would decrease
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If sun’s radiation reaches the earth’s surface without depletion, the
average global temperature would increase to a point that life would cease to exist.
Earth would become too hot to sustain any life form.
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2. Which of the following plays a role in depletion of incoming solar radiation?
a) Irradiance of the incoming solar radiation
b) Dispersion
c) Solar flares
d) Nuclear fusion in sun
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Dispersion, scattering and absorption deplete the incoming solar
radiation to an extent that biological and non-biological operations supporting life
forms are not hindered. Nuclear fusion is the source of sun’s energy. Solar flares and
irradiance of incoming solar radiation do deplete the solar radiation.
3. What is the inclination of earth’s axis in degrees?

a) 37
b) 53
c) 23.5
d) 10
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Earth’s axis is inclined at angle of 23.5 degrees. This inclination is with
respect to the plane of earth’s orbit around the sun. After a cycle of about 40000
years, the tilt of the axis varies between 22.1 and 24.5 degrees.
4. How does the inclination of earth’s axis affect the incoming solar radiation?
a) All the solar radiation is concentrated around the equator
b) The radiation is distributed along the entire equator
c) All radiation is concentrated at the poles
d) Solar radiation is non-uniformly distributed throughout the earth’s surface
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The inclination of earth’s axis results in non-uniform distribution of
incoming solar radiation throughout the earth’s surface. The radiation is received at
varying angles of incidence depending on earth’s position.
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5. What happens to those sun rays which are not perpendicular to earth’s surface?
a) Energy of the solar radiation is spread over a greater area
b) Energy of the solar radiation is concentrated on a single spot at the poles
c) Energy of the solar radiation is uniformly distributed along the Tropic of Cancer
d) Energy of the solar radiation depends on the position of prime meridian
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The sun rays which are not perpendicular to earth’s surface are spread
over or dispersed a greater area. The energy of solar radiation is not dependent on
the position of prime meridian and is never uniformly distributed due to inclination
of earth’s axis.
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6. When solar radiation is dispersed over a greater area, what happens to the net
temperature?
a) The net temperature increases
b) The net temperature decreases
c) The net temperature is not affected
d) The net temperature monotonically increases forever
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When solar radiation is dispersed over a greater area, the net
temperature is lower. This is because the amount of energy at any given point within
the area decreases due to the spread.
7. Which of the following latitudes is significantly affected due to dispersion of

insolation with seasons?
a) All latitudes are equally affected
b) Temperate zones are significantly affected
c) Polar areas
d) Tropical areas are significantly affected
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Dispersion of solar insolation with seasons affects all latitudes.
However, the latitudes of polar regions are significantly affected. For instance,
melting of ice caps due to large amounts of solar radiation concentrated at the poles.
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8. What is scattering?
a) Spreading of solar radiation over large areas
b) Absorption of solar radiation by gaseous molecules
c) Absorption of outgoing long-wave radiation and re-emitting it back to the earth
d) Deflection of some wavelengths in all directions when passed through air
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Scattering is basically deflection of some wavelengths in all directions
when passed through air, water droplets or small suspended dust particles in the
atmosphere. Absorption of outgoing long-wave radiation and re-emitting it back to
the earth traps the heat within earth. This is not related to scattering.
9. When the solar radiation is scatted by suspended particles in air, they act ______ and
produce different colours.
a) like a prism
b) like a rock
c) like a mirror
d) like a solar concentrator
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the solar radiation is scattered by suspended particles in air, they
act like a prism and produce different colours. This action was shown by Newton in
his prism experiment. A glass prism disperses the incident white light into its seven
components. Note that a prism disperses white light and does not scatter it.
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10. Red sun during sunrise and sunset is an example of ________

a) diffraction
b) scattering
c) interference
d) absorption
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Red sun during sunrise and sunset is an example of scattering. In fact,
the blue colour of sky is also an example of scattering. Interference occurs when one
type of radiation interacts with another.
11. What is reflection?
a) Bouncing back some portion of the incident radiation into another medium
b) Slowing down of light on entering another medium
c) Bouncing back some portion of the incident radiation into the same medium from
which it came
d) Absorption by particles and re-emission of radiation of different frequencies
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Reflection is the process of bouncing back some portion of the incident
radiation into the same medium from which it came. Since an ideal absorber does
not exist, all substances reflect some amount of incident radiation.
12. Which among the following is the best reflector?

a) Rock
b) Aluminum
c) Iron
d) Snow
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Among the above options, snow is the best reflector. Snow reflects over
80% of the incident radiation (light). However, the ability to reflect depends on how
dirty or clean the snow is.
13. Which of the following types of clouds has the highest albedo?
a) Stratocumulus
b) Altocumulus
c) Cirrus
d) Cirrocumulus
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Thich clouds such as stratocumulus reflect a large amount of incoming
solar radiation. Hence, they have a high albedo. Thin clouds like cirrus tend to
transmit most solar radiation and hence have low albedo.
14. Earth reflects about 36% of the incoming radiation.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Earth reflects about 36-43% of the incoming solar radiation. The percent
of reflectivity of all wavelengths on a surface is known as its albedo. So, earth has an
albedo between 36-43%.
15. About quarter of the incoming solar radiation is scattered.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What are the two basic ways to measure solar radiation?

a) Ground-based instrumentation and satellite measurement
b) Telephonic measurement and mobile tower measurement
c) Anemometer and voltmeter
d) Ammeter and voltmeter
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Thee two basic ways to measure solar radiation are via ground-based
instruments and satellite measurements. Anemometer is an instrument used to
measure wind speed. Voltmeter is an instrument used to measure potential
difference between two points conducting electric (DC) current. Ammeter is an
instrument used to measure the electric (DC) current flowing across two points.
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2. What is does an actinometer measure?

a) Wind speed
b) Intensity of radiation
c) Wind direction
d) Direction of radiation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Actinometer is used to measure the intensity of an incident radiation.
Wind speed and wind direction are measured by anemometer and wind vane
respectively.
3. Actinometer is primarily used to measure ______ and ______
a) infrared and ultraviolet
b) visible and infrared
c) visible and ultraviolet
d) infrared and UV-A
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Actinometer is primarily used to measure visible and ultraviolet range. It
does this by measuring the heating power of the radiation.
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4. How does actinometer work?

a) By determining the number of electrons in a beam integrally
b) By determining the number of protons in a beam differentially
c) By determining the direction of photons
d) By determining the number of photons integrally
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Actinometer works by determining the number of photons integrally or
per unit time. It is commonly applied to devices used in UV and visible range.
5. As a system, actinometer is a _____ or _______

a) chemical system or physical device
b) chemical system or thermal device
c) thermal device or mechanical device
d) thermo-mechanical system or physical device
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As a system, actinometer is a chemical system or physical device.
Solutions Iron (III) oxalate is a commonly used example and is a chemical
actinometer. Bolometers can be used as physical devices.
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6. Which of the following categories does a pyranometer belong to?

a) Voltmeters
b) Actinometers
c) Hall sensors
d) Amplifiers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A pyranometer belongs to the category of actinometer because it is
used for measuring solar irradiance. Voltmeters are used to measure potential
difference between two electrically conducting points. Hall sensors are used to
measure current via magnetic fields. Amplifiers are used to “amplify” currents or
voltages.
7. Global and diffuse solar radiation can be measured by ________

a) thermal actinometer
b) heat pumps
c) thermoelectric pyranometers
d) oscilloscopes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Global and diffuse solar radiation can be measured by thermoelectric
pyranometers. Heat pumps are used in thermal systems to pump heat from a cooler
region to a hotter region. Oscilloscopes are used to observe sinusoidal outputs.
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8. To perform irradiance measurement, which of the following is necessary?

a) Beam response varies with sine of the angle of incidence
b) Beam response varies linearly with angle of incidence
c) Beam response is constant with varying angle of incidence
d) Beam response varies with cosine of the angle of incidence
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: To perform irradiance measurement, it is necessary that the beam
response varies with cosine of the angle of incidence. If the beam response is
constant with varying angle of incidence then no measurement is performed.
9. Why should the beam response vary with cosine of the angle of incidence?
a) To account for perpendicular and parallel rays
b) Because cosine is the simplest mathematical function
c) To account for inclination of earth’s axis
d) Because of non-uniform dispersion of solar radiation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The beam response should vary with cosine of the angle of the
incidence. This is to account for perpendicular and parallel rays. Angle of incidence is
0 degrees (i.e. full response) when the solar radiation hits the sensor normally and
90 degrees (i.e. zero response) for parallel rays from the sun when it is at the
horizon.
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10. Which of the following best describes the working of thermoelectric pyranometer?
a) Solar radiation → thermal e.m.f measured → thin black surface → rise in
temperature until equilibrium
b) Solar radiation → thin black surface → rise in temperature until equilibrium →
thermal e.m.f measured
c) Thin black surface → solar radiation → rise in temperature until equilibrium →
d) Solar radiation → rise in temperature until equilibrium → thin black surface →
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A pyranometer consists of a thin-blackened surface on which the solar
radiation falls. As the radiation hits the surface, the temperature rises until an
equilibrium is attained. This rise in temperature sets a thermal e.m.f which is then
measured.
11. Which of the following is generally used to measure direct solar radiation?
a) Pyranometer
b) Actinometer
c) Pyrheliometer
d) IC tester
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Generally, a pyrheliometer is used to measure direct solar radiation.
Actinometer are a class of devices/systems that measure intensity of radiation. IC
tester is used to test ICs.
12. What technologies are used in pyranometers?
a) Silicon semiconductor technology and routing technology
b) Thermopile technology and doping
c) Doping and routing technology
d) Silicon semiconductor technology and thermopile technology
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Thermopile technology and silicon semiconductor technology are used
in pyranometers. Doping is a technique to increase the conductivity of intrinsic
semiconductors. Routing is a technique used to navigate packets through an
interconnected network of computers.
13. __________ is a physical device that can be correlated to the number of photons
detected.
a) Photodiode
b) LEDs
c) CFLs
d) CFCs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Photodiode is a physical device that can be correlated to the number of
photons detected. LEDs and CFLs are devices that emit light (radiation). CFCs are a
type of gas that harm the ozone layer.
14. Light sensitivity is known as spectral response.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Light sensitivity is known as spectral response. It talks about how
sensitive the photosensor is to optical radiation of various wavelengths. It depends
on the type of pyranometer. It is an intensity vs wavelength plot.
15. Pyranometer has a non-directional response.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
1. What is the Angstrom compensation pyrheliometer used to measure?
a) Direct solar radiation
b) Indirect solar radiation
c) Diffused solar radiation
d) UV radiation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Angstrom compensation pyrheliometer is used to measure direct solar
radiation. It is one of the standard equipment for the process. UV radiation is
generally measured by pyranometer.
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2. What is the main difference between pyranometer and pyrheliometer?

a) Both measure solar radiation
b) Pyranometer measures global radiation while pyrheliometer measures direct solar
radiation
c) Pyranometer and pyrheliometer measure global radiation
d) Pyranometer measures solar radiation while pyrheliometer measures global
radiation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main difference pyranometer and pyrheliometer is the purpose of
measurement. Pyranometer is used to measure global solar radiation and hence it is
used for both visible and UV. Pyrheliometer is used to measure direct solar radiation.
3. What is the main advantage of sunshine recorder?

a) It is more sophisticated than pyranometers and pyrheliometers
b) It is more expensive than pyranometers and pyrheliometers
c) It is less accurate but inexpensive
d) It is less accurate but extremely expensive
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The main advantage of a sunshine recorder is that it is inexpensive.
However, it is less accurate as well. Also, it is not as sophisticated as pyranometers
and pyrheliometers.
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4. How does a sunshine recorder work?
a) Measures the solar irradiance
b) Measures the solar radiation
c) Measures the number of hours of sunshine
d) Measures the number of hours of sunshine above a certain threshold
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A sunshine recorder works by measuring the number of hours during
which sunshine is above a certain threshold. The threshold is typically set at 200
mW/cm2. The data collected can be used to determine the solar insolation.
5. Which of the following best describes the measurement process in a pyrheliometer?

a) Sunlight → window in pyrheliometer → thermopile → heat is converted to electrical
signal → recorded
b) Sunlight → window in pyrheliometer → heat is converted to electrical signal →
thermopile → recorded
c) Window in pyrheliometer → sunlight → thermopile → heat is converted to electrical
signal → recorded
d) Sunlight → heat is converted to electrical signal → window in pyrheliometer →
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sunlight enters inside the pyrheliometer through a window. This
sunlight is directed onto a thermopile which then converts into an electrical signal.
This electrical can be recorded and mapped to a corresponding intensity.
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6. Thermopile is a collection of _______

a) thermocouples connected in parallel
b) thermocouples connected in series
c) reflectors connected in series
d) reflectors connected in parallel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Thermopile is a collection of thermocouples, usually connected in
series. It works on the principle of thermoelectric effect – generating a voltage when
dissimilar metals are exposed to temperature difference.
7. What is the irradiation proportional to in thermopile technology?
a) Difference between sun exposed area and shadow area
b) Difference between temperature of sun exposed area and shadow area
c) Difference between temperature of sun exposed area and temperature of shadow
area
d) Difference between of sun exposed area and temperature of shadow area
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In thermopile technology, irradiation is proportional to the difference
between temperature of sun exposed area and shadow area. A thermopile
pyranometer consists of a sensor based on thermopiles.
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8. Which portion of the solar spectrum can a photodiode-based pyranometer detect?

a) 100 – 200nm
b) 1 – 10um
c) 150 – 200nm
d) 400 – 900 nm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Photodiode-based pyranometer detects the portion of solar spectrum
between 400 – 900nm. The best ones detect between 350 – 1100nm. Since it uses
silicon technology, photodiode-based pyranometers are also called as silicon
pyranometers.
9. Photodiode works on the principle of _______

a) photoelectric effect
b) LED
c) thermocouple
d) differential resistance
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Photodiode works on the principle of photoelectric effect. Photoelectric
effect is the emission of electrons when electromagnetic radiation hits the surface of
a material (generally a metal).
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10. What does the net radiometer measure?
a) Measures the incoming solar radiation
b) Measures the difference between incoming and outgoing radiation
c) Measures the sum of incoming and outgoing radiation
d) Measures the outgoing solar radiation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the name suggests, a net radiometer measures the difference
between incoming and outgoing radiation. Hence, it is used to the “net radiation”
(NR) at the earth’s surface.
11. Which of the following technology does a net radiometer work on?
a) Semiconductor
b) Conductor-insulator
c) Thermopile sensor
d) Photoelectric effect
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A net radiometer is based on a thermopile sensor which works on
Seebeck effect. It basically measures the temperature difference between two
receivers. Photodiode based pyranometer uses semiconductor technology.
12. What is a bolometer made up of?

a) A thermal reservoir and a metal layer
b) An electrical reservoir and an insulated layer
c) An absorptive element, thermal reservoir and a thermally insulated material linking
both of them
d) An absorptive element, thermal reservoir and a thermal link
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A bolometer is a physical device used to measure power of incident
electromagnetic radiation. It consists of an absorptive element such as a metal layer,
a thermal reservoir and a thermal link connecting both of them.
13. Which of the following best describes the working of bolometer?

a) Radiation → temperature of absorptive element increases above the thermal
reservoir → resistive thermometer to measure temperature change
b) Radiation → resistive thermometer to measure temperature change → temperature
of absorptive element increases above the reservoir
c) Temperature of absorptive element increases above the reservoir → radiation →
resistive thermometer to measure temperature change
d) Radiation → temperature of absorptive element increases above the electrical
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When any radiation is incident on a bolometer, the absorptive element
absorbs the radiation and raises its temperature above that of the thermal reservoir.
The temperature change can be directly measured by connecting a resistive
thermometer.
14. In a bolometer, the greater the absorbed power, higher the temperature.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a bolometer, the greater the absorbed power, higher the
temperature. This is evident because as the absorptive element absorbs more
power, it further raises its temperature. The intrinsic thermal time constant sets the
speed of the detector.
15. Bolometers are used for ionizing particles, photons and non-ionizing particles.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is solar time?

a) Calculation of passage of time based on sun’s position in sky
b) Calculation of passage of time based on moon’s position in sky
c) A unit that measures astronomical time
d) A reference unit for time
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar time is the calculation of passage of time based on sun’s position
in sky. It is not calculated based on moon’s position. In astronomy, if required, time is
measured in terms of speed of light.
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2. What is the fundamental unit of solar time?

a) Seconds
b) Day
c) Hour
d) Meter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The fundamental unit of time is day. Meter is not a measurement of
time. It is a unit and measurement of distance.
3. What are the two types of solar time?

a) Fundamental solar and multi-solar time
b) Apparent and diurnal solar time
c) Apparent solar time and mean solar time
d) Mean solar time and single-solar time
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The two types of solar time are apparent solar time and mean solar
time. Fundamental solar time, multi-solar time and single-solar time do not exist.
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4. What is apparent time also known as?

a) Clock time
b) Revolution time
c) Lunar time
d) Sundial time
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Apparent time is also known as sundial time. Lunar time is basically the
length of one day on moon with respect to earth. Revolution time depends on the
speed of revolving body and the distance between body around which it revolves
and itself.
5. Which of the following is the simplest sundial?

a) A tall pole casting a shadow whose length and position varies with sun’s position
b) A tall pole
c) A tall pole casting a shadow that varies with moon’s position
d) A stone slab
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Among the above options, a tall pole casting a shadow is the simplest
sundial. It should be noted that both, the length and position of the shadow must
vary with sun’s position. A tall pole casting a shadow that varies with moon’s position
is not a sundial.
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6. What is mean solar time also known as?

a) Rotation time
b) Clock time
c) Lunar time
d) Sundial time
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mean solar time is also known as clock time. Apparent solar time is also
known as sundial time. Lunar time is the length of a day on moon as compared to
earth. Rotation time is the time a body takes to rotate about an axis.
7. Solar time is _____ clock time in December and ____ clock time in September.
a) same as, same as
b) less, more
c) more, less
d) more, same as
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Solar time is more than clock time in December. However, it is less than
clock time in September. It is almost same as the clock time during the other months.
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8. Why is does the solar time vary in September and December?

a) Because of earth-moon distance
b) Because of earth-moon gravitational force
c) Because of eccentricity of sun-moon orbit
d) Because of eccentricity of earth-sun orbit
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Solar time varies because of the eccentricity of earth-sun orbit. Earth’s
orbit around the sun is elliptical and not perfectly circular. The variation in solar time
does not depend on sun-moon and earth-moon distance/orbit.
9. The clock running at a constant (say, a pendulum clock) rate _____

a) cannot follow the sun
b) always follows the sun
c) follows the sun randomly
d) follows the moon
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The clock running at a constant (say, a pendulum clock) rate cannot
follow the sun. This is because of the elliptical nature of earth’s orbit and the tilt of
earth’s axis.
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10. What does a clock running at a constant rate follow?

a) Moon
b) Imaginary mean sun
c) Actual sun
d) Real mean sun
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A clock running at constant rate does not and cannot follow the actual
sun. Instead, it follows an imaginary mean sun. This imaginary sun moves at a
constant rate along a celestial equator. The motion is such that it matches the real
sun’s average clock over the period of a year.
11. What is apparent solar day?

a) Interval between sunrise and sunset of a normal day
b) Interval between two successive returns of sun on equator
c) Interval between two successive returns of sun on local meridian
d) Imaginary solar day
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The interval between two successive returns of sun on local meridian is
called apparent solar day. The apparent motion of the actual sun is governs
apparent solar time.
12. Which of the following describes the elliptical nature of earth’s orbit?
a) Apparent solar time
b) Sundial
c) Maxwell’s laws
d) Kepler’s laws
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Kepler’s laws describe the elliptical nature of earth’s orbit. Maxwell’s
laws are related to electrodynamics. Sundial is an instrument used to measure
13. The hour angle of the mean sun plus 12 hours is _______
a) mean solar time
b) angled solar time
c) offset solar time
d) apparent solar time
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The hour angle of the mean sun plus 12 hours is called the mean solar
time. The 12 hour offset is used to ensure that each day starts at midnight for civil
purposes. The hour angle or mean sun is measured from local meridian.
14. Solar time is 21 seconds less than clock time in September and 29 seconds more
than clock time in December.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar time is 21 seconds less than clock time in September and 29
seconds more than clock time in December. This is due to the eccentricity of earth’s
orbit around the sun i.e. it is not perfectly circular.
15. The inclination of earth’s axis also contributes towards variation in solar time.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is angle subtended by sun on earth in degrees?

a) About 0.5 degrees
b) About 1 degree
c) About 35 degrees
d) About 5 degrees
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sun subtends an angle of 32 minutes at earth’s surface. When
converted to degrees, it comes out to be 0.53 degrees.
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2. Why is angle subtended by sun on earth’s surface so small?

a) Because sun is smaller than earth
b) Because of the large distance between earth and sun
c) Because of the small distance between earth and sun
d) Because sun is about the same size as that of earth
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The angle subtended by sun on earth’s surface is about 0.53 degrees. It
is so small because of the large distance between the earth and sun.
3. When revolving around the sun, the earth moves in an elliptical cycle _______
a) on the sun’s plane
b) above the sun’s plane
c) above and below the sun’s plane
d) below the sun’s plane
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When revolving around the sun, the earth moves in an elliptical path.
The earth passes above and below the sun’s plane to complete an elliptical cycle.
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4. Which month is the earth closes to the sun?

a) February
b) March
c) December
d) January
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Earth is closest to the sun in January. Specifically, earth is closes on
January 3rd. The distance between earth and sun is approximately 147.3 million km.
5. What is aphelion?
a) The point where earth is farthest from the sun
b) The point where earth is nearest from the sun
c) The point where earth is on the perpendicular bisector of sun’s plane
d) The point when earth subtends an angle of 30 degrees with sun’s plane
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Aphelion is the point where earth is farthest from the sun. The point
where earth is nearest to the sun is called perihelion.
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6. Which month is the earth farthest from the sun?

a) June
b) July
c) August
d) January
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Earth is farthest from the sun in July. Specifically, it is farthest on 4th July.
The distance between earth and sun is approximately 152.1 million km.
7. What is solstice?
c) When sun’s zenith is at its furthest point from celestial equator
d) When sun’s zenith is at its closest point from celestial equator
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Solstice occur when sun’s zenith is at its furthest point from celestial
equator. It could either be the northerly zenith or the southerly zenith.
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8. What is sun declination angle?

a) Angle between sun and earth
b) Angle between ray of the sun touching earth’s surface and the equatorial plane
c) Angle between an observer on earth and the celestial equatorial plane
d) Angle between ray of the sun when extended to the earth’s center and the
equatorial plane
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Sun declination angle is the angle between ray of the sun when
extended to the earth’s center and the equatorial plane. It is positively oriented when
sun’s rays reach the center through northern hemisphere and negative when the
sun’s rays reach through southern hemisphere.
9. What is sun’s declination angle during summer solstice?

a) 23.5 degrees
b) 0.53 degrees
c) 32 minutes
d) -23.5 degrees
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sun’s declination angle during summer solstice is 23.5 degrees. Thus,
the sun shines down on the Tropic of Cancer in the northern hemisphere.
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10. What is sun’s declination angle during winter solstice?

a) 25 degrees
b) -23.5 degrees
c) 37 degrees
d) 23.5 degrees
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sun’s declination angle during summer solstice is -23.5 degrees. Thus,
the sun shines down on the Tropic of Capricorn in the southern hemisphere and
remains below the horizon everywhere within Arctic Circle.
11. What is an equinox?

a) When earth is farthest from the sun
b) When earth is nearest to the sun
c) When earth’s center lies in the plane of sun
d) When earth’s center does not lie in the plane of sun
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An equinox occurs when the earth’s center lies on the plane of sun.
There are two such occasions throughout the year. Perihelion is the point where
earth is nearest to the sun. Aphelion is the point where earth is farthest from the
sun.
12. Why does earth receive 12 hours of sunshine during equinox?

a) Because earth’s center lies on the plane of the sun
b) Because earth’s center does not lie on the plane of the sun
c) Because earth is nearest to the sun
d) Because earth’s axis is perpendicular to the plane of the sun
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: During equinox, earth receives 12 hours of sunshine. This is mainly
because earth’s north-south axis of rotation is perpendicular to the plane of the sun.
13. What is the sun’s declination angle during equinox?

a) 0 degrees
b) 1 degree
c) 13 degrees
d) 23.5 degrees
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sun’s declination angle has a measure of 0 degrees on the days of
equinox. The declination angle is 23.5 degrees during summer solstice and -23.5
degrees during winter solstice.
14. The equinoxes are vernal equinox and autumnal equinox respectively.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The equinoxes are vernal equinox and autumnal equinox respectively.
The sun has a 0 degree declination angle on these two days of the year.
15. On summer solstice, the sun is above the horizon in northern hemisphere.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following best describes the motion of sun from autumnal equinox to
winter solstice?
a) Earth is above the plane of the sun
b) Earth is below the plane of the sun
c) Earth’s center lies on the plane of the sun
d) Earth first escalates above the plane and then transcends below the plane of sun
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Earth is above the plane of the sun during its motion from autumnal
equinox and winter solstice. Equinox occurs when the earth’s center lies on the plane
of the sun. However, it doesn’t always lie on the plane of the sun throughout the
year.
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2. What is sun’s declination angle during earth’s motion from autumnal equinox to
winter solstice?
a) Greater than 90 degrees
b) Less than 0 degrees
c) Greater than 0 degrees
d) Between 60 and 90 degrees
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sun’s declination angle during earth’s motion from autumnal equinox to
winter solstice to vernal equinox is less than 0 degrees. This is because the earth is
above the plane of the sun.
3. During which of the following periods is the earth below the plane of sun?
a) Vernal equinox to winter solstice
b) Winter solstice to vernal equinox
c) Vernal equinox to summer solstice
d) Summer solstice to winter solstice
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The earth is below the plane of sun during its motion from vernal
equinox to summer solstice and back to autumnal equinox. The earth is above the
sun’s plane during its motion from winter solstice to vernal equinox.
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4. What is the sun’s declination during earth’s motion from vernal equinox to summer
solstice?
b) Between 0 and 30 degrees
d) Less than 0 degrees
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The sun’s declination angle during earth’s motion from vernal equinox
to summer solstice is less than 0 degrees. This is because the earth is below the
plane of the sun.
5. How is latitude of a location on earth defined?

a) Angle between line joining the location to earth’s center and earth’s equatorial plane
b) Angle between line joining the location to earth’s center and the meridian plane
c) Angle subtended by sun on earth
d) Angle between sun’s rays extended to earth’s center and earth’s equatorial plane
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Latitude of a location on earth is defined by the angle between line
joining the location to earth’s center and earth’s equatorial plane. Sun’s declination
angle is the angle between sun’s rays extended to earth’s center and earth’s
equatorial plane.
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6. The lines joining North and South pole of earth are called _____
a) latitudes
b) longitudes
c) equator
d) semicircle lines
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The lines joining North and South pole of earth are called lines of
longitudes. They are semicircular because they run along the curved surface of earth.
7. When does the autumnal equinox occur?

a) January
b) August
c) September
d) December
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Autumnal equinox occurs in the month of September. Specifically, it
occurs either on 22nd September or on 23rd September. Winter solstice occurs in
December.
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8. When does the vernal equinox occur?

a) January
b) December
c) September
d) March
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Vernal equinox occurs in the month of March. Specifically, it occurs on
20th or 21st March. September is the month of autumnal equinox.
9. Solar radiation spectrum is close to _____

a) that of a black body
b) that of a white body
c) that of Jupiter
d) that of phase response
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar radiation spectrum is close to that of a black body. The
temperature is about 5800K. Phase response is talks about the delay of a (an
electronic) system with frequency. Though it is not related to solar radiation, it is
used to analyse many solar energy harvesting systems.
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10. Which of the following indicates the position of any point on earth?
a) Rectangular co-ordinate system
b) Latitudes, longitudes
c) Radial co-ordinate system
d) Spherical co-ordinate system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Latitudes and longitudes are used to indicate the position of any point
on the surface of the earth. Usage of spherical co-ordinate system depends on the
application. Moreover, earth is not entirely spherical.
11. What is the range of sun’s declination angle throughout the year?
a) Between 0 and 90 degrees
b) Between 0 and 23.5 degrees
c) Between -23.5 and 23.5 degrees
d) Between -23.5 and 0 degrees
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sun’s declination angle lies in the range of -23.5 and 23.5 degrees. It is
positive when the earth is below the sun and negative when the earth is above the
sun.
12. What the hour angle?

a) Angle between ray of the sun when extended to the earth’s center and the equatorial
plane
b) Angle between line joining the location to earth’s center and earth’s equatorial plane
c) Angle through which the turns to bring the meridian of a point in line with sun’s rays
d) Angle through which the turns to bring the meridian of a point directly in line with
sun’s rays
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hour angle is the angle through which the turns to bring the meridian of
a point directly in line with sun’s rays. Declination angle is angle between ray of the
sun when extended to the earth’s center and the equatorial plane. Latitude is angle
between line joining the location to earth’s center and earth’s equatorial plane.
13. Altitude angle is the _______

a) vertical angle between projection of sun’s rays on the horizontal plane of earth’s
surface
b) horizontal angle between projection of sun’s rays on the horizontal plane of earth’s
surface
c) vertical angle between projection of sun’s rays on the vertical plane normal to earth’s
surface
d) horizontal angle between projection of sun’s rays on the vertical plane normal to
earth’s surface
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Altitude angle is the vertical angle between projection of sun’s rays on
the horizontal plane of earth’s surface. It is important to note that the angle is
between the project of sun’s rays on the horizontal plane and not the ray its.
14. Hour angle is a measure of time of day with respect to solar noon.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hour angle is a measure of time of day with respect to solar noon. At
noon, the hour angle is 0 degrees and rotates at 15 degree per hour.
15. The altitude angle is maximum at noon.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is solar noon?

a) Time of the day at which sun’s rays are perpendicular to a given line of longitude
b) Time of the day at which sun’s rays are parallel to a given line of longitude
c) Time of the day at which sun’s rays are perpendicular earth’s surface
d) Time of the day at which sun’s rays are parallel to earth’s surface
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar noon is defined as the time of the day at which sun’s rays are
perpendicular to a given line of longitude. It is important to note that solar noon
does not occur simultaneously at every location on earth. Hence the phrase, “give
line of longitude”.
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2. How does the solar noon vary with every 15 degrees of longitude east of a given
longitude?
a) Solar noon occurs one hour late with every 15 degrees of longitude east of a given
longitude
b) Solar noon occurs one hour earlier with every 15 degrees of longitude east of a given
longitude
c) Solar noon occurs does not vary with longitude
d) Solar noon occurs half hour late with every 15 degrees of longitude east of a given
longitude
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Solar noon varies with longitude but it is important to mention the
reference longitude for correct calculation. It occurs one hour late with every 15
degrees of longitude east of a given longitude. This can be used to estimate the time
of different regions.
2. How does the solar noon vary with every 15 degrees of longitude west of a given
longitude?
a) Solar noon occurs one hour later with every 15 degrees of longitude west of a given
longitude
longitude
c) Solar noon occurs one hour later with every 15 degrees of longitude west of a given
longitude
d) Solar noon occurs half hour later with every 15 degrees of longitude west of a given
longitude
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: To calculate solar noon, it is important to mention the reference
longitude. Once the reference is known, solar noon occurs one hour later with every
15 degrees of longitude west of a given longitude.
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4. What is a solar day?

a) One complete revolution of sun around moon
b) One complete revolution of earth around sun
c) One complete revolution of moon around earth
d) One complete revolution of sun around earth
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Though the earth revolves around the sun and rotates about its own
axis, a solar day is measured with respect to an observer on earth. Hence, a solar day
is defined as one complete revolution of sun around earth.
5. What is a sidereal day?

a) Time taken by earth to rotate about its axis for distant stars to appear fixed
b) Time taken by earth to rotate about its axis for sun to appear fixed
c) Time taken by earth to rotate about its axis for distant stars to be moved by 1 degree
d) Time taken by earth to rotate about its axis for distant stars to be moved by 0.5
degrees
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sidereal day is the time taken by earth to rotate about its axis for
distant stars to appear fixed. Time taken by earth to rotate about its axis for sun to
appear fixed is solar day.
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6. Solar day is ______ sidereal day.

a) 4 min shorter than
b) 4 min longer than
c) 10 min shorter than
d) 10 min longer than
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Solar day is 4 min longer than sidereal day. This calculation is based on
the time taken by earth to complete one rotation about its axis and one revolution
about sun.
7. One sidereal day is ______ solar hours and ______ solar minutes long.
a) 26, 57
b) 24, 59
c) 23, 56
d) 24, 60
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: One solar day is 24 hours long and one sidereal day is 24 hours long.
However, one sidereal day is 24 solar hours and 60 solar minutes long. Thus, there is
a difference of 4 minutes between the two.
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8. Which of the following solar time duration is not constant throughout the year?
a) Mean solar day
b) Sidereal day
c) Local true solar time
d) Apparent solar day
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Apparent solar day is not constant throughout the year. It can be 20
seconds shorter or 30 seconds longer than a mean solar day. Sidereal day is not a
solar time.
9. What is local true solar time?

a) Equivalent of earth’s solar time on other planets
b) Solar time on every location of earth
c) Solar time on the Greenwich meridian
d) Solar time on the equator
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Local true solar time (LTST) is the equivalent of earth’s solar time on
other planets. On earth, solar time was used to be measured by sundials.
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10. The length of mean solar day is slowly increasing.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is the relationship between insolation and cloud cover in sky?

a) Inverse
b) Directly proportional
c) Square
d) Exponential
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: From ancient time, people knew the relationship between sunshine and
cloud cover. There is an inverse relationship between insolation and the amount of
sky covered by clouds.
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2. Which of the following is a reason for inverse relationship between insolation and
cloud cover in sky?
a) Sunshine duration records are caused by sun being obstructed by transparent cloud
cover
b) Sunshine duration records are caused by sun being obstructed by opaque cloud
cover
c) Sunshine duration records are caused by sunshine being transmitted through
opaque cloud cover
d) Sunshine duration records are caused by sun being obstructed by cloud cover
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There is an inverse relationship between insolation and cloud cover in
sky. This is because of sunshine duration records are caused by sun being
obstructed by transparent cloud cover.
3. Which does Angstrom-Savinov formula tell?

a) Relationship between local solar radiation and global cloudiness
b) Relationship between local solar radiation and local cloudiness
c) Relationship between global solar radiation and mean cloudiness
d) Relationship between global solar radiation and global cloudiness
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Angstrom-Savinov formula is a relationship between global solar
radiation (H) and mean cloudiness (C). It is given by mathematical relationship,
H=H0[1−(1−k)C].
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4. What does the constant “k” signify in the Angstrom-Savinov formula?

a) Global solar radiation
b) Mean cloudiness
c) Reflection of solar radiation within clouds
d) Transmission of solar radiation within clouds
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The constant “k” signifies the transmission of solar radiation within
clouds. It is defined to account for the partial and practical transmission of solar
radiation through clouds.
5. The constant “k” in Angstrom-Savinov formula depends on ________
a) latitude of the location
b) longitude of the location
c) solar radiation
d) cloud opacity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The constant “k” accounts for transmission of solar radiation through
clouds. It depends on the latitude of the location. It does not depend on the solar
radiation and cloud capacity.
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6. How does the constant “k” in Angstrom-Savinov vary in high and low latitudes?
a) Between 0.55 in high latitudes and 0.22 in low latitudes
b) Between 0.55 in high latitudes and 0.33 in low latitudes
c) Between 0.33 in high latitudes and 0.55 in low latitudes
d) Between 0 in high latitudes and 0.9 in low latitudes
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The constant “k” in Angstrom-Savinov has a range from 0.33 to 0.55. It
varies between 0.55 in high latitudes and 0.33 in low latitudes.
7. Which of the following models uses linear regression to estimate solar radiation
from sunshine duration?
a) Angstrom-Savinov
b) Ertekin and Yladtz
c) Anstrom-Prescott
d) Sen
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Anstrom-Prescott model uses linear regression to estimate solar
radiation from sunshine duration. H/H0=a+b*(S/S0) is the regression equation. H is
global radiation and S is the sunshine duration.
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8. Akinoglu and Fcevit uses a _______ to estimate solar radiation.
a) linear model
b) power model
c) exponential model
d) quadratic model
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Akinoglu and Fcevit uses a quadratic model to estimate solar radiation.
Like Angstom-Savinov, it also estimates solar radiation from sunshine duration.
9. How is an empirical model developed?

a) From data acquired via sensors or measuring instruments
b) From theoretical analysis
c) From deep learning
d) From trial and error
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Empirical models of any system is developed from data acquired via
sensors or measuring instruments. The developers decide the variables and the
output and perform various numerical analysis to formulate a relationship.
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10. What does the ratio of global solar radiation (H) and estimated daily global
radiation for cloudless sky (H0) indicate?
a) Solar radiation transmission ratio
b) Clearness index
c) Solar radiation reflection percentage
d) Turbidity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of global solar radiation (H) and estimated daily global
radiation for cloudless sky (H0) indicates clearness index. It neither indicates solar
radiation transmission ratio nor does it indicate turbidity. Solar radiation reflection
percentage is indicated by albedo.
11. Which of the following is important during data acquisition from measuring
instruments? Assume that details about data to be collected is known.
a) Type of data
b) Materials used to manufacture measuring instruments
c) Location, environment and characteristics of measuring instrument
d) Brand of measuring instruments
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Assuming that details about the data to be collected is known, location,
environment and characteristics of measuring instrument is important. This is
because instruments can give different values under different conditions. Basically,
data acquisition procedure should be consistent and authentic.
12. Which of the following statistical indicator is used to evaluate any type of model?
a) mean
b) median
c) error
d) root mean square error
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Root mean square error is a commonly used statistical indicator to
evaluate any type of model. It basically describes the mean error between
simulated/measured/observed values and the true values.
13. Why do ground-based observers overestimate overcast cloud cover?

a) Clouds appear to fill large area of sky when near horizon
b) Clouds appear to fill large area of sky when far from horizon
c) Clouds appear to fill small area of sky when near horizon
d) Clouds appear to fill small area of sky when far from horizon
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ground-based observers tend to overestimate overcast cloud covers.
This is because clouds with vertical extents appear to fill a greater area of sky when
located near the horizon than when they are overhead.
14. Reduction of error between simulated values and the true values increases
accuracy of the empirical model.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reduction of error between simulated values and the true values
increases accuracy of the empirical model. This is because decrement in error
indicates that simulated values are moving closer to true/desired values.
15. Cloud cover estimation is free from error.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
1. Hourly radiation values can be used to evaluate the performance of ________

a) flat plate collectors
b) curved collectors
c) parabolic collectors
d) metallic collectors
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hourly values of solar radiation provides very precise information about
performance of solar energy systems. For example, hourly radiation values can be
used to evaluate the performance of flat plate collectors.
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2. Why are global and diffuse radiation values not measured?

a) Because of sophisticated measuring instruments
b) Because measuring instruments are not available everywhere
c) Because of unavailability of skilled labour to operate measuring instruments
d) Because measuring instruments are not available everywhere
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Global and diffuse radiation values are not measured mainly because
measuring instruments are not available at all locations, in every lab or institute. The
major problem is not unavailability of funds or skilled labour.
3. Which of the following is generally used to compute global and diffuse radiation
values?
a) Parabolic dish
b) Flat plate collector
c) Theoretical models
d) Pyranometer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Global and diffuse radiation values are generally computed from
theoretical models. This is because of unavailability of measuring instruments at all
locations. Pyranometer is used wherever and whenever possible.
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4. Which of the following can be used to estimate beam radiation?

a) Photoelectric effect
b) Solar insolation constant
c) Time taken by sun’s rays to reach earth
d) Zenith angle and altitude
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Zenith angle and altitude of the location can be used to estimate beam
radiation transmitted through a clear atmosphere. Though solar insolation constant
is used, it is either just a scaling factor or a constant and not a variable. Photoelectric
effect is not related to beam radiation.
5. What is zenith angle?

a) Angle between sun and vertical
b) Angle between the line joining the location on earth’s surface and the equatorial
plane
c) Angle between extended sun’s rays to earth’s center and equatorial plane
d) Angle between projection of sun’s rays on horizontal surface and equatorial plane
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Zenith angle is the angle between sun’s ray and the vertical. Latitude is
angle between the line joining the location on earth’s surface and the equatorial
plane. Sun’s declination angle is angle between extended sun’s rays to earth’s center
and equatorial plane.
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6. Which of the following is not used to calculate hourly radiation?
a) Sun’s declination angle
b) Material of parabolic dish
c) Solar constant
d) Hour angle
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Material of the collector is not used to calculate hourly radiation. The
material of the collector affects the values being measured and not theoretically
computed values. Sun’s declination, hour angle and solar constant play their part in
the computation.
7. Solar radiation on a horizontal surface is the summation of _______

a) direct and active solar radiation
b) active and diffuse solar radiation
c) diffuse and direct solar radiation
d) electrons and photons
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Solar radiation on a horizontal surface is the summation of diffuse and
direct solar radiation. It is not just a summation of electrons and photons as the
option does not specify the source of electrons and photons.
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8. What are the two models used to determine diffuse radiation?

a) Rayleigh scattering and Hybrid pi model
b) Parametric model and Rayleigh scattering
c) Decomposition model and Hybrid pi model
d) Parametric and decomposition models
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The two models used to determine diffuse radiation are parametric and
decomposition models. Rayleigh scattering is the scattering of light by suspended
particles in a medium. Hybrid pi model is used to model a transistor and is not
related to radiation.
9. Which of the following is required as a parameter in a parametric model?
a) Cloud cover
c) Material of measuring instrument
d) Type of measuring instrument
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cloud cover, atmospheric turbidity, fractional sunshine and perceptible
water content are necessities of a parametric model. Though solar insolation
constant may be required, it is not a parameter. In any theoretical mode, material
and type of measuring instrument is irrelevant.
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10. Which of the following is an example of parametric model used to compute diffuse
radiation?
a) Chandrasekaran and Kumar’s model
b) ASHRAE model
c) Erb’s model
d) T-model
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: ASHRAE model is an example of parametric model used to compute
diffuse radiation. Erb’s model and Chandrasekaran and Kumar’s model are not
parametric models. T-model is used to model a transistor and is not related to
radiation.
11. How do decomposition models compute diffuse solar radiation?

a) From specific information of environmental conditions
b) From measuring instruments
c) From global solar radiation data
d) From ASHRAE model
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Decomposition models use global solar radiation data to estimate and
compute diffuse solar radiation. Parametric models require specific information of
environmental conditions to compute diffuse solar radiation.
12. Decomposition models are based on correlation between ____________
a) global solar radiation and active radiation
b) diffuse and UV radiation on vertical surface
c) diffuse and total radiation on inclined surface
d) diffuse and total radiation on horizontal surface
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Decomposition models are based on correlation between diffuse and
total radiation on horizontal surface. UV radiation is a part of the total received solar
radiation.
13. Which of the following does the correlation of decomposition models (between
diffuse and total radiation on horizontal surface) depend on?
a) Hourly clearness index ratio
b) Daily clearness index ratio
c) Hourly global horizontal radiation
d) Yearly extraterrestrial radiation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The correlation of decomposition models (between diffuse and total
radiation on horizontal surface) depend on hourly clearness index ratio. It is the ratio
of hourly global horizontal radiation to hourly extraterrestrial radiation.
14. The clearness index is a measure of atmospheric effects in an isolated place.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The clearness index is a measure of atmospheric effects in an isolated
place. It is used by decomposition models to estimate diffuse solar radiation data
from global solar radiation.
15. Nijegorodov’s model revised the constants of ASHRAE’s model.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is a solar collector?
a) A system to collect heat by absorbing sunlight
b) A system to collect rainwater using sunlight
c) A system to collect electricity by using sunlight
d) A device to reflect sunlight back
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A solar collector is a system to collect heat by absorbing sunlight and
use it for various applications. It is neither a system to collect rainwater nor
electricity. However, it could be used to perform such processes.
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2. What is aperture area in a solar collector?

a) Area of the system
b) Area in the receiver that receives the solar radiation
c) Area occupied by the system after installation
d) Cross-sectional area of the receiver
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Aperture area of a receiver is that area which receives the solar
radiation. It need not be same as the entire size of the receiver. It is not same as the
area occupied by the system after installation.
3. Aperture area of a solar collector is roughly equal to _______

a) Coolant area
b) Generator area
c) Absorber area
d) System area
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In a solar collector, the aperture area is approximately equal to
absorber area. This enables absorption of (almost) all the sunlight that is incident on
the aperture area.
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4. What are the components of a flat plate collector?
a) Flat box, a plate with reflective coating and fluid circulation passageways, an opaque
cover, a circulating fluid
b) Flat box, a dark coloured plate with fluid circulation passageways, an opaque, a
circulating fluid
c) Flat box, a dark coloured plate with fluid circulation passageways, a transparent
cover
d) Flat box, a dark coloured plate fluid circulation passageways, a transparent cover, a
circulating fluid
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A flat plate solar collector consists of various components. Firstly, it
consists of a flat box or an enclosure to hold the entire setup. A dark coloured plate
is fitted with fluid circulation passageways and transparent cover. Finally, a
circulating fluid which flows through the entire setup.
5. Why is a transparent cover used in a flat plate collector?

a) To maximize transmission of the incident sunlight into the box
b) To minimize transmission of the incident sunlight into the box
c) To entirely reflect the incident sunlight back
d) To ensure partial transmission of the incident sunlight into the box
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A transparent cover is used in a flat plate collector. This is because it
maximizes the transmission of the incident sunlight into the box thereby collecting
maximum sunlight for thermal energy.
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6. Which of the following is generally used as circulating fluid in tropical and sub-
tropical climates?
a) A mixture of ethylene glycol and water
b) Water
c) A mixture of propylene glycol and water
d) Glycerol
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Water is used as circulating fluid in tropical and sub-tropical climates.
This is because it has good properties as a coolant. A mixture of water with ethylene
glycol or glycerol or propylene glycol is not used as coolant in tropical and sub-
tropical climates.
7. Which of the following is generally used as circulating fluid in freezing climates?

a) Liquid carbon dioxide
b) Water
d) Liquid nitrogen
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In freezing climates, antifreeze solution like a mixture of water with
propylene glycol or ethylene glycol or glycerol is used as coolants. Liquid carbon
dioxide, water and liquid nitrogen are not used as coolants in freezing climates.
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8. Why are antifreeze solutions (antifreeze agents with water) used as coolants in
freezing climates?
a) To increase boiling point of water
b) To decrease boiling point of water
c) To increase freezing point of water
d) To decrease freezing point water
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Antifreeze solution is used as coolants in freezing climates. This is
because they decrease the freezing point of water thereby preventing it from
solidifying into ice.
9. Adding antifreeze agents to water _________

a) increases its durability as coolant
b) decreases its durability as coolant
c) turns water into a coolant
d) prevents water from acting as a coolant
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Adding antifreeze agents to water increases its durability as coolant.
This is because it depresses the freezing point of water and prevents it from
becoming ice.
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10. Which of the following is a circulating fluid in evacuated flat-plate solar collectors?
a) Water
b) Steam
c) Nitrogen
d) Hydrogen
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Evacuated flat-plate solar collectors are a more recent technology. It
uses steam as its circulating fluid. Nitrogen and hydrogen are not used as circulating
fluid. Water is mainly used in flat-plat collectors.
11. Evacuated flat-plate solar collectors are a type of _______

a) concentrating collectors
b) photovoltaic technology
c) non-concentrating collectors
d) solar stills
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Evacuated flat-plate solar collectors are a type of non-concentrating
collectors. Solar stills and photovoltaic technology are not solar collectors.
12. Which of the following are used as absorbers in evacuated-tube solar collectors?
a) Carbon tubes
b) Wooden or metallic tubes
c) Plastic or glass tubes
d) Metallic or glass tubes
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Metallic or glass tubes are used as absorbers in evacuated-tube solar
collectors. Wood and plastic are thermal insulators and hence, cannot be used to
create passageways for the heat carrying circulating fluid.
13. What is a heat pipe?
a) A heat-transfer device
b) A pipe made of heat
c) A pipe that consists of heat
d) A heat pumping device
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A heat pipe is a heat-transfer device. It combines the principles of
thermal conductivity and phase transition to effectively transfer heat between two
solid interfaces.
14. For better efficiency, solar collectors do not coat their transparent cover with an
anti-reflective coating.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For better efficiency, solar collectors coat their transparent cover with
an anti-reflective coating. The anti-reflective coating reduces the amount of reflection
dramatically. Thus, the amount of sunlight collected is increased.
15. Evacuated tube solar collectors use a glass tube to surround absorber with high
vacuum.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following is used to make a glass-glass evacuated tubes?

a) Borosilicate glass
b) Carbon
c) Wood
d) Plastic coating
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the name suggests, glass-glass evacuated tubes is a type of
evacuated-tube solar collector. It is made up of two borosilicate glass tubes fused
together at one or both ends.
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2. Which of the following is a problem with evacuated tubes?

a) Underheating
b) Overheating
c) Poor absorption of sunlight
d) Poor reception of sunlight
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Overheating is a common problem with evacuated-tube solar collector.
This is because of the high temperatures of the circulating fluid caused by collection
of large amount of sunlight.
3. Why does flat plate collector perceived to have higher efficiency than evacuated tube
solar collector in terms of area?
a) Because flat plate collector has a large installation area
b) Because evacuated tube collector is compact
c) Because of the vacuum gap in evacuated tube collectors
d) Because of the vacuum gap in flat plate collectors
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In terms of area, flat plate solar collectors are generally perceived to
have a higher efficiency than evacuated-tube solar collectors. This is because of the
vacuum gap in evacuated tube collectors which increases their net occupied area.
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4. _______ lose more heat to the environment than evacuated-tube solar collectors.
a) Photovoltaics
b) Solar stills
c) Solar air conditioners
d) Flat-plate collectors
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Flat-plate collectors lose more heat to the environment than evacuated-
tube solar collectors. Photovoltaics, solar stills and solar air conditioners are not
solar collectors.
5. Which of the following are combined to form an evacuated flat plate solar collector?
a) Flat plate solar collectors and evacuated-tube solar collectors
b) Flat plate solar collectors and bowl collectors
c) Bowl collectors and evacuated-tube solar collectors
d) Polymer collectors and bowl collectors
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Evacuated flat plate collectors combine the technologies of both, flat
plate solar collectors and evacuated-tube solar collectors. There are not a
combination of bowl and polymer type collectors.
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6. Which of the following provides highest energy conversion efficiency in non-

concentrating solar collectors?
a) Flat plate collectors
b) Evacuated flat plate collectors
c) Evacuated-tube collectors
d) Parabolic collectors
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Evacuated flat plate collectors provide the highest energy conversion
efficiency in non-concentrating solar collectors. Parabolic collector is not a non-
concentrating collector.
7. What is the metal sheet absorber surrounded with in an evacuated flat plate
collector?
a) Low volume inside flat envelope
b) Low vacuum inside curved envelope
c) High vacuum inside flat envelope
d) Low vacuum inside thick curved envelope
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In an evacuated flat-plate solar collector, the metal sheet absorber is
surrounded with a high vacuum. This is then placed inside a flat envelope made of
glass and metal.
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8. Which of the following organisations developed first high vacuum insulation?
a) NASA
b) IIT
c) Stanford
d) CERN
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: CERN developed the first collector making use of high vacuum
insulation. However, the first company to commercialise the technology was TVP
SOLAR SA of Switzerland.
9. Why does an evacuated flat plate collector require a glass-metal seal?

a) To join the glass plate to the rest of metal envelope
b) To join the glass plate to a part of metal envelope
c) To disconnect the glass plate to the rest of plastic envelope
d) To disconnect the glass plate to the rest of metal envelope
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An evacuated flat plate collector requires a glass-metal seal. This is to
join the glass plate to the rest of metal envelope. It also requires an internal
structure to support such a plate against atmospheric pressure.
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10. Which of the following pumps is used in an evacuated-tube solar collector?

a) Non-evaporable getter
b) Flash getter pump
c) Heat pump
d) Water pump
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Evacuated flat-plate solar collectors use a barium flash getter pump.
This pump is used to keep the internal pressure stable throughout the operation.
They do not use non-evaporable getter pumps.
11. Evacuated flat-plate solar collectors use _______ pumps.

a) Heat pump
c) Non-evaporable getter
d) Internal combustion
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Evacuated flat-plate solar collectors use non-evaporable getter (NEG)
pumps to keep the internal pressure stable throughout the operation. This pump
enables some regeneration in-situ by exposure to sunlight.
12. What advantage does polymer collector have over metal collector?
a) Better sales as they are produced in Europe
b) Poor sales as they are produced in Europe
c) They cannot be used in cold climate
d) They can be used in cold climate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The primary advantage of a polymer collector over a metal collector is
that they can be used in cold regions with low temperatures. This is because they are
freeze-tolerant. Whether they are manufactured in Europe or not does is neither an
advantage nor a disadvantage.
13. Bowl collectors operate similarly to _______

a) parabolic dish
b) flat plate collector
c) evacuated-tube collector
d) evacuated flat tube collector
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bowl collectors operate similarly to a parabolic dish. However, they have
a fixed receiver unlike a parabolic dish. This reduces efficiency but is much cheaper
to build and operate.
14. Polymer flat plate collectors can use plain water.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Polymer flat plate collectors can use plain water. This is because they
are freeze-tolerant and do not require antifreeze agents to prevent water from
solidifying.
15. Bowl collectors use a fixed curved receiver.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is solar water heater?

a) Use solar energy to heat water
b) Use solar energy to generate current which is then used to heat water
c) Use water to generate heat
d) Use solar energy to generate steam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar water heater is a system that converts sunlight into heat. This heat
is then used to heat water. As the water gets heated, steam may be produced but the
purpose of solar water is to heat water and not produce steam. It does not generate
current.
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2. Which of the following determines complexity and size of solar water heating
system?
a) Food
b) Changes in ambient temperature
c) Chemicals
d) Solar radiation constant
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Changes in ambient temperature during day-night cycle is one of the
factors that determines the complexity and size of solar water heating system. Food,
chemicals and solar radiation constant does not influence the complexity and size of
the system.
3. What is freeze protection in a solar water heating system?
a) Ensures that the system is frozen
b) Prevents the operation of drainback system
c) Prevents damage to system due to freezing of transfer fluid
d) Ensures that the transfer fluid is frozen
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Freeze protection in a solar water system prevents the system being
damaged due to freezing of transfer fluid. It does not prevent the operation of
drainback system.
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4. What are drainback systems in solar water heating system?

a) The system that reverses the direction of flow of transfer fluid
b) The system that tracks the sun
c) The system that pumps excess transfer fluid
d) The system that drains the transfer fluid
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Drainback systems are systems that drain the transfer fluid particularly
to ensure freeze protection. This prevents the freezing of transfer fluid and any
unwanted damage to the system.
5. How does freeze-tolerance work?

a) By expansion of pipes carrying transfer fluid
b) By compression of pipes carrying transfer fluid
c) By increasing the temperature of pipes carrying transfer fluid
d) By increasing the pressure inside pipes carrying transfer fluid
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Freeze-tolerance works by expansion of pipes carrying the transfer
fluid. The low pressure pipes are made of silicone rubber that expands on freezing.
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6. Which of the following metals are used to make pipes of low cost solar water heating
system?
a) Gold
b) Copper
c) Polymer
d) Silver
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Copper is used to make pipes of low cost solar water heating systems.
Though silver and gold are good thermal conductors they are expensive. Polymer is
not a metal.
7. Direct solar water heating systems ______

a) offer great overheating protection
b) are called pumped systems
c) offer no overheating protection
d) offer great freeze protection
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Direct solar water heating systems are also called compact systems.
They offer little or no overheating protection unless they have a heat export pump.
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8. How is the heat transferred from transfer fluid to potable water in indirect solar
water heating systems?
a) By directly exposing the substance to sunlight
b) By using an electrical heater
c) By circulating potable water through the collector
d) By using heat exchanger
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: An indirect solar water heating system uses a heat exchanger to
transfer heat from the transfer fluid to the potable water. It does not expose the
transfer fluid directly to the sunlight and does not use an electrical heater.
9. How is water heated in a direct solar water heating system?

a) By circulating potable water through the collector
b) By directly exposing water to sunlight
c) By using convection from a different transfer fluid
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a direct solar water heating system, the potable water is the transfer
fluid. Hence, it is heated by circulating through the collector. Indirect solar water
heating systems use a heat exchanger.
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10. Passive systems rely on heat-driven convection.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Passive systems rely on heat-driven convection. If not, they also use
heat pipes to circulate the working fluid through the collector and heat it. Hence,
they are cheap and are easily maintained.
11. Which of the following is an example of direct solar water heating system?
a) Pressurised antifreeze system
b) Pumped systems to circulate transfer fluid
c) Convection heat storage system
d) Drainback system
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Convection heat storage system is similar to an integrated collector
storage system. Both these systems are examples of direct solar water heating
systems.
12. How is the heat transfer fluid (HTF) heated in bubble pump systems?
a) By subjecting the closed HTF circuit to high pressure
b) By subjecting the closed HTF circuit to high pressure and by increasing the volume
c) By subjecting the closed HTF circuit to low pressure and by decreasing the volume
d) By subjecting the closed HTF circuit to low pressure
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In a bubble pump system, the heat transfer fluid circuit is subjected to a
low pressure. This causes the liquid to boil at low temperatures as the sun heats it.
The volume is not changed.
13. Batch collectors reduce heat loss by thermally insulating the storage tank.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Batch collectors reduce heat loss by thermally insulating the storage
tank. This is done by covering the tank in a glass-topped box that allows heat from
sun to reach the water tank and traps it – greenhouse effect.
14. Overheat protection is done by passing hot water through collector during night.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
1. What is solar heating and cooling?

a) Use solar energy to regulate the internal temperature of a given space
b) Use solar energy to regulate the temperature of environment
c) Use solar energy to monotonically increase the internal temperature of a given space
d) Use solar energy to monotonically decrease the temperature of a given space
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Passive solar heating and cooling, also called as passive solar design
uses solar energy to regulate the internal temperature of a given space. The space is
essentially some kind of closed/isolated area.
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2. Which of the following is used to regulate temperature in solar heating and cooling
system?
a) Air conditioners
b) Specific building systems
c) Water heaters
d) Room heaters
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Building systems designed specifically for a solar heating and cooling
system is used to regulate the temperature of a given space. It could be done with
the help of temperature controlling systems like an air conditioner embedded into
the building.
3. Which of the following is not used in a passive solar heating/cooling system?

a) Building walls
b) Building roofs
c) Air conditioners
d) Building floors
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Air conditioners are not used in a passive solar heating and cooling
system. This is simply because the system is passive. Wall, floors and roofs are
included in a passive system?
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4. What is a passive solar heating and cooling system?

a) Uses building design with mechanical systems to regulate the temperature outside a
given space
b) Uses building design with mechanical systems to monotonically increase the
temperature inside a given space
c) Uses building design without any solar heating (and cooling) system to regulate the
temperature outside a given space
d) Uses building design without any solar heating (and cooling) system to regulate the
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As the name suggests, a passive solar heating and cooling system does
not use any kind of active system. Instead, it uses building design without any solar
heating (and cooling) system to regulate the temperature inside a given space.
5. Which of the following is extremely important with respect to a passive solar heating
and cooling system?
a) Materials used to construct the building
b) Electrical systems used to perform heating/cooling operation
c) Mechanical systems used to perform heating/cooling operation
d) Material used to build heating/cooling systems
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A passive solar heating and cooling system does not consist of any
active element. Hence, materials used to construct the building plays a major role in
regulating the amount of heat trapped within the room.
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6. Which of the following is an example of passive solar technology?

a) Photovoltaic
b) Solar furnace
c) Active solar water heating systems
d) Solar thermo-mechanical systems
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Solar furnace is a well known example of passive solar technology. It
uses concentrated solar power to generate high temperatures for industrial
purposes. Active solar water heating systems and solar thermo-mechanical systems
are active systems.
7. What is a sunroom?
a) A room with a sun fitted inside it
b) A room that does not allow sunlight to pass through it
c) A room that transmits a lot of sunlight and has a scenic view
d) A room that does not pass sunlight and has a scenic view
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A sunroom, also known as a solarium is a room that permits a lot of
sunlight through it. It also has a beautiful scenic view for recreational purposes. This
is an example of a passive solar technology.
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8. Which of the following process is involved in heat transfer through building?

a) Seebeck effect
b) Peltier effect
c) Hall effect
d) Conduction
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Heat transfer in buildings occurs through conduction, convection and
radiation. Seebeck effect and Peltier effect are about an electric potential difference
due to thermal gradient and Hall effect are not related to heat transfer.
9. Which part of a house receives majority of solar radiation?

a) Roof
b) Side walls
c) Floor
d) Doors
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When compared to side walls, floor and doors, roofs receive majority of
solar radiation. The heat from sun flows into the building mainly through radiation
and supported by convection and conduction.
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10. Which of the following is a site-specific design consideration for a passive solar
heating and cooling system?
a) Orientation of the building
b) Latitude
c) Building window size
d) Placement of rooms
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Site specific design considerations are dependent on the location of the
site. Hence, latitude, sun path and insolation are some examples of site-specific
design considerations.
11. Which of the following is a design element for residential buildings in temperate
and tropical climates?
a) Latitude
b) Diurnal variations in temperature
c) Using thermal mass to store excess solar energy during winter
d) Obstacles
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Using thermal mass to store excess solar energy during winter is a
design element for residential buildings in temperate and tropical climates. Thermal
mass is a property of the mass of a building to store heat. Latitude, obstacles and
diurnal variations in temperature are site-specific design considerations.
12. A building with excessive glass cover ______

a) results in freezing
b) results in a pleasant temperature within the building
c) damages the building material
d) results in overheating
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A building with excessive glass cover results in overheating. This is
basically due to trapping of heat within the building and is explained by greenhouse
effect. It will not result in freezing.
13. A solar roof constructed on a building uses water stored ______ to temper hot and
cold internal temperatures of the building.
a) on building roofs
b) on building walls
c) beneath building floors
d) on an auxiliary building
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A solar roof constructed on a building uses water stored on building
roofs to temper hot and cold internal temperatures of the building. It is also called as
roof pond passive solar heating system and is usually deployed in desert
environments.
14. A “cool roof” uses reflective surfaces.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following is/are applications of solar heating systems?
a) Pasteurisation and drying
b) Wetting
c) Rainfall
d) Battery and capacitor technology
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pasteurisation and drying are applications of solar heating systems.
Battery and capacitor technology are used to store energy from various sources like
wind, sun, geothermal, etc. Wetting and raining are not applications of solar heating
systems.
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2. What is a solar heating system?

a) A system which uses heat to generate sunlight
b) A system which uses sunlight to generate heat
c) A system which uses earth’s heat to generate sunlight
d) A system which uses earth’s heat to generate electricity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A solar heating system is a system which uses sunlight to generate heat.
This heat can either be directly used or converted to other usable forms of energy
like electricity. Geothermal energy is using earth’s heat to generate usable forms of
energy.
3. What solar thermal technologies are useful for industrial processes?

a) Photovoltaics and solar air collectors
b) Solar air collectors and geothermal energy
c) Solar air collectors and solar water systems
d) Geothermal and photovoltaics
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Solar air collectors, solar water systems and solar concentrators are
three well known solar thermal technologies used in industrial processes.
Geothermal energy and photovoltaics are not solar thermal processes.
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4. Which industry primarily uses solar air collectors?
a) Industries manufacturing plastic
b) Industries melting metals
c) Semiconductor industry
d) Food processing industry
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Food processing industry primarily uses solar air collectors. They
replace traditional gas or oil-based drying in the industry. Melting metals requires
extremely high temperatures that are not provided by solar air collectors.
5. How does using a solar air collector benefit food processing industry?
a) Reduce gas-or-oil-based drying and/or reduce food spoilage
b) Reduce food spoilage and increase gas-or-oil base drying
c) Increase food spoilage
d) Increase gas-or-oil-based drying and/or increase food spoilage
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar air collectors benefit food processing industry in many ways. They
primarily reduce gas-or-oil-based drying and/or reduce food spoilage due to open air
drying. Also, they can be built locally and their cost depends on local building
materials and labour.
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6. Which of the following is a conventional solar water system?

a) Solar air collectors
b) Flat-plate collectors
c) Parabolic dish collectors
d) Linear Fresnel collectors
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Conventional solar water systems consists of flat-plate collectors (FPC)
or evacuated tube collectors (ETC). Solar air collectors are not solar water system.
7. Which application is best suited for a solar water system?

a) Food industry
b) Semiconductor industry
c) Residential applications
d) Liquid adsorption
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Solar water systems are best suited for residential applications and if
required can be installed on rooftops to meet temperature demands upto 125
degree Celsius. Solar air collectors are mainly used in food industries.
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8. Which of the following are types of solar concentrators?

c) Parabolic flat plate collectors
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Solar concentrators include parabolic dish collectors, linear Fresnel
collectors and linear parabolic trough collectors. Solar air collectors are not a type of
solar concentrators. There is no such thing as parabolic flat plate collector because
the shape can either be parabolic or flat.

heat exchanger
heat exchanger
cold exchanger
cold exchanger
View Answer
Answer: a
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10. Which of the following is an example of solar air heating/collection technology?

a) Drying food using hair dryer
b) Drying food under direct sun
c) Heating the food in oven
d) Grilling food in a barbeque
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Drying food under direct is one of the simplest and naturally occurring
techniques of solar air heating. Drying food using hair dryer is not a solar air heating
technology as electricity is used to run the hair dryer.
11. Which of the following groups are types of solar drying technology?
a) Indirect, direct and active, photovoltaic
b) Photovoltaic, direct and indirect, active
c) Indirect, direct and active, passive
d) Indirect, passive and active, direct
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Solar drying technology can broadly be grouped into indirect/ direct and
active/passive technologies. Directly drying under the sun is an example of direct
drying. Photovoltaic is not a solar drying technology.
12. Active solar drying systems control _______ by fans.

a) water flow rate
b) food flow rate
c) electricity
d) air flow rate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Active solar drying systems control air flow rate by fans. They can
reduce drying time by a third and are compact. However, they require more
electricity to operate machines like fans.
13. Solar air collectors transfer sun’s thermal energy to air via ______
a) conduction
b) convection
c) Seebeck effect
d) Peltier effect
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar air collectors transfer sun’s thermal energy to air via conduction.
Convection is the transfer of heat by movement of fluid between areas of different
temperature. For this to happen, some region of air must first have a higher
temperature which is achieved by conduction.
14. Solar concentrators are used for temperatures beyond 500 degree Celsius.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar concentrators are used for temperatures beyond 500 degree
Celsius. Such industrial applications include generation of electricity or melting
metals.
15. Solar heat industrial systems are used for desalination.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following are types of photovoltaic refrigeration?

a) Vapour compression refrigeration and thermoelectric refrigeration
b) Vapour compression refrigeration and vapour jet refrigeration
c) Photovoltaics and concentrated solar power systems
d) Rankine cycle and vapour jet refrigeration
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Vapour compression refrigeration and thermoelectric refrigeration are
types of photovoltaic refrigeration. Photovoltaic is used to perform solar
refrigeration. Like Rankine Cycle and concentrated power systems, it is not a type of
refrigeration.
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2. What is a solar powered refrigerator?
a) A refrigerator that is directly sourced by electricity
b) A refrigerator that is sourced by solar energy
c) A refrigerator that is sourced by wind and sun
d) A refrigerator that is sourced by biomass and sun
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A solar powered refrigerator is a refrigerator that is sourced by solar
energy. Photovoltaics or solar thermal energy is used to convert solar energy into a
usable form (electricity) for refrigeration.
3. What is refrigeration?
a) A process where is work is done is to add heat from one system to another
b) A process where heat is used by the system to do work
c) A process where work is done to move heat from one system to another
d) A process where work is done to add cold air into the system
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Refrigeration is a process in which work is done to (re)move heat from
one system and add it to another. This results in temperature decrement in the
system from which heat was (re)moved.
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4. What are the types of popular refrigeration systems?

a) Vapour compression and vapour adsorption
b) Vapour adsorption and vapour absorption
c) Vapour compression and liquid compression
d) Vapour compression and vapour absorption
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Refrigeration systems are broadly classified into vapour compression
(VCR) and vapour absorption systems (VAR). Liquids are not compressed in
refrigerating systems.
5. Vapour compression refrigeration systems use ______ energy to perform

compression.
a) mechanical
b) thermal
c) gravitational
d) nuclear
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Vapour compression refrigeration systems use mechanical energy. The
electrical energy is converted into mechanical energy to perform the process of
compression.
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6. What type of energy does vapour absorption refrigeration system use?

a) mechanical
b) thermal
c) nuclear
d) electrodynamic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Vapour absorption refrigeration systems use thermal energy. The
electrical energy is converted into thermal energy to perform the process of
absorption.
7. Which of the following refrigeration systems are used in air-conditioning systems?

a) Vapour absorption
b) Vapour jet
c) Vapour compression
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Vapour absorption refrigeration systems are used in air-conditioning
systems. It is also used in domestic and commercial refrigerators, large-scaled
warehouses for storing food items by freezing.
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8. Which of the following best describes the process of vapour compression

refrigeration?
a) Warm air → compressor → condenser → expansion valve → evaporator → colder air
b) Evaporator → compressor → condenser → expansion valve → evaporator → colder
air
c) Warm air → compressor → expansion valve → evaporator → colder air
d) Warm air → evaporator → compressor → condenser → expansion valve →
evaporator → colder air
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In vapour compression refrigerator, warm air is first evaporated and
then passed into a compressor. This compresses the vapour which is then passed
through a condenser to obtain a liquid. The liquid is expanded through an expansion
valve to form a combination of liquid and vapour which is then passed through an
evaporator to obtain cold air.
9. What does a refrigerant do in a vapour compression refrigeration system?

a) Removes heat from one system and empties it into another system
b) Adds heat to the system
c) Absorbs heat continuously
d) Converts thermal energy into electrical energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A refrigerant in a vapour compression refrigeration system removes
heat from one system and empties it into another system. It is a circulating liquid
that basically performs operation of “refrigeration”.
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10. Which of the following is an example of a refrigerant?

a) Platinum
b) CFCs
c) Argon
d) Nitrogen
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: CFCs are common examples of refrigerants. Freons like R-11, R-12, R-21,
R-22 and R-502 are also used. Platinum, Argon and Nitrogen are not used as
refrigerants.
11. How does a photovoltaic refrigeration system work?
a) By converting sun’s thermal energy into electricity which is used to drive a motor
coupled to a compressor
b) By converting sun’s thermal energy into electricity which is used to drive an AC
motor coupled to a compressor of a vapour compression system
c) By converting sunlight into DC current to drive a DC motor which is coupled to a
compressor of a vapour compression system
d) By converting sunlight into DC current which is used to drive an AC motor coupled to
a compressor of a vapour compression system
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A photovoltaic refrigeration system works by converting sunlight into
DC current. This DC current drives a DC motor which is coupled to a compressor of a
vapour compression system.
12. It is important to ensure that _______ characteristics of motor matches that of PV

array.
a) mechanical
b) thermal
c) insulating
d) electrical
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is important to ensure that electrical characteristics of motor matches
that of PV array. This is to ensure that the power delivered by the PV array sufficient
to drive the motor which in turn drives the system.
13. How does the compression process between vapour compression and vapour
absorption systems differ?
a) Vapour compression uses mechanical compression while vapour absorption uses
thermal compression
b) Vapour compression and vapour absorption use thermal compression
c) Vapour compression and vapour absorption use thermal compression
d) Vapour compression uses electrical compression while vapour absorption uses
mechanical compression
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The compression processes differ in the compression technique and
energy conversions. Vapour compression uses mechanical compression while
vapour absorption uses thermal compression.
14. Solar thermal energy is used to perform vapour absorption refrigeration.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar thermal energy is used to perform vapour absorption
refrigeration. Since vapour absorption refrigeration uses thermal compression, the
thermal energy is directly used to extract heat from the working fluid.
15. Freon is a trade for a family of haloalkane refrigerants.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Solar air conditioning system uses _______ as its energy source.

a) sun
b) wind
c) electricity
d) motor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar air conditioning system uses sun as its energy source. It is just like
any other air conditioning system except that it uses solar power. A motor is not an
energy source. Solar energy is converted to electricity to run the system.
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2. Which of the following types of solar energy can be used to source air conditioning
systems?
a) Passive solar and wind
b) Passive solar and photovoltaics
c) Vapour compressor and photovoltaics
d) Wind and solar thermal energy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Passive solar, solar thermal energy and photovoltaics can be used to
source air conditioning systems. Wind and vapour compressor are not types of solar
energy.
3. What are the three heat exchangers used in an absorption type refrigeration?
a) Compressor, absorber and generator
b) Absorber, generator and adsorber
c) Absorber, regenerating intermediate heat exchanger and generator
d) Compressor, generator and adsorber
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The three heat exchangers used in an absorption type refrigeration
system are absorber, regenerating intermediate heat exchanger and generator.
These heat exchangers replace the compressor in a vapour compression
refrigeration system.
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4. What is the working fluid in vapour absorption type systems?

a) Platinum
b) CFCs
c) Freons
d) Ammonia
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Ammonia or lithium bromide is the working fluid in vapour absorption
type systems. CFCs and freons are used in vapour compression type systems and are
called refrigerants. Platinum is not used as a working fluid.
5. Absorption of ammonia in a liquid solution analogous to _______

a) condensation
b) evaporation
c) vapourisation
d) convection
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Absorption of ammonia in a liquid solution is analogous to
condensation process. Evaporation and vapourisation concern with liquids turning
into gas. Convection is a process of heat flow.
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6. Which of the following best describes the process of vapour absorption

refrigeration?
a) Absorbing fluid vapour into liquid carrier → producing vapours from solution by
heating → thus cooling → pumping into a high pressure cycle
b) Absorbing fluid vapour into liquid carrier → pumping into a high pressure cycle →
producing vapours from solution by heating → thus cooling
c) Absorbing fluid vapour into liquid carrier → thus cooling → pumping into a high
pressure cycle → producing vapours from solution by heating
d) Absorbing fluid vapour into liquid carrier → producing vapours from solution by
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The working fluid is absorbed into a liquid carrier which is then pumped
into a high pressure cycle. This cycle produces vapours from solution by heating
thereby cooling.
7. Which of the following use absorption refrigeration system?

a) Heating systems
b) Solar cooker
c) Waste heat from cogeneration
d) Solar stills
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Absorption refrigeration systems are used in large commercial and
industrial installations. For instance, waste heat from cogeneration or process steam
plants.
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8. Which of the following is/are considered for calculating the overall efficiency of solar
absorption refrigeration system?
a) Coefficient of performance of absorption system
b) Solar collection efficiency
c) Solar insolation
d) Solar collection efficiency and coefficient of performance of absorption system
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Solar collection efficiency and coefficient of performance of absorption
system are considered for calculating the overall efficiency of a solar absorption
refrigeration system. One can assume the solar insolation to be fairly constant and
hence does not contribute towards efficiency calculation.
9. What is coefficient of performance?

a) Ratio of refrigeration capacity to input solar energy
b) Ratio of input solar energy to refrigeration capacity
c) Product of input solar energy and refrigeration capacity
d) Ratio of refrigeration capacity to input electrical energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Coefficient of performance can be defined as the ratio of refrigeration
capacity to input solar energy. It basically describes the efficiency of the refrigerating
system as it compares the input to output.
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10. In solar vapour compression cycle, efficiency of Rankine cycle increases with _______
a) decrease in temperature of heat exchanger
b) increase in temperature of heat exchanger
c) the amount of heat supplied to the evaporator
d) the amount of cold air released from the system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In solar vapour compression cycle, efficiency of Rankine Cycle increases
with increase in temperature of heat exchanger. It does not depend on the amount
of heat supplied to the evaporator and the amount of cold air released.
11. Efficiency of solar collector decreases with ______

b) increase in temperature of sun
c) increase in temperature
d) the amount of cold air given to the system
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Efficiency of solar collector decreases with increase in temperature. This
is because as the temperature of the working fluid increases, the difference between
its maximum heating temperature and the current running temperature decreases.
This decreases the ability to hold more heat.
12. Absorption refrigeration uses _______ mechanical power input as compared to

vapour compression refrigeration.
a) greater
b) the same
c) the same working fluid as
d) negligible
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Absorption refrigeration uses negligible mechanical power input as
compared to vapour compression refrigeration. Ammonia is used as working fluid in
absorption refrigeration.
13. How is pressurization achieved in absorber refrigeration?

a) By dissolving refrigerant in absorbent in the absorber section
b) By dissolving refrigerant in absorbent in the evaporation section
c) By evaporating refrigerant from absorbent in the absorber section
d) By evaporating refrigerant in absorbent in the evaporation section
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In absorber refrigeration, pressurisation is achieved by dissolving
refrigerant in absorbent in the absorber section. Evaporator section is used to
evaporate the refrigerant.
14. In absorber refrigeration, the solution of working fluid (ammonia) is pumped to a

low pressure with a big pump.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In absorber refrigeration, the solution of working fluid (ammonia) is
pumped to a high pressure. This is done with the help of a small/ordinary pump.
15. Vapour compression refrigeration system is less complex than absorber

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is solar cooker?

a) Uses direct sunlight to produce heat and cook food
b) Uses solar energy to evaporate water and collect it within the same closed system
c) Uses solar energy to dry substances
d) Uses concentrated solar power to for industry
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar cookers are devices that use direct sunlight to produce heat and
cook food. Solar dryers are devices that use solar energy to dry substances. Devices
that use solar energy to evaporate water and collect its condensate within the same
closed system are called solar stills.
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2. What is pasteurization?
a) Process of treating water by biological techniques
b) Process of treating water by heating it mildly
c) Process of producing water
d) Process of capturing sun’s heat
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pasteurization is the process of treating water, packaged and non-
packaged food by heating it mildly. This is done to eliminated pathogens and extend
shelf life.
3. Which of the following principles is used to concentrate sunlight in solar cookers?
a) Rarefaction
b) Evaporation
c) Specular reflection
d) Radiation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Specular reflection is used to concentrate sunlight in solar cookers.
Evaporation is the process of liquid, particularly water turning into gas. Rarefaction is
the reduction in density of air or gas.
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4. Which of the following majorly affects the phenomenon of concentrating sunlight?

a) Non-reflecting surface
b) Black surface
c) Type of food
d) Geometry of the reflecting structure
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Geometry of the reflecting structure majorly affects the phenomenon of
concentrating sunlight. The amount of sunlight being concentrated can be controlled
by the geometry of the reflecting structure.
5. What is the typical temperature (range) used in domestic cooking? Note that C
indicates Celsius.
a) 50 – 70 degree C
b) 1000 degree C
c) 3500 degree C
d) 300 – 500 degree C
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The typical temperature used in domestic cooking is around 65 degree
C. It falls in the range of 50 – 70 degree C. Temperatures beyond 1000 degree C are
used for industrial purposes.
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6. What is the maximum temperature used in cooking? Note that C indicates Celsius
a) 100 degree C for boiling water and related dishes
b) 400 degree C for grilling and searing
c) 800 degree C for melting metals
d) 30 degree C for melting food items like butter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum temperature used in cooking is 400 degree C for grilling
and searing purposes. Boiling water and melting food items like butter do not
require temperatures beyond 100 degree C. Temperatures beyond 500 degree C are
used in industries.
7. The cooking pan used in solar cookers convert ______ energy to ______ energy.
a) electrical, heat
b) heat, light
c) light, heat
d) electrical, light
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The cooking pan used in solar cookers convert light energy to heat
energy. After reflecting and concentrating the light onto the cooking pan, the pan
conducts heat to cook the required food/substance.
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8. Which of the following materials are used to make the cooking pan in a solar cooker?
a) Wood
b) Plastic
c) Rubber
d) Iron
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Iron is a good conductor of heat. It is used to make the cooking pan to
heat food in a solar cooker. Wood, plastic and rubber are thermal insulators.
9. Which of the following are used to manufacture parabolic dish concentrator?

a) Anodized aluminum
b) Wood
c) Bakelite
d) Iron
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Parabolic dish (and trough) are made of anodized aluminum (or coated
with aluminum) to reflect sunlight and concentrate it onto a receiver. Wood, iron and
bakelite are not used as they do not have reflective properties. Moreover, wood and
bakelite are thermal insulators.
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10. Which of the following pot surfaces are preferred for solar cookers?
a) White coloured
b) Black coloured
c) Red coloured
d) Silver coloured
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Black coloured pot surfaces are best suited to be used on cooking pans
of solar cookers. This is because black absorbs most amount of heat as compared to
any other colour. White, aluminum and silver coated surfaces are good reflectors of
light and heat.
11. Convection should be reduced by isolating air inside the cooker from air outside the
cooker.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Convection should be reduced by isolating air inside the cooker from air
outside the cooker. This is to prevent escape of heat via convection.
12. Covering the pot with a glass lid ________ convection.

a) increases
b) does not affect
c) changes the direction of
d) reduces
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Covering the pot with a glass lid reduces convection. This results in a
greenhouse effect thereby trapping heat to cook the food inside the pot.
13. Evacuated tube solar cookers use ________ glass tube for the cooking chamber.
a) highly insulated
b) thermal conducting
c) parabolic
d) cone shaped
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Evacuated tube solar cookers use highly insulated double-wall glass
tube for the cooking chamber. They do not require large reflectors to concentrate
sunlight.
14. Which of the following best describes the working of a solar cooker?
a) Concentrating sunlight → trapping heat → cooking
b) Concentrating sunlight → converting light to heat energy → trapping heat →cooking
c) Concentrating sunlight → cooking → trapping heat
d) Trapping heat → converting heat to light energy → radiating light → cooking
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sunlight is concentrated onto a receiver by reflective surfaces of the
structure. This light is converted to heat by the receiver. The heat is then trapped by
the pots used for cooking.
15. Solar cookers do have operating costs.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. In terms of cost, solar panel cookers use _______ material.

a) low-cost
b) specially designed expensive
c) low-cost inefficient
d) expensive and extremely efficient
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In terms of cost, solar panel cookers use low-cost material. However,
due to their low-cost material they can be easily constructed and are the most
commonly used cookers.
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2. What type is a solar panel cooker?

a) Absorber type
b) Reflector type
c) Adsorber type
d) Convection type
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Solar panel cookers are reflector type cookers. They are the most type
available due to their ease of construction and low-cost material.
3. How is sunlight concentrated in solar panel cooker?

a) From below the cooker onto the cooking pan
b) Using photovoltaics
c) From above
d) From right side
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sunlight is concentrated from above and not from sides in solar panel
cookers. This leads to limited cooking power and is not very desirable because of low
efficiency. However, the solar panel cookers are some of the cheapest designs in the
market.
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4. What was CooKit?

a) A solar parabolic cooker
b) A solar box cooker
c) A vapour compressor
d) A solar panel cooker
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Cookit is a popular solar panel cooker. It was designed by Dr. Roger
Bernard and is manufactured by cardboard and foil. Its main advantage was that it
was affordable, convenient and effective.
5. Solar panel cookers are not effective under _______

a) cloudy conditions
b) sunny conditions
c) dry and sunny conditions
d) desert conditions
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar panel cookers are not effective under cloudy conditions. Like any
other technology using solar energy, it requires the sun to be shining brightly without
any hinderance. Any hinderance drastically drops its effectiveness.
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6. What type of solar cooker is a sun basket?

a) Solar panel cooker
b) Solar parabolic cooker
c) Solar box cooker
d) Vapour absorption compression
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sun basket is a solar parabolic cooker. It is neither a solar panel nor a
solar box cooker. Vapour absorption compression is a refrigeration technique used
in refrigerators and not in solar cookers.
7. Which of the following materials are used to make sun basket?

a) Paper mache, parabolic mirror, gold and bakelite
b) Parabolic mirror, aluminum foil, paper mache and gold
c) Paper mache, aluminum foil, jute fabric and bamboo frame
d) Bamboo frame, parabolic mirror, gold rod for support and rubber for insulation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A sun basket is basically a parabolic mirror made from paper mache
supported by jute fabric and held in place by a bamboo frame. Aluminum foil is used
as the reflecting lining and is glued to the inner side of the basket. Rubber and
bakelite are thermal insulators. Gold is an expensive metal and is not used to make
solar basket.
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8. Solar basket is a/an ________

a) active cooker
b) vapour compression technique
c) vapour absorption technique
d) passive cooker
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Solar basket is a passive cooker. Vapour compression and vapour
absorption are compression techniques used in refrigeration. They are not related to
solar cookers.
9. What is a solar box type cooker?

a) An insulated box with a transparent glass cover and reflective surface directing
sunlight into the box
b) An insulated parabolic mirror which is used to reflect the sunlight onto the
conduction pan
c) A thermal conducting box with a transparent glass cover and reflective surface
directing sunlight into the box
d) A thermal conducting parabolic mirror which is used to reflect the sunlight onto the
insulated pan
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A solar box type cooker is an insulated box with a transparent glass
cover and reflective surface directing sunlight into the box. It is not a parabolic
mirror type solar cooker.
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10. Which of the following colours can be used to paint the insulated box in a solar box
cooker?
a) White
b) Black
c) Silver
d) Pink
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The insulated box in a solar box cooker is painted black. This is because
black maximizes absorption of sunlight. White is one of the best reflectors of sunlight
and is not used for absorption.
11. What type of cooking containers are used to cook food on a solar cooker?
a) Gold
b) Wooden
c) Steel
d) Plastic
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Cooking containers made up of aluminum and/or steel are used to cook
food on a solar cooker. Cooking containers made of thermal insulators like wood and
plastic are not used. Gold is an expensive metal and is not used for this purpose.
12. To reduce heat loss, where are insulators used in a solar box cooker?
a) On the reflective material
b) On the cooking platform
c) Reflective materials are made of insulators
d) Space between the outer and inner box
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The space between outer and inner box in a solar box type cooker are
thermally insulated to prevent any loss of heat. Cooking platform and reflective
material are not made up of thermally insulating material.
13. Solar cooker takes ______ to cook as compared to conventional cooking methods.
a) longer
b) less time
c) about the same time
d) more electricity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar cooker takes longer to cook as compared to conventional cooking
methods. It need not convert sunlight into electricity. Also, it does not use electricity
from the grid.
14. Solar cooking is pollution free.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar cooking is pollution free. It does not emit any harmful pollutants
into the environment and is entirely self-sustainable.
15. Conventional cooking fuel is required to operate solar cookers.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
1. What is solar furnace?

a) Uses concentrated solar power to produce high temperatures for industry
d) Uses solar energy to dry liquids
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Structures that use concentrated solar power to produce extremely
high temperatures for industry and other applications are called solar furnaces. Solar
dryers are devices that use solar energy to dry substances. Devices that use solar
energy to evaporate water and collect its condensate within the same closed system
are called solar stills.
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2. Which of the following concentrates sunlight onto a focal point?

a) Plane mirrors
b) Parabolic mirrors
c) Silver coated surface
d) Black surface
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Parabolic mirrors concentrate light onto a focal point. Plane mirrors and
silver coated surfaces reflect sunlight but not onto a focal point. Black surface
absorbs sunlight.
3. What is the typical range of temperature at the focal point of a parabolic mirror in
solar furnaces? Note that C stands for Celsius
a) Between 100 and 150 degree C
b) Upto 20 degree C
c) Between 1000 and 2000 degree C
d) Between 50 and 100 degree C
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The typical range of temperature at the focal point of a parabolic mirror
in solar furnaces is between 1000 and 2000 degree C. The temperatures may rise
upto 3500 degree C and can be used to generate electricity, melt steel, etc.
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4. What are concentrated solar powered systems?

a) Systems that use only a small concentrated portion of sunlight
b) Systems that generate solar power by using photovoltaics
c) Systems that generate solar power by using mirrors and lenses to absorb
concentrate a large area of sunlight onto an absorber
d) Systems that generate solar power by using mirrors and lenses to concentrate a
large area of sunlight onto a receiver
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Large area of sunlight is concentrated onto a receiver. This is performed
by concentrated solar power systems which then. The receiver then converts the
light into heat and transports it to other constituents of the concentrated solar
power system that further convert it into usable forms of energy.
5. Which of the following uses concentrated solar power systems?

a) Solar thermo-mechanical power systems
b) Solar stills
c) Solar dryers
d) Solar photovoltaics
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar thermo-mechanical power systems use mirrors and lenses to
focus the light onto a receiver which is then converted into thermal energy. The
thermal energy is then used to drive a heat engine connected to an electrical power
generator.
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6. Which of the following does a heliostat consist of?

a) Plane mirror
b) Plane mirror and parabolic mirror
c) Fresnel reflector
d) A metal absorber
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A heliostat is a device that includes a plane mirror. The mirror is turned
to keep the reflecting sunlight towards a predetermined target. This compensates for
the sun’s motion throughout the day.
7. What are the types of concentrating technologies?

a) Parabolic trough and solar stills
b) Parabolic dish and solar furnace
c) Solar power tower and parabolic trough/dish
d) Solar furnace and solar stills
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Concentrating technologies exists in four types, namely, parabolic
trough, dish solar power tower and concentrating linear Fresnel reflector. Solar
furnace use concentrating solar power technologies. Solar stills are not a type of
concentrating technology.
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8. What are the types of solar furnaces?
a) Indirect and concentrating solar power technology
b) Active and direct
c) Passive and heliostat
d) Direct and heliostat
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Direct solar furnace and heliostat solar furnace are the two types of
solar furnaces. Active and passive are types of solar stills. Indirect solar dryer is a
type of solar dryer.
9. Which of the following is an application of solar furnace?

a) Producing hydrogen fuel
b) Drying food
c) Distilling water
d) Generating concentrating solar power technologies
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Apart from generating electricity and melting steel, producing hydrogen
fuel is another major application of solar furnaces. Solar stills are used to distill
water. Solar dryers are used to dry food.
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10. Archimedes is said to have repelled attacking Roman ships with the help of
“burning glass”.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Archimedes is said to have repelled attacking Roman ships with the help
of “burning glass”. The ships were set on fire using this so called “burning glass”
which may very well have been an array of mirrors.
11. Solar furnaces are used to generate temperatures around ______ to produce
hydrogen. Note that C indicates Celsius.
a) 1000 degree C
b) 500 degree C
c) 1400 degree C
d) 3500 degree C
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Solar furnaces are used to generate temperatures around 1400 degree
C to produce hydrogen. Hydrogen is produced by cracking methane molecules.
12. What is the typical temperature generated by solar furnaces to test materials for
extreme environments? Note that C indicates Celsius.
a) 100 degree C
b) 500 degree C
c) 1400 degree C
d) 2500 degree C
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The typical temperature generated by solar furnaces to test materials
for extreme environments is around 2500 degree C. Materials are tested for
applications like nuclear reactors or space vehicle.
13. What is a major drawback of solar furnaces to be used as a renewable source of

energy on earth?
a) Heavily reliant on sun
b) Not reliant on sun
c) Finances
d) Cannot be used as a source of energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: One of the major drawbacks of solar furnaces particularly if it has to be
used a renewable source of energy on earth it is heavily reliant on sun. Another
problem is the availability of land to install huge systems to convert energy.
14. Solar furnaces can be used as solar cookers for domestic purposes.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar furnaces are not directly used as solar cookers particularly for
domestic purposes. However, their principle is being used to make inexpensive solar
cookers.
15. The largest solar furnace is in France.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is solar dryer?

a) Use solar energy to dry substances
b) Use solar energy to evaporate water and collect it within the same closed system
c) Use solar energy to evaporate water and collect its condensate within the same
closed system
d) Use solar energy to dry liquids
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar dryer are devices that use solar energy to dry substances. Devices
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2. What is the most popular use of solar dryer?

a) Water
b) Food
c) Chemicals
d) Industrial substances
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Popularly, solar dryers are used to dry foods. If not the, it is one of the
most common application of solar dryers. Since the question specifies most popular,
food is the answer.
3. What are the two general types of solar dryers?

a) Direct and active
b) Indirect and passive
c) Direct and indirect
d) Box like and cone shaped
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The two general types of solar dryers are direct and indirect. Active and
passive are types of solar stills. Box like and cone shaped are some of the basic
configurations of solar stills.
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4. What is the basic working principle of direct solar dryers?

a) Direct exposure of substance to fire
b) Direct use of sunlight to start a heater which is then used to dry the substance
c) Indirect exposure of substance to sunlight
d) Dehydrating the substance by directly exposing to sunlight
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The basic working principle of direct solar dryers is that they directly
expose the substance to sunlight. By directly exposing the substance, they dehydrate
the substance. A heater may or may not be used in a solar dryer.
5. Which of the following best indicates an example of direct solar dryer?

a) Drying wet clothes on wired lines
b) Using the dryer of a washing machine
c) Using an electric heater
d) Using a solar heater
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Drying wet clothes on wired lines is an example of direct solar dryer.
Many countries including India still use this traditional method to dry clothes as it is
cheap and natural. Electric and solar heaters are not solar dryers.
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6. How do wet clothes laid on wired lines dry under sunlight?

a) Wind blows to accumulate more air consisting moisture near the clothes
b) Wind blows away the moisture near the wet clothes air exposing them to fresh air
and sunlight
c) Sunlight continuously evaporates water in wet clothes without any assistance from
wind
d) Wind blows away the moisture near the wet clothes air exposing them to fresh air
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Both sunlight and wind assist drying of wet clothes laid on wired lines.
As the sun evaporates water from the clothes, moisture content in the surrounding
air increases. Wind blows away this moisture saturated air and exposes to the
clothes to fresh air and sunlight. The process repeats thereby drying the wet clothes
over time.
7. Which of the following surface is best suited to absorb sunlight?

a) White surface
b) Red surface
c) Black surface
d) Silver surface
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A black surface or a black coated surface is best suited to absorb
sunlight. This is supported by the concept of black body. A black body is an idealized
physical body that absorbs all incident electromagnetic radiation.
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8. How does an indirect solar dryer work?

c) By heating the incoming air with the help of a black surface
d) By using fire
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: An indirect solar dyer heats the incoming air with the help of a black
surface. Then this heated air is passed over the substance to be dried thereby drying
the substance.
9. Why is direct solar dryer harmful for food?

a) Because direct sunlight could chemically alter some food items
b) Because direct sunlight dries the food
c) Because direct solar dryer does not cover the food
d) Because of contaminants brought by wind
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A major problem with a direct solar dryer is that it can harm the food.
This is because the sunlight could chemically alter some food item and make them
less appetizing. Contamination due to wind is also a problem but it is not as bad as
chemical alteration.
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10. Indirect solar dryers protect the food.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Indirect solar dryers protect the food from directly exposing it to
sunlight. Since they heat the incoming air they do not directly expose the food to
sunlight. This prevents chemical alteration of food items.
11. _______ are used as air exhausts in indirect solar dryers.

a) Turbines
b) Ceiling fans
c) Chimneys
d) Table fans
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Chimneys are used as air exhausts in indirect solar dryers. They let the
moisture containing air pass out of the chamber thereby making room for freshly
heated air.
12. A glass cover _______ solar dryers.

a) decreases the efficiency of
b) is not used in
c) does not affect the efficiency of
d) increases the efficiency of
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A glass cover increases the efficiency of solar dryers. Sometimes, direct
solar dryers are equipped with glass covers to trap more heat thereby increasing the
efficiency of the system.
13. Which of the following best explains the increment in efficiency of a glass covered
solar dryer?
a) Greenhouse effect
b) Greenhouse gas
c) Climate change
d) Thermohaline circulation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Greenhouse effect best explains the increment in efficiency of a glass
covered solar dryer. Greenhouse effect is the process of increasing the temperature
of a chamber covered with glass by trapping sun’s heat within the chamber.
14. Which of the following is an example of indirect solar dryer?

a) Wet clothes laid on wired lines
b) Solar cabinet dryer
c) Solar tunnel dryer
d) Biomass cabinet dryer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Solar cabinet dryer is an example of indirect solar dryer. Wet clothes
laid on wired lines is an example of direct solar dryer. Solar tunnel dryer and
biomass cabinet dryer are not examples of indirect solar dryers.
15. Indirect solar dryers work on natural air convection.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is solar distillation?

a) Use solar energy to evaporate water and collect its condensate within the same
closed system
c) Use solar energy to collect the condensate of water within the same closed system
d) Use solar energy to evaporate water and collect its condensate within different
closed systems
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar distillation is the use solar energy to evaporate water and collect
its condensate within the same closed system. It is important to note that the same
system is used to both evaporate and condensate water.
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2. Which of the following houses the process of solar distillation?

a) Solar thermo-mechanical system
b) Solar still
c) Photovoltaics
d) Heat engines
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Solar still houses the process of solar distillation. Solar thermo-
mechanical system, photovoltaics and heat engines are not used to perform
distillation.
3. Which of the following is a configuration of solar still?

a) Solar panel
b) Solar cell
c) Cone shaped
d) Frustum shaped
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The three basic configurations of solar still are cone shaped, box-like
and frustum shaped. Solar cells and panels are not solar stills and are not used for
solar distillation.
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4. Which of the following best describes the process of solar distillation?

a) Influent → solar distillation system → salty solute remains → evaporation of volatile
solvents as effluents
b) Influent → evaporation of volatile solvents as effluents → solar distillation system →
salty solute remains
c) Influent → solar distillation system → evaporation of volatile solvents as effluents →
d) Solar distillation system → influent → evaporation of volatile solvents as effluents →
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The influent enters the solar distillation system. The volatile solvents
evaporate as effluents leaving behind salty solute.
5. Which of the following is an example of solar distillation?

a) Natural water cycle
b) Fractional distillation
c) Reverse osmosis
d) Osmosis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Natural water cycle is a very common example of solar distillation that
the earth experiences. Fractional distillation, osmosis and reverse osmosis are not
solar distillation.
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6. What are the two categories of solar still?

a) Active and deactivate
b) Active and passive
c) Box and cone
d) Passive and pit
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Active and passive are the two main categories of solar still. Box, cone
and pit are the basic configurations of solar still.
7. What do the two categories of solar still namely, active and passive depict?
a) The method of evaporation
b) The method of condensation
c) The method of acquiring energy to drive evaporation
d) The method of collecting evaporated water
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The two categories of solar still depict the method of acquiring energy
to drive evaporation. Evaporation, condensation and collection of condensate are
performed only after energy is supplied to the system.
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8. What is an active solar still?

a) A solar still that solely relies on sun to distill water
b) A solar still that relies only on sun and wind
c) A solar sill that automatically gets activated when sun shines on it
d) A solar still that uses additional heat sources apart from sun
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: An active solar still uses additional heat sources apart from sun. These
additional heat sources are used to promote existing thermal processes like initial
start-up.
9. Which of the following are examples of active solar stills?

a) Compound Parabolic Concentrators and flat plate collectors
b) Solar heater and photovoltaics
c) Flat plate collectors and heat engines
d) Compound parabolic concentrators and sun
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Compound parabolic concentrators, flat plate collectors and solar
heaters are examples of active solar stills. Photovoltaics and heat engines are not
solar stills. Sun is the energy source of solar still.
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10. Active stills demote faster and larger quantities of freshwater generation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Active stills demote faster and larger quantities of freshwater
generation. This comes at the cost of increased design complexity and
manufacturing.
11. What is a passive solar still?

a) A solar still that uses photovoltaics to start
c) A solar still that solely relies on sun to distill water
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A passive solar still is a conventional solar still that solely relies on the
sun to distill water. Though the process may be slow it generally has a lower design
complexity as compared to an active solar still.
12. Which of the following is a type of passive stills?

a) Solar still with compound parabolic concentrator
b) Single-effect stills with flat plate collectors
c) Multi-effect stills with compound parabolic concentrator
d) Single-effect solar still
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Single-effect and multi-effect solar stills are types of passive stills.
However, if any of these systems are attached with additional thermal sources like
compound parabolic concentrators and flat plate collectors, they become active solar
stills.
13. In a single-effect still, it is crucial to keep the distiller _______

a) airtight
b) aerated
c) connected with another distiller
d) connected with multiple distillers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Single-effect stills are the simples and popularly used solar stills. In a
single-effect solar still, it is a crucial design challenge to keep the distiller airtight. It
uses a single interface to convey the energy and collect the condensate.
14. Neutral stills use seawater greenhouses to create freshwater.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Neutral stills use seawater greenhouses to create freshwater. They are
neutral because the energy that goes into creating freshwater is used to grow plants
that promote evaporative cooling of air inside.
15. A good insulator is necessary to reduce thermal losses in solar stills.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following best describes the flow of energy in a solar thermo-
mechanical system?
a) Solar → thermal → mechanical → electricity
b) Electricity → thermal → mechanical → solar
c) Mechanical → solar → electricity → thermal
d) Solar → electricity → thermal → mechanical
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a solar thermo-mechanical system, the solar energy is first converted
to thermal energy. Then this energy is used to drive mechanical systems thereby
being converted to mechanical energy. This mechanical energy is further converted
to usable forms like electricity.
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2. What is a heat engine?

a) System that converts thermal energy to mechanical energy
b) System that converts thermal and chemical energy to mechanical energy
c) System that converts mechanical energy to thermal energy
d) System that converts mechanical energy to thermal and chemical energy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A heat engine is an energy converting system. It converts in the heat or
thermal energy and chemical energy to mechanical. This mechanical energy can be
used to do mechanical work.
3. How does heat engine convert thermal and chemical energy to mechanical energy?
a) With the help of steam
b) By converting the input energy into electrical energy which is then used to drive
mechanical systems
c) By bringing a working substance from a higher state temperature to a lower state
temperature
d) By converting the input electrical energy to mechanical energy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The heat engine convert thermal and chemical energy to mechanical
energy. It does this by bringing a working substance from a higher state temperature
to a lower state temperature. During this conversion, any form of energy being used
is not converted to electrical energy.
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4. Which of the following is/are examples of heat engines?

a) Fuel cell vehicles
b) Fuel cell energy power plants
c) Photovoltaics and concentrating mirrors
d) Rankine cycle and Brayton cycle
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Rankine cycle and Brayton cycle are examples of heat engines.
Photovoltaics and concentrating mirrors are not heat engines. Fuel cells are another
type of source that convert chemical energy to electrical energy.
5. Which of the following is a popular solar thermal power system?

a) Central receiver thermal electric power system
b) Photovoltaics
c) Concentrating mirrors
d) Solar reflectors
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Central receiver thermal electric power system is a popular solar
thermal power system. Photovoltaics are not solar thermal power systems. They
directly convert solar energy to electrical energy. Concentrating mirrors and solar
reflectors are components of various solar thermal power systems.
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6. Which of the following best describes the working of central receiver thermal power
system?
a) Sunlight → heliostats absorb solar flux → central receiver → turbine system →
electricity
b) Sunlight → heliostats reflect solar flux → central receiver → turbine system →
electricity
c) Heliostats reflect solar flux → sunlight → turbine system → central receiver →
electricity
d) Heliostats reflect solar flux → sunlight → central receiver → turbine system →
electricity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a s central receiver thermal power system, the solar radiation from
the incident sunlight is reflected by heliostats onto central receiver. The receiver
consists of a boiler to boil the working fluid which is in turn used to drive the turbines
to generate electricity.
7. What is the operating temperature of turbines in a central receiver thermal power

system? Note that “C” stands for Celsius.
b) 5000 degree C
c) 500 – 800 degree C
d) 200 – 500 degree C
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The typical operating temperature of the turbines in a central receiver
thermal power system is between 500 – 800 degree C. The temperatures are so high
because large concentrations of solar flux are reflected onto the central receiver by
several arrays of heliostats (hundreds and sometimes even thousands).
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8. Which of the following is a line focus collector used in a distributed power system?
a) Parabolic mirrors
b) Convex mirrors
c) Concave lenses
d) Linear fresnel reflector
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Linear fresnel reflector is a line focus collector. Parabolic mirrors and
convex mirrors may reflect sunlight but they may not be line focused collector.
Lenses are not used to collect sunlight in a distributed power system.
9. How is energy collected in a distributed power system?

a) Sunlight → line focused collectors → interconnecting pipes → heat engines →
turbines → electricity
b) Line focused collectors → sunlight → interconnecting pipes → heat engines →
c) Sunlight → line focused collectors → turbines → interconnecting pipes → heat
engines → electricity
d) Interconnecting pipes → sunlight → line focused collectors → heat engines →
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The solar radiation from the incident sunlight is collected by various line
focused collectors. This energy is collected through pipes interconnecting the
dispersed collector units and then supplied to the heat engines which in turn use the
working substance to drive turbines and generate electricity.
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10. The type of heat engine depends on _______

a) material of interconnecting pipes
b) type of collector
c) sunlight
d) photovoltaics
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The type of heat engine depends on the type collector, temperature of
operation, cycle efficiency, working fluid, conversion efficiency, transport fluid, etc.
Photovoltaics are not used in solar thermo-mechanical systems.
11. What is Carnot efficiency?

a) Rate of the temperature difference divided by rate of initial temperature change
b) Ratio of relative temperature between source and sink and the relative source
temperature
c) Ratio of absolute temperature between source and sink and the absolute source
temperature
d) Ratio of rate of the temperature difference and the absolute source temperature
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Carnot efficiency is ratio of absolute temperature between source and
sink and the absolute source temperature. It can also be defined in terms of heat
added to the source at some temperature and heat rejected by the fluid at some
temperature.
12. Heat engine efficiency increases as the source temperature _______

a) decreases
b) remains the same
c) decrement rate increases
d) increases
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Heat engine efficiency increases as the source temperature increases.
Also, the rate of increase of the source temperature should be greater at lower
temperatures than at higher temperatures.
13. Distributed power system is a type of solar thermo-mechanical system.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Distributed power system is a type of solar thermo-mechanical system.
It works on the principle of collecting the incident solar radiation using multiple
arrays of line focused reflectors distributed across a large area. These collectors are
interconnected by pipes which transfer the energy to the mechanical system.
14. Heat engine efficiency increases with ________ sink temperature.
a) no change in
b) decrease in
c) increment in rate of increasing
d) increase in
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Heat engine efficiency increases with decrease in sink temperature. It
should also be noted that the rate of decrement of sink temperature should be
faster than the rate which the source temperature is increased.
15. Isothermal process is a process conducted at constant temperature.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. How does an ideal Rankine cycle work?

a) Heat-addition process does not occur at constant temperature
b) Heat-addition process occurs at temperature
c) Heat-addition process does not occur at constant pressure
d) Heat-addition process occurs at constant pressure
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Like Carnot cycle, Rankine cycle is a heat engine phase cycle. It
determines how working fluid is used to convert energy from one form to another.
The heat-addition process in Rankine cycle does not occur at constant temperature.
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2. Which of the following best describes the process of an ideal Rankine cycle?
a) Working fluid is heated in boiler → exhaust vapour is condensed → vapour runs the
turbine → liquid residue is pumped back into boiler
b) Working fluid is heated in boiler → vapour runs the turbine → exhaust vapour is
condensed → liquid residue is pumped back into boiler
c) Vapour runs the turbine → working fluid is heated in boiler → exhaust vapour is
d) Exhaust vapour is condensed → Working fluid is heated in boiler → vapour runs the
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In an ideal Rankine cycle, the working fluid is heated in boiler and
converted to vapours which is used to run the turbine. The exhaust vapours from the
turbine is condensed to form a liquid residue which is pumped back into the boiler to
complete the cycle.
3. Why is the efficiency of Rankine cycle less than that of Carnot cycle?
a) Because of the working fluid
b) Because of the turbines
c) Because all the heat is not supplied at upper temperatures
d) Because all the heat is supplied at upper temperatures
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The efficiency of Rankine cycle is less than that of Carnot cycle because
all the heat is not supplied at upper (higher) temperatures. However, is has a high
work ratio and its steam consumption is less than Carnot cycle.
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4. How can the efficiency of Rankine cycle be improved?

a) By supplying heat at higher temperatures
b) By supplying heat at lower temperatures
c) By rejecting more heat
d) By using a part of rejected heat
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Rankine cycle has lower efficiency that Carnot cycle because all the heat
is not supplied at upper temperatures. The efficiency of Rankine cycle can be
improved by using a part of rejected heat in heating the liquid.
5. How does Stirling cycle differ from Carnot cycle?

a) The two adiabatic steps in Carnot cycle are replaced by two constant volume steps
b) The two adiabatic steps in Carnot cycle are replaced by two constant temperature
steps
c) The two isothermal steps in Carnot cycle are replaced by two constant volume steps
d) The two isobaric steps in Carnot cycle are replaced by two constant volume steps
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The working of Stirling cycle is similar to that of Carnot cycle except for
two steps. The two adiabatic steps in Carnot cycle are replaced by two constant
volume steps.
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6. In Stirling cycle, the heat addition and rejection take place at _________
a) constant pressure
b) constant temperature
c) two different temperatures
d) multiple pressures
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In Stirling cycle, the heat addition and rejection take place at constant
temperatures. A suitable gas or air is used as working fluid and the turbine,
compressor and heat exchanger are closely coupled.
7. Which of the following best describes Brayton Cycle?

a) Exhaust gas → hot compressed gas → expands through turbine by doing work →
heat exchanger → rejection of heat → gas goes to compressor
b) Exhaust gas → hot compressed gas → expands through turbine by doing work →
heat exchanger → gas goes to compressor → rejection of heat
c) Hot compressed gas →expands through turbine by doing work → exhaust gas →
d) Heat exchanger → exhaust gas → hot compressed gas → expands through turbine
by doing work → gas goes to compressor → rejection of heat
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In Brayton Cycle, the hot compressed gas expands through the turbine
by doing work. The exhaust gas from the turbine is passed into heat exchanger to
reject heat. Then this gas is fed into the compressor to be compressed and used
again.
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8. Which of the following governs the efficiency of any practical solar thermo-
mechanical system?
a) Photovoltaics
b) Rankine Cycle
c) Brayton Cycle
d) Properties of working fluid
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Properties of working fluid govern the efficiency of any practical solar
thermo-mechanical system. Rankine and Brayton Cycles are techniques to
implement heat engines to convert the input energy into a usable output energy.
9. The choice of working fluid depends on the operating temperatures in the boiler.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The choice of working fluid depends on the operating temperatures in
the boiler. It also depends on the condenser being used and the type of heat engine.
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10. What is the main problem in a solar thermo-mechanical system as the collection
(operating) temperature increases?
a) Efficiency of collection system and engine decreases
b) Efficiency of collection system decreases but engine efficiency increases
c) Efficiency of collection system and engine increases
d) Efficiency of collection system increases and engine efficiency decreases
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main problem in a solar thermo-mechanical system is that as the
collection (operation) temperature increases efficiency of the collection system
decreases. However, the engine efficiency increases as the temperature of working
fluid increases.
11. The practical heat engine _______ theoretical efficiency.

a) has greater efficiency than
b) has the same efficiency as that of
c) has lesser efficiency as compared to the
d) always has minimum efficiency equal to that of
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The practical heat engine used in solar thermo-mechanical systems
always has lesser efficiency as compared to the theoretical efficiency. It can never
exceed the theoretical limit due to practical limitations.
12. What is the bare minimum requirement for the construction materials used in solar
thermo-mechanical systems?
a) Contaminate the working fluid
b) Withstand heat from the working fluid
c) Withstand pressure from the working fluid
d) Withstand both, heat and pressure from working fluid
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The bare minimum requirement from the construction materials used
in a solar thermo-mechanical system is that they withstand both, heat and pressure
from the working fluid. The materials should not contaminate the fluid.
13. Which of the following affects the installation of a solar thermo-mechanical system?
a) Availability of land
b) Availability of photovoltaics
c) Availability of sunlight and clouds
d) Availability of rain
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Availability of land affects the installation of solar thermo-mechanical
system. Sunlight is important but most places on earth receive sunlight. Clouds and
rain are a hinderance to the system.
14. What is the minimum vapour pressure (in kPa) of the working fluid to drive a
turbine?
a) 300
b) 700
c) 100
d) 50
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The minimum vapour pressure of the working fluid to drive a turbine is
700 kPa. The preferred vapour pressure 2000kPa for useful work.
15. Organic vapours are used small plants and low powered solar thermo-mechanical
systems.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following provides energy for winds to blow naturally?

a) Sun
b) Water
c) Man
d) Food
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The energy that drives winds originates from the sun’s heat received
along with sunlight. The heat creates areas of low pressure and high pressure,
thereby causing winds to blow. Wind is abiotic and does not need food. Any wind
blowing due to man is artificial. Water aids in magnifying a low or high pressure area
but does not cause winds.
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2. Wind flows from _______ pressure area to ________ pressure area.

a) high, high
b) high, low
c) low, high
d) low, low
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wind always flows from a high pressure area to a low pressure area.
The difference in pressures causes wind to flow from in a direction. Winds originate
from the heat received by sun which heat’s the earth’s surface unevenly resulting in a
pressure difference.
3. What is a gust?
a) No change in wind speed
b) A brief decrease in wind speed for a very long period of time
c) A brief increase in wind speed for a very short period of time
d) A brief increase in wind speed for a very long period of time
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A gust or a wind gust is a brief increase in wind speed for a very short
period of time, typically less than 20 seconds and has a transient characteristic unlike
a squall.
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4. What is a squall?
a) A sudden, sharp increase in wind speed lasting for a few hours
b) A sudden, sharp decrease in wind speed lasting for a few minutes
c) A sudden, sharp decrease in wind speed lasting for a few hours
d) A sudden, sharp increase in wind speed lasting for a few minutes
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A squall is a sudden, sharp increase in wind speed lasting for a few
minutes. Squalls occur during rain showers, thunderstorms or heavy snow fall.
5. A windstorm _______
a) is strong enough to cause property damage
b) is not stronger than gust
c) does not exist
d) is not strong enough to cause property damage
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A windstorm consists of winds strong enough to cause property
damage like uprooting of trees and damaging erected buildings. Wind speed in a
typical windstorm exceeds 55km/s and can be extremely detrimental.
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6. What are planetary or prevailing winds?

a) Winds not blowing from one latitude to another
b) Winds blowing from one latitude to another
c) Gusts
d) Winds that do not cover large areas of earth
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Planetary winds are winds that blow from one latitude to another
throughout the year due to latitudinal differences in air pressure. They cover large
areas of earth.
7. Which of the following are the two most important planetary winds?
a) Hosting
b) Trades and economics
c) Trade winds and westerly winds
d) Deployment
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Trade winds and westerly winds are the two most important planetary
or prevailing winds. Other options – trade and economics, hosting and deployment
are not related to winds.
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8. What are trade winds?

a) Winds blowing from equatorial low pressure areas to sub-tropical high pressure
areas
b) Winds that trade with each other
c) Winds blowing from equatorial high pressure areas to sub-tropical low pressure
areas
d) Winds blowing from sub-tropical high pressure areas to equatorial low pressure
areas
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Trade winds are extremely steady winds blowing from sub-tropical high
pressure areas to equatorial low pressure areas. They maintain a constant direction
throughout their course.
9. How does Coriolis effect trade winds in Northern Hemisphere?

a) Coriolis effect deflects trade winds to the right
b) Coriolis effect deflects trade winds to the left
c) Coriolis effect does not affect the trade winds in Northern Hemisphere
d) Coriolis effect only affects the trade winds in Southern Hemisphere
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Coriolis effect and Ferrel’s law disrupt the flow of trade winds from
north to south and deflect them towards right in the Northern Hemisphere. Thus,
they blow in a north east direction in the Northern Hemisphere.
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10. How does Coriolis effect trade winds in Southern Hemisphere?

c) Coriolis effect does not affect the trade winds in Southern Hemisphere
d) Coriolis effect only affects the trade winds in Northern Hemisphere
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Coriolis effect and Ferrel’s law disrupt the flow of trade winds flowing
from north to south and deflect them towards left in the Southern Hemisphere.
Thus, they blow in a south east direction in the Southern Hemisphere.
11. Trade winds ______

a) do not maintain a constant direction but blow steadily
b) maintain a constant direction but do not blow steadily
c) maintain a constant direction and blow steadily
d) shrinking technique
View Answer
Answer: c
1. What are westerly winds?

a) Winds blowing from sub-tropical high pressure areas to sub-polar low pressure
areas
areas
d) Winds blowing from equatorial low pressure areas to sub-tropical high pressure
areas
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Westerly winds are winds blowing from sub-tropical high pressure areas
to sub-polar low pressure areas. The direction of flow is from west to east between
30 and 60 degrees latitude.
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2. Westerly winds of Southern Hemisphere ______

a) weaker and maintain a constant direction than its counterpart in Northern
Hemisphere
b) are stronger and maintain a constant direction than its counterpart in Northern
Hemisphere are
c) are stronger but do not maintain a constant direction than its counterpart in
Northern Hemisphere
d) blow from equatorial low pressure areas to sub-tropical high pressure areas
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Westerly winds of Southern Hemisphere are fairly stronger and
maintain a constant direction as compared to its counterpart in Northern
Hemisphere. They blow from sub-tropical high pressure areas to sub-polar low
pressure belts.
3. What are periodic winds?

a) Westerly winds
b) Winds that do not change their direction periodically with the change in season
c) Winds that change their direction periodically with the change in season
d) Trade winds
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Periodic winds are winds that change their direction periodically as the
season changes. Trade and westerly winds are planetary winds and are not periodic
in nature.
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4. Which of the following are examples of periodic winds?
a) Gusts
b) Windstorm
c) Westerly winds
d) Monsoons, land and sea breeze, mountain and valley breeze
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Monsoons, land and sea breeze, mountain and valley breeze are
examples of periodic winds. Westerly winds are planetary winds and are not periodic
in nature. Windstorm and gusts are not periodic in nature.
5. A downburst is created by an area of rain-cooled air that _____

a) after hitting the ground generates strong winds which spread in all directions
b) don’t hit the ground
c) after hitting the ground generates extremely weak winds which spreads in all
directions
d) are short gusts
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Downbursts are caused by an area of rain-cooled air that after hitting
the ground level generates strong winds which spread in all directions. They are not
gusts.
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6. What is sea breeze?

a) Winds that don’t strike the ground level
b) Winds from sea that flow during day towards the land and replace the lighter and
rising hot air
c) Winds that hit the land to generate extremely weak winds which spreads in all
directions
d) Short gusts originating from sea
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the coastal lands heat up, the air above it also gets hot. Hot air is
light and rises up leading to a low pressure area. Sea breezes carry moisture from
the sea and are much cooler. Thus, they rush towards the land to replace the hot air.
7. What is land breeze?
a) Winds that hit the sea to generate extremely weak winds which spreads in all
directions
b) Winds from land that flow during night towards the sea and replace the lighter and
rising hot air
c) Winds from sea that flow towards the land and replace the lighter and rising hot air
d) Short gusts originating from land
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: During night, the inland temperatures drop to an extent such that the
sea is warmer than the land thereby causing the air above it to become hot and rise.
Cool air from land rush towards the sea to replace the hot air.
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8. Which of the following equations best explains the phenomenon of winds flowing
from high pressure to low pressure?
a) Pressure = Force/Area
b) Roult’s law
c) Force = mass*acceleration
d) Ideal gas equation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: From Kinetic theory of gases, it is evident that ideal gas equation – PV =
nRT explains the phenomenon of gases flowing from high pressure to low pressure.
Raoult’s law deals with vapour pressure. Force = mass*acceleration and Pressure =
Force/Area do not explain kinetics of gases.
9. How do thunderstorms form?

a) Thunderstorms originate from a pleasant breeze
b) Thunderstorms are produced by mid-level clouds
c) Thunderstorms are produced by cumulonimbus cloud which generated gusty winds
and heavy rains
d) Thunderstorms originate from low-level clouds and do not carry rain with them
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Thunderstorms is a type of storm with thunder and lightning and is
produced by cumulonimbus clouds. These clouds generate strong gusty winds and
heavy rains which accompany the thunderstorm.
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10. Which of the following are types of winds?

a) Planetary winds, periodic winds, local winds
b) Trade winds, westerly winds, plate tectonics
c) Apples, monsoon
d) Clouds, rains, storms
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Planetary winds, periodic winds, local winds, trade winds, westerly
winds, monsoons are types of winds. Plate tectonics is related to earth. Clouds, rains
and storms are not the types of winds.
11. What is considered as a strong breeze on a Beaufort Wind Scale?

a) 0
b) 6
c) 1
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
1. What is the definition of wind?

a) Air in net motion
b) Air in motion
c) Gas molecules in random motion
d) Stationary gas molecules
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wind is better defined as air in net motion. On a microscopic level, gas
molecules are always in a random motion and are not visible to the naked eye. In
fact, motion of individual gas molecules cannot be sensed by our senses. Thus, gas
molecules are never stationary.
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2. Which of the following involves studying the physics of wind flow?
a) Microbial fuel cells
b) Fluid dynamics
c) Combustion
d) Polymer science
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fluid dynamics involves the studies of wind motion and its underlying
physics. Fluids consists of both, liquids and gases. Hence, wind is also a fluid because
it consists of gas molecules.
3. Which of the following best describes the motion of air on earth?

a) A two-dimensional vector
b) A one-dimensional vector
c) A three-dimensional vector
d) A four-dimensional vector
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The motion of air on earth is best described as a three-dimensional
vector. It is also important to note that air motion is typically described and studied
relative to earth’s rotation.
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4. Which of the following are the three individual components/dimensions best used to
describe air motion on earth?
a) A meridional component pointing south-to-north, a zonal component pointing north-
to-east, a vertical upward component pointing from ground to sky
b) A zonal component pointing south-to-north, a meridional component pointing west-
to-east and downward component pointing from sky to ground
c) A meridional component pointing north-to-south, a zonal component pointing east-
to-south, a vertical upward component pointing from ground to sky
d) A meridional component pointing south-to-north, a zonal component pointing west-
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The three individual components that correspond to the three
dimensions are – a meridional component pointing south-to-north, a zonal
component pointing west-to-east and a vertical upward component pointing from
ground to sky.
5. Which of the following devices indicate wind direction?

a) Weather vanes, windsocks
b) Multimeter, oscilloscope
c) Accelerometer
d) Wind’s direction cannot be measured
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The direction of wind is generally indicated by weather vanes,
windsocks and balloons. Multimeters and oscilloscopes are electronic instruments
used to measure voltage and current. Accelerometer is a device that measures a
body’s acceleration.
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6. What is geostrophic wind?

a) Wind generated due to disbalance between wind forces and Coriolis force
b) Wind generated due to balance between pressure gradient force and Coriolis force
c) A special wind generated from geothermal energy
d) Wind flowing in stratosphere
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Geostrophic wind is the wind generated due to balance between
pressure gradient force and Coriolis force. It occurs above the atmospheric boundary
layer (ABL).
7. What are eddies in wind?

a) Areas where the global wind blows opposite to that of the net direction of wind-
motion
b) Areas where the local wind blows in the same direction as the net direction of wind-
motion
c) Areas where the local wind blows opposite to that of the net direction of wind-
motion
d) Areas where the local wind blows randomly to that of the net direction of wind-
motion
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Eddies are small areas where the local wind blows opposite to that of
the net direction of wind-motion for a short period of time. Eddies are always local in
nature and do not occur globally.
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8. The Coriolis force deflects the wind to the right in Northern Hemisphere until ______
a) equilibrium of forces is not achieved
b) gas molecules stop moving
c) water vapour evaporates
d) equilibrium of forces is achieved
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Coriolis force deflects the wind to the right in Northern Hemisphere
until an equilibrium is achieved. The equilibrium is between the pressure gradient of
the wind and the Coriolis force.
9. Wind speed is measure by ______

a) anemometers
b) odometers
c) ammeter
d) weather vanes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Anemometers are used to measure wind speeds. They are commonly
used in weather stations. Odometers measure distance of a wheeled vehicle.
Ammeters measure current and weather vanes are used to indicate the direction of
wind.
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10. What is wind speed?

a) Net molecular flux along the wind axis divided by the mean molecular number
density
b) Molecular flux along the wind axis divided by the mean molecular number density
c) Net molecular flux along the wind axis divided by molecular number density
d) Molecular flux opposite the wind axis divided by the mean molecular number
density
View Answer
Answer: a
1. When looking for a wind site, assessors start by _______

a) determining the direction of prevailing wind at the site
b) looking for a good source of water
c) looking for a location with good sunlight
d) determining all the directions of the local wind
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To install a wind turbine, wind assessors look for locations with strong
and smooth winds. They start by assessing the direction of the prevailing wind at the
site. Generally, winds blowing in a particular direction are strong and smooth.
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2. Which of the following is required for the installation of a wind turbine system?
a) A weak wind flow
b) A consistent and strong wind flow
c) Still air
d) A consistent wind flow with obstructions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For a wind turbine system to run effectively, it requires a good wind site.
A good wind site is one with a consistent and strong wind flow in a direction.
3. Which of the following is preferred in a good wind site?

a) Still air
b) A higher altitude terrain with objects obstructing the wind flow
c) A higher altitude terrain with no or minimum objects obstructing the wind flow
d) A lower altitude terrain with no or minimum objects obstructing the wind flow
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Terrain is known to affect wind speeds which in turn affect the efficiency
of a wind turbine system. A higher altitude terrain with no or minimum objects
obstructing the wind flow is always preferred.
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4. What is the minimum height above which the rotor of the wind turbine system is
installed in a good wind site?
a) 100 feet above the tallest obstacle within a 5-foot radius
b) 5 feet above the tallest obstacle within a 500-foot radius
c) 10 feet above the tallest obstacle within a 5000-foot radius
d) 30 feet above the tallest obstacle within a 500-foot radius
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A wind turbine can be located anywhere in a good wind site provided
the rotor is installed slightly on a higher terrain. The rotor is typically mounted 30
feet above the tallest obstacle within a 500-foot radius.
5. Which of following are considered during wind siting?

a) Safety impact, community impact, environmental impact
b) Radiation
c) Sunlight
d) Water
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Before selecting and deciding on a good site, various impacts of
installing a wind turbine are considered. The engineers ensure that the wind site
does not harm any living creature. They also ensure that the site is far away from the
nearest village to prevent any noise pollution.
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6. Which of the following impacts a community/village/society due to installation of

wind turbine system?
a) Private and Public cloud
b) Noise from the turbine, flicker
c) Private, Public and Hybrid cloud
d) Public and Hybrid cloud
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Noise, flicker and signal interference impacts the nearest
community/society/village. The other options are not related to wind siting.
7. Does the wind turbine harm birds?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The wind turbine system harms the birds and may even kill them. Thus,
it is imperative to select a site with minimum or no living creatures.
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8. Which of the following factors affect wind speed near the turbine system?
a) Birds flying
b) Sunlight
c) Time of the day, temperature, season
d) A village far away from the wind site
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Time of the day, temperature and season are a few factors affecting the
wind speed. While the sun’s heat affects the wind speed by creating a pressure
difference, sunlight in itself doesn’t. Affect of a far away village from the wind site
and birds flying on wind speed is minimum.
9. Do wind sites need an access to transmission lines?

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Potential wind sites turning into wind farms need access to
transmission lines. Transmission lines are used to transport the electrical energy
generated from the wind turbine system to the grid.
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10. Which of the following can make a good wind site?

a) A national sanctuary with wildlife
b) A city
c) A village
d) A barren land with wind speed of 6 on beaufort scale
View Answer
Answer: d
1. Which of the following is not an application of wind energy?

a) Electricity
b) Steam engine
c) Agriculture
d) Energy storage for emergencies
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Steam engine is not an application of wind energy because coal was
used to generate the steam powering the engine. Wind is used to generate electricity
with the help of wind turbines. This energy can either be stored for emergencies or
can be used in agriculture, viz. pumping water.
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2. Which of the following sports use wind energy?

a) Wind surfing
b) Chess
c) Carroms
d) Kho-Kho
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wind surfing is a surface water sport that combines elements of surfing
and sailing. Chess and carroms are board games. Kho-Kho is a running sport. All
three of them do not use wind energy.
3. Does the team sport cricket, use wind?

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cricket is a team sport that uses wind energy in a unique manner. Wind
energy is used to swing the ball into (or away from) the batsman. This phenomenon
is demonstrated by Magnus effect.
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4. How is wind energy used in flourmills?

a) To beat corn grains into paste
b) To beat wheat grains into paste
c) To grind wheat and corn grains into flour
d) Wind energy is not used in flourmills
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Wind energy is used in flourmills to grind wheat and corn grains into
their respective flour. Wind mill blades are connected to a drive shaft which is in turn
connected to gears and millstones. When the grains are poured into the revolving
millstone, the motion grinds it into flour.
5. Which of the following wind turbine is mostly used to extract wind energy?
a) DC generator
b) Vertical-axis wind turbines
c) Sailing boat
d) Horizontal-axis wind turbines
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Horizontal-axis wind turbines are mostly used to extract wind energy.
They are made up of several blades that are aerodynamically shaped like airplane
wings and are based on ancestral winds. Sailing boats use wind energy and do not
extract energy from wind. DC generator generates DC current.
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6. Wind energy is not used to pump water to a higher level.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wind energy is used to pump water from a lower level to a higher level.
A horizontal-axis wind mill with multiple blades is typically used to pump the water.
7. _______ light is used to denote dangers of birds, bats or/and airplanes.

a) Red
b) Blue
c) Yellow
d) Green
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The red light is used to indicate any danger like birds or bats. It is fitted
on the wind mill to identify itself with the airplanes.
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8. Which of the following is a mechanical application of wind energy?

a) Lighting
b) Electricity
c) Pumping water
d) Wind surfing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pumping water is a mechanical application of wind energy. Generating
and transporting electricity to the grid as well as lighting are electrical applications.
Wind surfing is a sport that uses wind energy.
9. Which of the following is a potential application of wind energy?

a) Converting heat to wind energy
b) Converting electrical energy to wind energy
c) Transportation of electrical energy
d) Converting the wind flow due to speeding cars into electricity on highways
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Wind blowing due to speeding cars on highways or trains can be used to
power street lamps and is a potential application of wind energy. Converting other
forms of energy to wind energy is not an application of wind energy. Transportation
of electrical energy is an existing practice.
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10. Does flying a kite use wind energy?

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What are the two primary aerodynamic forces acting on wind turbine rotors?
a) Lift, drag
b) Drag, gravitational force
c) Gravitational force, lift
d) Gravitational force, electrical force
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Lift and drag are the two primary aerodynamic forces acting on modern
wind turbine rotors. Gravitational force is due to earth’s gravity and is not an
aerodynamic force. Similarly, electrical force is due to an electrical potential
difference or an electric field and is not an aerodynamic force.
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2. Lift is an aerodynamic force acting _______

a) opposite to the direction of wind flow
b) parallel to the direction of wind flow
c) diagonal to the direction of wind flow
d) perpendicular to the direction of wind flow
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Lift is an aerodynamic force that acts perpendicular to the direction of
wind flow. A simplified explanation of lift is that it should travel faster to reach the
end of the blade to meet the wind travelling over upwind face of the blade.
3. Drag is an aerodynamic force acting ______

a) perpendicular to the direction of wind flow
d) opposite to the direction of wind flow
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Drag is an aerodynamic force acting in the direction parallel to the wind
flow. Though it is conceptually simple, it has poor power extraction vs area efficiency.
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4. What is an aerodynamic force?

a) Force exerted on the body due to mass of another body nearby
b) Force exerted on the body by liquid
c) Force exerted on the body by air (or any gas) in which the body is immersed
d) Force exerted on the body due to a charged particle
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Aerodynamic force is the force exerted on a body by air (or any gas) in
which the body is immersed. It is due to the relative motion between the body and
air. Buoyancy is the force exerted by the liquid in which the body is immersed.
Gravitational force on a body is due to mass of another body.
5. What happens on the upwind side of the wind mill blade?

a) No pressure is exerted
b) Low pressure area
c) High pressure area
d) Wind is trapped
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: On the upwind side of the wind mill blade, a region of high pressure is
formed. This is due to slow movement of air on the upwind side as compared to the
downwind side.
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6. The upwind side experiences a force that slows the blade.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The upwind side experiences a force due to the slow movement of air
relative to the downside. This results in a region of high pressure on the upwind side
which exerts a force that slows the blade’s movement.
7. What is lift-to-drag ratio?

a) Amount of lift generated by a blade divided by its aerodynamic drag
b) Amount of drag generated by a blade divided by its lift
c) Amount of drag generated by a blade divided by its aerodynamic lift
d) Amount of lift generated by a blade divided by its aerodynamic drag
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Lift-to-drag ratio is the amount of lift generated by a blade (or a wing/
flying vehicle) divided by its aerodynamic drag. It’s essential to determine the blade’s
efficiency and is considered during the design of the wing.
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8. A higher lift-to-drag ratio indicates a higher efficiency.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the name suggests, lift-to-drag ratio is the ratio of the aerodynamic
lift generated by the blade to the aerodynamic drag generated by the blade. It is
used to determine the efficiency of the blade. Higher the lift-to-drag ratio, higher the
efficiency.
9. Turbine blades use a/an _______ design.

a) bulky
b) airfoil
c) teardrop
d) train’s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Airfoil design is the cross-sectional shape of an airplane wing. Turbine
blades us an airfoil design. Unlike trains and trucks, they are not bulky. Though
teardrop is the most aerodynamic shape, turbine blades don’t use this design.
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10. Which of the following is the governing equation for power extraction and
calculation? Note that the text in bold denotes a vector quantity.
a) Power = force . velocity
b) Power = force . area
c) Power = velocity . force
d) Power = energy / time
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In aerodynamics, power = force . velocity is used to extract and
calculate power. Though power = energy / time is correct but both energy and time
are written in bold which is not true. Energy and time are scalar quantities. The other
options are mathematically incorrect.
11. Why is it necessary to have an optimal tip speed ratio (TSR)?

a) To ensure maximum efficiency
b) To ensure good aerodynamics
c) To increase drag
d) To ensure minimum efficiency but good aerodynamics
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Optimal tip speed ratio is required to ensure maximum efficiency in
converting wind energy to mechanical energy. If the propeller blades rotate too
slowly, it allows too much wind to pass through undisturbed and does not extract
sufficient energy. However, if the blades rotate too quickly, it creates a large amount
of drag.
12. What is tip speed ratio (TSR)?

a) Ratio of wind speed to the speed of rotor
b) Ratio of the speed of rotor tip to wind speed
c) Ratio of wind speed to the speed of rotor tip
d) Ratio of wind speed to the speed of the blade’s center
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tip speed ratio is the ratio of the speed of the rotor tip to the wind
speed. It is used to determine the optimal speed at which the rotor (and blades) are
required to rotate to ensure maximum efficiency.
13. What does tip speed ratio (TSR) depend on?

a) Motor material
b) Wind tower material
c) Rotor blade shape profile
d) Different types of gases
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Tip speed ratio depends on rotor blade shape and its wind profile. It
also depends on the number of turbine blades and the design of the wind turbine
propeller.
14. Which of the following blade designs is becoming less popular?

a) HAWT
b) Airfoil design
c) Curve design
d) Flat blade design
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Flat blade design is one of the oldest designs and is becoming less
popular due its low efficiency. Airfoil and curve designs deliver much higher
efficiencies. Horizontal axis wind turbine (HAWT) is a propeller type and not a blade
design.
15. The airfoil/curve blade designs are affected by drag along its length.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
1. How is drag force experienced by the blade reduced in various modern blade
designs?
a) Bending and tapering the blade
b) Using heavy metals
c) Twirling the blade
d) Increasing the length of the blade
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Turbine blades experience drag force. They are bent and tapered along
their length to reduce the effect of drag force.
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2. What is angle of attack?
a) Angle between downwind side and upwind side
b) Angle between the blade and the rotor
c) Angle between the direction of wind and pitch of the blade
d) Angle between the blade and the wind tower
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Angle of attack is the angle between the direction of the oncoming wind
and the pitch of the blade. It is important to note that position of the pitch of the
blade is with respect to the oncoming wind.
3. When plotting lift vs angle of attack, which of following best describes the shape of
the curve?
a) Exponential
b) Cubic
c) Linear
d) Parabolic
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The shape of lift vs angle of attack curve is parabolic in nature. The
value of lift attains a maxima when the angle is between 15-18 degrees.
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4. There is no ideal angle of attack for best rotation.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There is an ideal angle of attack that creates best rotation. It can be
seen that the value of lift increases as the angle increases and then decreases as the
angle crosses 20 degrees.
5. The speed at the tip of the blade is faster than its center.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The speed of the tip of a rotating blade is faster than its center or root.
This ensures a good tip-speed-ratio and provides high efficiency.
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6. What is the angle by which the rotor blades are twisted?

a) 5-10 degrees
b) 15-45 degrees
c) 100-120 degrees
d) 10-20 degrees
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The rotor blades are twisted by an angle between 10-20 degrees from
root to tip. This ensures that the angle of attack decreases from the region where the
air is moving slowly near the root to the region where the air is moving much faster
at the tip.
7. Which of the following blade designs further increases the efficiency of airfoil blades?
a) Twisting and tapering the blades
b) Reducing wind tower height
c) Increasing wind tower height
d) Increasing rotor speed
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Twisting and tapering any airfoiled blade further increases its efficiency.
The other options may increase efficiency but they are not related to blade designs.
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8. Why is a blade twisted along its length rather than its width?
a) Drag reduction
b) Weight reduction
c) Drag reduction and improvement in angle of attack
d) Aesthetic reasons
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A rotor blade is twisted along its length to improve the angle of attack
and reduce drag. It is not done to reduce weight or for aesthetic reasons. Every
engineering design has a logical reason.
a) Reducing wind tower height
b) Twisting and tapering the blades
View Answer
Answer: b
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10. Why does wind speed increase with height above ground?
a) More slip boundary conditions
b) Less obstructions and no slip boundary conditions
c) More obstructions and slip boundary conditions
d) Gas molecules have less mass
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Increase in wind speed with increasing height is due to both, less
number of obstructions and no slip boundary conditions. While the fluid analysis at
ground level assume these conditions, the mathematics for analyzing at a
considerable height above ground level is suitable changed.
11. Increased wind tower height and longer blades do not result in an increase in
power.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Increasing the wind tower height and blade length results in increased
output power. However, the benefits of increasing the form factor comes at the
expense of economics and safety.
12. Why should longer turbine blades be made of stronger materials?
a) Longer turbine blades experience greater forces
b) Longer turbine blades experience lesser forces
c) Stronger materials are cheaper
d) Stronger materials are available in abundance
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Longer turbine blades experience greater aerodynamic forces – lift and
drag forces. Hence, they need to be made of stronger materials which are not
particularly cheap.
13. Which of the following is best reason for not using longer blades even though they
produce greater output power?
c) Safety concerns due to greater momentum of longer blades
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Though longer turbine blades produce greater output power; they are
not used commercially because they have more mass. If any of the blades falls off
the tower, its net momentum could cause extensively damage the environment.
14. Which theory is used to model the wind turbine?

a) Blade element momentum theory
b) Kinetic gas theory
c) Archimedes principle
d) Einstein’s theory of photoelectric effect
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Blade momentum theory is used to for aerodynamic modelling due to
its simplicity. Kinetic gas theory is related to gas molecules and energy of a gas
molecule. Archimedes principle is related to floatation and immersion of a body in a
liquid. Einstein’s theory is related to the photoelectric effect which is a quantum
mechanical phenomenon.
15. What is blade element momentum theory?

a) It is same as blade element theory
b) It is same as momentum theory
c) It talks about the motion of a body in a given frame of reference
d) It is used to calculate the local forces on the propeller or blade
View Answer
Answer: d
1. Wind turbines convert wind energy to ________

a) mechanical energy
b) electrical energy
c) heat energy
d) solar energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wind turbines convert wind energy to mechanical energy. This
mechanical energy is then converted to electrical energy using an electric generator.
They neither convert wind energy to heat energy nor to solar energy.
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2. Which of the following components of a wind turbine system is arranged in the order
in which energy is being converted?
a) Blades – rotor – electric generator – shaft
b) Blades – rotor – shaft – electric generator
c) Shaft – blades – rotor – electric generator
d) Electric generator – blades – rotor — shaft
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A wind turbine system first converts wind energy to mechanical energy
and then to electrical energy using an electric generator. The correct order is blades
– rotor – shaft – electric generator.
3. Which of the following are commonly used commercial wind turbines?

a) Vertical and DFIG
b) Horizontal and SCIG
c) Horizontal and vertical
d) DFIG and SCIG
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Horizontal axis wind turbines (HAWT) or horizontal and vertical axis
wind turbines (VAWT) or vertical are commonly used commercial wind turbines.
DFIG, SCIG and PMSG are commercially used power generators for wind energy.
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4. What are horizontal wind turbines?

a) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis perpendicular to the plane of ground
b) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis diagonal to the plane of ground
c) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis 30 degrees to the plane of ground
d) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis parallel to the plane of wind streamlines
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Horizontal wind turbines are made up of blades that rotate about an
axis parallel to the plane of wind streamlines. Hence, they are also called as
Horizontal Axis Wind Turbines (HAWT). They are the most popularly used wind
turbines for commercial wind energy harvesting applications.
5. Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontal axis wind turbine?

a) Blades are to the side of turbine’s center of gravity
b) Blades are parallel to the vertical axis passing through the turbine’s center of gravity
c) Blades are parallel to the horizontal axis passing through the turbine’s center of
gravity
d) Blades are positioned perpendicular to the plane of the ground
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a horizontal axis wind turbine (HAWT), the blades are positioned to
the side of the turbine’s center of gravity. This provides stability to the entire setup.
Blades rotate to an axis parallel to the plane of ground.
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6. What is an upwind turbine?

a) Rotor of the turbine is behind the unit
b) Rotor of the turbine is in front of the unit
c) Rotor is positioned at the bottom of the tower
d) Rotor is positioned at the center of the tower
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An upwind turbine is a type of wind turbine where the rotor is
positioned in front of the unit. The position is similar to that of propellers used in
airplanes. Most of the wind turbines used commercially are upwind turbines.
7. What is the main advantage of an upwind turbine?

a) Increased tower shadow effect
b) Reduced tower shadow effect
c) No tower shadow effect
d) Manufacturing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tower shadow effect occurs when the tower acts as an obstruction
between the blades and the wind. In an upwind turbine, both rotor and blades are
attached in front of tower. Thus, the tower shadow effect reduces considerably.
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8. What is the main disadvantage of an upwind turbine?

c) A rotor that needs to be placed at some distance from the tower
d) An inflexible rotor that needs to be placed close to the tower
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The main disadvantage of any upwind turbine is the requirement of
placing the rotor at some distance from the tower. This setup prevents problems
with a blade strike. They also require a yaw mechanism to ensure that the rotor faces
the wind continuously.
9. What is a downwind turbine?

a) Rotor is positioned at the three-quarters of the height of the tower
d) Rotor of the turbine is behind the unit
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A downwind turbine is a type of wind turbine where the rotor is
positioned behind the tower. The nacelle used is typically designed to seek the wind.
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10. What is the main advantage of any downwind turbine?

a) Inflexible rotor blades
b) Flexible rotor blades
c) Position of the rotor
d) Reduced tower shadow effect
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main advantage of a downward turbine is that the rotor blades can
be made flexible. This reduces the cost of manufacturing and relieves stress on the
tower at high wind speeds.
11. What is the main disadvantage of a downward wind turbine?

c) Inflexible rotor blades
d) Bending of blades at high wind speeds
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Since the rotor of a downward wind turbine is placed behind the tower,
it experiences an increased tower shadow effect. Flexible rotor blades enable
bending at high wind speeds. This is its main advantage.
12. What is a vertical wind turbine?

a) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis perpendicular to the plane of wind
streamlines
d) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis parallel to the plane of ground
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Vertical wind turbines are made up of blades that rotate about an axis
perpendicular to the plane of wind streamlines. Hence, they are also called as
Vertical Axis Wind Turbines (HAWT). Most of its main components is near the ground
unlike a HAWT.
13. What are the types of VAWT?

a) Lift, horizontal
b) Horizontal, vertical
c) Drag, lift
d) Urban wind turbines
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are two types of VAWT – drag and lift. Horizontal and vertical wind
turbines are classified based on their axis of rotation. Urban wind turbines are
specially designed turbines to harvest wind energy in cities and other urban areas.
14. What is the main advantage of a vertical axis wind turbine?

a) Directional and sensitive to wind turbulence
b) Not directional and sensitive to wind turbulence
c) Directional and insensitive to wind turbulence
d) Not directional and insensitive to wind turbulence
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: VAWTs are made up of blades that rotate about an axis perpendicular
to the plane of streamlines. Hence, their main advantage is that they are insensitive
to wind turbulences and are not directional.
15. What is the main disadvantage of a vertical axis wind turbine?

a) Not directional and insensitive to wind turbulence
b) More drag than HAWTs
c) Less drag than HAWTs
d) High starting torque
View Answer
Answer: b
1. What is the main disadvantage of a horizontal axis wind turbine?

a) Easy operation at near ground winds
b) Does not self-start
c) Difficult operation at near ground winds
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The main disadvantage of any horizontal wind axis turbine is that it
cannot be operated at near ground winds. This is due to the height of the tower and
size of the blades. However, most of them are self-starting and do not have a high
starting torque.
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2. Which of the following materials are used to make a rotor blade of a wind turbine?
a) Glass fibre reinforced polyester
b) Salt
c) Sugar
d) Plastic
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rotor blades are made using glass fibre reinforced polyester (GRP). It is
a material made impregnating a matrix of fibre glass mats with a polyester. This
polyester is hardened after impregnation.
3. Which of the following materials can be used to make a rotor blade of a wind turbine
apart from glass fibre reinforced polyester (GRP)?
a) Silicon, germanium
b) Epoxy, carbon fibre
c) Plastic
d) Salt
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Apart from GRP, epoxy and carbon fibre can be used to make rotor
blades. Though carbon fibre is lighter and has higher material strength, it is
expensive. Silicon and germanium are generally used in semiconductor industry.
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4. Fatigue testing of rotor blades subject the blades to an oscillation in _______ direction.
a) horizontal
b) vertical
c) flapwise
d) diagonal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: During fatigue testing of rotor blades, they are oscillated in the flapwise
direction for millions of cycles. A typical flapwise test takes about three hours.
Depending on the results of a fatigue test, we comment on whether a rotor blade
can withstand high wind speeds or not.
5. Which of the following are the major parts of a wind turbine system?
a) Tower, rotor, water storage tank, air compressor
b) Tower, rotor and blades, air compressor, vacuum pump, electricity generator
c) Electricity generator, nacelle, rotor and blades, power converter, building
d) Tower, nacelle, rotor and blades, power converter, electricity generator
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Tower, nacelle, rotor and blades, power converter, electricity generator
and wind shaft are the major parts of a wind turbine system. Water storage tank, air
compressor and vacuum pump are not used in a wind turbine system.
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6. What is the main function of tower in a wind turbine system?

a) Acts a support to all other components used in wind turbine system
b) Acts as an antenna for wireless radio communications
c) Acts as an electric pole for power transportation
d) Destabilizes the wind turbine system
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main function of tower in a wind turbine system is to support the
other components. It also stabilizes both, the rotor and blades which eventually
convert wind energy to electrical energy via mechanical energy.
7. Which of the following towers is used for small wind turbines?

a) Hybrid tower
b) Guyed pole tower
c) Electric pole
d) Wooden pole
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The guyed pole tower is used for small wind turbines. It is a single
vertical pole supported by guy cables from different sides. An electric pole is
specifically used for electricity transportation. Wooden pole is a general purpose pole
and can be used for a variety of applications.
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8. What is a hybrid type tower?

a) Guyed tower
b) Guyed tower and wooden tower
c) Thin and tall lattice type guyed tower
d) Guyed tower and electric pole
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Unlike the guyed tower which uses a single pole, the hybrid tower uses
a thin and tall lattice type tower that is supported by guy cables. It is a hybrid of both,
lattice type and guyed type towers.
9. Nacelle is a kiosk that houses ______

a) a MOSFET
b) a diode
c) a wifi router
d) a yaw drive
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Nacelle is a big box that houses various components like power
converter, yaw drive, gearbox, etc. MOSFETs and diodes are discrete electrical
components used to realize various electrical and electronic circuits. Nacelle does
not house a Wi-Fi router.
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10. What is the main function of gearbox in a wind turbine system?

a) Multiples rotation speed to generate electricity
b) Divides rotation speed to generate electricity
c) Multiples rotation speed to consume wind energy
d) Divides rotation speed to consume wind energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The blades rotate slowly and this speed is not sufficient to generate
electricity. So, the main function of a gearbox in a wind turbine system is to multiply
the rotation speed to a sufficiently high level so as to generate electricity.
11. What is a pitch drive motor?

a) A motor that senses wind direction
b) A motor to control the angle of blades
c) A motor to ensure nacelle faces in the direction of the wind
d) A motor to rotate the blades
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A pitch drive motor is a motor used to control the angle of blades.
Pitching is the process of rotating the angle of blades to cut maximum wind for
harvesting energy.
12. What is a yaw drive?

a) A device used to support and stabilize other components
b) A device used to house various energy conversion components
c) A motor to ensure that nacelle faces the wind
d) A device used to track wind direction
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A yaw drive is a motor to ensure that the nacelle faces in the direction
of the wind. This advocates maximum energy extraction from the incoming wind. It is
controlled by a PLC that uses wind vane to track the net direction of wind.
13. What is the cost of a wind turbine per megawatt?

a) $10000
b) $1000
c) $100
d) $1 million
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As of 2019, a wind turbine costs about $1 million per megawatt.
Manufacturing the rotor blades consume most of the budget. Depending on the size
and material used, the cost may vary. For example, carbon fibre is expensive when
compared to glass fibre.
14. Wind turbines require regular maintenance.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wind turbines require regular maintenance to ensure reliability and
maintain initial efficiency. They are generally serviced after 3-4 months of usage. In
best case, they are available to generate energy 98% of the time.
15. Offshore wind turbines are not erected in water bodies.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What are wind energy conversion systems designed for?

a) To convert wind energy to mechanical energy
b) To convert wind energy to potential energy
c) To convert wind energy to electrical energy
d) To convert mechanical energy to wind energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wind energy conversion systems (WECS) are designed to convert wind
energy to mechanical energy. The kinetic energy of the wind is used to turn the
blades of a wind turbine which in turn rotates a rotor connected to it. This
mechanical energy is further converted to electrical energy for various applications.
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2. Which of the following is a part of a general wind energy conversion system?

a) Server
b) Wind turbine
c) Cloud User
d) Service Provider
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wind turbine is a crucial part of a wind energy conversion system
(WECS). It converts the kinetic energy of the incoming air stream into mechanical
energy which is then converted to electrical energy. Server, cloud user and service
provider are components of a wireless communication system.
3. What are the two types of gear boxes used in wind turbine?
a) VAWT and HAWT
b) Differential
c) Parallel shaft and planetary shaft
d) Manual transmission
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Parallel shaft and planetary gearboxes are used in wind turbine.
Differential and manual transmission are used in automobiles. VAWT and HAWT are
the two most commonly used wind turbines.
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4. What are parallel shaft gears?

a) Motor shaft and the speed controller shaft are on perpendicular planes
b) Motor shaft and the speed controller shaft are on skewed planes
c) Motor shaft and the speed controller shaft are on diagonal planes
d) Motor shaft and the speed controller shaft are on parallel planes
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Parallel shaft gear motors are a type of gear motor which uses gears to
accomplish speed control. The motor shaft and the speed controller shaft are on
parallel planes. Hence, the name parallel shaft gears.
5. What is a planetary shaft gearbox?

a) Input shaft and output shaft are aligned
b) Motor shaft and the speed controller shaft are on perpendicular planes
c) Motor shaft and the speed controller shaft are on parallel planes
d) Input shaft and output shaft are parallel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the input and output shaft of a gearbox are aligned, it is called
planetary gearbox. It is used to transfer the largest torque compactly. Motor shaft
and speed controller shaft in parallel shaft.
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6. Parallel shaft gearbox is used in small turbines.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Parallel shaft gearbox is used in small turbines. They have a simple
design and are easy to maintain. Also, they are made up high mass material.
7. Planetary shaft gearbox is not used in large turbines.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Planetary shaft gearbox is used in large turbines. When compared with
parallel shaft gearbox, it has a complex design and is made up of low mass material.
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8. Power generation contains ________

a) mechanical systems
b) kinetic systems
c) electromagnetic and electrical subsystems
d) nuclear systems
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Power generation contains electromagnetic and electrical subsystems.
To ensure voltage compatibility with grid, it generally contains an electrical
transformer apart from the electrical generator and power electronics converter.
9. What is a fixed speed WECS?
a) WECS operating at differential speeds
b) WECS operating at non-differential speeds
c) WECS operating at variable speeds
d) WECS operating at constant speed
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A fixed speed WECS operates at a constant speed. The wind turbine
rotor speed is determined by the grid frequency regardless of the wind speed. A
fixed speed WECS does not operate at differential/variable speeds.
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10. Fixed speed WECS are equipped ________ generators.

a) squirrel-cage induction
b) squirrel induction
c) induction squirrel
d) doubly-fed induction
View Answer
Answer: a
1. How is the speed varied in limited variable speed WECS?

a) Variable rotor resistance
b) Fixed rotor resistance
c) Fixed capacitance
d) Variable rotor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Limited variable speed WECS is an evolution of fixed-speed WECS. The
variable speed is achieved with the help of a variable rotor resistance which is
controlled by power electronics. Thus, the total resistance is adjustable.
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2. Which generator is used in variable speed WECS?

a) Squirrel-cage induction
b) Doubly-fed induction
c) Induction squirrel
d) Induction generator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Double-fed induction generator is used in a variable speed WECS. The
name doubly-fed comes from the fact that the stator voltage is applied from the grid
and the rotor voltage is impressed by the power converter.
3. Which of the following components are used as converters in power electronics

converter?
a) BJT
b) Earphone
c) IGBT
d) Wi-Fi driver
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Two IGBTs are used as converters, namely the rotor side and the grid
side converter. BJT is not used as converter. Both, earphone and Wi-Fi driver are not
electrical components. Earphones are used to listen to music and Wi-Fi driver is used
to connect to the Wi-Fi.
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4. What is the function of rotor side converter?

a) To control the DC-link voltage
b) To ensure operation at large power factor
c) To control generator in terms of active and reactive power
d) To ensure operation at low power factor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The function of rotor side converter is to control the generator. It
controls the generator in terms of active and reactive power by ensuring minimum
power loss during power conversion. The rotor side converter is made up of IGBT.
5. What is the function of grid side converter?

a) To ensure operation at low power factor
b) To control generator in terms of reactive power
c) To control generator in terms of active power
d) To control the DC-link voltage
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The function of grid side converter is to control the DC-link voltage. It
also ensures operations at a large power factor. An IGBT is used to make the
converter.
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6. What is sub-synchronous mode in doubly-fed induction generator (DFIG)?

a) Rotor runs below synchronous speed
b) Rotor runs above synchronous speed
c) Rotor runs at synchronous speed
d) Slip power is fed into AC power supply
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a doubly-fed induction generator (DFIG), sub-synchronous mode is a
mode where the rotor runs below the synchronous speed. This is conducive towards
using wind power at lower wind speed.
7. What is super-synchronous mode in doubly-fed induction generator (DFIG)?

d) Rotor takes power from AC mains
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a doubly-fed induction generator (DFIG), super-synchronous mode is
a mode where the rotor runs above the synchronous speed. This is conducive
towards feeding the slip power into AC mains supply with the help of an inverter-
converter combination.
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8. Which of the following generators are mostly used in WECS?

a) PMSG and SCIG
b) DFIG and SCIG
c) DFIG and PMSG
d) VAWT and HAWT
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Doubly-fed induction generator (DFIG) and permanent magnet
synchronous generator (PMSG) are the two most commonly used generators in
WECS. SCIG is typically used in a fixed speed WECS which has a low efficiency. VAWT
and HAWT are types of wind turbines.
9. Which of the following is a flowchart depicting WECS modelling?

a) Wind turbine aerodynamic model → gear train model → power grid → generator
(PMSG/DFIG)
b) Wind turbine aerodynamic model → generator (PMSG/DFIG) → gear train model →
power grid
c) Wind turbine aerodynamic model → generator (PMSG/DFIG) → power grid → gear
train model
d) Wind turbine aerodynamic model → gear train model → generator (PMSG/DFIG) →
power grid
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Wind turbine is connected to the electrical generator through a coupling
device gear train. The output of the generator is connected to the power grid via a
power controller to minimize power loss and ensure system protection.
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10. _______ speed WECS is the most flexible in terms of the generator used.
a) Full variable
b) Limited variable
c) Half variable
d) Fixed
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What happens to wind speed when many turbines operate collectively?

a) Wind speed reduces
b) Wind speed increases
c) Wind speed does not change
d) Wind speed increases exponentially and then decreases linearly
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wind turbines are used to extract kinetic energy from the incoming
wind. When multiple turbines operate collectively, the wind speed of the
atmospheric flow reduces after crossing each turbine. This affects the efficiency of
the turbines.
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2. Which of the following is true?

a) More than 50% of the land area on earth can generate 1W per square meter
b) Less than 5% of the land area on earth can generate 1W per square meter
c) 60 – 80% of the land area on earth can generate 1W per square meter
d) More than 80% of the land area on earth can generate 1W per square meter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: After multiple simulations, research has shown that less than 5% of land
area can actually generate 1W per square meter. A global climate model was used to
simulate scenarios of different wind energy across all continents.
3. Lower wind speeds result in ________

a) higher wind energy obtained
b) no wind energy obtained
c) lower wind energy obtained
d) 100% energy conversion for half the operation time and less than 10% energy
conversion for the remaining half of the operation time
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Wind speeds disproportionally affect the electricity generation from
wind turbines. Lower wind speeds result in much lower wind energy. This further
decreases the conversion efficiency resulting in extremely low powers.
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4. What happens to the output power when the wind turbine blades rotate faster for
the entire operation time?
a) The output power first increases then decreases
b) The output power first decreases then monotonically increases
c) The output power decreases
d) The output power increases
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When the wind turbine blades rotate faster for the entire operation
time, the output power increases. The output power increases until the speed of
rotation is decreased.
5. Higher wind speeds _________ the speed of rotation of the wind blades.
a) increase
b) decrease
c) monotonically decrease
d) first increase and then decrease
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Higher wind speeds increase the speed of rotation of the wind blades.
This in turn generates more output power as the net mechanical energy increased
due to increase in rotational speed of the wind blade.
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6. What is cut-in wind speed?

a) Wind turbine stops generating output power
b) Wind turbine starts generating output power
c) Wind turbine stops functioning
d) Wind turbine starts functioning
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wind turbines are designed to operate within a specific range of wind
speeds. The cut-in wind speed is that wind speed at which the wind turbine starts
generating output power. It is not the speed at which the turbine starts functioning.
7. What is rated speed?

a) Wind turbines generate least output power
b) Wind turbines do not generate any output power
c) Wind turbines generate maximum output power
d) Wind turbines have no rated speed as the output power always increases
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The rated wind speed is that wind speed at which the wind turbines
generate maximum output power. Maximum power point tracking (MPPT) is used to
ensure that the wind turbines always operate in the neighbourhood of the rated
wind speed.
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8. Which of the following are the limits of the range of wind speeds for which the
turbines are designed?
a) Elasticity
b) Threshold voltage
c) Networking
d) Cut-in speed and cut-out speed
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Since wind turbines are designed to operate within a specific range of
wind speeds, they have limits. The lower limit is called the cut-in speed and the
upper limit is called the cut-out speed. Elasticity is the ability of a material to come
back to its original shape after stretching. Threshold voltage is related to electrical
devices like diodes, BJTs, etc.
9. How does the output power vary between cut-in speed and the rated speed?
a) cubically
b) linearly
c) square
d) exponential
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Between the cut-in speed and the rated speed, the output power of the
wind turbines varies cubically. The output power cubically increases until the rated
speed is reached – if the wind speed doubles, the output power increases by 8 times.
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10. What is the cut-out speed?
a) Wind turbine starts generating output power
b) Wind turbine must be shut down
d) Wind turbine starts functioning but does not generate output power
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cut-out speed is the wind speed at which the wind turbine must be shut
down. This prevents damage to the equipment used in the wind turbines. The cut-
out speed is decided prior to wind turbine construction.
11. Power output is not related to the local air density.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Power output is related to the local air density. Air density is defined as
the mass per unit volume of the earth’s atmosphere. It depends on various physical
factors.
12. Which of the following does the local air density depend upon?
a) Soil
b) Lightning
c) Altitude and pressure
d) Nitrogen and oxygen
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Air density depends on altitude, pressure and temperature. It does not
depend on soil and its topography as well as on lightning. Nitrogen and oxygen are
types of gases and are components of air.
13. Higher air density leads to higher power output.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Higher air density results in higher output power. This is because
denser air exerts more pressure on the wind blades which increases the speed of
rotation. Thus, an increase in the speed of rotation increases output power.
14. What is feather of wind turbine blades?

a) Adding feathers to the blades
b) Reducing the weight of wind turbine blades
c) Reducing the angle of pitch
d) Increasing the angle of pitch
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Increasing the angle of pitch is called feathering of wind turbine blades.
It is achieved by turning the blades to orient them in a direction parallel to the air
flow. This minimized the net drag on the wind turbine blades.
15. Why is feathering of wind turbine blades required?

a) To increase drag
b) To reduce drag
c) To prevent the blades from being destroyed by strong winds
d) To extract power from strong winds originating from storms
View Answer
Answer: c
1. Why is the energy output of wind power plant variable?

a) Wind speed is variable
b) Wind speed is an unknown constant
c) Wind speed is known constant
d) Poor equipment is used
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The energy output of any wind power plant (WPP) is variable because
the wind speed is variable. The equipment used in power plant is designed to deal
with such variability and uncertainty.
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2. Which of the following is a reason for variable wind speed?

a) Water
b) Earth’s rotation
c) Electrons
d) Fans
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Day and night cycle caused by earth’s rotation and seasonal changes
due to tilt axis of earth cause changes in wind speed. Water, electrons and fans do
not affect wind speed.
3. What is grid integration of wind energy?

a) Planning the connection of wind power plant to the grid
b) Physical connection of wind power plant to the grid
c) Energy sent from grid to run the wind turbines
d) Collection of all activities related to connecting wind power plants to the grid
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Grid integration of wind energy is simply the collection of all activities
related to connecting wind power plants to the grid. The wind power plant sends
energy to the grid. It does not consume energy from the grid.
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4. Which of the following depicts the correct order of the stages involved in grid
integration of wind energy?
a) System operations → physical connection → planning
b) Planning → system operations → physical connection
c) Planning → physical connection → system operations
d) Physical connection → planning → system operations
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Grid integration of wind energy consists of three stages starting with
planning the connection. After laying out the plan, the power plant is physically
connected to the substation (grid). Lastly, the functioning of each system is handled
under systems operation.
5. What are the two types of planning activities related to grid integration?
a) Network-wide and project-specific
b) BJT and MOSFET
c) Rotor and shaft
d) Low power and high power designs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The two types of planning activities related to grid integration are
network-wide and project-specific activities. BJT and MOSFET are electronic/electrical
devices (components). Rotor and shaft are used in a rotating mechanism. Low power
and high power designs are circuit design specifications.
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6. Which of the following best describes network-wide planning activity in grid

integration?
a) Planning activities related to a unique wind project
b) Planning activities for all the future wind power plants
c) Planning activities for a telecommunication system
d) Planning activities for the maintenance of the existing wind power plants
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Network-wide plans are laid out for all the future wind power plants.
Planning activities for a telecommunication system are not related to grid integration
of wind energy. Maintenance of existing wind power plants is covered in the previous
network-wide plan.
7. Network-wide plans in wind energy grid integration include _______

a) system impact studies done for a specific wind project
b) materials used to manufacture wind turbine blades
c) developing grid code
d) solar panel manufacturing plant
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Network-wide plans include development of grid code, network-wide
system integration studies with scenarios for different levels of wind penetration and
system operation studies. They are not done for a specific wind project.
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8. What is project specific planning in wind energy grid integration?
a) Planning activities for a solar panel system
c) Planning activities related to a unique wind project
d) Planning activities for the maintenance of the existing thermal power plants
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Project specific planning activities in wind energy grid integration are
planning activities related to a unique wind project. They include system impact
studies done for a specific wind project. The input for this type of study is the wind
power plant which is being studied.
9. In a substation, the wind power plant line is connected to a _______ voltage bus bar.
a) high
b) low
c) mini
d) medium
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In a substation, the wind power plant line is connected a medium
voltage bus bar. A medium voltage bus bar is used for medium voltages – 10kV to
50kV. At the wind turbine generator, this bar is connected to a step up transformer
which steps up the output of the generator from 0.69kV to 11kV or 33kV.
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10. Which of the following are a few primary tests performed after commissioning
phase in the physical connection stage?
a) Switch-gear functioning and quality parameters
b) Feathering
c) Wind turbine blade tests
d) Rotor and shaft tests
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Testing the functioning of switch-gear, quality parameters like
harmonics and flicker, proper start-up and shut down are crucial during grid
integration. Feathering of blades is done to prevent the blades from being damaged
by storm winds. Wind turbine blade, rotor and shaft tests do not come under grid
integration tests.
11. Which of the following are impacts of grid integration of wind power plant?
a) Day-ahead unit commitment process
b) Day-ahead unit commitment process, economic dispatch process
c) Generator types
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The unit commitment process is cost-effective combination of
generating units to meet forecasted load and reserve requirements, while adhering
to generator and transmission constraints. Economic dispatch is the optimization of
production from generators to minimize cost of generation while meeting all the
constraints. In most grids, wind energy has the highest priority due to its low
marginal costs.
12. Which of the following is/are good practices for grid integration of wind power
plant?
c) Optimized transmission from resources-rich areas to load, flexible generation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Optimizing transmission from resource-rich areas to load saves both,
power and costs. Using the under-utilized line to transmit power instead of setting a
new transmission line is an example of optimization. Flexible power generation helps
meeting in varying power demands.
13. What is a grid code for wind energy integration?

a) A binary code
b) A hexadecimal code
c) A code of conduct
d) A rulebook specifying generator properties
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A grid code for integration is a rulebook that specifies properties of
generators and other equipment used to connect to the grid. The equipment must
satisfy these properties to ensure reliable and safe operation.
14. What are the types of grid integration costs?

a) Transmission extension, volatility balancing, covering peak load
b) Marginal cost
c) Fixed cost
d) Fundamental Analysis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Grid integration costs are divided into three categories – transmission
extension, balancing of increased volatility in grid and covering the peak load. The
other options are various terms used in economics and finance to define different
types of costs. They are not particularly related to grid integration.
15. What is a power flow study in wind energy integration?

a) A binary code
b) Determines flow of electrical energy from generators to consumers
c) Determines flow of electrical energy from generators to consumers meeting line
loading requirements
d) A study specifying generator properties
View Answer
Answer: c
1. Which of the following is a reason for storing wind energy?

a) Wind power generation is not correlated to the demand cycle
b) Wind power generation is correlated to the demand cycle
c) Wind is a renewable resource
d) Wind power is guaranteed to be available during peak demands
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Most of the electricity produced from the plants is consumed
immediately. Moreover, wind power generation is not correlated to the demand
cycle. It is also not guaranteed to be available during peak demands. Thus, wind
power storage is necessary.
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2. Which of the following methods are used to store wind energy?
a) Glowing a bulb
b) Electro-chemical
c) Running a consumer electrical appliance
d) Turning off consumer electrical appliances when not in use
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wind energy can be stored as electro-chemical energy in the form of
batteries. Glowing a bulb and running a consumer electrical appliance consumes
energy. While turning off an appliance when not in use saves energy, it doesn’t store
energy.
3. What is an example of storing wind power electro-chemically?

a) Electro-hydrogen generation
b) Pumped storage
c) Batteries
d) Electric grid
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Storing energy in batteries is the most common and simplest method to
store wind energy. An electric grid is an interconnected network for delivering power
from suppliers to consumers.
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4. _________ is an example of storing wind energy chemically.

a) Flywheels
b) Pumped storage
c) Batteries
d) Electro-hydrogen generation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Electro-hydrogen is an example of storing wind energy chemically.
Batteries typically come under the category of electro-chemical storage. Flywheels
come under the category of mechanical storage.
5. Wind energy can be switched on ‘on demand’.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wind energy cannot be switched on ‘on demand’. It is inherently
intermitted, variable and non-dispatchable. To match the supply with demand, it
requires a backup to store the generated power.
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6. Energy storage devices can manage power fluctuations.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Energy storage devices can manage power fluctuations, particularly
from renewable sources of energy – wind and solar. Thus, they enable such
fluctuating and irregular technologies to cope with consumer’s demand.
7. Which of following is are parameters used to describe an energy storage device?

a) Power, energy, time, frequency, Young’s modulus
b) Power capacity, voltage, heat, angular speed, frequency
c) Power capacity, energy storage capacity, efficiency, response time, round-trip
efficiency
d) Stress, strain, Young’s Modulus, elasticity, rigidity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Power capacity, energy storage capacity, efficiency, response time and
round-trip efficiency are generally used to describe an energy storage device. Stress,
strain, Young’s modulus, elasticity and rigidity are used to describe a material. The
other options are not used to describe ‘storage potential/capacity’.
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8. What is energy storage capacity?

a) Power stored
b) Amount of energy that can be drawn from a storage device
c) Amount of energy stored in a storage device
d) Amount of energy a storage device can store for a period of time
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Energy storage capacity is the amount of energy a storage device can
store for a period of time. It is usually measured in kilowatt-hours (KWh) or
megawatt-hours (MWh). It is not the same as amount of energy stored.
9. Pumped hydroelectric is an example of _________

a) Gravitational potential storage
b) Latent heat storage
c) Thermal storage
d) Hydroelectric power generation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pumped hydroelectric storage is an example of gravitational potential
storage. It is the most mature storage technique and has the largest storage
capacity. For optimization, the pump and the turbine are combined into a single
device.
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10. What type of materials are used for latent heat storage?
a) Materials with high stress
b) Phase-change materials
c) Materials with high stress/strain ratio
d) Elastic materials
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Phase change materials are used for latent heat storage. Stress and
strain are used to describe a material’s deformation ability. Elastic materials are
those which when deformed regain their original shape.
11. Flywheels are an example of ________ energy storage.

a) potential
b) electric potential
c) thermal kinetic
d) kinetic
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Flywheels are an example of storing mechanical energy in the form of
kinetic energy. The flywheel (or rotor) is accelerated to a high speed thus maintaining
the energy. The energy is stored in the system in the form of rotational kinetic
energy.
12. When does a power conversion system act as a rectifier for an energy storing
device?
a) When the device is being charged
b) When the device is being discharged
c) When the device stops working
d) When the power conversion system is being charged
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A power conversion system acts as a rectifier when the energy storing
device is being charged. This is because any existing energy storage cannot store AC.
Except for mechanical storage devices, it is necessary to convert alternating current
(AC) to direct current (DC) and vice-versa.
13. When does a power conversion system act as an inverter for an energy storing
device?
c) When the device starts working
d) When the power conversion system is being discharged
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A power conversion system acts as an inverter when the energy storing
device is being discharged. The converted AC current is then transported to the
consumer. Transporting alternating currents reduces the amount of resistive losses.
14. Which of the following parameters are used to describe rechargeable batteries?
a) Power
b) Frequency
c) Charge-to-discharge ratio
d) Angular speed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Charge-to-discharge ratio, depth of discharge (DoD) and memory effect
are commonly used to describe rechargeable batteries. Power, frequency and
angular speed are not used to describe any storage device’s characteristics.
15. Capacitors store energy in the form of ________

a) potential
b) AC voltage
c) thermal potential
d) electric potential
View Answer
Answer: d
1. What is depth of discharge?

a) Percentage of the battery that is discharged during a cycle
b) Percentage of the battery that is discharged
c) Amount of charge discharged from a battery during a cycle
d) Amount of charge discharged from a battery
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Depth of discharge (DoD) is the percentage of the battery that is
discharged during a cycle. It has a wider use because it indicates a percentage
instead of an absolute value. Indicating the absolute value of the charge discharged
is not practical as it is unique for every battery and cannot be generalized.
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2. What is charge-to-discharge ratio?

a) Time taken to charge the device
b) Ratio of time taken to charge the device relative to the time taken to discharge the
device
c) Ratio of the amount of charge during charging cycle to the amount of charge during
discharge cycle
d) Time taken to discharge the device
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Charge-to-discharge ratio is the ratio of time taken to charge the device
relative to the time taken to discharge the device. For instance, if a device takes 2
times longer to charge than to discharge, it has a charge-to-discharge ratio of 2:1.
3. What is memory effect?

b) Pumped storage
c) Remembering a charging level
d) Electric grid
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Memory effect is mainly used to describe rechargeable batteries. If they
are not fully charged for long periods of time then they ‘remember’ that charging
level. Thus, they lose some of their capacity. The other options are storage
techniques of wind energy.
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4. Which of the following have large power (>50MW) and storage capacities
(>100MWh)?
a) Memory effect
b) Battery energy storage (BES) and flow battery energy storage
c) Super capacitor energy storage and flywheel energy storage
d) Pumped hydro-electric storage and underground pumped hydro-electric storage
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Pumped hydro-electric storage (PHES) and underground pumped
hydro-electric storage (UPHES) are grouped under the category of large power
(>50MW) and storage capacity (>100MWh). Compressed air energy storage (CAES) is
another example of this category. Memory effect is a parameter used to describe a
rechargeable battery.
5. Efficiency of pumped hydro-electric storage is in the range of _________

a) 50% — 80%
b) 80% — 120%
c) 10% — 20%
d) 45% — 50%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Efficiency of pumped hydro-electric storage is in the range of 50% —
80%. It has large power (>50MW) and storage capacity (>100MWh). The efficiency is
further being improved using variable speed machines.
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6. How does pumped hydro-electric storage work?

a) Pumps water from higher level to a lower level
b) Pumps water from lower level to higher level
c) Uses electrical energy present in the water
d) Uses nuclear energy present in the water molecules
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: PHES uses the gravitational potential energy of water to generate
electricity. During off-peak hours, water is pumped from a reservoir at a lower level
to a reservoir at a higher level and stored. When required, the water falls from the
higher level and rotates turbines connected to an electrical generator.
7. Which of the following is an application of pumped hydro-electric storage?

a) Energy source
b) Frequency regulation only in pumping mode
c) Frequency regulation in both pumping and generation modes
d) Absorbs power to increase the net expenses
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pumped hydro-electric storage is used for frequency regulation in both
pumping and generation modes. In fact, it absorbs power in a more cost-effective
manner and boosts efficiency upto 3%.
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8. What is a major disadvantage with pumped hydro-electric system?

a) No dependence on geographical locations
b) Small scale construction for effective functioning
c) Low initial costs of construction
d) Depends on specific geographical locations for the construction of the two reservoirs
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A major disadvantage with PHES is its dependence on specific
geographical locations for the construction of the two reservoirs. It also demands
that the two reservoirs be located in close proximity to reduce costs. This increases
the initial costs of construction considerably.
9. Which of the following best indicates the flow diagram of storage mode in
compressed air energy storage?
a) Power from grid → motor → compressor → storage
b) Power from grid → motor → storage → compressor
c) Power from grid → compressor → motor → storage
d) Motor → power from grid → compressor → storage
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In CAES, power is drawn from the grid during off-peak hours to run a
motor which in turn drives a compressor. Air passed into the compressor is then
compressed and stored.
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10. Which of the following best indicates the flow diagram of power generation mode
in compressed air energy storage?
a) Storage → LPT → HPT → generator
b) Storage → HPT → LPT → generator
c) Storage → LPT → generator → HPT
d) HPT → Storage →LPT → generator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In CAES, the compressed air is first sent from the storage tank to a high
pressure turbine (HPT) which is in turn connected to a lower pressure turbine (LPT).
Finally, the LPT is connected to an electric generator.
11. Which of the following are used for large scale battery energy storage?
a) Li-ion batteries
b) Capacitors
c) Lead acid
d) Reservoirs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Lead acid (LA) is used for large scale BES. Nickel-cadmium (NiCd) and
sodium-sulphur (NaS) are also commonly used BES. Capacitors are not batteries. Li-
ion is an upcoming technology and hasn’t been established as the industry standard
yet. However, it is likely to take over the industry in the next decade.
12. How does a flow battery energy storage work?

a) Electrolyte tanks → pumps → electrodes → current
b) Electrolyte tanks → pumps → current → electrodes
c) Electrolyte tanks → current → electrodes → pumps
d) Electrolyte tanks → electrodes → current → pumps
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: FBES operate in a similar way. Two charged electrolytes are pumped to
the cell stack where a chemical reaction occurs, allowing current to be obtained from
the device when required. This current is then harnessed by sending it to a load.
13. The central shaft in a flywheel energy storage device rotates on two magnetic
bearings.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A flywheel energy storage (FES) consists of a central shaft. The shaft
holds a rotor and a flywheel. The central shaft rotates on two magnetic bearings
which considerably reduces friction losses. The entire setup is placed in vacuum to
prevent drag losses.
14. Flywheels are used in uninterrupted power supply (UPS).

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The entire setup is mechanical, it can be repeatedly charged and
discharged without much damage to the setup itself. Thus, flywheels are used in
uninterrupted power supplies (UPS).
15. Capacitors do not suffer from ________
a) dielectric breakdown
b) material dependence
c) excess electric potential
d) memory effect
View Answer
Answer: d
1. When is the power density of the absorbing surface equal to the incident sunlight?
a) Absorbing surface and incident sunlight are perpendicular to each other
b) Absorbing surface and incident sunlight are parallel to each other
c) Absorbing surface and incident sunlight are inclined at an acute angle to each other
d) Absorbing surface and incident sunlight are inclined at an obtuse angle to each other
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Net power received from incident sunlight depends on two things – the
power contained in the sunlight and the angle of the receiver with respect to the
incident sunlight. Incident power equals the received power when the receiver is
perpendicular to the incident sunlight.
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2. For a fixed receiver, incident power density and received power density are always
equal.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For a fixed receiver, incident power density and received power density
are not equal always. In fact, the net received power is often less than the incident
power as the angle between the sun and the receiver changes continuously.

a) Radiation scattered by molecules
b) Radiation reflected from an obstacle
c) Radiation traveling on a straight line from sun to earth
d) Sum of diffused and reflected radiation energies
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Direct solar radiation is that radiation which travels in a straight line
from the sun. It travels to the earth without deviating from its path due to obstacles.
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4. What is diffused solar radiation?

a) Sum of direct and reflected radiation energies
d) Radiation scattered by molecules
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Diffused solar radiation is that radiation which has been scattered by
molecules and particles in atmosphere. Though it deviates from its initial path, it
does travel down to the earth.
5. Which of the following is tried to maximized in tilted receivers (panels)?

a) Direct radiation
b) Diffused radiation
c) Reflected radiation
d) Diffracted radiation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Receivers are tilted to maximize the collection of direct solar radiation
from the sun. The tilt tries to ensure that the receivers are perpendicular to the
direct radiation. It accounts for the continuous change in angle between the sun and
the receiver.
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6. When receivers (panels) are laid horizontally, they usually collect _______
a) Direct radiation
c) Deflected radiation
d) Heat
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When solar receivers (panels) are laid horizontally, they usually collect
diffused radiation. This is because diffused radiation is equally distributed
throughout the sky and hence can easily be gathered.
7. More the tilt in receivers (panels), larger amounts of diffused radiation is collected.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: More the tilt in receivers, larger amounts of direct radiation is collected.
As the tilt increases, the amount of diffused radiation received considerably reduces.
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8. What is reflected solar radiation?

b) Radiation reflected from an atmospheric obstacle
d) Radiation reflected from a non-atmospheric obstacle
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Reflected solar radiation is that sunlight/radiation that is reflected from
a non-atmospheric obstacle. The obstacles could be trees, ground, light poles, cars,
etc. They do not contribute significantly towards electricity generation from solar
panels.
9. Reflected solar radiation is used in _______

a) Snowy regions
b) Temperate region
c) Equatorial region
d) Tropical region
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Generally, reflected solar radiation does contribute significantly towards
electricity generation. However, energy from reflected radiation is harvested in
snowy regions as fresh snow reflects about 80-90% of the incident radiation.
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10. What is global insolation?

a) Direct radiation + diffused radiation
b) Diffused radiation – direct radiation
c) Direct radiation + diffused radiation + reflected radiation
d) Reflected radiation * direct radiation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Global insolation or total insolation is the sum of the radiation received
by earth from sun. It is nothing but the sum of direct radiation, diffused radiation
and reflected radiation. This is used as a reference for the insolation at some tilt.
11. What is normal radiation?

a) Direct radiation
b) Sun’s radiation and striking surface are perpendicular to each other
c) Incident solar radiation and striking surface are perpendicular to each other
d) Global insolation – direct radiation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Normal radiation describes the radiation that strikes a surface that is
perpendicular to the sun’s radiation. It is not same as direct radiation as the it does
not talk about the incident radiation. It may so happen that normal radiation and
direct radiation may be the same at some tilt.
12. What is hour angle of the sun?

a) Angle of radiation with earth’s surface
b) Angle between the hands of sun dial
c) Angle made by the sun’s rays with moon’s surface
d) Orientation of earth with respect to sun
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hour angle of sun is defined as the actual orientation of earth with
respect to the sun. Mathematically, it is calculated by converting earth’s one rotation
in degrees and dividing it by the time taken – 360/24 = 15 degrees/h.
13. What is solar intensity?

a) Amount of outgoing solar energy
b) Amount of incoming solar energy on a plane surface
c) Amount of outgoing solar energy on a plane surface per unit time
d) Amount of incoming solar energy on a plane surface per unit time per unit area
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Solar intensity is defined as the amount of incoming solar energy on a
plane surface per unit time per unit area. It is a weighted average of the full radiation
and is equal to 1367 Watt/square meter.
14. What is solar azimuth angle?

a) Orientation of earth with respect to sun
b) Orientation of moon with respect to sun
c) Angle of radiation with earth’s surface
d) Angular distance between zero azimuth and sun’s projection on ground
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Solar azimuth angle is defined as the angular distance between zero
azimuth and the projection of the line of sight to sun on the ground. Zero azimuth is
a line due north or due south. Azimuth angle is measured clockwise from zero
azimuth.
15. Diffuse radiation models can be classified into ________ and __________
a) direct and reflective
b) adiabatic and isotropic
c) isotropic and anisotropic
d) anisotropic and adiabatic
View Answer
Answer: c
1. What is photosynthesis?
a) Plants generating carbohydrates and oxygen from carbon dioxide, water and
sunlight using chlorophyll
b) Algae generating carbohydrates and oxygen from carbon dioxide, water and sunlight
using chlorophyll
c) Cyanobacteria generating carbohydrates and oxygen from carbon dioxide, water and
d) Photoautotroph generating carbohydrates and oxygen from carbon dioxide, water
and sunlight
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Photosynthesis is the process by which photoautotrophs generate food
for themselves. They use carbon dioxide, water and sunlight to generate
carbohydrates and oxygen. Photo means light.
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2. What is the primary product of photosynthesis?

a) Glucose
b) Oxygen
c) Water
d) Carbon dioxide
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The primary product of photosynthesis is glucose. Oxygen is the by
product. Water and carbon dioxide are the reactants.
3. Which of the following best indicates photosynthesis?

a) Carbon dioxide + water → oxygen + glucose
b) 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 (in the presence of sunlight)
c) Carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen (in the presence of sunlight)
d) Oxygen + glucose → carbon dioxide + water
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Photosynthesis occurs in the presence of sunlight. The balanced
reaction of photosynthesis best describes the process of photosynthesis. The option
with oxygen and glucose as reactants is not photosynthesis.
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4. Which of the following organisms can perform photosynthesis?

a) Autotrophs
b) Algae
c) Photoautotrophs
d) Plants
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Photoautotrophs are organisms that perform photosynthesis to
produce food for themselves. Algae and plants come under the category of
photoautotrophs. All autotrophs are not necessarily photoautotrophs.
5. Which of the following are photoautotrophs?

a) Cyanobacteria, algae, plants
b) Archaebacteria
c) Deer
d) Tiger
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cyanobacteria, algae and plants are photoautotrophs. Archaebacteria
are chemoautotrophs. Deer and tiger are not autotrophs as they do not create their
own food.
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6. Conversion of usable sunlight energy into chemical energy is associated with _______
a) Red pigmentation
b) Green pigmentation
c) Orange pigmentation
d) Fruits
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Conversion of usable sunlight energy into chemical energy is associated
with green pigmentation. This green pigmentation is called chlorophyll. Plants and
algae consist of chlorophyll which is a key ingredient for photosynthesis.
7. Cyanobacteria have chloroplasts.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Though cyanobacteria are photoautotrophs, they do not have
chloroplasts. Instead, the chlorophyll is stored in thylakoids in their cytoplasm.
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8. _______ and _______ is present in all chlorophylls.

a) A hydrophilic tail, a lipid soluble head
b) A hydrophobic tail, a lipid soluble head
c) A hydrophilic tail, a lipid insoluble head
d) A lipid soluble tail, a hydrophilic head
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A lipid soluble tail and a hydrophilic head is present in all chlorophylls.
The tail is a lipid soluble hydrocarbon and the hydrophilic head consists of
magnesium ion at its centre.
9. What type of chemical reactions are involved in photosynthesis?

a) Condensation reactions and redox reactions
b) Combustion
c) Double displacement
d) Single displacement
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The chemical reactions involved in photosynthesis are condensation
reactions and redox reactions respectively. Combustion, single and double
displacement reactions do not occur in photosynthesis.
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10. What is the condensation reaction responsible for in the process of photosynthesis?
a) Electron transfer
b) Splitting out water molecules
c) Splitting out water molecules and phosphorylation
d) Electron transfer and phosphorylation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Condensation reaction is responsible for splitting out water molecules
and phosphorylation. Phosphorylation is the addition of a phosphate group to an
organic compound. Electron transfer occurs in a redox reaction.
11. Where does the light-dependent reactions in the process of photosynthesis occur?
a) Stroma of chloroplasts
b) Thylakoid of chloroplasts
c) Inner membranes
d) Grana of chloroplasts
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The light-dependent reactions in the process of photosynthesis occur in
the grana of chloroplasts. These reactions require the light energy to make energy-
carrier molecules that are used further.
12. Where does the light-independent reactions in the process of photosynthesis

occur?
c) Outer membranes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The light-independent reactions in the process of photosynthesis occur
in the stroma of chloroplasts. The products of light reaction are used to make
carbohydrates from carbon dioxide.
13. What is photoionisation? Assume presence of sunlight.

a) Freeing of electron from the molecule to form a negatively charged chlorophyll ion
b) Freeing of photoexcited electron from the molecule to form a positively charged
chlorophyll ion
c) Absorbing of electron from the molecule to form a negatively charged chlorophyll ion
d) Absorbing of electron from the molecule to form a positively charged chlorophyll ion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Electrons of chlorophyll molecule gain energy and move to higher
energy level when light is absorbed. On gaining sufficiently high energy, the electron
leaves the molecule thereby forming a positively charged chlorophyll ion. This
process is called photoionisation.
14. Where does the energy to drive the electron transfer system come from?
a) Photosystem 1
b) Photosystem 3 and photosystem 2
c) Photosystem 1 and photosystem 2
d) Photosystem 1 and photosystem 3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An electron transfer system (basically, a series of chemical reactions)
carries two electrons to and fro across the thylakoid membrane. The energy for the
system comes from photosystem 1 and photosystem 2.
15. Which of the following are products of light-dependent reactions?

a) ATP and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
b) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and NADPH
c) Carbohydrates
d) ATP and NADPH
View Answer
Answer: c
1. What is biomass?
a) Organic materials from living organisms
b) Inorganic materials from living organisms
c) Inorganic materials from non-living organisms
d) Organic materials from non-living organisms
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Biomass is a term for all organic materials stemming from living
organisms like plants, animals and microorganisms. Examples of biomass are –
animal waste, dead plants and animals, sugar, fats, etc.
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2. Which of the following can be classified under biomass?

a) Steel
b) Organic molecules containing hydrogen
c) NaOH
d) Iron
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Organic molecules containing hydrogen is a biomass. Steel is made up
of inorganic materials. NaOH is a strong base which is made up of an inorganic
material called sodium (Na). Iron (Fe) is another inorganic material which is used for
its magnetic properties.
3. Which of the following is not used as food for humans?

a) Sugars
b) Glucose
c) Cellulosic matter
d) Fats
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Cellulosic biomass is not used as a food source for humans. It is made
up of very complex sugar polymers. Sugars, glucose and fats are used in various food
items.
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4. __________ is an example of cellulosic biomass.

a) Glucose
b) Fats
c) Lipids
d) Agricultural residue
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Agricultural residue is an example of cellulosic biomass. They generally
include leftover material from crops like stalks and leaves. Fats, lipids and glucose
are not cellulosic biomass.
5. Value of any biomass depends on ___________ properties.

a) chemical and physical
b) chemical and photo sensitive
c) physical and photo sensitive
d) the number of carbon molecules and on the number of tin molecules
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The value of any biomass depends on the chemical and physical
properties. These are basically the properties of the large molecules from which it is
made. It does not depend on the light and the number of molecules.
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6. Which of the following are characterizes an ideal energy crop?

a) High yield, high energy input to produce, high cost and high nutrient requirements
b) High yield, low energy input to produce, low cost and low nutrient requirements
c) High yield, high energy input to produce, low cost and high nutrient requirements
d) Low yield, high energy input to produce, high cost and high nutrient requirements
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In general, the characteristics of any ideal energy crop are – high yield,
low energy input to produce, low cost, consists of least contaminants and low
nutrient requirements. These depend on the local climate and soil conditions.
7. Which energy forms can biomass be converted to?

a) Electrical and light
b) Light and chemical
c) Electrical and heat
d) Heat and light
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Biomass can be converted to electrical and heat energy. It can also be
used as transport fuel and chemical feedstock. It cannot be converted to light
energy.
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8. The heating value is expressed in BTU/kg.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The heating value is expressed in BTU/kg. BTU stands for British
Thermal Unit and is used to measure thermal (heat) energy. It is the amount of
energy needed to raise 1 pound of water 1 degree farad at sea level. Other
commonly used units are MJ/kg and cal/g.
9. What does heat value indicate?

a) Amount of energy consumed by biomass to produce energy
b) Amount of energy required to process biomass to produce energy
c) Amount of energy required as heat by the organisms
d) Amount of energy that is available in the fuel
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Heating value indicates the total amount of energy that is available in
the fuel. It is one of the most important characteristics of a fuel. It is mostly a
function of fuel’s chemical composition.
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10. What is higher heating value?

a) Amount of energy available in the fuel + energy contained in water vapour in the
exhaust gases
b) Total amount of energy available in the fuel – energy contained in water vapour in
the exhaust gases
c) Total amount of energy available in the fuel * energy contained in water vapour in
the exhaust gases
d) Total amount of energy available in the fuel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Higher heating value is the total amount of energy available in the fuel,
including energy contained in water vapour in the exhaust gases. Heating value
indicates the total amount of energy available in the fuel.
11. What is lower heating value?

exhaust gases
the exhaust gases
c) Total amount of energy available in the fuel / energy contained in water vapour in
the exhaust gases
d) Total amount of energy available in the fuel which cannot be used
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Lower heating value (LHV) is total amount of energy available in the fuel
– energy contained in water vapour in the exhaust gases. Generally, LHV is not an
appropriate value to use for biomass combustion.
12. High moisture fuels burn readily and provide more useful heat per unit mass.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: High moisture content in fuels do not allow them to burn readily and
provide less useful heat per unit mass. This is because water itself does not provide
any energy value. In fact, much of the supplied energy is used to heat and vaporize
water which leads wastage of supplied energy.
13. Moisture content can be calculated on two bases, namely _______

a) light and heavy
b) weighted and even
c) wet and dry
d) light and dry
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Moisture content can be calculated on two bases, namely, wet and dry.
Weighted is generally used to calculate weighted average. Light and heavy are not
related to moisture content.
14. What are the main components of cellulosic biomass?

a) Hemicellulose and lignin
b) Hemicellulose and sugars
c) Cellulose, sugars and fats
d) Cellulose, hemicellulose and lignin
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The main components of cellulosic biomass are cellulose, hemicellulose
and lignin. Sugars and fats are not cellulosic biomass.
15. Biomass is seasonal.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is cellulose made up of?
a) Polysaccharide
b) Steel
c) Carbon nano fibre
d) Silicon
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cellulose is a complex polymer, or polysaccharide. Polysaccharide is
made up of glucose, a six carbon sugar. Steel is used in industries to manufacture
various things like automobile bodies, etc. Silicon is used in manufacturing glass and
in semiconductor industry.
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2. Why is cellulose resistant to hydrolysis?

a) Because it consists of polysaccharides
b) Because it has a crystalline structure
c) Because it is hydrophobic
d) Because it is a polymer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cellulose is resistant to hydrolysis because of its crystalline made up of
polysaccharide. Hydrolysis the chemical reaction that releases simple, fermentable
sugars from polysaccharide.
3. Hemicellulose is a source of biomass accounting from 20% to 40% by ________

a) volume
b) moles
c) weight
d) molarity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hemicellulose is another major source of biomass. It accounts from 20 –
40% by weight and is the next best source after cellulose. It is a complex
polysaccharide made from 5 to 6 carbon sugars.
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4. Why does burning biomass not add to greenhouse gas emissions?
a) Because it is a clean source
b) Because it absorbs greenhouse gases to burn
c) Because it releases the same amount of greenhouses gas as burning fossil fuel does
d) Because it releases greenhouse gas that was captured and converted into other
forms during its growth
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Burning biomass does not add to greenhouse gas emissions because it
does not release any additional amount. Instead, it released the same amount of gas
that was captured and converted to other forms during its growth.
5. What are the two types of moisture content in biomass?

a) Intrinsic and extrinsic
b) Higher heating value and lower heating value
c) Lower heating value and extrinsic
d) Higher heating value and intrinsic
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Moisture content is one of the main properties of biomass. The two
types of moisture content are intrinsic moisture content and extrinsic moisture
content. Heating value talks about the total amount of energy available in the fuel.
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6. What is intrinsic moisture content in biomass?

a) Moisture content of the material with the moisture content in atmosphere
b) Moisture content of the material without the influence of weather effects
c) Moisture content of the material with the influence of weather effects
d) Moisture content of the material without the moisture content in atmosphere
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Intrinsic moisture content is the moisture content in biomass without
the influence of weather effects. It does not depend on the amount of moisture
content present in the atmosphere.
7. What is extrinsic moisture content?

d) Moisture content evaporated to the atmosphere
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Extrinsic moisture content of biomass is the moisture content due to
influence of weather conditions. It is essentially the amount of moisture absorbed
from the atmosphere due to changes in weather.
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8. Which of the following is a problem for using biomass as a source of energy?

a) Less moisture content in the atmosphere during time of harvesting
b) Low calorific value
c) Low intrinsic silica content
d) High moisture content in the surroundings
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: High moisture content or an increase in moisture content is a problem
for biomass combustion. This is because, the amount of energy that can be used for
applications is significantly reduced due to absorption of moisture. The heat used to
burn the fuel will first be used to evaporate the water vapour thereby leading to
excess use of resources.
9. What is calorific value (CV) of a material?

a) Amount of energy content or heat value released by the material when burnt in air
b) Amount of energy content or heat value released by the material when burnt in
water
c) Amount of energy content or heat value absorbed by the material when burnt in air
d) Amount of energy content or heat value absorbed by the material when burnt in
water
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Calorific value is another important property that indicates how good is
the biomass. It is the amount of energy content or heat value released by the
material when burnt in air. Burning or combustion is usually not done in water.
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10. What is the volatile matter in biomass?
a) The content in biomass that remains after heating
b) The content in biomass that is driven off as gas by heating
c) The biomass that is being heated
d) The moisture content in biomass
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Volatile matter is that content in biomass which is driven off as gad by
heating. It also includes the water vapour. Moisture content present in biomass is
not volatile matter by itself. When it turns into water vapour, it can be called as
volatile matter.
11. What is fixed carbon content in biomass?

a) The carbon content in biomass
b) The carbon content that is fixed in biomass and cannot be changed
c) The content in biomass that is driven off as gas by heating
d) The mass that remains after the releases of volatile matter on heating the biomass
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Fixed carbon content is the mass that remains after the releases of
volatile matter on heating the biomass. Since it is fixed and not released as gas, it is
called fixed carbon content.
12. A biomass feedstock with a high cellulose/hemi-cellulose is needed to produce

ethanol.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For the production of ethanol, a biomass feedstock with a high
cellulose/hemi-cellulose content is chosen. This is because it provides a high l/t yield.
13. Ash is the residue content is the solid residue after chemical breakdown of
biomass.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The chemical breakdown either by thermo-chemical or bio-chemical
processes of biomass produces a solid residue. When the residue is produced by
combustion in air, it is called ash.
14. In a bio-chemical process, the solid residue represents ________ present in biomass.
a) the quantity of biodegradable carbon
b) the quantity of biodegradable potassium
c) the quantity of non-biodegradable carbon
d) the quantity of biodegradable sodium
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In a bio-chemical process, the solid residue represents the quantity of
non-biodegradable carbon present in biomass. It specifically talks about carbon and
not any other element.
15. Which of the following is most impacted by the bulk-density of the biomass as-
produced?
a) Calorific value
b) Storage of the fuel after processing
c) Heating value
d) Transportation and fuel storage costs
View Answer
Answer: d
1. Which of the following can be classified under solid biomass?

a) Agricultural residues
b) Waste water
c) Industrial effluents into rivers
d) Plastic
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Agricultural residues can be classified under solid biomass resource.
Waste water and polluted rivers are not solids. Plastic is not a biomass.
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2. What are energy crops?
a) Crops grown to remove insects
b) Crops grown to be used in generating energy
c) Crops grown to feed people
d) Crops that produce energy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Energy crops are crops that are grown with the specific intention to
generate energy. They don’t produce energy by themselves but they are used to
generate energy or serve as fuel. Eg. – bioethanol.
3. Which of the following are examples of energy crops?

a) Banyan
b) Mango
c) Herbaceous and woody
d) Apple and herbaceous
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Herbaceous and woody crops are examples of energy crops. Like
agricultural crops are grown to feed, energy crops are grown specifically to be used
as an energy resource.
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4. What are herbaceous crops?

a) Insecticides
b) Rice
c) Agricultural fertilizers
d) Agricultural byproducts
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Herbaceous crops are plants that do not have much wood and has
green and soft stems. Generally, they are agricultural byproducts like columbine.
Sometimes, crops like potatoes are solely grown to produce energy.
5. Which of the following are examples of woody biomass?

a) Fallen trees due to natural disasters
b) Mint
c) Columbine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Woody biomass are basically forestry byproducts, by product of
management and restoration of forests, etc. Fallen trees due to a natural disaster is
an example of woody biomass. Other examples are leaves, trunks, etc.
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6. Which of the following are examples of lipids?

a) Sugar
b) Palm oil
c) Glucose
d) Cellulose
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Palm oil is an example of lipids. Other examples are soybean oil,
rapeseed oil, wax, animal fat, etc. Glucose is an example of sugar.
7. Which of the following can be used to replenish nutrients in soil?

a) Steel
b) Soda
c) Biomass ash
d) Coal ash
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Biomass ash can be used as a soil amendment to help replenish
nutrients. Coal ash cannot be used for the same because it contains toxic metals.
Steel and soda are not used to replenish soil’s nutrients.
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8. Which of the following is an example of short rotation coppice?

a) Maize
b) Wheat
c) Corn
d) Willow
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Willow is an example of short rotation coppice (SRC). It is a forestry
residue. Corn, maize and wheat are examples of herbaceous crops.
9. Algae are used as feedstocks for bioenergy.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Algae are used as feedstocks for bioenergy. They use sunlight to create
biomass containing key components like lipids, proteins and carbohydrates. They
include microalgae, macroalgae like seaweed and cyanobacteria or blue-green algae.
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10. Which of the following found in municipal waste can be used as biomass?
a) Agricultural residue
b) Kitchen waste
c) Residential garbage
d) Plastic covers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Kitchen waste can be used as a resource for biomass. Residential
garbage and plastic covers cannot be used directly. Agricultural residue is not found
in municipal waste.
11. Land fill is an example of wet waste.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Land fill is an example of wet waste. It consists of residential wastes,
industrial wastes and other wastes from sewage. It also consists of manure in the
form of animal wastes.
12. __________ wastes are used as methane boosters.
a) Agricultural
b) Forestry
c) Industrial
d) Municipal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Many industrial wastes are used as methane boosters due to their
extremely high methane potential. Agricultural, municipal and forestry wastes are
not suitable for methane boosters.
13. __________ biomass is used for waste water treatment.

a) Agricultural
b) Industrial
c) Municipal
d) Aquatic
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Aquatic biomass in the form of micro-organisms are used for waste
water treatment. They operate in anaerobic environment during the treatment.
14. Which of the following parameters is used to define sustainability of biogas

feedstock?
a) Heating value
b) Calorific value
c) C:N ratio
d) Thermal voltage
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Carbon to nitrogen (C:N) ratio is one of the most important parameters
used to talk about the sustainability of the biogas feedback. Heating and calorific
value are parameters to describe the available fuel in a given biomass.
15. Which of the following is not a biomass resource?

a) Animal wastes
b) Forestry residue
c) Agricultural residue
d) Sunlight
View Answer
Answer: d
1. Which of the following technologies are used to convert biomass into useful energy
forms?
a) Bio-chemical process
b) Galvanization
c) Doping
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The three main technologies used to convert biomass into useful forms
of energy are bio-chemical, thermo-chemical and physio-chemical processes.
Galvanization is a process used to prevent corrosion of metals. Doping and
photoelectric effect are not related to biomass conversion technologies.
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2. What are the four main types of thermo-chemical processes?

a) Galvanization, photovoltaic effect, chemo-mechanical effect, pyrolysis
b) Pyrolysis, gasification, combustion, hydrothermal processing
c) Pyrolysis, gasification, combustion, doping
d) Photovoltaic effect, gasification, combustion, hydrothermal processing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The four main types of thermo-chemical processes are pyrolysis,
gasification, combustion and hydrothermal processing. Photovoltaic effect, doping,
chemo-mechanical effect and galvanization are not related to biomass conversion
technologies.
3. What are the two primary processes under bio-chemical conversion?

a) Photosynthesis and respiration
b) Photosynthesis and photovoltaic
c) Anaerobic digestion and fermentation
d) Anaerobic digestion and photosynthesis
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Anaerobic digestion and fermentation are two primary processes under
bio-chemical conversion. Photosynthesis, photovoltaic and respiration are not
related to biomass conversion technologies.
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4. Which of the following is an example of physio-chemical conversion technique to

convert biomass into usable forms of energy?
a) Pyrolysis
b) Gasification
c) Anaerobic Digestion
d) Extraction with esterification
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Physio-chemical process mainly consists of extraction with
esterification. Pyrolysis and gasification are thermo-chemical conversion. Anaerobic
digestion is a bio-chemical conversion process.
5. Which of the following is a product of pyrolysis of biomass?

a) Producer gas
b) Steel
d) Sodium
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The output is producer gas. Steel and sodium are not the outputs of any
pyrolysis process. Agricultural residue is a type of biomass.
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6. Pyrolysis occurs in the presence of _______ oxygen.

a) large amounts of
b) absence of
c) extremely large amount of
d) low amounts of
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In pyrolysis, the biomass is subjected to high temperatures in the
absence of oxygen. The output of pyrolysis is producer gas which is a mixture of
flammable gases (primarily CO and H2) and non-flammable gases (primarily nitrogen
and carbon dioxide).
7. Which of the following best indicates the process of gasification?

a) Biomass → carbon dioxide and water → producer gas and charcoal → carbon
monoxide and hydrogen
b) Biomass → carbon monoxide and hydrogen → carbon dioxide and water →
producer gas and charcoal
c) Biomass → producer gas and charcoal → carbon dioxide and water → carbon
d) Producer gas and charcoal → carbon dioxide and water → carbon monoxide and
hydrogen → biomass
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Gasification basically converts all the available biomass to “gas”. In the
first stage, the biomass is partially combusted to form producer gas and charcoal
which is then sent to the second stage. In the second stage, the carbon dioxide and
water produced in the first stage is chemically reduced by charcoal to form carbon
monoxide and hydrogen.
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8. Which of the following is best suited for hydrothermal processing?

a) Forestry byproducts
b) Wheat
c) Corn
d) Sewage sludge
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Feedstocks with high moisture content like sewage sludge are suitable
for hydrothermal processing. Agricultural residue like wheat and corn and forestry
byproducts are not best suited for hydrothermal processing.
9. What is hydrothermal processing?

a) Heating aqueous slurries of biomass at high pressures to produce products of
greater energy density
b) Heating aqueous slurries of biomass at high temperatures to produce products of
lower energy density
c) Heating aqueous slurries of biomass at low pressures to produce products of greater
energy density
d) Heating aqueous slurries of biomass at low temperatures to produce products of
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrothermal processing is a biomass conversion technique that
involves heating of aqueous slurries of biomass at high pressures to produce
products of greater energy density. Feedstocks with high moisture content like
manures are best suited for this process.
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10. What is anaerobic digestion?

a) Produces biogas by heating the biomass
b) Produces biogas using micro-organisms operating in anaerobic conditions
c) Produces biogas by subjecting the biomass to high pressures
d) Produces biogas using micro-organisms operating in aerobic conditions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Anaerobic digestion is a biological process of breaking down the
biomass to produce products with high energy density – biogas. It occurs in
anaerobic conditions. Waste water treatment plants commonly use anaerobic
conditions to treat the influent.
11. Catalytic liquefaction occurs at _________

a) low temperature, low pressure
b) high temperature, high pressure
c) low temperature, high pressure
d) high temperature, low pressure
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Catalytic liquefaction is a thermo-chemical biomass conversion process.
It requires low temperature and high pressure and the process is carried out in liquid
phase under the presence of a catalyst.
12. Sugarcane is used to produce ethanol.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: One of the most commonly used feedstocks to produce ethanol is
sugarcane. This is very popular in developing due to the high productivity of
sugarcane when supplied with sufficient water.
13. Which of the following are used to produce ethanol when water is not available in
plenty?
a) Sugarcane
b) Wheat
c) Corn
d) Sorghum
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Cassava or sorghum is commonly used to produce ethanol when water
is not available in plenty. Sugarcane is used when there is no limitation on water
content. Wheat and corn do not produce ethanol.
14. Which of the following are commonly used in fermentation process?

a) Yeast
b) Bacteria
c) Mushrooms
d) Virus
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yeast is commonly used in fermentation process. Fermentation is the
process converting biomass to alcohol and carbon dioxide.
15. Fermentation is aerobic process.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
1. What are the two main products of anaerobic digestion?
a) Biogas and bio-fertilizer
b) Waste water
c) Producer gas
d) Syngas
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The two main products of anaerobic digestion are biogas and bio-
fertilizer. Wastewater is the input to the anaerobic digester. Producer gas is
produced during pyrolysis.
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2. Which of the following organic compounds are present in biogas?

a) Butane gas and carbon dioxide
b) Methane gas and carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Sodium
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Methane gas and carbon dioxide are present in biogas. Butane is not
present in biogas. Nitrogen and sodium are not organic compounds.
3. Which of the following are considered as contaminant gases in biogas?

a) Chlorine
b) Fluorine
c) Nitrogen, hydrogen and carbon monoxide
d) Methane gas and carbon dioxide
View Answer
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4. Which of the following products of anaerobic digestion consists of organic humus

and nutrients?
a) Biogas
b) Chlorine
c) Top soil
d) Bio-fertilizer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Bio-fertilizer is a product of anaerobic digestion consisting of organic
humus and nutrients for plantation. Top soil and chlorine are not products of
anaerobic digestion. Biogas does not consist of organic humus.
5. Which of the following are used to store manure?

a) Silos and cellars
b) Plastic bottles
c) Glass bottles
d) Tin cans
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Silos and cellars are used to store manure. Manure bags are specifically
designed to store manure. Plastic bottles, glass bottles and tin cans are not used to
store manure.
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6. What are the three methods of pre-treatment of influent for anaerobic digestion?
a) Galvanization, pyrolysis and pre-heating
b) Mechanical treatment, pre-heating and thermal treatment
c) Galvanization, pyrolysis and thermal treatment
d) Pyrolysis, thermal treatment and pre-heating
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mechanical treatment, pre-heating and thermal treatment are the three
different pre-treatment techniques of anaerobic digestion. Galvanization is a process
to prevent corrosion of metals. Pyrolysis is a thermo-chemical process and not a bio-
chemical process.
7. Thermo-chemical processes have higher efficiencies than bio-chemical processes.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermo-chemical processes do have higher efficiencies than bio-
chemical processes. In fact, they also have quicker reaction times and superior ability
to decompose most organic compounds.
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8. Which of the following is best suited to decompose lignin?

a) Anerobic digestion
b) Fermentation
c) Thermo-chemical conversion techniques
d) Bio-chemical conversion techniques
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Thermo-chemical conversion techniques can decompose lignin. When
compared with bio-chemical conversion techniques, they have superior ability to
decompose most organic compounds. Anaerobic digestion and fermentation are bio-
chemical processes.
9. Which of the following are types of pyrolysis?

a) Flash and ablative
b) Intermediate and anaerobic digestion
d) Fermentation and intermediate
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flash and ablative are types of pyrolysis. Anaerobic digestion and
fermentation are bio-chemical processes and are not types of pyrolysis.
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10. Bio-oil has double the heating value of conventional fuel oil.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bio-oil has half the heating value of conventional fuel oil. It is produced
after condensing the hot vapors in fast pyrolysis.
11. What are the three types of hydrothermal processing of biomass?
a) Hydrothermal liquefaction, hydrothermal gasification and ablate pyrolysis
b) Hydrothermal liquefaction, hydrothermal gasification and fast pyrolysis
c) Hydrothermal liquefaction, hydrothermal gasification and hydrothermal
carbonisation
d) Intermediate pyrolysis, hydrothermal gasification and ablate pyrolysis
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydrothermal liquefaction, hydrothermal gasification and hydrothermal
carbonisation are the three types of hydrothermal processes. Intermediate, fast and
ablate are the types of pyrolysis.
12. Which of the following is the mildest hydrothermal process?

a) Hydrothermal gasification
b) Hydrothermal liquefaction
c) Ablate
d) Hydrothermal carbonisation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydrothermal carbonisation is the mildest of the three hydrothermal
processes. Ablate is not a hydrothermal process. It is a type of pyrolysis.
13. Which of the following hydrothermal processes produces syngas?

c) Fermentation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrothermal gasification or supercritical water gasification (SCWG)
occurs temperatures greater than 375 degree Celsius and pressure above 200 bar. It
produces syngas. Fermentation is not a type of hydrothermal process. It is a bio-
chemical process.
14. Hydrothermal liquefaction produces _________

a) syngas
b) bio-crude
c) bio-oil
d) producer gas
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydrothermal liquefaction produces bio-crude which can be distillated
to obtain petroleum products. Bio-oil is produced in fast pyrolysis. Producer gas is
produced in pyrolysis and syngas is produced in hydrothermal gasification.
15. Which of the following produces a solid hydro-char?

a) Catalytic liquefaction
b) Carbonisation
c) Hydrothermal gasification
View Answer
Answer: d
1. What is unique about the gasification agent entering in a fluidized gasifier?

a) Enters from bottom at a relatively fast rate as compared to a fixed bed gasifier
b) Enters from bottom at a relatively slow rate as compared to a fixed bed gasifier
c) Enters from top at a relatively fast rate as compared to a fixed bed gasifier
d) Enters from top at a relatively slow rate as compared to a fixed bed gasifier
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a fluidized gasifier, the gasification agent enters the bed from the
bottom at a relatively faster rate and exits from the top. This type of gasification
features a uniform temperature distribution in the bed zone.
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2. What ensures consistency of temperature in fluidized gasifier?

a) Gasification agent
b) Air-fluidized bed material
c) Biomass
d) Air non-permeable bed material
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fluidized gasifier features a uniform temperature distribution in the bed
zone. This is achieved using an air-fluidized bed material. Biomass and gasification
agent do not contribute towards the temperature consistency.
3. What are the three types of fluidized gasifiers used?
a) Single fluidized bed, dual fluidized bed and bubbling fluidized bed
b) Straight fluidized bed, dual fluidized bed and bubbling fluidized bed
c) Circulating fluidized bed, dual fluidized bed and bubbling fluidized bed
d) Single fluidized bed, dual fluidized bed and straight fluidized bed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Circulating fluidized bed, dual fluidized bed and bubbling fluidized bed
are the three main types of fluidized gasifiers used. They are mainly used to achieve
a uniform temperature distribution.
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4. How is the temperature maintained in a bubbling fluidized bed?

a) Biomass
b) Gasification agent
c) A constant ratio of biomass and gasification agent
d) Manipulating the ratio of biomass and gasification agent
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A bubbling fluidized bed gasifier applies inlet from the bottom and
moves the bed of fine-grained materials. The temperature is maintained by
manipulating the ratio of biomass and gasification agent.
5. What is the temperature range in a bubbling fluidized bed?

a) Between 700 and 900 degree Celsius
b) Less than 500 degree Celsius
c) Above 1000 degree Celsius
d) Between 100 and 200 degree Celsius
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The temperature range in a bubbling fluidized bed gasifier is between
700 and 900 degree Celsius. This distribution is achieved by manipulating the ratio of
biomass and gasification agent.
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6. What is the biomass decomposed to in a bubbly fluidized bed?
a) Producer gas
b) Char and gas products with a low tar percentage
c) Char and gas products with a high tar percentage
d) Char with a low tar percentage
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The biomass is decomposed to char and other gaseous products with a
low percentage of tar. Since this is a gasifier, one of the products has to be a gas. So,
the option without gaseous products is incorrect.
7. What are the two main units in a circulating fluidized bed?

a) Bubbling fluidized bed and dual fluidized bed
b) Bubbling fluidized bed and gasifier unit
c) Circulating unit and gasifier unit
d) Circulating unit and dual fluidized bed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The two main units in a circulating fluidized bed are circulating unit and
gasifier unit. Bubbling fluidized bed and dual fluidized bed are types of fluidized
gasifier. They are not a part of circulating fluidized bed gasifier.
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8. Where can the ash and hot gas be separated in a circulating fluidized bed gasifier?
a) Gasifier unit
b) Circulation unit
c) Tornado separator
d) Cyclone separator
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Ash and hot gas can be separated in the cyclone separator. The bed
material and the char is circulated between the reaction chamber and the cyclone
separator where the separation takes place.
9. The two separate fluidized beds in a dual fluidized bed gasifier are used for pyrolysis
and combustion process.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A dual fluidized bed gasifier consists of two separated fluidized beds.
One of the beds is used for pyrolysis and the other is used for combustion.
Generally, the first bed is used for pyrolysis.
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10. Which of the following best indicates the process in a dual fluidized bed gasifier?
a) Combustion reactor → pyrolysis reactor
b) Pyrolysis reactor → combustion reactor
c) Evaporation reactor → condensation reactor
d) Combustion reactor → condensation reactor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The first bed in a dual fluidized bed gasifier is used for pyrolysis. The
second bed is used for combustion. The second reactor provides heat by burning
char provided from the first reactor.
11. What are the two types of entrained flow gasifiers?

a) Bubbling fluidized gasifier and dual fluidized gasifier
b) Bubbling fluidized gasifier and top-fed gasifier
c) Top-fed gasifier and side-fed gasifier
d) Side-fed gasifier and dual fluidized gasifier
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The two main types of entrained flow gasifiers are top-fed gasifier and
side-fed gasifier. Bubbling fluidized bed and dual fluidized bed gasifiers are fluidized
bed gasifiers and not entrained flow gasifiers.
12. Which of the following gasifiers is suitable for integrated gasification combined
cycle (IGCC)?
a) Fluidized gasifier
b) Fixed bed gasifier
c) Downdraft gasifier
d) Entrain flow gasifier
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Entrail flow gasifiers are suitable for IGCC. They are applied in large-
scale gasification and are widely used for coal, biomass and refinery residues.
Downdraft is a type of fixed bed gasifier which is not suitable for IGCC.
13. Which of the following is a problem due to tar formation in gasifiers?

a) Equipment blockages
b) High system efficiency
c) Improved quality of gas
d) Reduction in maintenance
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Tar formation in a gasifier leads to equipment blockage, lower system
efficiency and increased maintenance. The most important problem is that it
contaminates the gas and reduces its quality.
14. Which of the following is a component of tar?

a) Sodium
b) Benzene
c) Chlorine
d) Nickel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tar is generally composed of carbon compounds like benzene,
naphthalene, single-ring aromatic hydrocarbons, toluene, etc. It does not contain of
non-carbon materials like sodium, chlorine and nickel.
15. Tar is removed by choosing the appropriate catalyst.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following is a product of biomass gasification?

a) Hydrogen
b) Steel
c) Carbon (solid)
d) Iron
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Biomass gasification is process that converts biomass into gases in a
controlled amount of oxygen or partial combustion. Hydrogen is a product of
biomass gasification. Steel, carbon (solid) and iron are not gases.
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2. What is water-gas shift reaction?

a) Carbon dioxide + water → Carbon monoxide + Hydrogen + small heat
b) Carbon monoxide + water → Carbon dioxide + Hydrogen + small heat
c) Carbon dioxide + water + heat → Carbon monoxide + Hydrogen
d) Carbon monoxide + water + heat → Carbon dioxide + Hydrogen
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: carbon monoxide + water → carbon dioxide + hydrogen + small heat is
the water-gas shift reaction. It is an exothermic reaction as heat is released and not
used.
3. Which of the following temperature ranges are suitable for biomass gasification?
a) Above 1000 degree Celsius
b) Between 500 and 600 degree Celsius
c) Between 700 and 1000 degree Celsius
d) Less than 500 degree Celsius
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The most suitable temperature range for biomass gasification is
between 700 and 1000 degree Celsius. The reactant is partially oxidized to produce a
mixture of gaseous products including hydrocarbons. Sometimes, steam is also used
as gasification agents.
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4. What are the three main types of gasifiers?

a) Fixed bed, hydrothermal liquefaction and carbonisation
b) Fixed bed, fluidized gasifiers and carbonisation
c) Carbonisation, liquefaction and entrained flow gasifiers
d) Fixed bed, fluidized gasifiers and entrained flow gasifiers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Fixed bed, fluidized and entrained flow gasifiers are the three main
types of gasifiers used in biomass gasification. Liquefaction and carbonisation are
not gasifying techniques.
5. Biomass is moved at a very slow rate in fixed bed gasifier.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Biomass is moved at a very slow rate in the fixed bed gasifier. Hence, it
is also called as moving bed reactor and is operated around 1000 degree Celsius.
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6. How is the biomass material and gasification agent fed into an updraft gasifier?
a) Biomass from top, gasifying agent from top
b) Biomass from top, gasifying agent from bottom
c) Biomass from bottom, gasifying agent from top
d) Biomass from bottom, gasifying agent from bottom
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In an updraft gasifier, the biomass material is fed from the top of the
reactor and the gasification agent is fed from the bottom of the reactor. As the
gasifying agent flows through the biomass, gas is generated and exhausted from the
top.
7. What is the contaminant in the product gas that is withdrawn from a low
temperature zone in a fixed bed gasifier?
a) Gold
b) Platinum
c) Tar
d) Nickel
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The hot gas coming from the bottom dries the biomass near the top of
the vessel and provides heat for pyrolysis of the descending biomass. Along with
providing heat, it also embeds tar into it. When the product gas is removed from a
low temperature zone, it consists of tar which is a contaminant.
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8. The product gas removed from the low temperature zone undergoes _______ before
being used as fuel in combustion for electricity generator.
a) liquefaction
b) condensation
c) evaporation
d) cleaning
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The product gas removed from the low temperature zone undergoes
cleaning. This is to remove contaminants like tar from the gas so that it can be used
as fuel in combustion engine for electricity generator.
9. How is the biomass material and gasification agent fed into a downdraft gasifier?
c) Biomass from bottom, gasifying agent from left side
d) Biomass from top, gasifying agent from right side
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a downdraft generator, the biomass and the gasifying agent is fed
into the vessel from the top. Air or oxygen is then fed into the system
homogeneously at the so called throated area.
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10. The tar content of the product gas in downdraft gasifier is _______ updraft gasifier.
a) equal to
b) less than
c) greater than
d) cleaner than
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The tar content of the product gas in a downdraft gasifier is lower than
updraft gasifier. However, the particulate content of the gas is higher.
11. Which of the following applications is the product gas from downdraft gasifier
suitable for?
a) Fuel for combustion engine
b) Fuel for burning wood
c) Fuel for internal combustion engine
d) Fuel for household purposes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The product gas from downdraft gasifier is suitable for applications like
fuel for internal combustion engine to generate electricity. This is because it consists
of less amount of tar and more amount of particulate matter as compared to the
product gas from an updraft gasifier.
12. Which of the following applications can the producer gas be used for?
a) Producing nickel
b) Producing copper
c) Producing glucose
d) Producing methanol
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Producer gas can be used to produce methanol in an economically
viable manner. Methanol is used as fuel for heat engines as well as feedstock for
industries.
13. Which of the following are keys to design a gasifier?

a) Reducing biomass to charcoal and converting charcoal at suitable temperature to
produce carbon monoxide and hydrogen
b) Oxidizing biomass to charcoal and converting charcoal at suitable temperature to
c) Reducing biomass to charcoal and converting charcoal at suitable temperature to
produce carbon dioxide and hydrogen
d) Oxidizing biomass to charcoal and converting charcoal at suitable temperature to
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The key to gasifier design is to create conditions such that biomass is
reduced to charcoal and the charcoal converted to carbon monoxide and hydrogen
at suitable temperatures. It is important to note that biomass is reduced and not
oxidized.
14. How does air enter and exit in a cross-draft gasifier?

a) Air enters from one of the sides and exits from the top
b) Air enters from one side and exits from the other
c) Air enters from one of the sides and exits from the bottom
d) Air enters from the bottom and exits from the top
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a cross-draft gasifier, air enters from one of the sides and exits from
the other. Cross-draft gasifiers are compactly constructed and require low
maintenance.
15. Ash sticks to the side in a cross-draft gasifier.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
1. Which of the following is a substrate for biogas production?

a) Municipal and residential waste
b) E-waste
c) Metallic waste
d) Gaseous effluents
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Municipal and residential waste is a good substrate for biogas
production. E-waste and metallic waste do not consist of carbon compounds.
Gaseous effluents are not used to produce biogas.
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2. Which of the following is a preferred substrate for biogas production? Note that TS
stands for total solids.
a) Less than 1% TS
b) 20-40% TS
c) 1-5% TS
d) 5-10% TS
View Answer
3. What are the categories for organic dry matter on the basis of total solids (TS)?
a) Low grade, medium grade, high grade and fixed bed
b) Low grade, medium grade, fluidized bed and fixed bed
c) Low grade, medium grade, high grade and solids
d) Downdraft, circulation fluidized bed, high grade and fixed bed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The categorization on the basis of TS are low grade with less than 1%,
medium grade with TS between 1and 5%, high grade with TS between 5 and 20% and
finally solids with TS between 20 and 40%. Fixed bed and fluidized bed are types of
gasifiers.
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4. Which among the following is the best source for methane production?
a) Metallic scrap
b) E-waste
c) Plastic waste
d) Water hyacinth
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Water hyacinth is the best source for methane production in the given
options. It is an aquatic weed with huge biomass, high C/N ratio and lignin content.
Thus, yielding high amounts of methane.
5. Which of the following is used to produce biogas from biomass?

a) Anaerobic treatment
b) Aerobic treatment
c) Fermentation
d) Pyrolysis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Anaerobic treatment of municipal and residential waste is used to
produce biomass. Fermentation is used to produce ethanol and pyrolysis is used to
produce gaseous products like hydrogen.
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6. Which of the following best indicates the steps of anaerobic digestion?

a) Waste water feed → biogas storage → generator → biogas
b) Waste water feed → digester → biogas → biogas storage → generator
c) Generator → waste water feed → digester → biogas → biogas storage
d) Waste water feed → biogas → digester → biogas storage → generator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Waste water feed is first sent into the anaerobic digester. The waste
water is treated to produce biogas which is then stored in a special storage. The fuel
is then used to produce electricity by driving a generator or for any other application.
7. Which of the following best indicates the steps inside an anaerobic digester?
a) Hydrolysis → methanogenesis → acetogenesis → acidogenesis
b) Hydrolysis → acidogenesis → methanogenesis → acetogenesis
c) Hydrolysis → acidogenesis → acetogenesis → methanogenesis
d) Methanogenesis → acidogenesis → acetogenesis → hydrolysis
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The waste is first hydrolyzed and then acidized. After acidizing, the
product is then used to produce acetates which is further used to create methane in
the final stage. Methanogenesis is the process of creating methane.
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8. What occurs in the hydrolysis step of anaerobic digestion?

a) Large polymers combine with water molecules
b) Large polymers break down to form water molecules
c) Small polymers combine to form large polymers with the help of water molecules
d) Large polymers break down into amino acids, fatty acids and simple sugars
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydrolysis is used to break large polymers in the presence of an acid
catalyst. Large polymers present in the waste break down into amino acids, fatty
acids and simple sugars.
9. Acidogenesis further break down the molecules received from hydrolysis in

anaerobic digestion.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In acidogenesis, microorganisms further break down the molecules
after hydrolysis. This is because these molecules are still too large and cannot be
used to generate methane. The microorganisms produce an acidic environment for
the break down to occur.
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10. Which of the following is produced in acetogenesis?

a) Ethanol
b) Acetate
c) Acetone
d) Ketone
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In acetogenesis, a derivative of acetic acid called acetate is produced
from carbon and other energy sources. This occurs in the presence of
microorganisms called acetogens.
11. Which of the following is produced apart from acetates in acetogenesis step in
anaerobic digestion?
a) Carbon monoxide
b) Charcoal
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Acetone
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Apart from acetates, carbon dioxide and hydrogen are also produced in
acetogenesis. It is important to note that acetic acid is first produced which is then
converted into acetates.
12. What are the two ways to produce methane in methanogenesis step?
a) Converting carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide into methane
b) Converting carbon monoxide and acetic acid (or acetate) into methane
c) Converting methane into carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
d) Converting carbon dioxide and acetic acid (or acetate) into methane
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Methanogenesis is the process of producing methane by methanogens.
In anaerobic digestion, methanogenesis occurs by converting carbon dioxide and
acetic acid (or acetate) into methane.
13. Methanogens can directly use the products of hydrolysis to produce methane.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Methanogens cannot directly use the products of hydrolysis to produce
methane. The molecules are still too large and need to be broken down. This occurs
in the acidogenesis step.

a) Carbon monoxide and hydrogen
b) Methane and carbon dioxide
c) Methane and carbon monoxide
d) Hydrogen and carbon dioxide
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The purpose of anaerobic digestion is to convert the municipal waste
(biomass) into biogas. So, the two main products are methane and carbon dioxide.
Carbon monoxide is not the main product.
15. Gases emitted from the digester indicates the amount of biomass left to be broken
down.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?

a) Fossil fuels
b) Sun
c) Biomass
d) Wind
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fossil fuels are not a renewable source of energy because they take
millions of years to form. Sun, biomass and wind are renewable sources because
they are virtually infinite.
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2. Which of the following is a thermal application of solar energy?

a) Photovoltaic
b) Concentrating collectors
c) Solar cell
d) Electricity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Concentrating collectors are a thermal application of solar energy.
Photovoltaic and solar cells convert sunlight into electrical current thereby
generating electricity.

a) A device that generates current
b) A device that collects and stores sunlight
c) A device that collects and concentrates sunlight
d) A device that filters sunlight
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A solar collector is a device that collects and/or concentrates the
incoming sunlight for heating purposes. A solar water heater is an example of solar
collector. A device that filters sunlight is called an optical filter.
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4. What is a non-concentrating solar collector?

a) Collects and stores sunlight
b) Collects and concentrates sunlight
c) Reflects sunlight
d) Directly uses the incoming global radiation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A non-concentrating solar collector directly uses the incoming global
radiation without concentrating it. The simples design is the flat plate collector. Since
ideality does not exist, every practical collector reflects sunlight due to
manufacturing problems.
5. What is a concentrating solar collector?

a) Collects and concentrates sunlight on an absorber
b) Collects and concentrates sunlight on a reflector
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A concentrating solar collector concentrates the incident sunlight onto
an absorber. The net intensity on the absorber is increased by concentrating sunlight
through multiple collectors collectively.
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6. What are the applications of concentrating solar collectors?

a) Domestic water heating
b) Desalination plants
c) Linear focusing
d) Point focusing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Desalination plants use concentrating solar collectors for heating
purposes. Linear and point focusing are types of concentrating solar collectors.
Domestic water heating is generally done by non-concentrating solar collectors.
7. How does geothermal energy work?
a) Uses water from the earth
b) Uses potential energy
c) Uses heat from the core of earth
d) Uses heat from atmosphere
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Geothermal energy works by using heat from the core of earth.
Geothermal plants are generally set up near hot springs to generate electricity from
the readily available steam.
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8. Which of the following do heat pumps use in geothermal energy?

a) Earth’s variable temperature
b) Variable electricity
c) Constant electricity
d) Earth’s constant temperature
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Geothermal heat pumps use the constant temperature of earth as an
exchange medium for heat. Although seasonal changes vary the atmospheric
temperature, the temperatures below the earth’s surface remains relatively constant.
9. Which of the following is an application of hydro energy?

a) Flood risk management
b) Generating wind
c) Manufacturing
d) Environment damage
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flood risk management is an application of hydro energy as the water is
stored or emptied according to the situation. Manufacturing and wind generation are
not applications of hydro energy. Environment damage due to dams is its
disadvantage.
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10. Hydro energy provide water for irrigation
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydro energy is used to provide water for irrigation. Canals are
constructed to divert rivers to farms. Also, hydro energy is used to generate
electricity for irrigation pumps.
11. Why are renewable resources preferred?

a) Cheap
b) Profitable
c) Release little greenhouse gases
d) Are freely available
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Renewable resources of energy are preferred because they release very
little greenhouse gases. The shift towards renewable resources is due to two main
reasons – depletion of fossil fuels and rise of earth’s temperature due to greenhouse
gases.
12. Which of the following is a thermal application of biomass?

a) Freezing
b) Anaerobic Digestion
c) Fermentation
d) Combustion
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Biomass is being increasingly used as fuel by many small scale
industries. They burn the biomass to generate heat which is further used to perform
various operations. Anaerobic digestion and fermentation do not release heat.
13. Why is biomass gasification useful?

a) To get gases which can be used as fuel
b) To reduce solid waste
c) To increase solid waste
d) Biomass gasifiers are economical
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: One of the main uses of biomass gasification is the generation of
various gases. Each gas is collected and sold to the right vendor. Gases like hydrogen
are used as fuel while nitrogen is used in chemical industries.
14. Which of the following use producer gas from biomass?

a) Hydrothermal plant
b) Paper and textile industry
c) Wind plants
d) Fuel cells
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Paper and textile industry use fuel-fired furnaces like dryers that run on
producer gas generated from biomass gasification. Wind plants, fuel cells and
hydrothermal plants do not use producer gas.
15. Biomass is used to produce electricity.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. How is the heat inside earth restored?

a) Radioactive decay of elements
b) Sun restores the heat
c) Hot steam is pumped into earth
d) Cosmic rays
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Earth’s heat is generated and restored by the radioactive decay of
radioactive elements. These elements are found in the mantle and core. Pumping
hot steam, sun’s heat and cosmic rays do not contribute to restoration of earth’s
heat.
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2. What is the increase in temperature per kilometer starting from the crust?
a) 15 degree Celsius
b) 17 – 30 degree Celsius
c) 100 degree Celsius
d) 50 – 87 degree Celsius
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The normal temperature gradient with respect to depth – increase in
the temperature per kilometer is 17 – 30 degree Celsius. It is 50 – 87 in degree F.
3. What is the earth’s core made up of?

a) Gamma rays
b) Nitrogen
c) Iron
d) Gold
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Earth’s core lies 4000 miles below the surface and consists of two layers.
The core is made up of solid iron and is surrounded by molted iron.
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4. Which of the following surrounds the earth’s core?

a) Mt. Everest
b) Crust
c) Hydrogen
d) Mantle
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The earth’s core is surrounded by mantle. It consists of rocks and
magma. It is about 1800 miles thick starting from the core.
5. What is continental drift?

a) Tectonic plates pushing against each other
b) Continents being pulled due to gravitational force
c) Continents being pulled due to nuclear force
d) Tectonic plates expanding
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The earth’s crust is not a uniform layer like the shell of an egg. It is made
up of tectonic plates. These plates push against each other at the rate of 1 inch per
year in a process called continental drift.
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6. Who initiated electricity generation from geothermal energy?

a) Indians
b) Italians
c) Americans
d) Africans
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hot springs were used for recreational and healing purposes in the
ancient times. However, the converting geothermal energy to electricity is a relatively
new concept. It was initiated by Italians in 1904.
7. Why did the first Geysers project in California fail?

a) Did not find geothermal site
b) Insufficient steam
c) Corrosion of equipment
d) Availability of pure steam
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The first Geysers project in California failed because of impurities in the
steam at the geothermal site. These impurities corroded and abraded the pipes and
turbines of the day.
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8. Which of the following countries hosts the largest geothermal field?

a) Iran
b) Italy
c) Australia
d) United States
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Geothermal energy is now used in more than 20 countries across the
globe. The largest geothermal field is hosted by United States. It is known as “The
Geysers” and is located in California. It is spread over 117 km 2 and consists of 22
power plants with a capacity of 1.5GW.
9. Which of the following is used to locate a geothermal site?

a) Drilling wells
b) Reflection
c) Seismograph
d) SONAR
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Drilling wells to measure underground temperature is a well known
method to locate geothermal sites. Reflection, seismograph and SONAR are not used
to locate geothermal site. In fact, seismograph detects earthquakes.
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10. Which of the following is the most probably location of geothermal site?
a) Grasslands
b) Volcanoes
c) Coasts
d) River beds
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Most active geothermal sites are located along major plate boundaries
where earthquakes and volcanoes are concentrated. Coasts, grasslands and river
beds hardly experience any volcanoes so they are not the most probable location.
11. Most of the geothermal activity occurs at ______

a) Ring of water
b) Mt. Everest
c) Ring of fire
d) Amsterdam
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Most of the geothermal activity occurs in an area called “Ring of Fire”. It
rims the Pacific Ocean and is bounded by Japan, the Philippines, the Aleutian Islands,
North America, Central America and South America.
12. Which of the following is the major drawback of geothermal energy?

a) Low initial cost
b) Low carbon dioxide production
c) High carbon dioxide production
d) Extremely location specific
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The major drawback of geothermal energy is its dependence on the
geothermal site. In fact, it is probably the most location specific energy source. Also,
the power plants are accused of causing mini tremors in the surrounding areas.
13. Geothermal energy has high initial cost.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Geothermal has a high initial cost because of the costs required to
locate the geothermal site. The cost of admission also includes construction of the
power plant at the site.
14. Which of the following gases is released by a geothermal site and power plant?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Sulphur
c) Iron
d) Steel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Geothermal sites and power plants are accused of releasing sulphur
and hydrogen sulfide. It has low carbon dioxide emissions. Iron and steel are not
gases.
15. Lord Kelvin invented the heat pump.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What are the types of geothermal energy resources?

a) Hydrothermal, geo-pressurised brines, hot dry rocks, magma
b) Hydrothermal, geo-pressurised brines, hot dry rocks, sun
c) Biomass, geo-pressurised brines, hot dry rocks
d) Wind, magma, geopressurised brines, hydrothermal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The four types of geothermal energy resources are hydrothermal,
geopressurised brines, hot dry rocks and magma, Biomass, sun and wind are not
types of geothermal energy resources.
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2. What are the forms of geothermal energy?

a) Liquid and solid
b) Liquid and vapour
c) Solid and Bose-Einstein condensate
d) Plasma and liquid
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Geothermal energy either comes in liquid form or in vapour form. They
are not solids. Bose-Einstein condensate and plasma are not forms of geothermal
energy. They are states of matter.
3. What is/are the ingredient in hydrothermal plants?

a) Water
b) Hot water
c) Hot water and steam
d) Steam and water
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Generally, the ingredients for hydrothermal plants are hot water and
steam. Both hot water and steam come together in a package. Steam cannot exists
without the water being hot.
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4. Which of the following naturally occurring heater is best responsible for the hot
water in a geothermal site?
a) Solar heater
b) Induction stove
c) Sunlight
d) Magma
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Magma is mainly responsible for heating the surrounding water and
generating steam in a geothermal site. Solar heater and induction stove are not
natural heaters. Sunlight does not the water in a geothermal site.
5. Which of the following affect the usage of hydrothermal resources?

a) Temperature and depth of the source
b) Temperature and location of the site
c) Location of the site and depth of the source
d) Type of water and steam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Temperature and depth of the source affect the application of
hydrothermal resource. It does not depend on the location of the site. Water and
steam do not have types.
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6. Which temperature range is most suitable for directly using the hydrothermal
resource? Note that “F” stands for Fahrenheit.
a) 100 – 150 degree F
b) 50 – 60 degree F
c) -100 – -90 degree F
d) -100 – 0 degree F
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The temperature range between 50 – 60 degree F is most suitable for
directly using the hydrothermal resource. Such sources are also called as low
temperature sources.
7. _________ directly use low temperature hydrothermal source.
a) Electricity generation
b) Waste treatment
c) Spas
d) Gas stove
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Spas directly use low temperature hydrothermal source. Other
examples are heating buildings and warming fish ponds. Gas stoves use LPG. Waste
treatment is not done using geothermal sources.
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8. Which of the following temperature ranges is most suitable to generate electricity

from hydrothermal resources? Note that “F” stands for Fahrenheit.
a) 100 – 150 degree F
c) -200 – -90 degree F
d) 300 – 700 degree F
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Electricity generation requires higher temperatures to run turbines. The
typical temperature range is between 300 to 700 degree F and can reach 1000
degree F as well.
9. Which of the following best indicates the electricity generation from dry steam?
a) Drilling well → steam → pipes → generator
b) Steam → drilling well → pipes → generator
c) Steam → pipes → drilling well → generator
d) Generator → steam → pipes → drilling well
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The steam is extracted from the drilling wells via pipes. So, the steam
flows through the pipes to run the turbines of generator thereby generating
electricity.
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10. Which of the following best indicates the electricity generation from hot water
geothermal source?
a) Drilling well → hot water → generator → steam
b) Drilling well → hot water → steam → generator
c) Generator → hot water → steam → drilling well
d) Hot water → steam → drilling well → generator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hot water geothermal reservoirs are the most common type. The hot
water flows from the drilling wells through the pipe. This hot water is then vaporized
to generate steam which in turn runs the turbines.
11. What is a binary cycle power plant?

a) Lower temperature hot water is used to cool a fluid which compresses
b) Higher temperature hot water is used to cool a fluid which compresses
c) Lower temperature hot water is used to heat a fluid which expands
d) Higher temperature hot water is used to heat a fluid which compresses
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A binary cycle power plant is used when the water is not sufficiently hot
enough. So, the lower temperature hot water is used to heat a fluid which in turn
expands when warmed.
12. Which of the following is used to run the turbine in a binary cycle power plant?
a) Fluid compressed due to hot water from the geothermal site
b) Hot water
c) Steam
d) Fluid expanded due to hot water from the geothermal site
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A binary cycle power plant uses the hot water from the geothermal site
to heat a fluid which in turn expands. The turbine is powered from the expanded and
pressurized fluid.
13. What are geopressurised resources?

a) Increased pressure in the geothermal reservoir
b) Increased temperature in the geothermal reservoir
c) Decreased temperature in the geothermal reservoir
d) Decreased pressure in the geothermal reservoir
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Geopressurized resources are formed when the geothermal reservoir is
trapped by an impermeable sedimentary cap rock. This is the reason for the increase
in pressure inside the reservoir.
14. The pressure inside a geothermal reservoir increases due to the weight of the
sediment layer.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The pressure inside a geothermal reservoir increases because of the
weight and the lack of permeability of the sediment layer. This is the same sediment
layer that traps the geothermal reservoir.
15. Why are geopressurized sites desirably?

a) Because they increase the energy required to pump the resource
b) Because they increase the temperature of the resource
c) Because they decrease the energy required to pump the resource
d) Because they decrease the temperature of the resource
View Answer
Answer: c
1. Which of the following is a type of high temperature geothermal resource?

a) Dry steam
b) Dry water
c) Wet steam
d) Water
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: High temperature hydrothermal resource is used to produce electricity.
The two main types of high temperature hydrothermal resources are dry steam and
hot water.
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2. Dry steam is _________ dominated.
a) liquid
b) vapour
c) solid
d) plasma
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Dry steam is a type of high temperature hydrothermal resource. It is
vapour dominated. It is mainly used to generate electricity.
3. Hot water is _________ dominated.

a) vapour
b) nitrogen
c) liquid
d) Bose-Einstein condensate
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hot water is liquid dominated high temperature hydrothermal resource.
Like dry steam, it is used to generate electricity. Unlike low temperature resources, it
cannot be used directly.
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4. Which of the following is also called as a flash steam plant?

a) Low temperature hydrothermal resource
b) Dry steam
c) Hydrogen
d) Hot water
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hot water is a high temperature hydrothermal resource. It is also called
as flash steam plant because the hot water is first converted to steam. This steam is
used to drive the turbines to generate electricity.
5. What is hot dry rock geothermal resource made of?

a) Granite
b) Soil
c) Solid carbon dioxide
d) Liquid nitrogen
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hot dry rock is made up of granite. It is a unique geothermal resource
that lacks stored fluid and has extremely low permeability. Fracture creation is
required for commercial applications.
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6. Which of the following fracture creation techniques is/are used in hot dry rock
geothermal resource?
a) Condensation and hydrofracking
b) Hydrofracking and hydroshearing
c) Hydroshearing and distillation
d) Hydrofracking and combustion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydrofracking and hydroshearing are the two commonly used fracture
creation techniques for practical applications hot dry rock. Condensation, distillation
and combustion are not fracture creation techniques.
7. What is the difference between enhanced geothermal system and hot dry rock?
a) Lack of fluid permeability
b) Fluid permeability
c) Presence of fluid
d) Presence of rocks
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The main difference between enhanced geothermal system and hot dry
rock is the presence of fluid. Enhanced geothermal system contains hot fluid but hot
dry rock does not or contains negligible amounts.
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8. What is the similarity between enhanced geothermal system and hot dry rock?
a) Magma
b) Presence of steam
d) Lack of fluid permeability
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The main similarity between the two is that both lack fluid permeability.
Magma is not the right option because it is present irrespective of the resource. In
fact, it heats the resource. Both the resources lack steam.
9. Enhanced geothermal resource is man-made.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Enhanced geothermal resource is a man-made reservoir. It is created
where there is hot rock but insufficient or little permeability of the fluid.
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10. Deep hydrothermal systems are found at a depth of ______

a) 1km
b) 2.5 – 5km
c) 10km
d) 1 – 2km
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Deep hydrothermal systems are found at a depth of 2.5 – 5km. The
surrounding regions do not have elevated geothermal temperature gradients and
the temperature range is between 120 – 140 degree Celsius.
11. What are deep hydrothermal systems?

a) Hot dry rock
b) Magma
c) Permeable and fluid saturated region
d) Impermeable and fluid saturated region
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Deep hydrothermal systems consists of permeable and saturated fluid
in the surrounding region at a depth of 2.5 – 5km below the earth. The region is
surrounded by magma and can be used to generate electricity.
12. Which of the following is responsible for the volcanic geothermal heat?
a) Water
b) Hot dry rock
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Supercritical water
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Supercritical water is responsible for the volcanic geothermal heat. The
energy obtained from this supercritical water is much higher than conventional
geothermal steam. Carbon dioxide does not contribute to any geothermal resource.
Hot dry rock is a geothermal resource found beneath earth’s surface and not near
volcanoes.
13. Supercritical water is a liquid.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Supercritical water is a unique state of water where it neither behaves
as a true liquid nor as a true gas. It is capable of generating upto 10 times more
power than conventional geothermal sources.
14. Where is geothermal energy from volcanoes being harvested?

a) United States
b) Iceland
c) Iran
d) Greenland
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Iceland is a nation built on about 130 volcanoes. It rests above a
divergent plate boundary which brings continuous supply of hot and fresh magma
from the mantle. Iceland Deep Drilling Project (IDDP) is the most famous amongst all
the other projects.
15. Geothermal power plants are very good sources for baseload power.
Note – Baseload power is power that electric utility companies must deliver all day
long.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following is a problem with a geothermal resource?

a) Noise pollution
b) Low greenhouse gas emission
c) Polluting water
d) Reversing damage to wildlife habitat
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Noise pollution is one of the major problems caused due to
establishment of a power plant near a geothermal resource. Also, the plant
continuously uses and reuses water for cooling thereby affecting the local fresh
water resources. It does not pollute water.
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2. Which of the following gases are released by a geothermal power plant?

a) Carbon
b) Sulphur
c) Sulphate
d) Argon
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sulphur, hydrogen sulphide and oxides of nitrogen and sulphur are
released by a geothermal power plant. All these gases are harmful as they cause acid
rain. Carbon is not a gas. Sulphates exist in liquid or solid form.
3. Why do binary power plants emit less amounts of pollutants?

a) Because they release steam into the atmosphere
b) Because they release steam into a local water body
c) Because they inject water back into the ground without any atmospheric exposition
d) Because they inject water back into the ground after atmospheric exposition
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Binary power plants emit less amounts of pollutants because they inject
water back into the ground without any atmospheric exposition. They also treat the
steam before releasing into the atmosphere.
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4. Which of the following best describes the cause for noise pollution due to a
geothermal power plant?
a) Emission of gases
b) Ecological destruction
c) Damaging wildlife habitat
d) Drilling wells
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Drilling wells is the major cause of noise pollution due to geothermal
power plants. The other options do not cause noise pollution. Drilling may also affect
wildlife habitat and ecology.
5. Geothermal plants use about 20L of fresh water per MWh.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Geothermal plants use about 20L of fresh water per MWh. This is
negligible when compared to coal plants which use about 1370L of fresh water per
MWh.
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6. ________ water is used by The Geysers facility in California.

a) Fresh
b) Waste
c) Hot
d) Cold
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Waste water is used by The Geysers facility in California for cooling
purposes. In fact, the geothermal plant also treats the water and injects it back into
the reservoir thereby reducing surface pollution.
7. What are the two main land use problems due to a geothermal power plant?
a) Minor earthquakes
b) Minor earthquakes and greenhouse gas emissions
c) Minor earthquakes and subsidence
d) Removal of magma and subsidence
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The two main land use problems due to geothermal power plants are
induced seismicity (minor earthquakes) and subsidence. Subsidence is gradual
caving in of land. Geothermal power plants do not add to greenhouse gas emissions.
As a matter of fact, this is not related to land use problems.
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8. How are subsidence and induced seismicity mitigated?

a) By removing the fluid
b) By removing the gas
c) By drilling deeper wells
d) By injecting spent fluid back into the reservoir
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Subsidence and induced seismicity are caused by removal of the fluid
present in the reservoir. They can be mitigated by injecting spent fluid back into the
reservoir. Drilling deeper wells will only add to the problem.
9. Geothermal plants are located near the reservoir.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Geothermal plants are located far away from the reservoir. This is done
to prevent impacts on the reservoir due to extraction of fluid.
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10. Which of the following geothermal power plants have no significant impact on
natural features.
a) Binary cycle
b) Direct use
c) High temperature
d) Coal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Direct use geothermal power plants have no significant impact on its
surroundings. This is because it is small and directly use the fluid present in the
reservoir without any (or much) auxiliary processing. Coal power plant is not a
geothermal power plant.
11. Utilizing geothermal resources eliminates _________

a) sulphur emissions
b) usage of power grid
c) mining
d) earthquakes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Utilizing geothermal resources eliminates mining and transportation of
electricity. It uses power grid to distribute the generated electricity to the consumers.
Sulphur emissions and earthquakes are the problems caused due to geothermal
power plants.
12. If a geothermal power plant is located near a reservoir, fluid from _______ reservoir
is used.
a) the same
b) another neighbouring
c) coal
d) another far away
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If a geothermal power plant is located near a reservoir, fluid from
another far away reservoir is used. This is to prevent unwanted impacts on the
reservoir near the plant’s location.
13. Which of the following is most responsible for increasing usage of geothermal
power plants?
a) Efficient heat pumps
b) More sites
c) Less sites
d) Poor heat pumps
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Efficient heat pumps are responsible for increasing usage of geothermal
power plants across the globe. Heat pumps transfer heat energy from a source of
heat to a thermal reservoir (not same as geothermal reservoir).
14. Which of the following countries mainly use “direct-use” geothermal.

a) United States
b) Iceland
c) Iran
d) Greenland
View Answer
Answer: b
divergent plate boundary which brings continuous supply magma. Along with
Turkey, it mainly uses “direct-use” geothermal energy.
15. Impacts on land, impacts on surrounding environment and gaseous emissions are
the three main problems due to geothermal power plants.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following organisations deals with geothermal energy locations in

India?
a) Geological Survey of India
b) Geological Society of India
c) Forestry Department
d) Ministry of external affairs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Geological Survey of India (GSI) is the government organisations that
deals with various geothermal energy locations in India. It was founded in 1851 and
works under the Ministry of Mines Organisation. It is the second oldest survey in
India after Survey of India.
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2. Which of the following is the most promising geothermal locations in India?

a) Sohana
b) Puga valley
c) Gurgaon
d) Patna
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Puga valley is the most promising geothermal locations in India.
Gurgaon and Patna are not geothermal locations. Sohana is not the most promising
one.
3. What is the estimated potential for geothermal energy in India?

a) 1000MW
b) 1MW
c) 10000MW
d) 100MW
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The exploration and study of geothermal fields in India started in 1970.
The estimated potential for geothermal energy in India is 10000MW. Amongst all the
other locations, Puga valley is the most promising one.
4. Which of the following are geothermal provinces in India?

a) Telangana
b) Coimbatore
c) Manipur
d) Godavari
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Godavari is one of the seven geothermal provinces in India. Most of the
provinces are located in northern and central part of Indian sub-continent.
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5. Where is the volcanic arc in India?

a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
b) Lakshadweep Islands
c) Godavari
d) Puga valley
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The volcanic arc is in Andaman and Nicobar Islands. It is actually a
barren land. There are no geothermal provinces in Lakshadweep Islands. Puga valley
and Godavari are not prone to volcanoes.
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6. Which of the following geothermal sites is in Gujarat?

a) Tattapani
b) Cambay Garden
c) Surajkund
d) Manikaran
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cambay Garden is located in Gujarat. Today, Cambay is known as
Khambat. It is a town in Khambat Taluka, Anand district.
7. Where is the geothermal plant in Chhattisgarh?

a) Puga
b) Cambay Garden
c) Balrampur
d) Manikaran
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The geothermal plant is located in Balrampur district in Chhattisgarh. It
is one of the recently established plants. The other options are not areas in the state
of Chhattisgarh.
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8. The reservoir rock in Puga valley is made up of ________

a) sulphite
b) nitrogen
c) carbon
d) granite
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The geothermal reservoir in Puga valley is made up of granite. Hot
springs with a temperature range between 30 – 84 degree Celsius are found.
9. Which of the following is a potential site for binary cycle power plant?
a) Tatapani
b) Gurgaon
c) Godavari
d) Hyderabad
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Puga, Tatapani and Manikaran are potential sites for binary cycle power
plants. Gurgaon and Hyderabad are not geothermal sites.
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10. What is the temperature range of the reservoir at Puga valley?

a) 30 – 84 degree Celsius
c) 100 – 120 degree Celsius
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The temperature range of the reservoir at Puga valley is 160 – 220
degree Celsius. Also, the reservoir rock is made up of granite. The temperature of hot
springs are in the range of 30 – 84 degree Celsius.
11. What is the thermal temperature gradient in Tatapani?

a) 1 degree Celsius/km
b) 10 degree Celsius/km
c) 60 – 100 degree Celsius/km
d) 110 – 150 degree Celsius/km
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The temperature gradient in Tatapani is 110 – 150 degree Celsius/km.
Tatapani is a geothermal site located in Chhattishgarh. Arsenic and sulphur deposits
are commonly found here.
12. What is the temperature gradient in Manikaran?

View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The temperature gradient in Manikaran is 90 – 110 degree Celsius/km.
Manikaran is a geothermal site located in Himachal Pradesh. The temperature range
of hot springs is between 34 – 90 degree Celsius.
13. Which of the following states hosts the West Coast geothermal site?
a) Maharashtra
b) Assam
c) Bihar
d) Kerala
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Maharashtra hosts the West Coast geothermal site. Assam and Bihar
are located in the eastern and central parts of Indian sub-continent. The West Coast
does not stretch till Kerala.
14. The geothermal site in Godavari consists of Gondwana sediments.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The geothermal site in Godavari consists of Gondwana sediments. The
temperature range of the reservoir is between 100 and 150 degree Celsius.
15. Extraction of dissolved heavy metals and native elements is another use of
geothermal site.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is tidal power?

a) Energy from tides
b) Energy from water
c) Energy from moon
d) Energy from sun
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Tidal power converts the energy from tides to usable forms. Though
tides are water, it is not the same as the energy harnessed from a flowing river. Tides
are caused due to moon.
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2. Which of the following categories does tidal power fall into?

a) Hydrothermal
b) Hydropower
c) Solar
d) Wind
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tidal power comes under the category of hydropower. Hydrothermal is
basically energy harnessed from hot water/steam found in geothermal sites. Solar
and wind are not related to water.
3. What is/are the cause(s) of tides?

a) Gravitational pull of moon
b) Gravitational pull of moon and sun
c) Gravitational pull of sun and moon and rotation of earth
d) Gravitational pull of sun
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Tides are caused by the gravitational pull of moon, sun and the rotation
of earth. It is the cumulative effect of all the three factors. No single factor
individually dominates the other.
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4. What is the minimum height of tides required for harnessing tidal energy
economically?
a) 1 foot
b) 5 feet
c) 8 feet
d) 10 feet
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: To harness tidal energy economically, the minimum height of the tides
should be 10 feet. Most of the plants harness the tidal energy to generate electricity
which is either used in remote locations or sent to the grid.
5. In terms of predictability, tidal energy _____ solar and wind.

a) is more predictable than
b) is less predictable than
c) has similar predictability like
d) cannot be predicted unlike
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In terms of predictability, tidal energy is more predictable than solar
and wind. This because of its origins – gravitational forces and earth’s rotation.
Intensity of sunlight and wind speeds vary greatly within a day unlike the tides.
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6. Tidal barrage is similar to ______

a) wind plant
b) dam
c) wind turbines
d) coal plant
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tidal barrage is similar to a dam. As the name suggests, a barrage
(barrier) is constructed across an inlet of an ocean bay to harness the energy.
7. Which of the following best describes the working of a tidal barrage for an incoming
tide?
a) Incoming tides → generator → barrage → basin
b) Incoming tides → basin → generator → barrage
c) Incoming tides → barrage → basin → generator
d) Generator → barrage → basin → incoming tides
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The incoming tides flow through the barrage into the basin. Once the
basin is filled, the water is emptied by allowing it to pass through an electric
generator thereby generating electricity.
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8. Which of the following best describes the working of tidal barrage for outgoing tides?
a) Generator → basin → ocean → outgoing tide
b) Generator → ocean → basin → outgoing tide
c) Ocean → generator → basin → outgoing tide
d) Outgoing tide → generator → basin → ocean
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The outgoing tides flow through the generator which converts the
kinetic energy into electrical energy. The water is then emptied into the ocean via a
separate basin.
9. Tidal barrages are a two-way tidal power system.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Tidal barrages are a two-way power system. This is because they use
both, the incoming and the outgoing tides to generate electricity. The water flow is
controlled by sluice gates.
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10. Which of the following is a potential problem of a tidal barrage?

a) Impacts on deep sea/ocean marine life
b) Impacts on estuaries of the tidal basin
c) A two-way tidal power system
d) Decrease in turbidity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: One of the main problems that a tidal barrage can cause is the
destruction of estuaries of the tidal basin. Tidal barrages also increase the turbidity
of the water near the basin. They don’t affect the deep sea marine life.
11. Which of the following tidal barrages has the largest capacity to generate electricity?
a) La Rance
b) Annapolis Royal
c) The Sihwa Lake Tidal Power Station
d) Russian tidal plants
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Sihwa Lake Tidal Power Station in South Korea has the largest
capacity to generate electricity. The tidal plant in La Rance, France is the oldest and
has the second largest capacity. Next comes the tidal power plant in Annapolis Royal
in Nova Scotia.
12. What are the three ways to harness tidal energy?

a) Tidal streams, tidal barrages and wind
b) Tidal barrages, wind and sun
c) Tidal lagoons, river streams and geothermal reservoirs
d) Tidal lagoons, tidal streams and tidal barrages
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The three different ways to harness tidal energy are tidal streams, tidal
barrages and tidal lagoons. Geothermal reservoirs, wind and sun are not tidal
resources.
13. The United States has an economical tidal power plant.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: At the very best, the United States does not have an economical tidal
power. China, France, England, Canada and Russia are some of the popular countries
known to harness tidal energy.
14. What is a tidal stream?
a) A river streams
b) A fast-flowing body of water due to tides
c) A fast-flowing body of water deposited into ocean
d) A fast-flowing body of water due to winds
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A tidal stream is a fast-flowing body of water created by tides. It is not
the same as a river stream. When compared to a river stream it has a much higher
kinetic energy.
15. Tidal generators produce steady and reliable stream of electricity.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is a tidal lagoon?

a) A man-made structure that spans the area of coastline with a high tidal range
b) A man-made structure that spans the entire coastline
c) A barrage
d) A fast-flowing water body caused due to tides
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A tidal lagoon spans that area of coastline which has a high tidal range.
The large volume of water is collected in a man-made structure for electricity
generation. Tidal stream is a fast-flowing water body caused due to tides.
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2. How does a tidal lagoon work?

a) By storing sea water
b) By creating a difference in water levels
c) By placing the turbine in the running water
d) By creating barrages
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tidal lagoon works by creating a difference in water levels. The water on
the higher level is passed through a turbine to generate electricity. Tidal barrages
work by creating barrages.
3. Which of the following steps best describes the working of tidal lagoons?
a) Floods → generator turbines → turbine wicket gates → lagoon → difference in water
level between lagoon and sea
b) Floods → turbine wicket gates → generator turbines → lagoon → difference in water
c) Floods → turbine wicket gates → lagoon → difference in water level between lagoon
and sea → generator turbines
d) Turbine wicket gates → floods → lagoon → difference in water level between lagoon
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sea water flows into lagoons which are controlled by turbine wicket
gates. These gates control the flow and can be completely closed to stop the water
from entering the lagoon. Once the difference in the water level between lagoon and
sea is optimized, the gates are opened thereby allowing water to flow through
generator turbines.
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4. Tidal lagoon is _______

a) unidirectional
b) unpredictable
c) the same as tidal stream
d) bi-directional
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Tidal lagoon is bi-directional. This is because the difference in water
level between the lagoon and sea can be created by both, the incoming tides and the
outgoing (ebbing) tides.
5. Tidal power is renewable because _________

a) tide falls and rises without fuel
b) tide falls and rises with fuel
c) tide neither falls nor rises without fuel
d) tide neither falls nor rises with fuel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The tidal power is renewable because the tides fall and rise without any
external fuel. This is caused by the gravitational forces of moon and earth’s rotation.
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6. How many high tides occur every day?

a) One
b) Two
c) Four
d) Three
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Two high tides occur each day. This is because the earth rotates
through two tidal bulges every lunar day. When the earth is in one of the bulges,
coastal areas experience a high tide.
7. How many low tides occur every day?

a) One
b) Five
c) Two
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Two low tides occur each day. This is because the earth rotates through
two tidal bulges every lunar day. When the earth is not in one of the bulges, a low
tide occurs.
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8. On which two sides of the earth do the tidal forces cause water to bulge out?
a) Both sides closest to moon
b) Both sides farthest from moon
c) Both sides facing the sun
d) Side closest to the moon and farthest from the moon
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Tides are caused by the gravitational forces of moon acting on earth.
Side closes to the moon and sides farthest from the moon bulge out due to these
tidal forces.
9. Bulges of water are called high tides.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bulges of water are called high tides. The two earth’s sides namely, the
one closest to the moon and the one farthest from the moon experience these
bulges – high tides.
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10. What is a tide mill?

a) A dam to store the tide
b) A water mill driven by tidal rise and fall
c) A barrage
d) A lagoon
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A tide mill is a water mill driven by tidal rise and fall. A dam is created
across a tidal inlet to store the water thereby acting as a reservoir. A tidal mill is not
same as a dam.
11. How does a tide mill work?

a) By storing the water and creating a difference in water level
b) By storing the water when the tide is low and releasing it through a turbine when the
tide is high
c) By storing the water when the tide is high and releasing it through a turbine when
the tide is low
d) By using the running water of a tide
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The tide mill works by storing the water when the tide is high and
releasing it through a turbine when the tide is low. The water is stored in a dam
constructed across a suitable tidal inlet.
12. Which of the following is similar to the working of tidal stream generator?
a) Geothermal turbine
b) Heat pump
c) Anaerobic digestion
d) Wind turbine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The working of tidal stream generator is similar to that of a wind
turbine. Both use the kinetic energy of the respective fluids to rotate the turbine and
generate electricity. Anaerobic digestion is a technique to treat and harness energy
from biomass. It does not used turbines. Geothermal turbine and heat pumps use
the thermal energy of the fluids.
13. Both horizontal and vertical turbines are used to harness energy from tides.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Depending on the tidal stream various turbines are used to harness the
kinetic energy of the incoming tide. Some of the commonly used turbines are
horizontal, vertical, open and ducted.
14. What is dynamic tidal power?

a) A theoretical technology exploiting potential energy of tides
b) A theoretical technology exploiting potential and kinetic energy of tides
c) A practical technology exploiting kinetic and potential energy of tides
d) A practical technology exploiting thermal energy of tides
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Dynamic tidal power is a theoretical technology that exploits an
interaction between the potential and kinetic energy of tides. It proposes the
construction of long dams from coast into the sea so as to introduce tidal phase
differences. These phase differences result in a differential water-level.
15. Strong coast-parallel oscillating tidal currents are found in ______
a) India
b) United States
c) China
d) Australia
View Answer
Answer: c
1. What is ocean thermal energy conversion?

a) Harnessing the temperature differences between surface waters and deep ocean
waters
b) Harnessing the temperature differences between the coastal waters and deep ocean
waters
c) Harnessing the heat energy from the underwater volcanoes
d) Harnessing the heat energy between surface water vapour and atmospheric gases
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The process of generating energy by using temperature difference (or
gradient) varying with depth of seawater is called Ocean thermal energy conversion
(OTEC). A temperature gradient exists between the surface waters and deep sea
waters due to various physical phenomenon.
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2. What is the temperature difference used in ocean thermal energy conversion? Note
that F denotes Fahrenheit
a) 10 degree F
b) A minimum of 77 degree F
c) Between 50 and 60 degree F
d) A minimum of 100 degree F
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The temperature difference is at least 77 degree F (or 25 degree C).
Ocean thermal energy conversion systems use this temperature difference between
the surface and the bed (or deep sea waters) to generate electricity.
3. What is thermohaline circulation?

a) Circulation of halogens throughout the ocean
b) Circulation of halogens due to temperature differences throughout the ocean
c) Large scale ocean circulation driven by global density gradients
d) Large scale halogens circulation due to global density gradients
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Thermohaline circulation is a constituent of large scale ocean water
movement and circulation caused due to global density gradients. The cause for this
gradient is heat of the surface and freshwater fluxes. Halogens are group 17
elements in the periodic table and are not related to thermohaline circulation.
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4. What is the maximum estimated potential of ocean thermal energy conversion per
year?
a) 80 GWh
b) 900 MWh
c) 10000 TWh
d) 88000 TWh
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Ocean thermal energy conversion is one of the continuously available
renewable energy resource. The maximum estimated potential is 880000 TWh per
year. In fact, it is strongly believed that this resource could contribute to base-load
power supply.
5. How does the cold and denser water masses sink to the depths of ocean?
a) Thermohaline circulation
b) Temperature gradient
c) Density gradient
d) Freshwater fluxes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The cold and denser water masses formed by surface water sink to the
depths of the ocean by thermohaline circulation. It is circulation of ocean water due
to density gradient.
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6. Why is ocean thermal energy conversion a renewable resource?
a) Because the temperature gradient lasts for a short period of time
b) Because the upwelling of cold water from the deep ocean is replaced by
downwelling of surface waters
c) Because ocean water is available in plenty
d) Because of sun’s heat
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ocean thermal energy conversion is a renewable resource because the
temperature gradient is continuously restored. This occurs because the upwelling of
cold water from the deep ocean is replaced by downwelling of surface waters.
7. Which of the following are types of systems used in ocean thermal energy
conversion?
a) Horizontal and vertical
b) Vertical and open cycle
c) Open cycle and closed cycle
d) Horizontal and closed cycle
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The types of systems used in ocean thermal energy conversion are
closed cycle and open cycle systems. Horizontal and vertical are related to turbines
used in harnessing tidal and wind energy.
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8. Which of the following is used as working fluid in closed cycle oceanic thermal energy
conversion systems?
c) Greenhouse gases
d) Refrigerants
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Closed cycle oceanic thermal energy conversion systems use
refrigerants like ammonia as working fluids. These fluids have low boiling points and
are suitable to power the generator thereby producing electricity.
9. Rankine Cycle is the most commonly used heat cycle for ocean thermal energy
conversion.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rankine Cycle is the most commonly used heat cycle for ocean thermal
energy conversion. It is a model used to predict the performance of a steam turbine
and was also used to study reciprocating steam engines.
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10. _______ turbine is used in closed cycle ocean thermal energy conversion.
a) Horizontal
b) Low-pressure
c) High-pressure
d) Vertical
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Low-pressure turbines are used in closed cycle ocean thermal energy
conversion. These systems use the Rankine heat cycle to generate electricity.
11. Open cycle ocean thermal energy conversion systems use _____ as the working
fluid.
a) vapour from rivers
b) water from rivers
c) vapour from seawater
d) seawater
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Open cycle ocean thermal energy conversion systems use vapour from
seawater as the working fluid. Unlike the closed cycle ocean thermal conversion
systems, the working fluids are not thought as refrigerants.
12. What is the byproduct of an ocean thermal energy conversion system?

a) Electricity
b) Clean water
c) Water vapour
d) Cold water
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Ocean thermal energy conversion systems supply cold water as their
by-product. These can be used for air conditioning and refrigeration. Electricity is the
primary product.
13. Where is the world’s only operating ocean thermal energy conversion plant located?
a) Japan
b) United States
c) China
d) Korea
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ocean thermal energy conversion was first developed in the 1880s. The
world’s only operating ocean thermal energy conversion plant is located in Japan.
The plant is overseen by Saga University.
14. Which of the following best describes the working of an ocean thermal energy
conversion plant?
a) Oceanic water → evaporator → turbine/generator → electricity
b) Warm surface oceanic water → evaporator containing working fluid →
turbine/generator → electricity
c) Cold surface oceanic water → electricity → evaporator containing working fluid →
turbine/generator
d) Cold deep oceanic water → electricity → evaporator containing working fluid →
turbine/generator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Warm surface oceanic water is passed through an evaporator
containing the working fluid. The vapourized fluid drives the turbine/generator
thereby generating electricity. Deep oceanic water is not used as it’s cold.
15. The vapourized fluid in an ocean thermal energy conversion system is converted
back into working liquid.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What type of working fluids do closed-cycle ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC)
systems use?
a) Low boiling point fluids at atmospheric pressure
b) High boiling point fluids at atmospheric pressure
c) Low boiling point fluids at 100 bar
d) High boiling point fluids at 100 bar
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Closed-cycle ocean thermal energy conversion systems use low boiling
point fluids at atmospheric pressure. An example of a low boiling point at
atmospheric pressure is ammonia with a boiling point around -33 degree Celsius.
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2. What is the warm surface seawater pumped through in a closed-cycle ocean thermal
energy conversion (OTEC) system?
a) Heat compressor
b) Heat exchanger
c) Fluid compressor
d) Turbine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The warm surface seawater is pumped through a heat exchanger in a
closed-cycle ocean thermal energy conversion system. This is to vapourise the
working fluid to run the turbine.
3. How is the vapourised working fluid condensed in a closed-cycle ocean thermal

energy conversion system?
a) Warm surface seawater
b) Fresh warm water
c) Cold water from deep ocean
d) Fresh cold water
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The vapourised working fluid is condensed using the cold water from
deep ocean in a closed-cycle ocean thermal energy conversion system. The cold
water is pumped through a second heat exchanger to perform condensation.
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4. Which of the following organisations developed the “mini OTEC”?

a) CERN
b) NASA
c) ISRO
d) Natural Energy Laboratory
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In 1979, the Natural Energy Laboratory and several private-sector
partners developed the “mini OTEC” experiment. They successfully produced
electrical power from a closed-cycle OTEC on the Hawaiian coast.
5. The open-cycle OTEC uses working fluid.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The open-cycle OTEC does not use a working fluid. It directly uses the
warm surface seawater to produce electricity.
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6. Which of the following best describes the open-cycle OTEC?

a) Warm surface seawater → heat exchanger → working fluid → turbine
b) Warm surface seawater → low-pressure container → turbine/generator
c) Deep seawater → heat exchanger → working fluid → turbine
d) Deep seawater → low-pressure container → turbine/generator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In an open-cycle OTEC, the warm surface seawater is first pumped into
a low-pressure container. Then this fluid is used to drive the turbine to generate
electricity.
7. Why does an open-cycle OTEC use low-pressure container?
a) To solidify the warm surface seawater
b) To evaporate the deep seawater
c) To boil and evaporate the warm surface seawater
d) To solidify the warm surface seawater
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Open-cycle OTEC uses a low-pressure container to boil the warm
surface seawater. Due to decrease in pressure, the seawater boils and expands to
form vapour. This vapour is then used to drive the turbines to generate electricity.
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8. Which of the following produces desalinized fresh water?

a) Closed-cycle OTEC
b) Fracking
c) Ammonia
d) Open-cycle OTEC
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Open-cycle OTEC produces desalinized fresh water because it directly
uses the warm surface water to drive the turbines. Closed-cycle OTEC does not use
the warm surface seawater directly. Ammonia is used as working fluid in closed-cycle
OTEC.
9. Why does open-cycle OTEC produce desalinized fresh water?

a) Because the vapourised surface seawater leaves all the salts and contaminants in
the low-pressure container
b) Because of the working fluid
c) Because the warm surface seawater is mixed with deep ocean water
d) Because of thermohaline circulation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Open-cycle OTECH produces desalinized fresh water because the
vapourized surface seawater leaves all the salts and contaminants in the low-
pressure container. Since the vapour is pure, it generates desalinized fresh water on
condensation.
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10. Where is the desalinized fresh water used?

a) Sent back into ocean
b) Used for irrigation and aquaculture
c) Used to generate electricity
d) Used to generate tides
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Desalinized fresh water has many applications. It is suitable for
irrigation and aquaculture. On further processing, it could also be used for drinking
purposes. It is not used to generate electricity and tides.
11. Which of the following best describes hybrid ocean thermal energy conversion?
a) Warm surface seawater → low-pressure container → turbine/generator
b) Deep seawater → vacuum chamber → flash-evaporated → steam vapourises
ammonia → turbine
c) Warm surface seawater → vacuum chamber → flash-evaporated → steam
vapourises ammonia → turbine
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In hybrid OTEC, warm surface seawater is pumped into a vacuum
chamber. Due to low pressure, the water boils and expands into vapour. This vapour
is then used to vapourise the working fluid which runs the turbine.
12. How does hybrid OTEC provide desalinized water?

a) By evaporating the warm surface seawater
b) By solidifying the warm surface seawater
c) By condensing the steam generated from deep seawater
d) By condensing the steam generated from warm surface seawater
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hybrid ocean thermal energy conversion systems generate desalinized
water by condensing the steam generated from warm surface seawater. Due to low
pressure in vacuum chamber, the incoming surface seawater is vapourised to
generate steam. This steam does not contain salts and contaminants as it is left
behind in the chamber.
13. Which of the following is a good choice for working fluid?
a) CFCs
b) Steam
c) Surface seawater
d) Deep seawater
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: CFCs are a good choice for working fluid. Unlike ammonia, they are not
toxic or flammable. However, they contribute to ozone layer depletion.
14. As the vapour pressure of working fluid increases the size of turbine ________
a) increases
b) decreases
c) does not change
d) first increases then decreases
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the vapour pressure of working fluid increases the size of turbine
and heat exchanger decreases. The power plant size is dependent upon the vapour
pressure of the working fluid.
15. The wall thickness of pipes used to transport the vapour increases as the vapour
pressure of working fluid increases.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following supplies maximum amount of hydrogen gas?

a) Natural gas
c) Wastewater treatment
d) Electrolysis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: All the four options produce hydrogen gas. However, fossil fuels,
specifically natural gas is the major producer of hydrogen gas. Biomass and biogas
are the also commonly used to produce hydrogen gas.
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2. In terms of green house gas emissions, how good or bad is hydrogen fuel?
a) Major contributor of greenhouse gas emissions
b) Zero-emission fuel
c) Lowest contributor of greenhouse gas emissions
d) Hydrogen cannot be used as fuel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydrogen fuel is a clean source of energy. It is a zero-emission fuel
burned with oxygen and is used in different applications to generate electricity.
Among all sources of energy, burning fossil fuels produces maximum amount of
greenhouse gases.
3. Which of the following use hydrogen as fuel?

a) Fossil fuels
b) Anerobic digestion
c) Fuel cells
d) Cooking
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fuel cells and internal combustion engines used hydrogen as fuel cells.
Anaerobic digestion requires biomass in the form of waste water to generate
electricity. Though fossil fuels contain hydrogen atoms, they do not require external
supply of hydrogen as fuels. Cooking does not require hydrogen as fuel.
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4. Which of the following is the most popular application of hydrogen fuel cell?
c) Fuel cells stand-alone power supplies
d) Fuel cells spacecraft
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Spacecraft propulsion uses hydrogen as fuel with the help of fuel cells.
It is one of the most established techniques to deploy spacecrafts into outer-space.
Though fuel cell vehicles are becoming popular, they are not well established yet.
5. How is hydrogen gas produced from fossil fuels?
a) Partial oxidation of methane
b) Electrolysis
c) Evaporation
d) Biomass gasification
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrogen gas is produced from fossil fuels by different techniques like
partial oxidation of methane, steam reforming and coal gasification. Biomass
gasification and electrolysis produce hydrogen gas in small quantities.
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6. What is the major drawback of steam-methane reforming technique to produce

hydrogen?
a) Capital intensive
b) Releases greenhouse gases into atmosphere
c) A niche technology
d) Poor efficiency
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The steam-methane reforming technique is the current leading
technology to produce hydrogen. However, the main drawback of steam-methane
reforming technique is that it releases greenhouse gases, carbon dioxide and carbon
monoxide into the atmosphere.
7. How does electrolysis produce hydrogen?

a) By running electricity to combine hydrogen and water
b) By separating water into hydrogen and oxygen and generating electricity
c) By passing electricity into water to separate it into hydrogen and oxygen
d) By passing electricity into water to evaporate it into hydrogen
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Electrolysis is one of the cleanest techniques to produce hydrogen.
Electricity is passed through water to separate it into oxygen and hydrogen. In
electrolysis, electricity is not generated and instead is used to perform a chemical
reaction
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8. Why is hydrogen hazardous as fuel?

a) Because of high ignition and low combustion energy
b) Because of high ignition and high combustion energy
c) Because low ignition and low combustion energy
d) Because of low ignition and high combustion energy
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydrogen is extremely dangerous as fuel. This is because hydrogen has
a low ignition temperature and releases large amounts of energy during burning –
high combustion energy. Also, it is hard to store as it tends leak easily from storage
tanks.
9. Traditionally, why is steam methane reforming preferred over electrolysis?

a) Because electrolysis requires electricity
b) Because electrolysis has lower production efficiency
c) Because steam methane reforming produces greenhouse gases
d) Because electrolysis produces greenhouse gases
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Traditionally, steam methane reforming preferred over electrolysis. This
is simply because electrolysis requires electricity. Currently, producing electricity is
expensive. As the cost of producing a unit of electricity becomes cheaper, electrolysis
will be favoured over steam methane reforming because it does not release
greenhouse gases.
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10. What is the main problem in using hydrogen as fuel for vehicles?
b) Storage
c) Fuel cell technology is not well established
d) Cars will become heavy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main problem in using hydrogen as fuel for vehicles is storage of
hydrogen. Hydrogen is difficult to store because it leaks easily. Moreover, it is
extremely hazardous as fuel due to its low ignition temperature and high
combustion energy.
11. What is a fuel cell?

a) Converts heat energy to chemical energy
b) Converts heat energy to electrical energy
c) Converts chemical energy to electrical energy
d) Converts kinetic energy to heat energy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A fuel cell works just like a battery. It converts chemical energy to
electrical energy. The chemical energy from a redox reaction occurring within the cell
is converted to electrical energy due to the flow of electrons.
12. How does hydrogen fuel cell work?

a) Membrane → hydrogen ions → electric current and recombination with oxygen
b) Electric current and recombination with oxygen → hydrogen ions → membrane
c) Hydrogen ions → membrane → electric current and recombination with oxygen
d) Recombination with oxygen → electric current → membrane → hydrogen ions
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The hydrogen ions in one chamber of the cell flow into the other
chamber through a membrane to recombine with oxygen. Since this is a redox
reaction, electric current is generated due to flow of electrons.
13. What does hydrogen fuel cell emit?

a) Water
b) Steam
c) Greenhouse gas
d) Methane
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrogen fuel cell produces water – its only emission. It does not
release any greenhouse gases or carbon compounds like methane because the
reaction occurs with two substances, hydrogen and oxygen.
14. Fuel cell vehicle is sourced by a battery.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A fuel cell vehicle (FEV) or a fuel cell electric vehicle (FCEV) is sourced by
a fuel cell. It may work in combination with a battery to supply sufficient power to
run the systems. But the source of the energy is a fuel cell.
15. High pressure containers are used to store hydrogen.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. By what means can hydrogen be stored?

a) Physically and chemically
b) As atoms
c) As ions
d) As fuel cells
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrogen can be stored either by physical or chemical means.
Hydrogen atoms cannot be stored. Ions are intermediate species and exist only in
reactions. Fuel cells are not used to store hydrogen.
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2. How is hydrogen stored physically?

a) As atoms
b) By compressing hydrogen gas
c) In the form of hydrides
d) In the form of water
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For physical storage, the convention is to compress hydrogen gas and
store it. Hydrogen atoms cannot be stored. Hydrogen is not stored as water. Besides,
hydrides and water are not physical means of storing hydrogen.
3. How is hydrogen stored chemically?
a) As ions
d) In the form of ice
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Conventionally, hydrogen molecules are converted to hydrides and
stored. Ions are intermediate species and cannot be stored. Compression of
hydrogen gas is a physical means of storage.
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4. Hydrogen molecules are dissociated either _________ or _________ to form hydrides.

a) under sunlight or cold temperatures
b) by substitution or electrolysis
c) by electrolysis or heterolytically
d) homolytically or heterolytically
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydrogen molecules are dissociated either homolytically or
heterolytically to form hydrides. This technique is a chemical means to store
hydrogen. Electrolysis generates hydrogen. Substitution is a type of organic reaction.
5. Cryogenic adsorption is a physical means to store hydrogen.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cryogenic adsorption is a physical means to store hydrogen. After
adsorbing hydrogen at low temperatures, it is stored as liquid hydrogen.
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6. What are the main components of a fuel cell?

a) Anode, cathode, electrolyte
b) Anode, cathode, membrane and electrolyte (including fuel)
c) Anode, cathode
d) Anode, cathode, electrolyte and connecting wires
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fuel cell is a device that converts chemical energy to electrical energy. It
consists of the two electrodes namely, anode and cathode, a proton exchange
membrane through with protons flow and the electrolyte in each chamber.
7. What is hydrogen compressor do to hydrogen?

a) Increases both pressure and volume
b) Decreases both pressure and volume
c) Increases pressure and decreases volume
d) Decreases pressure and increases volume
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydrogen compressor is a device that increases the pressure of
hydrogen by reducing its volume. This results in the formation of compressed
hydrogen or liquid hydrogen.
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8. What is photocatalytic water splitting?

a) Splitting of water using catalyst and electricity
b) Splitting of water using electricity
c) Combining hydrogen and oxygen to form water
d) Splitting of water using light as catalyst
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Photocatalytic water splitting is an artificial photosynthesis process that
is used to dissociate water into its constituents under the presence of natural or
artificial light. It does not use chemical catalyst or electricity.
9. Which of the following uses hydrogen as fuel?

a) Vehicles
b) AA battery
c) AAA battery
d) Power plants
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Among the given options, vehicles use hydrogen as fuel. They are
generally called hydrogen vehicles or hydrogen powered vehicles. These vehicles are
powered using fuel cells.
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10. Efficiency of water electrolysis is greater than the efficiency of steam reforming.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Corre
ct
No. Item Text Option1 Option2 Option3 Option4
Optio
n
The capacity of a battery is Current Voltage Ampere hour Weight of
1
expressed in terms of rating rating rating battery 3
Nickel-
The storage battery generally used
2 cadmium Zinc carbon Lead-acid None of
in electric power station is
battery battery battery above 3
Ampere hour capacity of an
3 industrial battery is based on 8
..........hours discharge rate 12 14 16 1
Five 2 V cells are connected in
4 1.5 v
parallel. The output voltage is 3v 2v 4v 3
5 A typical output of a solar cell is 0.1 v 0.26 V 1.1 V 2V 2
Which of the following material is Aluminiu
6 Silicon
used in solar cells? Berium Silver m 1
The efficiency of a solar cell may
7 2 to 5%
be in the range 10 to 15% 80 to 95% 70 to 80% 3
atellite power requirement is Solar Lead-acid Ni-cr
8
provided through cells Dry cells battery battery 1
Water All of
9 Direct Solar energy is used for
heating Distillation Drying above 4
The power from the sun intercepted 1.8 x 1.8 x 1.8 x 1.8 x
10
by the earth is approximately 108 MW 1011 MW 1014 MW 1013 MW 1
The following is indirect method of All of
11
Solar energy utilization Wind Biomass Wave above 3
A liquid flat plate collector is
usually held tilted in a fixed
12
position, facing _____ if located in
the northern hemisphere. North East West South 4
Evacuating
Puttng a the space
13 selective above the
The collection efficiency of Flat coating on absorber option 1 and None of
plate collector can be improved by the plate plate 2 above 4
depends
increases,
The efficiency of various types of remains upon type
14 decreasin
collectors ______ with _______ decreases, same, of
g
temperature. increasing increasing collector 1
Evacuated Line Paraboloi
Flat plate
15 Maximum efficiency is obtained in tube focussing d dish 3
collector
collector collector collector
The following type of energy is Thermal Chemical Electrical Mechanic
16
stored as latent heat energy energy energy al energy 2
In the paraboloid dish concept, the
17 concentrator tracks the sun by One axis Three axis Four axis
rotating about Two axis 2
Semi-
Solar cells use _____ to turn light
18 conducto Electromag Super None of
into energy.
r nets conductor above 1
No No External Larger
19 What is the difference between External Bias in surface area No
Photodiode and Solar cell? Bias in Solar cell in difference 2
Photodio photodiode
de
What should be the band gap of the
20 semiconductors to be used as solar
cell materials? 0.5 eV 1 eV 1.5 eV 1.9 eV 3
Which of the following should not High High High
21 be the characteristic of the solar cell Absorpti Conductivit High Energy Availabili
material? on y Band ty 3
Which of the following type of Paraboloid Line
Flat plate
22 collector is used for low dish focussing All of
collector
temperature systems? collector collector above 4
1347 1377
23 1357 W/m2 1367 W/m2
The value of Solar Constant is W/m2 W/m2 3
Absorption of Solar radiations at
24 earth’s surface occur due to OZONE Carbon di- All of
presence of Water vapur oxide above 4
Direct Diffuse Direct Direct
radiation Radiation / radiation + radiation/
25 Global radiation = 3
– Diffuse Direct Diffuse Diffuse
Radiation radiation Radiation Radiation
The zenith angle is the angle made Normal ,
26 by the sun’s rays with the ____ to a horizonta Tangent, Normal, Tangent,
______ surface. l horizontal vertical vertical 1
Solar radiation flux is usually Anemom Pyranomete Sunshine All of
27
measured with the help of a eter r recorder above 2
Anemom Pyroheliom Sunshine All of
28
Beam radiations are measured with eter eter recorder above 2
The angle made by the plane Surface
Declinatio
29 surface with the horizontal is Latitude Slope azimuth
n
known as angle 2
The angle made in the horizontal Declination
Hour
plane between the horizontal line Surface
angle
30 due south and the projection of the azimuth Solar
normal to the surface on the angle altitude
horizontal plane is angle 3
-180° to
31 Surface azimuth angle varies from 0 to 90° -90 to 90° 0 to 180°
180° 4
10° per 25° per
32 The hour angle is equivalent to 15° per hour 20° per hour
hour hour 2
The ratio of the beam radiation flux
Radiation
falling on a tilted surface to that None of
33 shape Tilt factor Slope
falling on a horizontal surface is above
factor
called the 2
Hourly Hourly Hourly
Hourly beam
beam beam diffuse
radiation /
radiation radiation – radiation /
34 Hourly
The global radiation reaching a + Hourly Hourly Hourly
diffuse
horizontal surface on the earth is diffuse diffuse beam
radiation
given by radiation radiation radiation 1
The term photo voltaic comes from
35
________ Spanish Greek German English 2
When the source of light is not sun Photo
36 light then the photo voltaic cell is Photo Photo Photo transmitte
used as ____________ diode voltaic cell detector r 3
The amount of photo generated
37 current increases slightly with an Temperat Diode Shunt
increase in _________ ure Photons current current 1
38 The life span of a solar water heater 6-8 yrs 5-9 yrs 10-12 yrs 10-20 yrs 3
Payback period of solar water (B) 2-6 (D) 5-9
39 2-4 years (C) 4-8 years
heater years years 2
140 to
In Box Type Solar Cooker, 30 to 40
160
40 maximum temperature obtained Degree
200to 300 200-400 Degree
inside the box is Cel.
Degree Cel Degree Cel Cel 4
Approximately Cooking time of
20-30
41 Paraboloidal Dish-type Solar 90-120
min
Cooker is 30-60 min 60-90 min min 1
only both
only
conducti conductions only
radiation
on losses as well as convection
42 In evacuated tube collectors losses are
are convection losses are
suppresse
suppresse losses are suppressed
d
d suppressed 2
43 The life span of a solar water heater 6-8 yrs 5-9 yrs 10-12 yrs 10-20 yrs 3
Payback period of solar water (B) 2-6 (D) 5-9
44 2-4 years (C) 4-8 years
heater years years 2
140 to
In Box Type Solar Cooker, 30 to 40
160
45 maximum temperature obtained Degree
200to 300 200-400 Degree
inside the box is Cel.
Degree Cel Degree Cel Cel 4
Approximately Cooking time of
20-30
46 Paraboloidal Dish-type Solar 90-120
min
Cooker is 30-60 min 60-90 min min 1
only both
only
conducti conductions only
radiation
on losses as well as convection
47 In evacuated tube collectors losses are
are convection losses are
suppresse
suppresse losses are suppressed
d
d suppressed 2
Line
Which of the following type of Paraboloid
focusing Flat plate None of
48 collector is used for low- dish
parabolic collector the above
temperature systems? collector
collector 3
direct diffuse
direct and None of
49 Flat plate collector absorbs radiation radiation
diffuse both the above
only only 3
90 400
Temperature attained by a flat-plate 150 Degree 300 Degree
50 Degree Degree
collector is a range of cel. cel.
cel. cel. 1
seasonal
A cylindrical parabolic concentrator 2-axis 1-axis
51 no tracking adjustmen
requires tracking tracking
t 2
Concentrated solar power (CSP)
All of
52 systems use ____ to focus a large Lenses Mirrors Trackers
above
area of sunlight into a small beam. 4
The ratio of the area of the aperture collector
concentratio temperature collector
53 of the system to the area of the efficienc
n ratio range COP
receiver is known as y 2
54 Compound parabolic concentrator One Three Two No 3
consists of parabolic parabolic parabolic parabolic
mirror mirror mirror segments
segment segments segments
In Compound Parabolic
55 Concentrator, concentration the 3 to 7 10 to 12 1 to 2 0.5 to 1
ratio is between 1
In Cylindrical Parabolic
56 Concentrator, the concentration 5 to 10 5 to 30 5 to 20 5 to 7
ratio is between 2
seasonal
Hemispherical Bowl Mirror 2-axis 1-axis
57 no tracking adjustmen
Concentrator requires tracking tracking
t 2
In Central Tower Receiver
58 1000 2000 3000 4000
concentration ratio is 4
When hot water is taken out from
the hot water outlet, the same is
Active Passive Neutral chemical
replaced by cold water from cold
59 heating heating heating heating
water makeup tank fixed above the
system system system system
level of hot water tank this scheme
is known as 2
According to Indian climatic 265 day 300 days
285 days in 330 days in
60 conditions, a solar water heater can in the in the
the year the year
be used for about year year 4
-180 to + - 80 to +
61 Surface azimuth angle varies from 180 0 to + 180 -180 to + 180
deg.cel. deg.cel. 90 deg.cel. deg.cel. 1
The angle made in the horizontal
plane between the horizontal line Surface Solar
62 due south and the projection of the azimuth Declination altitude
normal to the surface on the angle angle
horizontal plane is Hour angle 1
77 degree 65 degree 25 degree 15 degre
63 The hour angle is equivalent to
per hour per hour per hour per hour 1
To how many types are flat plate
64 collectors divided depending on the 2
type of heat transfer fluid? 3 4 5 1
The function of a solar collector is radiation thermal electrical all of
65
of converting solar energy into s energy energ above 2
Power
Liquid heating collectors are Traping
66 Cooking Heating generatio
mainly used for ________ sunlight
water n 2
_______ is glazing which limits the
Absorber selective
67 radiation and convection heat Transperant insulation
plate surface
losses. cover 2
In thermal heating system………. Insulatio surface body
68 casing
is provided to minimize heat loss? n plate cover 1
Which part of flat plate collectors is Transpar Absorber
69 Fins
coated in black? ent cover Insulation plate 3
Which type of absorber increases
Non-porous Overlappe
the heat transfer area over a simple Finned Porous
70 absorber d glass
flat plate absorber of the same absorber absorber
plate absorber
capacity? plate 1
Angle made by a plane surface with Altitude Hour
71 Zenith angle
horizontal is called ________ angle slope angle 2
Why direct heating by hot air The High Low Conductio
72
cannot be done in some cases? material temperature temperature n gives 1
can not required not required best
degrade results
What is the drum dryer called if it Open Trench
73
is open to the atmosphere? dryer Box dryer Trough dryer dryer 3
With what is the feed introduced in Heat
74
the spary dryer? Spray Atomizer Nucleator exchanger 2
Critical
moisture Critical Moisture
75 content, moisture Critical content,
Drying rate curve is plot between critical content, humidity, drying
_____ and _____ humidity drying rate drying rate rate 4
Equilibri
The point where the constant drying um Critical Bound
76
period changes to falling rate period moisture moisture Critical moisture
is called content content humidity content 2
Solar Collector area by using
77
Evacuated Tubes is calculated by 2
Parabolic dish collector can be Solar Solaer water Water
78
used for cooker Heater Disalination all above 4
Statement 1: Cabinet tray dryers are
used for storing grains.
79
Statement 2: Cabinet tray dryers are True, False,
used for low cost foods. False True, True False, False True 4
If 12 Volt 40 Ah 2 Batteries are
connected in paralle and two more
80 same capacity are connec in serice
to each . Then total voltage and 12 Volt 12 Volt 80 24 Volt 80 24 Volt
ampre will be 40 AH AH Ah 40Ah 3
Electricity
availabe
External Electricity is but
81
Electricit External avaliabe but energy
Standalone solar PV system is y is not Electricity load shading rates ahre
suitable for the area where available is availabe is present high 1
Temperat Temperat
ure range ure range
in in
parabolic Temperatur Temperature parabolic
touugh e range in range in Trough
dish solar parabolic parabolic solar
82
collector trough solar Trough solar collector
is more collector is collector is is more
than Flat more than more than than
plate evacuated Parabolic Fresnell
solar tube solar Dish solar solar
Which of the statement is False collector collector collector collector 3
A solar dryer in which solar energy Distribut Indirect type
83 collection and drying take place in ed solar Direct Type of spray Tunnel
separate units is known as a dryer of Dryer dryer dryer 1
Less than
the Greater than Less than
84 online the online Equal to Off Line
Total cost of Stand alone same solar PV solar PV online solar Solar PV
capacity solar PV system is system system PV system system 2
Thermal Efficiency of the Plat plate
85
solar collector is in the range of 10-15% 15-20% 20-25% 25-30% 2
For a 300 Wp solar panel if output
86 voltage is 24 volt then current 12.5
capacity will be Amp 14.5 Amp 20 Amp 10.5 Amp
If solar radiation is 750 W/m2 find
how much energy can be collected
87
by a unit area flat plate solar
collector with 18 % efficiency 200 W 135 W 145 W 150W 2
Transmitance and Absorption
88
factor solar radiation is denoted by ζδ δФ ἀζ τἀ 4
One axis Six axis
89 of sun Two axis of Four axis of of sun
Parabolic dish collector needs tracking sun tracking sun tracking tracking 2
In india Solar Evacuated tube Due
90
collector is arrange South Due North Due East Due West 1
Off line Online Parabolic Flat plate
91 Solar PV Solar PV trough solar collector
Net metering system is used in system system system system 2
Approxima Approximate Approximate Approximat
How many amounts of LPG te 30 LPG 40 LPG 50 LPG e 60 LPG
92 Cylinder can be saved by the use of Cylinder Cylinder per Cylinder per Cylinder
the Community Solar Cooker? per year year year per year 1
According to Indian climatic
93 conditions, a solar water heater can 265 day in 300 day in the 325 day in the 365 day in
be used for about the year year year the year 2
Mass of water to be removed to
dry the matter of 10 kg from 50 %
94 4.4 kg 5.6 kg 5.8 kg 6 kg
initial moisture to 10 % final
moister is 1
Parabolic
Flat plate Evacuated Parabolic Trough
95
solar Tube Solar solar solar
Heat loss by convection is less in collector Collector collector collector 2
Water All of the
96
Direct Solar energy is used for heating Distillation Drying above 4
The power from the sun intercepted 1.8 x 1.8 x 1.8 x 1.8 x
97
by the earth is approximately 108 MW 1011 MW 1014 MW 1017 MW 2
The following is indirect method of Wind Biomass All of the
98
Solar energy utilization energy energy Wave energy above 4
99
position, facing _____ if located in
the northern hemisphere North South East West 2
putting a evacuating
selective the space
100 coating above the
The collection efficiency of Flat on the absorber both (A) and None of
plate collector can be improved by plate plate (B) the above 3
depends
The efficiency of various types of increases, remains upon type
101
collectors ______ with _______ decreasin decreases, same, of
temperature g increasing increasing collector 2
Evacuated Line Paraboloi
102 Flat plate tube focussing d dish
Maximum efficiency is obtained in collector collector collector collector 4
103 The global radiation reaching a Hourly Hourly Hourly beam Hourly
horizontal surface on the earth is beam beam radiation / diffuse 1
given by radiation radiation – Hourly radiation /
+ Hourly Hourly diffuse Hourly
diffuse diffuse radiation beam
radiation radiation radiation
Solar Surface Solar
104 altitude azimuth azimuth
The complement of zenith angle is angle angle angle Slope 1
10° per 25° per
105
The hour angle is equivalent to hour 15° per hour 20° per hour hour 2
The ratio of the beam radiation flux
falling on a tilted surface to that Radiation
106
falling on a horizontal surface is shape None of
called the factor Tilt factor Slope the above 2
The correction has a magnitude of
107 ___ minutes for every degree
difference in longitude 2 4 6 8 3
-180° to
108
Surface azimuth angle varies from 0 to 90° -90 to 90° 0 to 180° 180° 4
Solar radiation flux is usually Anemom Pyranomete Sunshine All of the
109
measured with the help of a eter r recorder above 2
The zenith angle is the angle made normal,
110 by the sun’s rays with the ____ to a horizonta tangent, normal, tangent,
______ surface l horizontal vertical vertical 1
1347 1377
111
The value of Solar Constant is W/m2 1357 W/m2 1367 W/m2 W/m2 3
The extraterrestrial radiation flux
112
varies by ____ % over a year ± 1.1 ± 2.2 ± 3.3 ± 4.4 3
The following type of energy is Thermal Chemical Electrical Mechanic
113
stored as latent heat energy energy energy al energy 1
In the paraboloid dish concept, the
114 concentrator tracks the sun by None of
rotating about One axes Two axes Three axes the above 2
Line
Which of the following type of focussing Paraboloid
115
collector is used for low Flat plate parabolic dish All of the
temperature systems? collector collector collector above 1
Which is most common source of
116 energy from which electricity is Hydroele Wind Solar
produced? ctricity energy Coal energy 3
Ultraviol
117 In what form is solar energy is et Infrared Electromagn Transvers
radiated from the sun? Radiation radiation etic waves e waves 3
Metering
Magneto Metal Micro Head
118
What does MHD stands for in the Hydro Hydrogen Hybrid Differenti
energy field? Dynamic Detox Drive al 1
The scattered solar radiation is Direct Beam Diffuse Infrared
119
called ____________ Radiation Radiation radiation Radiation 3
when the when the
120 sun is sun right
Insolation is less ____________ low above head at night at sun rise 1
Multiple Choice Question Bank in Solar and Wind Energy (402050 B) BE (Mech)
Unit 1. Solar Energy Principles

1. Which one of the following is a nonrenewable energy resource?
a) Solar ,
b) b) geothermal,
c) c) hydroelectric,
d) d) coal
Ans. d) coal
2. What is the leading source of energy used in India today for electricity
generation?
a)Solar PV ,
b) Coal,
c) Natural gas,
d) Nuclear power
Ans. b) Coal
3. In 2017, Govt. of India has approved solar plan to double capacity to?
a) 20,000 MW ,
b) b) 30,000 MW
c) c) 40,000 MW,
d) d) 50,000 MW
Ans. 40,000 MW from 20,000 MW in form of approximate 50 solar parks, These
solar parks will be set up by 2019-20 with a financial assistance of Rs 8,100
crore from the Centre.
4. Which country is building the world's tallest solar tower to harness solar energy?
a. Israel
b. India
c. Sri Lanka
d. Germany
Ans. Israel. The centre of the Ashalim solar tower, it will be 250 metres tall and will
be encircled by 50 thousand mirrors called heliostats. It will generate 310 MW
of power.
5. Which city will be made into a Model Solar City under the Development of Solar
Cities Programme?
a. Dehradun
b. Chandigarh
c. Amritsar
d. Ludhiana
Ans. ANSWER: Chandigarh
Explanation: There is a master plan for making Chandigarh empaneled 48 solar
power aggregators- a Model Solar City under Development of Solar Cities
Programme of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
6. Which is the India-UK networked centre on Solar energy that will be

established?
a. Solar Alliance
b. Solar Union
c. Solar Agency
d. Solar Organisation
Ans. A) Solar Alliance
7. First solar powered ferry is being launched in which Southern state?
a. Tamil Nadu
b. Telangana
c. Andhra Pradesh
d. Kerala
Ans. D) Kerala developed by the Kerala State Water Transport Department.
8. What is fraction of electricity generation of private sector agencies in India?
a) 25.2%,
b) 28.5%,
c) 46.5%,
d) 74.8%
Ans.c) 46.5%
9. According to Sources wise power Generation in India, Coal contributes
a) 23%,
b) b) 63%,
c) c) 12%,
d) ) 74.8%
Ans.b) 36%
10. Earth intercepts only an amount of sun energy approximately
A) 3.8 × 1020 MW,
B) 1.7 × 1014 MW,
C) 1.392×106 MW,
D) 1.27 × 104 MW
Ans. B) 1.7 × 1014 MW
11. Earth receives -------% of solar energy on its surface as direct and diffuse
radiation
a) 47%
b) 30%
c) 23%
d) None of above
Ans. A) 47%
12. -------% of solar energy scattered to space
a) 47%
b) 30%
c) 23%
d) None of above
Ans. b) 30%
13. The total solar radiation as received on earth's surface is called.
a) Extraterrestrial radiation, b) Terrestrial radiation, c) direct radiation, d) diffused
radiation
Ans. B) Terrestrial radiation
14. Due to elliptical shape of earth, the distance variation between earth and sun is
approximately
a) 1.7%
b) 3.0%
c) 2.3%
d) 10%
Ans. a) 1.7%
15. Earth’s mean diameter is approximately
a) 1.27 × 104 km
b) 3.8 × 1020 km,
c) 1.7 × 1014 km,
d) 1.392×106 km,
Ans. A) 1.27 × 104 km
16. In every three months, the axis of the earth’s rotation around itself is at an
angle of
A) 23.45°
B) 27
C) 30
D) 32
Ans. A) 2345
17. The value of solar constant, as calculated from solar –earth position and sun
temperature of 5762 K is
A) 1353 W/m2
B) 1263 W/m2
C) 1453 W/m2
D) 1153 W/m2
E) Ans. A) 1353 W/m2
18 Pyranometer' measures the solar radiation flux density (W/m2) within
wavelength range
A) 0.3 μm to 3 μm.
B) 0 μm to 10 μm.
C) 10 μm to 100 μm.
D) 0.3 μm to 100 μm.
Ans. A) 0.3 μm to 3 μm.
19. The solar radiation measuring instrument, which converts some of the incident
radiation directly into electricity is called
A) Thermal detector
B) photon detector
C) Solarimeter
D) Actinometer
Ans, B) photon detector
20. An angle of a point on the earth's surface between the equator plane and a line
that passes through that point and is normal to the surface is
A) Latitude angle
B) Longitude angle
C) Hour angle
D) Solar declination angle
Ans. A) Latitude angle
21 . A pyrometer is used for the measurements of
a. Diffuse radiations only.

b. Direct radiations only.
c. Both direct and diffused radiations.
d. None of the above.
Ans. c)
Unit 2: Solar Thermal Systems and Applications

1. The solar water heating system, using evacuated tube collector can heat water
up to maximum temperature of
A) 80C,
B) 200C
C) 240C
D) 300C
Ans. B) 200C
2. The function of transparent cover on the solar collectors is
A.) to capture solar radiation
B.) to allow transmission of heat energy
C.) to insulate the collector
D.) All of above
Ans. A) to capture solar radiation
3. Passive design of solar water heater, water circulation takes place due to
A) Use of pump
B) Thermo syphon
C) Under gravity
D) None of above
Ans. B) Thermo syphon
4. In a flat plate collector, for the absorber, which one is true statement
A) absorbs the incident solar radiation.
B) is made of copper or aluminium
C) is coated with some selective coating.
D) All of above
Ans. D) All of above.
5. Which one is provided to minimize heat loss from solar collectors?
a) Absorber plate
b) Glass cover
c) Insulation
d) Casing
Ans. c) glass cover.
6. Use of solar dyer
A) minimizes degradation of agricultural products,
B) improve and protect health and nutrition value of agricultural products.
C) improves colour of agricultural products
D) All of above.
7. For what purpose are solar dryer used?
a) To trap solar radiance
b) To act as a medium to help in conversion of sunlight to electrical energy
c) Employed as solar air heaters
d) They act as alternate panels in case of failure
Ans. C) Employed as solar air heaters
8. Which type of absorber increases the heat transfer area over a simple flat plate
absorber of the same capacity?
a) Porous absorber plate
b) Non-porous absorber plate
c) Over lapped glass absorber
d) Finned absorber
Ans. d) Finned absorber.
9. The function of a solar collector is of converting solar energy into
a. Radiations
b. Electrical energy directions.
c. Thermal energy.
d. All of these.
Ans. C) Thermal Energy
10. Liquid heating collectors are mainly used for _________
a) heating water
b) generating electricity
c) cooking
d) trapping sunlight
Ans. a) heating water.
11. A parabolic trough concentrates sunlight
A) on a focal point
B) on a focal line,
C) on the entire surface of tube,
D) None of above.
12. Temperature attained by cylindrical parabolic collector is of the order of
a. 50 – 100 °C
b. 100 – 150 °C
c. 150 – 200 °C
d. 200 – 300 °C
Ans. d. 200 – 300 °C
13. In central receiver system, reflector mirrors used for exploiting the solar energy
are called
A) heliostats,
B) Diffusers
C) Collector
D) Solar ponds
Ans. A) Heliostats
14. The solar distillation process
A) process saline water into pure water
B) Process saline water into drinking water,
C) evaporates saline water into vapor only
D) Condenses vapor into liquid water.
Ans. A) process saline water into pure water
15. Geometric concentration ratio (CR) is defined as ratio of
A) the solar flux on the receiver to the flux on the aperture,
B) aperture area to absorber area,
C) Collector area to receiver area
D) longitude angle to latitude angle.
Ans. B) aperture area to absorber area.
16. Which of the following type of collector is used for low temperature systems?
(A) Flat plate collector
(B) Line focussing parabolic collector
(C) Paraboloid dish collector
(D) All of the above.
Ans. A) Flat plat collector
17. In the paraboloid dish concept, the concentrator tracks the sun by rotating
about
(A) One axes
(B) Two axes
(C) Three axes
(D) None of the above
Ans. B) Two axis
18. Maximum efficiency is obtained in
(B) Evacuated tube collector
(C) Line focussing collector
(D) Paraboloid dish collector
Ans. (B) Evacuated tube collector
Unit 3: Solar Photovoltaic and Applications
1. Photovoltaic (PV) module

a. has no moving parts
b. Coverts solar energy into electricity
c. does not produce green house gases,
d. all of above.
Ans. d. all of above
2. A PV cell consists of
a. two or more thin layers of semiconducting material,
b. a collector and receiver system
c. Fuel cells
d. None of above.
Ans. a. two or more thin layers of semiconducting material
3. A solar cell consists of

a. emitter, space charge region, and base,
b. p type junction,
c. n type junction,
d. all of above
Ans. d, all of above.
4. The free electrons are generated by the action of photons in
a. the n layer,
b. the p layer.
c. band gap
d. all of above
Ans. a) the n layer.
5. A module in a solar panel refers to
a) Series arrangement of solar cells.
b) Parallel arrangement of solar cells.
c) Series and parallel arrangement of solar cells.
d) None of the above.
Ans. C) Series and parallel arrangement of solar cells.
6. The efficiency of the solar cell is about
a. 25 %
b. 17 %
c. 40 %
d. 60 %
Answer b) 17%
7. For satellites the source of energy is
a. Solar cell
b. Fuel cells
c. Edison cells
d. Cryogenic storage
Ans. a) Solar cell
8. The output power of a solar PV system of 1 kW capacity in a normal day is of
the order
a. 4 kWh
b. 5.0 kWh
c. 7.5 kWh
d. 10.25 kWh
Ans. b) 5 kWh
9. What is the maximum possible output of a solar array?
a. 300 W/m2
b. 100 W/m2
c. 250 W/m2
d. 500 W/m2
Ans. c) 250 W/m2.
10. In on- grid solar PV system, which component is not used
a. Solar inverter
b. Solar module
c. Solar battery
d. PV panel
Ans. c. solar battery.
11. In On- grid solar PV system, which component converts DC into AC
a. Solar inverter
b. Solar module
c. Charge controller
d. PV panel
Ans. a. solar inverter.
12. The maximum life of solar PV power purchase agreement with electricity boards
is
a) 5 years
b) 10 years
c) 15 years
d) 20 years
Ans. d) 20 years.
Unit 4. Case Study on Solar Energy Applications

1. Heating chamber of a solar food dryer consists of
a. a. Cover plate,
b. b. absorber plate,
c. c. insulation.
d. All of above
2. The amount of moisture removal of a food is calculated as (Mi = initial moisture
Mf = final moisture)
a. (Mi- Mf)/100,
b. (Mi-Mf)/Mi
c. (Mi-Mf)/Mf
d. (Mi-Mf)/ 1353
Ans. b. (Mi-Mf)/Mi
3. The efficiency of solar dryer is given by
a. (Mi- Mf)/I
b. (Mi-Mf)/ (I A)
c. (Mi-Mf)× hfg/( I A)
d. (Mi-Mf)/(Mf× I)
4. where Mi = initial moisture Mf = final moisture, I = solar intensity(W/m2), A =
collector area and hfg= . latent heat of evaporation
Ans. c. (Mi-Mf)× hfg/( I A)
5. The cover plate of fixed solar collector must be tilted with respect to ground as
a. 17 20 degree north
b. 17 20 degree south
c. 17 20 degree east
d. 17 20 degree west.
Ans. b. 17 20 degree south.
6. For a house consuming on average 280 units of electricity per month, the
capacity of solar PV on grid system to be installed should be
a. 1 kWp
b. 2 kWp
c. 3 kWp
d. 4 kWp
Ans. b. 2 kWp
7. Two air conditioners 5 Ton capacity each consume 1250 Watts and operates for
8 hours a day. Capacity of solar PV system to handle above load is
a. 1 kWp
b. 2 kWp
c. 3 kWp
d. 4 kWp
Ans. b. 2 kWp
8. In a parabolic solar collector, which quantity is highest
a. Convection heat loss
b. useful heat
c. radiation heat loss
d. conduction heat loss
Ans. c. radiation heat loss
Unit 5: Wind Energy
1. Contribution of wind power generation in India is approximately

a. 1%
b. 2%
c. 4%
d. 10%
Ans. a. 1 %
2. Wind power is directly proportional to
a. wind velocity
b. square of wind velocity
c. cube of wind velocity,
d. Fifth power of wind velocity
Ans. c. cube of velocity
3. Wind energy is harnessed as ______ energy with the help of windmill or turbine.
a. Mechanical
b. Solar
c. Electrical
d. Heat
Ans. a. Mechanical
4. Global Cold wind generated from Oceans moves to
a. Mountains
b. Equator
c. Plain areas
d. Poles
Ans. c. plain areas
5. Winds having following speed are suitable to operate wind turbines.
a. 5 – 25m/s
b. 10 – 35m/s
c. 20 – 45m/s
d. 30 – 55m/s
Ans. a. 5 – 25m/s
6. Main hurdle of wind turbine is
a. It requires large area,
b. It requires heavy structure
c. It is not environmental friendly
d. Its efficiency is very low.
7. Power output from a wind turbine rotor depends on
a. the density of the air,
b. the rotor area,
c. the wind speed
d. all of above
8. Power Coefficient, Cp, is defined as
a. Net Power/ Wind power
b. Wind power/ Rotor power
c. Inlet wind power/exit wind power
d. None of above
Ans. a. Net Power/ Wind power
9. The maximum possible Betz Limit for wind turbine is
a. 75%
b. 39%
c. 49%
d. 59%
Ans. d. 59%
10. The average installation cost of modern wind turbine per kilowatt electrical
power is around
a. Rs. 50,000
b. Rs. 70,000
c. Rs. 1,00,000
d. Rs. 1,25,000
Ans. b. Rs. 70,000
11. Maintenance costs are about ………..% of the original cost, per year.
a. 1.5-2.0 %
b. 2- 3%
c. 3-4%
d. 4-5%
Ans. 1.5-2 %
12. Which state in India has installed highest wind power capacity
a. Maharashtra
b. Tamilnadu,
c. Orissa
d. Andhra Pradesh
Ans. b. Tamilnadu
13. How many types of windmills are there?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) a) HAWT and VAWT
14. Darrieus machine is a
a. horizontal axis wind turbine
b. Vertical axis wind turbine
c. Old-fashioned windmill
d. Maxican turbine
Ans. b. Vertical axis wind turbine
15. The following factor(s) affects the distribution of wind energy
a. Mountain chains
b. The hills, trees and buildings
c. Frictional effect of the surface
d. All of the above
16. The wind intensity can be described by
a. Reynolds number
b. Mach number
c. Beaufort number
d. Froude number
Ans. c. Beaufort number
17. Why severe fluctuations in power are always undesirable in windmill?
a) Because they pose power oscillations problems
b) Damage of parts due to fluctuations
c) The efficiency of the plant will be reduced
d) Results in damage to the whole plant
Ans. a)
Unit 6: Case Study on Wind Mill Design

1. _____ force is responsible for forcing the global winds towards westernly
direction.
a. Coriolis
b. Gravitational
c. Centripetal
d. Centrifugal
Ans. a. Coriolis
2. What is the inherent weakness of all wind machines?
a) Their efficiencies
b) Requires powerful winds to make fan rotate
c) Their dependency on the wind speed
d) Cannot be easily repaired
Ans. c)
3. A wind turbine designed too to come into operation at a minimum wind speed
is called ______
a) Cut in velocity
b) Windward
c) Cut out velocity
d) Upwind location
Ans. a)
4. Why is wind turbine designed to stop operation at cut out velocity?
a) To protect wheel against damage
b) To make a quick stop in emergencies
c) To improve the efficiency
d) In order to adjust the blades to wind direction
Ans. a)
5. The fraction of time during a given period that the turbine is actually on line is
called?
a) Availability factor
b) Flat rating
c) Cut in velocity
d) Cut out velocity
Ans. a)available factor
6. Over load factor is also called as _____________
a) availability factor
b) plant operating factor
c) flat rating
d) cut out velocity
Ans. b) plant capacity factor
7. Name the windmill which has four blades mounted on a central post.
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
Ans. a) Post Mill
8. Name the type of windmill which consists of a sloping, horizontally weather
boarded or thatched tower.
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
Ans. b) Smock Mill
9. are further improvements on smock mill?
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
Ans. c) Towerr Mill
10. Which type of windmills are been used for primary purposes?
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
Ans. d) Fan Mill

a) Solar ,
b) b) geothermal,
d) d) coal
Ans. d) coal
generation?
a)Solar PV ,
b) Coal,
c) Natural gas,
d) Nuclear power
Ans. b) Coal
a) 20,000 MW ,
b) b) 30,000 MW
c) c) 40,000 MW,
d) d) 50,000 MW
a. Israel
b. India
c. Sri Lanka
d. Germany
of power.
Cities Programme?
a. Dehradun
b. Chandigarh
c. Amritsar
d. Ludhiana

established?
a. Solar Alliance
b. Solar Union
c. Solar Agency
a. Tamil Nadu
b. Telangana
c. Andhra Pradesh
d. Kerala
a) 25.2%,
b) 28.5%,
c) 46.5%,
d) 74.8%
Ans.c) 46.5%
a) 23%,
b) b) 63%,
c) c) 12%,
d) ) 74.8%
Ans.b) 36%
A) 3.8 × 1020 MW,
B) 1.7 × 1014 MW,
C) 1.392×106 MW,
D) 1.27 × 104 MW
Ans. B) 1.7 × 1014 MW
radiation
a) 47%
b) 30%
c) 23%
d) None of above
Ans. A) 47%
a) 47%
b) 30%
c) 23%
d) None of above
Ans. b) 30%
radiation
approximately
a) 1.7%
b) 3.0%
c) 2.3%
d) 10%
Ans. a) 1.7%
a) 1.27 × 104 km
b) 3.8 × 1020 km,
c) 1.7 × 1014 km,
d) 1.392×106 km,
Ans. A) 1.27 × 104 km
angle of
A) 23.45°
B) 27
C) 30
D) 32
Ans. A) 2345
A) 1353 W/m2
B) 1263 W/m2
C) 1453 W/m2
D) 1153 W/m2
E) Ans. A) 1353 W/m2
wavelength range
A) 0.3 μm to 3 μm.
B) 0 μm to 10 μm.
C) 10 μm to 100 μm.
D) 0.3 μm to 100 μm.
A) Thermal detector
B) photon detector
C) Solarimeter
D) Actinometer
A) Latitude angle
B) Longitude angle
C) Hour angle

Ans. c)

A) 80C,
B) 200C
C) 240C
D) 300C
Ans. B) 200C
D.) All of above
A) Use of pump
B) Thermo syphon
C) Under gravity
D) None of above
D) All of above
a) Absorber plate
b) Glass cover
c) Insulation
d) Casing
D) All of above.
d) Finned absorber
a. Radiations
c. Thermal energy.
d. All of these.
a) heating water
c) cooking
A) on a focal point
B) on a focal line,
D) None of above.
a. 50 – 100 °C
b. 100 – 150 °C
c. 150 – 200 °C
d. 200 – 300 °C
Ans. d. 200 – 300 °C
are called
A) heliostats,
B) Diffusers
C) Collector
D) Solar ponds
Ans. A) Heliostats
about
(A) One axes
(B) Two axes
(C) Three axes
Ans. B) Two axis

d. all of above.
c. Fuel cells
d. None of above.

b. p type junction,
c. n type junction,
d. all of above
a. the n layer,
b. the p layer.
c. band gap
d. all of above
a. 25 %
b. 17 %
c. 40 %
d. 60 %
Answer b) 17%
a. Solar cell
b. Fuel cells
c. Edison cells
Ans. a) Solar cell
the order
a. 4 kWh
b. 5.0 kWh
c. 7.5 kWh
d. 10.25 kWh
Ans. b) 5 kWh
a. 300 W/m2
b. 100 W/m2
c. 250 W/m2
d. 500 W/m2
Ans. c) 250 W/m2.
a. Solar inverter
b. Solar module
c. Solar battery
d. PV panel
a. Solar inverter
b. Solar module
d. PV panel
is
a) 5 years
b) 10 years
c) 15 years
d) 20 years
Ans. d) 20 years.

a. a. Cover plate,
c. c. insulation.
d. All of above
a. (Mi- Mf)/100,
b. (Mi-Mf)/Mi
c. (Mi-Mf)/Mf
d. (Mi-Mf)/ 1353
Ans. b. (Mi-Mf)/Mi
a. (Mi- Mf)/I
b. (Mi-Mf)/ (I A)
d. (Mi-Mf)/(Mf× I)
a. 1 kWp
b. 2 kWp
c. 3 kWp
d. 4 kWp
Ans. b. 2 kWp
a. 1 kWp
b. 2 kWp
c. 3 kWp
d. 4 kWp
Ans. b. 2 kWp
b. useful heat
Unit 5: Wind Energy

a. 1%
b. 2%
c. 4%
d. 10%
Ans. a. 1 %
a. wind velocity
a. Mechanical
b. Solar
c. Electrical
d. Heat
Ans. a. Mechanical
a. Mountains
b. Equator
c. Plain areas
d. Poles
Ans. c. plain areas
a. 5 – 25m/s
b. 10 – 35m/s
c. 20 – 45m/s
d. 30 – 55m/s
Ans. a. 5 – 25m/s
b. the rotor area,
c. the wind speed
d. all of above
d. None of above
a. 75%
b. 39%
c. 49%
d. 59%
Ans. d. 59%
power is around
a. Rs. 50,000
b. Rs. 70,000
c. Rs. 1,00,000
d. Rs. 1,25,000
Ans. b. Rs. 70,000
a. 1.5-2.0 %
b. 2- 3%
c. 3-4%
d. 4-5%
Ans. 1.5-2 %
a. Maharashtra
b. Tamilnadu,
c. Orissa
d. Andhra Pradesh
Ans. b. Tamilnadu
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) a) HAWT and VAWT
d. Maxican turbine
a. Mountain chains
d. All of the above
a. Reynolds number
b. Mach number
c. Beaufort number
d. Froude number
Ans. a)

direction.
a. Coriolis
b. Gravitational
c. Centripetal
d. Centrifugal
Ans. a. Coriolis
Ans. c)
is called ______
a) Cut in velocity
b) Windward
c) Cut out velocity
d) Upwind location
Ans. a)
Ans. a)
called?
b) Flat rating
c) Cut in velocity
d) Cut out velocity
c) flat rating
d) cut out velocity
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
Ans. a) Post Mill
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
Ans. b) Smock Mill
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
Ans. c) Towerr Mill
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
Ans. d) Fan Mill
• Based on usability, Energy Resources are classified into _____
a) primary, secondary and tertiary resources
b) primary and secondary resources
c) primary, secondary, intermediate and tertiary resources
d) primary, intermediate and secondary resources
View Answer
• Answer: d
Explanation: On the basis of usability, Energy Resources are classified into
Primary, Intermediate and Secondary Resources. Primary Resources are present
in nature prior to human interference or modification. Intermediate Resources
are obtained from primary resources after one or more stages of transformation
while Secondary Resources are the form of energy that is finally supplied to the
consumer for utilization.
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• Which of the following is not a type of primary resource?

a) Crude Oil
b) Coal
c) Hydrogen Energy
d) Sunlight
View Answer
• Answer: c
Explanation: Hydrogen is mainly obtained from Fossil Fuels, which are primary
sources of energy. Therefore, Hydrogen energy is a secondary source of energy.
Crude Oil, Coal, and Sunlight are the primary source of energy since they can be
directly obtained from nature.
• The ratio of energy received from a raw energy source to energy spent to obtain the
raw energy source is called as _____
a) consumption ratio
b) fuel ratio
c) energy yield ratio
d) joule ratio
View Answer
• Answer: c
Explanation: The ratio of the energy provided by a system (like Wind Energy
Conversion Systems) over its lifetime to the energy required to make it is called its
energy yield ratio.
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• Energy Resources which are being used for many decades are known as _____
a) conventional energy sources
b) non-conventional energy sources
c) primary energy sources
d) fuel cells
View Answer
• Answer: a
Explanation: Conventional sources of energy are those sources that are being
used traditionally for a long time i.e. coal, petroleum, firewood, etc. Non-
conventional sources are relatively new in terms of utilization.
• A new renewable energy system is designed to harvest energy from wind. The total
energy required to build the system is 240 kJ. The energy yield ratio of the system is
14:3. The total energy provided by the system over its lifetime is _____
a) 18,000 kJ
b) 54,000 kJ
c) 1,120 kJ
d) 2,258 kJ
View Answer
• Answer: c
Explanation: We know that the energy yield ratio (Ey) of a system is given by
Ey = EsEr
Where Es = Energy supplied by the system over its lifetime
And, Er = Energy required to build the system
Therefore, Ey = Es240=143
Or, Es = 240 x 143
Or, Es = 1120 kJ.
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• Which of the statements is correct about Solar Energy?

a) It is a renewable and conventional source of energy
b) It is a non-renewable and non-conventional source of energy
c) It is a renewable and non-conventional source of energy
d) It is a non-renewable source of energy
View Answer
• Answer: c
Explanation: Solar energy is a source of energy that has not been used
traditionally and is relatively new in terms of usage. Hence it is a non-
conventional source of energy. It is unlimited and inexhaustible and hence is a
renewable source of energy.
• Wind and Hydrogen energy are examples of_________

a) primary sources
b) primary and secondary sources respectively
c) secondary sources
d) tertiary sources
View Answer
• Answer: b
Explanation: Wind energy is directly available in the environment, so it is a
primary energy source while Hydrogen energy is obtained from fossil fuels and
hence is a secondary energy source.
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• On the basis of long-term availability, resources are classified into____

a) conventional and non-conventional resources
b) renewable and non-renewable resources
c) primary and secondary resources
d) commercial and non-commercial resources
View Answer
• Answer: b
Explanation: On the basis of traditional use resources are classified into
conventional and non-conventional resources. On the basis of long-term
availability, resources are classified into renewable and non-renewable resources.
Based on the usability of energy, resources are classified into primary,
intermediate and secondary resources. Based on commercial applications,
resources are classified into commercial and non-commercial resources.
• Which of these Energy resources is/are widely used in industries?

a) Coal and Gasoline
b) Wood
c) Biogas
d) Crop Residue
View Answer
• Answer: a
Explanation: Coal and gasoline are commercial resources that are widely used in
industries such as Steel, Cement, Electricity, etc. Firewood and crop residue are
generally used for domestic purposes. Biogas has some industrial uses such as
for electricity generation but is not used widely.
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• Which of these resources does not produce CO2 during electricity generation?
a) Coal
b) Methane
c) Uranium
d) Biogas
View Answer
• Answer: c
Explanation: Coal, Methane, and Biogas produce CO2 during electricity generation
as all of them have some carbon content, which on combustion produces CO 2.
Uranium produces energy by the process of nuclear fission and does not produce
CO2.
• On the basis of origin, energy resources are classified into natural and artificial
resources.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
• Answer: b
Explanation: Based on Origin, energy resources are classified into Fossil fuels,
Nuclear, Solar, Wind, Biomass, Geothermal, Tidal, Ocean thermal, Ocean wave
and Hydro energy.
• Which of these is the major contributor to world pollution?

a) Commercial resources
b) Non-Commercial Resources
c) Renewable Resources
d) Nuclear Energy
View Answer
• Answer: a
Explanation: Commercial resources are the major contributor to world pollution.
Resources like Coal, Coke, Gasoline, etc which are used commercially produce a
large chunk of total CO2 produced on earth. To combat this problem and for
sustainable development, renewable sources should replace these forms of
energy.
• Half of the world’s energy needs are fulfilled by renewable energy sources.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
• Answer: b
Explanation: 89 percent of the total energy produced is from non-renewable
resources i.e. Coal(27%), Natural Gas(24%), Oil(34%) and Nuclear Energy(11%).
Only 11% of the world’s energy needs are fulfilled by Renewable resources.
• Which of the energy resources were considered for large scale use after the oil crisis
of 1973?
a) Conventional Sources
b) Non-Conventional Sources
c) Non-renewable sources
d) Primary Sources
View Answer
• Answer: b
Explanation: The oil crisis of 1973 caused oil prices to increase drastically. This
also caused the inflation in the price of other commercial resources. Government
of all the countries felt the need for alternative sources of energy and non-
conventional sources like solar and wind energy were developed for large scale
use.
• The unit of energy yield ratio is _____

a) joule
b) watt
c) joule/Kelvin
d) dimensionless
View Answer
• Answer: d
1. World Energy Needs are rising due to _________

a) deforestation
b) increasing population and Industrialization
c) inflation
d) natural calamities
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The increasing world population has caused the world energy needs to
rise significantly. Apart from the rapid growth of industries, the formation of new
ones has increased the energy needs of the world. Due to these reasons,
Conventional sources of energy are not enough, and hence we need alternative
energy sources.
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2. Which of the following is a disadvantage of Hydro Power?

a) They cause deforestation and affect wildlife
b) They cause harmful emissions
c) They are an unstable source of energy
d) They are not suitable for long-distance electricity transmission
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For building Hydroelectric dams, a large area is required for which
deforestation is done to clear the area which affects the local wildlife. Sometimes
Dams also cause floods in Forests which damages it. Building a dam also affects the
aquatic life.
3. Which of the following statement is true about conventional energy sources?

a) They cause minimum pollution
b) They are available in limited quantity
c) Coal is the most used conventional energy source in the world
d) There are sufficient reserves of Coal, Petroleum and Natural gas for the next 300
years
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Conventional energy sources like Coal, Petroleum, Natural gas, etc, are
major causes of pollution and ozone layer depletion. There are limited reserves of
conventional energy sources, which are bound to be finished. At the current rate of
consumption, the approximate lifetime of the world’s petroleum, natural gas, and
coal reserves are 50 years, 52.8 years, and 153 years, respectively. Oil is the most
used energy source in the world. At present 31 percent of the world energy needs
are fulfilled by Oil.
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4. All of the conventional energy sources are Non-Renewable.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Apart from Hydro Power, all other Conventional energy sources are
Non-renewable. In Hydropower generation flowing water is used to generate
electricity. It is considered a renewable energy source because the water cycle is
constantly renewed by the sun.
5. To focus on Renewable and Other alternative sources of energy, ______ was

established in March 1981 by the Government of India.
a) commission for additional sources of energy
b) commission for alternative sources of energy
c) council of scientific & industrial research
d) centre for science and environment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Realizing the importance of Non-Conventional energy sources, in March
1981 the government of India established a Commission for Additional Sources of
Energy (CASE), in the Department of Science and Technology. Council of Scientific &
Industrial Research (CSIR) was established in September 1942 to bring Science and
Technology to India. CSE (Centre for Science and Environment) was established in
1980 and works on environment-development issues in India.
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6. IREDA was developed by the Government of India _______

a) to implement more efficient methods for using Conventional Energy sources
b) to promote the Development of Non-Conventional Energy Sources
c) to develop Nuclear Energy in India
d) to control pollution
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Ltd (IREDA) was
established in 1987 to promote the use of Non-Conventional sources of energy. It is
operated by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
7. Apart from supplying energy, fossil fuels are used for_________
a) storing energy in solar ponds
b) drying Vegetables
c) rotating turbine in Hydro Power plants
d) manufacture of Organic Chemicals
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Solar pond collects thermal energy from sunlight. The salt content of
the pond increases with depth. It doesn’t require any fuel for storing energy. Apart
from fulfilling energy needs, fossil fuels are also used as feedstock materials for the
manufacture of organic chemicals. Solar dryers are used to dry foods i.e. Fruits,
Vegetables, etc. In Hydroelectric power plants, turbines are rotated by the Kinetic
Energy of water.
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8. The only country having a full-fledged ministry for Development of New and
Renewable Resources is _____
a) India
b) Bangladesh
c) USA
d) China
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: India is the only country having a full-fledged ministry devoted to
Developing New and Renewable Energy Sources. Ministry of New and Renewable
Energy or MNRE is a ministry of the Government of India. The ministry was
established as the Ministry of Non-Conventional Energy Sources in 1992.
9. CASE was established after the Oil Crisis of 1973.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Energy Crisis of the 1970s i.e. Oil crisis of 1973 and Energy Crisis of
1979 caused a shortage of petroleum (and other commonly used sources) and
elevation in its price. This led to the establishment of the Commission for Additional
Sources of Energy (CASE) in the Department of Science & Technology (India) in March
1981. It involved the formulation of policies, their implementation, and Research and
Development in the field of New and Renewable energy sources.
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10. Which of the following schemes was launched by MNRE?

a) MNREGA
b) UJJWALA
c) KUSUM
d) JWALA
View Answer
Answer: c
1. Conventional Energy Sources are cheaper than Non-Conventional Sources.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: At present Conventional Energy Sources are cheaper than Non-
Conventional sources. Since the Non-Conventional sources are relatively new in
terms of usage, the technology for harnessing energy from these sources is not well
developed. The cost/kWh of electrical energy obtained from different conventional
sources are as follows:
Coal- 1.65 ₹/kWh
Diesel- 3.00 ₹/kWh
Hydropower- 1.00 ₹/kWh
Nuclear – 1.20 ₹/kWh
which is less than the cost/kWh of the non-conventional sources.
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2. Which of the following pollutants are emitted by the burning of fossil fuel?
a) Oxides of Carbon, Nitrogen, and Sulphur
b) Oxides of Carbon, Uranium, and Radium
c) Calcium Halides and Oxides of Nitrogen
d) Noble Gases
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fossil fuels generate Oxides of Carbon like CO and CO2, Oxides of
Nitrogen like NO and NO2, and Oxides of Sulphur like SO2 and SO3. Apart from that
particulate matter and heat is also generated by fossil fuels.
3. _____ is a petrochemical and is used as raw material for chemical, pharmaceutical,

and paint industry.
a) Plutonium
b) Uranium
c) Coal
d) Protactinium
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Coal is a valuable petrochemical and is used as a raw material in many
industries i.e. Chemical, Pharmaceutical, and Paint industry. From a long-term
perspective, it is essential to conserve coal for future needs as a raw material.
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4. Which of the following statements is not true about radioactive waste?

a) It has radioactivity quotient of dangerous levels.
b) The disposed radioactive waste is to be guarded for a long period
c) It has low radioactivity quotient
d) Its radioactivity decreases with time
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The waste generated in Nuclear power plants has radioactivity
quotients of dangerous levels, it remains above the safe limit for a long time, and this
is a health hazard. The radioactive waste is to be guarded for a long time until its
radioactivity level comes to a safe limit.
5. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of Hydro Power?

a) A large land area submerges into the water leading to deforestation
b) It causes dislocation of a large population and rehabilitation
c) It causes ecological disturbances like earthquake
d) It causes calamities like landslides
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: To clear the land area deforestation is done and sometimes it is needed
to dislocate the local people to clear areas for dams. Large dams have abilities to
trigger earthquakes. The earliest Dam Induced Earthquake was observed in Algeria in
1932.
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6. Sweden banned _______ in 1984.

a) pesticides
b) new nuclear power plants
c) biogas plants
d) mining of fossil fuels
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Due to various hazards associated with Nuclear Energy Sweden banned
New Nuclear power plants since 1984 and has plans to dismantle the existing plants.
7. Which Oxides of Nitrogen are generated by burning of fossil fuel?

a) NO and NO2
b) NO2, NO3, and N2O5
c) N2O5 and N2O3
d) NO3 and N2O5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Burning of fossil fuels cause emission of Nitrogen Oxides. NO and
NO2 are the major Nitrogen oxides produced by the combustion of fossil fuel. These
oxides cause smog and contribute to acid rain.
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8. 3 percentage of the total greenhouse gas emissions are due to Hydropower plants.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydropower plant doesn’t require burning of fuel so no pollutants are
emitted. It converts the potential energy of falling water to kinetic energy which is
converted to electricity.
9. Which Uranium isotope is used in nuclear power plants?

a) U-235
b) U-234
c) U-215
d) U-218
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: U-235 and U-238 are naturally occurring isotopes of Uranium. U-235 is
ideal for Nuclear energy because it splits easily and gives off a lot of energy. U-238,
on the other hand, has a longer half life and takes more time to decay. U-215 and U-
218 are artificially produced isotopes of Uranium.
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10. Based on the following statements, choose the correct option.

Statement I: The technology for harnessing fossil fuels is well developed.
Statement II: Fossil fuels are a cheap source of energy.
a) Statement -I is true, Statement -II is true and Statement -II is the correct explanation
of Statement -I
b) Statement-I is true, Statement -II is true and Statement -II is not the correct
explanation of Statement-II
c) Statement -I is true and Statement -II is false
d) Statement -I is false and Statement -II is true
View Answer
Answer: b
1. ______ energy sources provide energy in dilute form.

a) Non-Renewable
b) Conventional
c) Nuclear
d) Renewable
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Renewable Energy sources are generally unreliable and dilute. These
resources are not available constantly. The efficiency of conversion of these energy
sources is low, so a large land area is required to concentrate the energy.
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2. Non-Conventional Energy sources have a high gestation period.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Non-conventional energy sources require lower time for setting up the
power plant as compared to conventional energy sources. Solar power plants and
wind power plants have gestation period of 15 months and 1.5 years respectively. On
the other hand, thermal power plants have a gestation period of 5-6 years.
3. Based on the following options, choose the correct option.

Statement I: Non-Conventional energy is available in nature free of cost.
Statement II: Non-Conventional energy is exhaustible in nature.
a) Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation
of Statement I
b) Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I
c) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
d) Statement II is true and Statement I is false
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Most of the renewable energy sources such as wind and solar energy
are available in nature free of cost. They are inexhaustible and cannot be depleted by
human activity.
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4. The availability of Renewable energy sources is _____

a) uncertain
b) constant
c) high
d) regular
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Renewable energy sources i.e. wind energy, solar energy, wave energy,
tidal energy, etc are intermittent in nature. Most of them are non-dispatchable due
to their variable nature.
5. The cost of harnessing energy from Non-Conventional Energy sources is low.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Non-conventional energy plants employ expensive equipment. This
increases the cost of harnessing energy from them.
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6. Which of the following statements is not true about Renewable Energy?

a) They do not cause pollution
b) Their transportation is difficult
c) They cause ecological imbalance
d) They have a low gestation period
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Non Renewable energy sources such as fossil fuels cause emission of
greenhouse gases which disturb the ecological balance. Renewable energy sources,
on the other hand, do not cause ecological imbalance.
7. Renewable energy-based power plants have ______

a) negligible fuel cost
b) low energy availability
c) negligible production capacity
d) fuel storage tanks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Renewable energy-based plants require negligible to no fuel for their
operation. That’s why they cause negligible pollution.
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8. Renewable energy plants require ________than traditional generators.
a) more fuel
b) less maintenance
c) higher operating cost
d) more uranium
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Renewable energy plants require very little maintenance after
installation. They require very fewer operating costs as compared to traditional fossil
fuel generators. They need negligible amount of fuel for operation. They do not
employ uranium.
9.Most of the Renewable energy sources are ________

a) location-specific
b) universally available
c) highly efficient
d) polluting
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: One of the major limitations of renewable sources is that they are
location specific. States without rivers can’t have hydropower dams, and states with
wind speed less than 23km/hr at 50 m height can’t have wind energy plants.
Renewable energy sources are not universally available due to their location
specificness. They have low efficiency due to their dilute nature. Most of the
Renewable energy sources do not require any fuel and hence cause minimum to low
pollution.
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10. The storage of renewable energy sources is expensive.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following has caused global warming since the past 150 years?
a) Anthropogenic greenhouse gas emissions
b) Ice age greenhouse gas emission
c) Emissions of sulphur
d) Emissions of aerosols
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Anthropogenic greenhouse gas emissions is accused of causing global
warming especially due to the expansion of industries since the past 150 years.
Sulphur and aerosol emissions cool the planet.
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2. Which of the following has caused global warming?

a) Burning of biomass
c) Releasing CFCs into the atmosphere
d) Melting metals
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Burning fossil fuels for various industrial and domestic processes since
the past 100-150 years has led to global warming. Releasing CFCs into the
atmosphere damages the ozone layer.
3. What is the major problem with wind energy?

a) Generates energy from wind
b) It is a renewable source of energy
c) Requires large area of land
d) Compact and does not require large area of land
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The major problems with wind energy is that it requires large area of
land. It also poses a threat to wildlife habitat like destruction of birds. It is a
renewable source of energy because it generates energy from wind.
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4. How does acid rain affect the environment?

a) By precipitating clean and fresh rainwater only in freshwater bodies
b) By precipitating clean and fresh rainwater in all water bodies at once
c) By consuming all polluted water and precipitate clean water from water cycle
d) By precipitating acidic rainwater
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Acid rain is basically rainwater which is acidic. It is caused by dissolution
of harmful gases like sulphur dioxide and carbon monoxide in clouds during
precipitation thereby polluting the clean rainwater.
5. What is the pH level of acid rain?

a) Between 3-4
b) Between 6-8
c) 7
d) Between 11-14
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Acid rain is acidic. Any acid has a pH value less than 7. So, the pH level of
acid rain lies between 3-4. Practically, substances with pH values lying between 6-8
are considered neutral.
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6. Which of the following is/are directly harming the atmosphere?

a) Contamination of water bodies
b) Ozone layer depletion and emission of acidic gas
c) Global climate change and contamination of water bodies
d) Land fills and industrial emissions into water bodies
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ozone layer depletion, emission of greenhouse gases and emission of
acidic gas directly harm the atmosphere. Land fills and water pollution indirectly
harm the atmosphere.
7. Which of the following is/are major contributor(s) of acid rain?

a) Sulphur
b) Sulphur and sulphur dioxide
c) Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide
d) Nitrogen dioxide and argon
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide are major contributors of acid
rain. They are released by smelters for nonferrous ores, industrial boilers and
vehicles.
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8. Which of the following energy sources is affected when energy crops compete with
food production?
a) Solar
b) Wind
c) Hydro
d) Biomass
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Biomass energy generation is strongly affected when energy crops
compete with food production. Energy crops are specifically grown to be used as
energy sources and not for food. If it competes with food crops then its production
may decrease.

heat exchanger
heat exchanger
cold exchanger
cold exchanger
View Answer
Answer: a
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10. What does ozone protect the earth from?
a) Sound waves
b) Harmful UV radiation
c) Visible radiation
d) Greenhouse effect
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ozone protects the earth and its creatures from the harmful UV
radiations. These radiations are known to damage the eye and cause many skin
diseases.
11. Wind plants affect the habitat of _______

a) tigers
b) whales
c) birds and bats
d) fish
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Win plants affect the habitat of birds and bats. They tend to obstruct the
path of birds. In fact, this may even result in killing them.
12. Which of the following is an example of a nuclear accident?

a) Construction of dams
c) Nuclear fusion
d) Nuclear reactor core melt
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Nuclear reactor core melt is an example of a nuclear accident. Nuclear
fusion is a type of nuclear reaction. Construction of dams and burning fossil fuels are
not examples of nuclear accidents.
13. What happens when a nuclear reactor core is damaged?

a) Significant amounts of radioactive isotopes are released
b) Significant amounts of radio-inactive isotopes are released
c) Significant amounts of nitrogen oxides are released
d) Greenhouse gases are released
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When a nuclear reactor core is damaged significant amounts of
radioactive isotopes are released. These isotopes are extremely harmful to both,
humans and environment. In fact, they may cause diseases that last for generations.
14. Aerosols, CFCs and freons damage the ozone layer.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Aerosols, CFCs and freons damage the ozone layer. They react with
ozone molecules and reduce the amount of ozone molecules in the stratosphere.
This lets harmful UV radiation into earth.
15. Dams and reservoirs lead to adverse environmental and sociological impacts.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following is the cleanest fossil fuel?

a) Natural gas
b) Petrol
c) Petroleum
d) Coal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Natural gas is often described as the cleanest fossil fuel. Petroleum is a
raw form of fossil fuel found in oceans and seas. Petrol is a processed product of
petroleum.
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2. What is IPCC?
a) A government organization that provides scientific information regarding climate
change and its effects
b) An intergovernmental body of UN that provides scientific information regarding
c) An intergovernmental organization that provides scientific information regarding
d) A private company that sells scientific information regarding climate change
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: IPCC stands for “Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change”. It is an
intergovernmental body of UN that provides scientific information regarding climate
change and its effects. It is non-profit organization.
3. What is the objective of the main international treaty on climate change?

a) To provide scientific information on climate change
b) To destabilise the greenhouse gas concentrations so that anthropogenic actions
c) To stabilise the greenhouse gas concentrations so that anthropogenic actions do not
d) To bring peace between all countries
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The objective of the main international treaty on climate is to stabilise
the greenhouse gas concentrations so that anthropogenic actions do not interfere
with the climate system. The treaty itself does not provide information on climate
change.
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4. What is the aim of Paris Agreement in 2015? Note that C indicates Celsius.
a) To keep the decrease in global average temperature to below 2 degree C
b) To keep the decrease in global average temperature to above 2 degree C
c) To keep the increase in global average temperature to above 2 degree C
d) To keep the increase in global average temperature to below 2 degree C
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Paris Agreement is an agreement within United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change dealing with greenhouse gas emissions. Its long term
goal is to keep the decrease in global average temperature to below 2 degree C.
5. Which of the following IPCC assessment reports was a critical input in Paris
Agreement?
a) Fifth Assessment Report
b) First Assessment Report
c) Second Assessment Report
d) Tenth Assessment Report
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: IPCC’s fifth Assessment Report (AR) was a critical scientific input into
Paris Agreement held in 2015. The AR5 report was developed through a scoping
process involving climate change experts from all relevant disciplines.
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6. Where is the ozone hole located?

a) Asia
b) Antarctica
c) Europe
d) America
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ozone hole is located over Antarctica. It was and still is the largest
observed ozone hole. It was caused due continuous emissions of CFCs and freons.
7. What is main potential water pollutant from a geothermal reservoir?

a) Carbon
b) Silicon
c) Sulphur
d) Nitrogen
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The main water pollutant from a geothermal reservoir is sulphur. This is
because underground reservoirs contain large amounts of sulphur and other
minerals.
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8. How does a geothermal plant prevent the leakage of sulphur into environment?
a) By trapping it inside the reservoir during extraction of hot water
b) By trapping it inside the reservoir before extraction of hot water
c) By disposing it into water bodies
d) By using a closed-loop water system
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Most geothermal plants prevent leakage of sulphur and other minerals
into the environment by using a closed-loop water system. The spent water is
pumped directly back into the geothermal reservoir.
9. Which of the following gases is commonly emitted into the atmosphere from an
open-loop geothermal system?
a) Hydrogen sulphide
b) Hydrogen
c) Carbon
d) Silicon
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrogen sulphide is commonly emitted into the atmosphere from an
open-loop geothermal system. Carbon and silicon are not gases. Even if hydrogen is
emitted it is not the most common one.
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10. How does hydrogen sulphide from geothermal plants contribute towards pollution?
a) By reacting with acidic gases to cleans the precipitating rainwater
b) By forming sulphur dioxide
c) By changing into one of the noble gases
d) By reacting with ozone
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydrogen sulphide reacts and changes into sulphur dioxide. Sulphur
dioxide contributes to the formation of acid rain which is harmful to the
environment.
11. Which of the following is the largest emitter of sulphur dioxide?

a) Geothermal plants
b) Photosynthesis
c) Coal plants
d) Respiration
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If not the coal plants are one of the largest emitters of sulphur dioxide.
Photosynthesis releases oxygen and respiration releases carbon dioxide. Though
geothermal plants release hydrogen sulphide which converts into sulphur dioxide,
their contribution is negligible when compared to coal plants.
12. Land requirement of a geothermal plant depends on _______

a) greenhouse gas emissions
b) hydrogen sulphide emissions
c) the wildlife
d) amount of power capacity
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Land requirement of a geothermal plant depends on the amount of
power capacity. It also depends on other factors like the substation and the type of
energy conversion system.
13. Which of the following is one of the major problems caused by a geothermal plant
to land?
a) Land subsidence
b) Land fertilisation
c) Reservoir cleansing
d) Noble gas emissions
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Land subsidence is one of the major problems caused by a geothermal
plant to land. It is basically the sinking of land surface due to various activities in the
plant and reservoir. Geothermal plants neither fertilise the land nor emit noble
gases.
14. Photovoltaic manufacturing requires hazardous materials.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Manufacturing of photovoltaics require hazardous materials like arsenic
and cadmium. Consumption of such metals even in small amounts could be deadly
for the workers in the factory.
15. Life cycle assessment is a good indicator of the net environmental impact of any
technology.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is “3E”?
a) Energy, economy and environment
b) Reduce, reuse and recycle
c) Energy, economy and envision
d) Ergonomics, evolution and economy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: “3E” is a nomenclature used for energy, economy and environment. It
describes the interrelation between them. “3Rs” are used for reduce, reuse and
recycle.
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2. Which of the following is the 7th goal of the eight millennium goals of United Nations?
a) To eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
b) To ensure environment sustainability
c) To reduce child mortality
d) To develop a global partnership for development
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The seventh goal of the eight millennium development goals of UN is to
ensure environment sustainability. The first is to eradicate extreme poverty and
hunger. The fourth is to reduce child mortality and the eight is to develop a global
partnership for development.
3. Which of the following is relates the three elements of “3E”?
a) Energy from fossil fuels
b) Energy from natural gas
c) Renewable energy sources and technology
d) Economy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Renewable energy sources and their respective technologies relate the
three elements of “3E”. This is because the renewable technology incorporates an
environment-centered strategy thereby forcing the economy to adopt it as well.
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4. Which of the following ensures sustainable growth?

a) Positive economic growth, deterioration of environment with economic expansion
b) Negative economic growth, deterioration of environment with economic expansion
c) Positive economic growth, non-deterioration of environment with economic
expansion and growth of energy resource not meeting energy demands
d) Positive economic growth, deterioration of environment with economic expansion
and growth of energy resource meeting energy demands
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is necessary that the environment does not deteriorate with economic
expansion for sustainable growth. Also, positive economic growth and growth of
energy resource meeting energy demands are key elements of sustainable growth.
5. Sustainable development requires that energy resource ________

a) cannot be exhausted completely
b) can be complete exhausted
c) can destroy the environment
d) cannot meet the growing demand
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sustainable development requires that energy resource cannot be
exhausted completely. If any one resource is at the brink of exhaustion, it has to be
substituted by another or a shift to another source has to be made.
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6. Which of the following contributes towards growth of economic and energy?

a) Intermittent capital and human resource investment
b) Continuous capital and human resource investment
c) Decrement in capital and human resource investment
d) No capital and human resource investment
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Continuous capital and human resource investment contributes
towards the growth of economy and energy. Continuous investments lead to
inventions and innovations which can disrupt the economy and make pervasive
changes.
7. Which of the following energy resources seems inexhaustible?

a) Natural gas
b) Coal
c) Sun
d) Petrol
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sun seems an inexhaustible source of energy. Coal, natural gas and
petrol are fossil fuels which are already being consumed at an alarming rate.
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8. For sustainable development, environment damage rate _____ environment recovery

rate.
a) should be greater than the
b) should be exponentially greater than the
c) should be same as the
d) should be lesser than the
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For sustainable development, environment damage rate should be less
than environment recovery rate. If it is greater even by a small margin, the system
cannot sustain itself due to positive feedback.
9. Which of the following best describes the aim of sustainable consumption and
production?
a) To reduce resource consumption, waste generation and emissions across the full life
cycle of processes and products
b) To increase resource consumption, waste generation and emissions across the full
life cycle of processes and products
c) To reduce resource consumption, increase waste generation and emissions across
d) To increase resource consumption, reduce waste generation and emissions across
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sustainable consumption and production aims to reduce resource
consumption. It also aims to reduce waste generation and emissions across the full
life cycle of processes and products.
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10. Which of the following best describes green economy?

a) A high carbon, resource inefficient and socially inclusive economy
b) A low carbon, resource efficient and socially inclusive economy
c) A low carbon, resource inefficient and socially exclusive economy
d) A high carbon, resource efficient and socially inclusive economy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A green economy is a low carbon, resource efficient and socially
inclusive economy. Without the society being consciously involved, the green
economy cannot be created let alone sustain.
11. What is the goal of sustainability in any process?

a) To maintain the process finitely
b) To eventually eliminate the process
c) To maintain the process indefinitely
d) To support damaging the environment
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The goal of sustainability is to maintain the process indefinitely without
endangering natural biotic system. Damaging the environment or anything else at
the cost of maintaining the process goes against the definition.
12. What are the three pillars of sustainable development?

a) Energy, economy and ergonomics
b) Environment, economy and evolution
c) Energy and evolution
d) Energy, economy and environment.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The three pillars of sustainable development are energy, economy and
environment. Ergonomics is the scientific study of understanding human interactions
with other elements of a system.
13. What is the main problem with development of countries?

a) Strain on environment to absorb the damage and self-heal
b) Decrement in poverty
c) Higher energy consumption per capita
d) Lower energy consumption per capita
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main problem with development of countries is the strain it puts on
the environment to absorb the damage. It also unarguably assumes that the
environment will heat by itself without any cost. Decrement in poverty and high
energy consumption per capita are the consequences of development.
14. Sustainable development binds together the concern for natural systems with
social and political challenges.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sustainable development binds together the concern for natural
systems with social, economic and political challenges faced by humans. Ideally, the
society grows without destroying the environment. It might even treat the damage
that has already been done.
15. Sustainability can be achieved by replacing existing resources with other resources
of equal value.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following best describes world energy consumption?

c) Total energy consumed by humans in the biological pyramid
d) Total energy produced by humans in the biological pyramid
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: World energy consumption is the total energy produced and used by
humanity. It includes all energy harnessed from every source.
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2. Which of the following is NOT included in world energy consumption?

a) Solar energy
b) Energy from food
c) Energy from wind
d) Energy from fossil fuels
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Energy from food is not included in world energy consumption. Since
the energy consumption from biomass is difficult to calculate, it has not been well-
documented.
3. World energy consumption is measured _______

a) quarterly
b) half-yearly
c) yearly
d) every decade
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: World energy consumption is generally measured year. It involves all
energy harnessed from every possible energy source towards humanity’s endeavors.
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4. Which of the following energy sources is majorly used?

a) Wind energy
b) Nuclear energy
c) Hydrogen energy
d) Fossil fuels
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Burning fossil fuels supplies more than 80 percent of world’s energy. It
is the major cause of some of the world’s pressing problems like global warming and
climate change.
5. Which of the following is perceived to contribute towards world population growth?

a) Uganda
b) USA
c) UK
d) Germany
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Developing countries like Uganda, Botswana, India, China, etc. are
perceived to contribute towards immense growth of world population. This is
because of poverty and high infant mortality rate.
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6. Why is there a demand for renewable sources of energy?

a) Because they emit greenhouse gases
b) Because of low or zero carbon footprint
c) Because of the decreasing global temperatures
d) Because they are more efficient
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Renewable energy sources are required because they have zero or
extremely low carbon footprint. Thus, greenhouse gas emissions from such sources
are negligible as compared to fossil fuels.
7. As the population grows, the demand for energy ________

a) decreases
b) remains the same
c) increases
d) becomes volatile
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As world population increases, the demand for energy increases. This is
because energy demand and consumption per capita increases.
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8. Which of the following countries will experience a major increment in energy

demand?
a) USA
b) France
c) UK
d) China
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: China will experience a major increment in energy demand. China is the
most populated country in the world and its population is expected to increase.
Moreover, China is a developing country. Though the Chinese government have
taken steps to curb the growth, catering to the demands of the existing population is
extremely challenging.
9. Despite significant investments in renewable sector, why are fossil fuels still used?
a) Because of logistic, structural and operational issues
b) Because people do not trust the renewable sector
c) Because fossil fuels are cheap
d) Because global warming is a hoax
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Despite significant investments in renewable energy sector, fossil fuels
still dominate and supply 80% of world’s energy. This is mainly because of logistic,
structural and operational issues. For instance, it is a financial challenge to replace
the existing machinery.
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10. Which of the following institutions publish energy data?

a) NASA
b) International Energy Agency (IEA)
c) ISRO
d) Microsoft
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Institutions such as the International Energy Agency (IEA), the U.S.
Energy Information Administration (EIA) and the European Environment Agency (EEA)
publish energy data. NASA and ISRO are space agencies. Microsoft is a for-profit
software solution company.
11. What is total primary energy supply?

c) Sum of energy production minus storage changes
d) Sum of energy production including storage changes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Total primary energy supply (TPES) is the sum of energy production
minus storage changes. TPES can be used as an estimator for energy consumption
as yearly changes in energy storage are negligible.
12. What is the unit of total primary energy supply?

a) Watts
b) Joules
c) Newtons
d) Watt-hours
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Total primary energy supply (TPES) is measured in watt-hours (Wh). In
2013, IEA estimated that TPES was 157.5 petawatt hours. Watts is the unit of power.
Joules is the unit of energy. Newtons is the unit of force.
13. What was the growth in energy demand in the year 2018 as stated by IEA?
a) 2.3%
b) 1.3%
c) 1%
d) 0.5%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In 2018, the growth in energy demand was 2.3%. This was remarkable
because until then the average annual growth rate was 1.3%. Emissions also increase
as the demand for energy increases.
14. World energy consumption is a power source metric of civilization.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: World energy consumption is a power source metric of civilization. It
has deep implications for humanity in terms of policy making and political decisions.
15. It estimated that the world energy consumption will grow by 50% between 2018
and 2050.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following leads the energy production in low-carbon sources?

a) Photovoltaics
b) Wind energy
c) Solar thermal power systems
d) Nuclear energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar energy, especially photovoltaics are becoming popular low-carbon
energy sources. Photovoltaic systems are installed in both, industries and houses to
meet their respective energy demands.
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2. Which of the following countries is least dependent on fossil fuels?
a) India
b) Iceland
c) USA
d) England
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Iceland is least dependent on fossil fuels. The energy requirement of
Iceland is satisfied by many other non-fossil fuel energy sources like geothermal
power plants.
3. Which of the following developed enjoys low electricity prices?

a) Belgium
b) Italy
c) Sweden
d) Germany
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sweden enjoys low electricity prices. It costs about 0.21 USD per KWh in
Sweden. Germany is one of the most expensive places in terms electricity prices with
a cost of 0.33 USD per KWh.
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4. According to EIA, what is the globally projected increase in transportation energy

between 2018 and 2050?
a) Less than 10%
b) Between 10 and 20%
c) Greater than 100%
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Transportation energy is projected to increase by 40% between 2018
and 2050. The increase is largely driven by growing energy demands in developing
countries.
5. Which of the following best describes the reason for projected increase in
transportation energy in developing countries?
a) Energy demand per capita increases and hence the net energy required in every
process increases
b) Energy demand per capita decreases and hence the net energy required in every
process increases
c) Energy demand per capita decreases and hence the net energy required in every
process decreases
d) Energy demand per capita increases and hence the net energy required in every
process decreases
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As developing countries improve their quality of living, the energy
demand per capita increases. As energy demand per capita increases, the net energy
required in every process increases.
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6. Which of the following is the most usable form of energy for future?
a) Solar
b) Electricity
c) Thermal
d) Nuclear
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Electricity is the most usable form of energy for future. As automation
increases, every device/machine will operate on electricity. Solar, thermal and
nuclear may be raw sources of energy but they cannot be used directly for most
activities.
7. Which of the following sources are amongst the fastest growing energy sources?
a) Solar and wastewater
b) Wind and hydro
c) Hydro and solar
d) Wind and wastewater
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Solar and hydro are amongst the fastest growing energy sources.
Though wind and nuclear may be good competitors but solar and hydro energy have
penetrated into the daily lives of common man.
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8. What is an energy policy?

a) A method to address issues of energy development
b) A free and liberal methodology towards energy development
c) A manner in which governments decide to stop energy development
d) A manner in which governments decide to address issues related to energy
development
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Energy policy is basically a methodology formed by an entity (usually
governments) to address issues related to energy development. This includes energy
production, distribution and consumption.
9. What is the main aim of implementing eco-energy policies?

a) To tackle global warming and climate change
b) To reduce energy consumption
c) To manage energy production and consumption at the cost of degrading the
environment
d) To prevent illegal energy production
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main aim of implementing an eco-energy-oriented policy is to tackle
global warming and climate change. The idea is to manage energy production,
distribution and consumption without damaging the environment.
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10. Renewable energy has the potential to mitigate climate change.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. In terms of total primary energy consumption, India stands _______

a) third
b) second
c) first
d) fifth
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In terms of total primary energy consumption, India stands third
globally. United States and China are the two countries ahead of India.
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2. Where is the largest coal belt in India?

a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Jharkhand
c) Assam
d) Kerala
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The largest coal belt in India is at Jharia located in the Dhanbad
neighbourhood in the state of Jharkhand. Jharia is famous for its rich coal resources
used to make coke.
3. Which of the following majorly account for thermal power in India?

a) Oil
b) Solar thermo-mechanical systems
c) Coal and lignite
d) Biomass
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Coal and lignite account for 67% of India’s installed capacity. The
electricity sector in India had an installed capacity of over 250 GW by the end of July
2014. Solar thermo-mechanical systems are renewable systems and are not amongst
the major contributors.
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4. When (year) was India the third largest electricity producer in the world?
a) 2019
b) 2010
c) 2017-18
d) 2014-15
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: India was the third largest electricity producer in the world during 2014-
15. However, only 80% of the population had access to mains power.
5. Which of the following is a non-commercial form of energy used for cooking in India?
a) Cow dung
b) Coal
c) Hydro
d) Electricity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cow dung is a non-commercial form of energy used for cooking in India.
It comes under the category of biomass and is burnt to generate energy for cooking.
Coal, hydro and electricity are commercial forms of energy.
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6. What is the largest thermal power plant in India?

a) Mundra Thermal Power Station
c) Sasan Ultra Mega Power Plant
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Vindyachal Thermal Power Station in the Singrauli district of Madhya
Pradesh is the largest power plant in India. It has an installed capacity of 4760MW. It
is a coal based plant and is operated by NTPC.
7. What is the second largest thermal power plant in India?

a) Tiroda Thermal Power Plant
c) Mundra Thermal Power Station
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Mundra Thermal Power Station located in Kutch district of Gujarat is the
second largest thermal power plant in India. It has a capacity of 4260 MW.
Vindhyachal Thermal Power Station is the largest one.
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8. Which of the following states is known oil reserves?

a) Jharkhand
b) Odisha
c) Madhya Pradesh
d) Assam
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Assam, Gujarat, Nagaland and Rajasthan are known for their oil
reserves. Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha are known for coal reserves.
9. Which of the following states is known for gas reserves?

a) Nagaland
b) Odisha
c) Maharashtra
d) Jharkhand
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Nagaland, Assam, Rajasthan, etc. are known for their gas reserves. Most
states containing oil reserves also contain gas reserves. Jharkhand and Odisha are
known for their coal reserves.
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10. _______ is found in coastal Odisha, Kerala and Andhra Pradesh.

a) Uranium
b) Thorium
c) Coal
d) Gas
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Thorium is found in coastal Odisha, Kerala and Andhra Pradesh. Though
coal is found in Odisha and Andhra Pradesh, it is not found in Kerala. Uranium is
mainly found in Jharkhand and Rajasthan.
11. _______ is the largest windfarm in India?
a) Vindhayachal
b) Mundra
c) Muppandal
d) Talcher
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Muppandal is the largest windfarm in India. Vindhyachal, Mundra and
Talcher are names of thermal power stations which operate on coal.
12. Where is Muppandal Windfarm located in India?

a) Assam
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Kerala
d) Tamil Nadu
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Muppandal windfarm is located in Tamil Nadu. It has a capacity of 1500
MW and is the largest wind power plant in India.
13. In 2017, India ranked _______ in coal consumption.

a) second
b) third
c) First
d) Fifth
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In 2107, India ranked second after China in coal consumption. Energy
for more than half of the commercial sector is supplied by coal in India.
14. India has 22 nuclear reactors in operation.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: India has 22 nuclear reactors in operation in 7 nuclear plants. The total
installed capacity is 6780 MW.
15. India is a net energy importer.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. How is India’s oil consumption met?

a) Through imports
b) Through exports
c) Through chemical industries
d) Through distillation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 79% of India’s oil consumption is met through imports. Chemical
industries only help if crude oil is available. Distillation is the process of separating
out contaminants from a liquid.
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2. What is the biggest nuclear power plant in India?

a) Vindhyachalul
b) Kudankulam
c) Mundra
d) Muppandal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Kundankulam Nuclear Power Plant is the largest nuclear power plant in
India. Vindhyachal and Mundra are thermal power stations. Muppandal windfarm is
the largest wind power plant in India.
3. Where Kundakulam Nuclear Power Plant located in India?

a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Telangana
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Gujarat
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Kundakulam Nuclear Power Plant is located in Kundakulam in
Tirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu. It is the largest nuclear power plant in India with a
capacity of 2000 MW.
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4. Which sector dominates hydroelectric power production in India?

a) Private
b) NGOs
c) Food industry
d) Public sector
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Public sector dominates hydroelectric power production in India. It
accounts for about 92.5% percent of India’s hydroelectric power. Private sector, food
industry and NGOs do not dominate hydroelectric power production in India.
5. Why can’t the government exploit the hydroelectric potential of Godavari, Narmada
and other rivers flowing through central India?
a) Because of opposition from tribal population
b) Because of finances
c) Because disputes between central and respective state governments
d) Because of poor land quality
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Government is unable to exploit the hydroelectric potential of Godavari,
Narmada and other rivers flowing through central India. This is because of
opposition from tribal population. They are worried that construction of dams might
damage their habitat.
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6. Which of the following is an example of public sector hydroelectric companies?

a) Hindustan Petroleum
b) NHPC
c) BHEL
d) BPCL
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC), Northeast Electric
Power Company (NEEPCO) and Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam (SJVNL) are examples of public
sector hydroelectric companies. Hindustan Petroleum deals with supply and trade of
petrol and diesel. BHEL is a public sector company on electricals and electronics.
7. Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka have ______ biomass power.

a) less than 100 KW
b) about 1 MW
c) more than 1 GW
d) more than 100 GW
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka have more than 1 GW of
biomass power. This power is grid interacted. These three states are leading in
electricity generation from biomass.
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8. What is the maximum conversion efficiency of thermal power plants?

a) Between 10 and 20%
b) 5%
c) Between 20 and 40%
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The maximum conversion efficiency of thermal power plants is around
45-46%. In a hot country like India, by reducing the inlet air temperature through
absorption chiller the maximum conversion efficiency can be attained.
9. Industrial sector in India consumes ______ total commercial energy produced.

a) more than half of the
b) less than 10% of the
c) less than half of the
d) the amount as the domestic sector consumes from
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The industrial sector in India consumes about 56% — more than half of
the total commercial energy produced. This sector includes energy intensive
industries like aluminum, iron, textile, pulp and paper.
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10. The industrial sector in India has a higher energy intensity as compared to that of
developed countries.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The industrial sector in India has a higher energy intensity as compared
to that of developed countries. The energy intensity in India is about 3 times that of
US and 4 times that of UK.
11. Why is the energy intensity of Indian industrial sector higher than that of the
developed countries?
a) Because of less number of energy intensive industries
b) Because of lower population
c) Because of large number of energy intensive industries
d) Because of large population
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As compared to the developed countries, Indian industrial sector has a
higher energy intensity. This is because of the large number of energy intensive
industries like textile, pulp and paper.
12. How can energy consumption in industrial sector be reduced?

a) By not recycling
b) By using old and outdated technology
c) By wasting heat
d) By cascading and process control
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Energy consumption in industrial sector can be reduced by cascading,
improvement in process and process control. Recycling and updating technology
also contributes towards reduction in energy consumption.
13. What does the energy consumption in Indian transport sector depend on?
a) Fuel price
b) Driver
c) Ergonomics
d) Fuel tank
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Energy consumption in Indian transportation sector depends on fuel
price, vehicle efficiency, infrastructure quality, etc. It does not depend on ergonomics
and the fuel tank.
14. Kerosene is used for cooking and lighting lamps in rural parts of India.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Kerosene is used for cooking and lighting lamps in rural parts of India.
Apart from kerosene, animal waste, firewood and other crop waste are also used for
various domestic purposes.
15. Air conditioning is the major electricity consumer in commercial sector.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is solar radiation?

a) Energy radiated from the sun in all directions
b) Energy radiated from earth in all directions
c) Radiation travelling in space
d) Energy radiated from sun that travels in ether
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar radiation is the energy radiated from sun in all directions. Energy
radiated from earth is not solar radiation. Any random radiation traveling in space is
called cosmic rays.
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2. What are three relevant bands of solar radiation?
a) UV, infrared and far infrared
b) UV, visible and infrared
c) Ultrasonic, infrared and visible
d) UV, ultrasonic and near infrared
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The three relevant bands of solar radiation are ultraviolet (UV), infrared
and visible bands. Far infrared and near infrared are components of infrared.
Ultrasonic is related to sound waves.
3. Which two bands of solar radiation are majority in the total solar radiation reaching
earth?
a) UV and visible
b) Visible and ultrasonic
c) Visible and infrared
d) Infrared and UV
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Infrared and UV are the major components of the total solar radiation
reaching earth. Infrared radiation makes up 49.4% and visible light makes up 42.3%.
Only 8% of the total radiation is in the UV band.
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4. Which of the following affects the amount of solar radiation received by a location or
water body?
a) Shape of the water body
b) Time at night
c) Rotational speed of earth
d) Altitude and latitude
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A variety of factors affect the amount of solar radiation received by a
location or water body. Some of them are altitude and latitude of the location, cloud
cover over the location and the time of day. No solar radiation is received at night.
Rotational speed of earth is constant and doesn’t affect the amount of solar radiation
received.
b) Cosmic radiation directly received by earth’s surface
c) Solar radiation received by earth’s surface after reflection
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Direct solar radiation is solar radiation directly received by earth’s
surface from sun. It is called direct because no scattering or reflection occurs. Cosmic
radiation is not same solar radiation.
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6. What is indirect solar radiation?

b) Solar radiation received by earth’s surface after scattering
c) Cosmic radiation directly received by earth’s surface
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Indirect solar radiation is solar radiation received by earth’s surface
after scattering or reflection. It is called indirect because the incident radiation is not
directly received by earth’s surface. Every cosmic radiation need be radiation from
sun.
7. What type of radiation does earth emit?

a) UV
b) Visible
c) Infrared
d) Longitudinal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Earth emits infrared radiation. This is typically called as outgoing long-
wave radiation (OLR) of wavelength between 3 and 100um. They are also called as
thermal radiation.
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8. What is the electromagnetic spectrum?
a) Radiation spectrum consisting only of UV and visible rays
b) All rays falling in the category of infrared and UV rays
c) All rays falling in the category of gamma and x-rays
d) Radiation spectrum encompassing all types of radiation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As the name suggests, electromagnetic spectrum is a term used to
define all types of existing radiation. It ranges from gamma rays to radio waves. Solar
radiation received by earth is just a small part of the spectrum.
9. Which of the following type of UV radiation inhibits photosynthetic reaction in

phytoplankton?
a) UV-A
b) UV-C
c) Infrared
d) Gamma rays
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: UV-A and UV-B radiation inhibit photosynthetic reaction in
phytoplankton. Infrared and gamma rays are not the types of UV radiation.
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10. Which of the following is responsible for thermal energy?

a) UV
b) Infrared
c) Gamma
d) UV-A
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Infrared radiation is responsible for thermal and heat energy. They lie
on the opposite side of the spectrum from ultraviolet light. This radiation has a
wavelength greater than 700nm.
11. How do infrared radiation cause heat?

a) By exciting neutrons of the substance that absorb them
b) By de-exciting electrons of the substance that absorb them
c) By exciting electrons of the substance that absorb them
d) By exciting protons of the substance that absorb them
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Infrared radiation cause heat by exciting electrons. When they are
absorbed by substances, they interact and excite electrons by transferring energy.
This leads to heat as the atom (or electron) is said to be in excited state.
12. Why are surfaces of water bodies warmer than the depths?
a) Because water does not absorb UV radiation
b) Because water does not absorb thermal radiation
c) Because water absorbs visible radiation
d) Because water absorbs thermal radiation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Surfaces of water bodies are warmer than the depths. This is because
most of the infrared radiation is absorbed in the first meter of the water’s surface.
Hence, they don’t make it to the depths.
13. What is photosynthetically active radiation (PAR)?

a) Radiation best suited for photosynthesis
b) All radiation in which photosynthesis occurs
c) Radiation in which photosynthesis does not occur
d) Radiation which deactivates the ongoing photosynthesis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) is the radiation best suited for
photosynthesis. It is basically wavelength range in which photosynthesis occurs with
ease. This range is between 400nm and 700nm – visible range.
14. UV-A, UV-B and UV-C are three wavelength ranges of ultraviolet radiation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: UV-A, UV-B and UV-C are three wavelength ranges of ultraviolet
radiation. These wavelengths can directly affect the DNA of water inhabitants as well
as harmful photochemicals.
15. Energy of the wavelength increases with frequency and decreases with the size of
wavelength.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following is used to measure the flux of outgoing long-wave radiation?
a) Watt/square meter
b) Watt
c) Joules
d) Watt/cubic meter
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The flux of energy transported by outgoing long-wave radiation is
measured in watt/square meter. While Watt is used to measure power, Joule is used
to measure energy.
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2. Which of the following process is involved in long-wave radiation?

a) Adsorption
b) Scattering
c) Evaporation
d) Condensation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In earth’s climate system, the processes involved in long-wave radiation
are absorption, scattering and emissions. The emissions are from atmospheric gases,
aerosols, clouds and the surface. Condensation is the process of gas converting to
liquid due to decrease in temperature.
3. How does earth lose its excess solar radiation?

a) By storing the radiation in its core
b) By using the radiation to generate more magma
c) By radiative cooling
d) By conductive cooling
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Earth loses its excess solar radiation by radiative cooling. The outgoing
long-wave radiation takes the excess energy from earth back into the space.
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4. How do all the living organisms on receive energy?

a) From wind
b) From fossil fuels
c) From earth’s heat
d) From sun
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Sun is the source of energy for all living organisms on earth. It provides
energy for photosynthesis which triggers the biological food cycle and food web.
Thus, the energy is transferred between organisms as described in the biological
energy pyramid.
5. What is earth’s energy budget?

a) Balance between received energy and emitted energy after the distribution of
b) Balance between received energy and emitted energy before the distribution of
c) Balance between received energy and emitted energy
d) Balance between received energy and emitted energy without the distribution of
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Earth’s energy budget is the balance between received energy and
emitted energy after the distribution of energy throughout the five components of
earth’s climate system. It is important to note the outgoing energy is the energy after
distribution.
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6. What happens to earth when incoming energy is greater than the outgoing energy?
a) Earth’s temperature decreases
c) Earth’s temperature is not affected
d) Water level rises
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the incoming energy is greater than the outgoing energy, the
earth’s temperature rises. This results in global heating and the entire planet feels
the “heat”.
7. What happens to earth when incoming energy is less than the outgoing energy?
a) Earth’s temperature is not affected
c) Earth’s temperature decreases
d) Entire planet freezes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the incoming energy is lesser than the outgoing energy, the
earth’s temperature decreases. This results in global cooling. If the difference is large
and average global temperature decreases even by 1 degree Celsius, the entire
planet may be covered with snow.
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8. What is solar irradiance?

a) Solar radiation received by earth
b) Solar radiation directly received by earth’s surface
c) Solar radiation received by earth’s surface after scattering
d) Intensity with which the solar radiation enters the earth’s atmosphere
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Solar irradiance is the intensity with which the solar radiation enters the
earth’s atmosphere. Solar radiation directly received by earth’s surface is called
direct solar radiation. Solar radiation received by earth’s surface after scattering is
called indirect solar radiation.
9. During night, the net-all-wave radiation is dominated by _____

a) long-wave radiation
b) short-wave radiation
c) visible range
d) gamma rays
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: During night, the net-all-wave radiation is dominated by long-wave
radiation. The long-wave radiation dominates the net all-wave radiation in polar
regions as well. It is important to note that net-all-wave radiation is for a surface.
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10. Why is the earth’s temperature nearly stable?

a) Because the outgoing radiation dominates the incoming solar radiation
b) Because the incoming short-wave solar radiation nearly equals the outgoing long-
wave radiation
c) Because the incoming long-wave solar radiation dominates the outgoing short-wave
radiation
d) Because the incoming long-wave solar radiation dominates the outgoing long-wave
radiation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Earth’s temperature is nearly stable. This is because the incoming short-
wave solar radiation nearly equals the outgoing long-wave radiation. Any variation in
the global average temperature is detrimental to the planet.
11. Which of the following best describes intensity?

a) Energy supplied to a bulb
b) Power supplied to a bulb
c) Brightness of glowing bulb
d) Energy the bulb radiates as heat
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Intensity is best described by the brightness of a glowing bulb. Energy
the bulb radiates as heat is the power that is wasted by the bulb during its operation.
12. Solar irradiance is measured in ______

a) watts
b) meters/sec
c) newtons
d) watts/square meter
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Solar irradiance is measured in watts/square meter. It is the amount of
radiant flux on an area and hence those units. Speed and velocity are measured in
meters/s.
13. Which of the following influences solar irradiance?

a) Scattering elements like clouds
b) Shape of the location receiving the radiation
c) Type of the radiation
d) Type of the receiving surface
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar irradiance received by a location or water body depends on the
elevation above sea level, angle of sun and scattering elements like clouds. It does
not depend on the type of radiation and type of receiving surface.
14. Ozone absorbs UV light and hence affects solar irradiance.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ozone absorbs UV light and hence affects solar irradiance. The lower
the angle of the sun, the larger the amount of ozone the light has to pass through.
15. The distance that the solar radiation has to travel will be lowest when the sun is
directly overhead.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is extraterrestrial radiation?

a) Intensity of sun at the top of earth’s atmosphere
b) Intensity of sun at the top of its atmosphere
c) Energy of sun at the top of earth’s atmosphere
d) Force of sun on earth
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Extraterrestrial radiation is the intensity of sun at the top of earth’s
atmosphere. The radiation carries energy from sun to the earth. Sun majorly exerts a
gravitational force on other celestial bodies of the solar system including earth.
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2. Which of the following is used to measure extraterrestrial radiation?

a) Pressure
b) Watts/square meter
c) Joules/square meter
d) Torque
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Since extraterrestrial radiation is also a radiation, it is measured in
Watts/square meter. This unit is used to measure flux or intensity which is essentially
energy radiated per unit time per unit area.
3. Extraterrestrial radiation received by earth ________ throughout the year.

a) is constant
b) monotonically decreases
c) varies
d) monotonically increases
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Extraterrestrial radiation received by earth varies throughout the year. It
is neither a constant function nor a monotonically increasing or decreasing function
of earth’s distance from the sun.
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4. Why does the extraterrestrial radiation received by earth vary throughout the year?
a) Because earth’s orbit is circular
b) Because of radiation losses when travelling through ether
c) Because of radiation losses when travelling through vacuum
d) Because earth’s orbit is elliptic
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The extraterrestrial radiation received by earth varies throughout the
year. This is primarily because of the earth’s elliptical orbit. This results in varying
earth-sun distances throughout the year.
5. What is the average extraterrestrial irradiance received by earth (solar constant)?

a) 1361 Watts/square meter
b) 1361 Watts
c) 1250 Watts/square meter
d) 1250 Joules
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The average extraterrestrial irradiance received by earth (solar
constant) is approximately 1361 Watts/square meter. It varies by + 3% throughout
the year. Note that irradiance is always measured in Watts/square meter.
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6. What is all-wave radiation?

a) Sum of shortwave and long-wave-up-dwelling radiation minus sum of shortwave and
long-wave-down-dwelling radiation
b) Sum of shortwave and long-wave-down-dwelling radiation minus sum of shortwave
and long-wave-up-dwelling radiation
c) Difference of shortwave and long-wave-up-dwelling radiation plus difference of
shortwave and long-wave-down-dwelling radiation
d) Difference of shortwave and long-wave-down-dwelling radiation plus difference of
shortwave and long-wave-up-dwelling radiation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: All-wave radiation is the sum of shortwave and long-wave-down-
dwelling radiation minus sum of shortwave and long-wave-up-dwelling radiation. As
the name suggests, it is the net radiation received where net is calculated by
difference between net incoming and net outgoing radiation.
7. Which of the following blocks the outgoing long-wave radiation?

a) Earth
b) Seas
c) Clouds
d) Airplanes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Clouds tend to block the outgoing long-wave radiation. This results in
lower flux of long-wave radiation being emitted into the atmosphere. Earth emits the
long-wave radiation. Even if airplanes block or reflect the outgoing long-wave
radiation, the amount is negligible.
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8. How do clouds block the outgoing long-wave radiation (OLR)?

a) By emission
b) By adsorption and scattering
c) By absorption and adsorption
d) By scattering and absorption
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Clouds block the outgoing long-wave radiation by scattering and
absorption. They absorb the incident OLR and scatter them thereby resulting in
reflection of the radiation back to earth.
9. What is albedo?
a) Measure of diffused reflection of solar radiation out of the total amount received by
astronomical body
b) Measure of absorption of solar radiation out of the total amount received by
astronomical body
c) Measure of diffused reflection of solar radiation out of the total amount received
d) Measure of absorbed of solar radiation out of the total amount received by
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Albedo is the measure of diffused reflection of solar radiation out of the
total amount of solar radiation received by an astronomical body. Due to reflection,
the amount of outgoing long-wave radiation from earth is affected.
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10. Higher the cloud albedo ________
a) less is the amount of solar radiation reflected back to earth
b) more is the amount of solar radiation reflected back to earth
c) less is the amount of solar radiation received from sun
d) more is the amount of solar radiation received from sun
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Higher the cloud albedo, more is the amount of solar radiation reflected
back to earth. Cloud albedo is a measure of the amount of outgoing solar radiation
reflected back to earth. It has nothing to do with the incoming solar radiation
received from sun.
11. Which of the following gases absorb outgoing long-wave radiation?

a) Carbon
b) Natural gas
c) Water vapour
d) Argon
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Water vapour, carbon dioxide and ozone absorb the outgoing long-
wave radiation. Carbon is not a gas. Natural gas and Argon do not absorb the
outgoing long-wave radiation.
12. Greenhouse gases ________ outgoing long-wave radiation.

a) emit
b) transmit
c) are conducive for
d) hinder
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Greenhouse gases hinder outgoing long-wave radiation. They absorb
some wavelengths thereby preventing thermal radiation from reaching space and
adding heat back to the atmosphere (and earth).
13. If not all, most of the outgoing long-wave radiation is emitted to space ________
a) in the absence of greenhouse gases and cloud cover
b) in the presence of greenhouse gases but absence of cloud cover
c) in the absence of greenhouse gases but presence of cloud cover
d) in the presence of greenhouse gases and cloud cover
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If not all, most of the outgoing long-wave radiation (OLR) is emitted to
space in the absence of greenhouse gases and cloud cover. Absence of both,
prevents absorption and reflection of OLR back to earth.
14. Presence of greenhouse gases leads to global warming.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Presence of greenhouse gases leads to global warming. This is because
they absorb some wavelengths of the outgoing long-wave radiation and re-emit
them back into the earth. This increases the net amount of heat in the planet.
15. Outgoing long-wave radiation depends on the temperature of radiating body.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What would happen if the sun’s radiation reaches the earth’s surface without
depletion?
a) Life would cease to exist
b) Life would be more vibrant
c) The earth’s average global temperature would become stable
d) The average global temperature of earth would decrease
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If sun’s radiation reaches the earth’s surface without depletion, the
average global temperature would increase to a point that life would cease to exist.
Earth would become too hot to sustain any life form.
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2. Which of the following plays a role in depletion of incoming solar radiation?
a) Irradiance of the incoming solar radiation
b) Dispersion
c) Solar flares
d) Nuclear fusion in sun
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Dispersion, scattering and absorption deplete the incoming solar
radiation to an extent that biological and non-biological operations supporting life
forms are not hindered. Nuclear fusion is the source of sun’s energy. Solar flares and
irradiance of incoming solar radiation do deplete the solar radiation.
3. What is the inclination of earth’s axis in degrees?

a) 37
b) 53
c) 23.5
d) 10
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Earth’s axis is inclined at angle of 23.5 degrees. This inclination is with
respect to the plane of earth’s orbit around the sun. After a cycle of about 40000
years, the tilt of the axis varies between 22.1 and 24.5 degrees.
4. How does the inclination of earth’s axis affect the incoming solar radiation?
a) All the solar radiation is concentrated around the equator
b) The radiation is distributed along the entire equator
c) All radiation is concentrated at the poles
d) Solar radiation is non-uniformly distributed throughout the earth’s surface
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The inclination of earth’s axis results in non-uniform distribution of
incoming solar radiation throughout the earth’s surface. The radiation is received at
varying angles of incidence depending on earth’s position.
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5. What happens to those sun rays which are not perpendicular to earth’s surface?
a) Energy of the solar radiation is spread over a greater area
b) Energy of the solar radiation is concentrated on a single spot at the poles
c) Energy of the solar radiation is uniformly distributed along the Tropic of Cancer
d) Energy of the solar radiation depends on the position of prime meridian
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The sun rays which are not perpendicular to earth’s surface are spread
over or dispersed a greater area. The energy of solar radiation is not dependent on
the position of prime meridian and is never uniformly distributed due to inclination
of earth’s axis.
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6. When solar radiation is dispersed over a greater area, what happens to the net
temperature?
a) The net temperature increases
b) The net temperature decreases
c) The net temperature is not affected
d) The net temperature monotonically increases forever
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When solar radiation is dispersed over a greater area, the net
temperature is lower. This is because the amount of energy at any given point within
the area decreases due to the spread.
7. Which of the following latitudes is significantly affected due to dispersion of

insolation with seasons?
a) All latitudes are equally affected
b) Temperate zones are significantly affected
c) Polar areas
d) Tropical areas are significantly affected
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Dispersion of solar insolation with seasons affects all latitudes.
However, the latitudes of polar regions are significantly affected. For instance,
melting of ice caps due to large amounts of solar radiation concentrated at the poles.
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8. What is scattering?
a) Spreading of solar radiation over large areas
b) Absorption of solar radiation by gaseous molecules
c) Absorption of outgoing long-wave radiation and re-emitting it back to the earth
d) Deflection of some wavelengths in all directions when passed through air
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Scattering is basically deflection of some wavelengths in all directions
when passed through air, water droplets or small suspended dust particles in the
atmosphere. Absorption of outgoing long-wave radiation and re-emitting it back to
the earth traps the heat within earth. This is not related to scattering.
9. When the solar radiation is scatted by suspended particles in air, they act ______ and
produce different colours.
a) like a prism
b) like a rock
c) like a mirror
d) like a solar concentrator
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the solar radiation is scattered by suspended particles in air, they
act like a prism and produce different colours. This action was shown by Newton in
his prism experiment. A glass prism disperses the incident white light into its seven
components. Note that a prism disperses white light and does not scatter it.
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10. Red sun during sunrise and sunset is an example of ________

a) diffraction
b) scattering
c) interference
d) absorption
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Red sun during sunrise and sunset is an example of scattering. In fact,
the blue colour of sky is also an example of scattering. Interference occurs when one
type of radiation interacts with another.
11. What is reflection?
a) Bouncing back some portion of the incident radiation into another medium
b) Slowing down of light on entering another medium
c) Bouncing back some portion of the incident radiation into the same medium from
which it came
d) Absorption by particles and re-emission of radiation of different frequencies
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Reflection is the process of bouncing back some portion of the incident
radiation into the same medium from which it came. Since an ideal absorber does
not exist, all substances reflect some amount of incident radiation.
12. Which among the following is the best reflector?

a) Rock
b) Aluminum
c) Iron
d) Snow
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Among the above options, snow is the best reflector. Snow reflects over
80% of the incident radiation (light). However, the ability to reflect depends on how
dirty or clean the snow is.
13. Which of the following types of clouds has the highest albedo?
a) Stratocumulus
b) Altocumulus
c) Cirrus
d) Cirrocumulus
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Thich clouds such as stratocumulus reflect a large amount of incoming
solar radiation. Hence, they have a high albedo. Thin clouds like cirrus tend to
transmit most solar radiation and hence have low albedo.
14. Earth reflects about 36% of the incoming radiation.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Earth reflects about 36-43% of the incoming solar radiation. The percent
of reflectivity of all wavelengths on a surface is known as its albedo. So, earth has an
albedo between 36-43%.
15. About quarter of the incoming solar radiation is scattered.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What are the two basic ways to measure solar radiation?

a) Ground-based instrumentation and satellite measurement
b) Telephonic measurement and mobile tower measurement
c) Anemometer and voltmeter
d) Ammeter and voltmeter
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Thee two basic ways to measure solar radiation are via ground-based
instruments and satellite measurements. Anemometer is an instrument used to
measure wind speed. Voltmeter is an instrument used to measure potential
difference between two points conducting electric (DC) current. Ammeter is an
instrument used to measure the electric (DC) current flowing across two points.
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2. What is does an actinometer measure?

a) Wind speed
b) Intensity of radiation
c) Wind direction
d) Direction of radiation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Actinometer is used to measure the intensity of an incident radiation.
Wind speed and wind direction are measured by anemometer and wind vane
respectively.
3. Actinometer is primarily used to measure ______ and ______
a) infrared and ultraviolet
b) visible and infrared
c) visible and ultraviolet
d) infrared and UV-A
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Actinometer is primarily used to measure visible and ultraviolet range. It
does this by measuring the heating power of the radiation.
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4. How does actinometer work?

a) By determining the number of electrons in a beam integrally
b) By determining the number of protons in a beam differentially
c) By determining the direction of photons
d) By determining the number of photons integrally
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Actinometer works by determining the number of photons integrally or
per unit time. It is commonly applied to devices used in UV and visible range.
5. As a system, actinometer is a _____ or _______

a) chemical system or physical device
b) chemical system or thermal device
c) thermal device or mechanical device
d) thermo-mechanical system or physical device
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As a system, actinometer is a chemical system or physical device.
Solutions Iron (III) oxalate is a commonly used example and is a chemical
actinometer. Bolometers can be used as physical devices.
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6. Which of the following categories does a pyranometer belong to?

a) Voltmeters
b) Actinometers
c) Hall sensors
d) Amplifiers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A pyranometer belongs to the category of actinometer because it is
used for measuring solar irradiance. Voltmeters are used to measure potential
difference between two electrically conducting points. Hall sensors are used to
measure current via magnetic fields. Amplifiers are used to “amplify” currents or
voltages.
7. Global and diffuse solar radiation can be measured by ________

a) thermal actinometer
b) heat pumps
c) thermoelectric pyranometers
d) oscilloscopes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Global and diffuse solar radiation can be measured by thermoelectric
pyranometers. Heat pumps are used in thermal systems to pump heat from a cooler
region to a hotter region. Oscilloscopes are used to observe sinusoidal outputs.
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8. To perform irradiance measurement, which of the following is necessary?

a) Beam response varies with sine of the angle of incidence
b) Beam response varies linearly with angle of incidence
c) Beam response is constant with varying angle of incidence
d) Beam response varies with cosine of the angle of incidence
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: To perform irradiance measurement, it is necessary that the beam
response varies with cosine of the angle of incidence. If the beam response is
constant with varying angle of incidence then no measurement is performed.
9. Why should the beam response vary with cosine of the angle of incidence?
a) To account for perpendicular and parallel rays
b) Because cosine is the simplest mathematical function
c) To account for inclination of earth’s axis
d) Because of non-uniform dispersion of solar radiation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The beam response should vary with cosine of the angle of the
incidence. This is to account for perpendicular and parallel rays. Angle of incidence is
0 degrees (i.e. full response) when the solar radiation hits the sensor normally and
90 degrees (i.e. zero response) for parallel rays from the sun when it is at the
horizon.
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10. Which of the following best describes the working of thermoelectric pyranometer?
a) Solar radiation → thermal e.m.f measured → thin black surface → rise in
temperature until equilibrium
b) Solar radiation → thin black surface → rise in temperature until equilibrium →
c) Thin black surface → solar radiation → rise in temperature until equilibrium →
d) Solar radiation → rise in temperature until equilibrium → thin black surface →
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A pyranometer consists of a thin-blackened surface on which the solar
radiation falls. As the radiation hits the surface, the temperature rises until an
equilibrium is attained. This rise in temperature sets a thermal e.m.f which is then
measured.
11. Which of the following is generally used to measure direct solar radiation?
a) Pyranometer
b) Actinometer
c) Pyrheliometer
d) IC tester
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Generally, a pyrheliometer is used to measure direct solar radiation.
Actinometer are a class of devices/systems that measure intensity of radiation. IC
tester is used to test ICs.
12. What technologies are used in pyranometers?
a) Silicon semiconductor technology and routing technology
b) Thermopile technology and doping
c) Doping and routing technology
d) Silicon semiconductor technology and thermopile technology
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Thermopile technology and silicon semiconductor technology are used
in pyranometers. Doping is a technique to increase the conductivity of intrinsic
semiconductors. Routing is a technique used to navigate packets through an
interconnected network of computers.
13. __________ is a physical device that can be correlated to the number of photons
detected.
a) Photodiode
b) LEDs
c) CFLs
d) CFCs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Photodiode is a physical device that can be correlated to the number of
photons detected. LEDs and CFLs are devices that emit light (radiation). CFCs are a
type of gas that harm the ozone layer.
14. Light sensitivity is known as spectral response.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Light sensitivity is known as spectral response. It talks about how
sensitive the photosensor is to optical radiation of various wavelengths. It depends
on the type of pyranometer. It is an intensity vs wavelength plot.
15. Pyranometer has a non-directional response.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
1. What is the Angstrom compensation pyrheliometer used to measure?
a) Direct solar radiation
b) Indirect solar radiation
c) Diffused solar radiation
d) UV radiation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Angstrom compensation pyrheliometer is used to measure direct solar
radiation. It is one of the standard equipment for the process. UV radiation is
generally measured by pyranometer.
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2. What is the main difference between pyranometer and pyrheliometer?

a) Both measure solar radiation
b) Pyranometer measures global radiation while pyrheliometer measures direct solar
radiation
c) Pyranometer and pyrheliometer measure global radiation
d) Pyranometer measures solar radiation while pyrheliometer measures global
radiation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main difference pyranometer and pyrheliometer is the purpose of
measurement. Pyranometer is used to measure global solar radiation and hence it is
used for both visible and UV. Pyrheliometer is used to measure direct solar radiation.
3. What is the main advantage of sunshine recorder?

a) It is more sophisticated than pyranometers and pyrheliometers
b) It is more expensive than pyranometers and pyrheliometers
c) It is less accurate but inexpensive
d) It is less accurate but extremely expensive
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The main advantage of a sunshine recorder is that it is inexpensive.
However, it is less accurate as well. Also, it is not as sophisticated as pyranometers
and pyrheliometers.
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4. How does a sunshine recorder work?
a) Measures the solar irradiance
b) Measures the solar radiation
c) Measures the number of hours of sunshine
d) Measures the number of hours of sunshine above a certain threshold
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A sunshine recorder works by measuring the number of hours during
which sunshine is above a certain threshold. The threshold is typically set at 200
mW/cm2. The data collected can be used to determine the solar insolation.
5. Which of the following best describes the measurement process in a pyrheliometer?

a) Sunlight → window in pyrheliometer → thermopile → heat is converted to electrical
signal → recorded
b) Sunlight → window in pyrheliometer → heat is converted to electrical signal →
c) Window in pyrheliometer → sunlight → thermopile → heat is converted to electrical
signal → recorded
d) Sunlight → heat is converted to electrical signal → window in pyrheliometer →
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sunlight enters inside the pyrheliometer through a window. This
sunlight is directed onto a thermopile which then converts into an electrical signal.
This electrical can be recorded and mapped to a corresponding intensity.
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6. Thermopile is a collection of _______

a) thermocouples connected in parallel
b) thermocouples connected in series
c) reflectors connected in series
d) reflectors connected in parallel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Thermopile is a collection of thermocouples, usually connected in
series. It works on the principle of thermoelectric effect – generating a voltage when
dissimilar metals are exposed to temperature difference.
7. What is the irradiation proportional to in thermopile technology?
a) Difference between sun exposed area and shadow area
b) Difference between temperature of sun exposed area and shadow area
c) Difference between temperature of sun exposed area and temperature of shadow
area
d) Difference between of sun exposed area and temperature of shadow area
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In thermopile technology, irradiation is proportional to the difference
between temperature of sun exposed area and shadow area. A thermopile
pyranometer consists of a sensor based on thermopiles.
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8. Which portion of the solar spectrum can a photodiode-based pyranometer detect?

a) 100 – 200nm
b) 1 – 10um
c) 150 – 200nm
d) 400 – 900 nm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Photodiode-based pyranometer detects the portion of solar spectrum
between 400 – 900nm. The best ones detect between 350 – 1100nm. Since it uses
silicon technology, photodiode-based pyranometers are also called as silicon
pyranometers.
9. Photodiode works on the principle of _______

a) photoelectric effect
b) LED
c) thermocouple
d) differential resistance
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Photodiode works on the principle of photoelectric effect. Photoelectric
effect is the emission of electrons when electromagnetic radiation hits the surface of
a material (generally a metal).
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10. What does the net radiometer measure?
a) Measures the incoming solar radiation
b) Measures the difference between incoming and outgoing radiation
c) Measures the sum of incoming and outgoing radiation
d) Measures the outgoing solar radiation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the name suggests, a net radiometer measures the difference
between incoming and outgoing radiation. Hence, it is used to the “net radiation”
(NR) at the earth’s surface.
11. Which of the following technology does a net radiometer work on?
a) Semiconductor
b) Conductor-insulator
c) Thermopile sensor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A net radiometer is based on a thermopile sensor which works on
Seebeck effect. It basically measures the temperature difference between two
receivers. Photodiode based pyranometer uses semiconductor technology.
12. What is a bolometer made up of?

a) A thermal reservoir and a metal layer
b) An electrical reservoir and an insulated layer
c) An absorptive element, thermal reservoir and a thermally insulated material linking
both of them
d) An absorptive element, thermal reservoir and a thermal link
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A bolometer is a physical device used to measure power of incident
electromagnetic radiation. It consists of an absorptive element such as a metal layer,
a thermal reservoir and a thermal link connecting both of them.
13. Which of the following best describes the working of bolometer?

a) Radiation → temperature of absorptive element increases above the thermal
b) Radiation → resistive thermometer to measure temperature change → temperature
of absorptive element increases above the reservoir
c) Temperature of absorptive element increases above the reservoir → radiation →
resistive thermometer to measure temperature change
d) Radiation → temperature of absorptive element increases above the electrical
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When any radiation is incident on a bolometer, the absorptive element
absorbs the radiation and raises its temperature above that of the thermal reservoir.
The temperature change can be directly measured by connecting a resistive
thermometer.
14. In a bolometer, the greater the absorbed power, higher the temperature.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a bolometer, the greater the absorbed power, higher the
temperature. This is evident because as the absorptive element absorbs more
power, it further raises its temperature. The intrinsic thermal time constant sets the
speed of the detector.
15. Bolometers are used for ionizing particles, photons and non-ionizing particles.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is solar time?

a) Calculation of passage of time based on sun’s position in sky
b) Calculation of passage of time based on moon’s position in sky
c) A unit that measures astronomical time
d) A reference unit for time
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar time is the calculation of passage of time based on sun’s position
in sky. It is not calculated based on moon’s position. In astronomy, if required, time is
measured in terms of speed of light.
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2. What is the fundamental unit of solar time?

a) Seconds
b) Day
c) Hour
d) Meter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The fundamental unit of time is day. Meter is not a measurement of
time. It is a unit and measurement of distance.
3. What are the two types of solar time?

a) Fundamental solar and multi-solar time
b) Apparent and diurnal solar time
c) Apparent solar time and mean solar time
d) Mean solar time and single-solar time
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The two types of solar time are apparent solar time and mean solar
time. Fundamental solar time, multi-solar time and single-solar time do not exist.
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4. What is apparent time also known as?

a) Clock time
b) Revolution time
c) Lunar time
d) Sundial time
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Apparent time is also known as sundial time. Lunar time is basically the
length of one day on moon with respect to earth. Revolution time depends on the
speed of revolving body and the distance between body around which it revolves
and itself.
5. Which of the following is the simplest sundial?

a) A tall pole casting a shadow whose length and position varies with sun’s position
b) A tall pole
c) A tall pole casting a shadow that varies with moon’s position
d) A stone slab
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Among the above options, a tall pole casting a shadow is the simplest
sundial. It should be noted that both, the length and position of the shadow must
vary with sun’s position. A tall pole casting a shadow that varies with moon’s position
is not a sundial.
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6. What is mean solar time also known as?

a) Rotation time
b) Clock time
c) Lunar time
d) Sundial time
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mean solar time is also known as clock time. Apparent solar time is also
known as sundial time. Lunar time is the length of a day on moon as compared to
earth. Rotation time is the time a body takes to rotate about an axis.
7. Solar time is _____ clock time in December and ____ clock time in September.
a) same as, same as
b) less, more
c) more, less
d) more, same as
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Solar time is more than clock time in December. However, it is less than
clock time in September. It is almost same as the clock time during the other months.
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8. Why is does the solar time vary in September and December?

a) Because of earth-moon distance
b) Because of earth-moon gravitational force
c) Because of eccentricity of sun-moon orbit
d) Because of eccentricity of earth-sun orbit
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Solar time varies because of the eccentricity of earth-sun orbit. Earth’s
orbit around the sun is elliptical and not perfectly circular. The variation in solar time
does not depend on sun-moon and earth-moon distance/orbit.
9. The clock running at a constant (say, a pendulum clock) rate _____

a) cannot follow the sun
b) always follows the sun
c) follows the sun randomly
d) follows the moon
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The clock running at a constant (say, a pendulum clock) rate cannot
follow the sun. This is because of the elliptical nature of earth’s orbit and the tilt of
earth’s axis.
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10. What does a clock running at a constant rate follow?

a) Moon
b) Imaginary mean sun
c) Actual sun
d) Real mean sun
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A clock running at constant rate does not and cannot follow the actual
sun. Instead, it follows an imaginary mean sun. This imaginary sun moves at a
constant rate along a celestial equator. The motion is such that it matches the real
sun’s average clock over the period of a year.
11. What is apparent solar day?

a) Interval between sunrise and sunset of a normal day
b) Interval between two successive returns of sun on equator
c) Interval between two successive returns of sun on local meridian
d) Imaginary solar day
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The interval between two successive returns of sun on local meridian is
called apparent solar day. The apparent motion of the actual sun is governs
12. Which of the following describes the elliptical nature of earth’s orbit?
a) Apparent solar time
b) Sundial
c) Maxwell’s laws
d) Kepler’s laws
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Kepler’s laws describe the elliptical nature of earth’s orbit. Maxwell’s
laws are related to electrodynamics. Sundial is an instrument used to measure
13. The hour angle of the mean sun plus 12 hours is _______
a) mean solar time
b) angled solar time
c) offset solar time
d) apparent solar time
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The hour angle of the mean sun plus 12 hours is called the mean solar
time. The 12 hour offset is used to ensure that each day starts at midnight for civil
purposes. The hour angle or mean sun is measured from local meridian.
14. Solar time is 21 seconds less than clock time in September and 29 seconds more
than clock time in December.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar time is 21 seconds less than clock time in September and 29
seconds more than clock time in December. This is due to the eccentricity of earth’s
orbit around the sun i.e. it is not perfectly circular.
15. The inclination of earth’s axis also contributes towards variation in solar time.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is angle subtended by sun on earth in degrees?

a) About 0.5 degrees
b) About 1 degree
c) About 35 degrees
d) About 5 degrees
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sun subtends an angle of 32 minutes at earth’s surface. When
converted to degrees, it comes out to be 0.53 degrees.
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2. Why is angle subtended by sun on earth’s surface so small?

a) Because sun is smaller than earth
b) Because of the large distance between earth and sun
c) Because of the small distance between earth and sun
d) Because sun is about the same size as that of earth
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The angle subtended by sun on earth’s surface is about 0.53 degrees. It
is so small because of the large distance between the earth and sun.
3. When revolving around the sun, the earth moves in an elliptical cycle _______
a) on the sun’s plane
b) above the sun’s plane
c) above and below the sun’s plane
d) below the sun’s plane
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When revolving around the sun, the earth moves in an elliptical path.
The earth passes above and below the sun’s plane to complete an elliptical cycle.
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4. Which month is the earth closes to the sun?

a) February
b) March
c) December
d) January
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Earth is closest to the sun in January. Specifically, earth is closes on
January 3rd. The distance between earth and sun is approximately 147.3 million km.
5. What is aphelion?
c) The point where earth is on the perpendicular bisector of sun’s plane
d) The point when earth subtends an angle of 30 degrees with sun’s plane
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Aphelion is the point where earth is farthest from the sun. The point
where earth is nearest to the sun is called perihelion.
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6. Which month is the earth farthest from the sun?

a) June
b) July
c) August
d) January
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Earth is farthest from the sun in July. Specifically, it is farthest on 4th July.
The distance between earth and sun is approximately 152.1 million km.
7. What is solstice?
c) When sun’s zenith is at its furthest point from celestial equator
d) When sun’s zenith is at its closest point from celestial equator
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Solstice occur when sun’s zenith is at its furthest point from celestial
equator. It could either be the northerly zenith or the southerly zenith.
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8. What is sun declination angle?

a) Angle between sun and earth
b) Angle between ray of the sun touching earth’s surface and the equatorial plane
c) Angle between an observer on earth and the celestial equatorial plane
d) Angle between ray of the sun when extended to the earth’s center and the
equatorial plane
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Sun declination angle is the angle between ray of the sun when
extended to the earth’s center and the equatorial plane. It is positively oriented when
sun’s rays reach the center through northern hemisphere and negative when the
sun’s rays reach through southern hemisphere.
9. What is sun’s declination angle during summer solstice?

a) 23.5 degrees
b) 0.53 degrees
c) 32 minutes
d) -23.5 degrees
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sun’s declination angle during summer solstice is 23.5 degrees. Thus,
the sun shines down on the Tropic of Cancer in the northern hemisphere.
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10. What is sun’s declination angle during winter solstice?

a) 25 degrees
b) -23.5 degrees
c) 37 degrees
d) 23.5 degrees
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sun’s declination angle during summer solstice is -23.5 degrees. Thus,
the sun shines down on the Tropic of Capricorn in the southern hemisphere and
remains below the horizon everywhere within Arctic Circle.
11. What is an equinox?

a) When earth is farthest from the sun
b) When earth is nearest to the sun
c) When earth’s center lies in the plane of sun
d) When earth’s center does not lie in the plane of sun
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An equinox occurs when the earth’s center lies on the plane of sun.
There are two such occasions throughout the year. Perihelion is the point where
earth is nearest to the sun. Aphelion is the point where earth is farthest from the
sun.
12. Why does earth receive 12 hours of sunshine during equinox?

a) Because earth’s center lies on the plane of the sun
b) Because earth’s center does not lie on the plane of the sun
c) Because earth is nearest to the sun
d) Because earth’s axis is perpendicular to the plane of the sun
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: During equinox, earth receives 12 hours of sunshine. This is mainly
because earth’s north-south axis of rotation is perpendicular to the plane of the sun.
13. What is the sun’s declination angle during equinox?

a) 0 degrees
b) 1 degree
c) 13 degrees
d) 23.5 degrees
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sun’s declination angle has a measure of 0 degrees on the days of
equinox. The declination angle is 23.5 degrees during summer solstice and -23.5
degrees during winter solstice.
14. The equinoxes are vernal equinox and autumnal equinox respectively.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The equinoxes are vernal equinox and autumnal equinox respectively.
The sun has a 0 degree declination angle on these two days of the year.
15. On summer solstice, the sun is above the horizon in northern hemisphere.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following best describes the motion of sun from autumnal equinox to
winter solstice?
a) Earth is above the plane of the sun
b) Earth is below the plane of the sun
c) Earth’s center lies on the plane of the sun
d) Earth first escalates above the plane and then transcends below the plane of sun
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Earth is above the plane of the sun during its motion from autumnal
equinox and winter solstice. Equinox occurs when the earth’s center lies on the plane
of the sun. However, it doesn’t always lie on the plane of the sun throughout the
year.
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2. What is sun’s declination angle during earth’s motion from autumnal equinox to
winter solstice?
b) Less than 0 degrees
d) Between 60 and 90 degrees
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sun’s declination angle during earth’s motion from autumnal equinox to
winter solstice to vernal equinox is less than 0 degrees. This is because the earth is
above the plane of the sun.
3. During which of the following periods is the earth below the plane of sun?
a) Vernal equinox to winter solstice
b) Winter solstice to vernal equinox
c) Vernal equinox to summer solstice
d) Summer solstice to winter solstice
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The earth is below the plane of sun during its motion from vernal
equinox to summer solstice and back to autumnal equinox. The earth is above the
sun’s plane during its motion from winter solstice to vernal equinox.
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4. What is the sun’s declination during earth’s motion from vernal equinox to summer
solstice?
b) Between 0 and 30 degrees
d) Less than 0 degrees
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The sun’s declination angle during earth’s motion from vernal equinox
to summer solstice is less than 0 degrees. This is because the earth is below the
plane of the sun.
5. How is latitude of a location on earth defined?

a) Angle between line joining the location to earth’s center and earth’s equatorial plane
b) Angle between line joining the location to earth’s center and the meridian plane
c) Angle subtended by sun on earth
d) Angle between sun’s rays extended to earth’s center and earth’s equatorial plane
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Latitude of a location on earth is defined by the angle between line
joining the location to earth’s center and earth’s equatorial plane. Sun’s declination
angle is the angle between sun’s rays extended to earth’s center and earth’s
equatorial plane.
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6. The lines joining North and South pole of earth are called _____
a) latitudes
b) longitudes
c) equator
d) semicircle lines
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The lines joining North and South pole of earth are called lines of
longitudes. They are semicircular because they run along the curved surface of earth.
7. When does the autumnal equinox occur?

a) January
b) August
c) September
d) December
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Autumnal equinox occurs in the month of September. Specifically, it
occurs either on 22nd September or on 23rd September. Winter solstice occurs in
December.
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8. When does the vernal equinox occur?

a) January
b) December
c) September
d) March
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Vernal equinox occurs in the month of March. Specifically, it occurs on
20th or 21st March. September is the month of autumnal equinox.
9. Solar radiation spectrum is close to _____

a) that of a black body
b) that of a white body
c) that of Jupiter
d) that of phase response
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar radiation spectrum is close to that of a black body. The
temperature is about 5800K. Phase response is talks about the delay of a (an
electronic) system with frequency. Though it is not related to solar radiation, it is
used to analyse many solar energy harvesting systems.
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10. Which of the following indicates the position of any point on earth?
a) Rectangular co-ordinate system
b) Latitudes, longitudes
c) Radial co-ordinate system
d) Spherical co-ordinate system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Latitudes and longitudes are used to indicate the position of any point
on the surface of the earth. Usage of spherical co-ordinate system depends on the
application. Moreover, earth is not entirely spherical.
11. What is the range of sun’s declination angle throughout the year?
a) Between 0 and 90 degrees
b) Between 0 and 23.5 degrees
c) Between -23.5 and 23.5 degrees
d) Between -23.5 and 0 degrees
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sun’s declination angle lies in the range of -23.5 and 23.5 degrees. It is
positive when the earth is below the sun and negative when the earth is above the
sun.
12. What the hour angle?

a) Angle between ray of the sun when extended to the earth’s center and the equatorial
plane
b) Angle between line joining the location to earth’s center and earth’s equatorial plane
c) Angle through which the turns to bring the meridian of a point in line with sun’s rays
d) Angle through which the turns to bring the meridian of a point directly in line with
sun’s rays
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hour angle is the angle through which the turns to bring the meridian of
a point directly in line with sun’s rays. Declination angle is angle between ray of the
sun when extended to the earth’s center and the equatorial plane. Latitude is angle
between line joining the location to earth’s center and earth’s equatorial plane.
13. Altitude angle is the _______

a) vertical angle between projection of sun’s rays on the horizontal plane of earth’s
surface
b) horizontal angle between projection of sun’s rays on the horizontal plane of earth’s
surface
c) vertical angle between projection of sun’s rays on the vertical plane normal to earth’s
surface
d) horizontal angle between projection of sun’s rays on the vertical plane normal to
earth’s surface
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Altitude angle is the vertical angle between projection of sun’s rays on
the horizontal plane of earth’s surface. It is important to note that the angle is
between the project of sun’s rays on the horizontal plane and not the ray its.
14. Hour angle is a measure of time of day with respect to solar noon.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hour angle is a measure of time of day with respect to solar noon. At
noon, the hour angle is 0 degrees and rotates at 15 degree per hour.
15. The altitude angle is maximum at noon.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is solar noon?

a) Time of the day at which sun’s rays are perpendicular to a given line of longitude
b) Time of the day at which sun’s rays are parallel to a given line of longitude
c) Time of the day at which sun’s rays are perpendicular earth’s surface
d) Time of the day at which sun’s rays are parallel to earth’s surface
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar noon is defined as the time of the day at which sun’s rays are
perpendicular to a given line of longitude. It is important to note that solar noon
does not occur simultaneously at every location on earth. Hence the phrase, “give
line of longitude”.
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2. How does the solar noon vary with every 15 degrees of longitude east of a given
longitude?
a) Solar noon occurs one hour late with every 15 degrees of longitude east of a given
longitude
longitude
c) Solar noon occurs does not vary with longitude
d) Solar noon occurs half hour late with every 15 degrees of longitude east of a given
longitude
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Solar noon varies with longitude but it is important to mention the
reference longitude for correct calculation. It occurs one hour late with every 15
degrees of longitude east of a given longitude. This can be used to estimate the time
of different regions.
2. How does the solar noon vary with every 15 degrees of longitude west of a given
longitude?
a) Solar noon occurs one hour later with every 15 degrees of longitude west of a given
longitude
longitude
c) Solar noon occurs one hour later with every 15 degrees of longitude west of a given
longitude
d) Solar noon occurs half hour later with every 15 degrees of longitude west of a given
longitude
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: To calculate solar noon, it is important to mention the reference
longitude. Once the reference is known, solar noon occurs one hour later with every
15 degrees of longitude west of a given longitude.
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4. What is a solar day?

a) One complete revolution of sun around moon
b) One complete revolution of earth around sun
c) One complete revolution of moon around earth
d) One complete revolution of sun around earth
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Though the earth revolves around the sun and rotates about its own
axis, a solar day is measured with respect to an observer on earth. Hence, a solar day
is defined as one complete revolution of sun around earth.
5. What is a sidereal day?

a) Time taken by earth to rotate about its axis for distant stars to appear fixed
b) Time taken by earth to rotate about its axis for sun to appear fixed
c) Time taken by earth to rotate about its axis for distant stars to be moved by 1 degree
d) Time taken by earth to rotate about its axis for distant stars to be moved by 0.5
degrees
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sidereal day is the time taken by earth to rotate about its axis for
distant stars to appear fixed. Time taken by earth to rotate about its axis for sun to
appear fixed is solar day.
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6. Solar day is ______ sidereal day.

a) 4 min shorter than
b) 4 min longer than
c) 10 min shorter than
d) 10 min longer than
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Solar day is 4 min longer than sidereal day. This calculation is based on
the time taken by earth to complete one rotation about its axis and one revolution
about sun.
7. One sidereal day is ______ solar hours and ______ solar minutes long.
a) 26, 57
b) 24, 59
c) 23, 56
d) 24, 60
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: One solar day is 24 hours long and one sidereal day is 24 hours long.
However, one sidereal day is 24 solar hours and 60 solar minutes long. Thus, there is
a difference of 4 minutes between the two.
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8. Which of the following solar time duration is not constant throughout the year?
a) Mean solar day
b) Sidereal day
c) Local true solar time
d) Apparent solar day
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Apparent solar day is not constant throughout the year. It can be 20
seconds shorter or 30 seconds longer than a mean solar day. Sidereal day is not a
solar time.
9. What is local true solar time?

a) Equivalent of earth’s solar time on other planets
b) Solar time on every location of earth
c) Solar time on the Greenwich meridian
d) Solar time on the equator
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Local true solar time (LTST) is the equivalent of earth’s solar time on
other planets. On earth, solar time was used to be measured by sundials.
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10. The length of mean solar day is slowly increasing.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is the relationship between insolation and cloud cover in sky?

a) Inverse
b) Directly proportional
c) Square
d) Exponential
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: From ancient time, people knew the relationship between sunshine and
cloud cover. There is an inverse relationship between insolation and the amount of
sky covered by clouds.
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2. Which of the following is a reason for inverse relationship between insolation and
cloud cover in sky?
a) Sunshine duration records are caused by sun being obstructed by transparent cloud
cover
b) Sunshine duration records are caused by sun being obstructed by opaque cloud
cover
c) Sunshine duration records are caused by sunshine being transmitted through
opaque cloud cover
d) Sunshine duration records are caused by sun being obstructed by cloud cover
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There is an inverse relationship between insolation and cloud cover in
sky. This is because of sunshine duration records are caused by sun being
obstructed by transparent cloud cover.
3. Which does Angstrom-Savinov formula tell?

a) Relationship between local solar radiation and global cloudiness
b) Relationship between local solar radiation and local cloudiness
c) Relationship between global solar radiation and mean cloudiness
d) Relationship between global solar radiation and global cloudiness
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Angstrom-Savinov formula is a relationship between global solar
radiation (H) and mean cloudiness (C). It is given by mathematical relationship,
H=H0[1−(1−k)C].
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4. What does the constant “k” signify in the Angstrom-Savinov formula?

a) Global solar radiation
b) Mean cloudiness
c) Reflection of solar radiation within clouds
d) Transmission of solar radiation within clouds
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The constant “k” signifies the transmission of solar radiation within
clouds. It is defined to account for the partial and practical transmission of solar
radiation through clouds.
5. The constant “k” in Angstrom-Savinov formula depends on ________
a) latitude of the location
b) longitude of the location
c) solar radiation
d) cloud opacity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The constant “k” accounts for transmission of solar radiation through
clouds. It depends on the latitude of the location. It does not depend on the solar
radiation and cloud capacity.
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6. How does the constant “k” in Angstrom-Savinov vary in high and low latitudes?
a) Between 0.55 in high latitudes and 0.22 in low latitudes
b) Between 0.55 in high latitudes and 0.33 in low latitudes
c) Between 0.33 in high latitudes and 0.55 in low latitudes
d) Between 0 in high latitudes and 0.9 in low latitudes
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The constant “k” in Angstrom-Savinov has a range from 0.33 to 0.55. It
varies between 0.55 in high latitudes and 0.33 in low latitudes.
7. Which of the following models uses linear regression to estimate solar radiation
from sunshine duration?
a) Angstrom-Savinov
b) Ertekin and Yladtz
c) Anstrom-Prescott
d) Sen
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Anstrom-Prescott model uses linear regression to estimate solar
radiation from sunshine duration. H/H0=a+b*(S/S0) is the regression equation. H is
global radiation and S is the sunshine duration.
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8. Akinoglu and Fcevit uses a _______ to estimate solar radiation.
a) linear model
b) power model
c) exponential model
d) quadratic model
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Akinoglu and Fcevit uses a quadratic model to estimate solar radiation.
Like Angstom-Savinov, it also estimates solar radiation from sunshine duration.
9. How is an empirical model developed?

a) From data acquired via sensors or measuring instruments
b) From theoretical analysis
c) From deep learning
d) From trial and error
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Empirical models of any system is developed from data acquired via
sensors or measuring instruments. The developers decide the variables and the
output and perform various numerical analysis to formulate a relationship.
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10. What does the ratio of global solar radiation (H) and estimated daily global
radiation for cloudless sky (H0) indicate?
a) Solar radiation transmission ratio
b) Clearness index
c) Solar radiation reflection percentage
d) Turbidity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of global solar radiation (H) and estimated daily global
radiation for cloudless sky (H0) indicates clearness index. It neither indicates solar
radiation transmission ratio nor does it indicate turbidity. Solar radiation reflection
percentage is indicated by albedo.
11. Which of the following is important during data acquisition from measuring
instruments? Assume that details about data to be collected is known.
a) Type of data
b) Materials used to manufacture measuring instruments
c) Location, environment and characteristics of measuring instrument
d) Brand of measuring instruments
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Assuming that details about the data to be collected is known, location,
environment and characteristics of measuring instrument is important. This is
because instruments can give different values under different conditions. Basically,
data acquisition procedure should be consistent and authentic.
12. Which of the following statistical indicator is used to evaluate any type of model?
a) mean
b) median
c) error
d) root mean square error
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Root mean square error is a commonly used statistical indicator to
evaluate any type of model. It basically describes the mean error between
simulated/measured/observed values and the true values.
13. Why do ground-based observers overestimate overcast cloud cover?

a) Clouds appear to fill large area of sky when near horizon
b) Clouds appear to fill large area of sky when far from horizon
c) Clouds appear to fill small area of sky when near horizon
d) Clouds appear to fill small area of sky when far from horizon
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ground-based observers tend to overestimate overcast cloud covers.
This is because clouds with vertical extents appear to fill a greater area of sky when
located near the horizon than when they are overhead.
14. Reduction of error between simulated values and the true values increases
accuracy of the empirical model.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reduction of error between simulated values and the true values
increases accuracy of the empirical model. This is because decrement in error
indicates that simulated values are moving closer to true/desired values.
15. Cloud cover estimation is free from error.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
1. Hourly radiation values can be used to evaluate the performance of ________

a) flat plate collectors
b) curved collectors
c) parabolic collectors
d) metallic collectors
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hourly values of solar radiation provides very precise information about
performance of solar energy systems. For example, hourly radiation values can be
used to evaluate the performance of flat plate collectors.
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2. Why are global and diffuse radiation values not measured?

a) Because of sophisticated measuring instruments
b) Because measuring instruments are not available everywhere
c) Because of unavailability of skilled labour to operate measuring instruments
d) Because measuring instruments are not available everywhere
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Global and diffuse radiation values are not measured mainly because
measuring instruments are not available at all locations, in every lab or institute. The
major problem is not unavailability of funds or skilled labour.
3. Which of the following is generally used to compute global and diffuse radiation
values?
a) Parabolic dish
b) Flat plate collector
c) Theoretical models
d) Pyranometer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Global and diffuse radiation values are generally computed from
theoretical models. This is because of unavailability of measuring instruments at all
locations. Pyranometer is used wherever and whenever possible.
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4. Which of the following can be used to estimate beam radiation?

a) Photoelectric effect
c) Time taken by sun’s rays to reach earth
d) Zenith angle and altitude
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Zenith angle and altitude of the location can be used to estimate beam
radiation transmitted through a clear atmosphere. Though solar insolation constant
is used, it is either just a scaling factor or a constant and not a variable. Photoelectric
effect is not related to beam radiation.
5. What is zenith angle?

a) Angle between sun and vertical
b) Angle between the line joining the location on earth’s surface and the equatorial
plane
c) Angle between extended sun’s rays to earth’s center and equatorial plane
d) Angle between projection of sun’s rays on horizontal surface and equatorial plane
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Zenith angle is the angle between sun’s ray and the vertical. Latitude is
angle between the line joining the location on earth’s surface and the equatorial
plane. Sun’s declination angle is angle between extended sun’s rays to earth’s center
and equatorial plane.
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6. Which of the following is not used to calculate hourly radiation?
a) Sun’s declination angle
b) Material of parabolic dish
c) Solar constant
d) Hour angle
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Material of the collector is not used to calculate hourly radiation. The
material of the collector affects the values being measured and not theoretically
computed values. Sun’s declination, hour angle and solar constant play their part in
the computation.
7. Solar radiation on a horizontal surface is the summation of _______

a) direct and active solar radiation
b) active and diffuse solar radiation
c) diffuse and direct solar radiation
d) electrons and photons
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Solar radiation on a horizontal surface is the summation of diffuse and
direct solar radiation. It is not just a summation of electrons and photons as the
option does not specify the source of electrons and photons.
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8. What are the two models used to determine diffuse radiation?

a) Rayleigh scattering and Hybrid pi model
b) Parametric model and Rayleigh scattering
c) Decomposition model and Hybrid pi model
d) Parametric and decomposition models
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The two models used to determine diffuse radiation are parametric and
decomposition models. Rayleigh scattering is the scattering of light by suspended
particles in a medium. Hybrid pi model is used to model a transistor and is not
related to radiation.
9. Which of the following is required as a parameter in a parametric model?
a) Cloud cover
c) Material of measuring instrument
d) Type of measuring instrument
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cloud cover, atmospheric turbidity, fractional sunshine and perceptible
water content are necessities of a parametric model. Though solar insolation
constant may be required, it is not a parameter. In any theoretical mode, material
and type of measuring instrument is irrelevant.
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10. Which of the following is an example of parametric model used to compute diffuse
radiation?
a) Chandrasekaran and Kumar’s model
b) ASHRAE model
c) Erb’s model
d) T-model
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: ASHRAE model is an example of parametric model used to compute
diffuse radiation. Erb’s model and Chandrasekaran and Kumar’s model are not
parametric models. T-model is used to model a transistor and is not related to
radiation.
11. How do decomposition models compute diffuse solar radiation?

a) From specific information of environmental conditions
b) From measuring instruments
c) From global solar radiation data
d) From ASHRAE model
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Decomposition models use global solar radiation data to estimate and
compute diffuse solar radiation. Parametric models require specific information of
environmental conditions to compute diffuse solar radiation.
12. Decomposition models are based on correlation between ____________
a) global solar radiation and active radiation
b) diffuse and UV radiation on vertical surface
c) diffuse and total radiation on inclined surface
d) diffuse and total radiation on horizontal surface
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Decomposition models are based on correlation between diffuse and
total radiation on horizontal surface. UV radiation is a part of the total received solar
radiation.
13. Which of the following does the correlation of decomposition models (between
diffuse and total radiation on horizontal surface) depend on?
a) Hourly clearness index ratio
b) Daily clearness index ratio
c) Hourly global horizontal radiation
d) Yearly extraterrestrial radiation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The correlation of decomposition models (between diffuse and total
radiation on horizontal surface) depend on hourly clearness index ratio. It is the ratio
of hourly global horizontal radiation to hourly extraterrestrial radiation.
14. The clearness index is a measure of atmospheric effects in an isolated place.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The clearness index is a measure of atmospheric effects in an isolated
place. It is used by decomposition models to estimate diffuse solar radiation data
from global solar radiation.
15. Nijegorodov’s model revised the constants of ASHRAE’s model.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
a) A system to collect heat by absorbing sunlight
b) A system to collect rainwater using sunlight
c) A system to collect electricity by using sunlight
d) A device to reflect sunlight back
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A solar collector is a system to collect heat by absorbing sunlight and
use it for various applications. It is neither a system to collect rainwater nor
electricity. However, it could be used to perform such processes.
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2. What is aperture area in a solar collector?

a) Area of the system
b) Area in the receiver that receives the solar radiation
c) Area occupied by the system after installation
d) Cross-sectional area of the receiver
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Aperture area of a receiver is that area which receives the solar
radiation. It need not be same as the entire size of the receiver. It is not same as the
area occupied by the system after installation.
3. Aperture area of a solar collector is roughly equal to _______

a) Coolant area
b) Generator area
c) Absorber area
d) System area
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In a solar collector, the aperture area is approximately equal to
absorber area. This enables absorption of (almost) all the sunlight that is incident on
the aperture area.
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4. What are the components of a flat plate collector?
a) Flat box, a plate with reflective coating and fluid circulation passageways, an opaque
cover, a circulating fluid
b) Flat box, a dark coloured plate with fluid circulation passageways, an opaque, a
circulating fluid
c) Flat box, a dark coloured plate with fluid circulation passageways, a transparent
cover
d) Flat box, a dark coloured plate fluid circulation passageways, a transparent cover, a
circulating fluid
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A flat plate solar collector consists of various components. Firstly, it
consists of a flat box or an enclosure to hold the entire setup. A dark coloured plate
is fitted with fluid circulation passageways and transparent cover. Finally, a
circulating fluid which flows through the entire setup.
5. Why is a transparent cover used in a flat plate collector?

a) To maximize transmission of the incident sunlight into the box
b) To minimize transmission of the incident sunlight into the box
c) To entirely reflect the incident sunlight back
d) To ensure partial transmission of the incident sunlight into the box
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A transparent cover is used in a flat plate collector. This is because it
maximizes the transmission of the incident sunlight into the box thereby collecting
maximum sunlight for thermal energy.
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6. Which of the following is generally used as circulating fluid in tropical and sub-
tropical climates?
a) A mixture of ethylene glycol and water
b) Water
d) Glycerol
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Water is used as circulating fluid in tropical and sub-tropical climates.
This is because it has good properties as a coolant. A mixture of water with ethylene
glycol or glycerol or propylene glycol is not used as coolant in tropical and sub-
tropical climates.
7. Which of the following is generally used as circulating fluid in freezing climates?

a) Liquid carbon dioxide
b) Water
d) Liquid nitrogen
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In freezing climates, antifreeze solution like a mixture of water with
propylene glycol or ethylene glycol or glycerol is used as coolants. Liquid carbon
dioxide, water and liquid nitrogen are not used as coolants in freezing climates.
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8. Why are antifreeze solutions (antifreeze agents with water) used as coolants in
freezing climates?
a) To increase boiling point of water
b) To decrease boiling point of water
c) To increase freezing point of water
d) To decrease freezing point water
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Antifreeze solution is used as coolants in freezing climates. This is
because they decrease the freezing point of water thereby preventing it from
solidifying into ice.
9. Adding antifreeze agents to water _________

a) increases its durability as coolant
b) decreases its durability as coolant
c) turns water into a coolant
d) prevents water from acting as a coolant
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Adding antifreeze agents to water increases its durability as coolant.
This is because it depresses the freezing point of water and prevents it from
becoming ice.
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10. Which of the following is a circulating fluid in evacuated flat-plate solar collectors?
a) Water
b) Steam
c) Nitrogen
d) Hydrogen
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Evacuated flat-plate solar collectors are a more recent technology. It
uses steam as its circulating fluid. Nitrogen and hydrogen are not used as circulating
fluid. Water is mainly used in flat-plat collectors.
11. Evacuated flat-plate solar collectors are a type of _______

a) concentrating collectors
b) photovoltaic technology
c) non-concentrating collectors
d) solar stills
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Evacuated flat-plate solar collectors are a type of non-concentrating
collectors. Solar stills and photovoltaic technology are not solar collectors.
12. Which of the following are used as absorbers in evacuated-tube solar collectors?
a) Carbon tubes
b) Wooden or metallic tubes
c) Plastic or glass tubes
d) Metallic or glass tubes
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Metallic or glass tubes are used as absorbers in evacuated-tube solar
collectors. Wood and plastic are thermal insulators and hence, cannot be used to
create passageways for the heat carrying circulating fluid.
13. What is a heat pipe?
a) A heat-transfer device
b) A pipe made of heat
c) A pipe that consists of heat
d) A heat pumping device
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A heat pipe is a heat-transfer device. It combines the principles of
thermal conductivity and phase transition to effectively transfer heat between two
solid interfaces.
14. For better efficiency, solar collectors do not coat their transparent cover with an
anti-reflective coating.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For better efficiency, solar collectors coat their transparent cover with
an anti-reflective coating. The anti-reflective coating reduces the amount of reflection
dramatically. Thus, the amount of sunlight collected is increased.
15. Evacuated tube solar collectors use a glass tube to surround absorber with high
vacuum.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following is used to make a glass-glass evacuated tubes?

a) Borosilicate glass
b) Carbon
c) Wood
d) Plastic coating
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the name suggests, glass-glass evacuated tubes is a type of
evacuated-tube solar collector. It is made up of two borosilicate glass tubes fused
together at one or both ends.
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2. Which of the following is a problem with evacuated tubes?

a) Underheating
b) Overheating
c) Poor absorption of sunlight
d) Poor reception of sunlight
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Overheating is a common problem with evacuated-tube solar collector.
This is because of the high temperatures of the circulating fluid caused by collection
of large amount of sunlight.
3. Why does flat plate collector perceived to have higher efficiency than evacuated tube
solar collector in terms of area?
a) Because flat plate collector has a large installation area
b) Because evacuated tube collector is compact
c) Because of the vacuum gap in evacuated tube collectors
d) Because of the vacuum gap in flat plate collectors
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In terms of area, flat plate solar collectors are generally perceived to
have a higher efficiency than evacuated-tube solar collectors. This is because of the
vacuum gap in evacuated tube collectors which increases their net occupied area.
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4. _______ lose more heat to the environment than evacuated-tube solar collectors.
a) Photovoltaics
b) Solar stills
c) Solar air conditioners
d) Flat-plate collectors
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Flat-plate collectors lose more heat to the environment than evacuated-
tube solar collectors. Photovoltaics, solar stills and solar air conditioners are not
solar collectors.
5. Which of the following are combined to form an evacuated flat plate solar collector?
a) Flat plate solar collectors and evacuated-tube solar collectors
b) Flat plate solar collectors and bowl collectors
c) Bowl collectors and evacuated-tube solar collectors
d) Polymer collectors and bowl collectors
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Evacuated flat plate collectors combine the technologies of both, flat
plate solar collectors and evacuated-tube solar collectors. There are not a
combination of bowl and polymer type collectors.
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6. Which of the following provides highest energy conversion efficiency in non-

concentrating solar collectors?
a) Flat plate collectors
b) Evacuated flat plate collectors
c) Evacuated-tube collectors
d) Parabolic collectors
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Evacuated flat plate collectors provide the highest energy conversion
efficiency in non-concentrating solar collectors. Parabolic collector is not a non-
concentrating collector.
7. What is the metal sheet absorber surrounded with in an evacuated flat plate
collector?
a) Low volume inside flat envelope
b) Low vacuum inside curved envelope
c) High vacuum inside flat envelope
d) Low vacuum inside thick curved envelope
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In an evacuated flat-plate solar collector, the metal sheet absorber is
surrounded with a high vacuum. This is then placed inside a flat envelope made of
glass and metal.
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8. Which of the following organisations developed first high vacuum insulation?
a) NASA
b) IIT
c) Stanford
d) CERN
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: CERN developed the first collector making use of high vacuum
insulation. However, the first company to commercialise the technology was TVP
SOLAR SA of Switzerland.
9. Why does an evacuated flat plate collector require a glass-metal seal?

a) To join the glass plate to the rest of metal envelope
b) To join the glass plate to a part of metal envelope
c) To disconnect the glass plate to the rest of plastic envelope
d) To disconnect the glass plate to the rest of metal envelope
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An evacuated flat plate collector requires a glass-metal seal. This is to
join the glass plate to the rest of metal envelope. It also requires an internal
structure to support such a plate against atmospheric pressure.
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10. Which of the following pumps is used in an evacuated-tube solar collector?

a) Non-evaporable getter
c) Heat pump
d) Water pump
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Evacuated flat-plate solar collectors use a barium flash getter pump.
This pump is used to keep the internal pressure stable throughout the operation.
They do not use non-evaporable getter pumps.
11. Evacuated flat-plate solar collectors use _______ pumps.

a) Heat pump
c) Non-evaporable getter
d) Internal combustion
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Evacuated flat-plate solar collectors use non-evaporable getter (NEG)
pumps to keep the internal pressure stable throughout the operation. This pump
enables some regeneration in-situ by exposure to sunlight.
12. What advantage does polymer collector have over metal collector?
a) Better sales as they are produced in Europe
b) Poor sales as they are produced in Europe
c) They cannot be used in cold climate
d) They can be used in cold climate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The primary advantage of a polymer collector over a metal collector is
that they can be used in cold regions with low temperatures. This is because they are
freeze-tolerant. Whether they are manufactured in Europe or not does is neither an
advantage nor a disadvantage.
13. Bowl collectors operate similarly to _______

a) parabolic dish
b) flat plate collector
c) evacuated-tube collector
d) evacuated flat tube collector
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bowl collectors operate similarly to a parabolic dish. However, they have
a fixed receiver unlike a parabolic dish. This reduces efficiency but is much cheaper
to build and operate.
14. Polymer flat plate collectors can use plain water.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Polymer flat plate collectors can use plain water. This is because they
are freeze-tolerant and do not require antifreeze agents to prevent water from
solidifying.
15. Bowl collectors use a fixed curved receiver.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is solar water heater?

a) Use solar energy to heat water
b) Use solar energy to generate current which is then used to heat water
c) Use water to generate heat
d) Use solar energy to generate steam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar water heater is a system that converts sunlight into heat. This heat
is then used to heat water. As the water gets heated, steam may be produced but the
purpose of solar water is to heat water and not produce steam. It does not generate
current.
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2. Which of the following determines complexity and size of solar water heating
system?
a) Food
b) Changes in ambient temperature
c) Chemicals
d) Solar radiation constant
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Changes in ambient temperature during day-night cycle is one of the
factors that determines the complexity and size of solar water heating system. Food,
chemicals and solar radiation constant does not influence the complexity and size of
the system.
3. What is freeze protection in a solar water heating system?
a) Ensures that the system is frozen
b) Prevents the operation of drainback system
c) Prevents damage to system due to freezing of transfer fluid
d) Ensures that the transfer fluid is frozen
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Freeze protection in a solar water system prevents the system being
damaged due to freezing of transfer fluid. It does not prevent the operation of
drainback system.
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4. What are drainback systems in solar water heating system?

a) The system that reverses the direction of flow of transfer fluid
b) The system that tracks the sun
c) The system that pumps excess transfer fluid
d) The system that drains the transfer fluid
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Drainback systems are systems that drain the transfer fluid particularly
to ensure freeze protection. This prevents the freezing of transfer fluid and any
unwanted damage to the system.
5. How does freeze-tolerance work?

a) By expansion of pipes carrying transfer fluid
b) By compression of pipes carrying transfer fluid
c) By increasing the temperature of pipes carrying transfer fluid
d) By increasing the pressure inside pipes carrying transfer fluid
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Freeze-tolerance works by expansion of pipes carrying the transfer
fluid. The low pressure pipes are made of silicone rubber that expands on freezing.
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6. Which of the following metals are used to make pipes of low cost solar water heating
system?
a) Gold
b) Copper
c) Polymer
d) Silver
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Copper is used to make pipes of low cost solar water heating systems.
Though silver and gold are good thermal conductors they are expensive. Polymer is
not a metal.
7. Direct solar water heating systems ______

a) offer great overheating protection
b) are called pumped systems
c) offer no overheating protection
d) offer great freeze protection
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Direct solar water heating systems are also called compact systems.
They offer little or no overheating protection unless they have a heat export pump.
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8. How is the heat transferred from transfer fluid to potable water in indirect solar
water heating systems?
c) By circulating potable water through the collector
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: An indirect solar water heating system uses a heat exchanger to
transfer heat from the transfer fluid to the potable water. It does not expose the
transfer fluid directly to the sunlight and does not use an electrical heater.
9. How is water heated in a direct solar water heating system?

a) By circulating potable water through the collector
b) By directly exposing water to sunlight
c) By using convection from a different transfer fluid
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a direct solar water heating system, the potable water is the transfer
fluid. Hence, it is heated by circulating through the collector. Indirect solar water
heating systems use a heat exchanger.
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10. Passive systems rely on heat-driven convection.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Passive systems rely on heat-driven convection. If not, they also use
heat pipes to circulate the working fluid through the collector and heat it. Hence,
they are cheap and are easily maintained.
11. Which of the following is an example of direct solar water heating system?
a) Pressurised antifreeze system
b) Pumped systems to circulate transfer fluid
c) Convection heat storage system
d) Drainback system
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Convection heat storage system is similar to an integrated collector
storage system. Both these systems are examples of direct solar water heating
systems.
12. How is the heat transfer fluid (HTF) heated in bubble pump systems?
a) By subjecting the closed HTF circuit to high pressure
b) By subjecting the closed HTF circuit to high pressure and by increasing the volume
c) By subjecting the closed HTF circuit to low pressure and by decreasing the volume
d) By subjecting the closed HTF circuit to low pressure
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In a bubble pump system, the heat transfer fluid circuit is subjected to a
low pressure. This causes the liquid to boil at low temperatures as the sun heats it.
The volume is not changed.
13. Batch collectors reduce heat loss by thermally insulating the storage tank.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Batch collectors reduce heat loss by thermally insulating the storage
tank. This is done by covering the tank in a glass-topped box that allows heat from
sun to reach the water tank and traps it – greenhouse effect.
14. Overheat protection is done by passing hot water through collector during night.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
1. What is solar heating and cooling?

a) Use solar energy to regulate the internal temperature of a given space
b) Use solar energy to regulate the temperature of environment
c) Use solar energy to monotonically increase the internal temperature of a given space
d) Use solar energy to monotonically decrease the temperature of a given space
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Passive solar heating and cooling, also called as passive solar design
uses solar energy to regulate the internal temperature of a given space. The space is
essentially some kind of closed/isolated area.
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2. Which of the following is used to regulate temperature in solar heating and cooling
system?
a) Air conditioners
b) Specific building systems
c) Water heaters
d) Room heaters
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Building systems designed specifically for a solar heating and cooling
system is used to regulate the temperature of a given space. It could be done with
the help of temperature controlling systems like an air conditioner embedded into
the building.
3. Which of the following is not used in a passive solar heating/cooling system?

a) Building walls
b) Building roofs
c) Air conditioners
d) Building floors
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Air conditioners are not used in a passive solar heating and cooling
system. This is simply because the system is passive. Wall, floors and roofs are
included in a passive system?
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4. What is a passive solar heating and cooling system?

a) Uses building design with mechanical systems to regulate the temperature outside a
given space
b) Uses building design with mechanical systems to monotonically increase the
c) Uses building design without any solar heating (and cooling) system to regulate the
temperature outside a given space
d) Uses building design without any solar heating (and cooling) system to regulate the
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As the name suggests, a passive solar heating and cooling system does
not use any kind of active system. Instead, it uses building design without any solar
heating (and cooling) system to regulate the temperature inside a given space.
5. Which of the following is extremely important with respect to a passive solar heating
and cooling system?
a) Materials used to construct the building
b) Electrical systems used to perform heating/cooling operation
c) Mechanical systems used to perform heating/cooling operation
d) Material used to build heating/cooling systems
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A passive solar heating and cooling system does not consist of any
active element. Hence, materials used to construct the building plays a major role in
regulating the amount of heat trapped within the room.
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6. Which of the following is an example of passive solar technology?

a) Photovoltaic
b) Solar furnace
c) Active solar water heating systems
d) Solar thermo-mechanical systems
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Solar furnace is a well known example of passive solar technology. It
uses concentrated solar power to generate high temperatures for industrial
purposes. Active solar water heating systems and solar thermo-mechanical systems
are active systems.
7. What is a sunroom?
a) A room with a sun fitted inside it
b) A room that does not allow sunlight to pass through it
c) A room that transmits a lot of sunlight and has a scenic view
d) A room that does not pass sunlight and has a scenic view
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A sunroom, also known as a solarium is a room that permits a lot of
sunlight through it. It also has a beautiful scenic view for recreational purposes. This
is an example of a passive solar technology.
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8. Which of the following process is involved in heat transfer through building?

a) Seebeck effect
b) Peltier effect
c) Hall effect
d) Conduction
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Heat transfer in buildings occurs through conduction, convection and
radiation. Seebeck effect and Peltier effect are about an electric potential difference
due to thermal gradient and Hall effect are not related to heat transfer.
9. Which part of a house receives majority of solar radiation?

a) Roof
b) Side walls
c) Floor
d) Doors
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When compared to side walls, floor and doors, roofs receive majority of
solar radiation. The heat from sun flows into the building mainly through radiation
and supported by convection and conduction.
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10. Which of the following is a site-specific design consideration for a passive solar
heating and cooling system?
a) Orientation of the building
b) Latitude
c) Building window size
d) Placement of rooms
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Site specific design considerations are dependent on the location of the
site. Hence, latitude, sun path and insolation are some examples of site-specific
design considerations.
11. Which of the following is a design element for residential buildings in temperate
and tropical climates?
a) Latitude
b) Diurnal variations in temperature
c) Using thermal mass to store excess solar energy during winter
d) Obstacles
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Using thermal mass to store excess solar energy during winter is a
design element for residential buildings in temperate and tropical climates. Thermal
mass is a property of the mass of a building to store heat. Latitude, obstacles and
diurnal variations in temperature are site-specific design considerations.
12. A building with excessive glass cover ______

a) results in freezing
b) results in a pleasant temperature within the building
c) damages the building material
d) results in overheating
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A building with excessive glass cover results in overheating. This is
basically due to trapping of heat within the building and is explained by greenhouse
effect. It will not result in freezing.
13. A solar roof constructed on a building uses water stored ______ to temper hot and
cold internal temperatures of the building.
a) on building roofs
b) on building walls
c) beneath building floors
d) on an auxiliary building
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A solar roof constructed on a building uses water stored on building
roofs to temper hot and cold internal temperatures of the building. It is also called as
roof pond passive solar heating system and is usually deployed in desert
environments.
14. A “cool roof” uses reflective surfaces.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following is/are applications of solar heating systems?
a) Pasteurisation and drying
b) Wetting
c) Rainfall
d) Battery and capacitor technology
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pasteurisation and drying are applications of solar heating systems.
Battery and capacitor technology are used to store energy from various sources like
wind, sun, geothermal, etc. Wetting and raining are not applications of solar heating
systems.
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2. What is a solar heating system?

a) A system which uses heat to generate sunlight
b) A system which uses sunlight to generate heat
c) A system which uses earth’s heat to generate sunlight
d) A system which uses earth’s heat to generate electricity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A solar heating system is a system which uses sunlight to generate heat.
This heat can either be directly used or converted to other usable forms of energy
like electricity. Geothermal energy is using earth’s heat to generate usable forms of
energy.
3. What solar thermal technologies are useful for industrial processes?

a) Photovoltaics and solar air collectors
b) Solar air collectors and geothermal energy
c) Solar air collectors and solar water systems
d) Geothermal and photovoltaics
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Solar air collectors, solar water systems and solar concentrators are
three well known solar thermal technologies used in industrial processes.
Geothermal energy and photovoltaics are not solar thermal processes.
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4. Which industry primarily uses solar air collectors?
a) Industries manufacturing plastic
b) Industries melting metals
c) Semiconductor industry
d) Food processing industry
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Food processing industry primarily uses solar air collectors. They
replace traditional gas or oil-based drying in the industry. Melting metals requires
extremely high temperatures that are not provided by solar air collectors.
5. How does using a solar air collector benefit food processing industry?
a) Reduce gas-or-oil-based drying and/or reduce food spoilage
b) Reduce food spoilage and increase gas-or-oil base drying
c) Increase food spoilage
d) Increase gas-or-oil-based drying and/or increase food spoilage
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar air collectors benefit food processing industry in many ways. They
primarily reduce gas-or-oil-based drying and/or reduce food spoilage due to open air
drying. Also, they can be built locally and their cost depends on local building
materials and labour.
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6. Which of the following is a conventional solar water system?

c) Parabolic dish collectors
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Conventional solar water systems consists of flat-plate collectors (FPC)
or evacuated tube collectors (ETC). Solar air collectors are not solar water system.
7. Which application is best suited for a solar water system?

a) Food industry
b) Semiconductor industry
c) Residential applications
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Solar water systems are best suited for residential applications and if
required can be installed on rooftops to meet temperature demands upto 125
degree Celsius. Solar air collectors are mainly used in food industries.
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8. Which of the following are types of solar concentrators?

c) Parabolic flat plate collectors
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Solar concentrators include parabolic dish collectors, linear Fresnel
collectors and linear parabolic trough collectors. Solar air collectors are not a type of
solar concentrators. There is no such thing as parabolic flat plate collector because
the shape can either be parabolic or flat.

heat exchanger
heat exchanger
cold exchanger
cold exchanger
View Answer
Answer: a
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10. Which of the following is an example of solar air heating/collection technology?

a) Drying food using hair dryer
b) Drying food under direct sun
c) Heating the food in oven
d) Grilling food in a barbeque
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Drying food under direct is one of the simplest and naturally occurring
techniques of solar air heating. Drying food using hair dryer is not a solar air heating
technology as electricity is used to run the hair dryer.
11. Which of the following groups are types of solar drying technology?
a) Indirect, direct and active, photovoltaic
b) Photovoltaic, direct and indirect, active
c) Indirect, direct and active, passive
d) Indirect, passive and active, direct
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Solar drying technology can broadly be grouped into indirect/ direct and
active/passive technologies. Directly drying under the sun is an example of direct
drying. Photovoltaic is not a solar drying technology.
12. Active solar drying systems control _______ by fans.

a) water flow rate
b) food flow rate
c) electricity
d) air flow rate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Active solar drying systems control air flow rate by fans. They can
reduce drying time by a third and are compact. However, they require more
electricity to operate machines like fans.
13. Solar air collectors transfer sun’s thermal energy to air via ______
a) conduction
b) convection
c) Seebeck effect
d) Peltier effect
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar air collectors transfer sun’s thermal energy to air via conduction.
Convection is the transfer of heat by movement of fluid between areas of different
temperature. For this to happen, some region of air must first have a higher
temperature which is achieved by conduction.
14. Solar concentrators are used for temperatures beyond 500 degree Celsius.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar concentrators are used for temperatures beyond 500 degree
Celsius. Such industrial applications include generation of electricity or melting
metals.
15. Solar heat industrial systems are used for desalination.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following are types of photovoltaic refrigeration?

a) Vapour compression refrigeration and thermoelectric refrigeration
b) Vapour compression refrigeration and vapour jet refrigeration
c) Photovoltaics and concentrated solar power systems
d) Rankine cycle and vapour jet refrigeration
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Vapour compression refrigeration and thermoelectric refrigeration are
types of photovoltaic refrigeration. Photovoltaic is used to perform solar
refrigeration. Like Rankine Cycle and concentrated power systems, it is not a type of
refrigeration.
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2. What is a solar powered refrigerator?
a) A refrigerator that is directly sourced by electricity
b) A refrigerator that is sourced by solar energy
c) A refrigerator that is sourced by wind and sun
d) A refrigerator that is sourced by biomass and sun
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A solar powered refrigerator is a refrigerator that is sourced by solar
energy. Photovoltaics or solar thermal energy is used to convert solar energy into a
usable form (electricity) for refrigeration.
3. What is refrigeration?
a) A process where is work is done is to add heat from one system to another
b) A process where heat is used by the system to do work
c) A process where work is done to move heat from one system to another
d) A process where work is done to add cold air into the system
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Refrigeration is a process in which work is done to (re)move heat from
one system and add it to another. This results in temperature decrement in the
system from which heat was (re)moved.
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4. What are the types of popular refrigeration systems?

a) Vapour compression and vapour adsorption
b) Vapour adsorption and vapour absorption
c) Vapour compression and liquid compression
d) Vapour compression and vapour absorption
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Refrigeration systems are broadly classified into vapour compression
(VCR) and vapour absorption systems (VAR). Liquids are not compressed in
refrigerating systems.
5. Vapour compression refrigeration systems use ______ energy to perform

compression.
a) mechanical
b) thermal
c) gravitational
d) nuclear
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Vapour compression refrigeration systems use mechanical energy. The
electrical energy is converted into mechanical energy to perform the process of
compression.
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6. What type of energy does vapour absorption refrigeration system use?

a) mechanical
b) thermal
c) nuclear
d) electrodynamic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Vapour absorption refrigeration systems use thermal energy. The
electrical energy is converted into thermal energy to perform the process of
absorption.
7. Which of the following refrigeration systems are used in air-conditioning systems?

a) Vapour absorption
b) Vapour jet
c) Vapour compression
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Vapour absorption refrigeration systems are used in air-conditioning
systems. It is also used in domestic and commercial refrigerators, large-scaled
warehouses for storing food items by freezing.
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8. Which of the following best describes the process of vapour compression

refrigeration?
a) Warm air → compressor → condenser → expansion valve → evaporator → colder air
b) Evaporator → compressor → condenser → expansion valve → evaporator → colder
air
c) Warm air → compressor → expansion valve → evaporator → colder air
d) Warm air → evaporator → compressor → condenser → expansion valve →
evaporator → colder air
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In vapour compression refrigerator, warm air is first evaporated and
then passed into a compressor. This compresses the vapour which is then passed
through a condenser to obtain a liquid. The liquid is expanded through an expansion
valve to form a combination of liquid and vapour which is then passed through an
evaporator to obtain cold air.
9. What does a refrigerant do in a vapour compression refrigeration system?

a) Removes heat from one system and empties it into another system
b) Adds heat to the system
c) Absorbs heat continuously
d) Converts thermal energy into electrical energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A refrigerant in a vapour compression refrigeration system removes
heat from one system and empties it into another system. It is a circulating liquid
that basically performs operation of “refrigeration”.
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10. Which of the following is an example of a refrigerant?

a) Platinum
b) CFCs
c) Argon
d) Nitrogen
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: CFCs are common examples of refrigerants. Freons like R-11, R-12, R-21,
R-22 and R-502 are also used. Platinum, Argon and Nitrogen are not used as
refrigerants.
11. How does a photovoltaic refrigeration system work?
a) By converting sun’s thermal energy into electricity which is used to drive a motor
coupled to a compressor
b) By converting sun’s thermal energy into electricity which is used to drive an AC
motor coupled to a compressor of a vapour compression system
c) By converting sunlight into DC current to drive a DC motor which is coupled to a
compressor of a vapour compression system
d) By converting sunlight into DC current which is used to drive an AC motor coupled to
a compressor of a vapour compression system
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A photovoltaic refrigeration system works by converting sunlight into
DC current. This DC current drives a DC motor which is coupled to a compressor of a
vapour compression system.
12. It is important to ensure that _______ characteristics of motor matches that of PV

array.
a) mechanical
b) thermal
c) insulating
d) electrical
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is important to ensure that electrical characteristics of motor matches
that of PV array. This is to ensure that the power delivered by the PV array sufficient
to drive the motor which in turn drives the system.
13. How does the compression process between vapour compression and vapour
absorption systems differ?
a) Vapour compression uses mechanical compression while vapour absorption uses
thermal compression
b) Vapour compression and vapour absorption use thermal compression
c) Vapour compression and vapour absorption use thermal compression
d) Vapour compression uses electrical compression while vapour absorption uses
mechanical compression
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The compression processes differ in the compression technique and
energy conversions. Vapour compression uses mechanical compression while
vapour absorption uses thermal compression.
14. Solar thermal energy is used to perform vapour absorption refrigeration.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar thermal energy is used to perform vapour absorption
refrigeration. Since vapour absorption refrigeration uses thermal compression, the
thermal energy is directly used to extract heat from the working fluid.
15. Freon is a trade for a family of haloalkane refrigerants.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Solar air conditioning system uses _______ as its energy source.

a) sun
b) wind
c) electricity
d) motor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar air conditioning system uses sun as its energy source. It is just like
any other air conditioning system except that it uses solar power. A motor is not an
energy source. Solar energy is converted to electricity to run the system.
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2. Which of the following types of solar energy can be used to source air conditioning
systems?
a) Passive solar and wind
b) Passive solar and photovoltaics
c) Vapour compressor and photovoltaics
d) Wind and solar thermal energy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Passive solar, solar thermal energy and photovoltaics can be used to
source air conditioning systems. Wind and vapour compressor are not types of solar
energy.
3. What are the three heat exchangers used in an absorption type refrigeration?
a) Compressor, absorber and generator
b) Absorber, generator and adsorber
c) Absorber, regenerating intermediate heat exchanger and generator
d) Compressor, generator and adsorber
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The three heat exchangers used in an absorption type refrigeration
system are absorber, regenerating intermediate heat exchanger and generator.
These heat exchangers replace the compressor in a vapour compression
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4. What is the working fluid in vapour absorption type systems?

a) Platinum
b) CFCs
c) Freons
d) Ammonia
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Ammonia or lithium bromide is the working fluid in vapour absorption
type systems. CFCs and freons are used in vapour compression type systems and are
called refrigerants. Platinum is not used as a working fluid.
5. Absorption of ammonia in a liquid solution analogous to _______

a) condensation
b) evaporation
c) vapourisation
d) convection
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Absorption of ammonia in a liquid solution is analogous to
condensation process. Evaporation and vapourisation concern with liquids turning
into gas. Convection is a process of heat flow.
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6. Which of the following best describes the process of vapour absorption

refrigeration?
a) Absorbing fluid vapour into liquid carrier → producing vapours from solution by
b) Absorbing fluid vapour into liquid carrier → pumping into a high pressure cycle →
producing vapours from solution by heating → thus cooling
c) Absorbing fluid vapour into liquid carrier → thus cooling → pumping into a high
pressure cycle → producing vapours from solution by heating
d) Absorbing fluid vapour into liquid carrier → producing vapours from solution by
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The working fluid is absorbed into a liquid carrier which is then pumped
into a high pressure cycle. This cycle produces vapours from solution by heating
thereby cooling.
7. Which of the following use absorption refrigeration system?

a) Heating systems
b) Solar cooker
c) Waste heat from cogeneration
d) Solar stills
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Absorption refrigeration systems are used in large commercial and
industrial installations. For instance, waste heat from cogeneration or process steam
plants.
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8. Which of the following is/are considered for calculating the overall efficiency of solar
absorption refrigeration system?
a) Coefficient of performance of absorption system
b) Solar collection efficiency
c) Solar insolation
d) Solar collection efficiency and coefficient of performance of absorption system
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Solar collection efficiency and coefficient of performance of absorption
system are considered for calculating the overall efficiency of a solar absorption
refrigeration system. One can assume the solar insolation to be fairly constant and
hence does not contribute towards efficiency calculation.
9. What is coefficient of performance?

a) Ratio of refrigeration capacity to input solar energy
b) Ratio of input solar energy to refrigeration capacity
c) Product of input solar energy and refrigeration capacity
d) Ratio of refrigeration capacity to input electrical energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Coefficient of performance can be defined as the ratio of refrigeration
capacity to input solar energy. It basically describes the efficiency of the refrigerating
system as it compares the input to output.
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10. In solar vapour compression cycle, efficiency of Rankine cycle increases with _______
b) increase in temperature of heat exchanger
c) the amount of heat supplied to the evaporator
d) the amount of cold air released from the system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In solar vapour compression cycle, efficiency of Rankine Cycle increases
with increase in temperature of heat exchanger. It does not depend on the amount
of heat supplied to the evaporator and the amount of cold air released.
11. Efficiency of solar collector decreases with ______

b) increase in temperature of sun
c) increase in temperature
d) the amount of cold air given to the system
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Efficiency of solar collector decreases with increase in temperature. This
is because as the temperature of the working fluid increases, the difference between
its maximum heating temperature and the current running temperature decreases.
This decreases the ability to hold more heat.
12. Absorption refrigeration uses _______ mechanical power input as compared to

vapour compression refrigeration.
a) greater
b) the same
c) the same working fluid as
d) negligible
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Absorption refrigeration uses negligible mechanical power input as
compared to vapour compression refrigeration. Ammonia is used as working fluid in
absorption refrigeration.
13. How is pressurization achieved in absorber refrigeration?

a) By dissolving refrigerant in absorbent in the absorber section
b) By dissolving refrigerant in absorbent in the evaporation section
c) By evaporating refrigerant from absorbent in the absorber section
d) By evaporating refrigerant in absorbent in the evaporation section
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In absorber refrigeration, pressurisation is achieved by dissolving
refrigerant in absorbent in the absorber section. Evaporator section is used to
evaporate the refrigerant.
14. In absorber refrigeration, the solution of working fluid (ammonia) is pumped to a

low pressure with a big pump.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In absorber refrigeration, the solution of working fluid (ammonia) is
pumped to a high pressure. This is done with the help of a small/ordinary pump.
15. Vapour compression refrigeration system is less complex than absorber

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is solar cooker?

a) Uses direct sunlight to produce heat and cook food
d) Uses concentrated solar power to for industry
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar cookers are devices that use direct sunlight to produce heat and
cook food. Solar dryers are devices that use solar energy to dry substances. Devices
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2. What is pasteurization?
a) Process of treating water by biological techniques
b) Process of treating water by heating it mildly
c) Process of producing water
d) Process of capturing sun’s heat
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pasteurization is the process of treating water, packaged and non-
packaged food by heating it mildly. This is done to eliminated pathogens and extend
shelf life.
3. Which of the following principles is used to concentrate sunlight in solar cookers?
a) Rarefaction
b) Evaporation
c) Specular reflection
d) Radiation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Specular reflection is used to concentrate sunlight in solar cookers.
Evaporation is the process of liquid, particularly water turning into gas. Rarefaction is
the reduction in density of air or gas.
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4. Which of the following majorly affects the phenomenon of concentrating sunlight?

a) Non-reflecting surface
b) Black surface
c) Type of food
d) Geometry of the reflecting structure
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Geometry of the reflecting structure majorly affects the phenomenon of
concentrating sunlight. The amount of sunlight being concentrated can be controlled
by the geometry of the reflecting structure.
5. What is the typical temperature (range) used in domestic cooking? Note that C
indicates Celsius.
b) 1000 degree C
c) 3500 degree C
d) 300 – 500 degree C
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The typical temperature used in domestic cooking is around 65 degree
C. It falls in the range of 50 – 70 degree C. Temperatures beyond 1000 degree C are
used for industrial purposes.
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6. What is the maximum temperature used in cooking? Note that C indicates Celsius
a) 100 degree C for boiling water and related dishes
b) 400 degree C for grilling and searing
c) 800 degree C for melting metals
d) 30 degree C for melting food items like butter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum temperature used in cooking is 400 degree C for grilling
and searing purposes. Boiling water and melting food items like butter do not
require temperatures beyond 100 degree C. Temperatures beyond 500 degree C are
used in industries.
7. The cooking pan used in solar cookers convert ______ energy to ______ energy.
a) electrical, heat
b) heat, light
c) light, heat
d) electrical, light
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The cooking pan used in solar cookers convert light energy to heat
energy. After reflecting and concentrating the light onto the cooking pan, the pan
conducts heat to cook the required food/substance.
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8. Which of the following materials are used to make the cooking pan in a solar cooker?
a) Wood
b) Plastic
c) Rubber
d) Iron
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Iron is a good conductor of heat. It is used to make the cooking pan to
heat food in a solar cooker. Wood, plastic and rubber are thermal insulators.
9. Which of the following are used to manufacture parabolic dish concentrator?

a) Anodized aluminum
b) Wood
c) Bakelite
d) Iron
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Parabolic dish (and trough) are made of anodized aluminum (or coated
with aluminum) to reflect sunlight and concentrate it onto a receiver. Wood, iron and
bakelite are not used as they do not have reflective properties. Moreover, wood and
bakelite are thermal insulators.
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10. Which of the following pot surfaces are preferred for solar cookers?
a) White coloured
b) Black coloured
c) Red coloured
d) Silver coloured
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Black coloured pot surfaces are best suited to be used on cooking pans
of solar cookers. This is because black absorbs most amount of heat as compared to
any other colour. White, aluminum and silver coated surfaces are good reflectors of
light and heat.
11. Convection should be reduced by isolating air inside the cooker from air outside the
cooker.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Convection should be reduced by isolating air inside the cooker from air
outside the cooker. This is to prevent escape of heat via convection.
12. Covering the pot with a glass lid ________ convection.

a) increases
b) does not affect
c) changes the direction of
d) reduces
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Covering the pot with a glass lid reduces convection. This results in a
greenhouse effect thereby trapping heat to cook the food inside the pot.
13. Evacuated tube solar cookers use ________ glass tube for the cooking chamber.
a) highly insulated
b) thermal conducting
c) parabolic
d) cone shaped
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Evacuated tube solar cookers use highly insulated double-wall glass
tube for the cooking chamber. They do not require large reflectors to concentrate
sunlight.
14. Which of the following best describes the working of a solar cooker?
a) Concentrating sunlight → trapping heat → cooking
b) Concentrating sunlight → converting light to heat energy → trapping heat →cooking
c) Concentrating sunlight → cooking → trapping heat
d) Trapping heat → converting heat to light energy → radiating light → cooking
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sunlight is concentrated onto a receiver by reflective surfaces of the
structure. This light is converted to heat by the receiver. The heat is then trapped by
the pots used for cooking.
15. Solar cookers do have operating costs.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. In terms of cost, solar panel cookers use _______ material.

a) low-cost
b) specially designed expensive
c) low-cost inefficient
d) expensive and extremely efficient
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In terms of cost, solar panel cookers use low-cost material. However,
due to their low-cost material they can be easily constructed and are the most
commonly used cookers.
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2. What type is a solar panel cooker?

a) Absorber type
b) Reflector type
c) Adsorber type
d) Convection type
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Solar panel cookers are reflector type cookers. They are the most type
available due to their ease of construction and low-cost material.
3. How is sunlight concentrated in solar panel cooker?

a) From below the cooker onto the cooking pan
b) Using photovoltaics
c) From above
d) From right side
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sunlight is concentrated from above and not from sides in solar panel
cookers. This leads to limited cooking power and is not very desirable because of low
efficiency. However, the solar panel cookers are some of the cheapest designs in the
market.
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4. What was CooKit?

a) A solar parabolic cooker
b) A solar box cooker
c) A vapour compressor
d) A solar panel cooker
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Cookit is a popular solar panel cooker. It was designed by Dr. Roger
Bernard and is manufactured by cardboard and foil. Its main advantage was that it
was affordable, convenient and effective.
5. Solar panel cookers are not effective under _______

a) cloudy conditions
b) sunny conditions
c) dry and sunny conditions
d) desert conditions
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar panel cookers are not effective under cloudy conditions. Like any
other technology using solar energy, it requires the sun to be shining brightly without
any hinderance. Any hinderance drastically drops its effectiveness.
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6. What type of solar cooker is a sun basket?

a) Solar panel cooker
b) Solar parabolic cooker
c) Solar box cooker
d) Vapour absorption compression
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sun basket is a solar parabolic cooker. It is neither a solar panel nor a
solar box cooker. Vapour absorption compression is a refrigeration technique used
in refrigerators and not in solar cookers.
7. Which of the following materials are used to make sun basket?

a) Paper mache, parabolic mirror, gold and bakelite
b) Parabolic mirror, aluminum foil, paper mache and gold
c) Paper mache, aluminum foil, jute fabric and bamboo frame
d) Bamboo frame, parabolic mirror, gold rod for support and rubber for insulation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A sun basket is basically a parabolic mirror made from paper mache
supported by jute fabric and held in place by a bamboo frame. Aluminum foil is used
as the reflecting lining and is glued to the inner side of the basket. Rubber and
bakelite are thermal insulators. Gold is an expensive metal and is not used to make
solar basket.
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8. Solar basket is a/an ________

a) active cooker
b) vapour compression technique
c) vapour absorption technique
d) passive cooker
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Solar basket is a passive cooker. Vapour compression and vapour
absorption are compression techniques used in refrigeration. They are not related to
solar cookers.
9. What is a solar box type cooker?

a) An insulated box with a transparent glass cover and reflective surface directing
sunlight into the box
b) An insulated parabolic mirror which is used to reflect the sunlight onto the
conduction pan
c) A thermal conducting box with a transparent glass cover and reflective surface
directing sunlight into the box
d) A thermal conducting parabolic mirror which is used to reflect the sunlight onto the
insulated pan
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A solar box type cooker is an insulated box with a transparent glass
cover and reflective surface directing sunlight into the box. It is not a parabolic
mirror type solar cooker.
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10. Which of the following colours can be used to paint the insulated box in a solar box
cooker?
a) White
b) Black
c) Silver
d) Pink
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The insulated box in a solar box cooker is painted black. This is because
black maximizes absorption of sunlight. White is one of the best reflectors of sunlight
and is not used for absorption.
11. What type of cooking containers are used to cook food on a solar cooker?
a) Gold
b) Wooden
c) Steel
d) Plastic
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Cooking containers made up of aluminum and/or steel are used to cook
food on a solar cooker. Cooking containers made of thermal insulators like wood and
plastic are not used. Gold is an expensive metal and is not used for this purpose.
12. To reduce heat loss, where are insulators used in a solar box cooker?
a) On the reflective material
b) On the cooking platform
c) Reflective materials are made of insulators
d) Space between the outer and inner box
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The space between outer and inner box in a solar box type cooker are
thermally insulated to prevent any loss of heat. Cooking platform and reflective
material are not made up of thermally insulating material.
13. Solar cooker takes ______ to cook as compared to conventional cooking methods.
a) longer
b) less time
c) about the same time
d) more electricity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar cooker takes longer to cook as compared to conventional cooking
methods. It need not convert sunlight into electricity. Also, it does not use electricity
from the grid.
14. Solar cooking is pollution free.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar cooking is pollution free. It does not emit any harmful pollutants
into the environment and is entirely self-sustainable.
15. Conventional cooking fuel is required to operate solar cookers.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
1. What is solar furnace?

a) Uses concentrated solar power to produce high temperatures for industry
d) Uses solar energy to dry liquids
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Structures that use concentrated solar power to produce extremely
high temperatures for industry and other applications are called solar furnaces. Solar
dryers are devices that use solar energy to dry substances. Devices that use solar
energy to evaporate water and collect its condensate within the same closed system
are called solar stills.
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2. Which of the following concentrates sunlight onto a focal point?

a) Plane mirrors
b) Parabolic mirrors
c) Silver coated surface
d) Black surface
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Parabolic mirrors concentrate light onto a focal point. Plane mirrors and
silver coated surfaces reflect sunlight but not onto a focal point. Black surface
absorbs sunlight.
3. What is the typical range of temperature at the focal point of a parabolic mirror in
solar furnaces? Note that C stands for Celsius
a) Between 100 and 150 degree C
b) Upto 20 degree C
c) Between 1000 and 2000 degree C
d) Between 50 and 100 degree C
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The typical range of temperature at the focal point of a parabolic mirror
in solar furnaces is between 1000 and 2000 degree C. The temperatures may rise
upto 3500 degree C and can be used to generate electricity, melt steel, etc.
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4. What are concentrated solar powered systems?

a) Systems that use only a small concentrated portion of sunlight
b) Systems that generate solar power by using photovoltaics
c) Systems that generate solar power by using mirrors and lenses to absorb
concentrate a large area of sunlight onto an absorber
d) Systems that generate solar power by using mirrors and lenses to concentrate a
large area of sunlight onto a receiver
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Large area of sunlight is concentrated onto a receiver. This is performed
by concentrated solar power systems which then. The receiver then converts the
light into heat and transports it to other constituents of the concentrated solar
power system that further convert it into usable forms of energy.
5. Which of the following uses concentrated solar power systems?

a) Solar thermo-mechanical power systems
b) Solar stills
c) Solar dryers
d) Solar photovoltaics
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar thermo-mechanical power systems use mirrors and lenses to
focus the light onto a receiver which is then converted into thermal energy. The
thermal energy is then used to drive a heat engine connected to an electrical power
generator.
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6. Which of the following does a heliostat consist of?

a) Plane mirror
b) Plane mirror and parabolic mirror
c) Fresnel reflector
d) A metal absorber
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A heliostat is a device that includes a plane mirror. The mirror is turned
to keep the reflecting sunlight towards a predetermined target. This compensates for
the sun’s motion throughout the day.
7. What are the types of concentrating technologies?

a) Parabolic trough and solar stills
b) Parabolic dish and solar furnace
c) Solar power tower and parabolic trough/dish
d) Solar furnace and solar stills
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Concentrating technologies exists in four types, namely, parabolic
trough, dish solar power tower and concentrating linear Fresnel reflector. Solar
furnace use concentrating solar power technologies. Solar stills are not a type of
concentrating technology.
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8. What are the types of solar furnaces?
a) Indirect and concentrating solar power technology
b) Active and direct
c) Passive and heliostat
d) Direct and heliostat
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Direct solar furnace and heliostat solar furnace are the two types of
solar furnaces. Active and passive are types of solar stills. Indirect solar dryer is a
type of solar dryer.
9. Which of the following is an application of solar furnace?

a) Producing hydrogen fuel
b) Drying food
c) Distilling water
d) Generating concentrating solar power technologies
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Apart from generating electricity and melting steel, producing hydrogen
fuel is another major application of solar furnaces. Solar stills are used to distill
water. Solar dryers are used to dry food.
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10. Archimedes is said to have repelled attacking Roman ships with the help of
“burning glass”.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Archimedes is said to have repelled attacking Roman ships with the help
of “burning glass”. The ships were set on fire using this so called “burning glass”
which may very well have been an array of mirrors.
11. Solar furnaces are used to generate temperatures around ______ to produce
hydrogen. Note that C indicates Celsius.
a) 1000 degree C
b) 500 degree C
c) 1400 degree C
d) 3500 degree C
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Solar furnaces are used to generate temperatures around 1400 degree
C to produce hydrogen. Hydrogen is produced by cracking methane molecules.
12. What is the typical temperature generated by solar furnaces to test materials for
extreme environments? Note that C indicates Celsius.
a) 100 degree C
b) 500 degree C
c) 1400 degree C
d) 2500 degree C
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The typical temperature generated by solar furnaces to test materials
for extreme environments is around 2500 degree C. Materials are tested for
applications like nuclear reactors or space vehicle.
13. What is a major drawback of solar furnaces to be used as a renewable source of

energy on earth?
a) Heavily reliant on sun
b) Not reliant on sun
c) Finances
d) Cannot be used as a source of energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: One of the major drawbacks of solar furnaces particularly if it has to be
used a renewable source of energy on earth it is heavily reliant on sun. Another
problem is the availability of land to install huge systems to convert energy.
14. Solar furnaces can be used as solar cookers for domestic purposes.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar furnaces are not directly used as solar cookers particularly for
domestic purposes. However, their principle is being used to make inexpensive solar
cookers.
15. The largest solar furnace is in France.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is solar dryer?

a) Use solar energy to dry substances
c) Use solar energy to evaporate water and collect its condensate within the same
closed system
d) Use solar energy to dry liquids
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar dryer are devices that use solar energy to dry substances. Devices
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2. What is the most popular use of solar dryer?

a) Water
b) Food
c) Chemicals
d) Industrial substances
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Popularly, solar dryers are used to dry foods. If not the, it is one of the
most common application of solar dryers. Since the question specifies most popular,
food is the answer.
3. What are the two general types of solar dryers?

a) Direct and active
b) Indirect and passive
c) Direct and indirect
d) Box like and cone shaped
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The two general types of solar dryers are direct and indirect. Active and
passive are types of solar stills. Box like and cone shaped are some of the basic
configurations of solar stills.
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4. What is the basic working principle of direct solar dryers?

a) Direct exposure of substance to fire
b) Direct use of sunlight to start a heater which is then used to dry the substance
c) Indirect exposure of substance to sunlight
d) Dehydrating the substance by directly exposing to sunlight
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The basic working principle of direct solar dryers is that they directly
expose the substance to sunlight. By directly exposing the substance, they dehydrate
the substance. A heater may or may not be used in a solar dryer.
5. Which of the following best indicates an example of direct solar dryer?

a) Drying wet clothes on wired lines
b) Using the dryer of a washing machine
c) Using an electric heater
d) Using a solar heater
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Drying wet clothes on wired lines is an example of direct solar dryer.
Many countries including India still use this traditional method to dry clothes as it is
cheap and natural. Electric and solar heaters are not solar dryers.
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6. How do wet clothes laid on wired lines dry under sunlight?

a) Wind blows to accumulate more air consisting moisture near the clothes
b) Wind blows away the moisture near the wet clothes air exposing them to fresh air
and sunlight
c) Sunlight continuously evaporates water in wet clothes without any assistance from
wind
d) Wind blows away the moisture near the wet clothes air exposing them to fresh air
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Both sunlight and wind assist drying of wet clothes laid on wired lines.
As the sun evaporates water from the clothes, moisture content in the surrounding
air increases. Wind blows away this moisture saturated air and exposes to the
clothes to fresh air and sunlight. The process repeats thereby drying the wet clothes
over time.
7. Which of the following surface is best suited to absorb sunlight?

a) White surface
b) Red surface
c) Black surface
d) Silver surface
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A black surface or a black coated surface is best suited to absorb
sunlight. This is supported by the concept of black body. A black body is an idealized
physical body that absorbs all incident electromagnetic radiation.
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8. How does an indirect solar dryer work?

c) By heating the incoming air with the help of a black surface
d) By using fire
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: An indirect solar dyer heats the incoming air with the help of a black
surface. Then this heated air is passed over the substance to be dried thereby drying
the substance.
9. Why is direct solar dryer harmful for food?

a) Because direct sunlight could chemically alter some food items
b) Because direct sunlight dries the food
c) Because direct solar dryer does not cover the food
d) Because of contaminants brought by wind
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A major problem with a direct solar dryer is that it can harm the food.
This is because the sunlight could chemically alter some food item and make them
less appetizing. Contamination due to wind is also a problem but it is not as bad as
chemical alteration.
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10. Indirect solar dryers protect the food.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Indirect solar dryers protect the food from directly exposing it to
sunlight. Since they heat the incoming air they do not directly expose the food to
sunlight. This prevents chemical alteration of food items.
11. _______ are used as air exhausts in indirect solar dryers.

a) Turbines
b) Ceiling fans
c) Chimneys
d) Table fans
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Chimneys are used as air exhausts in indirect solar dryers. They let the
moisture containing air pass out of the chamber thereby making room for freshly
heated air.
12. A glass cover _______ solar dryers.

a) decreases the efficiency of
b) is not used in
c) does not affect the efficiency of
d) increases the efficiency of
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A glass cover increases the efficiency of solar dryers. Sometimes, direct
solar dryers are equipped with glass covers to trap more heat thereby increasing the
efficiency of the system.
13. Which of the following best explains the increment in efficiency of a glass covered
solar dryer?
a) Greenhouse effect
b) Greenhouse gas
c) Climate change
d) Thermohaline circulation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Greenhouse effect best explains the increment in efficiency of a glass
covered solar dryer. Greenhouse effect is the process of increasing the temperature
of a chamber covered with glass by trapping sun’s heat within the chamber.
14. Which of the following is an example of indirect solar dryer?

a) Wet clothes laid on wired lines
b) Solar cabinet dryer
c) Solar tunnel dryer
d) Biomass cabinet dryer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Solar cabinet dryer is an example of indirect solar dryer. Wet clothes
laid on wired lines is an example of direct solar dryer. Solar tunnel dryer and
biomass cabinet dryer are not examples of indirect solar dryers.
15. Indirect solar dryers work on natural air convection.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is solar distillation?

a) Use solar energy to evaporate water and collect its condensate within the same
closed system
c) Use solar energy to collect the condensate of water within the same closed system
d) Use solar energy to evaporate water and collect its condensate within different
closed systems
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar distillation is the use solar energy to evaporate water and collect
its condensate within the same closed system. It is important to note that the same
system is used to both evaporate and condensate water.
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2. Which of the following houses the process of solar distillation?

a) Solar thermo-mechanical system
b) Solar still
c) Photovoltaics
d) Heat engines
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Solar still houses the process of solar distillation. Solar thermo-
mechanical system, photovoltaics and heat engines are not used to perform
distillation.
3. Which of the following is a configuration of solar still?

a) Solar panel
b) Solar cell
c) Cone shaped
d) Frustum shaped
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The three basic configurations of solar still are cone shaped, box-like
and frustum shaped. Solar cells and panels are not solar stills and are not used for
solar distillation.
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4. Which of the following best describes the process of solar distillation?

a) Influent → solar distillation system → salty solute remains → evaporation of volatile
solvents as effluents
b) Influent → evaporation of volatile solvents as effluents → solar distillation system →
c) Influent → solar distillation system → evaporation of volatile solvents as effluents →
d) Solar distillation system → influent → evaporation of volatile solvents as effluents →
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The influent enters the solar distillation system. The volatile solvents
evaporate as effluents leaving behind salty solute.
5. Which of the following is an example of solar distillation?

a) Natural water cycle
b) Fractional distillation
c) Reverse osmosis
d) Osmosis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Natural water cycle is a very common example of solar distillation that
the earth experiences. Fractional distillation, osmosis and reverse osmosis are not
solar distillation.
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6. What are the two categories of solar still?

a) Active and deactivate
b) Active and passive
c) Box and cone
d) Passive and pit
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Active and passive are the two main categories of solar still. Box, cone
and pit are the basic configurations of solar still.
7. What do the two categories of solar still namely, active and passive depict?
a) The method of evaporation
b) The method of condensation
c) The method of acquiring energy to drive evaporation
d) The method of collecting evaporated water
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The two categories of solar still depict the method of acquiring energy
to drive evaporation. Evaporation, condensation and collection of condensate are
performed only after energy is supplied to the system.
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8. What is an active solar still?

a) A solar still that solely relies on sun to distill water
c) A solar sill that automatically gets activated when sun shines on it
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: An active solar still uses additional heat sources apart from sun. These
additional heat sources are used to promote existing thermal processes like initial
start-up.
9. Which of the following are examples of active solar stills?

a) Compound Parabolic Concentrators and flat plate collectors
b) Solar heater and photovoltaics
c) Flat plate collectors and heat engines
d) Compound parabolic concentrators and sun
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Compound parabolic concentrators, flat plate collectors and solar
heaters are examples of active solar stills. Photovoltaics and heat engines are not
solar stills. Sun is the energy source of solar still.
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10. Active stills demote faster and larger quantities of freshwater generation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Active stills demote faster and larger quantities of freshwater
generation. This comes at the cost of increased design complexity and
manufacturing.
11. What is a passive solar still?

a) A solar still that uses photovoltaics to start
c) A solar still that solely relies on sun to distill water
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A passive solar still is a conventional solar still that solely relies on the
sun to distill water. Though the process may be slow it generally has a lower design
complexity as compared to an active solar still.
12. Which of the following is a type of passive stills?

a) Solar still with compound parabolic concentrator
b) Single-effect stills with flat plate collectors
c) Multi-effect stills with compound parabolic concentrator
d) Single-effect solar still
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Single-effect and multi-effect solar stills are types of passive stills.
However, if any of these systems are attached with additional thermal sources like
compound parabolic concentrators and flat plate collectors, they become active solar
stills.
13. In a single-effect still, it is crucial to keep the distiller _______

a) airtight
b) aerated
c) connected with another distiller
d) connected with multiple distillers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Single-effect stills are the simples and popularly used solar stills. In a
single-effect solar still, it is a crucial design challenge to keep the distiller airtight. It
uses a single interface to convey the energy and collect the condensate.
14. Neutral stills use seawater greenhouses to create freshwater.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Neutral stills use seawater greenhouses to create freshwater. They are
neutral because the energy that goes into creating freshwater is used to grow plants
that promote evaporative cooling of air inside.
15. A good insulator is necessary to reduce thermal losses in solar stills.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following best describes the flow of energy in a solar thermo-
mechanical system?
a) Solar → thermal → mechanical → electricity
b) Electricity → thermal → mechanical → solar
c) Mechanical → solar → electricity → thermal
d) Solar → electricity → thermal → mechanical
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a solar thermo-mechanical system, the solar energy is first converted
to thermal energy. Then this energy is used to drive mechanical systems thereby
being converted to mechanical energy. This mechanical energy is further converted
to usable forms like electricity.
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2. What is a heat engine?

a) System that converts thermal energy to mechanical energy
b) System that converts thermal and chemical energy to mechanical energy
c) System that converts mechanical energy to thermal energy
d) System that converts mechanical energy to thermal and chemical energy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A heat engine is an energy converting system. It converts in the heat or
thermal energy and chemical energy to mechanical. This mechanical energy can be
used to do mechanical work.
3. How does heat engine convert thermal and chemical energy to mechanical energy?
a) With the help of steam
b) By converting the input energy into electrical energy which is then used to drive
mechanical systems
c) By bringing a working substance from a higher state temperature to a lower state
temperature
d) By converting the input electrical energy to mechanical energy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The heat engine convert thermal and chemical energy to mechanical
energy. It does this by bringing a working substance from a higher state temperature
to a lower state temperature. During this conversion, any form of energy being used
is not converted to electrical energy.
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4. Which of the following is/are examples of heat engines?

c) Photovoltaics and concentrating mirrors
d) Rankine cycle and Brayton cycle
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Rankine cycle and Brayton cycle are examples of heat engines.
Photovoltaics and concentrating mirrors are not heat engines. Fuel cells are another
type of source that convert chemical energy to electrical energy.
5. Which of the following is a popular solar thermal power system?

a) Central receiver thermal electric power system
b) Photovoltaics
c) Concentrating mirrors
d) Solar reflectors
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Central receiver thermal electric power system is a popular solar
thermal power system. Photovoltaics are not solar thermal power systems. They
directly convert solar energy to electrical energy. Concentrating mirrors and solar
reflectors are components of various solar thermal power systems.
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6. Which of the following best describes the working of central receiver thermal power
system?
a) Sunlight → heliostats absorb solar flux → central receiver → turbine system →
electricity
b) Sunlight → heliostats reflect solar flux → central receiver → turbine system →
electricity
c) Heliostats reflect solar flux → sunlight → turbine system → central receiver →
electricity
d) Heliostats reflect solar flux → sunlight → central receiver → turbine system →
electricity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a s central receiver thermal power system, the solar radiation from
the incident sunlight is reflected by heliostats onto central receiver. The receiver
consists of a boiler to boil the working fluid which is in turn used to drive the turbines
to generate electricity.
7. What is the operating temperature of turbines in a central receiver thermal power

system? Note that “C” stands for Celsius.
b) 5000 degree C
c) 500 – 800 degree C
d) 200 – 500 degree C
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The typical operating temperature of the turbines in a central receiver
thermal power system is between 500 – 800 degree C. The temperatures are so high
because large concentrations of solar flux are reflected onto the central receiver by
several arrays of heliostats (hundreds and sometimes even thousands).
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8. Which of the following is a line focus collector used in a distributed power system?
a) Parabolic mirrors
b) Convex mirrors
c) Concave lenses
d) Linear fresnel reflector
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Linear fresnel reflector is a line focus collector. Parabolic mirrors and
convex mirrors may reflect sunlight but they may not be line focused collector.
Lenses are not used to collect sunlight in a distributed power system.
9. How is energy collected in a distributed power system?

a) Sunlight → line focused collectors → interconnecting pipes → heat engines →
b) Line focused collectors → sunlight → interconnecting pipes → heat engines →
c) Sunlight → line focused collectors → turbines → interconnecting pipes → heat
engines → electricity
d) Interconnecting pipes → sunlight → line focused collectors → heat engines →
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The solar radiation from the incident sunlight is collected by various line
focused collectors. This energy is collected through pipes interconnecting the
dispersed collector units and then supplied to the heat engines which in turn use the
working substance to drive turbines and generate electricity.
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10. The type of heat engine depends on _______

a) material of interconnecting pipes
b) type of collector
c) sunlight
d) photovoltaics
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The type of heat engine depends on the type collector, temperature of
operation, cycle efficiency, working fluid, conversion efficiency, transport fluid, etc.
Photovoltaics are not used in solar thermo-mechanical systems.
11. What is Carnot efficiency?

a) Rate of the temperature difference divided by rate of initial temperature change
b) Ratio of relative temperature between source and sink and the relative source
temperature
c) Ratio of absolute temperature between source and sink and the absolute source
temperature
d) Ratio of rate of the temperature difference and the absolute source temperature
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Carnot efficiency is ratio of absolute temperature between source and
sink and the absolute source temperature. It can also be defined in terms of heat
added to the source at some temperature and heat rejected by the fluid at some
temperature.
12. Heat engine efficiency increases as the source temperature _______

a) decreases
b) remains the same
c) decrement rate increases
d) increases
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Heat engine efficiency increases as the source temperature increases.
Also, the rate of increase of the source temperature should be greater at lower
temperatures than at higher temperatures.
13. Distributed power system is a type of solar thermo-mechanical system.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Distributed power system is a type of solar thermo-mechanical system.
It works on the principle of collecting the incident solar radiation using multiple
arrays of line focused reflectors distributed across a large area. These collectors are
interconnected by pipes which transfer the energy to the mechanical system.
14. Heat engine efficiency increases with ________ sink temperature.
a) no change in
b) decrease in
c) increment in rate of increasing
d) increase in
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Heat engine efficiency increases with decrease in sink temperature. It
should also be noted that the rate of decrement of sink temperature should be
faster than the rate which the source temperature is increased.
15. Isothermal process is a process conducted at constant temperature.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. How does an ideal Rankine cycle work?

a) Heat-addition process does not occur at constant temperature
b) Heat-addition process occurs at temperature
c) Heat-addition process does not occur at constant pressure
d) Heat-addition process occurs at constant pressure
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Like Carnot cycle, Rankine cycle is a heat engine phase cycle. It
determines how working fluid is used to convert energy from one form to another.
The heat-addition process in Rankine cycle does not occur at constant temperature.
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2. Which of the following best describes the process of an ideal Rankine cycle?
a) Working fluid is heated in boiler → exhaust vapour is condensed → vapour runs the
b) Working fluid is heated in boiler → vapour runs the turbine → exhaust vapour is
c) Vapour runs the turbine → working fluid is heated in boiler → exhaust vapour is
d) Exhaust vapour is condensed → Working fluid is heated in boiler → vapour runs the
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In an ideal Rankine cycle, the working fluid is heated in boiler and
converted to vapours which is used to run the turbine. The exhaust vapours from the
turbine is condensed to form a liquid residue which is pumped back into the boiler to
complete the cycle.
3. Why is the efficiency of Rankine cycle less than that of Carnot cycle?
a) Because of the working fluid
b) Because of the turbines
c) Because all the heat is not supplied at upper temperatures
d) Because all the heat is supplied at upper temperatures
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The efficiency of Rankine cycle is less than that of Carnot cycle because
all the heat is not supplied at upper (higher) temperatures. However, is has a high
work ratio and its steam consumption is less than Carnot cycle.
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4. How can the efficiency of Rankine cycle be improved?

a) By supplying heat at higher temperatures
b) By supplying heat at lower temperatures
c) By rejecting more heat
d) By using a part of rejected heat
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Rankine cycle has lower efficiency that Carnot cycle because all the heat
is not supplied at upper temperatures. The efficiency of Rankine cycle can be
improved by using a part of rejected heat in heating the liquid.
5. How does Stirling cycle differ from Carnot cycle?

a) The two adiabatic steps in Carnot cycle are replaced by two constant volume steps
b) The two adiabatic steps in Carnot cycle are replaced by two constant temperature
steps
c) The two isothermal steps in Carnot cycle are replaced by two constant volume steps
d) The two isobaric steps in Carnot cycle are replaced by two constant volume steps
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The working of Stirling cycle is similar to that of Carnot cycle except for
two steps. The two adiabatic steps in Carnot cycle are replaced by two constant
volume steps.
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6. In Stirling cycle, the heat addition and rejection take place at _________
a) constant pressure
b) constant temperature
c) two different temperatures
d) multiple pressures
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In Stirling cycle, the heat addition and rejection take place at constant
temperatures. A suitable gas or air is used as working fluid and the turbine,
compressor and heat exchanger are closely coupled.
7. Which of the following best describes Brayton Cycle?

a) Exhaust gas → hot compressed gas → expands through turbine by doing work →
b) Exhaust gas → hot compressed gas → expands through turbine by doing work →
heat exchanger → gas goes to compressor → rejection of heat
c) Hot compressed gas →expands through turbine by doing work → exhaust gas →
d) Heat exchanger → exhaust gas → hot compressed gas → expands through turbine
by doing work → gas goes to compressor → rejection of heat
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In Brayton Cycle, the hot compressed gas expands through the turbine
by doing work. The exhaust gas from the turbine is passed into heat exchanger to
reject heat. Then this gas is fed into the compressor to be compressed and used
again.
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8. Which of the following governs the efficiency of any practical solar thermo-
mechanical system?
a) Photovoltaics
b) Rankine Cycle
c) Brayton Cycle
d) Properties of working fluid
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Properties of working fluid govern the efficiency of any practical solar
thermo-mechanical system. Rankine and Brayton Cycles are techniques to
implement heat engines to convert the input energy into a usable output energy.
9. The choice of working fluid depends on the operating temperatures in the boiler.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The choice of working fluid depends on the operating temperatures in
the boiler. It also depends on the condenser being used and the type of heat engine.
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10. What is the main problem in a solar thermo-mechanical system as the collection
(operating) temperature increases?
a) Efficiency of collection system and engine decreases
b) Efficiency of collection system decreases but engine efficiency increases
c) Efficiency of collection system and engine increases
d) Efficiency of collection system increases and engine efficiency decreases
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main problem in a solar thermo-mechanical system is that as the
collection (operation) temperature increases efficiency of the collection system
decreases. However, the engine efficiency increases as the temperature of working
fluid increases.
11. The practical heat engine _______ theoretical efficiency.

a) has greater efficiency than
b) has the same efficiency as that of
c) has lesser efficiency as compared to the
d) always has minimum efficiency equal to that of
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The practical heat engine used in solar thermo-mechanical systems
always has lesser efficiency as compared to the theoretical efficiency. It can never
exceed the theoretical limit due to practical limitations.
12. What is the bare minimum requirement for the construction materials used in solar
thermo-mechanical systems?
a) Contaminate the working fluid
b) Withstand heat from the working fluid
c) Withstand pressure from the working fluid
d) Withstand both, heat and pressure from working fluid
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The bare minimum requirement from the construction materials used
in a solar thermo-mechanical system is that they withstand both, heat and pressure
from the working fluid. The materials should not contaminate the fluid.
13. Which of the following affects the installation of a solar thermo-mechanical system?
a) Availability of land
b) Availability of photovoltaics
c) Availability of sunlight and clouds
d) Availability of rain
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Availability of land affects the installation of solar thermo-mechanical
system. Sunlight is important but most places on earth receive sunlight. Clouds and
rain are a hinderance to the system.
14. What is the minimum vapour pressure (in kPa) of the working fluid to drive a
turbine?
a) 300
b) 700
c) 100
d) 50
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The minimum vapour pressure of the working fluid to drive a turbine is
700 kPa. The preferred vapour pressure 2000kPa for useful work.
15. Organic vapours are used small plants and low powered solar thermo-mechanical
systems.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following provides energy for winds to blow naturally?

a) Sun
b) Water
c) Man
d) Food
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The energy that drives winds originates from the sun’s heat received
along with sunlight. The heat creates areas of low pressure and high pressure,
thereby causing winds to blow. Wind is abiotic and does not need food. Any wind
blowing due to man is artificial. Water aids in magnifying a low or high pressure area
but does not cause winds.
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2. Wind flows from _______ pressure area to ________ pressure area.

a) high, high
b) high, low
c) low, high
d) low, low
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wind always flows from a high pressure area to a low pressure area.
The difference in pressures causes wind to flow from in a direction. Winds originate
from the heat received by sun which heat’s the earth’s surface unevenly resulting in a
pressure difference.
3. What is a gust?
a) No change in wind speed
b) A brief decrease in wind speed for a very long period of time
c) A brief increase in wind speed for a very short period of time
d) A brief increase in wind speed for a very long period of time
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A gust or a wind gust is a brief increase in wind speed for a very short
period of time, typically less than 20 seconds and has a transient characteristic unlike
a squall.
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4. What is a squall?
a) A sudden, sharp increase in wind speed lasting for a few hours
b) A sudden, sharp decrease in wind speed lasting for a few minutes
c) A sudden, sharp decrease in wind speed lasting for a few hours
d) A sudden, sharp increase in wind speed lasting for a few minutes
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A squall is a sudden, sharp increase in wind speed lasting for a few
minutes. Squalls occur during rain showers, thunderstorms or heavy snow fall.
5. A windstorm _______
a) is strong enough to cause property damage
b) is not stronger than gust
c) does not exist
d) is not strong enough to cause property damage
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A windstorm consists of winds strong enough to cause property
damage like uprooting of trees and damaging erected buildings. Wind speed in a
typical windstorm exceeds 55km/s and can be extremely detrimental.
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6. What are planetary or prevailing winds?

a) Winds not blowing from one latitude to another
b) Winds blowing from one latitude to another
c) Gusts
d) Winds that do not cover large areas of earth
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Planetary winds are winds that blow from one latitude to another
throughout the year due to latitudinal differences in air pressure. They cover large
areas of earth.
7. Which of the following are the two most important planetary winds?
a) Hosting
b) Trades and economics
c) Trade winds and westerly winds
d) Deployment
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Trade winds and westerly winds are the two most important planetary
or prevailing winds. Other options – trade and economics, hosting and deployment
are not related to winds.
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8. What are trade winds?

a) Winds blowing from equatorial low pressure areas to sub-tropical high pressure
areas
areas
d) Winds blowing from sub-tropical high pressure areas to equatorial low pressure
areas
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Trade winds are extremely steady winds blowing from sub-tropical high
pressure areas to equatorial low pressure areas. They maintain a constant direction
throughout their course.
9. How does Coriolis effect trade winds in Northern Hemisphere?

c) Coriolis effect does not affect the trade winds in Northern Hemisphere
d) Coriolis effect only affects the trade winds in Southern Hemisphere
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Coriolis effect and Ferrel’s law disrupt the flow of trade winds from
north to south and deflect them towards right in the Northern Hemisphere. Thus,
they blow in a north east direction in the Northern Hemisphere.
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10. How does Coriolis effect trade winds in Southern Hemisphere?

c) Coriolis effect does not affect the trade winds in Southern Hemisphere
d) Coriolis effect only affects the trade winds in Northern Hemisphere
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Coriolis effect and Ferrel’s law disrupt the flow of trade winds flowing
from north to south and deflect them towards left in the Southern Hemisphere.
Thus, they blow in a south east direction in the Southern Hemisphere.
11. Trade winds ______

a) do not maintain a constant direction but blow steadily
b) maintain a constant direction but do not blow steadily
c) maintain a constant direction and blow steadily
d) shrinking technique
View Answer
Answer: c
1. What are westerly winds?

a) Winds blowing from sub-tropical high pressure areas to sub-polar low pressure
areas
areas
d) Winds blowing from equatorial low pressure areas to sub-tropical high pressure
areas
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Westerly winds are winds blowing from sub-tropical high pressure areas
to sub-polar low pressure areas. The direction of flow is from west to east between
30 and 60 degrees latitude.
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2. Westerly winds of Southern Hemisphere ______

a) weaker and maintain a constant direction than its counterpart in Northern
Hemisphere
b) are stronger and maintain a constant direction than its counterpart in Northern
Hemisphere are
c) are stronger but do not maintain a constant direction than its counterpart in
Northern Hemisphere
d) blow from equatorial low pressure areas to sub-tropical high pressure areas
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Westerly winds of Southern Hemisphere are fairly stronger and
maintain a constant direction as compared to its counterpart in Northern
Hemisphere. They blow from sub-tropical high pressure areas to sub-polar low
pressure belts.
3. What are periodic winds?

a) Westerly winds
b) Winds that do not change their direction periodically with the change in season
c) Winds that change their direction periodically with the change in season
d) Trade winds
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Periodic winds are winds that change their direction periodically as the
season changes. Trade and westerly winds are planetary winds and are not periodic
in nature.
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4. Which of the following are examples of periodic winds?
a) Gusts
b) Windstorm
c) Westerly winds
d) Monsoons, land and sea breeze, mountain and valley breeze
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Monsoons, land and sea breeze, mountain and valley breeze are
examples of periodic winds. Westerly winds are planetary winds and are not periodic
in nature. Windstorm and gusts are not periodic in nature.
5. A downburst is created by an area of rain-cooled air that _____

a) after hitting the ground generates strong winds which spread in all directions
b) don’t hit the ground
c) after hitting the ground generates extremely weak winds which spreads in all
directions
d) are short gusts
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Downbursts are caused by an area of rain-cooled air that after hitting
the ground level generates strong winds which spread in all directions. They are not
gusts.
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6. What is sea breeze?

a) Winds that don’t strike the ground level
b) Winds from sea that flow during day towards the land and replace the lighter and
rising hot air
c) Winds that hit the land to generate extremely weak winds which spreads in all
directions
d) Short gusts originating from sea
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the coastal lands heat up, the air above it also gets hot. Hot air is
light and rises up leading to a low pressure area. Sea breezes carry moisture from
the sea and are much cooler. Thus, they rush towards the land to replace the hot air.
7. What is land breeze?
a) Winds that hit the sea to generate extremely weak winds which spreads in all
directions
b) Winds from land that flow during night towards the sea and replace the lighter and
rising hot air
c) Winds from sea that flow towards the land and replace the lighter and rising hot air
d) Short gusts originating from land
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: During night, the inland temperatures drop to an extent such that the
sea is warmer than the land thereby causing the air above it to become hot and rise.
Cool air from land rush towards the sea to replace the hot air.
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8. Which of the following equations best explains the phenomenon of winds flowing
from high pressure to low pressure?
a) Pressure = Force/Area
b) Roult’s law
c) Force = mass*acceleration
d) Ideal gas equation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: From Kinetic theory of gases, it is evident that ideal gas equation – PV =
nRT explains the phenomenon of gases flowing from high pressure to low pressure.
Raoult’s law deals with vapour pressure. Force = mass*acceleration and Pressure =
Force/Area do not explain kinetics of gases.
9. How do thunderstorms form?

a) Thunderstorms originate from a pleasant breeze
b) Thunderstorms are produced by mid-level clouds
c) Thunderstorms are produced by cumulonimbus cloud which generated gusty winds
and heavy rains
d) Thunderstorms originate from low-level clouds and do not carry rain with them
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Thunderstorms is a type of storm with thunder and lightning and is
produced by cumulonimbus clouds. These clouds generate strong gusty winds and
heavy rains which accompany the thunderstorm.
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10. Which of the following are types of winds?

a) Planetary winds, periodic winds, local winds
b) Trade winds, westerly winds, plate tectonics
c) Apples, monsoon
d) Clouds, rains, storms
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Planetary winds, periodic winds, local winds, trade winds, westerly
winds, monsoons are types of winds. Plate tectonics is related to earth. Clouds, rains
and storms are not the types of winds.
11. What is considered as a strong breeze on a Beaufort Wind Scale?

a) 0
b) 6
c) 1
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
1. What is the definition of wind?

a) Air in net motion
b) Air in motion
c) Gas molecules in random motion
d) Stationary gas molecules
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wind is better defined as air in net motion. On a microscopic level, gas
molecules are always in a random motion and are not visible to the naked eye. In
fact, motion of individual gas molecules cannot be sensed by our senses. Thus, gas
molecules are never stationary.
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2. Which of the following involves studying the physics of wind flow?
a) Microbial fuel cells
b) Fluid dynamics
c) Combustion
d) Polymer science
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fluid dynamics involves the studies of wind motion and its underlying
physics. Fluids consists of both, liquids and gases. Hence, wind is also a fluid because
it consists of gas molecules.
3. Which of the following best describes the motion of air on earth?

a) A two-dimensional vector
b) A one-dimensional vector
c) A three-dimensional vector
d) A four-dimensional vector
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The motion of air on earth is best described as a three-dimensional
vector. It is also important to note that air motion is typically described and studied
relative to earth’s rotation.
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4. Which of the following are the three individual components/dimensions best used to
describe air motion on earth?
a) A meridional component pointing south-to-north, a zonal component pointing north-
b) A zonal component pointing south-to-north, a meridional component pointing west-
to-east and downward component pointing from sky to ground
c) A meridional component pointing north-to-south, a zonal component pointing east-
to-south, a vertical upward component pointing from ground to sky
d) A meridional component pointing south-to-north, a zonal component pointing west-
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The three individual components that correspond to the three
dimensions are – a meridional component pointing south-to-north, a zonal
component pointing west-to-east and a vertical upward component pointing from
ground to sky.
5. Which of the following devices indicate wind direction?

a) Weather vanes, windsocks
b) Multimeter, oscilloscope
c) Accelerometer
d) Wind’s direction cannot be measured
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The direction of wind is generally indicated by weather vanes,
windsocks and balloons. Multimeters and oscilloscopes are electronic instruments
used to measure voltage and current. Accelerometer is a device that measures a
body’s acceleration.
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6. What is geostrophic wind?

a) Wind generated due to disbalance between wind forces and Coriolis force
b) Wind generated due to balance between pressure gradient force and Coriolis force
c) A special wind generated from geothermal energy
d) Wind flowing in stratosphere
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Geostrophic wind is the wind generated due to balance between
pressure gradient force and Coriolis force. It occurs above the atmospheric boundary
layer (ABL).
7. What are eddies in wind?

a) Areas where the global wind blows opposite to that of the net direction of wind-
motion
b) Areas where the local wind blows in the same direction as the net direction of wind-
motion
c) Areas where the local wind blows opposite to that of the net direction of wind-
motion
d) Areas where the local wind blows randomly to that of the net direction of wind-
motion
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Eddies are small areas where the local wind blows opposite to that of
the net direction of wind-motion for a short period of time. Eddies are always local in
nature and do not occur globally.
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8. The Coriolis force deflects the wind to the right in Northern Hemisphere until ______
a) equilibrium of forces is not achieved
b) gas molecules stop moving
c) water vapour evaporates
d) equilibrium of forces is achieved
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Coriolis force deflects the wind to the right in Northern Hemisphere
until an equilibrium is achieved. The equilibrium is between the pressure gradient of
the wind and the Coriolis force.
9. Wind speed is measure by ______

a) anemometers
b) odometers
c) ammeter
d) weather vanes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Anemometers are used to measure wind speeds. They are commonly
used in weather stations. Odometers measure distance of a wheeled vehicle.
Ammeters measure current and weather vanes are used to indicate the direction of
wind.
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10. What is wind speed?

a) Net molecular flux along the wind axis divided by the mean molecular number
density
b) Molecular flux along the wind axis divided by the mean molecular number density
c) Net molecular flux along the wind axis divided by molecular number density
d) Molecular flux opposite the wind axis divided by the mean molecular number
density
View Answer
Answer: a
1. When looking for a wind site, assessors start by _______

a) determining the direction of prevailing wind at the site
b) looking for a good source of water
c) looking for a location with good sunlight
d) determining all the directions of the local wind
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To install a wind turbine, wind assessors look for locations with strong
and smooth winds. They start by assessing the direction of the prevailing wind at the
site. Generally, winds blowing in a particular direction are strong and smooth.
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2. Which of the following is required for the installation of a wind turbine system?
a) A weak wind flow
b) A consistent and strong wind flow
c) Still air
d) A consistent wind flow with obstructions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For a wind turbine system to run effectively, it requires a good wind site.
A good wind site is one with a consistent and strong wind flow in a direction.
3. Which of the following is preferred in a good wind site?

a) Still air
b) A higher altitude terrain with objects obstructing the wind flow
c) A higher altitude terrain with no or minimum objects obstructing the wind flow
d) A lower altitude terrain with no or minimum objects obstructing the wind flow
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Terrain is known to affect wind speeds which in turn affect the efficiency
of a wind turbine system. A higher altitude terrain with no or minimum objects
obstructing the wind flow is always preferred.
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4. What is the minimum height above which the rotor of the wind turbine system is
installed in a good wind site?
a) 100 feet above the tallest obstacle within a 5-foot radius
b) 5 feet above the tallest obstacle within a 500-foot radius
c) 10 feet above the tallest obstacle within a 5000-foot radius
d) 30 feet above the tallest obstacle within a 500-foot radius
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A wind turbine can be located anywhere in a good wind site provided
the rotor is installed slightly on a higher terrain. The rotor is typically mounted 30
feet above the tallest obstacle within a 500-foot radius.
5. Which of following are considered during wind siting?

a) Safety impact, community impact, environmental impact
b) Radiation
c) Sunlight
d) Water
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Before selecting and deciding on a good site, various impacts of
installing a wind turbine are considered. The engineers ensure that the wind site
does not harm any living creature. They also ensure that the site is far away from the
nearest village to prevent any noise pollution.
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6. Which of the following impacts a community/village/society due to installation of

wind turbine system?
a) Private and Public cloud
b) Noise from the turbine, flicker
c) Private, Public and Hybrid cloud
d) Public and Hybrid cloud
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Noise, flicker and signal interference impacts the nearest
community/society/village. The other options are not related to wind siting.
7. Does the wind turbine harm birds?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The wind turbine system harms the birds and may even kill them. Thus,
it is imperative to select a site with minimum or no living creatures.
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8. Which of the following factors affect wind speed near the turbine system?
a) Birds flying
b) Sunlight
c) Time of the day, temperature, season
d) A village far away from the wind site
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Time of the day, temperature and season are a few factors affecting the
wind speed. While the sun’s heat affects the wind speed by creating a pressure
difference, sunlight in itself doesn’t. Affect of a far away village from the wind site
and birds flying on wind speed is minimum.
9. Do wind sites need an access to transmission lines?

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Potential wind sites turning into wind farms need access to
transmission lines. Transmission lines are used to transport the electrical energy
generated from the wind turbine system to the grid.
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10. Which of the following can make a good wind site?

a) A national sanctuary with wildlife
b) A city
c) A village
d) A barren land with wind speed of 6 on beaufort scale
View Answer
Answer: d
1. Which of the following is not an application of wind energy?

a) Electricity
b) Steam engine
c) Agriculture
d) Energy storage for emergencies
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Steam engine is not an application of wind energy because coal was
used to generate the steam powering the engine. Wind is used to generate electricity
with the help of wind turbines. This energy can either be stored for emergencies or
can be used in agriculture, viz. pumping water.
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2. Which of the following sports use wind energy?

a) Wind surfing
b) Chess
c) Carroms
d) Kho-Kho
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wind surfing is a surface water sport that combines elements of surfing
and sailing. Chess and carroms are board games. Kho-Kho is a running sport. All
three of them do not use wind energy.
3. Does the team sport cricket, use wind?

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cricket is a team sport that uses wind energy in a unique manner. Wind
energy is used to swing the ball into (or away from) the batsman. This phenomenon
is demonstrated by Magnus effect.
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4. How is wind energy used in flourmills?

a) To beat corn grains into paste
b) To beat wheat grains into paste
c) To grind wheat and corn grains into flour
d) Wind energy is not used in flourmills
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Wind energy is used in flourmills to grind wheat and corn grains into
their respective flour. Wind mill blades are connected to a drive shaft which is in turn
connected to gears and millstones. When the grains are poured into the revolving
millstone, the motion grinds it into flour.
5. Which of the following wind turbine is mostly used to extract wind energy?
a) DC generator
b) Vertical-axis wind turbines
c) Sailing boat
d) Horizontal-axis wind turbines
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Horizontal-axis wind turbines are mostly used to extract wind energy.
They are made up of several blades that are aerodynamically shaped like airplane
wings and are based on ancestral winds. Sailing boats use wind energy and do not
extract energy from wind. DC generator generates DC current.
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6. Wind energy is not used to pump water to a higher level.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wind energy is used to pump water from a lower level to a higher level.
A horizontal-axis wind mill with multiple blades is typically used to pump the water.
7. _______ light is used to denote dangers of birds, bats or/and airplanes.

a) Red
b) Blue
c) Yellow
d) Green
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The red light is used to indicate any danger like birds or bats. It is fitted
on the wind mill to identify itself with the airplanes.
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8. Which of the following is a mechanical application of wind energy?

a) Lighting
b) Electricity
c) Pumping water
d) Wind surfing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pumping water is a mechanical application of wind energy. Generating
and transporting electricity to the grid as well as lighting are electrical applications.
Wind surfing is a sport that uses wind energy.
9. Which of the following is a potential application of wind energy?

a) Converting heat to wind energy
b) Converting electrical energy to wind energy
c) Transportation of electrical energy
d) Converting the wind flow due to speeding cars into electricity on highways
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Wind blowing due to speeding cars on highways or trains can be used to
power street lamps and is a potential application of wind energy. Converting other
forms of energy to wind energy is not an application of wind energy. Transportation
of electrical energy is an existing practice.
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10. Does flying a kite use wind energy?

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What are the two primary aerodynamic forces acting on wind turbine rotors?
a) Lift, drag
b) Drag, gravitational force
c) Gravitational force, lift
d) Gravitational force, electrical force
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Lift and drag are the two primary aerodynamic forces acting on modern
wind turbine rotors. Gravitational force is due to earth’s gravity and is not an
aerodynamic force. Similarly, electrical force is due to an electrical potential
difference or an electric field and is not an aerodynamic force.
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2. Lift is an aerodynamic force acting _______

a) opposite to the direction of wind flow
d) perpendicular to the direction of wind flow
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Lift is an aerodynamic force that acts perpendicular to the direction of
wind flow. A simplified explanation of lift is that it should travel faster to reach the
end of the blade to meet the wind travelling over upwind face of the blade.
3. Drag is an aerodynamic force acting ______

a) perpendicular to the direction of wind flow
d) opposite to the direction of wind flow
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Drag is an aerodynamic force acting in the direction parallel to the wind
flow. Though it is conceptually simple, it has poor power extraction vs area efficiency.
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4. What is an aerodynamic force?

a) Force exerted on the body due to mass of another body nearby
b) Force exerted on the body by liquid
c) Force exerted on the body by air (or any gas) in which the body is immersed
d) Force exerted on the body due to a charged particle
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Aerodynamic force is the force exerted on a body by air (or any gas) in
which the body is immersed. It is due to the relative motion between the body and
air. Buoyancy is the force exerted by the liquid in which the body is immersed.
Gravitational force on a body is due to mass of another body.
5. What happens on the upwind side of the wind mill blade?

a) No pressure is exerted
b) Low pressure area
c) High pressure area
d) Wind is trapped
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: On the upwind side of the wind mill blade, a region of high pressure is
formed. This is due to slow movement of air on the upwind side as compared to the
downwind side.
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6. The upwind side experiences a force that slows the blade.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The upwind side experiences a force due to the slow movement of air
relative to the downside. This results in a region of high pressure on the upwind side
which exerts a force that slows the blade’s movement.
7. What is lift-to-drag ratio?

a) Amount of lift generated by a blade divided by its aerodynamic drag
b) Amount of drag generated by a blade divided by its lift
c) Amount of drag generated by a blade divided by its aerodynamic lift
d) Amount of lift generated by a blade divided by its aerodynamic drag
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Lift-to-drag ratio is the amount of lift generated by a blade (or a wing/
flying vehicle) divided by its aerodynamic drag. It’s essential to determine the blade’s
efficiency and is considered during the design of the wing.
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8. A higher lift-to-drag ratio indicates a higher efficiency.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the name suggests, lift-to-drag ratio is the ratio of the aerodynamic
lift generated by the blade to the aerodynamic drag generated by the blade. It is
used to determine the efficiency of the blade. Higher the lift-to-drag ratio, higher the
efficiency.
9. Turbine blades use a/an _______ design.

a) bulky
b) airfoil
c) teardrop
d) train’s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Airfoil design is the cross-sectional shape of an airplane wing. Turbine
blades us an airfoil design. Unlike trains and trucks, they are not bulky. Though
teardrop is the most aerodynamic shape, turbine blades don’t use this design.
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10. Which of the following is the governing equation for power extraction and
calculation? Note that the text in bold denotes a vector quantity.
a) Power = force . velocity
b) Power = force . area
c) Power = velocity . force
d) Power = energy / time
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In aerodynamics, power = force . velocity is used to extract and
calculate power. Though power = energy / time is correct but both energy and time
are written in bold which is not true. Energy and time are scalar quantities. The other
options are mathematically incorrect.
11. Why is it necessary to have an optimal tip speed ratio (TSR)?

a) To ensure maximum efficiency
b) To ensure good aerodynamics
c) To increase drag
d) To ensure minimum efficiency but good aerodynamics
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Optimal tip speed ratio is required to ensure maximum efficiency in
converting wind energy to mechanical energy. If the propeller blades rotate too
slowly, it allows too much wind to pass through undisturbed and does not extract
sufficient energy. However, if the blades rotate too quickly, it creates a large amount
of drag.
12. What is tip speed ratio (TSR)?

a) Ratio of wind speed to the speed of rotor
b) Ratio of the speed of rotor tip to wind speed
c) Ratio of wind speed to the speed of rotor tip
d) Ratio of wind speed to the speed of the blade’s center
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tip speed ratio is the ratio of the speed of the rotor tip to the wind
speed. It is used to determine the optimal speed at which the rotor (and blades) are
required to rotate to ensure maximum efficiency.
13. What does tip speed ratio (TSR) depend on?

a) Motor material
b) Wind tower material
c) Rotor blade shape profile
d) Different types of gases
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Tip speed ratio depends on rotor blade shape and its wind profile. It
also depends on the number of turbine blades and the design of the wind turbine
propeller.
14. Which of the following blade designs is becoming less popular?

a) HAWT
b) Airfoil design
c) Curve design
d) Flat blade design
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Flat blade design is one of the oldest designs and is becoming less
popular due its low efficiency. Airfoil and curve designs deliver much higher
efficiencies. Horizontal axis wind turbine (HAWT) is a propeller type and not a blade
design.
15. The airfoil/curve blade designs are affected by drag along its length.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
1. How is drag force experienced by the blade reduced in various modern blade
designs?
a) Bending and tapering the blade
b) Using heavy metals
c) Twirling the blade
d) Increasing the length of the blade
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Turbine blades experience drag force. They are bent and tapered along
their length to reduce the effect of drag force.
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2. What is angle of attack?
a) Angle between downwind side and upwind side
b) Angle between the blade and the rotor
c) Angle between the direction of wind and pitch of the blade
d) Angle between the blade and the wind tower
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Angle of attack is the angle between the direction of the oncoming wind
and the pitch of the blade. It is important to note that position of the pitch of the
blade is with respect to the oncoming wind.
3. When plotting lift vs angle of attack, which of following best describes the shape of
the curve?
a) Exponential
b) Cubic
c) Linear
d) Parabolic
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The shape of lift vs angle of attack curve is parabolic in nature. The
value of lift attains a maxima when the angle is between 15-18 degrees.
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4. There is no ideal angle of attack for best rotation.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There is an ideal angle of attack that creates best rotation. It can be
seen that the value of lift increases as the angle increases and then decreases as the
angle crosses 20 degrees.
5. The speed at the tip of the blade is faster than its center.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The speed of the tip of a rotating blade is faster than its center or root.
This ensures a good tip-speed-ratio and provides high efficiency.
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6. What is the angle by which the rotor blades are twisted?

a) 5-10 degrees
b) 15-45 degrees
c) 100-120 degrees
d) 10-20 degrees
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The rotor blades are twisted by an angle between 10-20 degrees from
root to tip. This ensures that the angle of attack decreases from the region where the
air is moving slowly near the root to the region where the air is moving much faster
at the tip.
a) Twisting and tapering the blades
b) Reducing wind tower height
View Answer
Answer: a
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8. Why is a blade twisted along its length rather than its width?
a) Drag reduction
b) Weight reduction
c) Drag reduction and improvement in angle of attack
d) Aesthetic reasons
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A rotor blade is twisted along its length to improve the angle of attack
and reduce drag. It is not done to reduce weight or for aesthetic reasons. Every
engineering design has a logical reason.
a) Reducing wind tower height
b) Twisting and tapering the blades
View Answer
Answer: b
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10. Why does wind speed increase with height above ground?
a) More slip boundary conditions
b) Less obstructions and no slip boundary conditions
c) More obstructions and slip boundary conditions
d) Gas molecules have less mass
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Increase in wind speed with increasing height is due to both, less
number of obstructions and no slip boundary conditions. While the fluid analysis at
ground level assume these conditions, the mathematics for analyzing at a
considerable height above ground level is suitable changed.
11. Increased wind tower height and longer blades do not result in an increase in
power.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Increasing the wind tower height and blade length results in increased
output power. However, the benefits of increasing the form factor comes at the
expense of economics and safety.
12. Why should longer turbine blades be made of stronger materials?
c) Stronger materials are cheaper
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Longer turbine blades experience greater aerodynamic forces – lift and
drag forces. Hence, they need to be made of stronger materials which are not
particularly cheap.
13. Which of the following is best reason for not using longer blades even though they
produce greater output power?
c) Safety concerns due to greater momentum of longer blades
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Though longer turbine blades produce greater output power; they are
not used commercially because they have more mass. If any of the blades falls off
the tower, its net momentum could cause extensively damage the environment.
14. Which theory is used to model the wind turbine?

a) Blade element momentum theory
b) Kinetic gas theory
c) Archimedes principle
d) Einstein’s theory of photoelectric effect
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Blade momentum theory is used to for aerodynamic modelling due to
its simplicity. Kinetic gas theory is related to gas molecules and energy of a gas
molecule. Archimedes principle is related to floatation and immersion of a body in a
liquid. Einstein’s theory is related to the photoelectric effect which is a quantum
mechanical phenomenon.
15. What is blade element momentum theory?

a) It is same as blade element theory
b) It is same as momentum theory
c) It talks about the motion of a body in a given frame of reference
d) It is used to calculate the local forces on the propeller or blade
View Answer
Answer: d
1. Wind turbines convert wind energy to ________

a) mechanical energy
b) electrical energy
c) heat energy
d) solar energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wind turbines convert wind energy to mechanical energy. This
mechanical energy is then converted to electrical energy using an electric generator.
They neither convert wind energy to heat energy nor to solar energy.
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2. Which of the following components of a wind turbine system is arranged in the order
in which energy is being converted?
a) Blades – rotor – electric generator – shaft
b) Blades – rotor – shaft – electric generator
c) Shaft – blades – rotor – electric generator
d) Electric generator – blades – rotor — shaft
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A wind turbine system first converts wind energy to mechanical energy
and then to electrical energy using an electric generator. The correct order is blades
– rotor – shaft – electric generator.
3. Which of the following are commonly used commercial wind turbines?

a) Vertical and DFIG
b) Horizontal and SCIG
c) Horizontal and vertical
d) DFIG and SCIG
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Horizontal axis wind turbines (HAWT) or horizontal and vertical axis
wind turbines (VAWT) or vertical are commonly used commercial wind turbines.
DFIG, SCIG and PMSG are commercially used power generators for wind energy.
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4. What are horizontal wind turbines?

a) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis perpendicular to the plane of ground
d) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis parallel to the plane of wind streamlines
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Horizontal wind turbines are made up of blades that rotate about an
axis parallel to the plane of wind streamlines. Hence, they are also called as
Horizontal Axis Wind Turbines (HAWT). They are the most popularly used wind
turbines for commercial wind energy harvesting applications.
5. Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontal axis wind turbine?

a) Blades are to the side of turbine’s center of gravity
b) Blades are parallel to the vertical axis passing through the turbine’s center of gravity
c) Blades are parallel to the horizontal axis passing through the turbine’s center of
gravity
d) Blades are positioned perpendicular to the plane of the ground
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a horizontal axis wind turbine (HAWT), the blades are positioned to
the side of the turbine’s center of gravity. This provides stability to the entire setup.
Blades rotate to an axis parallel to the plane of ground.
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6. What is an upwind turbine?

a) Rotor of the turbine is behind the unit
d) Rotor is positioned at the center of the tower
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An upwind turbine is a type of wind turbine where the rotor is
positioned in front of the unit. The position is similar to that of propellers used in
airplanes. Most of the wind turbines used commercially are upwind turbines.
7. What is the main advantage of an upwind turbine?

c) No tower shadow effect
d) Manufacturing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tower shadow effect occurs when the tower acts as an obstruction
between the blades and the wind. In an upwind turbine, both rotor and blades are
attached in front of tower. Thus, the tower shadow effect reduces considerably.
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8. What is the main disadvantage of an upwind turbine?

c) A rotor that needs to be placed at some distance from the tower
d) An inflexible rotor that needs to be placed close to the tower
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The main disadvantage of any upwind turbine is the requirement of
placing the rotor at some distance from the tower. This setup prevents problems
with a blade strike. They also require a yaw mechanism to ensure that the rotor faces
the wind continuously.
9. What is a downwind turbine?

a) Rotor is positioned at the three-quarters of the height of the tower
d) Rotor of the turbine is behind the unit
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A downwind turbine is a type of wind turbine where the rotor is
positioned behind the tower. The nacelle used is typically designed to seek the wind.
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10. What is the main advantage of any downwind turbine?

a) Inflexible rotor blades
c) Position of the rotor
d) Reduced tower shadow effect
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main advantage of a downward turbine is that the rotor blades can
be made flexible. This reduces the cost of manufacturing and relieves stress on the
tower at high wind speeds.
11. What is the main disadvantage of a downward wind turbine?

c) Inflexible rotor blades
d) Bending of blades at high wind speeds
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Since the rotor of a downward wind turbine is placed behind the tower,
it experiences an increased tower shadow effect. Flexible rotor blades enable
bending at high wind speeds. This is its main advantage.
12. What is a vertical wind turbine?

a) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis perpendicular to the plane of wind
streamlines
d) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis parallel to the plane of ground
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Vertical wind turbines are made up of blades that rotate about an axis
perpendicular to the plane of wind streamlines. Hence, they are also called as
Vertical Axis Wind Turbines (HAWT). Most of its main components is near the ground
unlike a HAWT.
13. What are the types of VAWT?

a) Lift, horizontal
b) Horizontal, vertical
c) Drag, lift
d) Urban wind turbines
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are two types of VAWT – drag and lift. Horizontal and vertical wind
turbines are classified based on their axis of rotation. Urban wind turbines are
specially designed turbines to harvest wind energy in cities and other urban areas.
14. What is the main advantage of a vertical axis wind turbine?

a) Directional and sensitive to wind turbulence
b) Not directional and sensitive to wind turbulence
c) Directional and insensitive to wind turbulence
d) Not directional and insensitive to wind turbulence
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: VAWTs are made up of blades that rotate about an axis perpendicular
to the plane of streamlines. Hence, their main advantage is that they are insensitive
to wind turbulences and are not directional.
15. What is the main disadvantage of a vertical axis wind turbine?

a) Not directional and insensitive to wind turbulence
b) More drag than HAWTs
c) Less drag than HAWTs
View Answer
Answer: b
1. What is the main disadvantage of a horizontal axis wind turbine?

a) Easy operation at near ground winds
b) Does not self-start
c) Difficult operation at near ground winds
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The main disadvantage of any horizontal wind axis turbine is that it
cannot be operated at near ground winds. This is due to the height of the tower and
size of the blades. However, most of them are self-starting and do not have a high
starting torque.
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2. Which of the following materials are used to make a rotor blade of a wind turbine?
a) Glass fibre reinforced polyester
b) Salt
c) Sugar
d) Plastic
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rotor blades are made using glass fibre reinforced polyester (GRP). It is
a material made impregnating a matrix of fibre glass mats with a polyester. This
polyester is hardened after impregnation.
3. Which of the following materials can be used to make a rotor blade of a wind turbine
apart from glass fibre reinforced polyester (GRP)?
a) Silicon, germanium
b) Epoxy, carbon fibre
c) Plastic
d) Salt
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Apart from GRP, epoxy and carbon fibre can be used to make rotor
blades. Though carbon fibre is lighter and has higher material strength, it is
expensive. Silicon and germanium are generally used in semiconductor industry.
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4. Fatigue testing of rotor blades subject the blades to an oscillation in _______ direction.
a) horizontal
b) vertical
c) flapwise
d) diagonal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: During fatigue testing of rotor blades, they are oscillated in the flapwise
direction for millions of cycles. A typical flapwise test takes about three hours.
Depending on the results of a fatigue test, we comment on whether a rotor blade
can withstand high wind speeds or not.
5. Which of the following are the major parts of a wind turbine system?
a) Tower, rotor, water storage tank, air compressor
b) Tower, rotor and blades, air compressor, vacuum pump, electricity generator
c) Electricity generator, nacelle, rotor and blades, power converter, building
d) Tower, nacelle, rotor and blades, power converter, electricity generator
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Tower, nacelle, rotor and blades, power converter, electricity generator
and wind shaft are the major parts of a wind turbine system. Water storage tank, air
compressor and vacuum pump are not used in a wind turbine system.
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6. What is the main function of tower in a wind turbine system?

a) Acts a support to all other components used in wind turbine system
b) Acts as an antenna for wireless radio communications
c) Acts as an electric pole for power transportation
d) Destabilizes the wind turbine system
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main function of tower in a wind turbine system is to support the
other components. It also stabilizes both, the rotor and blades which eventually
convert wind energy to electrical energy via mechanical energy.
7. Which of the following towers is used for small wind turbines?

a) Hybrid tower
b) Guyed pole tower
c) Electric pole
d) Wooden pole
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The guyed pole tower is used for small wind turbines. It is a single
vertical pole supported by guy cables from different sides. An electric pole is
specifically used for electricity transportation. Wooden pole is a general purpose pole
and can be used for a variety of applications.
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8. What is a hybrid type tower?

a) Guyed tower
b) Guyed tower and wooden tower
c) Thin and tall lattice type guyed tower
d) Guyed tower and electric pole
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Unlike the guyed tower which uses a single pole, the hybrid tower uses
a thin and tall lattice type tower that is supported by guy cables. It is a hybrid of both,
lattice type and guyed type towers.
9. Nacelle is a kiosk that houses ______

a) a MOSFET
b) a diode
c) a wifi router
d) a yaw drive
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Nacelle is a big box that houses various components like power
converter, yaw drive, gearbox, etc. MOSFETs and diodes are discrete electrical
components used to realize various electrical and electronic circuits. Nacelle does
not house a Wi-Fi router.
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10. What is the main function of gearbox in a wind turbine system?

a) Multiples rotation speed to generate electricity
b) Divides rotation speed to generate electricity
c) Multiples rotation speed to consume wind energy
d) Divides rotation speed to consume wind energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The blades rotate slowly and this speed is not sufficient to generate
electricity. So, the main function of a gearbox in a wind turbine system is to multiply
the rotation speed to a sufficiently high level so as to generate electricity.
11. What is a pitch drive motor?

a) A motor that senses wind direction
b) A motor to control the angle of blades
c) A motor to ensure nacelle faces in the direction of the wind
d) A motor to rotate the blades
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A pitch drive motor is a motor used to control the angle of blades.
Pitching is the process of rotating the angle of blades to cut maximum wind for
harvesting energy.
12. What is a yaw drive?

a) A device used to support and stabilize other components
b) A device used to house various energy conversion components
c) A motor to ensure that nacelle faces the wind
d) A device used to track wind direction
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A yaw drive is a motor to ensure that the nacelle faces in the direction
of the wind. This advocates maximum energy extraction from the incoming wind. It is
controlled by a PLC that uses wind vane to track the net direction of wind.
13. What is the cost of a wind turbine per megawatt?

a) $10000
b) $1000
c) $100
d) $1 million
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As of 2019, a wind turbine costs about $1 million per megawatt.
Manufacturing the rotor blades consume most of the budget. Depending on the size
and material used, the cost may vary. For example, carbon fibre is expensive when
compared to glass fibre.
14. Wind turbines require regular maintenance.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wind turbines require regular maintenance to ensure reliability and
maintain initial efficiency. They are generally serviced after 3-4 months of usage. In
best case, they are available to generate energy 98% of the time.
15. Offshore wind turbines are not erected in water bodies.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What are wind energy conversion systems designed for?

a) To convert wind energy to mechanical energy
b) To convert wind energy to potential energy
c) To convert wind energy to electrical energy
d) To convert mechanical energy to wind energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wind energy conversion systems (WECS) are designed to convert wind
energy to mechanical energy. The kinetic energy of the wind is used to turn the
blades of a wind turbine which in turn rotates a rotor connected to it. This
mechanical energy is further converted to electrical energy for various applications.
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2. Which of the following is a part of a general wind energy conversion system?

a) Server
b) Wind turbine
c) Cloud User
d) Service Provider
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wind turbine is a crucial part of a wind energy conversion system
(WECS). It converts the kinetic energy of the incoming air stream into mechanical
energy which is then converted to electrical energy. Server, cloud user and service
provider are components of a wireless communication system.
3. What are the two types of gear boxes used in wind turbine?
a) VAWT and HAWT
b) Differential
c) Parallel shaft and planetary shaft
d) Manual transmission
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Parallel shaft and planetary gearboxes are used in wind turbine.
Differential and manual transmission are used in automobiles. VAWT and HAWT are
the two most commonly used wind turbines.
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4. What are parallel shaft gears?

a) Motor shaft and the speed controller shaft are on perpendicular planes
b) Motor shaft and the speed controller shaft are on skewed planes
c) Motor shaft and the speed controller shaft are on diagonal planes
d) Motor shaft and the speed controller shaft are on parallel planes
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Parallel shaft gear motors are a type of gear motor which uses gears to
accomplish speed control. The motor shaft and the speed controller shaft are on
parallel planes. Hence, the name parallel shaft gears.
5. What is a planetary shaft gearbox?

a) Input shaft and output shaft are aligned
b) Motor shaft and the speed controller shaft are on perpendicular planes
c) Motor shaft and the speed controller shaft are on parallel planes
d) Input shaft and output shaft are parallel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the input and output shaft of a gearbox are aligned, it is called
planetary gearbox. It is used to transfer the largest torque compactly. Motor shaft
and speed controller shaft in parallel shaft.
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6. Parallel shaft gearbox is used in small turbines.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Parallel shaft gearbox is used in small turbines. They have a simple
design and are easy to maintain. Also, they are made up high mass material.
7. Planetary shaft gearbox is not used in large turbines.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Planetary shaft gearbox is used in large turbines. When compared with
parallel shaft gearbox, it has a complex design and is made up of low mass material.
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8. Power generation contains ________

a) mechanical systems
b) kinetic systems
c) electromagnetic and electrical subsystems
d) nuclear systems
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Power generation contains electromagnetic and electrical subsystems.
To ensure voltage compatibility with grid, it generally contains an electrical
transformer apart from the electrical generator and power electronics converter.
9. What is a fixed speed WECS?
a) WECS operating at differential speeds
b) WECS operating at non-differential speeds
c) WECS operating at variable speeds
d) WECS operating at constant speed
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A fixed speed WECS operates at a constant speed. The wind turbine
rotor speed is determined by the grid frequency regardless of the wind speed. A
fixed speed WECS does not operate at differential/variable speeds.
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10. Fixed speed WECS are equipped ________ generators.

a) squirrel-cage induction
b) squirrel induction
c) induction squirrel
d) doubly-fed induction
View Answer
Answer: a
1. How is the speed varied in limited variable speed WECS?

a) Variable rotor resistance
b) Fixed rotor resistance
c) Fixed capacitance
d) Variable rotor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Limited variable speed WECS is an evolution of fixed-speed WECS. The
variable speed is achieved with the help of a variable rotor resistance which is
controlled by power electronics. Thus, the total resistance is adjustable.
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2. Which generator is used in variable speed WECS?

a) Squirrel-cage induction
b) Doubly-fed induction
c) Induction squirrel
d) Induction generator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Double-fed induction generator is used in a variable speed WECS. The
name doubly-fed comes from the fact that the stator voltage is applied from the grid
and the rotor voltage is impressed by the power converter.
3. Which of the following components are used as converters in power electronics

converter?
a) BJT
b) Earphone
c) IGBT
d) Wi-Fi driver
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Two IGBTs are used as converters, namely the rotor side and the grid
side converter. BJT is not used as converter. Both, earphone and Wi-Fi driver are not
electrical components. Earphones are used to listen to music and Wi-Fi driver is used
to connect to the Wi-Fi.
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4. What is the function of rotor side converter?

a) To control the DC-link voltage
b) To ensure operation at large power factor
c) To control generator in terms of active and reactive power
d) To ensure operation at low power factor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The function of rotor side converter is to control the generator. It
controls the generator in terms of active and reactive power by ensuring minimum
power loss during power conversion. The rotor side converter is made up of IGBT.
5. What is the function of grid side converter?

a) To ensure operation at low power factor
b) To control generator in terms of reactive power
c) To control generator in terms of active power
d) To control the DC-link voltage
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The function of grid side converter is to control the DC-link voltage. It
also ensures operations at a large power factor. An IGBT is used to make the
converter.
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6. What is sub-synchronous mode in doubly-fed induction generator (DFIG)?

d) Slip power is fed into AC power supply
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a doubly-fed induction generator (DFIG), sub-synchronous mode is a
mode where the rotor runs below the synchronous speed. This is conducive towards
using wind power at lower wind speed.
7. What is super-synchronous mode in doubly-fed induction generator (DFIG)?

d) Rotor takes power from AC mains
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a doubly-fed induction generator (DFIG), super-synchronous mode is
a mode where the rotor runs above the synchronous speed. This is conducive
towards feeding the slip power into AC mains supply with the help of an inverter-
converter combination.
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8. Which of the following generators are mostly used in WECS?

a) PMSG and SCIG
b) DFIG and SCIG
c) DFIG and PMSG
d) VAWT and HAWT
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Doubly-fed induction generator (DFIG) and permanent magnet
synchronous generator (PMSG) are the two most commonly used generators in
WECS. SCIG is typically used in a fixed speed WECS which has a low efficiency. VAWT
and HAWT are types of wind turbines.
9. Which of the following is a flowchart depicting WECS modelling?

a) Wind turbine aerodynamic model → gear train model → power grid → generator
(PMSG/DFIG)
b) Wind turbine aerodynamic model → generator (PMSG/DFIG) → gear train model →
power grid
c) Wind turbine aerodynamic model → generator (PMSG/DFIG) → power grid → gear
train model
d) Wind turbine aerodynamic model → gear train model → generator (PMSG/DFIG) →
power grid
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Wind turbine is connected to the electrical generator through a coupling
device gear train. The output of the generator is connected to the power grid via a
power controller to minimize power loss and ensure system protection.
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10. _______ speed WECS is the most flexible in terms of the generator used.
a) Full variable
b) Limited variable
c) Half variable
d) Fixed
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What happens to wind speed when many turbines operate collectively?

a) Wind speed reduces
b) Wind speed increases
c) Wind speed does not change
d) Wind speed increases exponentially and then decreases linearly
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wind turbines are used to extract kinetic energy from the incoming
wind. When multiple turbines operate collectively, the wind speed of the
atmospheric flow reduces after crossing each turbine. This affects the efficiency of
the turbines.
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2. Which of the following is true?

a) More than 50% of the land area on earth can generate 1W per square meter
b) Less than 5% of the land area on earth can generate 1W per square meter
c) 60 – 80% of the land area on earth can generate 1W per square meter
d) More than 80% of the land area on earth can generate 1W per square meter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: After multiple simulations, research has shown that less than 5% of land
area can actually generate 1W per square meter. A global climate model was used to
simulate scenarios of different wind energy across all continents.
3. Lower wind speeds result in ________

a) higher wind energy obtained
b) no wind energy obtained
c) lower wind energy obtained
d) 100% energy conversion for half the operation time and less than 10% energy
conversion for the remaining half of the operation time
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Wind speeds disproportionally affect the electricity generation from
wind turbines. Lower wind speeds result in much lower wind energy. This further
decreases the conversion efficiency resulting in extremely low powers.
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4. What happens to the output power when the wind turbine blades rotate faster for
the entire operation time?
a) The output power first increases then decreases
b) The output power first decreases then monotonically increases
c) The output power decreases
d) The output power increases
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When the wind turbine blades rotate faster for the entire operation
time, the output power increases. The output power increases until the speed of
rotation is decreased.
5. Higher wind speeds _________ the speed of rotation of the wind blades.
a) increase
b) decrease
c) monotonically decrease
d) first increase and then decrease
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Higher wind speeds increase the speed of rotation of the wind blades.
This in turn generates more output power as the net mechanical energy increased
due to increase in rotational speed of the wind blade.
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6. What is cut-in wind speed?

a) Wind turbine stops generating output power
b) Wind turbine starts generating output power
d) Wind turbine starts functioning
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wind turbines are designed to operate within a specific range of wind
speeds. The cut-in wind speed is that wind speed at which the wind turbine starts
generating output power. It is not the speed at which the turbine starts functioning.
7. What is rated speed?

a) Wind turbines generate least output power
b) Wind turbines do not generate any output power
c) Wind turbines generate maximum output power
d) Wind turbines have no rated speed as the output power always increases
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The rated wind speed is that wind speed at which the wind turbines
generate maximum output power. Maximum power point tracking (MPPT) is used to
ensure that the wind turbines always operate in the neighbourhood of the rated
wind speed.
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8. Which of the following are the limits of the range of wind speeds for which the
turbines are designed?
a) Elasticity
b) Threshold voltage
c) Networking
d) Cut-in speed and cut-out speed
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Since wind turbines are designed to operate within a specific range of
wind speeds, they have limits. The lower limit is called the cut-in speed and the
upper limit is called the cut-out speed. Elasticity is the ability of a material to come
back to its original shape after stretching. Threshold voltage is related to electrical
devices like diodes, BJTs, etc.
9. How does the output power vary between cut-in speed and the rated speed?
a) cubically
b) linearly
c) square
d) exponential
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Between the cut-in speed and the rated speed, the output power of the
wind turbines varies cubically. The output power cubically increases until the rated
speed is reached – if the wind speed doubles, the output power increases by 8 times.
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10. What is the cut-out speed?
a) Wind turbine starts generating output power
b) Wind turbine must be shut down
d) Wind turbine starts functioning but does not generate output power
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cut-out speed is the wind speed at which the wind turbine must be shut
down. This prevents damage to the equipment used in the wind turbines. The cut-
out speed is decided prior to wind turbine construction.
11. Power output is not related to the local air density.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Power output is related to the local air density. Air density is defined as
the mass per unit volume of the earth’s atmosphere. It depends on various physical
factors.
12. Which of the following does the local air density depend upon?
a) Soil
b) Lightning
c) Altitude and pressure
d) Nitrogen and oxygen
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Air density depends on altitude, pressure and temperature. It does not
depend on soil and its topography as well as on lightning. Nitrogen and oxygen are
types of gases and are components of air.
13. Higher air density leads to higher power output.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Higher air density results in higher output power. This is because
denser air exerts more pressure on the wind blades which increases the speed of
rotation. Thus, an increase in the speed of rotation increases output power.
14. What is feather of wind turbine blades?

a) Adding feathers to the blades
b) Reducing the weight of wind turbine blades
c) Reducing the angle of pitch
d) Increasing the angle of pitch
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Increasing the angle of pitch is called feathering of wind turbine blades.
It is achieved by turning the blades to orient them in a direction parallel to the air
flow. This minimized the net drag on the wind turbine blades.
15. Why is feathering of wind turbine blades required?

a) To increase drag
b) To reduce drag
c) To prevent the blades from being destroyed by strong winds
d) To extract power from strong winds originating from storms
View Answer
Answer: c
1. Why is the energy output of wind power plant variable?

a) Wind speed is variable
b) Wind speed is an unknown constant
c) Wind speed is known constant
d) Poor equipment is used
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The energy output of any wind power plant (WPP) is variable because
the wind speed is variable. The equipment used in power plant is designed to deal
with such variability and uncertainty.
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2. Which of the following is a reason for variable wind speed?

a) Water
b) Earth’s rotation
c) Electrons
d) Fans
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Day and night cycle caused by earth’s rotation and seasonal changes
due to tilt axis of earth cause changes in wind speed. Water, electrons and fans do
not affect wind speed.
3. What is grid integration of wind energy?

a) Planning the connection of wind power plant to the grid
b) Physical connection of wind power plant to the grid
c) Energy sent from grid to run the wind turbines
d) Collection of all activities related to connecting wind power plants to the grid
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Grid integration of wind energy is simply the collection of all activities
related to connecting wind power plants to the grid. The wind power plant sends
energy to the grid. It does not consume energy from the grid.
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4. Which of the following depicts the correct order of the stages involved in grid
integration of wind energy?
a) System operations → physical connection → planning
b) Planning → system operations → physical connection
c) Planning → physical connection → system operations
d) Physical connection → planning → system operations
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Grid integration of wind energy consists of three stages starting with
planning the connection. After laying out the plan, the power plant is physically
connected to the substation (grid). Lastly, the functioning of each system is handled
under systems operation.
5. What are the two types of planning activities related to grid integration?
a) Network-wide and project-specific
b) BJT and MOSFET
c) Rotor and shaft
d) Low power and high power designs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The two types of planning activities related to grid integration are
network-wide and project-specific activities. BJT and MOSFET are electronic/electrical
devices (components). Rotor and shaft are used in a rotating mechanism. Low power
and high power designs are circuit design specifications.
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6. Which of the following best describes network-wide planning activity in grid

integration?
a) Planning activities related to a unique wind project
c) Planning activities for a telecommunication system
d) Planning activities for the maintenance of the existing wind power plants
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Network-wide plans are laid out for all the future wind power plants.
Planning activities for a telecommunication system are not related to grid integration
of wind energy. Maintenance of existing wind power plants is covered in the previous
network-wide plan.
7. Network-wide plans in wind energy grid integration include _______

a) system impact studies done for a specific wind project
b) materials used to manufacture wind turbine blades
c) developing grid code
d) solar panel manufacturing plant
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Network-wide plans include development of grid code, network-wide
system integration studies with scenarios for different levels of wind penetration and
system operation studies. They are not done for a specific wind project.
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8. What is project specific planning in wind energy grid integration?
a) Planning activities for a solar panel system
c) Planning activities related to a unique wind project
d) Planning activities for the maintenance of the existing thermal power plants
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Project specific planning activities in wind energy grid integration are
planning activities related to a unique wind project. They include system impact
studies done for a specific wind project. The input for this type of study is the wind
power plant which is being studied.
9. In a substation, the wind power plant line is connected to a _______ voltage bus bar.
a) high
b) low
c) mini
d) medium
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In a substation, the wind power plant line is connected a medium
voltage bus bar. A medium voltage bus bar is used for medium voltages – 10kV to
50kV. At the wind turbine generator, this bar is connected to a step up transformer
which steps up the output of the generator from 0.69kV to 11kV or 33kV.
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10. Which of the following are a few primary tests performed after commissioning
phase in the physical connection stage?
a) Switch-gear functioning and quality parameters
b) Feathering
c) Wind turbine blade tests
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Testing the functioning of switch-gear, quality parameters like
harmonics and flicker, proper start-up and shut down are crucial during grid
integration. Feathering of blades is done to prevent the blades from being damaged
by storm winds. Wind turbine blade, rotor and shaft tests do not come under grid
integration tests.
11. Which of the following are impacts of grid integration of wind power plant?
c) Generator types
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The unit commitment process is cost-effective combination of
generating units to meet forecasted load and reserve requirements, while adhering
to generator and transmission constraints. Economic dispatch is the optimization of
production from generators to minimize cost of generation while meeting all the
constraints. In most grids, wind energy has the highest priority due to its low
marginal costs.
12. Which of the following is/are good practices for grid integration of wind power
plant?
c) Optimized transmission from resources-rich areas to load, flexible generation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Optimizing transmission from resource-rich areas to load saves both,
power and costs. Using the under-utilized line to transmit power instead of setting a
new transmission line is an example of optimization. Flexible power generation helps
meeting in varying power demands.
13. What is a grid code for wind energy integration?

a) A binary code
b) A hexadecimal code
c) A code of conduct
d) A rulebook specifying generator properties
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A grid code for integration is a rulebook that specifies properties of
generators and other equipment used to connect to the grid. The equipment must
satisfy these properties to ensure reliable and safe operation.
14. What are the types of grid integration costs?

a) Transmission extension, volatility balancing, covering peak load
b) Marginal cost
c) Fixed cost
d) Fundamental Analysis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Grid integration costs are divided into three categories – transmission
extension, balancing of increased volatility in grid and covering the peak load. The
other options are various terms used in economics and finance to define different
types of costs. They are not particularly related to grid integration.
15. What is a power flow study in wind energy integration?

a) A binary code
b) Determines flow of electrical energy from generators to consumers
c) Determines flow of electrical energy from generators to consumers meeting line
loading requirements
d) A study specifying generator properties
View Answer
Answer: c
1. Which of the following is a reason for storing wind energy?

a) Wind power generation is not correlated to the demand cycle
b) Wind power generation is correlated to the demand cycle
c) Wind is a renewable resource
d) Wind power is guaranteed to be available during peak demands
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Most of the electricity produced from the plants is consumed
immediately. Moreover, wind power generation is not correlated to the demand
cycle. It is also not guaranteed to be available during peak demands. Thus, wind
power storage is necessary.
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2. Which of the following methods are used to store wind energy?
a) Glowing a bulb
b) Electro-chemical
c) Running a consumer electrical appliance
d) Turning off consumer electrical appliances when not in use
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wind energy can be stored as electro-chemical energy in the form of
batteries. Glowing a bulb and running a consumer electrical appliance consumes
energy. While turning off an appliance when not in use saves energy, it doesn’t store
energy.
3. What is an example of storing wind power electro-chemically?

b) Pumped storage
c) Batteries
d) Electric grid
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Storing energy in batteries is the most common and simplest method to
store wind energy. An electric grid is an interconnected network for delivering power
from suppliers to consumers.
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4. _________ is an example of storing wind energy chemically.

a) Flywheels
b) Pumped storage
c) Batteries
d) Electro-hydrogen generation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Electro-hydrogen is an example of storing wind energy chemically.
Batteries typically come under the category of electro-chemical storage. Flywheels
come under the category of mechanical storage.
5. Wind energy can be switched on ‘on demand’.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wind energy cannot be switched on ‘on demand’. It is inherently
intermitted, variable and non-dispatchable. To match the supply with demand, it
requires a backup to store the generated power.
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6. Energy storage devices can manage power fluctuations.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Energy storage devices can manage power fluctuations, particularly
from renewable sources of energy – wind and solar. Thus, they enable such
fluctuating and irregular technologies to cope with consumer’s demand.
7. Which of following is are parameters used to describe an energy storage device?

a) Power, energy, time, frequency, Young’s modulus
b) Power capacity, voltage, heat, angular speed, frequency
c) Power capacity, energy storage capacity, efficiency, response time, round-trip
efficiency
d) Stress, strain, Young’s Modulus, elasticity, rigidity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Power capacity, energy storage capacity, efficiency, response time and
round-trip efficiency are generally used to describe an energy storage device. Stress,
strain, Young’s modulus, elasticity and rigidity are used to describe a material. The
other options are not used to describe ‘storage potential/capacity’.
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8. What is energy storage capacity?

a) Power stored
b) Amount of energy that can be drawn from a storage device
c) Amount of energy stored in a storage device
d) Amount of energy a storage device can store for a period of time
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Energy storage capacity is the amount of energy a storage device can
store for a period of time. It is usually measured in kilowatt-hours (KWh) or
megawatt-hours (MWh). It is not the same as amount of energy stored.
9. Pumped hydroelectric is an example of _________

a) Gravitational potential storage
b) Latent heat storage
c) Thermal storage
d) Hydroelectric power generation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pumped hydroelectric storage is an example of gravitational potential
storage. It is the most mature storage technique and has the largest storage
capacity. For optimization, the pump and the turbine are combined into a single
device.
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10. What type of materials are used for latent heat storage?
a) Materials with high stress
b) Phase-change materials
c) Materials with high stress/strain ratio
d) Elastic materials
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Phase change materials are used for latent heat storage. Stress and
strain are used to describe a material’s deformation ability. Elastic materials are
those which when deformed regain their original shape.
11. Flywheels are an example of ________ energy storage.

a) potential
b) electric potential
c) thermal kinetic
d) kinetic
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Flywheels are an example of storing mechanical energy in the form of
kinetic energy. The flywheel (or rotor) is accelerated to a high speed thus maintaining
the energy. The energy is stored in the system in the form of rotational kinetic
energy.
12. When does a power conversion system act as a rectifier for an energy storing
device?
c) When the device stops working
d) When the power conversion system is being charged
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A power conversion system acts as a rectifier when the energy storing
device is being charged. This is because any existing energy storage cannot store AC.
Except for mechanical storage devices, it is necessary to convert alternating current
(AC) to direct current (DC) and vice-versa.
13. When does a power conversion system act as an inverter for an energy storing
device?
c) When the device starts working
d) When the power conversion system is being discharged
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A power conversion system acts as an inverter when the energy storing
device is being discharged. The converted AC current is then transported to the
consumer. Transporting alternating currents reduces the amount of resistive losses.
14. Which of the following parameters are used to describe rechargeable batteries?
a) Power
b) Frequency
c) Charge-to-discharge ratio
d) Angular speed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Charge-to-discharge ratio, depth of discharge (DoD) and memory effect
are commonly used to describe rechargeable batteries. Power, frequency and
angular speed are not used to describe any storage device’s characteristics.
15. Capacitors store energy in the form of ________

a) potential
b) AC voltage
c) thermal potential
d) electric potential
View Answer
Answer: d
1. What is depth of discharge?

a) Percentage of the battery that is discharged during a cycle
b) Percentage of the battery that is discharged
c) Amount of charge discharged from a battery during a cycle
d) Amount of charge discharged from a battery
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Depth of discharge (DoD) is the percentage of the battery that is
discharged during a cycle. It has a wider use because it indicates a percentage
instead of an absolute value. Indicating the absolute value of the charge discharged
is not practical as it is unique for every battery and cannot be generalized.
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2. What is charge-to-discharge ratio?

a) Time taken to charge the device
b) Ratio of time taken to charge the device relative to the time taken to discharge the
device
c) Ratio of the amount of charge during charging cycle to the amount of charge during
discharge cycle
d) Time taken to discharge the device
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Charge-to-discharge ratio is the ratio of time taken to charge the device
relative to the time taken to discharge the device. For instance, if a device takes 2
times longer to charge than to discharge, it has a charge-to-discharge ratio of 2:1.
3. What is memory effect?

b) Pumped storage
c) Remembering a charging level
d) Electric grid
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Memory effect is mainly used to describe rechargeable batteries. If they
are not fully charged for long periods of time then they ‘remember’ that charging
level. Thus, they lose some of their capacity. The other options are storage
techniques of wind energy.
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4. Which of the following have large power (>50MW) and storage capacities
(>100MWh)?
a) Memory effect
b) Battery energy storage (BES) and flow battery energy storage
c) Super capacitor energy storage and flywheel energy storage
d) Pumped hydro-electric storage and underground pumped hydro-electric storage
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Pumped hydro-electric storage (PHES) and underground pumped
hydro-electric storage (UPHES) are grouped under the category of large power
(>50MW) and storage capacity (>100MWh). Compressed air energy storage (CAES) is
another example of this category. Memory effect is a parameter used to describe a
rechargeable battery.
5. Efficiency of pumped hydro-electric storage is in the range of _________

a) 50% — 80%
b) 80% — 120%
c) 10% — 20%
d) 45% — 50%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Efficiency of pumped hydro-electric storage is in the range of 50% —
80%. It has large power (>50MW) and storage capacity (>100MWh). The efficiency is
further being improved using variable speed machines.
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6. How does pumped hydro-electric storage work?

a) Pumps water from higher level to a lower level
b) Pumps water from lower level to higher level
c) Uses electrical energy present in the water
d) Uses nuclear energy present in the water molecules
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: PHES uses the gravitational potential energy of water to generate
electricity. During off-peak hours, water is pumped from a reservoir at a lower level
to a reservoir at a higher level and stored. When required, the water falls from the
higher level and rotates turbines connected to an electrical generator.
7. Which of the following is an application of pumped hydro-electric storage?

a) Energy source
b) Frequency regulation only in pumping mode
c) Frequency regulation in both pumping and generation modes
d) Absorbs power to increase the net expenses
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pumped hydro-electric storage is used for frequency regulation in both
pumping and generation modes. In fact, it absorbs power in a more cost-effective
manner and boosts efficiency upto 3%.
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8. What is a major disadvantage with pumped hydro-electric system?

a) No dependence on geographical locations
b) Small scale construction for effective functioning
c) Low initial costs of construction
d) Depends on specific geographical locations for the construction of the two reservoirs
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A major disadvantage with PHES is its dependence on specific
geographical locations for the construction of the two reservoirs. It also demands
that the two reservoirs be located in close proximity to reduce costs. This increases
the initial costs of construction considerably.
9. Which of the following best indicates the flow diagram of storage mode in
compressed air energy storage?
a) Power from grid → motor → compressor → storage
b) Power from grid → motor → storage → compressor
c) Power from grid → compressor → motor → storage
d) Motor → power from grid → compressor → storage
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In CAES, power is drawn from the grid during off-peak hours to run a
motor which in turn drives a compressor. Air passed into the compressor is then
compressed and stored.
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10. Which of the following best indicates the flow diagram of power generation mode
in compressed air energy storage?
a) Storage → LPT → HPT → generator
b) Storage → HPT → LPT → generator
c) Storage → LPT → generator → HPT
d) HPT → Storage →LPT → generator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In CAES, the compressed air is first sent from the storage tank to a high
pressure turbine (HPT) which is in turn connected to a lower pressure turbine (LPT).
Finally, the LPT is connected to an electric generator.
11. Which of the following are used for large scale battery energy storage?
a) Li-ion batteries
b) Capacitors
c) Lead acid
d) Reservoirs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Lead acid (LA) is used for large scale BES. Nickel-cadmium (NiCd) and
sodium-sulphur (NaS) are also commonly used BES. Capacitors are not batteries. Li-
ion is an upcoming technology and hasn’t been established as the industry standard
yet. However, it is likely to take over the industry in the next decade.
12. How does a flow battery energy storage work?

a) Electrolyte tanks → pumps → electrodes → current
b) Electrolyte tanks → pumps → current → electrodes
c) Electrolyte tanks → current → electrodes → pumps
d) Electrolyte tanks → electrodes → current → pumps
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: FBES operate in a similar way. Two charged electrolytes are pumped to
the cell stack where a chemical reaction occurs, allowing current to be obtained from
the device when required. This current is then harnessed by sending it to a load.
13. The central shaft in a flywheel energy storage device rotates on two magnetic
bearings.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A flywheel energy storage (FES) consists of a central shaft. The shaft
holds a rotor and a flywheel. The central shaft rotates on two magnetic bearings
which considerably reduces friction losses. The entire setup is placed in vacuum to
prevent drag losses.
14. Flywheels are used in uninterrupted power supply (UPS).

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The entire setup is mechanical, it can be repeatedly charged and
discharged without much damage to the setup itself. Thus, flywheels are used in
uninterrupted power supplies (UPS).
15. Capacitors do not suffer from ________
a) dielectric breakdown
b) material dependence
c) excess electric potential
d) memory effect
View Answer
Answer: d
1. When is the power density of the absorbing surface equal to the incident sunlight?
a) Absorbing surface and incident sunlight are perpendicular to each other
b) Absorbing surface and incident sunlight are parallel to each other
c) Absorbing surface and incident sunlight are inclined at an acute angle to each other
d) Absorbing surface and incident sunlight are inclined at an obtuse angle to each other
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Net power received from incident sunlight depends on two things – the
power contained in the sunlight and the angle of the receiver with respect to the
incident sunlight. Incident power equals the received power when the receiver is
perpendicular to the incident sunlight.
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2. For a fixed receiver, incident power density and received power density are always
equal.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For a fixed receiver, incident power density and received power density
are not equal always. In fact, the net received power is often less than the incident
power as the angle between the sun and the receiver changes continuously.

a) Radiation scattered by molecules
d) Sum of diffused and reflected radiation energies
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Direct solar radiation is that radiation which travels in a straight line
from the sun. It travels to the earth without deviating from its path due to obstacles.
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4. What is diffused solar radiation?

d) Radiation scattered by molecules
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Diffused solar radiation is that radiation which has been scattered by
molecules and particles in atmosphere. Though it deviates from its initial path, it
does travel down to the earth.
5. Which of the following is tried to maximized in tilted receivers (panels)?

a) Direct radiation
c) Reflected radiation
d) Diffracted radiation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Receivers are tilted to maximize the collection of direct solar radiation
from the sun. The tilt tries to ensure that the receivers are perpendicular to the
direct radiation. It accounts for the continuous change in angle between the sun and
the receiver.
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6. When receivers (panels) are laid horizontally, they usually collect _______
a) Direct radiation
c) Deflected radiation
d) Heat
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When solar receivers (panels) are laid horizontally, they usually collect
diffused radiation. This is because diffused radiation is equally distributed
throughout the sky and hence can easily be gathered.
7. More the tilt in receivers (panels), larger amounts of diffused radiation is collected.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: More the tilt in receivers, larger amounts of direct radiation is collected.
As the tilt increases, the amount of diffused radiation received considerably reduces.
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8. What is reflected solar radiation?

b) Radiation reflected from an atmospheric obstacle
d) Radiation reflected from a non-atmospheric obstacle
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Reflected solar radiation is that sunlight/radiation that is reflected from
a non-atmospheric obstacle. The obstacles could be trees, ground, light poles, cars,
etc. They do not contribute significantly towards electricity generation from solar
panels.
9. Reflected solar radiation is used in _______

a) Snowy regions
b) Temperate region
c) Equatorial region
d) Tropical region
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Generally, reflected solar radiation does contribute significantly towards
electricity generation. However, energy from reflected radiation is harvested in
snowy regions as fresh snow reflects about 80-90% of the incident radiation.
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10. What is global insolation?

a) Direct radiation + diffused radiation
b) Diffused radiation – direct radiation
c) Direct radiation + diffused radiation + reflected radiation
d) Reflected radiation * direct radiation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Global insolation or total insolation is the sum of the radiation received
by earth from sun. It is nothing but the sum of direct radiation, diffused radiation
and reflected radiation. This is used as a reference for the insolation at some tilt.
11. What is normal radiation?

a) Direct radiation
b) Sun’s radiation and striking surface are perpendicular to each other
c) Incident solar radiation and striking surface are perpendicular to each other
d) Global insolation – direct radiation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Normal radiation describes the radiation that strikes a surface that is
perpendicular to the sun’s radiation. It is not same as direct radiation as the it does
not talk about the incident radiation. It may so happen that normal radiation and
direct radiation may be the same at some tilt.
12. What is hour angle of the sun?

a) Angle of radiation with earth’s surface
b) Angle between the hands of sun dial
c) Angle made by the sun’s rays with moon’s surface
d) Orientation of earth with respect to sun
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hour angle of sun is defined as the actual orientation of earth with
respect to the sun. Mathematically, it is calculated by converting earth’s one rotation
in degrees and dividing it by the time taken – 360/24 = 15 degrees/h.
13. What is solar intensity?

a) Amount of outgoing solar energy
b) Amount of incoming solar energy on a plane surface
c) Amount of outgoing solar energy on a plane surface per unit time
d) Amount of incoming solar energy on a plane surface per unit time per unit area
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Solar intensity is defined as the amount of incoming solar energy on a
plane surface per unit time per unit area. It is a weighted average of the full radiation
and is equal to 1367 Watt/square meter.
14. What is solar azimuth angle?

a) Orientation of earth with respect to sun
b) Orientation of moon with respect to sun
c) Angle of radiation with earth’s surface
d) Angular distance between zero azimuth and sun’s projection on ground
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Solar azimuth angle is defined as the angular distance between zero
azimuth and the projection of the line of sight to sun on the ground. Zero azimuth is
a line due north or due south. Azimuth angle is measured clockwise from zero
azimuth.
15. Diffuse radiation models can be classified into ________ and __________
a) direct and reflective
b) adiabatic and isotropic
c) isotropic and anisotropic
d) anisotropic and adiabatic
View Answer
Answer: c
1. What is photosynthesis?
a) Plants generating carbohydrates and oxygen from carbon dioxide, water and
b) Algae generating carbohydrates and oxygen from carbon dioxide, water and sunlight
using chlorophyll
c) Cyanobacteria generating carbohydrates and oxygen from carbon dioxide, water and
d) Photoautotroph generating carbohydrates and oxygen from carbon dioxide, water
and sunlight
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Photosynthesis is the process by which photoautotrophs generate food
for themselves. They use carbon dioxide, water and sunlight to generate
carbohydrates and oxygen. Photo means light.
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2. What is the primary product of photosynthesis?

a) Glucose
b) Oxygen
c) Water
d) Carbon dioxide
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The primary product of photosynthesis is glucose. Oxygen is the by
product. Water and carbon dioxide are the reactants.
3. Which of the following best indicates photosynthesis?

a) Carbon dioxide + water → oxygen + glucose
b) 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 (in the presence of sunlight)
c) Carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen (in the presence of sunlight)
d) Oxygen + glucose → carbon dioxide + water
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Photosynthesis occurs in the presence of sunlight. The balanced
reaction of photosynthesis best describes the process of photosynthesis. The option
with oxygen and glucose as reactants is not photosynthesis.
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4. Which of the following organisms can perform photosynthesis?

a) Autotrophs
b) Algae
c) Photoautotrophs
d) Plants
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Photoautotrophs are organisms that perform photosynthesis to
produce food for themselves. Algae and plants come under the category of
photoautotrophs. All autotrophs are not necessarily photoautotrophs.
5. Which of the following are photoautotrophs?

a) Cyanobacteria, algae, plants
b) Archaebacteria
c) Deer
d) Tiger
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cyanobacteria, algae and plants are photoautotrophs. Archaebacteria
are chemoautotrophs. Deer and tiger are not autotrophs as they do not create their
own food.
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6. Conversion of usable sunlight energy into chemical energy is associated with _______
a) Red pigmentation
b) Green pigmentation
c) Orange pigmentation
d) Fruits
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Conversion of usable sunlight energy into chemical energy is associated
with green pigmentation. This green pigmentation is called chlorophyll. Plants and
algae consist of chlorophyll which is a key ingredient for photosynthesis.
7. Cyanobacteria have chloroplasts.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Though cyanobacteria are photoautotrophs, they do not have
chloroplasts. Instead, the chlorophyll is stored in thylakoids in their cytoplasm.
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8. _______ and _______ is present in all chlorophylls.

a) A hydrophilic tail, a lipid soluble head
b) A hydrophobic tail, a lipid soluble head
c) A hydrophilic tail, a lipid insoluble head
d) A lipid soluble tail, a hydrophilic head
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A lipid soluble tail and a hydrophilic head is present in all chlorophylls.
The tail is a lipid soluble hydrocarbon and the hydrophilic head consists of
magnesium ion at its centre.
9. What type of chemical reactions are involved in photosynthesis?

a) Condensation reactions and redox reactions
b) Combustion
c) Double displacement
d) Single displacement
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The chemical reactions involved in photosynthesis are condensation
reactions and redox reactions respectively. Combustion, single and double
displacement reactions do not occur in photosynthesis.
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10. What is the condensation reaction responsible for in the process of photosynthesis?
a) Electron transfer
b) Splitting out water molecules
c) Splitting out water molecules and phosphorylation
d) Electron transfer and phosphorylation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Condensation reaction is responsible for splitting out water molecules
and phosphorylation. Phosphorylation is the addition of a phosphate group to an
organic compound. Electron transfer occurs in a redox reaction.
11. Where does the light-dependent reactions in the process of photosynthesis occur?
c) Inner membranes
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The light-dependent reactions in the process of photosynthesis occur in
the grana of chloroplasts. These reactions require the light energy to make energy-
carrier molecules that are used further.
12. Where does the light-independent reactions in the process of photosynthesis

occur?
c) Outer membranes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The light-independent reactions in the process of photosynthesis occur
in the stroma of chloroplasts. The products of light reaction are used to make
carbohydrates from carbon dioxide.
13. What is photoionisation? Assume presence of sunlight.

a) Freeing of electron from the molecule to form a negatively charged chlorophyll ion
b) Freeing of photoexcited electron from the molecule to form a positively charged
chlorophyll ion
c) Absorbing of electron from the molecule to form a negatively charged chlorophyll ion
d) Absorbing of electron from the molecule to form a positively charged chlorophyll ion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Electrons of chlorophyll molecule gain energy and move to higher
energy level when light is absorbed. On gaining sufficiently high energy, the electron
leaves the molecule thereby forming a positively charged chlorophyll ion. This
process is called photoionisation.
14. Where does the energy to drive the electron transfer system come from?
a) Photosystem 1
b) Photosystem 3 and photosystem 2
c) Photosystem 1 and photosystem 2
d) Photosystem 1 and photosystem 3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An electron transfer system (basically, a series of chemical reactions)
carries two electrons to and fro across the thylakoid membrane. The energy for the
system comes from photosystem 1 and photosystem 2.
15. Which of the following are products of light-dependent reactions?

a) ATP and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
b) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and NADPH
c) Carbohydrates
d) ATP and NADPH
View Answer
Answer: c
1. What is biomass?
a) Organic materials from living organisms
b) Inorganic materials from living organisms
c) Inorganic materials from non-living organisms
d) Organic materials from non-living organisms
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Biomass is a term for all organic materials stemming from living
organisms like plants, animals and microorganisms. Examples of biomass are –
animal waste, dead plants and animals, sugar, fats, etc.
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2. Which of the following can be classified under biomass?

a) Steel
b) Organic molecules containing hydrogen
c) NaOH
d) Iron
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Organic molecules containing hydrogen is a biomass. Steel is made up
of inorganic materials. NaOH is a strong base which is made up of an inorganic
material called sodium (Na). Iron (Fe) is another inorganic material which is used for
its magnetic properties.
3. Which of the following is not used as food for humans?

a) Sugars
b) Glucose
c) Cellulosic matter
d) Fats
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Cellulosic biomass is not used as a food source for humans. It is made
up of very complex sugar polymers. Sugars, glucose and fats are used in various food
items.
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4. __________ is an example of cellulosic biomass.

a) Glucose
b) Fats
c) Lipids
d) Agricultural residue
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Agricultural residue is an example of cellulosic biomass. They generally
include leftover material from crops like stalks and leaves. Fats, lipids and glucose
are not cellulosic biomass.
5. Value of any biomass depends on ___________ properties.

a) chemical and physical
b) chemical and photo sensitive
c) physical and photo sensitive
d) the number of carbon molecules and on the number of tin molecules
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The value of any biomass depends on the chemical and physical
properties. These are basically the properties of the large molecules from which it is
made. It does not depend on the light and the number of molecules.
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6. Which of the following are characterizes an ideal energy crop?

a) High yield, high energy input to produce, high cost and high nutrient requirements
b) High yield, low energy input to produce, low cost and low nutrient requirements
c) High yield, high energy input to produce, low cost and high nutrient requirements
d) Low yield, high energy input to produce, high cost and high nutrient requirements
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In general, the characteristics of any ideal energy crop are – high yield,
low energy input to produce, low cost, consists of least contaminants and low
nutrient requirements. These depend on the local climate and soil conditions.
7. Which energy forms can biomass be converted to?

a) Electrical and light
b) Light and chemical
c) Electrical and heat
d) Heat and light
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Biomass can be converted to electrical and heat energy. It can also be
used as transport fuel and chemical feedstock. It cannot be converted to light
energy.
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8. The heating value is expressed in BTU/kg.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The heating value is expressed in BTU/kg. BTU stands for British
Thermal Unit and is used to measure thermal (heat) energy. It is the amount of
energy needed to raise 1 pound of water 1 degree farad at sea level. Other
commonly used units are MJ/kg and cal/g.
9. What does heat value indicate?

a) Amount of energy consumed by biomass to produce energy
b) Amount of energy required to process biomass to produce energy
c) Amount of energy required as heat by the organisms
d) Amount of energy that is available in the fuel
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Heating value indicates the total amount of energy that is available in
the fuel. It is one of the most important characteristics of a fuel. It is mostly a
function of fuel’s chemical composition.
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10. What is higher heating value?

exhaust gases
the exhaust gases
c) Total amount of energy available in the fuel * energy contained in water vapour in
the exhaust gases
d) Total amount of energy available in the fuel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Higher heating value is the total amount of energy available in the fuel,
including energy contained in water vapour in the exhaust gases. Heating value
indicates the total amount of energy available in the fuel.
11. What is lower heating value?

exhaust gases
the exhaust gases
c) Total amount of energy available in the fuel / energy contained in water vapour in
the exhaust gases
d) Total amount of energy available in the fuel which cannot be used
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Lower heating value (LHV) is total amount of energy available in the fuel
– energy contained in water vapour in the exhaust gases. Generally, LHV is not an
appropriate value to use for biomass combustion.
12. High moisture fuels burn readily and provide more useful heat per unit mass.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: High moisture content in fuels do not allow them to burn readily and
provide less useful heat per unit mass. This is because water itself does not provide
any energy value. In fact, much of the supplied energy is used to heat and vaporize
water which leads wastage of supplied energy.
13. Moisture content can be calculated on two bases, namely _______

a) light and heavy
b) weighted and even
c) wet and dry
d) light and dry
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Moisture content can be calculated on two bases, namely, wet and dry.
Weighted is generally used to calculate weighted average. Light and heavy are not
related to moisture content.
14. What are the main components of cellulosic biomass?

a) Hemicellulose and lignin
b) Hemicellulose and sugars
c) Cellulose, sugars and fats
d) Cellulose, hemicellulose and lignin
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The main components of cellulosic biomass are cellulose, hemicellulose
and lignin. Sugars and fats are not cellulosic biomass.
15. Biomass is seasonal.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is cellulose made up of?
a) Polysaccharide
b) Steel
c) Carbon nano fibre
d) Silicon
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cellulose is a complex polymer, or polysaccharide. Polysaccharide is
made up of glucose, a six carbon sugar. Steel is used in industries to manufacture
various things like automobile bodies, etc. Silicon is used in manufacturing glass and
in semiconductor industry.
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2. Why is cellulose resistant to hydrolysis?

a) Because it consists of polysaccharides
b) Because it has a crystalline structure
c) Because it is hydrophobic
d) Because it is a polymer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cellulose is resistant to hydrolysis because of its crystalline made up of
polysaccharide. Hydrolysis the chemical reaction that releases simple, fermentable
sugars from polysaccharide.
3. Hemicellulose is a source of biomass accounting from 20% to 40% by ________

a) volume
b) moles
c) weight
d) molarity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hemicellulose is another major source of biomass. It accounts from 20 –
40% by weight and is the next best source after cellulose. It is a complex
polysaccharide made from 5 to 6 carbon sugars.
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4. Why does burning biomass not add to greenhouse gas emissions?
a) Because it is a clean source
b) Because it absorbs greenhouse gases to burn
c) Because it releases the same amount of greenhouses gas as burning fossil fuel does
d) Because it releases greenhouse gas that was captured and converted into other
forms during its growth
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Burning biomass does not add to greenhouse gas emissions because it
does not release any additional amount. Instead, it released the same amount of gas
that was captured and converted to other forms during its growth.
5. What are the two types of moisture content in biomass?

a) Intrinsic and extrinsic
b) Higher heating value and lower heating value
c) Lower heating value and extrinsic
d) Higher heating value and intrinsic
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Moisture content is one of the main properties of biomass. The two
types of moisture content are intrinsic moisture content and extrinsic moisture
content. Heating value talks about the total amount of energy available in the fuel.
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6. What is intrinsic moisture content in biomass?

d) Moisture content of the material without the moisture content in atmosphere
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Intrinsic moisture content is the moisture content in biomass without
the influence of weather effects. It does not depend on the amount of moisture
content present in the atmosphere.
7. What is extrinsic moisture content?

d) Moisture content evaporated to the atmosphere
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Extrinsic moisture content of biomass is the moisture content due to
influence of weather conditions. It is essentially the amount of moisture absorbed
from the atmosphere due to changes in weather.
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8. Which of the following is a problem for using biomass as a source of energy?

a) Less moisture content in the atmosphere during time of harvesting
b) Low calorific value
c) Low intrinsic silica content
d) High moisture content in the surroundings
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: High moisture content or an increase in moisture content is a problem
for biomass combustion. This is because, the amount of energy that can be used for
applications is significantly reduced due to absorption of moisture. The heat used to
burn the fuel will first be used to evaporate the water vapour thereby leading to
excess use of resources.
9. What is calorific value (CV) of a material?

a) Amount of energy content or heat value released by the material when burnt in air
b) Amount of energy content or heat value released by the material when burnt in
water
c) Amount of energy content or heat value absorbed by the material when burnt in air
d) Amount of energy content or heat value absorbed by the material when burnt in
water
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Calorific value is another important property that indicates how good is
the biomass. It is the amount of energy content or heat value released by the
material when burnt in air. Burning or combustion is usually not done in water.
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10. What is the volatile matter in biomass?
a) The content in biomass that remains after heating
b) The content in biomass that is driven off as gas by heating
c) The biomass that is being heated
d) The moisture content in biomass
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Volatile matter is that content in biomass which is driven off as gad by
heating. It also includes the water vapour. Moisture content present in biomass is
not volatile matter by itself. When it turns into water vapour, it can be called as
volatile matter.
11. What is fixed carbon content in biomass?

a) The carbon content in biomass
b) The carbon content that is fixed in biomass and cannot be changed
c) The content in biomass that is driven off as gas by heating
d) The mass that remains after the releases of volatile matter on heating the biomass
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Fixed carbon content is the mass that remains after the releases of
volatile matter on heating the biomass. Since it is fixed and not released as gas, it is
called fixed carbon content.
12. A biomass feedstock with a high cellulose/hemi-cellulose is needed to produce

ethanol.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For the production of ethanol, a biomass feedstock with a high
cellulose/hemi-cellulose content is chosen. This is because it provides a high l/t yield.
13. Ash is the residue content is the solid residue after chemical breakdown of
biomass.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The chemical breakdown either by thermo-chemical or bio-chemical
processes of biomass produces a solid residue. When the residue is produced by
combustion in air, it is called ash.
14. In a bio-chemical process, the solid residue represents ________ present in biomass.
a) the quantity of biodegradable carbon
b) the quantity of biodegradable potassium
c) the quantity of non-biodegradable carbon
d) the quantity of biodegradable sodium
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In a bio-chemical process, the solid residue represents the quantity of
non-biodegradable carbon present in biomass. It specifically talks about carbon and
not any other element.
15. Which of the following is most impacted by the bulk-density of the biomass as-
produced?
a) Calorific value
b) Storage of the fuel after processing
c) Heating value
d) Transportation and fuel storage costs
View Answer
Answer: d
1. Which of the following can be classified under solid biomass?

a) Agricultural residues
b) Waste water
c) Industrial effluents into rivers
d) Plastic
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Agricultural residues can be classified under solid biomass resource.
Waste water and polluted rivers are not solids. Plastic is not a biomass.
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2. What are energy crops?
a) Crops grown to remove insects
b) Crops grown to be used in generating energy
c) Crops grown to feed people
d) Crops that produce energy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Energy crops are crops that are grown with the specific intention to
generate energy. They don’t produce energy by themselves but they are used to
generate energy or serve as fuel. Eg. – bioethanol.
3. Which of the following are examples of energy crops?

a) Banyan
b) Mango
c) Herbaceous and woody
d) Apple and herbaceous
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Herbaceous and woody crops are examples of energy crops. Like
agricultural crops are grown to feed, energy crops are grown specifically to be used
as an energy resource.
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4. What are herbaceous crops?

a) Insecticides
b) Rice
c) Agricultural fertilizers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Herbaceous crops are plants that do not have much wood and has
green and soft stems. Generally, they are agricultural byproducts like columbine.
Sometimes, crops like potatoes are solely grown to produce energy.
5. Which of the following are examples of woody biomass?

a) Fallen trees due to natural disasters
b) Mint
c) Columbine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Woody biomass are basically forestry byproducts, by product of
management and restoration of forests, etc. Fallen trees due to a natural disaster is
an example of woody biomass. Other examples are leaves, trunks, etc.
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6. Which of the following are examples of lipids?

a) Sugar
b) Palm oil
c) Glucose
d) Cellulose
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Palm oil is an example of lipids. Other examples are soybean oil,
rapeseed oil, wax, animal fat, etc. Glucose is an example of sugar.
7. Which of the following can be used to replenish nutrients in soil?

a) Steel
b) Soda
c) Biomass ash
d) Coal ash
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Biomass ash can be used as a soil amendment to help replenish
nutrients. Coal ash cannot be used for the same because it contains toxic metals.
Steel and soda are not used to replenish soil’s nutrients.
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8. Which of the following is an example of short rotation coppice?

a) Maize
b) Wheat
c) Corn
d) Willow
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Willow is an example of short rotation coppice (SRC). It is a forestry
residue. Corn, maize and wheat are examples of herbaceous crops.
9. Algae are used as feedstocks for bioenergy.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Algae are used as feedstocks for bioenergy. They use sunlight to create
biomass containing key components like lipids, proteins and carbohydrates. They
include microalgae, macroalgae like seaweed and cyanobacteria or blue-green algae.
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10. Which of the following found in municipal waste can be used as biomass?
a) Agricultural residue
b) Kitchen waste
c) Residential garbage
d) Plastic covers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Kitchen waste can be used as a resource for biomass. Residential
garbage and plastic covers cannot be used directly. Agricultural residue is not found
in municipal waste.
11. Land fill is an example of wet waste.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Land fill is an example of wet waste. It consists of residential wastes,
industrial wastes and other wastes from sewage. It also consists of manure in the
form of animal wastes.
12. __________ wastes are used as methane boosters.
a) Agricultural
b) Forestry
c) Industrial
d) Municipal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Many industrial wastes are used as methane boosters due to their
extremely high methane potential. Agricultural, municipal and forestry wastes are
not suitable for methane boosters.
13. __________ biomass is used for waste water treatment.

a) Agricultural
b) Industrial
c) Municipal
d) Aquatic
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Aquatic biomass in the form of micro-organisms are used for waste
water treatment. They operate in anaerobic environment during the treatment.
14. Which of the following parameters is used to define sustainability of biogas

feedstock?
a) Heating value
b) Calorific value
c) C:N ratio
d) Thermal voltage
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Carbon to nitrogen (C:N) ratio is one of the most important parameters
used to talk about the sustainability of the biogas feedback. Heating and calorific
value are parameters to describe the available fuel in a given biomass.
15. Which of the following is not a biomass resource?

a) Animal wastes
b) Forestry residue
d) Sunlight
View Answer
Answer: d
1. Which of the following technologies are used to convert biomass into useful energy
forms?
a) Bio-chemical process
b) Galvanization
c) Doping
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The three main technologies used to convert biomass into useful forms
of energy are bio-chemical, thermo-chemical and physio-chemical processes.
Galvanization is a process used to prevent corrosion of metals. Doping and
photoelectric effect are not related to biomass conversion technologies.
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2. What are the four main types of thermo-chemical processes?

a) Galvanization, photovoltaic effect, chemo-mechanical effect, pyrolysis
b) Pyrolysis, gasification, combustion, hydrothermal processing
c) Pyrolysis, gasification, combustion, doping
d) Photovoltaic effect, gasification, combustion, hydrothermal processing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The four main types of thermo-chemical processes are pyrolysis,
gasification, combustion and hydrothermal processing. Photovoltaic effect, doping,
chemo-mechanical effect and galvanization are not related to biomass conversion
technologies.
3. What are the two primary processes under bio-chemical conversion?

a) Photosynthesis and respiration
b) Photosynthesis and photovoltaic
d) Anaerobic digestion and photosynthesis
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Anaerobic digestion and fermentation are two primary processes under
bio-chemical conversion. Photosynthesis, photovoltaic and respiration are not
related to biomass conversion technologies.
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4. Which of the following is an example of physio-chemical conversion technique to

convert biomass into usable forms of energy?
a) Pyrolysis
b) Gasification
c) Anaerobic Digestion
d) Extraction with esterification
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Physio-chemical process mainly consists of extraction with
esterification. Pyrolysis and gasification are thermo-chemical conversion. Anaerobic
digestion is a bio-chemical conversion process.
5. Which of the following is a product of pyrolysis of biomass?

a) Producer gas
b) Steel
d) Sodium
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The output is producer gas. Steel and sodium are not the outputs of any
pyrolysis process. Agricultural residue is a type of biomass.
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6. Pyrolysis occurs in the presence of _______ oxygen.

a) large amounts of
b) absence of
c) extremely large amount of
d) low amounts of
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In pyrolysis, the biomass is subjected to high temperatures in the
absence of oxygen. The output of pyrolysis is producer gas which is a mixture of
flammable gases (primarily CO and H2) and non-flammable gases (primarily nitrogen
and carbon dioxide).
7. Which of the following best indicates the process of gasification?

a) Biomass → carbon dioxide and water → producer gas and charcoal → carbon
b) Biomass → carbon monoxide and hydrogen → carbon dioxide and water →
producer gas and charcoal
c) Biomass → producer gas and charcoal → carbon dioxide and water → carbon
d) Producer gas and charcoal → carbon dioxide and water → carbon monoxide and
hydrogen → biomass
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Gasification basically converts all the available biomass to “gas”. In the
first stage, the biomass is partially combusted to form producer gas and charcoal
which is then sent to the second stage. In the second stage, the carbon dioxide and
water produced in the first stage is chemically reduced by charcoal to form carbon
monoxide and hydrogen.
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8. Which of the following is best suited for hydrothermal processing?

a) Forestry byproducts
b) Wheat
c) Corn
d) Sewage sludge
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Feedstocks with high moisture content like sewage sludge are suitable
for hydrothermal processing. Agricultural residue like wheat and corn and forestry
byproducts are not best suited for hydrothermal processing.
9. What is hydrothermal processing?

a) Heating aqueous slurries of biomass at high pressures to produce products of
greater energy density
b) Heating aqueous slurries of biomass at high temperatures to produce products of
c) Heating aqueous slurries of biomass at low pressures to produce products of greater
energy density
d) Heating aqueous slurries of biomass at low temperatures to produce products of
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrothermal processing is a biomass conversion technique that
involves heating of aqueous slurries of biomass at high pressures to produce
products of greater energy density. Feedstocks with high moisture content like
manures are best suited for this process.
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10. What is anaerobic digestion?

a) Produces biogas by heating the biomass
b) Produces biogas using micro-organisms operating in anaerobic conditions
c) Produces biogas by subjecting the biomass to high pressures
d) Produces biogas using micro-organisms operating in aerobic conditions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Anaerobic digestion is a biological process of breaking down the
biomass to produce products with high energy density – biogas. It occurs in
anaerobic conditions. Waste water treatment plants commonly use anaerobic
conditions to treat the influent.
11. Catalytic liquefaction occurs at _________

a) low temperature, low pressure
b) high temperature, high pressure
c) low temperature, high pressure
d) high temperature, low pressure
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Catalytic liquefaction is a thermo-chemical biomass conversion process.
It requires low temperature and high pressure and the process is carried out in liquid
phase under the presence of a catalyst.
12. Sugarcane is used to produce ethanol.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: One of the most commonly used feedstocks to produce ethanol is
sugarcane. This is very popular in developing due to the high productivity of
sugarcane when supplied with sufficient water.
13. Which of the following are used to produce ethanol when water is not available in
plenty?
a) Sugarcane
b) Wheat
c) Corn
d) Sorghum
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Cassava or sorghum is commonly used to produce ethanol when water
is not available in plenty. Sugarcane is used when there is no limitation on water
content. Wheat and corn do not produce ethanol.
14. Which of the following are commonly used in fermentation process?

a) Yeast
b) Bacteria
c) Mushrooms
d) Virus
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yeast is commonly used in fermentation process. Fermentation is the
process converting biomass to alcohol and carbon dioxide.
15. Fermentation is aerobic process.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
a) Biogas and bio-fertilizer
b) Waste water
c) Producer gas
d) Syngas
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The two main products of anaerobic digestion are biogas and bio-
fertilizer. Wastewater is the input to the anaerobic digester. Producer gas is
produced during pyrolysis.
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2. Which of the following organic compounds are present in biogas?

a) Butane gas and carbon dioxide
b) Methane gas and carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Sodium
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Methane gas and carbon dioxide are present in biogas. Butane is not
present in biogas. Nitrogen and sodium are not organic compounds.
3. Which of the following are considered as contaminant gases in biogas?

a) Chlorine
b) Fluorine
c) Nitrogen, hydrogen and carbon monoxide
d) Methane gas and carbon dioxide
View Answer
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4. Which of the following products of anaerobic digestion consists of organic humus

and nutrients?
a) Biogas
b) Chlorine
c) Top soil
d) Bio-fertilizer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Bio-fertilizer is a product of anaerobic digestion consisting of organic
humus and nutrients for plantation. Top soil and chlorine are not products of
anaerobic digestion. Biogas does not consist of organic humus.
5. Which of the following are used to store manure?

a) Silos and cellars
b) Plastic bottles
c) Glass bottles
d) Tin cans
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Silos and cellars are used to store manure. Manure bags are specifically
designed to store manure. Plastic bottles, glass bottles and tin cans are not used to
store manure.
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6. What are the three methods of pre-treatment of influent for anaerobic digestion?
a) Galvanization, pyrolysis and pre-heating
b) Mechanical treatment, pre-heating and thermal treatment
c) Galvanization, pyrolysis and thermal treatment
d) Pyrolysis, thermal treatment and pre-heating
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mechanical treatment, pre-heating and thermal treatment are the three
different pre-treatment techniques of anaerobic digestion. Galvanization is a process
to prevent corrosion of metals. Pyrolysis is a thermo-chemical process and not a bio-
chemical process.
7. Thermo-chemical processes have higher efficiencies than bio-chemical processes.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermo-chemical processes do have higher efficiencies than bio-
chemical processes. In fact, they also have quicker reaction times and superior ability
to decompose most organic compounds.
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8. Which of the following is best suited to decompose lignin?

a) Anerobic digestion
b) Fermentation
c) Thermo-chemical conversion techniques
d) Bio-chemical conversion techniques
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Thermo-chemical conversion techniques can decompose lignin. When
compared with bio-chemical conversion techniques, they have superior ability to
decompose most organic compounds. Anaerobic digestion and fermentation are bio-
chemical processes.
9. Which of the following are types of pyrolysis?

a) Flash and ablative
b) Intermediate and anaerobic digestion
d) Fermentation and intermediate
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flash and ablative are types of pyrolysis. Anaerobic digestion and
fermentation are bio-chemical processes and are not types of pyrolysis.
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10. Bio-oil has double the heating value of conventional fuel oil.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bio-oil has half the heating value of conventional fuel oil. It is produced
after condensing the hot vapors in fast pyrolysis.
11. What are the three types of hydrothermal processing of biomass?
a) Hydrothermal liquefaction, hydrothermal gasification and ablate pyrolysis
b) Hydrothermal liquefaction, hydrothermal gasification and fast pyrolysis
c) Hydrothermal liquefaction, hydrothermal gasification and hydrothermal
carbonisation
d) Intermediate pyrolysis, hydrothermal gasification and ablate pyrolysis
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydrothermal liquefaction, hydrothermal gasification and hydrothermal
carbonisation are the three types of hydrothermal processes. Intermediate, fast and
ablate are the types of pyrolysis.
12. Which of the following is the mildest hydrothermal process?

c) Ablate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydrothermal carbonisation is the mildest of the three hydrothermal
processes. Ablate is not a hydrothermal process. It is a type of pyrolysis.
13. Which of the following hydrothermal processes produces syngas?

c) Fermentation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrothermal gasification or supercritical water gasification (SCWG)
occurs temperatures greater than 375 degree Celsius and pressure above 200 bar. It
produces syngas. Fermentation is not a type of hydrothermal process. It is a bio-
chemical process.
14. Hydrothermal liquefaction produces _________

a) syngas
b) bio-crude
c) bio-oil
d) producer gas
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydrothermal liquefaction produces bio-crude which can be distillated
to obtain petroleum products. Bio-oil is produced in fast pyrolysis. Producer gas is
produced in pyrolysis and syngas is produced in hydrothermal gasification.
15. Which of the following produces a solid hydro-char?

a) Catalytic liquefaction
b) Carbonisation
c) Hydrothermal gasification
View Answer
Answer: d
1. What is unique about the gasification agent entering in a fluidized gasifier?

a) Enters from bottom at a relatively fast rate as compared to a fixed bed gasifier
b) Enters from bottom at a relatively slow rate as compared to a fixed bed gasifier
c) Enters from top at a relatively fast rate as compared to a fixed bed gasifier
d) Enters from top at a relatively slow rate as compared to a fixed bed gasifier
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a fluidized gasifier, the gasification agent enters the bed from the
bottom at a relatively faster rate and exits from the top. This type of gasification
features a uniform temperature distribution in the bed zone.
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2. What ensures consistency of temperature in fluidized gasifier?

a) Gasification agent
b) Air-fluidized bed material
c) Biomass
d) Air non-permeable bed material
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fluidized gasifier features a uniform temperature distribution in the bed
zone. This is achieved using an air-fluidized bed material. Biomass and gasification
agent do not contribute towards the temperature consistency.
3. What are the three types of fluidized gasifiers used?
a) Single fluidized bed, dual fluidized bed and bubbling fluidized bed
b) Straight fluidized bed, dual fluidized bed and bubbling fluidized bed
c) Circulating fluidized bed, dual fluidized bed and bubbling fluidized bed
d) Single fluidized bed, dual fluidized bed and straight fluidized bed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Circulating fluidized bed, dual fluidized bed and bubbling fluidized bed
are the three main types of fluidized gasifiers used. They are mainly used to achieve
a uniform temperature distribution.
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4. How is the temperature maintained in a bubbling fluidized bed?

a) Biomass
b) Gasification agent
c) A constant ratio of biomass and gasification agent
d) Manipulating the ratio of biomass and gasification agent
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A bubbling fluidized bed gasifier applies inlet from the bottom and
moves the bed of fine-grained materials. The temperature is maintained by
manipulating the ratio of biomass and gasification agent.
5. What is the temperature range in a bubbling fluidized bed?

a) Between 700 and 900 degree Celsius
b) Less than 500 degree Celsius
c) Above 1000 degree Celsius
d) Between 100 and 200 degree Celsius
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The temperature range in a bubbling fluidized bed gasifier is between
700 and 900 degree Celsius. This distribution is achieved by manipulating the ratio of
biomass and gasification agent.
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6. What is the biomass decomposed to in a bubbly fluidized bed?
a) Producer gas
b) Char and gas products with a low tar percentage
c) Char and gas products with a high tar percentage
d) Char with a low tar percentage
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The biomass is decomposed to char and other gaseous products with a
low percentage of tar. Since this is a gasifier, one of the products has to be a gas. So,
the option without gaseous products is incorrect.
7. What are the two main units in a circulating fluidized bed?

a) Bubbling fluidized bed and dual fluidized bed
b) Bubbling fluidized bed and gasifier unit
c) Circulating unit and gasifier unit
d) Circulating unit and dual fluidized bed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The two main units in a circulating fluidized bed are circulating unit and
gasifier unit. Bubbling fluidized bed and dual fluidized bed are types of fluidized
gasifier. They are not a part of circulating fluidized bed gasifier.
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8. Where can the ash and hot gas be separated in a circulating fluidized bed gasifier?
a) Gasifier unit
b) Circulation unit
c) Tornado separator
d) Cyclone separator
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Ash and hot gas can be separated in the cyclone separator. The bed
material and the char is circulated between the reaction chamber and the cyclone
separator where the separation takes place.
9. The two separate fluidized beds in a dual fluidized bed gasifier are used for pyrolysis
and combustion process.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A dual fluidized bed gasifier consists of two separated fluidized beds.
One of the beds is used for pyrolysis and the other is used for combustion.
Generally, the first bed is used for pyrolysis.
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10. Which of the following best indicates the process in a dual fluidized bed gasifier?
a) Combustion reactor → pyrolysis reactor
b) Pyrolysis reactor → combustion reactor
c) Evaporation reactor → condensation reactor
d) Combustion reactor → condensation reactor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The first bed in a dual fluidized bed gasifier is used for pyrolysis. The
second bed is used for combustion. The second reactor provides heat by burning
char provided from the first reactor.
11. What are the two types of entrained flow gasifiers?

a) Bubbling fluidized gasifier and dual fluidized gasifier
b) Bubbling fluidized gasifier and top-fed gasifier
c) Top-fed gasifier and side-fed gasifier
d) Side-fed gasifier and dual fluidized gasifier
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The two main types of entrained flow gasifiers are top-fed gasifier and
side-fed gasifier. Bubbling fluidized bed and dual fluidized bed gasifiers are fluidized
bed gasifiers and not entrained flow gasifiers.
12. Which of the following gasifiers is suitable for integrated gasification combined
cycle (IGCC)?
a) Fluidized gasifier
b) Fixed bed gasifier
c) Downdraft gasifier
d) Entrain flow gasifier
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Entrail flow gasifiers are suitable for IGCC. They are applied in large-
scale gasification and are widely used for coal, biomass and refinery residues.
Downdraft is a type of fixed bed gasifier which is not suitable for IGCC.
13. Which of the following is a problem due to tar formation in gasifiers?

a) Equipment blockages
b) High system efficiency
c) Improved quality of gas
d) Reduction in maintenance
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Tar formation in a gasifier leads to equipment blockage, lower system
efficiency and increased maintenance. The most important problem is that it
contaminates the gas and reduces its quality.
14. Which of the following is a component of tar?

a) Sodium
b) Benzene
c) Chlorine
d) Nickel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tar is generally composed of carbon compounds like benzene,
naphthalene, single-ring aromatic hydrocarbons, toluene, etc. It does not contain of
non-carbon materials like sodium, chlorine and nickel.
15. Tar is removed by choosing the appropriate catalyst.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following is a product of biomass gasification?

a) Hydrogen
b) Steel
c) Carbon (solid)
d) Iron
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Biomass gasification is process that converts biomass into gases in a
controlled amount of oxygen or partial combustion. Hydrogen is a product of
biomass gasification. Steel, carbon (solid) and iron are not gases.
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2. What is water-gas shift reaction?

a) Carbon dioxide + water → Carbon monoxide + Hydrogen + small heat
b) Carbon monoxide + water → Carbon dioxide + Hydrogen + small heat
c) Carbon dioxide + water + heat → Carbon monoxide + Hydrogen
d) Carbon monoxide + water + heat → Carbon dioxide + Hydrogen
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: carbon monoxide + water → carbon dioxide + hydrogen + small heat is
the water-gas shift reaction. It is an exothermic reaction as heat is released and not
used.
3. Which of the following temperature ranges are suitable for biomass gasification?
a) Above 1000 degree Celsius
b) Between 500 and 600 degree Celsius
c) Between 700 and 1000 degree Celsius
d) Less than 500 degree Celsius
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The most suitable temperature range for biomass gasification is
between 700 and 1000 degree Celsius. The reactant is partially oxidized to produce a
mixture of gaseous products including hydrocarbons. Sometimes, steam is also used
as gasification agents.
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4. What are the three main types of gasifiers?

a) Fixed bed, hydrothermal liquefaction and carbonisation
b) Fixed bed, fluidized gasifiers and carbonisation
c) Carbonisation, liquefaction and entrained flow gasifiers
d) Fixed bed, fluidized gasifiers and entrained flow gasifiers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Fixed bed, fluidized and entrained flow gasifiers are the three main
types of gasifiers used in biomass gasification. Liquefaction and carbonisation are
not gasifying techniques.
5. Biomass is moved at a very slow rate in fixed bed gasifier.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Biomass is moved at a very slow rate in the fixed bed gasifier. Hence, it
is also called as moving bed reactor and is operated around 1000 degree Celsius.
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6. How is the biomass material and gasification agent fed into an updraft gasifier?
c) Biomass from bottom, gasifying agent from top
d) Biomass from bottom, gasifying agent from bottom
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In an updraft gasifier, the biomass material is fed from the top of the
reactor and the gasification agent is fed from the bottom of the reactor. As the
gasifying agent flows through the biomass, gas is generated and exhausted from the
top.
7. What is the contaminant in the product gas that is withdrawn from a low
temperature zone in a fixed bed gasifier?
a) Gold
b) Platinum
c) Tar
d) Nickel
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The hot gas coming from the bottom dries the biomass near the top of
the vessel and provides heat for pyrolysis of the descending biomass. Along with
providing heat, it also embeds tar into it. When the product gas is removed from a
low temperature zone, it consists of tar which is a contaminant.
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8. The product gas removed from the low temperature zone undergoes _______ before
being used as fuel in combustion for electricity generator.
a) liquefaction
b) condensation
c) evaporation
d) cleaning
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The product gas removed from the low temperature zone undergoes
cleaning. This is to remove contaminants like tar from the gas so that it can be used
as fuel in combustion engine for electricity generator.
9. How is the biomass material and gasification agent fed into a downdraft gasifier?
c) Biomass from bottom, gasifying agent from left side
d) Biomass from top, gasifying agent from right side
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a downdraft generator, the biomass and the gasifying agent is fed
into the vessel from the top. Air or oxygen is then fed into the system
homogeneously at the so called throated area.
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10. The tar content of the product gas in downdraft gasifier is _______ updraft gasifier.
a) equal to
b) less than
c) greater than
d) cleaner than
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The tar content of the product gas in a downdraft gasifier is lower than
updraft gasifier. However, the particulate content of the gas is higher.
11. Which of the following applications is the product gas from downdraft gasifier
suitable for?
a) Fuel for combustion engine
b) Fuel for burning wood
c) Fuel for internal combustion engine
d) Fuel for household purposes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The product gas from downdraft gasifier is suitable for applications like
fuel for internal combustion engine to generate electricity. This is because it consists
of less amount of tar and more amount of particulate matter as compared to the
product gas from an updraft gasifier.
12. Which of the following applications can the producer gas be used for?
a) Producing nickel
b) Producing copper
c) Producing glucose
d) Producing methanol
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Producer gas can be used to produce methanol in an economically
viable manner. Methanol is used as fuel for heat engines as well as feedstock for
industries.
13. Which of the following are keys to design a gasifier?

a) Reducing biomass to charcoal and converting charcoal at suitable temperature to
b) Oxidizing biomass to charcoal and converting charcoal at suitable temperature to
c) Reducing biomass to charcoal and converting charcoal at suitable temperature to
d) Oxidizing biomass to charcoal and converting charcoal at suitable temperature to
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The key to gasifier design is to create conditions such that biomass is
reduced to charcoal and the charcoal converted to carbon monoxide and hydrogen
at suitable temperatures. It is important to note that biomass is reduced and not
oxidized.
14. How does air enter and exit in a cross-draft gasifier?

a) Air enters from one of the sides and exits from the top
b) Air enters from one side and exits from the other
c) Air enters from one of the sides and exits from the bottom
d) Air enters from the bottom and exits from the top
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a cross-draft gasifier, air enters from one of the sides and exits from
the other. Cross-draft gasifiers are compactly constructed and require low
maintenance.
15. Ash sticks to the side in a cross-draft gasifier.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
1. Which of the following is a substrate for biogas production?

a) Municipal and residential waste
b) E-waste
c) Metallic waste
d) Gaseous effluents
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Municipal and residential waste is a good substrate for biogas
production. E-waste and metallic waste do not consist of carbon compounds.
Gaseous effluents are not used to produce biogas.
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2. Which of the following is a preferred substrate for biogas production? Note that TS
stands for total solids.
a) Less than 1% TS
b) 20-40% TS
c) 1-5% TS
d) 5-10% TS
View Answer
3. What are the categories for organic dry matter on the basis of total solids (TS)?
a) Low grade, medium grade, high grade and fixed bed
b) Low grade, medium grade, fluidized bed and fixed bed
c) Low grade, medium grade, high grade and solids
d) Downdraft, circulation fluidized bed, high grade and fixed bed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The categorization on the basis of TS are low grade with less than 1%,
medium grade with TS between 1and 5%, high grade with TS between 5 and 20% and
finally solids with TS between 20 and 40%. Fixed bed and fluidized bed are types of
gasifiers.
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4. Which among the following is the best source for methane production?
a) Metallic scrap
b) E-waste
c) Plastic waste
d) Water hyacinth
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Water hyacinth is the best source for methane production in the given
options. It is an aquatic weed with huge biomass, high C/N ratio and lignin content.
Thus, yielding high amounts of methane.
5. Which of the following is used to produce biogas from biomass?

a) Anaerobic treatment
b) Aerobic treatment
c) Fermentation
d) Pyrolysis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Anaerobic treatment of municipal and residential waste is used to
produce biomass. Fermentation is used to produce ethanol and pyrolysis is used to
produce gaseous products like hydrogen.
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6. Which of the following best indicates the steps of anaerobic digestion?

a) Waste water feed → biogas storage → generator → biogas
b) Waste water feed → digester → biogas → biogas storage → generator
c) Generator → waste water feed → digester → biogas → biogas storage
d) Waste water feed → biogas → digester → biogas storage → generator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Waste water feed is first sent into the anaerobic digester. The waste
water is treated to produce biogas which is then stored in a special storage. The fuel
is then used to produce electricity by driving a generator or for any other application.
7. Which of the following best indicates the steps inside an anaerobic digester?
a) Hydrolysis → methanogenesis → acetogenesis → acidogenesis
b) Hydrolysis → acidogenesis → methanogenesis → acetogenesis
c) Hydrolysis → acidogenesis → acetogenesis → methanogenesis
d) Methanogenesis → acidogenesis → acetogenesis → hydrolysis
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The waste is first hydrolyzed and then acidized. After acidizing, the
product is then used to produce acetates which is further used to create methane in
the final stage. Methanogenesis is the process of creating methane.
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8. What occurs in the hydrolysis step of anaerobic digestion?

a) Large polymers combine with water molecules
b) Large polymers break down to form water molecules
c) Small polymers combine to form large polymers with the help of water molecules
d) Large polymers break down into amino acids, fatty acids and simple sugars
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydrolysis is used to break large polymers in the presence of an acid
catalyst. Large polymers present in the waste break down into amino acids, fatty
acids and simple sugars.
9. Acidogenesis further break down the molecules received from hydrolysis in

anaerobic digestion.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In acidogenesis, microorganisms further break down the molecules
after hydrolysis. This is because these molecules are still too large and cannot be
used to generate methane. The microorganisms produce an acidic environment for
the break down to occur.
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10. Which of the following is produced in acetogenesis?

a) Ethanol
b) Acetate
c) Acetone
d) Ketone
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In acetogenesis, a derivative of acetic acid called acetate is produced
from carbon and other energy sources. This occurs in the presence of
microorganisms called acetogens.
11. Which of the following is produced apart from acetates in acetogenesis step in
anaerobic digestion?
a) Carbon monoxide
b) Charcoal
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Acetone
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Apart from acetates, carbon dioxide and hydrogen are also produced in
acetogenesis. It is important to note that acetic acid is first produced which is then
converted into acetates.
12. What are the two ways to produce methane in methanogenesis step?
a) Converting carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide into methane
b) Converting carbon monoxide and acetic acid (or acetate) into methane
c) Converting methane into carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
d) Converting carbon dioxide and acetic acid (or acetate) into methane
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Methanogenesis is the process of producing methane by methanogens.
In anaerobic digestion, methanogenesis occurs by converting carbon dioxide and
acetic acid (or acetate) into methane.
13. Methanogens can directly use the products of hydrolysis to produce methane.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Methanogens cannot directly use the products of hydrolysis to produce
methane. The molecules are still too large and need to be broken down. This occurs
in the acidogenesis step.

a) Carbon monoxide and hydrogen
b) Methane and carbon dioxide
c) Methane and carbon monoxide
d) Hydrogen and carbon dioxide
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The purpose of anaerobic digestion is to convert the municipal waste
(biomass) into biogas. So, the two main products are methane and carbon dioxide.
Carbon monoxide is not the main product.
15. Gases emitted from the digester indicates the amount of biomass left to be broken
down.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?

a) Fossil fuels
b) Sun
c) Biomass
d) Wind
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fossil fuels are not a renewable source of energy because they take
millions of years to form. Sun, biomass and wind are renewable sources because
they are virtually infinite.
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2. Which of the following is a thermal application of solar energy?

a) Photovoltaic
b) Concentrating collectors
c) Solar cell
d) Electricity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Concentrating collectors are a thermal application of solar energy.
Photovoltaic and solar cells convert sunlight into electrical current thereby
generating electricity.

a) A device that generates current
b) A device that collects and stores sunlight
c) A device that collects and concentrates sunlight
d) A device that filters sunlight
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A solar collector is a device that collects and/or concentrates the
incoming sunlight for heating purposes. A solar water heater is an example of solar
collector. A device that filters sunlight is called an optical filter.
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4. What is a non-concentrating solar collector?

a) Collects and stores sunlight
b) Collects and concentrates sunlight
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A non-concentrating solar collector directly uses the incoming global
radiation without concentrating it. The simples design is the flat plate collector. Since
ideality does not exist, every practical collector reflects sunlight due to
manufacturing problems.
5. What is a concentrating solar collector?

a) Collects and concentrates sunlight on an absorber
b) Collects and concentrates sunlight on a reflector
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A concentrating solar collector concentrates the incident sunlight onto
an absorber. The net intensity on the absorber is increased by concentrating sunlight
through multiple collectors collectively.
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6. What are the applications of concentrating solar collectors?

a) Domestic water heating
b) Desalination plants
c) Linear focusing
d) Point focusing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Desalination plants use concentrating solar collectors for heating
purposes. Linear and point focusing are types of concentrating solar collectors.
Domestic water heating is generally done by non-concentrating solar collectors.
7. How does geothermal energy work?
a) Uses water from the earth
b) Uses potential energy
c) Uses heat from the core of earth
d) Uses heat from atmosphere
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Geothermal energy works by using heat from the core of earth.
Geothermal plants are generally set up near hot springs to generate electricity from
the readily available steam.
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8. Which of the following do heat pumps use in geothermal energy?

a) Earth’s variable temperature
b) Variable electricity
c) Constant electricity
d) Earth’s constant temperature
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Geothermal heat pumps use the constant temperature of earth as an
exchange medium for heat. Although seasonal changes vary the atmospheric
temperature, the temperatures below the earth’s surface remains relatively constant.
9. Which of the following is an application of hydro energy?

a) Flood risk management
b) Generating wind
c) Manufacturing
d) Environment damage
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flood risk management is an application of hydro energy as the water is
stored or emptied according to the situation. Manufacturing and wind generation are
not applications of hydro energy. Environment damage due to dams is its
disadvantage.
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10. Hydro energy provide water for irrigation
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydro energy is used to provide water for irrigation. Canals are
constructed to divert rivers to farms. Also, hydro energy is used to generate
electricity for irrigation pumps.
11. Why are renewable resources preferred?

a) Cheap
b) Profitable
c) Release little greenhouse gases
d) Are freely available
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Renewable resources of energy are preferred because they release very
little greenhouse gases. The shift towards renewable resources is due to two main
reasons – depletion of fossil fuels and rise of earth’s temperature due to greenhouse
gases.
12. Which of the following is a thermal application of biomass?

a) Freezing
c) Fermentation
d) Combustion
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Biomass is being increasingly used as fuel by many small scale
industries. They burn the biomass to generate heat which is further used to perform
various operations. Anaerobic digestion and fermentation do not release heat.
13. Why is biomass gasification useful?

a) To get gases which can be used as fuel
b) To reduce solid waste
c) To increase solid waste
d) Biomass gasifiers are economical
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: One of the main uses of biomass gasification is the generation of
various gases. Each gas is collected and sold to the right vendor. Gases like hydrogen
are used as fuel while nitrogen is used in chemical industries.
14. Which of the following use producer gas from biomass?

a) Hydrothermal plant
b) Paper and textile industry
c) Wind plants
d) Fuel cells
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Paper and textile industry use fuel-fired furnaces like dryers that run on
producer gas generated from biomass gasification. Wind plants, fuel cells and
hydrothermal plants do not use producer gas.
15. Biomass is used to produce electricity.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. How is the heat inside earth restored?

a) Radioactive decay of elements
b) Sun restores the heat
c) Hot steam is pumped into earth
d) Cosmic rays
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Earth’s heat is generated and restored by the radioactive decay of
radioactive elements. These elements are found in the mantle and core. Pumping
hot steam, sun’s heat and cosmic rays do not contribute to restoration of earth’s
heat.
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2. What is the increase in temperature per kilometer starting from the crust?
a) 15 degree Celsius
c) 100 degree Celsius
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The normal temperature gradient with respect to depth – increase in
the temperature per kilometer is 17 – 30 degree Celsius. It is 50 – 87 in degree F.
3. What is the earth’s core made up of?

a) Gamma rays
b) Nitrogen
c) Iron
d) Gold
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Earth’s core lies 4000 miles below the surface and consists of two layers.
The core is made up of solid iron and is surrounded by molted iron.
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4. Which of the following surrounds the earth’s core?

a) Mt. Everest
b) Crust
c) Hydrogen
d) Mantle
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The earth’s core is surrounded by mantle. It consists of rocks and
magma. It is about 1800 miles thick starting from the core.
5. What is continental drift?

a) Tectonic plates pushing against each other
b) Continents being pulled due to gravitational force
c) Continents being pulled due to nuclear force
d) Tectonic plates expanding
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The earth’s crust is not a uniform layer like the shell of an egg. It is made
up of tectonic plates. These plates push against each other at the rate of 1 inch per
year in a process called continental drift.
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6. Who initiated electricity generation from geothermal energy?

a) Indians
b) Italians
c) Americans
d) Africans
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hot springs were used for recreational and healing purposes in the
ancient times. However, the converting geothermal energy to electricity is a relatively
new concept. It was initiated by Italians in 1904.
7. Why did the first Geysers project in California fail?

a) Did not find geothermal site
b) Insufficient steam
c) Corrosion of equipment
d) Availability of pure steam
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The first Geysers project in California failed because of impurities in the
steam at the geothermal site. These impurities corroded and abraded the pipes and
turbines of the day.
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8. Which of the following countries hosts the largest geothermal field?

a) Iran
b) Italy
c) Australia
d) United States
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Geothermal energy is now used in more than 20 countries across the
globe. The largest geothermal field is hosted by United States. It is known as “The
Geysers” and is located in California. It is spread over 117 km 2 and consists of 22
power plants with a capacity of 1.5GW.
9. Which of the following is used to locate a geothermal site?

a) Drilling wells
b) Reflection
c) Seismograph
d) SONAR
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Drilling wells to measure underground temperature is a well known
method to locate geothermal sites. Reflection, seismograph and SONAR are not used
to locate geothermal site. In fact, seismograph detects earthquakes.
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10. Which of the following is the most probably location of geothermal site?
a) Grasslands
b) Volcanoes
c) Coasts
d) River beds
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Most active geothermal sites are located along major plate boundaries
where earthquakes and volcanoes are concentrated. Coasts, grasslands and river
beds hardly experience any volcanoes so they are not the most probable location.
11. Most of the geothermal activity occurs at ______

a) Ring of water
b) Mt. Everest
c) Ring of fire
d) Amsterdam
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Most of the geothermal activity occurs in an area called “Ring of Fire”. It
rims the Pacific Ocean and is bounded by Japan, the Philippines, the Aleutian Islands,
North America, Central America and South America.
12. Which of the following is the major drawback of geothermal energy?

a) Low initial cost
b) Low carbon dioxide production
c) High carbon dioxide production
d) Extremely location specific
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The major drawback of geothermal energy is its dependence on the
geothermal site. In fact, it is probably the most location specific energy source. Also,
the power plants are accused of causing mini tremors in the surrounding areas.
13. Geothermal energy has high initial cost.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Geothermal has a high initial cost because of the costs required to
locate the geothermal site. The cost of admission also includes construction of the
power plant at the site.
14. Which of the following gases is released by a geothermal site and power plant?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Sulphur
c) Iron
d) Steel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Geothermal sites and power plants are accused of releasing sulphur
and hydrogen sulfide. It has low carbon dioxide emissions. Iron and steel are not
gases.
15. Lord Kelvin invented the heat pump.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What are the types of geothermal energy resources?

a) Hydrothermal, geo-pressurised brines, hot dry rocks, magma
b) Hydrothermal, geo-pressurised brines, hot dry rocks, sun
c) Biomass, geo-pressurised brines, hot dry rocks
d) Wind, magma, geopressurised brines, hydrothermal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The four types of geothermal energy resources are hydrothermal,
geopressurised brines, hot dry rocks and magma, Biomass, sun and wind are not
types of geothermal energy resources.
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2. What are the forms of geothermal energy?

a) Liquid and solid
b) Liquid and vapour
c) Solid and Bose-Einstein condensate
d) Plasma and liquid
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Geothermal energy either comes in liquid form or in vapour form. They
are not solids. Bose-Einstein condensate and plasma are not forms of geothermal
energy. They are states of matter.
3. What is/are the ingredient in hydrothermal plants?

a) Water
b) Hot water
c) Hot water and steam
d) Steam and water
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Generally, the ingredients for hydrothermal plants are hot water and
steam. Both hot water and steam come together in a package. Steam cannot exists
without the water being hot.
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4. Which of the following naturally occurring heater is best responsible for the hot
water in a geothermal site?
a) Solar heater
b) Induction stove
c) Sunlight
d) Magma
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Magma is mainly responsible for heating the surrounding water and
generating steam in a geothermal site. Solar heater and induction stove are not
natural heaters. Sunlight does not the water in a geothermal site.
5. Which of the following affect the usage of hydrothermal resources?

a) Temperature and depth of the source
b) Temperature and location of the site
c) Location of the site and depth of the source
d) Type of water and steam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Temperature and depth of the source affect the application of
hydrothermal resource. It does not depend on the location of the site. Water and
steam do not have types.
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6. Which temperature range is most suitable for directly using the hydrothermal
resource? Note that “F” stands for Fahrenheit.
a) 100 – 150 degree F
c) -100 – -90 degree F
d) -100 – 0 degree F
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The temperature range between 50 – 60 degree F is most suitable for
directly using the hydrothermal resource. Such sources are also called as low
temperature sources.
7. _________ directly use low temperature hydrothermal source.
a) Electricity generation
b) Waste treatment
c) Spas
d) Gas stove
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Spas directly use low temperature hydrothermal source. Other
examples are heating buildings and warming fish ponds. Gas stoves use LPG. Waste
treatment is not done using geothermal sources.
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8. Which of the following temperature ranges is most suitable to generate electricity

from hydrothermal resources? Note that “F” stands for Fahrenheit.
a) 100 – 150 degree F
c) -200 – -90 degree F
d) 300 – 700 degree F
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Electricity generation requires higher temperatures to run turbines. The
typical temperature range is between 300 to 700 degree F and can reach 1000
degree F as well.
9. Which of the following best indicates the electricity generation from dry steam?
a) Drilling well → steam → pipes → generator
b) Steam → drilling well → pipes → generator
c) Steam → pipes → drilling well → generator
d) Generator → steam → pipes → drilling well
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The steam is extracted from the drilling wells via pipes. So, the steam
flows through the pipes to run the turbines of generator thereby generating
electricity.
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10. Which of the following best indicates the electricity generation from hot water
geothermal source?
a) Drilling well → hot water → generator → steam
b) Drilling well → hot water → steam → generator
c) Generator → hot water → steam → drilling well
d) Hot water → steam → drilling well → generator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hot water geothermal reservoirs are the most common type. The hot
water flows from the drilling wells through the pipe. This hot water is then vaporized
to generate steam which in turn runs the turbines.
11. What is a binary cycle power plant?

a) Lower temperature hot water is used to cool a fluid which compresses
b) Higher temperature hot water is used to cool a fluid which compresses
c) Lower temperature hot water is used to heat a fluid which expands
d) Higher temperature hot water is used to heat a fluid which compresses
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A binary cycle power plant is used when the water is not sufficiently hot
enough. So, the lower temperature hot water is used to heat a fluid which in turn
expands when warmed.
12. Which of the following is used to run the turbine in a binary cycle power plant?
a) Fluid compressed due to hot water from the geothermal site
b) Hot water
c) Steam
d) Fluid expanded due to hot water from the geothermal site
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A binary cycle power plant uses the hot water from the geothermal site
to heat a fluid which in turn expands. The turbine is powered from the expanded and
pressurized fluid.
13. What are geopressurised resources?

a) Increased pressure in the geothermal reservoir
b) Increased temperature in the geothermal reservoir
c) Decreased temperature in the geothermal reservoir
d) Decreased pressure in the geothermal reservoir
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Geopressurized resources are formed when the geothermal reservoir is
trapped by an impermeable sedimentary cap rock. This is the reason for the increase
in pressure inside the reservoir.
14. The pressure inside a geothermal reservoir increases due to the weight of the
sediment layer.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The pressure inside a geothermal reservoir increases because of the
weight and the lack of permeability of the sediment layer. This is the same sediment
layer that traps the geothermal reservoir.
15. Why are geopressurized sites desirably?

a) Because they increase the energy required to pump the resource
b) Because they increase the temperature of the resource
c) Because they decrease the energy required to pump the resource
d) Because they decrease the temperature of the resource
View Answer
Answer: c
1. Which of the following is a type of high temperature geothermal resource?

a) Dry steam
b) Dry water
c) Wet steam
d) Water
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: High temperature hydrothermal resource is used to produce electricity.
The two main types of high temperature hydrothermal resources are dry steam and
hot water.
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2. Dry steam is _________ dominated.
a) liquid
b) vapour
c) solid
d) plasma
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Dry steam is a type of high temperature hydrothermal resource. It is
vapour dominated. It is mainly used to generate electricity.
3. Hot water is _________ dominated.

a) vapour
b) nitrogen
c) liquid
d) Bose-Einstein condensate
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hot water is liquid dominated high temperature hydrothermal resource.
Like dry steam, it is used to generate electricity. Unlike low temperature resources, it
cannot be used directly.
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4. Which of the following is also called as a flash steam plant?

a) Low temperature hydrothermal resource
b) Dry steam
c) Hydrogen
d) Hot water
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hot water is a high temperature hydrothermal resource. It is also called
as flash steam plant because the hot water is first converted to steam. This steam is
used to drive the turbines to generate electricity.
5. What is hot dry rock geothermal resource made of?

a) Granite
b) Soil
c) Solid carbon dioxide
d) Liquid nitrogen
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hot dry rock is made up of granite. It is a unique geothermal resource
that lacks stored fluid and has extremely low permeability. Fracture creation is
required for commercial applications.
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6. Which of the following fracture creation techniques is/are used in hot dry rock
geothermal resource?
a) Condensation and hydrofracking
b) Hydrofracking and hydroshearing
c) Hydroshearing and distillation
d) Hydrofracking and combustion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydrofracking and hydroshearing are the two commonly used fracture
creation techniques for practical applications hot dry rock. Condensation, distillation
and combustion are not fracture creation techniques.
7. What is the difference between enhanced geothermal system and hot dry rock?
a) Lack of fluid permeability
b) Fluid permeability
d) Presence of rocks
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The main difference between enhanced geothermal system and hot dry
rock is the presence of fluid. Enhanced geothermal system contains hot fluid but hot
dry rock does not or contains negligible amounts.
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8. What is the similarity between enhanced geothermal system and hot dry rock?
a) Magma
b) Presence of steam
d) Lack of fluid permeability
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The main similarity between the two is that both lack fluid permeability.
Magma is not the right option because it is present irrespective of the resource. In
fact, it heats the resource. Both the resources lack steam.
9. Enhanced geothermal resource is man-made.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Enhanced geothermal resource is a man-made reservoir. It is created
where there is hot rock but insufficient or little permeability of the fluid.
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10. Deep hydrothermal systems are found at a depth of ______

a) 1km
b) 2.5 – 5km
c) 10km
d) 1 – 2km
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Deep hydrothermal systems are found at a depth of 2.5 – 5km. The
surrounding regions do not have elevated geothermal temperature gradients and
the temperature range is between 120 – 140 degree Celsius.
11. What are deep hydrothermal systems?

a) Hot dry rock
b) Magma
c) Permeable and fluid saturated region
d) Impermeable and fluid saturated region
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Deep hydrothermal systems consists of permeable and saturated fluid
in the surrounding region at a depth of 2.5 – 5km below the earth. The region is
surrounded by magma and can be used to generate electricity.
12. Which of the following is responsible for the volcanic geothermal heat?
a) Water
b) Hot dry rock
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Supercritical water
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Supercritical water is responsible for the volcanic geothermal heat. The
energy obtained from this supercritical water is much higher than conventional
geothermal steam. Carbon dioxide does not contribute to any geothermal resource.
Hot dry rock is a geothermal resource found beneath earth’s surface and not near
volcanoes.
13. Supercritical water is a liquid.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Supercritical water is a unique state of water where it neither behaves
as a true liquid nor as a true gas. It is capable of generating upto 10 times more
power than conventional geothermal sources.
14. Where is geothermal energy from volcanoes being harvested?

a) United States
b) Iceland
c) Iran
d) Greenland
View Answer
Answer: b
divergent plate boundary which brings continuous supply of hot and fresh magma
from the mantle. Iceland Deep Drilling Project (IDDP) is the most famous amongst all
the other projects.
15. Geothermal power plants are very good sources for baseload power.
Note – Baseload power is power that electric utility companies must deliver all day
long.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following is a problem with a geothermal resource?

a) Noise pollution
b) Low greenhouse gas emission
c) Polluting water
d) Reversing damage to wildlife habitat
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Noise pollution is one of the major problems caused due to
establishment of a power plant near a geothermal resource. Also, the plant
continuously uses and reuses water for cooling thereby affecting the local fresh
water resources. It does not pollute water.
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2. Which of the following gases are released by a geothermal power plant?

a) Carbon
b) Sulphur
c) Sulphate
d) Argon
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sulphur, hydrogen sulphide and oxides of nitrogen and sulphur are
released by a geothermal power plant. All these gases are harmful as they cause acid
rain. Carbon is not a gas. Sulphates exist in liquid or solid form.
3. Why do binary power plants emit less amounts of pollutants?

a) Because they release steam into the atmosphere
b) Because they release steam into a local water body
c) Because they inject water back into the ground without any atmospheric exposition
d) Because they inject water back into the ground after atmospheric exposition
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Binary power plants emit less amounts of pollutants because they inject
water back into the ground without any atmospheric exposition. They also treat the
steam before releasing into the atmosphere.
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4. Which of the following best describes the cause for noise pollution due to a
geothermal power plant?
a) Emission of gases
b) Ecological destruction
c) Damaging wildlife habitat
d) Drilling wells
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Drilling wells is the major cause of noise pollution due to geothermal
power plants. The other options do not cause noise pollution. Drilling may also affect
wildlife habitat and ecology.
5. Geothermal plants use about 20L of fresh water per MWh.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Geothermal plants use about 20L of fresh water per MWh. This is
negligible when compared to coal plants which use about 1370L of fresh water per
MWh.
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6. ________ water is used by The Geysers facility in California.

a) Fresh
b) Waste
c) Hot
d) Cold
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Waste water is used by The Geysers facility in California for cooling
purposes. In fact, the geothermal plant also treats the water and injects it back into
the reservoir thereby reducing surface pollution.
7. What are the two main land use problems due to a geothermal power plant?
a) Minor earthquakes
b) Minor earthquakes and greenhouse gas emissions
c) Minor earthquakes and subsidence
d) Removal of magma and subsidence
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The two main land use problems due to geothermal power plants are
induced seismicity (minor earthquakes) and subsidence. Subsidence is gradual
caving in of land. Geothermal power plants do not add to greenhouse gas emissions.
As a matter of fact, this is not related to land use problems.
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8. How are subsidence and induced seismicity mitigated?

a) By removing the fluid
b) By removing the gas
c) By drilling deeper wells
d) By injecting spent fluid back into the reservoir
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Subsidence and induced seismicity are caused by removal of the fluid
present in the reservoir. They can be mitigated by injecting spent fluid back into the
reservoir. Drilling deeper wells will only add to the problem.
9. Geothermal plants are located near the reservoir.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Geothermal plants are located far away from the reservoir. This is done
to prevent impacts on the reservoir due to extraction of fluid.
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10. Which of the following geothermal power plants have no significant impact on
natural features.
a) Binary cycle
b) Direct use
c) High temperature
d) Coal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Direct use geothermal power plants have no significant impact on its
surroundings. This is because it is small and directly use the fluid present in the
reservoir without any (or much) auxiliary processing. Coal power plant is not a
geothermal power plant.
11. Utilizing geothermal resources eliminates _________

a) sulphur emissions
b) usage of power grid
c) mining
d) earthquakes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Utilizing geothermal resources eliminates mining and transportation of
electricity. It uses power grid to distribute the generated electricity to the consumers.
Sulphur emissions and earthquakes are the problems caused due to geothermal
power plants.
12. If a geothermal power plant is located near a reservoir, fluid from _______ reservoir
is used.
a) the same
b) another neighbouring
c) coal
d) another far away
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If a geothermal power plant is located near a reservoir, fluid from
another far away reservoir is used. This is to prevent unwanted impacts on the
reservoir near the plant’s location.
13. Which of the following is most responsible for increasing usage of geothermal
power plants?
a) Efficient heat pumps
b) More sites
c) Less sites
d) Poor heat pumps
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Efficient heat pumps are responsible for increasing usage of geothermal
power plants across the globe. Heat pumps transfer heat energy from a source of
heat to a thermal reservoir (not same as geothermal reservoir).
14. Which of the following countries mainly use “direct-use” geothermal.

a) United States
b) Iceland
c) Iran
d) Greenland
View Answer
Answer: b
divergent plate boundary which brings continuous supply magma. Along with
Turkey, it mainly uses “direct-use” geothermal energy.
15. Impacts on land, impacts on surrounding environment and gaseous emissions are
the three main problems due to geothermal power plants.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following organisations deals with geothermal energy locations in

India?
a) Geological Survey of India
b) Geological Society of India
c) Forestry Department
d) Ministry of external affairs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Geological Survey of India (GSI) is the government organisations that
deals with various geothermal energy locations in India. It was founded in 1851 and
works under the Ministry of Mines Organisation. It is the second oldest survey in
India after Survey of India.
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2. Which of the following is the most promising geothermal locations in India?

a) Sohana
b) Puga valley
c) Gurgaon
d) Patna
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Puga valley is the most promising geothermal locations in India.
Gurgaon and Patna are not geothermal locations. Sohana is not the most promising
one.
3. What is the estimated potential for geothermal energy in India?

a) 1000MW
b) 1MW
c) 10000MW
d) 100MW
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The exploration and study of geothermal fields in India started in 1970.
The estimated potential for geothermal energy in India is 10000MW. Amongst all the
other locations, Puga valley is the most promising one.
4. Which of the following are geothermal provinces in India?

a) Telangana
b) Coimbatore
c) Manipur
d) Godavari
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Godavari is one of the seven geothermal provinces in India. Most of the
provinces are located in northern and central part of Indian sub-continent.
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5. Where is the volcanic arc in India?

a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
b) Lakshadweep Islands
c) Godavari
d) Puga valley
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The volcanic arc is in Andaman and Nicobar Islands. It is actually a
barren land. There are no geothermal provinces in Lakshadweep Islands. Puga valley
and Godavari are not prone to volcanoes.
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6. Which of the following geothermal sites is in Gujarat?

a) Tattapani
b) Cambay Garden
c) Surajkund
d) Manikaran
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cambay Garden is located in Gujarat. Today, Cambay is known as
Khambat. It is a town in Khambat Taluka, Anand district.
7. Where is the geothermal plant in Chhattisgarh?

a) Puga
b) Cambay Garden
c) Balrampur
d) Manikaran
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The geothermal plant is located in Balrampur district in Chhattisgarh. It
is one of the recently established plants. The other options are not areas in the state
of Chhattisgarh.
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8. The reservoir rock in Puga valley is made up of ________

a) sulphite
b) nitrogen
c) carbon
d) granite
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The geothermal reservoir in Puga valley is made up of granite. Hot
springs with a temperature range between 30 – 84 degree Celsius are found.
9. Which of the following is a potential site for binary cycle power plant?
a) Tatapani
b) Gurgaon
c) Godavari
d) Hyderabad
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Puga, Tatapani and Manikaran are potential sites for binary cycle power
plants. Gurgaon and Hyderabad are not geothermal sites.
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10. What is the temperature range of the reservoir at Puga valley?

a) 30 – 84 degree Celsius
c) 100 – 120 degree Celsius
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The temperature range of the reservoir at Puga valley is 160 – 220
degree Celsius. Also, the reservoir rock is made up of granite. The temperature of hot
springs are in the range of 30 – 84 degree Celsius.
11. What is the thermal temperature gradient in Tatapani?

View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The temperature gradient in Tatapani is 110 – 150 degree Celsius/km.
Tatapani is a geothermal site located in Chhattishgarh. Arsenic and sulphur deposits
are commonly found here.
12. What is the temperature gradient in Manikaran?

View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The temperature gradient in Manikaran is 90 – 110 degree Celsius/km.
Manikaran is a geothermal site located in Himachal Pradesh. The temperature range
of hot springs is between 34 – 90 degree Celsius.
13. Which of the following states hosts the West Coast geothermal site?
a) Maharashtra
b) Assam
c) Bihar
d) Kerala
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Maharashtra hosts the West Coast geothermal site. Assam and Bihar
are located in the eastern and central parts of Indian sub-continent. The West Coast
does not stretch till Kerala.
14. The geothermal site in Godavari consists of Gondwana sediments.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The geothermal site in Godavari consists of Gondwana sediments. The
temperature range of the reservoir is between 100 and 150 degree Celsius.
15. Extraction of dissolved heavy metals and native elements is another use of
geothermal site.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is tidal power?

a) Energy from tides
b) Energy from water
c) Energy from moon
d) Energy from sun
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Tidal power converts the energy from tides to usable forms. Though
tides are water, it is not the same as the energy harnessed from a flowing river. Tides
are caused due to moon.
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2. Which of the following categories does tidal power fall into?

a) Hydrothermal
b) Hydropower
c) Solar
d) Wind
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tidal power comes under the category of hydropower. Hydrothermal is
basically energy harnessed from hot water/steam found in geothermal sites. Solar
and wind are not related to water.
3. What is/are the cause(s) of tides?

a) Gravitational pull of moon
b) Gravitational pull of moon and sun
c) Gravitational pull of sun and moon and rotation of earth
d) Gravitational pull of sun
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Tides are caused by the gravitational pull of moon, sun and the rotation
of earth. It is the cumulative effect of all the three factors. No single factor
individually dominates the other.
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4. What is the minimum height of tides required for harnessing tidal energy
economically?
a) 1 foot
b) 5 feet
c) 8 feet
d) 10 feet
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: To harness tidal energy economically, the minimum height of the tides
should be 10 feet. Most of the plants harness the tidal energy to generate electricity
which is either used in remote locations or sent to the grid.
5. In terms of predictability, tidal energy _____ solar and wind.

a) is more predictable than
b) is less predictable than
c) has similar predictability like
d) cannot be predicted unlike
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In terms of predictability, tidal energy is more predictable than solar
and wind. This because of its origins – gravitational forces and earth’s rotation.
Intensity of sunlight and wind speeds vary greatly within a day unlike the tides.
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6. Tidal barrage is similar to ______

a) wind plant
b) dam
c) wind turbines
d) coal plant
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tidal barrage is similar to a dam. As the name suggests, a barrage
(barrier) is constructed across an inlet of an ocean bay to harness the energy.
7. Which of the following best describes the working of a tidal barrage for an incoming
tide?
a) Incoming tides → generator → barrage → basin
b) Incoming tides → basin → generator → barrage
c) Incoming tides → barrage → basin → generator
d) Generator → barrage → basin → incoming tides
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The incoming tides flow through the barrage into the basin. Once the
basin is filled, the water is emptied by allowing it to pass through an electric
generator thereby generating electricity.
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8. Which of the following best describes the working of tidal barrage for outgoing tides?
a) Generator → basin → ocean → outgoing tide
b) Generator → ocean → basin → outgoing tide
c) Ocean → generator → basin → outgoing tide
d) Outgoing tide → generator → basin → ocean
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The outgoing tides flow through the generator which converts the
kinetic energy into electrical energy. The water is then emptied into the ocean via a
separate basin.
9. Tidal barrages are a two-way tidal power system.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Tidal barrages are a two-way power system. This is because they use
both, the incoming and the outgoing tides to generate electricity. The water flow is
controlled by sluice gates.
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10. Which of the following is a potential problem of a tidal barrage?

a) Impacts on deep sea/ocean marine life
b) Impacts on estuaries of the tidal basin
c) A two-way tidal power system
d) Decrease in turbidity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: One of the main problems that a tidal barrage can cause is the
destruction of estuaries of the tidal basin. Tidal barrages also increase the turbidity
of the water near the basin. They don’t affect the deep sea marine life.
11. Which of the following tidal barrages has the largest capacity to generate electricity?
a) La Rance
b) Annapolis Royal
c) The Sihwa Lake Tidal Power Station
d) Russian tidal plants
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Sihwa Lake Tidal Power Station in South Korea has the largest
capacity to generate electricity. The tidal plant in La Rance, France is the oldest and
has the second largest capacity. Next comes the tidal power plant in Annapolis Royal
in Nova Scotia.
12. What are the three ways to harness tidal energy?

a) Tidal streams, tidal barrages and wind
b) Tidal barrages, wind and sun
c) Tidal lagoons, river streams and geothermal reservoirs
d) Tidal lagoons, tidal streams and tidal barrages
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The three different ways to harness tidal energy are tidal streams, tidal
barrages and tidal lagoons. Geothermal reservoirs, wind and sun are not tidal
resources.
13. The United States has an economical tidal power plant.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: At the very best, the United States does not have an economical tidal
power. China, France, England, Canada and Russia are some of the popular countries
known to harness tidal energy.
14. What is a tidal stream?
a) A river streams
b) A fast-flowing body of water due to tides
c) A fast-flowing body of water deposited into ocean
d) A fast-flowing body of water due to winds
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A tidal stream is a fast-flowing body of water created by tides. It is not
the same as a river stream. When compared to a river stream it has a much higher
kinetic energy.
15. Tidal generators produce steady and reliable stream of electricity.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is a tidal lagoon?

a) A man-made structure that spans the area of coastline with a high tidal range
b) A man-made structure that spans the entire coastline
c) A barrage
d) A fast-flowing water body caused due to tides
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A tidal lagoon spans that area of coastline which has a high tidal range.
The large volume of water is collected in a man-made structure for electricity
generation. Tidal stream is a fast-flowing water body caused due to tides.
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2. How does a tidal lagoon work?

a) By storing sea water
b) By creating a difference in water levels
c) By placing the turbine in the running water
d) By creating barrages
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tidal lagoon works by creating a difference in water levels. The water on
the higher level is passed through a turbine to generate electricity. Tidal barrages
work by creating barrages.
3. Which of the following steps best describes the working of tidal lagoons?
a) Floods → generator turbines → turbine wicket gates → lagoon → difference in water
b) Floods → turbine wicket gates → generator turbines → lagoon → difference in water
c) Floods → turbine wicket gates → lagoon → difference in water level between lagoon
d) Turbine wicket gates → floods → lagoon → difference in water level between lagoon
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sea water flows into lagoons which are controlled by turbine wicket
gates. These gates control the flow and can be completely closed to stop the water
from entering the lagoon. Once the difference in the water level between lagoon and
sea is optimized, the gates are opened thereby allowing water to flow through
generator turbines.
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4. Tidal lagoon is _______

a) unidirectional
b) unpredictable
c) the same as tidal stream
d) bi-directional
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Tidal lagoon is bi-directional. This is because the difference in water
level between the lagoon and sea can be created by both, the incoming tides and the
outgoing (ebbing) tides.
5. Tidal power is renewable because _________

a) tide falls and rises without fuel
b) tide falls and rises with fuel
c) tide neither falls nor rises without fuel
d) tide neither falls nor rises with fuel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The tidal power is renewable because the tides fall and rise without any
external fuel. This is caused by the gravitational forces of moon and earth’s rotation.
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6. How many high tides occur every day?

a) One
b) Two
c) Four
d) Three
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Two high tides occur each day. This is because the earth rotates
through two tidal bulges every lunar day. When the earth is in one of the bulges,
coastal areas experience a high tide.
7. How many low tides occur every day?

a) One
b) Five
c) Two
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Two low tides occur each day. This is because the earth rotates through
two tidal bulges every lunar day. When the earth is not in one of the bulges, a low
tide occurs.
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8. On which two sides of the earth do the tidal forces cause water to bulge out?
a) Both sides closest to moon
b) Both sides farthest from moon
c) Both sides facing the sun
d) Side closest to the moon and farthest from the moon
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Tides are caused by the gravitational forces of moon acting on earth.
Side closes to the moon and sides farthest from the moon bulge out due to these
tidal forces.
9. Bulges of water are called high tides.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bulges of water are called high tides. The two earth’s sides namely, the
one closest to the moon and the one farthest from the moon experience these
bulges – high tides.
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10. What is a tide mill?

a) A dam to store the tide
b) A water mill driven by tidal rise and fall
c) A barrage
d) A lagoon
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A tide mill is a water mill driven by tidal rise and fall. A dam is created
across a tidal inlet to store the water thereby acting as a reservoir. A tidal mill is not
same as a dam.
11. How does a tide mill work?

a) By storing the water and creating a difference in water level
b) By storing the water when the tide is low and releasing it through a turbine when the
tide is high
c) By storing the water when the tide is high and releasing it through a turbine when
the tide is low
d) By using the running water of a tide
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The tide mill works by storing the water when the tide is high and
releasing it through a turbine when the tide is low. The water is stored in a dam
constructed across a suitable tidal inlet.
12. Which of the following is similar to the working of tidal stream generator?
a) Geothermal turbine
b) Heat pump
c) Anaerobic digestion
d) Wind turbine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The working of tidal stream generator is similar to that of a wind
turbine. Both use the kinetic energy of the respective fluids to rotate the turbine and
generate electricity. Anaerobic digestion is a technique to treat and harness energy
from biomass. It does not used turbines. Geothermal turbine and heat pumps use
the thermal energy of the fluids.
13. Both horizontal and vertical turbines are used to harness energy from tides.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Depending on the tidal stream various turbines are used to harness the
kinetic energy of the incoming tide. Some of the commonly used turbines are
horizontal, vertical, open and ducted.
14. What is dynamic tidal power?

a) A theoretical technology exploiting potential energy of tides
b) A theoretical technology exploiting potential and kinetic energy of tides
c) A practical technology exploiting kinetic and potential energy of tides
d) A practical technology exploiting thermal energy of tides
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Dynamic tidal power is a theoretical technology that exploits an
interaction between the potential and kinetic energy of tides. It proposes the
construction of long dams from coast into the sea so as to introduce tidal phase
differences. These phase differences result in a differential water-level.
15. Strong coast-parallel oscillating tidal currents are found in ______
a) India
b) United States
c) China
d) Australia
View Answer
Answer: c
1. What is ocean thermal energy conversion?

a) Harnessing the temperature differences between surface waters and deep ocean
waters
b) Harnessing the temperature differences between the coastal waters and deep ocean
waters
c) Harnessing the heat energy from the underwater volcanoes
d) Harnessing the heat energy between surface water vapour and atmospheric gases
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The process of generating energy by using temperature difference (or
gradient) varying with depth of seawater is called Ocean thermal energy conversion
(OTEC). A temperature gradient exists between the surface waters and deep sea
waters due to various physical phenomenon.
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2. What is the temperature difference used in ocean thermal energy conversion? Note
that F denotes Fahrenheit
a) 10 degree F
b) A minimum of 77 degree F
c) Between 50 and 60 degree F
d) A minimum of 100 degree F
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The temperature difference is at least 77 degree F (or 25 degree C).
Ocean thermal energy conversion systems use this temperature difference between
the surface and the bed (or deep sea waters) to generate electricity.
3. What is thermohaline circulation?

a) Circulation of halogens throughout the ocean
b) Circulation of halogens due to temperature differences throughout the ocean
c) Large scale ocean circulation driven by global density gradients
d) Large scale halogens circulation due to global density gradients
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Thermohaline circulation is a constituent of large scale ocean water
movement and circulation caused due to global density gradients. The cause for this
gradient is heat of the surface and freshwater fluxes. Halogens are group 17
elements in the periodic table and are not related to thermohaline circulation.
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4. What is the maximum estimated potential of ocean thermal energy conversion per
year?
a) 80 GWh
b) 900 MWh
c) 10000 TWh
d) 88000 TWh
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Ocean thermal energy conversion is one of the continuously available
renewable energy resource. The maximum estimated potential is 880000 TWh per
year. In fact, it is strongly believed that this resource could contribute to base-load
power supply.
5. How does the cold and denser water masses sink to the depths of ocean?
c) Density gradient
d) Freshwater fluxes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The cold and denser water masses formed by surface water sink to the
depths of the ocean by thermohaline circulation. It is circulation of ocean water due
to density gradient.
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6. Why is ocean thermal energy conversion a renewable resource?
a) Because the temperature gradient lasts for a short period of time
b) Because the upwelling of cold water from the deep ocean is replaced by
downwelling of surface waters
c) Because ocean water is available in plenty
d) Because of sun’s heat
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ocean thermal energy conversion is a renewable resource because the
temperature gradient is continuously restored. This occurs because the upwelling of
cold water from the deep ocean is replaced by downwelling of surface waters.
7. Which of the following are types of systems used in ocean thermal energy
conversion?
a) Horizontal and vertical
b) Vertical and open cycle
c) Open cycle and closed cycle
d) Horizontal and closed cycle
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The types of systems used in ocean thermal energy conversion are
closed cycle and open cycle systems. Horizontal and vertical are related to turbines
used in harnessing tidal and wind energy.
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8. Which of the following is used as working fluid in closed cycle oceanic thermal energy
conversion systems?
c) Greenhouse gases
d) Refrigerants
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Closed cycle oceanic thermal energy conversion systems use
refrigerants like ammonia as working fluids. These fluids have low boiling points and
are suitable to power the generator thereby producing electricity.
9. Rankine Cycle is the most commonly used heat cycle for ocean thermal energy
conversion.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rankine Cycle is the most commonly used heat cycle for ocean thermal
energy conversion. It is a model used to predict the performance of a steam turbine
and was also used to study reciprocating steam engines.
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10. _______ turbine is used in closed cycle ocean thermal energy conversion.
a) Horizontal
b) Low-pressure
c) High-pressure
d) Vertical
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Low-pressure turbines are used in closed cycle ocean thermal energy
conversion. These systems use the Rankine heat cycle to generate electricity.
11. Open cycle ocean thermal energy conversion systems use _____ as the working
fluid.
a) vapour from rivers
b) water from rivers
c) vapour from seawater
d) seawater
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Open cycle ocean thermal energy conversion systems use vapour from
seawater as the working fluid. Unlike the closed cycle ocean thermal conversion
systems, the working fluids are not thought as refrigerants.
12. What is the byproduct of an ocean thermal energy conversion system?

a) Electricity
b) Clean water
c) Water vapour
d) Cold water
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Ocean thermal energy conversion systems supply cold water as their
by-product. These can be used for air conditioning and refrigeration. Electricity is the
primary product.
13. Where is the world’s only operating ocean thermal energy conversion plant located?
a) Japan
b) United States
c) China
d) Korea
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ocean thermal energy conversion was first developed in the 1880s. The
world’s only operating ocean thermal energy conversion plant is located in Japan.
The plant is overseen by Saga University.
14. Which of the following best describes the working of an ocean thermal energy
conversion plant?
a) Oceanic water → evaporator → turbine/generator → electricity
b) Warm surface oceanic water → evaporator containing working fluid →
turbine/generator → electricity
c) Cold surface oceanic water → electricity → evaporator containing working fluid →
turbine/generator
d) Cold deep oceanic water → electricity → evaporator containing working fluid →
turbine/generator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Warm surface oceanic water is passed through an evaporator
containing the working fluid. The vapourized fluid drives the turbine/generator
thereby generating electricity. Deep oceanic water is not used as it’s cold.
15. The vapourized fluid in an ocean thermal energy conversion system is converted
back into working liquid.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What type of working fluids do closed-cycle ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC)
systems use?
a) Low boiling point fluids at atmospheric pressure
b) High boiling point fluids at atmospheric pressure
c) Low boiling point fluids at 100 bar
d) High boiling point fluids at 100 bar
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Closed-cycle ocean thermal energy conversion systems use low boiling
point fluids at atmospheric pressure. An example of a low boiling point at
atmospheric pressure is ammonia with a boiling point around -33 degree Celsius.
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2. What is the warm surface seawater pumped through in a closed-cycle ocean thermal
energy conversion (OTEC) system?
a) Heat compressor
b) Heat exchanger
c) Fluid compressor
d) Turbine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The warm surface seawater is pumped through a heat exchanger in a
closed-cycle ocean thermal energy conversion system. This is to vapourise the
working fluid to run the turbine.
3. How is the vapourised working fluid condensed in a closed-cycle ocean thermal

energy conversion system?
a) Warm surface seawater
b) Fresh warm water
c) Cold water from deep ocean
d) Fresh cold water
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The vapourised working fluid is condensed using the cold water from
deep ocean in a closed-cycle ocean thermal energy conversion system. The cold
water is pumped through a second heat exchanger to perform condensation.
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4. Which of the following organisations developed the “mini OTEC”?

a) CERN
b) NASA
c) ISRO
d) Natural Energy Laboratory
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In 1979, the Natural Energy Laboratory and several private-sector
partners developed the “mini OTEC” experiment. They successfully produced
electrical power from a closed-cycle OTEC on the Hawaiian coast.
5. The open-cycle OTEC uses working fluid.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The open-cycle OTEC does not use a working fluid. It directly uses the
warm surface seawater to produce electricity.
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6. Which of the following best describes the open-cycle OTEC?

a) Warm surface seawater → heat exchanger → working fluid → turbine
b) Warm surface seawater → low-pressure container → turbine/generator
c) Deep seawater → heat exchanger → working fluid → turbine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In an open-cycle OTEC, the warm surface seawater is first pumped into
a low-pressure container. Then this fluid is used to drive the turbine to generate
electricity.
7. Why does an open-cycle OTEC use low-pressure container?
a) To solidify the warm surface seawater
b) To evaporate the deep seawater
c) To boil and evaporate the warm surface seawater
d) To solidify the warm surface seawater
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Open-cycle OTEC uses a low-pressure container to boil the warm
surface seawater. Due to decrease in pressure, the seawater boils and expands to
form vapour. This vapour is then used to drive the turbines to generate electricity.
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8. Which of the following produces desalinized fresh water?

a) Closed-cycle OTEC
b) Fracking
c) Ammonia
d) Open-cycle OTEC
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Open-cycle OTEC produces desalinized fresh water because it directly
uses the warm surface water to drive the turbines. Closed-cycle OTEC does not use
the warm surface seawater directly. Ammonia is used as working fluid in closed-cycle
OTEC.
9. Why does open-cycle OTEC produce desalinized fresh water?

a) Because the vapourised surface seawater leaves all the salts and contaminants in
the low-pressure container
b) Because of the working fluid
c) Because the warm surface seawater is mixed with deep ocean water
d) Because of thermohaline circulation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Open-cycle OTECH produces desalinized fresh water because the
vapourized surface seawater leaves all the salts and contaminants in the low-
pressure container. Since the vapour is pure, it generates desalinized fresh water on
condensation.
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10. Where is the desalinized fresh water used?

a) Sent back into ocean
b) Used for irrigation and aquaculture
c) Used to generate electricity
d) Used to generate tides
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Desalinized fresh water has many applications. It is suitable for
irrigation and aquaculture. On further processing, it could also be used for drinking
purposes. It is not used to generate electricity and tides.
11. Which of the following best describes hybrid ocean thermal energy conversion?
a) Warm surface seawater → low-pressure container → turbine/generator
b) Deep seawater → vacuum chamber → flash-evaporated → steam vapourises
ammonia → turbine
c) Warm surface seawater → vacuum chamber → flash-evaporated → steam
vapourises ammonia → turbine
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In hybrid OTEC, warm surface seawater is pumped into a vacuum
chamber. Due to low pressure, the water boils and expands into vapour. This vapour
is then used to vapourise the working fluid which runs the turbine.
12. How does hybrid OTEC provide desalinized water?

a) By evaporating the warm surface seawater
b) By solidifying the warm surface seawater
c) By condensing the steam generated from deep seawater
d) By condensing the steam generated from warm surface seawater
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hybrid ocean thermal energy conversion systems generate desalinized
water by condensing the steam generated from warm surface seawater. Due to low
pressure in vacuum chamber, the incoming surface seawater is vapourised to
generate steam. This steam does not contain salts and contaminants as it is left
behind in the chamber.
13. Which of the following is a good choice for working fluid?
a) CFCs
b) Steam
c) Surface seawater
d) Deep seawater
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: CFCs are a good choice for working fluid. Unlike ammonia, they are not
toxic or flammable. However, they contribute to ozone layer depletion.
14. As the vapour pressure of working fluid increases the size of turbine ________
a) increases
b) decreases
c) does not change
d) first increases then decreases
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the vapour pressure of working fluid increases the size of turbine
and heat exchanger decreases. The power plant size is dependent upon the vapour
pressure of the working fluid.
15. The wall thickness of pipes used to transport the vapour increases as the vapour
pressure of working fluid increases.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following supplies maximum amount of hydrogen gas?

a) Natural gas
c) Wastewater treatment
d) Electrolysis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: All the four options produce hydrogen gas. However, fossil fuels,
specifically natural gas is the major producer of hydrogen gas. Biomass and biogas
are the also commonly used to produce hydrogen gas.
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2. In terms of green house gas emissions, how good or bad is hydrogen fuel?
a) Major contributor of greenhouse gas emissions
b) Zero-emission fuel
c) Lowest contributor of greenhouse gas emissions
d) Hydrogen cannot be used as fuel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydrogen fuel is a clean source of energy. It is a zero-emission fuel
burned with oxygen and is used in different applications to generate electricity.
Among all sources of energy, burning fossil fuels produces maximum amount of
greenhouse gases.
3. Which of the following use hydrogen as fuel?

a) Fossil fuels
b) Anerobic digestion
c) Fuel cells
d) Cooking
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fuel cells and internal combustion engines used hydrogen as fuel cells.
Anaerobic digestion requires biomass in the form of waste water to generate
electricity. Though fossil fuels contain hydrogen atoms, they do not require external
supply of hydrogen as fuels. Cooking does not require hydrogen as fuel.
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4. Which of the following is the most popular application of hydrogen fuel cell?
c) Fuel cells stand-alone power supplies
d) Fuel cells spacecraft
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Spacecraft propulsion uses hydrogen as fuel with the help of fuel cells.
It is one of the most established techniques to deploy spacecrafts into outer-space.
Though fuel cell vehicles are becoming popular, they are not well established yet.
5. How is hydrogen gas produced from fossil fuels?
a) Partial oxidation of methane
b) Electrolysis
c) Evaporation
d) Biomass gasification
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrogen gas is produced from fossil fuels by different techniques like
partial oxidation of methane, steam reforming and coal gasification. Biomass
gasification and electrolysis produce hydrogen gas in small quantities.
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6. What is the major drawback of steam-methane reforming technique to produce

hydrogen?
b) Releases greenhouse gases into atmosphere
c) A niche technology
d) Poor efficiency
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The steam-methane reforming technique is the current leading
technology to produce hydrogen. However, the main drawback of steam-methane
reforming technique is that it releases greenhouse gases, carbon dioxide and carbon
monoxide into the atmosphere.
7. How does electrolysis produce hydrogen?

a) By running electricity to combine hydrogen and water
b) By separating water into hydrogen and oxygen and generating electricity
c) By passing electricity into water to separate it into hydrogen and oxygen
d) By passing electricity into water to evaporate it into hydrogen
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Electrolysis is one of the cleanest techniques to produce hydrogen.
Electricity is passed through water to separate it into oxygen and hydrogen. In
electrolysis, electricity is not generated and instead is used to perform a chemical
reaction
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8. Why is hydrogen hazardous as fuel?

a) Because of high ignition and low combustion energy
b) Because of high ignition and high combustion energy
c) Because low ignition and low combustion energy
d) Because of low ignition and high combustion energy
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydrogen is extremely dangerous as fuel. This is because hydrogen has
a low ignition temperature and releases large amounts of energy during burning –
high combustion energy. Also, it is hard to store as it tends leak easily from storage
tanks.
9. Traditionally, why is steam methane reforming preferred over electrolysis?

a) Because electrolysis requires electricity
b) Because electrolysis has lower production efficiency
c) Because steam methane reforming produces greenhouse gases
d) Because electrolysis produces greenhouse gases
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Traditionally, steam methane reforming preferred over electrolysis. This
is simply because electrolysis requires electricity. Currently, producing electricity is
expensive. As the cost of producing a unit of electricity becomes cheaper, electrolysis
will be favoured over steam methane reforming because it does not release
greenhouse gases.
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10. What is the main problem in using hydrogen as fuel for vehicles?
b) Storage
c) Fuel cell technology is not well established
d) Cars will become heavy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main problem in using hydrogen as fuel for vehicles is storage of
hydrogen. Hydrogen is difficult to store because it leaks easily. Moreover, it is
extremely hazardous as fuel due to its low ignition temperature and high
combustion energy.
11. What is a fuel cell?

a) Converts heat energy to chemical energy
b) Converts heat energy to electrical energy
c) Converts chemical energy to electrical energy
d) Converts kinetic energy to heat energy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A fuel cell works just like a battery. It converts chemical energy to
electrical energy. The chemical energy from a redox reaction occurring within the cell
is converted to electrical energy due to the flow of electrons.
12. How does hydrogen fuel cell work?

a) Membrane → hydrogen ions → electric current and recombination with oxygen
b) Electric current and recombination with oxygen → hydrogen ions → membrane
c) Hydrogen ions → membrane → electric current and recombination with oxygen
d) Recombination with oxygen → electric current → membrane → hydrogen ions
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The hydrogen ions in one chamber of the cell flow into the other
chamber through a membrane to recombine with oxygen. Since this is a redox
reaction, electric current is generated due to flow of electrons.
13. What does hydrogen fuel cell emit?

a) Water
b) Steam
c) Greenhouse gas
d) Methane
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrogen fuel cell produces water – its only emission. It does not
release any greenhouse gases or carbon compounds like methane because the
reaction occurs with two substances, hydrogen and oxygen.
14. Fuel cell vehicle is sourced by a battery.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A fuel cell vehicle (FEV) or a fuel cell electric vehicle (FCEV) is sourced by
a fuel cell. It may work in combination with a battery to supply sufficient power to
run the systems. But the source of the energy is a fuel cell.
15. High pressure containers are used to store hydrogen.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. By what means can hydrogen be stored?

a) Physically and chemically
b) As atoms
c) As ions
d) As fuel cells
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrogen can be stored either by physical or chemical means.
Hydrogen atoms cannot be stored. Ions are intermediate species and exist only in
reactions. Fuel cells are not used to store hydrogen.
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2. How is hydrogen stored physically?

a) As atoms
d) In the form of water
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For physical storage, the convention is to compress hydrogen gas and
store it. Hydrogen atoms cannot be stored. Hydrogen is not stored as water. Besides,
hydrides and water are not physical means of storing hydrogen.
3. How is hydrogen stored chemically?
a) As ions
d) In the form of ice
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Conventionally, hydrogen molecules are converted to hydrides and
stored. Ions are intermediate species and cannot be stored. Compression of
hydrogen gas is a physical means of storage.
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4. Hydrogen molecules are dissociated either _________ or _________ to form hydrides.

a) under sunlight or cold temperatures
b) by substitution or electrolysis
c) by electrolysis or heterolytically
d) homolytically or heterolytically
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydrogen molecules are dissociated either homolytically or
heterolytically to form hydrides. This technique is a chemical means to store
hydrogen. Electrolysis generates hydrogen. Substitution is a type of organic reaction.
5. Cryogenic adsorption is a physical means to store hydrogen.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cryogenic adsorption is a physical means to store hydrogen. After
adsorbing hydrogen at low temperatures, it is stored as liquid hydrogen.
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6. What are the main components of a fuel cell?

a) Anode, cathode, electrolyte
b) Anode, cathode, membrane and electrolyte (including fuel)
c) Anode, cathode
d) Anode, cathode, electrolyte and connecting wires
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fuel cell is a device that converts chemical energy to electrical energy. It
consists of the two electrodes namely, anode and cathode, a proton exchange
membrane through with protons flow and the electrolyte in each chamber.
7. What is hydrogen compressor do to hydrogen?

a) Increases both pressure and volume
b) Decreases both pressure and volume
c) Increases pressure and decreases volume
d) Decreases pressure and increases volume
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydrogen compressor is a device that increases the pressure of
hydrogen by reducing its volume. This results in the formation of compressed
hydrogen or liquid hydrogen.
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8. What is photocatalytic water splitting?

a) Splitting of water using catalyst and electricity
b) Splitting of water using electricity
c) Combining hydrogen and oxygen to form water
d) Splitting of water using light as catalyst
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Photocatalytic water splitting is an artificial photosynthesis process that
is used to dissociate water into its constituents under the presence of natural or
artificial light. It does not use chemical catalyst or electricity.
9. Which of the following uses hydrogen as fuel?

a) Vehicles
b) AA battery
c) AAA battery
d) Power plants
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Among the given options, vehicles use hydrogen as fuel. They are
generally called hydrogen vehicles or hydrogen powered vehicles. These vehicles are
powered using fuel cells.
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10. Efficiency of water electrolysis is greater than the efficiency of steam reforming.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a

a) Solar ,
b) b) geothermal,
d) d) coal
Ans. d) coal
generation?
a)Solar PV ,
b) Coal,
c) Natural gas,
d) Nuclear power
Ans. b) Coal
a) 20,000 MW ,
b) b) 30,000 MW
c) c) 40,000 MW,
d) d) 50,000 MW
a. Israel
b. India
c. Sri Lanka
d. Germany
of power.
Cities Programme?
a. Dehradun
b. Chandigarh
c. Amritsar
d. Ludhiana

established?
a. Solar Alliance
b. Solar Union
c. Solar Agency
a. Tamil Nadu
b. Telangana
c. Andhra Pradesh
d. Kerala
a) 25.2%,
b) 28.5%,
c) 46.5%,
d) 74.8%
Ans.c) 46.5%
a) 23%,
b) b) 63%,
c) c) 12%,
d) ) 74.8%
Ans.b) 36%
A) 3.8 × 1020 MW,
B) 1.7 × 1014 MW,
C) 1.392×106 MW,
D) 1.27 × 104 MW
Ans. B) 1.7 × 1014 MW
radiation
a) 47%
b) 30%
c) 23%
d) None of above
Ans. A) 47%
a) 47%
b) 30%
c) 23%
d) None of above
Ans. b) 30%
radiation
approximately
a) 1.7%
b) 3.0%
c) 2.3%
d) 10%
Ans. a) 1.7%
a) 1.27 × 104 km
b) 3.8 × 1020 km,
c) 1.7 × 1014 km,
d) 1.392×106 km,
Ans. A) 1.27 × 104 km
angle of
A) 23.45°
B) 27
C) 30
D) 32
Ans. A) 2345
A) 1353 W/m2
B) 1263 W/m2
C) 1453 W/m2
D) 1153 W/m2
E) Ans. A) 1353 W/m2
wavelength range
A) 0.3 μm to 3 μm.
B) 0 μm to 10 μm.
C) 10 μm to 100 μm.
D) 0.3 μm to 100 μm.
A) Thermal detector
B) photon detector
C) Solarimeter
D) Actinometer
A) Latitude angle
B) Longitude angle
C) Hour angle

Ans. c)

A) 80C,
B) 200C
C) 240C
D) 300C
Ans. B) 200C
D.) All of above
A) Use of pump
B) Thermo syphon
C) Under gravity
D) None of above
D) All of above
a) Absorber plate
b) Glass cover
c) Insulation
d) Casing
D) All of above.
d) Finned absorber
a. Radiations
c. Thermal energy.
d. All of these.
a) heating water
c) cooking
A) on a focal point
B) on a focal line,
D) None of above.
a. 50 – 100 °C
b. 100 – 150 °C
c. 150 – 200 °C
d. 200 – 300 °C
Ans. d. 200 – 300 °C
are called
A) heliostats,
B) Diffusers
C) Collector
D) Solar ponds
Ans. A) Heliostats
about
(A) One axes
(B) Two axes
(C) Three axes
Ans. B) Two axis

d. all of above.
c. Fuel cells
d. None of above.

b. p type junction,
c. n type junction,
d. all of above
a. the n layer,
b. the p layer.
c. band gap
d. all of above
a. 25 %
b. 17 %
c. 40 %
d. 60 %
Answer b) 17%
a. Solar cell
b. Fuel cells
c. Edison cells
Ans. a) Solar cell
the order
a. 4 kWh
b. 5.0 kWh
c. 7.5 kWh
d. 10.25 kWh
Ans. b) 5 kWh
a. 300 W/m2
b. 100 W/m2
c. 250 W/m2
d. 500 W/m2
Ans. c) 250 W/m2.
a. Solar inverter
b. Solar module
c. Solar battery
d. PV panel
a. Solar inverter
b. Solar module
d. PV panel
is
a) 5 years
b) 10 years
c) 15 years
d) 20 years
Ans. d) 20 years.

a. a. Cover plate,
c. c. insulation.
d. All of above
a. (Mi- Mf)/100,
b. (Mi-Mf)/Mi
c. (Mi-Mf)/Mf
d. (Mi-Mf)/ 1353
Ans. b. (Mi-Mf)/Mi
a. (Mi- Mf)/I
b. (Mi-Mf)/ (I A)
d. (Mi-Mf)/(Mf× I)
a. 17− 20 degree north
b. 17− 20 degree south
c. 17− 20 degree east
d. 17− 20 degree west.
Ans. b. 17− 20 degree south.
a. 1 kWp
b. 2 kWp
c. 3 kWp
d. 4 kWp
Ans. b. 2 kWp
a. 1 kWp
b. 2 kWp
c. 3 kWp
d. 4 kWp
Ans. b. 2 kWp
b. useful heat
Unit 5: Wind Energy

a. 1%
b. 2%
c. 4%
d. 10%
Ans. a. 1 %
a. wind velocity
a. Mechanical
b. Solar
c. Electrical
d. Heat
Ans. a. Mechanical
a. Mountains
b. Equator
c. Plain areas
d. Poles
Ans. c. plain areas
a. 5 – 25m/s
b. 10 – 35m/s
c. 20 – 45m/s
d. 30 – 55m/s
Ans. a. 5 – 25m/s
b. the rotor area,
c. the wind speed
d. all of above
d. None of above
a. 75%
b. 39%
c. 49%
d. 59%
Ans. d. 59%
power is around
a. Rs. 50,000
b. Rs. 70,000
c. Rs. 1,00,000
d. Rs. 1,25,000
Ans. b. Rs. 70,000
a. 1.5-2.0 %
b. 2- 3%
c. 3-4%
d. 4-5%
Ans. 1.5-2 %
a. Maharashtra
b. Tamilnadu,
c. Orissa
d. Andhra Pradesh
Ans. b. Tamilnadu
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) a) HAWT and VAWT
d. Maxican turbine
a. Mountain chains
d. All of the above
a. Reynolds number
b. Mach number
c. Beaufort number
d. Froude number
Ans. a)

direction.
a. Coriolis
b. Gravitational
c. Centripetal
d. Centrifugal
Ans. a. Coriolis
Ans. c)
is called ______
a) Cut in velocity
b) Windward
c) Cut out velocity
d) Upwind location
Ans. a)
Ans. a)
called?
b) Flat rating
c) Cut in velocity
d) Cut out velocity
c) flat rating
d) cut out velocity
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
Ans. a) Post Mill
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
Ans. b) Smock Mill
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
Ans. c) Towerr Mill
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
Ans. d) Fan Mill
Sr. Correct
No. Item Text Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Option
The capacity of a battery is Ampere hour Weight of
Current rating
1 expressed in terms of Voltage rating rating battery 3
The storage battery
Nickel-cadmium
generally used in electric Zinc carbon Lead-acid
battery
2 power station is battery battery None of above 3
industrial battery is based
8
on ..........hours discharge
3 rate 12 14 16 1
Five 2 V cells are connected
in parallel. The output 1.5 v
4 voltage is 3v 2v 4v 3
A typical output of a solar
0.1 v
5 cell is 0.26 V 1.1 V 2V 2
Which of the following
material is used in solar Silicon
6 cells? Berium Silver Aluminium 1
The efficiency of a solar cell
2 to 5%
7 may be in the range 10 to 15% 80 to 95% 70 to 80% 3
atellite power requirement Lead-acid
Solar cells
8 is provided through Dry cells battery Ni-cr battery 1
Direct Solar energy is used
9 for Water heating Distillation Drying All of above 4
The power from the sun
intercepted by the earth is
10 approximately 1.8 x 108 MW 1.8 x 1011 MW 1.8 x 1014 MW 1.8 x 1013 MW 1
The following is indirect
method of Solar energy
11 utilization Wind Biomass Wave All of above 3
position, facing _____ if
located in the northern
12 hemisphere. North East West South 4
13 The collection efficiency of Evacuating the option 1 and 2 None of above 4
Flat plate collector can be Puttng a space above
improved by selective coating the absorber
on the plate plate
The efficiency of various

increases,
types of collectors ______ decreases, remains same, depends upon
decreasing
14 with _______ temperature. increasing increasing type of collector 1
Maximum efficiency is Flat plate Evacuated tube Line focussing Paraboloid dish
3
15 obtained in collector collector collector collector
The following type of energy Chemical Mechanical
Thermal energy Electrical energy
16 is stored as latent heat energy energy 2
In the paraboloid dish
concept, the concentrator
One axis Three axis Four axis
tracks the sun by rotating
17 about Two axis 2
Solar cells use _____ to turn
18 light into energy. Semi-conductor Electromagnets Super conductor None of above 1
What is the difference Larger surface
between Photodiode and No External Bias No External area in
19 Solar cell? in Photodiode Bias in Solar cell photodiode No difference 2
What should be the band
gap of the semiconductors
to be used as solar cell
20 materials? 0.5 eV 1 eV 1.5 eV 1.9 eV 3
should not be the
characteristic of the solar High High Energy
21 cell material? High Absorption Conductivity Band High Availability 3
Which of the following type
Flat plate
of collector is used for low Paraboloid dish Line focussing
collector
22 temperature systems? collector collector All of above 4
The value of Solar Constant
1347 W/m2 1357 W/m2 1367 W/m2 1377 W/m2
23 is 3
Absorption of Solar
radiations at earth’s surface OZONE
24 occur due to presence of Water vapur Carbon di-oxide All of above 4
Direct radiation Diffuse Direct radiation
Direct radiation/
Global radiation = – Diffuse Radiation / + Diffuse 3
Diffuse Radiation
25 Radiation Direct radiation Radiation
26 The zenith angle is the angle Normal , Tangent, Normal, vertical Tangent, vertical 1
made by the sun’s rays with horizontal horizontal
the ____ to a ______
surface.
Solar radiation flux is usually Sunshine
Anemometer Pyranometer
27 measured with the help of a recorder All of above 2
Beam radiations are Sunshine
Anemometer Pyroheliometer
28 measured with recorder All of above 2
The angle made by the plane
Surface azimuth
surface with the horizontal Latitude Slope Declination
angle
29 is known as 2
The angle made in the Declination
horizontal plane between
the horizontal line due south Hour angle Surface azimuth
and the projection of the angle
normal to the surface on the Solar altitude
30 horizontal plane is angle 3
Surface azimuth angle varies
0 to 90° -90 to 90° 0 to 180° -180° to 180°
31 from 4
The hour angle is equivalent
10° per hour 15° per hour 20° per hour 25° per hour
32 to 2
The ratio of the beam
radiation flux falling on a
Radiation shape
tilted surface to that falling Tilt factor Slope None of above
factor
on a horizontal surface is
33 called the 2
Hourly beam Hourly beam Hourly beam Hourly diffuse
The global radiation radiation + radiation – radiation / radiation /
reaching a horizontal surface Hourly diffuse Hourly diffuse Hourly diffuse Hourly beam
34 on the earth is given by radiation radiation radiation radiation 1
The term photo voltaic
35 comes from ________ Spanish Greek German English 2
When the source of light is
not sun light then the photo
voltaic cell is used as Photo voltaic Photo
36 ____________ Photo diode cell Photo detector transmitter 3
The amount of photo
generated current increases
slightly with an increase in
37 _________ Temperature Photons Diode current Shunt current 1
The life span of a solar water
38 heater 6-8 yrs 5-9 yrs 10-12 yrs 10-20 yrs 3
Payback period of solar
2-4 years (B) 2-6 years (C) 4-8 years (D) 5-9 years
39 water heater 2
In Box Type Solar Cooker,
30 to 40 Degree
maximum temperature 200to 300 200-400 Degree 140 to 160
Cel.
40 obtained inside the box is Degree Cel Cel Degree Cel 4
Approximately Cooking time
of Paraboloidal Dish-type 20-30 min
41 Solar Cooker is 30-60 min 60-90 min 90-120 min 1
both
conductions as
only conduction only convection only radiation
well as
In evacuated tube collectors losses are losses are losses are
convection
suppressed suppressed suppressed
losses are
42 suppressed 2
44 water heater 2
30 to 40 Degree
Cel.
both
conductions as
well as
convection
losses are
47 suppressed 2
Which of the following type Line focusing
Paraboloid dish Flat plate None of the
of collector is used for low- parabolic
collector collector above
48 temperature systems? collector 3
direct radiation diffuse direct and None of the
Flat plate collector absorbs
49 only radiation only diffuse both above 3
Temperature attained by a
90 Degree cel. 150 Degree cel. 300 Degree cel. 400 Degree cel.
50 flat-plate collector is a range 1
of
A cylindrical parabolic seasonal
2-axis tracking 1-axis tracking no tracking
51 concentrator requires adjustment 2
Concentrated solar power
(CSP) systems use ____ to
Lenses Mirrors Trackers All of above
focus a large area of sunlight
52 into a small beam. 4
The ratio of the area of the
aperture of the system to collector concentration temperature
collector COP
the area of the receiver is efficiency ratio range
53 known as 2
Three parabolic
Compound parabolic One parabolic No parabolic
mirror Two parabolic
concentrator consists of mirror segment segments
54 segments mirror segments 3
Concentrator, concentration 3 to 7 10 to 12 1 to 2 0.5 to 1
55 the ratio is between 1
Concentrator, the
5 to 10 5 to 30 5 to 20 5 to 7
concentration ratio is
56 between 2
Hemispherical Bowl Mirror seasonal
57 Concentrator requires adjustment 2
1000 2000 3000 4000
58 concentration ratio is 4
When hot water is taken out
from the hot water outlet,
the same is replaced by cold
Active heating Passive heating Neutral heating chemical heating
water from cold water
makeup tank fixed above
the level of hot water tank
59 this scheme is known as 2
conditions, a solar water 265 day in the 285 days in the 330 days in the 300 days in the
heater can be used for year year year year
60 about 4
Surface azimuth angle varies -180 to + 180 0 to + 180 -180 to + 90 - 80 to + 180
61 from deg.cel. deg.cel. deg.cel. deg.cel. 1
62 The angle made in the Surface azimuth Hour angle Declination Solar altitude 1
horizontal plane between angle angle
the horizontal line due south
and the projection of the
normal to the surface on the
horizontal plane is
The hour angle is equivalent 77 degree per 65 degree per 25 degree per 15 degre per
63 to hour hour hour hour 1
To how many types are flat
plate collectors divided
2
depending on the type of
64 heat transfer fluid? 3 4 5 1
The function of a solar
collector is of converting radiations electrical energ all of above
65 solar energy into thermal energy 2
Liquid heating collectors are Power
Cooking Traping sunlight
66 mainly used for ________ Heating water generation 2
_______ is glazing which
limits the radiation and Absorber plate Transperant selective surface insulation
67 convection heat losses. cover 2
In thermal heating
system………. is provided to Insulation casing body cover
68 minimize heat loss? surface plate 1
Which part of flat plate Transparent
Absorber plate Fins
69 collectors is coated in black? cover Insulation 3
Which type of absorber
increases the heat transfer
Non-porous Overlapped glass
area over a simple flat plate Finned absorber
absorber plate absorber
absorber of the same Porous
70 capacity? absorber plate 1
Angle made by a plane
surface with horizontal is Altitude angle Zenith angle Hour angle
71 called ________ slope 2
Why direct heating by hot High Low
air cannot be done in some The material can temperature temperature not Conduction gives
72 cases? degrade not required required best results 1
What is the drum dryer
called if it is open to the
73 atmosphere? Open dryer Box dryer Trough dryer Trench dryer 3
74 With what is the feed Spray Atomizer Nucleator Heat exchanger 2
introduced in the spary
dryer?
Critical
Critical moisture moisture Moisture
Drying rate curve is plot content, critical content, drying Critical humidity, content, drying
75 between _____ and _____ humidity rate drying rate rate 4
The point where the

Equilibrium Critical
constant drying period
moisture moisture Bound moisture
changes to falling rate
content content Critical humidity content
76 period is called 2
Evacuated Tubes is
77 calculated by 2
Parabolic dish collector can Solaer water Water
78 be used for Solar cooker Heater Disalination all above 4
Statement 1: Cabinet tray
dryers are used for storing
grains.
dryers are used for low cost
79 foods. True, False True, True False, False False, True 4
If 12 Volt 40 Ah 2 Batteries
are connected in paralle and
two more same capacity are
connec in serice to each .
Then total voltage and
80 ampre will be 12 Volt 40 AH 12 Volt 80 AH 24 Volt 80 Ah 24 Volt 40Ah 3
Electricity is Electricity
Standalone solar PV system External External avaliabe but load availabe but
is suitable for the area Electricity is not Electricity is shading is energy rates
81 where available availabe present ahre high 1
Temperature
Temperature range in Temperature Temperature
range in parabolic range in range in
parabolic touugh trough solar parabolic Trough parabolic Trough
dish solar collector is solar collector is solar collector is
collector is more more than more than more than
Which of the statement is than Flat plate evacuated tube Parabolic Dish Fresnell solar
82 False solar collector solar collector solar collector collector 3
A solar dryer in which solar
energy collection and drying
take place in separate units Distributed Direct Type of Indirect type of
83 is known as a solar dryer Dryer spray dryer Tunnel dryer 1
Total cost of Stand alone Less than the Greater than Less than Off
same capacity solar PV online solar PV the online solar Equal to online Line Solar PV
84 system is system PV system solar PV system system 2
Thermal Efficiency of the
Plat plate solar collector is in
85 the range of 10-15% 15-20% 20-25% 25-30% 2
For a 300 Wp solar panel if
out put voltage is 24 volt
86 then curent capacity will be 12.5 Amp 14.5 Amp 20 Amp 10.5 Amp
If solar radiation is 750
W/m2 find how much
energy can be collected by a
unit area flat plate solar
collector with 18 %
87 efficiency 200 W 135 W 145 W 150W 2
Transmitance and
Absorption factor solar
88 radiation is denoted by ζδ δФ ἀζ τἀ 4
Parabolic dish collector One axis of sun Two axis of sun Four axis of sun Six axis of sun
89 needs tracking tracking tracking tracking 2
In india Solar Evacuated
90 tube collector is arrange Due South Due North Due East Due West 1
Net metering system is used Off line Solar PV Online Solar PV Parabolic trough Flat plate
91 in system system solar system collector system 2
How many amounts of LPG
Cylinder can be saved by the Approximate 30 Approximate 40 Approximate 50 Approximate 60
use of the Community Solar LPG Cylinder per LPG Cylinder per LPG Cylinder per LPG Cylinder per
92 Cooker? year year year year 1
conditions, a solar water
heater can be used for 265 day in the 300 day in the 325 day in the 365 day in the
93 about year year year year 2
Mass of water to be
removed to dry the matter
94 of 10 kg from 50 % initial 4.4 kg 5.6 kg 5.8 kg 6 kg 1
moisture to 10 % final
moister is
Heat loss by convection is Flat plate solar Evacuated Tube Parabolic solar Parabolic Trough
95 less in collector Solar Collector collector solar collector 2
96 for Water heating Distillation Drying All of the above 4
98 utilization Wind energy Biomass energy Wave energy All of the above 4
99 hemisphere North South East West 2
evacuating the
The collection efficiency of putting a space above
Flat plate collector can be selective coating the absorber None of the
100 improved by on the plate plate both (A) and (B) above 3
types of collectors ______ increases, decreases, remains same, depends upon
101 with _______ temperature decreasing increasing increasing type of collector 2
102 obtained in collector collector collector collector 4
The complement of zenith Solar altitude Surface azimuth Solar azimuth
104 angle is angle angle angle Slope 1
105 to 10° per hour 15° per hour 20° per hour 25° per hour 2
tilted surface to that falling
on a horizontal surface is Radiation shape None of the
106 called the factor Tilt factor Slope above 2
The correction has a
magnitude of ___ minutes
for every degree difference
107 in longitude 2 4 6 8 3
108 from 0 to 90° -90 to 90° 0 to 180° -180° to 180° 4
109 measured with the help of a Anemometer Pyranometer recorder All of the above 2
The zenith angle is the angle
made by the sun’s rays with
the ____ to a ______ normal, tangent,
110 surface horizontal horizontal normal, vertical tangent, vertical 1
111 is 1347 W/m2 1357 W/m2 1367 W/m2 1377 W/m2 3
The extraterrestrial
radiation flux varies by ____
112 % over a year ± 1.1 ± 2.2 ± 3.3 ± 4.4 3
113 is stored as latent heat Thermal energy energy Electrical energy energy 1
tracks the sun by rotating None of the
114 about One axes Two axes Three axes above 2
Which of the following type Line focussing
of collector is used for low Flat plate parabolic Paraboloid dish
115 temperature systems? collector collector collector All of the above 1
Which is most common
source of energy from which
116 electricity is produced? Hydroelectricity Wind energy Coal Solar energy 3
In what form is solar energy Ultraviolet Infrared Electromagnetic Transverse
117 is radiated from the sun? Radiation radiation waves waves 3
Metal
What does MHD stands for Magneto Hydro Hydrogen Micro Hybrid Metering Head
118 in the energy field? Dynamic Detox Drive Differential 1
The scattered solar radiation Infrared
119 is called ____________ Direct Radiation Beam Radiation Diffuse radiation Radiation 3
when the sun
. Insolation is less when the sun is right above
120 ____________ low head at night at sun rise 1
Unit 1: Solar Energy Principles- 6 Hrs
Present solar energy scenario, world energy futures, governing bodies (self-
study), solar radiations and its measurements, solar constant, solar radiation
geometry, solar radiation data, estimation of average solar radiation, solar
radiation on tilted surface.
Unit 2: Solar Thermal Systems and Applications 8 Hrs

Types of Solar thermal collector, flat plate collector analysis, Evacuated tube
collectors (ETC) analysis, its design and application, solar air heaters and its
types, solar distillation. Solar Concentrating collectors: types- line and point
concentrator, theory of Concentrating collectors, parabolic trough collector,
parabolic dish collector, solar tower, concentrated Fresnel linear receiver
(CFLR).
Unit 3: Solar Photovoltaic and Applications 6 Hrs

Forming the PN junction solar cells & its applications, Structure of a solar
cell, types of modules, PV array, solar cell equation, Fill factor and maximum
power, Grid aspects of solar power, equipment used in solar photovoltaic
plants, Power Conditioning Equipment-inverters, Regulators, Other Devices;
System Analysis-Design Procedure, Design Constraints, Other
Considerations.
Unit 4: Case Study on Solar Energy Applications 6 Hrs

Case study 1: Design of solar food drier for domestic purpose referring
existing system
Case study 2: Design of parabolic dish solar cooker for domestic purpose
referring existing system
Case study 3: Design of solar photovoltaic system for domestic purpose
1-Direct Solar energy is used for

(A) Water heating
(B) Distillation
(C) Drying
(D) All of the above
2-The power from the sun intercepted by the earth is approximately

(A) 1.8 x 108 MW
(B) 1.8 x 1011 MW
(C) 1.8 x 1014 MW
(D) 1.8 x 1017 MW
3-The following is indirect method of Solar energy utilization

(A) Wind energy
(B) Biomass energy
(C) Wave energy
4-A liquid flat plate collector is usually held tilted in a fixed position, facing _____ if located in the
northern hemisphere.
(A) North
(B) South
(C) East
(D) West
5-The collection efficiency of Flat plate collector can be improved by

(A) putting a selective coating on the plate
(B) evacuating the space above the absorber plate
(C) both (A) and (B)
6-The efficiency of various types of collectors ______ with _______ temperature.

(A) increases, decreasing
(B) decreases, increasing
(C) remains same, increasing
(D) depends upon type of collector
7-Maximum efficiency is obtained in

8-The following type of energy is stored as latent heat

(A) Thermal energy
(B) Chemical energy
(C) Electrical energy
(D) Mechanical energy
9-Which of the following type of collector is used for low temperature systems?
10-In the paraboloid dish concept, the concentrator tracks the sun by rotating about
(A) One axes
(B) Two axes
(C) Three axes
11-The sun subtends an angle of _____ minutes at the earth’s surface.

(A) 22
(B) 32
(C) 42
(D) 52
12-The value of Solar Constant is

(A) 1347 W/m2
(B) 1357 W/m2
(C) 1367 W/m2
(D) 1377 W/m2
13-The extraterrestrial radiation flux varies by ____ % over a year.

(A) ± 1.1
(B) ± 2.2
(C) ± 3.3
(D) ± 4.4
14-The following is (are) laws of black body radiation.

(A) Plank’s law
(B) Stefan-Boltzmann law
15-Absorption of Solar radiations at earth’s surface occur due to presence of

(A) Ozone
(B) Water vapours
(C) Carbon di-oxide
16-Global radiation =
(A) Direct radiation – Diffuse Radiation
(B) Direct radiation + Diffuse Radiation
(C) Direct radiation / Diffuse Radiation
(D) Diffuse Radiation / Direct radiation
17-The zenith angle is the angle made by the sun’s rays with the ____ to a ______ surface.
(A) normal, horizontal
(B) tangent, horizontal
(C) normal, vertical
(D) tangent, vertical
18-Solar radiation flux is usually measured with the help of a
(A) Anemometer
(B) Pyranometer
(C) Sunshine recorder
19-Beam radiations are measured with

(A) Anemometer
(B) Pyrheliometer
20-The angle made by the plane surface with the horizontal is known as
(A) Latitude
(B) Slope
(C) Surface azimuth angle
(D) Declination
21-The angle made in the horizontal plane between the horizontal line due south and the
projection of the normal to the surface on the horizontal plane is
(A) Hour angle
(B) Declination
(D) Solar altitude angle
22-Surface azimuth angle varies from

(A) 0 to 90°
(B) -90 to 90°
(C) 0 to 180°
(D) -180° to 180°
23-The hour angle is equivalent to

(A) 10° per hour
(B) 15° per hour
(C) 20° per hour
(D) 25° per hour
24-The complement of zenith angle is

(A) Solar altitude angle
(B) Surface azimuth angle
(C) Solar azimuth angle
(D) Slope
25-The correction has a magnitude of ___ minutes for every degree difference in longitude.
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
26-The global radiation reaching a horizontal surface on the earth is given by

(A) Hourly beam radiation + Hourly diffuse radiation
(B) Hourly beam radiation – Hourly diffuse radiation
(C) Hourly beam radiation / Hourly diffuse radiation
(D) Hourly diffuse radiation / Hourly beam radiation
27-The ratio of the beam radiation flux falling on a tilted surface to that falling on a horizontal
surface is called the
(A) Radiation shape factor
(B) Tilt factor
(C) Slope
Answers:
1-(D), 2-(B), 3-(D), 4-(B), 5-(C), 6-(B), 7-(D), 8-(A), 9-(A), 10-(B), 11-(B), 12-(C), 13-
(C), 14-(C), 15-(D), 16-(B), 17-(A), 18-(B), 19-(B), 20-(B), 21-(C), 22-(D), 23-(B), 24-
(A), 25-(C), 26-(A), 27-(B)
1. The function of a solar collector is to convert.......
A.Solar Energy into Electricity

B.Solar Energy radiation
C.Solar Energy thermal energy
D.Solar Energy mechanical energy
✔ View Answer

✍ Your Comments
2. Most of the solar radiation received on earth surface lies within the range
of........
A.0.2 to 0.4 microns
B.0.38 to 0.78 microns
C.0 to 0.38 microns
D.0.5 to 0.8 microns
✔ View Answer

✍ Your Comments
3. For satellite the source of energy is........
A.Cryogenic storage
B.Battery
C.Solar cell
D.Any of the above
✔ View Answer
C.Solar cell
✍ Your Comments
4. Reflecting mirrors used for exploiting solar energy are called........
A.Mantle
B.Ponds
C.Diffusers
D.Heliostats
✔ View Answer
D.Heliostats
✍ Your Comments
5. The output of solar cell is of the order of........
A.1 W
B.5 W
C.10 W
D.20 W
✔ View Answer
A.1 W
6. Flat plate collector absorbs.......
A.Direct radiation only

B.Diffuse radiation only
C.Direct and diffuse both
D.All of the above
✔ View Answer

✍ Your Comments
7. A pyranometer is used for mesurement of........

C.Direct as well as diffuse radiation
D.All of the above
✔ View Answer

✍ Your Comments
8. Most widely used solar material is........
A.Arsenic
B.Cadmium
C.Silicon
D.Steel
✔ View Answer
C.Silicon
✍ Your Comments
9. Photovoltaic cell or solar cell converts........
A.Thermal energy into electricity

B.Electromagnetic radiation directly into electricity
C.Solar radiation into thermal energy
D.Solar radiation into kinetic energy
✔ View Answer

✍ Your Comments
10. Temperature attained by a flat-plate collector is of the........
A.Order of about 900C

B.Range of 1000C to 1500C
C.Above 1500C
D.None of the above
✔ View Answer
11. The voltage of a single solar cell is.......
A.0.2 v
B.0.5 v
C.1.0 v
D.2.0 v
✔ View Answer
C.0.5 v
✍ Your Comments
12. Solar cells,for power generation,entail the following major

disadvantages........
A.Variable power
B.High cost
C.Lack of availability
D.Large area requirement
✔ View Answer
B.High cost
✍ Your Comments
13. Thermionic converterutilizes........
A.Thermionic emission effect

B.Peltier effect
C.Seebeck effect
D.None of the above
✔ View Answer

✍ Your Comments
14. Largest geothermal plant in operation is in........
A.Maxico
B.Italy
C.Russia
D.California
✔ View Answer
B.Italy
✍ Your Comments
15. Bulb turbines are........turbines
A.Low head
B.High head
C.High speed
D.High pressure
✔ View Answer
A.Low head
This set of Applied Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Photovoltaic Cell and Solar Cell Applications”.
1. The term photo voltaic comes from ________
a) Spanish
b) Greek
c) German
d) English
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The term photo voltaic comes from Greek word phos means light. The volt is
the unit of emf which was named after inventor of the battery.
2. The volt is the units of emf that was named after its inventor _________
a) Alessandro volta
b) Alxender volta
c) Alexa volta
d) Alexandro volta
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The volt is the units of that was named after its inventor Alessandro volta. He
is an Italian physicist. The term photo voltaic comes from Greek.
3. The term photo voltaic is in use since _________
a) 1840
b) 1844
c) 1849
d) 1850
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The term photo voltaic is in use since 1849. Photo voltaic is a field related to
practical application of photo voltaic cells.
4. When the source of light is not sun light then the photo voltaic cell is used as
____________
a) Photo diode
b) Photo voltaic cell
c) Photo detector
d) Photo transmitter
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the source of light is not the sun light then the photo voltaic cell is used
as the photo detector. The example of the photo detector is the infra-red detectors.
5. The region where the electrons and holes diffused across the junction is called ________
a) Depletion Junction
b) Depletion region
c) Depletion space
d) Depletion boundary
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The region where the electrons and holes diffused across the junction is called
depletion region. It is also called as space charge region.
6. The current produce by the solar cell can be given by _________
a) IL – ID + ISh
b) IL + ID – ISh
c) IL + ID + ISh
d) IL – ID – ISh
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The current produced by the solar cell can be given by I=IL – ID – ISh. Where
IL = photo generated current in amperes, ID = diode current in amperes, ISh = shunt current
in amperes.
7. The amount of photo generated current increases slightly with an increase in _________
a) Temperature
b) Photons
c) Diode current
d) Shunt current
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The amount of the photo generated current is slightly increased due to an
increase in the temperature. If the photo generated current increases then the output
current increases.
8. Solar cells are made from bulk materials that are cut into wafer of _________ thickness.
a) 120-180μm
b) 120-220μm
c) 180-220μm
d) 180-240μm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Solar cells are made from the bulk materials that are cut into wafers of
thickness 180-240μm. Many currently available cells are cut into wafers.
9. __________ is one of the most important materials is also known as solar grade silicon.
a) Crushed silicon
b) Crystalline silicon
c) Powdered silicon
d) Silicon
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The crystalline silicon is one of the most important materials that are also
called as solar grade silicon. The mono crystalline, poly crystalline silicon and ribbon silicon
are the other types of silicon that are used.
10. __________ photo voltaic devices in the form of thin films.
a) Cadmium Telluroide
b) Cadmium oxide
c) Cadmium sulphide
d) Cadmium sulphate
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cadmium telluroide is the photo voltaic devices in the form of thin films. Those
are used to absorb and convert the sun light into electricity.
11. __________ is a direct band gap material.
a) Copper Indium Gallium Selenide
b) Copper Selenide
c) Copper Gallium Telluride
d) Copper Indium Gallium Diselenide
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Copper Indium Gallium Selenide is a direct band gap material. It has the
highest efficiency among the film materials. The efficiency is about 20%.
12. Dye-sensitized solar cells are made from ________ organic dye.
a) Ruthium melallo
b) Aniline
c) Safranine
d) Induline
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dye-sensitized solar cells are made from Ruthium melallo organic dye in the
form of mono layer of light absorbing material and mesoporous layer of nano particles.
13. Quantum dot solar cells are based on _______
a) Gratzel cell
b) Solar cell
c) Voltaic cell
d) Galvanic cell
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Quantum dot solar cells are based on the Gratzel cell or dye sensitized solar
cell. In dye-sensitized solar cell the nano particulate is titanium dioxide that amplifies the
surface area greatly.
14. The quantum dot used are _______
a) Cds
b) CdTe
c) PbO
d) GaAs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The quantum dot used is generally is Cds. The other quantum dots that are
used is cadmium selluroide, PbS etc.
15. Organic polymer solar cells are made from Polyphenylene.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Organic polymer solar cells are made from organic semi conductors. Some of
them are Polyphenylene, Vinylene, Carbon fullerenes.
MCQ No. 1.00

Next
Renewable energy souces

Sunlight, air, soil, and water are examples of
(A) renewable resources
(B) non- renewable resources
(C) conventional resources
(D) non-natural resources
Answer
(A)
Which of the following is a disadvantage of most of the renewable energy
sources?
(A) Unreliable supply
(B) Highly polluting
(C) High waste disposal cost
(D) High running cost
Answer
(A)
Which among the following is not a renewable source of energy?
(A) Biomass energy
(B) Solar energy
(C) Hydro-power
(D) Geothermal energy
Answer
(A)
Identify the non-renewable energy resource from the following:

(A) fuel cells
(B) wind power
(C) wave power
(D) coal
Answer
(D)
Which parameter is used as an index for the standard of living of the people of
a country?
(A) Industrial production
(B) Number of vehicles per house
(C) Per capita energy consumption
(D) Population density
Answer
(C)
Out of energy, economy, and environment
(A) only energy and environment are related
(B) only energy and economy are related
(C) all the three are interrelated
(D) all the three are independent
Answer
(C)
Global warming is mainly caused due to
(A) emissions of heat from engines
(B) emission of CO2 due to the burning of fossil fuels
(C) use of nuclear energy
(D) air pollution
Answer
(B)
Global warming would lead to
(A) reduced ozone depletion
(B) acid rains
(C) change of climate pattern and its severity
(D) increase in the efficiency of heat engines
Answer
(C)
The resources that are inexhaustible and replace by nature are known as
(A) non- renewable resources
(B) renewable resources
Answer
(B)
Which renewable resource generate maximum power in India?
(A) Wind
(B) Solar
(C) Geothermal
(D) Biomass
Answer
(B)
Which of the area can often replace conventional fuel by renewable energy?
(A) Space heating
(B) Transportation
(C) Electricity generation
Answer
(D)
Solar energy-
Which of the following energy has the greatest potential among all the sources
of renewable energy?
(A) Solar energy
(B) Wind energy
(C) Thermal energy
(D) Hydro-electrical energy
Answer
(A)
What is the rate of solar energy reaching the earth's surface?

(A) 1026 W
(B) 865 W
(C) 1016 W
(D) 1020 W
Answer
(C)
What is the total amount of solar energy received by earth and the atmosphere?
(A) 12.8 ×1024 JYear
(B) 2.8 ×1024 JYear
(C) 22.8 ×1024 JYear
(D) 3.8 ×1024 JYear
Answer
(D)
Which is the most common source of energy from which electricity is produced?
(A) Hydroelectricity
(B) Wind energy
(C) Coal
(D) Solar energy
Answer
(C)
In what form is solar energy is radiated from the sun?
(A) Ultraviolet Radiation
(B) Electromagnetic waves
(C) Infrared radiation
(D) Transverse waves
Answer
(B)
Solar radiation which reaches the surface without scattering or absorbed is
called _____________
(A) Beam Radiation
(B) Infrared radiation
(C) Ultraviolet radiation
(D) Diffuse radiation
Answer
(A)
Approximately ______ of energy striking the outer atmosphere of the earth
reaches its surface.
(A) 30 %
(B) 45 %
(C) 50 %
(D) 47 %
Answer
(D)
8. Solar radiation includes

(A) visible light, ultraviolet light
(B) infrared, radio waves
(C) X-rays, and gamma rays
Answer
(D)
The scattered solar radiation is called ____________
(A) Direct Radiation
(B) Beam Radiation
(C) Diffuse radiation
(D) Infrared Radiation
Answer
(C)
Sunlight at Earth's surface is around
(A) 52 to 55 percent infrared
(B) 52 to 65 percent infrared
(C) 20 to 55 percent infrared
(D) 52 to 75 percent infrared
Answer
(A)
Which is the most dangerous radiation?
(A) Alpha radiation
(B) Beta radiation
(C) Gamma radiation
Answer
(A)
(A) 42 to 63 percent visible
(B) 32 to 43 percent visible
(C) 22 to 73 percent visible
(D) 42 to 43 percent visible
Answer
(D)
(A) 0.6 to 0.10 percent ultraviolet
(B) 3 to 5 percent ultraviolet
(C) 0.3 to 0.8 percent ultraviolet
(D) 0.1 to 0.5 percent ultraviolet
Answer
(B)
Solar radiation received at any point of earth is called ______________
(A) Insolation
(B) Beam Radiation
(C) Diffuse Radiation
(D) Infrared rays
Answer
(A)
Which of the following type of energy is stored as latent heat?
(A) Chemical energy
(B) Thermal energy
Answer
(B)
Direct Solar energy is used for
(A) water heating
(B) distillation
(C) drying
(D) all of the above
Answer
(D)
The power from the sun intercepted by the earth is approximately
(A) 1.8×109 MW
(B) 1.8×1015 MW
(C) 1.8×1011 MW
(D) 1.8×1019 MW
Answer
(C)
Which of the following is indirect method of Solar energy utilization?
(A) Wind energy
(B) Biomass energy
(C) Wave energy
Answer
(D)
The ratio of the beam radiation flux falling on a tilted surface to that falling on a
horizontal surface is called the
(B) Tilt factor
(C) Slope
Answer
(B)
Beam radiations are measured with the help of
(A) Anemometer
(B) Sunshine recorder
(C) Pyrheliometer
Answer
(C)
Solar radiation flux is usually measured with the help of a

(A) Pyranometer
(B) Anemometer
Answer
(A)
Reflecting mirrors used for exploiting solar energy is known as
(A) Mantle
(B) Ponds
(C) Diffusers
(D) Heliostats
Answer
(D)
The global radiation reaching a horizontal surface on the earth is given by
(A) Total beam radiation /Hourly diffuse radiation
(B) Hourly beam radiation /Hourly diffuse radiation
(C) Hourly beam radiation + Hourly diffuse radiation
(D) Hourly beam radiation - Hourly diffuse radiation
Answer
(C)
A pyranometer is used for measurement of
(A) Direct as well as diffuse radiation
(B) Direct radiation only
(C) Diffuse radiation only
Answer
(A)
Most widely used solar material is
(A) Arsenic
(B) Silicon
(C) Cadmium
(D) Steel
Answer
Diffused radiation has

(A) no Unique direction
(B) unique direction
(C) short-wavelength as compared to beam radiation
(D) large magnitude as compared to beam radiation
Answer
(A)
In extraterrestrial radiation has a wavelength in the range of

(A) 0.2 to 4 μm
(B) 0.2 to 5 μm
(C) 0.2 to 8 μm
(D) 0.2 to 10 μm
Answer
(A)
For satellite the source of energy is
(A) Cryogenic storage
(B) Battery
(C) Solar cell
(D) Any of the above
Answer
(D)
Solar energy can be directly converted into electrical energy by
(A) photoelectric cell
(B) dry cell
(C) rechargeable cell
(D) battery
Answer
(A)
Solar energy can be used to cook food in
(A) solar cooker
(B) woodstove
(C) gas oven
(D) traditional oven
Answer
(A)
Instrument used to measure direct beam of solar irradiance is called
____________
(A) Pyrheliometer
(B) Pyranometer
(C) Net radiometer
(D) Sunshine recorder
Answer
(A)
Solar energy can be converted into
(A) thermal energy only
(B) electrical energy only
(C) both thermal energy and Electrical energy
(D) none of the above
Answer
(C)
The energy radiated from sun in visible region will be around ____________
(A) 63 %
(B) 53 %
(C) 33 %
(D) 43 %
Answer
(D)
Global radiation is given by
(A) Direct radiation Diffuse Radiation
(B) Direct radiation - Diffuse Radiation
(C) Diffuse Radiation Direct radiation
(D) Direct radiation + Diffuse Radiation
Answer
(D)
The value of solar constant can be given as __________
(A) 1367 Wm2
(B) 1377 Wm2
(C) 1477 Wm2
(D) 1479 Wm2
Answer
(A)
Temperature on the sun is around ______________
(A) 575 – 600 K
(B) 7550 – 8000 K
(C) 4570 – 6000 K
(D) 5750 – 6000 K
Answer
(D)
Around how much percentage, the incident radiant flux can be absorbed by the
materials present on earth?
(A) 48 %
(B) 37 %
(C) 43 %
(D) 50 %
Answer
(A)
The heat energy absorbed by a known area in a fixed time is determined with
the help of an instrument called
(A) Pyrometer
(B) Pyrheliomete
Answer
(B)
The approximate distribution of the flow of the sun’s energy to the earth’s surface
is
(A) 53 % is reflected back to space
(B) 53 % is transmitted to the earth
(C) 9 % is scattered
(D) 22 % is absorbed in the atmosphere
Answer
(C)
The complement of the zenith angle is
(D) Slope
Answer
(A)
40. Angle made by a plane surface with horizontal is called ________
(A) Altitude angle
(B) Zenith angle
(C) Slope
(D) Hour Angle
Answer
(C)
Air mass ratio is minimum
(A) when the sun is at the zenith
(B) at sunrise
(C) at sunset
Answer
(A)
The angle of deviation of the normal to the surface from the local meridian is
called _________
(A) Solar azimuth angle
(C) Solar altitude
(D) Hour angle
Answer
(B)
The angle is measured from a plane and which is equal to the angle between
the beam of rays and normal to the plane is called __________
(A) Declination
(B) Azimuth angle
(C) Hour angle
(D) Incident angle
Answer
(D)
For a one-degree change in longitude, the change in solar time is
(A) 4 seconds
(B) 1 minute
(C) 4 minutes
(D) 15 minutes
Answer
(C)
The vector sum of the components along the line normal of the titled surface in
a direction normal to the tilted surface is called as__________
(A) Incident angle
(B) Declination
(C) Solar intensity
(D) Hour angle
Answer
(C)
The time from sunrise to sunset is termed as _______________
(A) slope
(B) day length
(C) local solar time
(D) solar intensity
Answer
(B)
What is the angle of declination on the 305th day of year and what day is it?
(A) -15.06°, November 1
(B) -15.06°, November 2
(C) -55.06°, November 2
(D) -35.06°, November 2
Answer
(A)
What is the angle of declination on May 12 considering it’s a leap year?

(A) 30.2°
(B) 30.4°
(C) 30.34°
(D) 20.34°
Answer
(D)
Surface azimuth angle varies from
(A) -90° to 180°
(B) -180° to 180°
(C) -90° to 270°
(D) -90° to 360°
Answer
(B)
The angle made in the horizontal plane between the horizontal line due south
and the projection of the normal to the surface on the horizontal plane is
(A) Surface azimuth angle
(B) Hour angle
(C) Declination
Answer
(A)
The hour angle is equivalent to
(A) 77 ° per hour
(B) 65 ° per hour
(C) 25 ° per hour
(D) 15 ° per hour
Answer
(D)
The correction has a magnitude of ___ minutes for every degree difference in
longitude.
(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 9
Answer
(A)
The sun subtends an angle of _____ minutes at the earth’s surface.
(A) 33
(B) 32
(C) 30
(D) 35
Answer
(B)
The zenith angle is the angle made by the sun’s rays with the ____ to a ______
surface.
(A) tangent, horizontal
(B) normal, vertical
(C) normal, horizontal
Answer
(C)
To how many types are flat plate collectors divided depending on the type of
heat transfer fluid?
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer
(B)
The function of a solar collector is of converting solar energy into
(A) radiations
(B) thermal energy
(C) electrical energy
Answer
(B)
Liquid heating collectors are mainly used for _________
(A) cooking
(B) generating electricity
(C) heating water
(D) trapping sunlight
Answer
(C)
_______ is glazing which limits the radiation and convection heat losses.
(A) Absorber plate
(B) Transparent cover
(C) Selective surface
(D) Insulation
Answer
(B)
Which is provided to minimize heat loss?

(A) Insulation
(B) Absorber plate
(C) Surface plate
(D) Casing
Answer
(A)
Which part of flat plate collectors is coated in black?
(A) Transparent cover
(B) Insulation
(C) Absorber plate
(D) Fins
Answer
(C)
The frame which contains all the parts is called __________
(A) box
(B) plate
(C) enclose
(D) container
Answer
(D)
In which collector does airflow without any obstruction?
(A) Porous absorber plate
(B) Non-porous absorber plate
(C) Over lapped glass absorber
(D) Finned absorber
Answer
(B)
In which absorber matrix material is arranged and the back-absorber plate is
eliminated?
(A) Non-porous absorber plate
(B) Over lapped glass absorber
(C) Finned absorber
(D) Porous absorber plate
Answer
(D)
Which type of absorber increases the heat transfer area over a simple flat plate
(A) Finned absorber
(B) Porous absorber plate
(C) Non-porous absorber plate
(D) Over lapped glass absorber
Answer
(A)
In which type of absorber plate is the overall flow direction is along with the
absorber glass plate?
(A) Finned absorber
(B) Overlapped glass absorber
Answer
(B)
How is heat loss overcome in liquid plate collectors?
(A) By casing
(B) By the transparent cover
(C) By insulation
(D) From provided tubes
Answer
(C)
Liquid flat-plate collector is usually held tilted in a fixed position, facing _____ if
located in the northern hemisphere.
(A) South
(B) North
(C) East
(D) West
Answer
(A)
The efficiency of Flat plate collector can be improved by
(C) depends upon type of collector
(D) remains the same, increasing
Answer
(B)
Maximum efficiency is obtained in
(C) Line focusing collector
Answer
(D)
The value of the concentration ratio of a flat plate collector is

(A) 1
(B) 100
(C) 10
(D) 1000
Answer
(B)
In evacuated tube collectors
(A) only conduction losses are suppressed
(B) both conductions as well as convection losses are suppressed
(C) only convection losses are suppressed
(D) only radiation losses are suppressed
Answer
(B)
Which of the following type of collector is used for low-temperature systems?
(A) Line focusing parabolic collector
(B) Paraboloid dish collector
(C) Flat plate collector
Answer
(C)
In the paraboloid dish concept, the concentrator tracks the sun by rotating about
(A) One axis
(B) Two axis
(C) Three axis
Answer
(B)
(A) direct radiation only
(B) diffuse radiation only
(C) direct and diffuse both
Answer
(C)
Temperature attained by a flat-plate collector is a range of
(A) 90 °C
(B) 150 °C
(C) 250 °C
(D) 350 °C
Answer
(A)
In Parabolic Trough Collector temperature attained in the range of
(A) 350 °C
(B) 400 °C
(C) 450 °C
(D) 650 °C
Answer
(B)
A cylindrical parabolic concentrator requires
(A) 2-axis tracking
(B) 1-axis tracking
(C) no tracking
(D) seasonal adjustment
Answer
(B)
A Scheffler Solar concentrator has
(A) 1-axis tracking
(B) seasonal adjustment
(C) 2-axis tracking
(D) no tracking
Answer
(C)
Concentrated solar power (CSP) systems use ____ to focus a large area of
sunlight into a small beam.
(A) Lenses
(B) Mirrors
(C) Trackers
Answer
(D)
The ratio of energy actually absorbed and transferred to the heat-transport fluid
by the collector is known as
(A) collector efficiency
(B) concentration ratio
(C) temperature range
Answer
(A)
The ratio of the area of the aperture of the system to the area of the receiver is
known as
Answer
(B)
The absorber plate is usually made from a metal sheet ranging in thickness from
(A) 0.8 to 3 mm
(B) 0.7 to 6 mm
(C) 0.5 to 5 mm
(D) 0.2 to 1 mm
Answer
(D)
In which design of absorber plate liquid flows only in the pipe?
(A) Rectangular or cylindrical full sandwich
(B) Pipe and fin-type
(C) Roll bond
Answer
(B)
In which design of absorber plate wetted area and water capacity are high?
(C) Roll bond
Answer
(A)
For low-temperature requirements such as warming of a swimming pool which
type absorber suitable?
(A) Pipe and fin-type
(B) Roll bond
(C) Rectangular or cylindrical full sandwich
Answer
(C)
For domestic and industrial applications which type absorber suitable?
(C) Roll bond
Answer
(B)
Compound parabolic concentrator consists of
(A) One parabolic mirror segment
(B) Two parabolic mirror segments
(C) Three parabolic mirror segments
(D) No parabolic mirror segments
Answer
(B)
In Compound Parabolic Concentrator, concentration the ratio is between
(A) 3 to 7
(B) 3 to 10
(C) 3 to 8
(D) 3 to 12
Answer
(A)
In Cylindrical Parabolic Concentrator, the concentration ratio is between
(A) 5 to 10
(B) 5 to 20
(C) 5 to 30
(D) 5 to 40
Answer
(C)
In Linear Fresnel Lens Collector, concentration ratio is between
(A) 10 to 30
(B) 10 to 35
(C) 10 to 40
(D) 10 to 45
Answer
(A)
Approximately how much amount of temperature achieved in Paraboloidal Dish
Collector?
(A) 1000 °C
(B) 2000 °C
(C) 2500 °C
(D) 3000 °C
Answer
(D)
Hemispherical Bowl Mirror Concentrator requires
(A) two-axis tracking
(B) one-axis tracking
(C) three-axis tracking
(D) not required
Answer
(A)
In Central Tower Receiver concentration ratio is
(A) 1000
(B) 1500
(C) 3000
(D) 2000
Answer
(C)
When hot water is taken out from the hot water outlet, the same is replaced by
cold water from cold water makeup tank fixed above the level of hot water tank
this scheme is known as
(A) active system
(B) passive heating system
(C) neutral system
Answer
(B)
According to Indian climatic conditions, a solar water heater can be used for
about
(A) 265 day in the year
(B) 285 day in the year
(C) 330 day in the year
(D) 300 day in the year
Answer
(D)
The life span of a solar water heater
(A) 6-8 years
(B) 5-9 years
(C) 10-12 years
(D) 10-20 years
Answer
(C)
Payback period of solar water heater
(A) 2-4 years
(B) 2-6 years
(C) 4-8 years
(D) 5-9 years
Answer
(B)
The common size of Box Type Solar Cooker is
(A) 40 cm × 40 cm × 20 cm
(B) 60 cm × 60 cm × 20 cm
(C) 60 cm × 40 cm × 20 cm
(D) 40 cm × 40 cm × 10 cm
Answer
(B)
In Box Type Solar Cooker, maximum temperature obtained inside the box is
(A) 90 °C to 160 °C
(B) 90 °C to 260 °C
(C) 150 °C to 260 °C
(D) 140 °C to 160 °C
Answer
(D)
How many amounts of LPG Cylinder can be saved by the use of Box Type
Cooker?
(A) Approximate 1-7 LPG Cylinder per year
(B) Approximate 3-4 LPG Cylinder per year
(C) Approximate 2-8 LPG Cylinder per year
(D) Approximate 5-9 LPG Cylinder per year
Answer
(B)
Approximately Cooking time of Paraboloidal Dish-type Solar Cooker is
(A) 20-30 minutes
(B) 20-50 minutes
(C) 20-70 minutes
(D) 20-90 minutes
Answer
(A)
In Paraboloidal Dish-type Solar Cooker, maximum temperature obtained is
(A) 250 °C
(B) 300 °C
(C) 450 °C
(D) 120 °C
Answer
(C)
How many amounts of LPG Cylinder can be saved by the use of the Community
Solar Cooker?
(A) Approximate 30 LPG Cylinder per year
(B) Approximate 40 LPG Cylinder per year
(C) Approximate 10 LPG Cylinder per year
(D) Approximate 50 LPG Cylinder per year
Answer
(A)

a) Solar ,
b) b) geothermal,
d) d) coal
Ans. d) coal
generation?
a)Solar PV ,
b) Coal,
c) Natural gas,
d) Nuclear power
Ans. b) Coal
a) 20,000 MW ,
b) b) 30,000 MW
c) c) 40,000 MW,
d) d) 50,000 MW
a. Israel
b. India
c. Sri Lanka
d. Germany
of power.
Cities Programme?
a. Dehradun
b. Chandigarh
c. Amritsar
d. Ludhiana

established?
a. Solar Alliance
b. Solar Union
c. Solar Agency
a. Tamil Nadu
b. Telangana
c. Andhra Pradesh
d. Kerala
a) 25.2%,
b) 28.5%,
c) 46.5%,
d) 74.8%
Ans.c) 46.5%
a) 23%,
b) b) 63%,
c) c) 12%,
d) ) 74.8%
Ans.b) 36%
A) 3.8 × 1020 MW,
B) 1.7 × 1014 MW,
C) 1.392×106 MW,
D) 1.27 × 104 MW
Ans. B) 1.7 × 1014 MW
radiation
a) 47%
b) 30%
c) 23%
d) None of above
Ans. A) 47%
a) 47%
b) 30%
c) 23%
d) None of above
Ans. b) 30%
radiation
approximately
a) 1.7%
b) 3.0%
c) 2.3%
d) 10%
Ans. a) 1.7%
a) 1.27 × 104 km
b) 3.8 × 1020 km,
c) 1.7 × 1014 km,
d) 1.392×106 km,
Ans. A) 1.27 × 104 km
angle of
A) 23.45°
B) 27
C) 30
D) 32
Ans. A) 2345
A) 1353 W/m2
B) 1263 W/m2
C) 1453 W/m2
D) 1153 W/m2
E) Ans. A) 1353 W/m2
wavelength range
A) 0.3 μm to 3 μm.
B) 0 μm to 10 μm.
C) 10 μm to 100 μm.
D) 0.3 μm to 100 μm.
A) Thermal detector
B) photon detector
C) Solarimeter
D) Actinometer
A) Latitude angle
B) Longitude angle
C) Hour angle

Ans. c)

A) 80C,
B) 200C
C) 240C
D) 300C
Ans. B) 200C
D.) All of above
A) Use of pump
B) Thermo syphon
C) Under gravity
D) None of above
D) All of above
a) Absorber plate
b) Glass cover
c) Insulation
d) Casing
D) All of above.
d) Finned absorber
a. Radiations
c. Thermal energy.
d. All of these.
a) heating water
c) cooking
A) on a focal point
B) on a focal line,
D) None of above.
a. 50 – 100 °C
b. 100 – 150 °C
c. 150 – 200 °C
d. 200 – 300 °C
Ans. d. 200 – 300 °C
are called
A) heliostats,
B) Diffusers
C) Collector
D) Solar ponds
Ans. A) Heliostats
about
(A) One axes
(B) Two axes
(C) Three axes
Ans. B) Two axis

d. all of above.
c. Fuel cells
d. None of above.

b. p type junction,
c. n type junction,
d. all of above
a. the n layer,
b. the p layer.
c. band gap
d. all of above
a. 25 %
b. 17 %
c. 40 %
d. 60 %
Answer b) 17%
a. Solar cell
b. Fuel cells
c. Edison cells
Ans. a) Solar cell
the order
a. 4 kWh
b. 5.0 kWh
c. 7.5 kWh
d. 10.25 kWh
Ans. b) 5 kWh
a. 300 W/m2
b. 100 W/m2
c. 250 W/m2
d. 500 W/m2
Ans. c) 250 W/m2.
a. Solar inverter
b. Solar module
c. Solar battery
d. PV panel
a. Solar inverter
b. Solar module
d. PV panel
is
a) 5 years
b) 10 years
c) 15 years
d) 20 years
Ans. d) 20 years.

a. a. Cover plate,
c. c. insulation.
d. All of above
a. (Mi- Mf)/100,
b. (Mi-Mf)/Mi
c. (Mi-Mf)/Mf
d. (Mi-Mf)/ 1353
Ans. b. (Mi-Mf)/Mi
a. (Mi- Mf)/I
b. (Mi-Mf)/ (I A)
d. (Mi-Mf)/(Mf× I)
a. 1 kWp
b. 2 kWp
c. 3 kWp
d. 4 kWp
Ans. b. 2 kWp
a. 1 kWp
b. 2 kWp
c. 3 kWp
d. 4 kWp
Ans. b. 2 kWp
b. useful heat
Unit 5: Wind Energy

a. 1%
b. 2%
c. 4%
d. 10%
Ans. a. 1 %
a. wind velocity
a. Mechanical
b. Solar
c. Electrical
d. Heat
Ans. a. Mechanical
a. Mountains
b. Equator
c. Plain areas
d. Poles
Ans. c. plain areas
a. 5 – 25m/s
b. 10 – 35m/s
c. 20 – 45m/s
d. 30 – 55m/s
Ans. a. 5 – 25m/s
b. the rotor area,
c. the wind speed
d. all of above
d. None of above
a. 75%
b. 39%
c. 49%
d. 59%
Ans. d. 59%
power is around
a. Rs. 50,000
b. Rs. 70,000
c. Rs. 1,00,000
d. Rs. 1,25,000
Ans. b. Rs. 70,000
a. 1.5-2.0 %
b. 2- 3%
c. 3-4%
d. 4-5%
Ans. 1.5-2 %
a. Maharashtra
b. Tamilnadu,
c. Orissa
d. Andhra Pradesh
Ans. b. Tamilnadu
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) a) HAWT and VAWT
d. Maxican turbine
a. Mountain chains
d. All of the above
a. Reynolds number
b. Mach number
c. Beaufort number
d. Froude number
Ans. a)

direction.
a. Coriolis
b. Gravitational
c. Centripetal
d. Centrifugal
Ans. a. Coriolis
Ans. c)
is called ______
a) Cut in velocity
b) Windward
c) Cut out velocity
d) Upwind location
Ans. a)
Ans. a)
called?
b) Flat rating
c) Cut in velocity
d) Cut out velocity
c) flat rating
d) cut out velocity
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
Ans. a) Post Mill
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
Ans. b) Smock Mill
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
Ans. c) Towerr Mill
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
Ans. d) Fan Mill
1. Which of the following energy has the greatest potential among all the sources
a) Solar energy
b) Wind Energy
c) Thermal energy
d) Hydro-electrical energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar energy has the greatest potential of all the sources of
renewable energy which comes to the earth from sun. This energy keeps the
temperature of the earth above that in colder space, causes wind currents in the
ocean and the atmosphere, causes water cycle and generates photosynthesis in
plants.
2. What is the rate of solar energy reaching the earth surface?

a) 1016W
b) 865W
c) 2854W
d) 1912W
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The solar energy reaching the surface of the earth is about 1016W
whereas the worldwide power demand is 1013W. That means solar energy gives
us 1000 times more energy than our requirement.
3. What is total amount of solar energy received by earth and atmosphere?

a) 3.8 X 1024 J/year
b) 9.2 X 1024 J/year
c) 5.4 X 1024 J/year
d) 2.1 X 1024 J/year
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Even if we use 5% of this energy, it is more than 50 times our
requirement. The total solar radiation absorbed by the earth and its atmosphere
is 3.8 X 1024 Joules/year. Except that it is distributed over the area of earth.
4. Which is most common source of energy from which electricity is produced?

a) Hydroelectricity
b) Wind energy
c) Coal
d) Solar energy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Coal is the most common source of energy that is being used since
industrialization. Modern steam boilers can burn coal in any of its form as a
primary fuel. Different ranks of coal available are peat, lignite, bituminous and
anthracite.
5. Oil is estimated to last for ________ more.

a) 100 years
b) 500 years
c) A decade
d) 800 years
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Almost 40% of energy needs is met by oil alone. With present
consumption and a resource of 250,000 million tonnes of oil, it is estimated to be
last for only 100 years, unless more oil is discovered. Major chunk of oil comes
from petroleum.
6. Complete the following reaction.

H2O + CO2 → _______
a) CH2O + O2
b) CO2 + O2
c) H + CO2 + O2
d) CH2O + H2O + O2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: H2O + CO2 → CH2O + O2 ∵under solar energy CH2O is stable at low
temperature but breaks at higher temperature releasing heat equal to 469
Kj/mole.
7. In what form is solar energy is radiated from the sun?

a) Ultraviolet Radiation
b) Infrared radiation
c) Electromagnetic waves
d) Transverse waves
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Solar energy is radiated from the sun in the form of
electromagnetic waves of shorter wavelength of 0.2 to 0.4 micrometers. Out of
all the solar energy radiations reaching the earth’s atmosphere, 8% is ultraviolet
radiation, 40% is visible range light and 46% is by infrared radiation.
8. What does MHD stands for in the energy field?

a) Magneto Hydro Dynamic
b) Metal Hydrogen Detox
c) Micro Hybrid Drive
d) Metering Head Differential
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Magneto hydro dynamic is a generator which is used for direct
conversion of thermal energy into electrical energy. They work on faraday
principle. When an electric conductor moves across a magnetic field, electric
current is produced.
9. Solar radiation which reaches the surface without scattering or absorbed is

called _____________
a) Beam Radiation
b) Infrared radiation
c) Ultraviolet radiation
d) Diffuse radiation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar radiation that has not been absorbed or scattered and
reaches the ground from the sun is called direct radiation or beam radiation. It is
the radiation which produces a shadow when interrupted by an opaque object.
10. The scattered solar radiation is called ____________

a) Direct Radiation
b) Beam Radiation
c) Diffuse radiation
d) Infrared Radiation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Diffuse radiation received from the sun after its direction has been
changed by reflection and scattering by the atmosphere. Since the solar
radiation is scattered in all direction in the atmosphere, diffuse radiation comes
to the earth from all parts of the sky.
11. Solar radiation received at any point of earth is called ______________

a) Insolation
b) Beam Radiation
c) Diffuse Radiation
d) Infrared rays
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Insolation is the total solar radiation received at any point on any
point on the earth’s surface. In other words insolation is the sum of the direct
and diffuse radiation. More specifically insolation is defined as the total solar
radiation energy received on a horizontal surface of unit area on the ground in
unit time.
12. Insolation is less ____________

a) when the sun is low
b) when the sun right above head
c) at night
d) at sun rise
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The insolation at a given point or location on the earth’s surface
depends among other factors, on the altitude of the sun in the sky. As a result of
absorption and scattering, the insolation is less when the sun is low in the sky
than when it is higher.
13. HHW stands for ____________

a) High and Low water
b) High Level Waste
c) Heated Low Level water
d) High and Low Waste
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: These are generated in reprocessing of spent fuel. They contain all
fission products and contain of the transuranium elements not separated during
reprocessing. Such wastes are to be disposed of carefully.
14. What is unit of nuclear radiation?
a) Reaumur
b) Roentgen
c) Rankine
d) Pascal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Units of nuclear radiation is Roentgen- amount of radiation which
will on passing through pure air under standard condition produce 1
electrostatic unit of ions/cm3 of air -> 86.9 ergs of energy absorbed/gm of air.
15. Which type of fuel is removed from the reactor core after reaching end of
core life service?
a) Burnt Fuel
b) Spent fuel
c) Engine oil
d) Radioactive fuel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Spent fuel is the unprocessed fuel that is removed from the reactor
core after reaching end of core life service. It is removed and then stored for 3 to
4 months under water in the plant site to give time for the most intense
radioactive isotopes to decay.
1. The amount of energy received in unit time on a unit area perpendicular to

the sun’s direction at the mean distance of the earth from the sun is called
________
a) Solar radiation
b) Solar constant
c) Intensity of solar radiation
d) Air Mass
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The amount of energy received in unit time on a unit area
perpendicular to the sun’s direction at the mean distance of the earth from the
sun is called solar radiation. It is defined as the solar energy receiving at the top
of the atmosphere, denoted by Isc.
2. What is ‘n’ in the following solar intensity formula?
I = Isc {1 + 0.033cos (360n/365)}
a) Day of the year
b) Month of the year
c) The year
d) Week of the year
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The following ‘n’ denotes day of the year in the formula. Since the
distance between sun and earth varies, extra-terrestrial flux also varies. Earth is
closest to the sun in the summer and farthest away in the winter.
3. When the sun is directly on the top of head, it as referred to _________

a) Zenith
b) Azimuth
c) Declination
d) Hour angle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the sun is directly on the top of the head, it is referred to as
sun at zenith. The zenith is an imaginary point directly “above” a particular
location, on the imaginary celestial sphere. The zenith is the “highest” point on
the celestial sphere.
4. Path length of radiation through the atmosphere to the length of path when
the sun is at zenith is called ___________
a) Declination
b) Air mass
c) Azimuth
d) Solar Constant
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Path length of radiation through the atmosphere to the length of
path when the sun is at zenith is called Air mass.
Air mass, m = Cos (altitude angle), except for very low solar altitude angles.
m = 1; When the sun is at the zenith
m = 2; When zenith angle is 60o
m = 3; sec (θz) for m>3.
5. Radiation intensity ‘I’ normal to the surface is given by __________
a) ICosθ
b) Itanθ
c) ICotθ
d) Isinθ
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: I = ICosθ, Let θ = Angle between an incident beam radiation I and
the normal to the plane surface. And the θ is referred to as incident angle. And
further by this formula latitude angle, declination, hour angle, zenith angle and
solar azimuth angles are found out.
6. Angle made by radial line joining the location to the centre of the earth with
the projection of the line on the equatorial plane is called _________
a) Latitude
b) Zenith angle
c) Hour angle
d) Declination
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Angle made by radial line joining the location to the centre of the
earth with the projection of the line on the equatorial plane is called latitude.
And it is denoted by Φl. It is also given by the angular distance north or south of
the equator measured from the centre of the earth.
7. Angular distance of sun’s rays north or south of the equator is called _______
a) Declination
b) Hour angle
c) Latitude
d) Air mass
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Declination is the angular distance of sun’s rays north or south of
the equator. It is the angle between the line extending from the centre of the sun
to the centre of the earth and the projection of this line upon earth’s equatorial
plane.
8. By which of the following symbol is solar Declination denoted by ____________

a) δ
b) ρ
c) Δ
d) γ
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solar declination is denoted by Greek letter δ(DELTA). Solar
declination is the angle between the earth-sun line and the equatorial plane.
Solar declination varies throughout the year. And is given by cooper equation,
δ = 23.45sin [(360/365) (284+n)] ∵n is day of the year.
9. The angle through which the earth must turn to bring the meridian of a point
directly in sun’s rays is called __________
a) Hour angle
b) Declination
c) Latitude
d) Air mass
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The angle through which the earth must turn to bring the meridian
of a point directly in sun’s rays is called Hour angle. And it is denoted by Greek
letter ω (OMEGA). It is measured from noon based on the solar local time (LST).
10. Solar Altitude is also called as ________

a) Declination
b) Altitude angle
c) Zenith angle
d) Azimuth angle
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The vertical angle between the projection of the sun’s rays on the
horizontal plane and the direction of sun’s rays passing through the point s
called solar altitude and is also referred to altitude angle and is denoted by
Greek letter α (ALPHA).
11. The angle between the sun’s rays and a line perpendicular to the horizontal
plane through angle the beam of the sun and vertical is called __________
a) Solar Azimuth angle
b) Zenith angle
c) Altitude angle
d) Declination
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The angle between the sun’s rays and a line perpendicular to the
horizontal plane through angle measured from the north to the horizontal
projection of rays is called zenith angle. And it is denoted by θz.
12. The solar angle in degrees along the horizon east or west of north or it is the
horizontal angle measured from north to the horizontal projection of sun’s rays
is called ___________
a) Solar azimuth angle
b) Zenith angle
c) Altitude angle
d) Declination
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The solar angle in degrees along the horizon east or west of north
or it is the horizontal angle measured from north to the horizontal projection of
sun’s rays is called solar azimuth angle. And it is denoted by Greek letter
γs (GAMMA)
1. Angle made by plane surface with horizontal is called ________

a) Slope
b) Altitude angle
c) Zenith angle
d) Hour Angle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The slope is the angle made by the plane surfaces with the
horizontal. It is considered positive for surfaces slopping towards the south and
negative for surface slopping towards the north. Different types of
measurements are calculated by slopes.
2. The angle of deviation of the normal to the surface from the local meridian is
called as _________
a) Surface azimuth angle
b) Solar azimuth angle
c) Solar altitude
d) Hour angle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Surface azimuth angle is the angle of deviation of the normal to the
surface from the local meridian, the zero point being south, east positive and
west negative. And surface azimuth is different where it is an angle on a
horizontal plane between the normal to a vertical surface and the north-south
direction line.
3. The angle being measured from a plane and which is equal to angle between
a) Incident angle
b) Azimuth angle
c) Hour angle
d) Declination
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The angle being measured from a plane and which is equal to angle
between the beam of rays and normal to the plane is called as incident angle.
And it is denoted by Greek letter θ (Theta). The angle of incidence (θ) is the angle
between the sun’s rays irradiated on a surface and the line normal to this
surface.
4. The vector sum of the components along the line normal of the titled surface
in a direction normal to the tilted surface is called as __________
a) Solar intensity
b) Declination
c) Incident angle
d) Hour angle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The solar intensity at a direction normal to the tilted surface is the
vector sum of the components along the line normal of the tilted surface. And is
given by formula,
IΣ = IDN cosθΣ
Where IDN = solar intensity irradiated on a surface normal to the sun’s rays.
5. The time from sunrise to sunset is termed as _______________

a) Slope
b) Day length
c) Local solar time
d) Solar intensity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The time from sunrise to sunset is termed as day length. On earth,
daytime is roughly the period of the day during which any given point in the
world experiences natural illumination from especially direct sunlight. Daytime
occurs when the sun appears above the local horizon, that is, anywhere on the
globe’s hemisphere facing the Sun. During daytime, an observer sees indirect
sunlight while in the shade, which includes cloud cover.
6. LST stands for __________

a) Local standard time
b) Local solar temperature
c) Low surface temperature
d) Land surface temperature
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Local solar time is also known as local apparent time which is the
time used for calculating the hour angle. The local solar time is obtained from
the standard time observed on a clock by making two corrections. First, is taking
different longitudes between the locations and second is correction due to small
perturbations of earth’s orbit and rate of rotation.
7. How much would be the angle of declination on DECEMBER 21 at 0900 h (LAT).

The collector s located in New Delhi (28o35’N, 77o12’E) and is tilted at an angle of
36o with the horizontal and is pointing south?
a) -44.28o
b) -28.92o
c) -23.45o
d) -42.22o
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the case γ = 0o, on December 21, n=355
8. What is angle of declination on 305th day of year and what day is it?
a) -23.26o, November 2
b) -15.06o, November 1
c) -18.96o, November 2
d) -10.52o, November 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Angle of declination on 305th day of the year i.e. on NOVEMBER 1
9. What is the angle of declination on May 12 considering it’s a leap year?

a) 20.34o
b) 22.85o
c) 29.42o
d) 12.4o
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Angle of declination on May 21 in leap year is 142nd day of the year.
10. What is the angle of declination on 60th day of the leap year?
a) -8.29
b) 8.29
c) 4.82
d) 12.44
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The date is February 29 on leap year, which is considered as the
60th day.
11. Which type of device is used to measure solar irradiance on a planar surface?
a) Pyranometer
b) Net radiometer
c) Gardon gauge
d) Pyrheliometer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A Pyranometer is a type of actinometer used for measuring solar
irradiance on a planar surface and it is designed to measure the solar radiation
flux density from the hemisphere above within a wavelength range 0.3μm to
3μm.
12. Instrument used to measure direct beam of solar irradiance is called

____________
a) Pyranometer
b) Net radiometer
c) Gardon gauge
d) Pyrheliometer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A Pyrheliometer is the device used to measure direct beam solar
irradiance. Sunlight enters the instrument through a window and is directed
onto a thermopile which converts heat to an electrical signal that can be
recorded.
1. To how many types are flat plate collectors divided depending on type of heat
transfer fluid?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Based on the type of heat transfer fluid, flat plate collectors are
divided into two types, they are Liquid Heating Collectors and Air or gas heating
collectors. And also happens that all other types of collectors come under these
two types.
2. For what purpose are Gas heating collectors used?

View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Air or Gas heating collectors are employed as solar air heaters.
Solar air heater is a type of system driving outdoor air through a sealed, sun
heated collector mounted on an exterior wall or roof, returning the warmed air
back to the living space.

a) heating water
c) cooking
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Liquid heating collectors are mainly used for heating water. A liquid
based solar collector is a solar collector that uses sunlight to heat a liquid that is
circulating in a solar loop. The fluid in the solar loop may be water, an anti freeze
mixture or thermal oil.
4. _______ is a glazing which limits the radiation and convection heat losses.
a) Absorber plate
b) Selective surface
c) Insulation
d) Transparent cover
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A transparent cover is glazing which limits the radiation and heat
convection losses. It includes one or more sheets of glass or radiation
transmitting plastic film or sheet. The glass itself is always a single pane adding
to adding the second reduces the collector efficiency.
5. What are provided to minimize heat loss?

a) Absorber plate
b) Surface plate
c) Insulation
d) Casing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Insulation is provided at the back and sides to minimize heat losses.
Fiber glass or styro-foam is used for this purpose. And also most modern
collectors use standard insulators such as polyurethane or polyisocynurate.
6. Which part of flat plate collectors is coated in black?

a) Transparent cover
b) Absorber plate
c) Insulation
d) Fins
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Absorber plate is usually metallic or coated in black surface which is
used for absorbing radiation energy. The absorber plate’s coating directly affects
how efficient the collector is. Coatings always have two rating figures: how much
they absorb and how much they emit.
7. The frame which contains all the parts is called __________

a) box
b) plate
c) enclose
d) container
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Container is used to enclose the other components to protect them
from weather. These containers are made of extruded aluminum which can be
quite heavy and thick for heavy duty collectors. There are some collectors which
are enclosed by fiber glass too.
8. In which collector does air flow without any obstruction?
d) Finned absorber
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a simple flat plate air collector, commonly known as non-porous
absorbers, the air stream flow through the absorber plate without any
obstruction. An analysis of black painted solar air collectors in conventional
design in which the air flows below the absorber plate has been made.
9. In which absorber matrix material is arranged and the back absorber plate is
eliminated?
d) Finned absorber
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the porous bed air heater, the matrix material is arranged and
the back absorber plate is eliminated. A single glazed porous bed collector with a
reflecting honey comb, extending above the porous to just under the glass cover
have theoretically examined.
10. Which type of absorber increases the heat transfer area over a simple flat
plate absorber of the same capacity?
d) Finned absorber
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The finned plate absorber increases the heat transfer area over a
simple flat absorber of same capacity. A good design of a finned absorber can
increase the heat transfer rate. The temperature difference between the
absorber plate and air is very low.
11. In which type of absorber plate is the overall flow direction is along the
a) Overlapped glass absorber
b) Finned absorber
c) Non-porous absorber plate
d) Porous absorber plate
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In overlapped absorber plate, overall flow direction is along the
absorber glass plate instead of being across the matrix. Plate and air stream
temperature increase gradually along the collector length and across from top to
bottom.
12. How is heat loss over come in liquid plate collectors?

a) By insulation
b) By casing
c) By the transparent cover
d) From provided tubes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Heat is transferred from the absorber plate to a point of use by the
circulating fluid via water across the solar heated surface. The heat loss from the
surface is prevented by placing thermal insulation of 5 to 10cm thickness behind
the absorber plate.
(A) Water heating
(B) Distillation
(C) Drying

(A) 1.8 x 108 MW
(B) 1.8 x 1011 MW
(C) 1.8 x 1014 MW
(D) 1.8 x 1017 MW

(A) Wind energy
(B) Biomass energy
(C) Wave energy
(A) North
(B) South
(C) East
(D) West



(A) Thermal energy
(B) Chemical energy
(A) One axes
(B) Two axes
(C) Three axes

(A) 22
(B) 32
(C) 42
(D) 52

(A) 1347 W/m2
(B) 1357 W/m2
(C) 1367 W/m2
(D) 1377 W/m2

(A) ± 1.1
(B) ± 2.2
(C) ± 3.3
(D) ± 4.4

(A) Plank’s law
(A) Ozone
(B) Water vapours
(C) Carbon di-oxide

(A) Anemometer
(B) Pyranometer

(A) Anemometer
(B) Pyrheliometer
(A) Latitude
(B) Slope
(D) Declination
21-The angle made in the horizontal plane between the horizontal line due south and the projection of
the normal to the surface on the horizontal plane is
(A) Hour angle
(B) Declination

(A) 0 to 90°
(B) -90 to 90°
(C) 0 to 180°
(D) -180° to 180°

(A) 10° per hour
(B) 15° per hour
(C) 20° per hour
(D) 25° per hour

(D) Slope
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8

(B) Tilt factor
(C) Slope
Answers:
1-(D), 2-(B), 3-(D), 4-(B), 5-(C), 6-(B), 7-(D), 8-(A), 9-(A), 10-(B), 11-(B), 12-(C),
13-(C), 14-(C), 15-(D), 16-(B), 17-(A), 18-(B), 19-(B), 20-(B), 21-(C), 22-(D), 23-
(B), 24-(A), 25-(C), 26-(A), 27-(B)
Q1. A module in a solar panel refers to
a. Series arrangement of solar cells.

b. Parallel arrangement of solar cells.
c. Series and parallel arrangement of solar cells.
View Answer / Hide Answer
ANSWER: c. Series and parallel arrangement of solar cells.
Q2. The efficiency of the solar cell is about
a. 25 %
b. 15 %
c. 40 %
d. 60 %
ANSWER: b. 15 %
Q3. For satellites the source of energy is
a. Solar cell
b. Fuel cells
c. Edison cells
ANSWER: a. Solar cell
Q4. The output of the solar cell is of the order
a. 0.5 W
b. 1.0 W
c. 5.0 W
d. 10.25 W
ANSWER: b. 1.0 W
Q5. In a fuel cell cathode is of
a. Oxygen
b. Ammonia
c. Hydrogen
d. Carbon monoxide
ANSWER: c. Hydrogen
Q6. What is the maximum possible output of a solar array?
a. 300 W/m2
b. 100 W/m2
c. 250 W/m2
d. 500 W/m2
ANSWER: c. 250 W/m2
Q7. The current density of a photo voltaic cell ranges from
a. 10 – 20 mA/cm2
b. 40 – 50 mA/cm2
c. 20 – 40 mA/cm2
d. 60 – 100 mA/cm2
ANSWER: b. 40 – 50 mA/cm2
Q1. A pyrometer is used for the measurements of

ANSWER: c. Both direct and diffused radiations.
Q2. Reflector mirrors used for exploiting the solar energy are called
a. Mantle.
b. Heliostats.
c. Diffusers.
d. Ponds.
ANSWER: b. Heliostats.
Q3. The function of a solar collector is of converting solar energy into
a. Radiations
c. Thermal energy.
d. All of these.
ANSWER: c. Thermal energy.
Q4. What are pyrheliometers?
a. Instruments measures beam radiations

b. Diffuse radiations.
c. Direct radiations only.
ANSWER: a. Instruments measures beam radiations
Q5. Temperature attained by cylindrical parabolic collector is of the order of
a. 50 – 100 °C
b. 100 – 150 °C
c. 150 – 200 °C
d. 200 – 300 °C
ANSWER: d. 200 – 300 °C
Q6. In a solar collector, why is the transparent cover provide for?
a. Protect the collector from dust.

b. Reduce the heat losses from collector beneath to atmosphere.
c. Transmit solar radiation only
d. All of the above.
ANSWER: d. All of the above
1 The angle made by the plane surface with the horizontal is known as
A Latitude
B Slope
C Surface azimuth angle
D Declination
View Answer
Answer: Slope
2 Beam radiations are measured with
A Anemometer
B Pyrheliometer
C Sunshine recorder
D All of the above
View Answer
Answer: Pyrheliometer
3 Solar radiation flux is usually measured with the help of a
A Anemometer
B Pyranometer
C Sunshine recorder
D All of the above
View Answer
Answer: Pyranometer
4 The zenith angle is the angle made by the sun’s rays with the ____ to a
______ surface.
A normal, horizontal
B tangent, horizontal
C normal, vertical
D tangent, vertical
View Answer
Answer: normal, horizontal

5 Global radiation =
A Direct radiation – Diffuse Radiation
B Direct radiation + Diffuse Radiation
C Direct radiation / Diffuse Radiation
D Diffuse Radiation / Direct radiation
View Answer
Answer: Direct radiation + Diffuse Radiation

6Absorption of Solar radiations at earth’s surface occur due to
presence of
A Ozone
B Water vapours
C Carbon di-oxide
D All of the above
View Answer
Answer: All of the above

7 The following is (are) laws of black body radiation.
A Plank’s law
B Stefan-Boltzmann law
C both (A) and (B)
D None of the above
View Answer
Answer: both (A) and (B)

8 The extraterrestrial radiation flux varies by ____ % over a year.
A ± 1.1
B ± 2.2
C ± 3.3
D ± 4.4
View Answer
Answer: ± 3.3
9 The value of Solar Constant is
A 1347 W/m2
B 1357 W/m2
C 1367 W/m2
D 1377 W/m2
View Answer
Answer: 1367 W/m2

10 The sun subtends an angle of _____ minutes at the earth’s surface.
A 22
B 32
C 42
D 52
View Answer
Answer: 32
11In the paraboloid dish concept, the concentrator tracks the sun by
rotating about
A One axes
B Two axes
C Three axes
D None of the above
View Answer
Answer: Two axes
12Which of the following type of collector is used for low temperature
systems?
A Flat plate collector
B Line focussing parabolic collector
C Paraboloid dish collector
D All of the above
View Answer
Answer: Flat plate collector

13 The following type of energy is stored as latent heat
A Thermal energy
B Chemical energy
C Electrical energy
D Mechanical energy
View Answer
Answer: Thermal energy

14 Maximum efficiency is obtained in
A Flat plate collector
B Evacuated tube collector
C Line focussing collector
D Paraboloid dish collector
View Answer
Answer: Paraboloid dish collector

15The efficiency of various types of collectors ______ with _______
temperature.
A increases, decreasing
B decreases, increasing
C remains same, increasing
D depends upon type of collector
View Answer
Answer: decreases, increasing

16 The collection efficiency of Flat plate collector can be improved by
A putting a selective coating on the plate
B evacuating the space above the absorber plate
C both (A) and (B)
D None of the above
View Answer
Answer: evacuating the space above the absorber plate

17A liquid flat plate collector is usually held tilted in a fixed position,
facing _____ if located in the northern hemisphere.
A North
B South
C East
D West
View Answer
Answer: South
18 The following is indirect method of Solar energy utilization
A Wind energy
B Biomass energy
C Wave energy
D All of the above
View Answer
Answer: Geomorphology
19 The power from the sun intercepted by the earth is approximately
A 1.8 x 108 MW
B 1.8 x 1011 MW
C 1.8 x 1014 MW
D 1.8 x 1017 MW
View Answer
Answer: 1.8 x 1011 MW

20 Direct Solar energy is used for
A Water heating
B Distillation
C Drying
D All of the above
View Answer
Answer: All of the above
21 The ratio of the beam radiation flux falling on a tilted surface to

that falling on a horizontal surface is called the
A Radiation shape factor

B Tilt factor
C Slope
D None of the above
View Answer
Answer: Tilt factor

22 The global radiation reaching a horizontal surface on the earth is
given by
A Hourly beam radiation + Hourly diffuse radiation
B Hourly beam radiation – Hourly diffuse radiation
C Hourly beam radiation / Hourly diffuse radiation
D Hourly diffuse radiation / Hourly beam radiation
View Answer
Answer: Hourly beam radiation + Hourly diffuse radiation

23 The correction has a magnitude of ___ minutes for every degree
difference in longitude.
A2
B4
C6
D8
View Answer
Answer: 6
24 The complement of zenith angle is
A Solar altitude angle
B Surface azimuth angle
C Solar azimuth angle
D Slope
View Answer
Answer: Solar altitude angle

25 The hour angle is equivalent to
A 10° per hour
B 15° per hour
C 20° per hour
D 25° per hour
View Answer
Answer: 15° per hour

26 Surface azimuth angle varies from
A 0 to 90°
B -90 to 90°
C 0 to 180°
D -180° to 180°
View Answer
Answer: -180° to 180°

27The angle made in the horizontal plane between the horizontal line
due south and the projection of the normal to the surface on the
horizontal plane is
A Hour angle
B Declination
C Surface azimuth angle
D Solar altitude angle
View Answer
Answer: Surface azimuth angle

28Which type of fuel is removed from the reactor core after reaching
end of core life service?
A Burnt Fuel
B Spent fuel
C Engine oil
D Radioactive fuel
View Answer
Answer: Spent fuel

29 What is unit of nuclear radiation?
A Reaumur
B Roentgen
C Rankine
D Pascal
View Answer
Answer: Roentgen
30 HHW stands for ____________
A High and Low water
B High Level Waste
C Heated Low Level water
D High and Low Waste
View Answer
Answer: High Level Waste

31 Insolation is less ____________
A when the sun is low
B when the sun right above head
C at night
D at sun rise
View Answer
Answer: when the sun is low

32 Solar radiation received at any point of earth is called ______________
A Insolation
B Beam Radiation
C Diffuse Radiation
D Infrared rays
View Answer
Answer: Insolation
33 The scattered solar radiation is called ____________
A Direct Radiation
B Beam Radiation
C Diffuse radiation
D Infrared Radiation
View Answer
Answer: Diffuse radiation

34Solar radiation which reaches the surface without scattering or
absorbed is called _____________
A Beam Radiation
B Infrared radiation
C Ultraviolet radiation
D Diffuse radiation
View Answer
Answer: Beam Radiation

35 What does MHD stands for in the energy field?
A Magneto Hydro Dynamic
B Metal Hydrogen Detox
C Micro Hybrid Drive
D Metering Head Differential
View Answer
Answer: Magneto Hydro Dynamic

36 In what form is solar energy is radiated from the sun?
A Ultraviolet Radiation
B Infrared radiation
C Electromagnetic waves
D Transverse waves
View Answer
Answer: Electromagnetic waves

37 Complete the following reaction. H2O + CO2 → _______
A CH2O + O2
B CO2 + O2
C H + CO2 + O2
D CH2O + H2O + O2
View Answer
Answer: CH2O + O2
38 Oil is estimated to last for ________ more.
A 100 years
B 500 years
C A decade
D 800 years
View Answer
Answer: 100 years

39Which is most common source of energy from which electricity is
produced?
A Hydroelectricity
B Wind energy
C Coal
D Solar energy
View Answer
Answer: Coal
40What is total amount of solar energy received by earth and
atmosphere?
A 3.8 X 1024 J/year
B 9.2 X 1024 J/year
C 5.4 X 1024 J/year
D 2.1 X 1024 J/year
View Answer
Answer: 3.8 X 1024 J/year
41 What is the rate of solar energy reaching the earth surface?

A 1016W
B 865W
C 2854W
D 1912W
View Answer
Answer: 1016W
42Which of the following energy has the greatest potential among all
the sources of renewable energy?
A Solar energy
B Wind Energy
C Thermal energy
D Hydro-electrical energy
View Answer
Answer: Solar energy

43 The following type of energy is stored as latent heat
A Thermal energy
B Chemical energy
C Electrical energy
D Mechanical energy
View Answer
Answer: Thermal energy

(A) Solar energy
(B) Wind energy
(C) Thermal energy
Answer
(A)

(A) 1026 W
(B) 865 W
(C) 1016 W
(D) 1020 W
Answer
(C)
What is the total amount of solar energy received by earth and the
atmosphere?
(A) 12.8 ×1024 JYear
(B) 2.8 ×1024 JYear
(C) 22.8 ×1024 JYear
(D) 3.8 ×1024 JYear
Answer
(D)
Which is the most common source of energy from which electricity is

produced?
(B) Wind energy
(C) Coal
(D) Solar energy
Answer
(C)

Answer
(B)

called _____________
(A) Beam Radiation
Answer
(A)

(A) 30 %
(B) 45 %
(C) 50 %
(D) 47 %
Answer
(D)

Answer
(D)

(B) Beam Radiation
Answer
(C)

Answer
(A)

(A) Alpha radiation
(B) Beta radiation
(C) Gamma radiation
Answer
(A)

Answer
(D)

Answer
(B)

(A) Insolation
(B) Beam Radiation
(D) Infrared rays
Answer
(A)

(A) Chemical energy
(B) Thermal energy
Answer
(B)

(A) water heating
(B) distillation
(C) drying
Answer
(D)

(A) 1.8×109 MW
(B) 1.8×1015 MW
(C) 1.8×1011 MW
(D) 1.8×1019 MW
Answer
(C)

(A) Wind energy
(B) Biomass energy
(C) Wave energy
Answer
(D)
The ratio of the beam radiation flux falling on a tilted surface to that falling on
a horizontal surface is called the
(B) Tilt factor
(C) Slope
Answer
(B)

(A) Anemometer
(C) Pyrheliometer
Answer
(C)

(A) Pyranometer
(B) Anemometer
Answer
(A)

(A) Mantle
(B) Ponds
(C) Diffusers
(D) Heliostats
Answer
(D)

(A) Total beam radiation Hourly diffuse radiation
(B) Hourly beam radiation Hourly diffuse radiation
Answer
(C)

Answer
(A)

(A) Arsenic
(B) Silicon
(C) Cadmium
(D) Steel
Answer
(B)

Answer
(A)

(A) 0.2 to 4 μm
(B) 0.2 to 5 μm
(C) 0.2 to 8 μm
(D) 0.2 to 10 μm
Answer
(A)

(B) Battery
(C) Solar cell
Answer
(D)

(B) dry cell
(D) battery
Answer
(A)

(A) solar cooker
(B) woodstove
(C) gas oven
Answer
(A)
Solar energy can be used to heating water through

(A) solar water heating system
(B) photoelectric cell
(C) solar batteries
(D) dry cell
Answer
(A)

____________
(A) Pyrheliometer
(B) Pyranometer
(C) Net radiometer
Answer
(A)

Answer
(C)
(A) 63 %
(B) 53 %
(C) 33 %
(D) 43 %
Answer
(D)

Answer
(D)

(A) 1367 Wm2
(B) 1377 Wm2
(C) 1477 Wm2
(D) 1479 Wm2
Answer
(A)

(A) 575 – 600 K
(B) 7550 – 8000 K
(C) 4570 – 6000 K
(D) 5750 – 6000 K
Answer
(D)
Around how much percentage, the incident radiant flux can be absorbed by
the materials present on earth?
(A) 48 %
(B) 37 %
(C) 43 %
(D) 50 %
Answer
(A)
(A) Pyrometer
(B) Pyrheliomete
Answer
(B)
The approximate distribution of the flow of the sun’s energy to the earth’s
surface is
Answer
(C)

(D) Slope
Answer
(A)

(A) Altitude angle
(B) Zenith angle
(C) Slope
(D) Hour Angle
Answer
(C)

(B) at sunrise
(C) at sunset
Answer
(A)
called _________
(C) Solar altitude
(D) Hour angle
Answer
(B)
(A) Declination
(B) Azimuth angle
(C) Hour angle
(D) Incident angle
Answer
(D)

(A) 4 seconds
(B) 1 minute
(C) 4 minutes
(D) 15 minutes
Answer
(C)
The vector sum of the components along the line normal of the titled surface
in a direction normal to the tilted surface is called as__________
(A) Incident angle
(B) Declination
(C) Solar intensity
(D) Hour angle
Answer
(C)

(A) slope
(B) day length
(D) solar intensity
Answer
(B)
(A) -15.06°, November 1
(B) -15.06°, November 2
(C) -55.06°, November 2
(D) -35.06°, November 2
Answer
(A)

(A) 30.2°
(B) 30.4°
(C) 30.34°
(D) 20.34°
Answer
(D)

(A) -90° to 180°
(B) -180° to 180°
(C) -90° to 270°
(D) -90° to 360°
Answer
(B)
(B) Hour angle
(C) Declination
Answer
(A)

(A) 77 ° per hour
(B) 65 ° per hour
(C) 25 ° per hour
(D) 15 ° per hour
Answer
(D)
longitude.
(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 9
Answer
(A)

(A) 33
(B) 32
(C) 30
(D) 35
Answer
(B)
surface.
Answer
(C)
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer
(B)

(A) radiations
(B) thermal energy
Answer
(B)
(A) cooking
(C) heating water
Answer
(C)
(A) Absorber plate
(D) Insulation
Answer
(B)

(A) Insulation
(B) Absorber plate
(C) Surface plate
(D) Casing
Answer
(A)

(B) Insulation
(C) Absorber plate
(D) Fins
Answer
(C)

(A) box
(B) plate
(C) enclose
(D) container
Answer
(D)
(D) Finned absorber
Answer
(B)

eliminated?
(C) Finned absorber
Answer
(D)
(A) Finned absorber
Answer
(A)
(A) Finned absorber
Answer
(B)

(A) By casing
(C) By insulation
Answer
(C)
(A) South
(B) North
(C) East
(D) West
Answer
(A)

Answer
(B)

Answer
(D)

(A) 1
(B) 100
(C) 10
(D) 1000
Answer
(B)

Answer
(B)

Answer
(C)
In the paraboloid dish concept, the concentrator tracks the sun by rotating
about
(A) One axis
(B) Two axis
(C) Three axis
Answer
(B)

Answer
(C)

(A) 90 °C
(B) 150 °C
(C) 250 °C
(D) 350 °C
Answer
(A)

(A) 350 °C
(B) 400 °C
(C) 450 °C
(D) 650 °C
Answer
(B)

(A) 2-axis tracking
(B) 1-axis tracking
(C) no tracking
Answer
(B)

(A) 1-axis tracking
(C) 2-axis tracking
(D) no tracking
Answer
(C)
(A) Lenses
(B) Mirrors
(C) Trackers
Answer
(D)
The ratio of energy actually absorbed and transferred to the heat-transport

fluid by the collector is known as
Answer
(A)
The ratio of the area of the aperture of the system to the area of the receiver
is known as
Answer
(B)
The absorber plate is usually made from a metal sheet ranging in thickness
from
(A) 0.8 to 3 mm
(B) 0.7 to 6 mm
(C) 0.5 to 5 mm
(D) 0.2 to 1 mm
Answer
(D)

(C) Roll bond
Answer
(B)
(C) Roll bond
Answer
(A)

(B) Roll bond
Answer
(C)

(C) Roll bond
Answer
(B)

Answer
(B)

(A) 3 to 7
(B) 3 to 10
(C) 3 to 8
(D) 3 to 12
Answer
(A)

(A) 5 to 10
(B) 5 to 20
(C) 5 to 30
(D) 5 to 40
Answer
(C)

(A) 10 to 30
(B) 10 to 35
(C) 10 to 40
(D) 10 to 45
Answer
(A)
Approximately how much amount of temperature achieved in Paraboloidal

Dish Collector?
(A) 1000 °C
(B) 2000 °C
(C) 2500 °C
(D) 3000 °C
Answer
(D)

(D) not required
Answer
(A)

(A) 1000
(B) 1500
(C) 3000
(D) 2000
Answer
(C)
When hot water is taken out from the hot water outlet, the same is replaced
by cold water from cold water makeup tank fixed above the level of hot water
tank this scheme is known as
(A) active system
(C) neutral system
Answer
(B)
about
Answer
(D)

(A) 6-8 years
(B) 5-9 years
(C) 10-12 years
(D) 10-20 years
Answer
(C)

(A) 2-4 years
(B) 2-6 years
(C) 4-8 years
(D) 5-9 years
Answer
(B)

(A) 40 cm × 40 cm × 20 cm
(B) 60 cm × 60 cm × 20 cm
(C) 60 cm × 40 cm × 20 cm
(D) 40 cm × 40 cm × 10 cm
Answer
(B)
(A) 90 °C to 160 °C
(B) 90 °C to 260 °C
(C) 150 °C to 260 °C
(D) 140 °C to 160 °C
Answer
(D)
Cooker?
Answer
(B)

(A) 20-30 minutes
(B) 20-50 minutes
(C) 20-70 minutes
(D) 20-90 minutes
Answer
(A)

(A) 250 °C
(B) 300 °C
(C) 450 °C
(D) 120 °C
Answer
(C)
Solar Cooker?
Answer
(A)

a) Solar ,
b) b) geothermal,
d) d) coal
Ans. d) coal
generation?
a)Solar PV ,
b) Coal,
c) Natural gas,
d) Nuclear power
Ans. b) Coal
a) 20,000 MW ,
b) b) 30,000 MW
c) c) 40,000 MW,
d) d) 50,000 MW
a. Israel
b. India
c. Sri Lanka
d. Germany
of power.
Cities Programme?
a. Dehradun
b. Chandigarh
c. Amritsar
d. Ludhiana

established?
a. Solar Alliance
b. Solar Union
c. Solar Agency
a. Tamil Nadu
b. Telangana
c. Andhra Pradesh
d. Kerala
a) 25.2%,
b) 28.5%,
c) 46.5%,
d) 74.8%
Ans.c) 46.5%
a) 23%,
b) b) 63%,
c) c) 12%,
d) ) 74.8%
Ans.b) 36%
A) 3.8 × 1020 MW,
B) 1.7 × 1014 MW,
C) 1.392×106 MW,
D) 1.27 × 104 MW
Ans. B) 1.7 × 1014 MW
radiation
a) 47%
b) 30%
c) 23%
d) None of above
Ans. A) 47%
a) 47%
b) 30%
c) 23%
d) None of above
Ans. b) 30%
radiation
approximately
a) 1.7%
b) 3.0%
c) 2.3%
d) 10%
Ans. a) 1.7%
a) 1.27 × 104 km
b) 3.8 × 1020 km,
c) 1.7 × 1014 km,
d) 1.392×106 km,
Ans. A) 1.27 × 104 km
angle of
A) 23.45°
B) 27
C) 30
D) 32
Ans. A) 2345
A) 1353 W/m2
B) 1263 W/m2
C) 1453 W/m2
D) 1153 W/m2
E) Ans. A) 1353 W/m2
wavelength range
A) 0.3 μm to 3 μm.
B) 0 μm to 10 μm.
C) 10 μm to 100 μm.
D) 0.3 μm to 100 μm.
A) Thermal detector
B) photon detector
C) Solarimeter
D) Actinometer
A) Latitude angle
B) Longitude angle
C) Hour angle

Ans. c)

A) 80C,
B) 200C
C) 240C
D) 300C
Ans. B) 200C
D.) All of above
A) Use of pump
B) Thermo syphon
C) Under gravity
D) None of above
D) All of above
a) Absorber plate
b) Glass cover
c) Insulation
d) Casing
D) All of above.
d) Finned absorber
a. Radiations
c. Thermal energy.
d. All of these.
a) heating water
c) cooking
A) on a focal point
B) on a focal line,
D) None of above.
a. 50 – 100 °C
b. 100 – 150 °C
c. 150 – 200 °C
d. 200 – 300 °C
Ans. d. 200 – 300 °C
are called
A) heliostats,
B) Diffusers
C) Collector
D) Solar ponds
Ans. A) Heliostats
about
(A) One axes
(B) Two axes
(C) Three axes
Ans. B) Two axis

d. all of above.
c. Fuel cells
d. None of above.

b. p type junction,
c. n type junction,
d. all of above
a. the n layer,
b. the p layer.
c. band gap
d. all of above
a. 25 %
b. 17 %
c. 40 %
d. 60 %
Answer b) 17%
a. Solar cell
b. Fuel cells
c. Edison cells
Ans. a) Solar cell
the order
a. 4 kWh
b. 5.0 kWh
c. 7.5 kWh
d. 10.25 kWh
Ans. b) 5 kWh
a. 300 W/m2
b. 100 W/m2
c. 250 W/m2
d. 500 W/m2
Ans. c) 250 W/m2.
a. Solar inverter
b. Solar module
c. Solar battery
d. PV panel
a. Solar inverter
b. Solar module
d. PV panel
is
a) 5 years
b) 10 years
c) 15 years
d) 20 years
Ans. d) 20 years.

a. a. Cover plate,
c. c. insulation.
d. All of above
a. (Mi- Mf)/100,
b. (Mi-Mf)/Mi
c. (Mi-Mf)/Mf
d. (Mi-Mf)/ 1353
Ans. b. (Mi-Mf)/Mi
a. (Mi- Mf)/I
b. (Mi-Mf)/ (I A)
d. (Mi-Mf)/(Mf× I)
a. 17− 20 degree north
b. 17− 20 degree south
c. 17− 20 degree east
d. 17− 20 degree west.
Ans. b. 17− 20 degree south.
a. 1 kWp
b. 2 kWp
c. 3 kWp
d. 4 kWp
Ans. b. 2 kWp
a. 1 kWp
b. 2 kWp
c. 3 kWp
d. 4 kWp
Ans. b. 2 kWp
b. useful heat
Unit 5: Wind Energy

a. 1%
b. 2%
c. 4%
d. 10%
Ans. a. 1 %
a. wind velocity
a. Mechanical
b. Solar
c. Electrical
d. Heat
Ans. a. Mechanical
a. Mountains
b. Equator
c. Plain areas
d. Poles
Ans. c. plain areas
a. 5 – 25m/s
b. 10 – 35m/s
c. 20 – 45m/s
d. 30 – 55m/s
Ans. a. 5 – 25m/s
b. the rotor area,
c. the wind speed
d. all of above
d. None of above
a. 75%
b. 39%
c. 49%
d. 59%
Ans. d. 59%
power is around
a. Rs. 50,000
b. Rs. 70,000
c. Rs. 1,00,000
d. Rs. 1,25,000
Ans. b. Rs. 70,000
a. 1.5-2.0 %
b. 2- 3%
c. 3-4%
d. 4-5%
Ans. 1.5-2 %
a. Maharashtra
b. Tamilnadu,
c. Orissa
d. Andhra Pradesh
Ans. b. Tamilnadu
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) a) HAWT and VAWT
d. Maxican turbine
a. Mountain chains
d. All of the above
a. Reynolds number
b. Mach number
c. Beaufort number
d. Froude number
Ans. a)

direction.
a. Coriolis
b. Gravitational
c. Centripetal
d. Centrifugal
Ans. a. Coriolis
Ans. c)
is called ______
a) Cut in velocity
b) Windward
c) Cut out velocity
d) Upwind location
Ans. a)
Ans. a)
called?
b) Flat rating
c) Cut in velocity
d) Cut out velocity
c) flat rating
d) cut out velocity
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
Ans. a) Post Mill
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
Ans. b) Smock Mill
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
Ans. c) Towerr Mill
a) Post mill
b) Smock mill
c) Tower mill
d) Fan mill
Ans. d) Fan Mill
Sr. Correct
No. Item Text Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 Option
The capacity of a battery is Ampere hour Weight of
Current rating
1 expressed in terms of Voltage rating rating battery 3
The storage battery
Nickel-cadmium
generally used in electric Zinc carbon Lead-acid
battery
2 power station is battery battery None of above 3
industrial battery is based
8
on ..........hours discharge
3 rate 12 14 16 1
Five 2 V cells are connected
in parallel. The output 1.5 v
4 voltage is 3v 2v 4v 3
A typical output of a solar
0.1 v
5 cell is 0.26 V 1.1 V 2V 2
material is used in solar Silicon
6 cells? Berium Silver Aluminium 1
The efficiency of a solar cell
2 to 5%
7 may be in the range 10 to 15% 80 to 95% 70 to 80% 3
atellite power requirement Lead-acid
Solar cells
8 is provided through Dry cells battery Ni-cr battery 1
9 for Water heating Distillation Drying All of above 4
11 utilization Wind Biomass Wave All of above 3
12 hemisphere. North East West South 4
13 The collection efficiency of Evacuating the option 1 and 2 None of above 4
Flat plate collector can be Puttng a space above
improved by selective coating the absorber
on the plate plate

increases,
types of collectors ______ decreases, remains same, depends upon
decreasing
14 with _______ temperature. increasing increasing type of collector 1
3
15 obtained in collector collector collector collector
Thermal energy Electrical energy
16 is stored as latent heat energy energy 2
One axis Three axis Four axis
tracks the sun by rotating
17 about Two axis 2
Solar cells use _____ to turn
18 light into energy. Semi-conductor Electromagnets Super conductor None of above 1
What is the difference Larger surface
between Photodiode and No External Bias No External area in
19 Solar cell? in Photodiode Bias in Solar cell photodiode No difference 2
What should be the band
gap of the semiconductors
to be used as solar cell
20 materials? 0.5 eV 1 eV 1.5 eV 1.9 eV 3
should not be the
characteristic of the solar High High Energy
21 cell material? High Absorption Conductivity Band High Availability 3
Which of the following type
Flat plate
of collector is used for low Paraboloid dish Line focussing
collector
22 temperature systems? collector collector All of above 4
1347 W/m2 1357 W/m2 1367 W/m2 1377 W/m2
23 is 3
Absorption of Solar
radiations at earth’s surface OZONE
24 occur due to presence of Water vapur Carbon di-oxide All of above 4
Direct radiation Diffuse Direct radiation
Direct radiation/
Global radiation = – Diffuse Radiation / + Diffuse 3
Diffuse Radiation
25 Radiation Direct radiation Radiation
26 The zenith angle is the angle Normal , Tangent, Normal, vertical Tangent, vertical 1
made by the sun’s rays with horizontal horizontal
the ____ to a ______
surface.
Anemometer Pyranometer
27 measured with the help of a recorder All of above 2
Beam radiations are Sunshine
Anemometer Pyroheliometer
28 measured with recorder All of above 2
The angle made by the plane
Surface azimuth
surface with the horizontal Latitude Slope Declination
angle
29 is known as 2
The angle made in the Declination
horizontal plane between
the horizontal line due south Hour angle Surface azimuth
and the projection of the angle
normal to the surface on the Solar altitude
30 horizontal plane is angle 3
0 to 90° -90 to 90° 0 to 180° -180° to 180°
31 from 4
10° per hour 15° per hour 20° per hour 25° per hour
32 to 2
Radiation shape
tilted surface to that falling Tilt factor Slope None of above
factor
on a horizontal surface is
33 called the 2
The term photo voltaic
35 comes from ________ Spanish Greek German English 2
not sun light then the photo
voltaic cell is used as Photo voltaic Photo
36 ____________ Photo diode cell Photo detector transmitter 3
The amount of photo
generated current increases
slightly with an increase in
37 _________ Temperature Photons Diode current Shunt current 1
39 water heater 2
30 to 40 Degree
Cel.
both
conductions as
well as
convection
losses are
42 suppressed 2
44 water heater 2
30 to 40 Degree
Cel.
both
conductions as
well as
convection
losses are
47 suppressed 2
Which of the following type Line focusing
Paraboloid dish Flat plate None of the
of collector is used for low- parabolic
collector collector above
48 temperature systems? collector 3
direct radiation diffuse direct and None of the
49 only radiation only diffuse both above 3
Temperature attained by a
90 Degree cel. 150 Degree cel. 300 Degree cel. 400 Degree cel.
50 flat-plate collector is a range 1
of
A cylindrical parabolic seasonal
51 concentrator requires adjustment 2
Concentrated solar power
(CSP) systems use ____ to
Lenses Mirrors Trackers All of above
focus a large area of sunlight
52 into a small beam. 4
The ratio of the area of the
aperture of the system to collector concentration temperature
collector COP
the area of the receiver is efficiency ratio range
53 known as 2
Three parabolic
Compound parabolic One parabolic No parabolic
mirror Two parabolic
concentrator consists of mirror segment segments
54 segments mirror segments 3
Concentrator, concentration 3 to 7 10 to 12 1 to 2 0.5 to 1
55 the ratio is between 1
Concentrator, the
5 to 10 5 to 30 5 to 20 5 to 7
concentration ratio is
56 between 2
Hemispherical Bowl Mirror seasonal
57 Concentrator requires adjustment 2
1000 2000 3000 4000
58 concentration ratio is 4
When hot water is taken out
from the hot water outlet,
the same is replaced by cold
Active heating Passive heating Neutral heating chemical heating
water from cold water
makeup tank fixed above
the level of hot water tank
59 this scheme is known as 2
conditions, a solar water 265 day in the 285 days in the 330 days in the 300 days in the
heater can be used for year year year year
60 about 4
Surface azimuth angle varies -180 to + 180 0 to + 180 -180 to + 90 - 80 to + 180
61 from deg.cel. deg.cel. deg.cel. deg.cel. 1
62 The angle made in the Surface azimuth Hour angle Declination Solar altitude 1
horizontal plane between angle angle
the horizontal line due south
and the projection of the
normal to the surface on the
horizontal plane is
The hour angle is equivalent 77 degree per 65 degree per 25 degree per 15 degre per
63 to hour hour hour hour 1
To how many types are flat
plate collectors divided
2
depending on the type of
64 heat transfer fluid? 3 4 5 1
The function of a solar
collector is of converting radiations electrical energ all of above
65 solar energy into thermal energy 2
Liquid heating collectors are Power
Cooking Traping sunlight
66 mainly used for ________ Heating water generation 2
_______ is glazing which
limits the radiation and Absorber plate Transperant selective surface insulation
67 convection heat losses. cover 2
In thermal heating
system………. is provided to Insulation casing body cover
68 minimize heat loss? surface plate 1
Which part of flat plate Transparent
Absorber plate Fins
69 collectors is coated in black? cover Insulation 3
Which type of absorber
increases the heat transfer
Non-porous Overlapped glass
area over a simple flat plate Finned absorber
absorber plate absorber
absorber of the same Porous
70 capacity? absorber plate 1
Angle made by a plane
surface with horizontal is Altitude angle Zenith angle Hour angle
71 called ________ slope 2
Why direct heating by hot High Low
air cannot be done in some The material can temperature temperature not Conduction gives
72 cases? degrade not required required best results 1
What is the drum dryer
called if it is open to the
73 atmosphere? Open dryer Box dryer Trough dryer Trench dryer 3
74 With what is the feed Spray Atomizer Nucleator Heat exchanger 2
introduced in the spary
dryer?
Critical
Critical moisture moisture Moisture
Drying rate curve is plot content, critical content, drying Critical humidity, content, drying
75 between _____ and _____ humidity rate drying rate rate 4
The point where the

Equilibrium Critical
constant drying period
moisture moisture Bound moisture
changes to falling rate
content content Critical humidity content
76 period is called 2
Evacuated Tubes is
77 calculated by 2
Parabolic dish collector can Solaer water Water
78 be used for Solar cooker Heater Disalination all above 4
dryers are used for storing
grains.
dryers are used for low cost
79 foods. True, False True, True False, False False, True 4
If 12 Volt 40 Ah 2 Batteries
are connected in paralle and
two more same capacity are
connec in serice to each .
Then total voltage and
80 ampre will be 12 Volt 40 AH 12 Volt 80 AH 24 Volt 80 Ah 24 Volt 40Ah 3
Electricity is Electricity
Standalone solar PV system External External avaliabe but load availabe but
is suitable for the area Electricity is not Electricity is shading is energy rates
81 where available availabe present ahre high 1
Temperature
Temperature range in Temperature Temperature
range in parabolic range in range in
parabolic touugh trough solar parabolic Trough parabolic Trough
dish solar collector is solar collector is solar collector is
collector is more more than more than more than
Which of the statement is than Flat plate evacuated tube Parabolic Dish Fresnell solar
82 False solar collector solar collector solar collector collector 3
A solar dryer in which solar
energy collection and drying
take place in separate units Distributed Direct Type of Indirect type of
83 is known as a solar dryer Dryer spray dryer Tunnel dryer 1
Total cost of Stand alone Less than the Greater than Less than Off
same capacity solar PV online solar PV the online solar Equal to online Line Solar PV
84 system is system PV system solar PV system system 2
Thermal Efficiency of the
Plat plate solar collector is in
85 the range of 10-15% 15-20% 20-25% 25-30% 2
For a 300 Wp solar panel if
out put voltage is 24 volt
86 then curent capacity will be 12.5 Amp 14.5 Amp 20 Amp 10.5 Amp
If solar radiation is 750
W/m2 find how much
energy can be collected by a
unit area flat plate solar
collector with 18 %
87 efficiency 200 W 135 W 145 W 150W 2
Transmitance and
Absorption factor solar
88 radiation is denoted by ζδ δФ ἀζ τἀ 4
Parabolic dish collector One axis of sun Two axis of sun Four axis of sun Six axis of sun
89 needs tracking tracking tracking tracking 2
In india Solar Evacuated
90 tube collector is arrange Due South Due North Due East Due West 1
Net metering system is used Off line Solar PV Online Solar PV Parabolic trough Flat plate
91 in system system solar system collector system 2
How many amounts of LPG
Cylinder can be saved by the Approximate 30 Approximate 40 Approximate 50 Approximate 60
use of the Community Solar LPG Cylinder per LPG Cylinder per LPG Cylinder per LPG Cylinder per
92 Cooker? year year year year 1
conditions, a solar water
heater can be used for 265 day in the 300 day in the 325 day in the 365 day in the
93 about year year year year 2
Mass of water to be
removed to dry the matter
94 of 10 kg from 50 % initial 4.4 kg 5.6 kg 5.8 kg 6 kg 1
moisture to 10 % final
moister is
Heat loss by convection is Flat plate solar Evacuated Tube Parabolic solar Parabolic Trough
95 less in collector Solar Collector collector solar collector 2
96 for Water heating Distillation Drying All of the above 4
98 utilization Wind energy Biomass energy Wave energy All of the above 4
99 hemisphere North South East West 2
evacuating the
The collection efficiency of putting a space above
Flat plate collector can be selective coating the absorber None of the
100 improved by on the plate plate both (A) and (B) above 3
types of collectors ______ increases, decreases, remains same, depends upon
101 with _______ temperature decreasing increasing increasing type of collector 2
102 obtained in collector collector collector collector 4
The complement of zenith Solar altitude Surface azimuth Solar azimuth
104 angle is angle angle angle Slope 1
105 to 10° per hour 15° per hour 20° per hour 25° per hour 2
tilted surface to that falling
on a horizontal surface is Radiation shape None of the
106 called the factor Tilt factor Slope above 2
magnitude of ___ minutes
for every degree difference
107 in longitude 2 4 6 8 3
108 from 0 to 90° -90 to 90° 0 to 180° -180° to 180° 4
109 measured with the help of a Anemometer Pyranometer recorder All of the above 2
The zenith angle is the angle
made by the sun’s rays with
the ____ to a ______ normal, tangent,
110 surface horizontal horizontal normal, vertical tangent, vertical 1
111 is 1347 W/m2 1357 W/m2 1367 W/m2 1377 W/m2 3
The extraterrestrial
radiation flux varies by ____
112 % over a year ± 1.1 ± 2.2 ± 3.3 ± 4.4 3
113 is stored as latent heat Thermal energy energy Electrical energy energy 1
tracks the sun by rotating None of the
114 about One axes Two axes Three axes above 2
Which of the following type Line focussing
of collector is used for low Flat plate parabolic Paraboloid dish
115 temperature systems? collector collector collector All of the above 1
Which is most common
source of energy from which
116 electricity is produced? Hydroelectricity Wind energy Coal Solar energy 3
In what form is solar energy Ultraviolet Infrared Electromagnetic Transverse
117 is radiated from the sun? Radiation radiation waves waves 3
Metal
What does MHD stands for Magneto Hydro Hydrogen Micro Hybrid Metering Head
118 in the energy field? Dynamic Detox Drive Differential 1
The scattered solar radiation Infrared
119 is called ____________ Direct Radiation Beam Radiation Diffuse radiation Radiation 3
when the sun
. Insolation is less when the sun is right above
120 ____________ low head at night at sun rise 1
Unit 1: Solar Energy Principles- 6 Hrs
Present solar energy scenario, world energy futures, governing bodies (self-
study), solar radiations and its measurements, solar constant, solar radiation
geometry, solar radiation data, estimation of average solar radiation, solar
radiation on tilted surface.
Unit 2: Solar Thermal Systems and Applications 8 Hrs

Types of Solar thermal collector, flat plate collector analysis, Evacuated tube
collectors (ETC) analysis, its design and application, solar air heaters and its
types, solar distillation. Solar Concentrating collectors: types- line and point
concentrator, theory of Concentrating collectors, parabolic trough collector,
parabolic dish collector, solar tower, concentrated Fresnel linear receiver
(CFLR).
Unit 3: Solar Photovoltaic and Applications 6 Hrs

Forming the PN junction solar cells & its applications, Structure of a solar
cell, types of modules, PV array, solar cell equation, Fill factor and maximum
power, Grid aspects of solar power, equipment used in solar photovoltaic
plants, Power Conditioning Equipment-inverters, Regulators, Other Devices;
System Analysis-Design Procedure, Design Constraints, Other
Considerations.
Unit 4: Case Study on Solar Energy Applications 6 Hrs

Case study 1: Design of solar food drier for domestic purpose referring
existing system
Case study 2: Design of parabolic dish solar cooker for domestic purpose
Case study 3: Design of solar photovoltaic system for domestic purpose

(A) Water heating
(B) Distillation
(C) Drying

(A) 1.8 x 108 MW
(B) 1.8 x 1011 MW
(C) 1.8 x 1014 MW
(D) 1.8 x 1017 MW

(A) Wind energy
(B) Biomass energy
(C) Wave energy
(A) North
(B) South
(C) East
(D) West




(A) Thermal energy
(B) Chemical energy
(A) One axes
(B) Two axes
(C) Three axes

(A) 22
(B) 32
(C) 42
(D) 52

(A) 1347 W/m2
(B) 1357 W/m2
(C) 1367 W/m2
(D) 1377 W/m2

(A) ± 1.1
(B) ± 2.2
(C) ± 3.3
(D) ± 4.4

(A) Plank’s law

(A) Ozone
(B) Water vapours
(C) Carbon di-oxide
(A) Anemometer
(B) Pyranometer

(A) Anemometer
(B) Pyrheliometer
(A) Latitude
(B) Slope
(D) Declination
21-The angle made in the horizontal plane between the horizontal line due south and the
projection of the normal to the surface on the horizontal plane is
(A) Hour angle
(B) Declination

(A) 0 to 90°
(B) -90 to 90°
(C) 0 to 180°
(D) -180° to 180°

(A) 10° per hour
(B) 15° per hour
(C) 20° per hour
(D) 25° per hour

(D) Slope
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8

(B) Tilt factor
(C) Slope
Answers:
1-(D), 2-(B), 3-(D), 4-(B), 5-(C), 6-(B), 7-(D), 8-(A), 9-(A), 10-(B), 11-(B), 12-(C), 13-
(C), 14-(C), 15-(D), 16-(B), 17-(A), 18-(B), 19-(B), 20-(B), 21-(C), 22-(D), 23-(B), 24-
(A), 25-(C), 26-(A), 27-(B)
1. The function of a solar collector is to convert.......
A.Solar Energy into Electricity

B.Solar Energy radiation
D.Solar Energy mechanical energy
✔ View Answer

✍ Your Comments
2. Most of the solar radiation received on earth surface lies within the range
of........
B.0.38 to 0.78 microns
C.0 to 0.38 microns
D.0.5 to 0.8 microns
✔ View Answer

✍ Your Comments
3. For satellite the source of energy is........
A.Cryogenic storage
B.Battery
C.Solar cell
D.Any of the above
✔ View Answer
C.Solar cell
✍ Your Comments
4. Reflecting mirrors used for exploiting solar energy are called........
A.Mantle
B.Ponds
C.Diffusers
D.Heliostats
✔ View Answer
D.Heliostats
✍ Your Comments
5. The output of solar cell is of the order of........
A.1 W
B.5 W
C.10 W
D.20 W
✔ View Answer
A.1 W
6. Flat plate collector absorbs.......

D.All of the above
✔ View Answer

✍ Your Comments
7. A pyranometer is used for mesurement of........

D.All of the above
✔ View Answer

✍ Your Comments
8. Most widely used solar material is........
A.Arsenic
B.Cadmium
C.Silicon
D.Steel
✔ View Answer
C.Silicon
✍ Your Comments
9. Photovoltaic cell or solar cell converts........
A.Thermal energy into electricity

C.Solar radiation into thermal energy
D.Solar radiation into kinetic energy
✔ View Answer

✍ Your Comments
10. Temperature attained by a flat-plate collector is of the........

B.Range of 1000C to 1500C
C.Above 1500C
D.None of the above
✔ View Answer
11. The voltage of a single solar cell is.......
A.0.2 v
B.0.5 v
C.1.0 v
D.2.0 v
✔ View Answer
C.0.5 v
✍ Your Comments
12. Solar cells,for power generation,entail the following major

disadvantages........
A.Variable power
B.High cost
C.Lack of availability
D.Large area requirement
✔ View Answer
B.High cost
✍ Your Comments
13. Thermionic converterutilizes........

B.Peltier effect
C.Seebeck effect
D.None of the above
✔ View Answer

✍ Your Comments
14. Largest geothermal plant in operation is in........
A.Maxico
B.Italy
C.Russia
D.California
✔ View Answer
B.Italy
✍ Your Comments
15. Bulb turbines are........turbines
A.Low head
B.High head
C.High speed
D.High pressure
✔ View Answer
A.Low head
This set of Applied Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Photovoltaic Cell and Solar Cell Applications”.
1. The term photo voltaic comes from ________
a) Spanish
b) Greek
c) German
d) English
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The term photo voltaic comes from Greek word phos means light. The volt is
the unit of emf which was named after inventor of the battery.
2. The volt is the units of emf that was named after its inventor _________
a) Alessandro volta
b) Alxender volta
c) Alexa volta
d) Alexandro volta
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The volt is the units of that was named after its inventor Alessandro volta. He
is an Italian physicist. The term photo voltaic comes from Greek.
3. The term photo voltaic is in use since _________
a) 1840
b) 1844
c) 1849
d) 1850
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The term photo voltaic is in use since 1849. Photo voltaic is a field related to
practical application of photo voltaic cells.
4. When the source of light is not sun light then the photo voltaic cell is used as
____________
a) Photo diode
b) Photo voltaic cell
c) Photo detector
d) Photo transmitter
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the source of light is not the sun light then the photo voltaic cell is used
as the photo detector. The example of the photo detector is the infra-red detectors.
5. The region where the electrons and holes diffused across the junction is called ________
a) Depletion Junction
b) Depletion region
c) Depletion space
d) Depletion boundary
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The region where the electrons and holes diffused across the junction is called
depletion region. It is also called as space charge region.
6. The current produce by the solar cell can be given by _________
a) IL – ID + ISh
b) IL + ID – ISh
c) IL + ID + ISh
d) IL – ID – ISh
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The current produced by the solar cell can be given by I=IL – ID – ISh. Where
IL = photo generated current in amperes, ID = diode current in amperes, ISh = shunt current
in amperes.
7. The amount of photo generated current increases slightly with an increase in _________
a) Temperature
b) Photons
c) Diode current
d) Shunt current
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The amount of the photo generated current is slightly increased due to an
increase in the temperature. If the photo generated current increases then the output
current increases.
8. Solar cells are made from bulk materials that are cut into wafer of _________ thickness.
a) 120-180μm
b) 120-220μm
c) 180-220μm
d) 180-240μm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Solar cells are made from the bulk materials that are cut into wafers of
thickness 180-240μm. Many currently available cells are cut into wafers.
9. __________ is one of the most important materials is also known as solar grade silicon.
a) Crushed silicon
b) Crystalline silicon
c) Powdered silicon
d) Silicon
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The crystalline silicon is one of the most important materials that are also
called as solar grade silicon. The mono crystalline, poly crystalline silicon and ribbon silicon
are the other types of silicon that are used.
10. __________ photo voltaic devices in the form of thin films.
a) Cadmium Telluroide
b) Cadmium oxide
c) Cadmium sulphide
d) Cadmium sulphate
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cadmium telluroide is the photo voltaic devices in the form of thin films. Those
are used to absorb and convert the sun light into electricity.
11. __________ is a direct band gap material.
a) Copper Indium Gallium Selenide
b) Copper Selenide
c) Copper Gallium Telluride
d) Copper Indium Gallium Diselenide
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Copper Indium Gallium Selenide is a direct band gap material. It has the
highest efficiency among the film materials. The efficiency is about 20%.
12. Dye-sensitized solar cells are made from ________ organic dye.
a) Ruthium melallo
b) Aniline
c) Safranine
d) Induline
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dye-sensitized solar cells are made from Ruthium melallo organic dye in the
form of mono layer of light absorbing material and mesoporous layer of nano particles.
13. Quantum dot solar cells are based on _______
a) Gratzel cell
b) Solar cell
c) Voltaic cell
d) Galvanic cell
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Quantum dot solar cells are based on the Gratzel cell or dye sensitized solar
cell. In dye-sensitized solar cell the nano particulate is titanium dioxide that amplifies the
surface area greatly.
14. The quantum dot used are _______
a) Cds
b) CdTe
c) PbO
d) GaAs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The quantum dot used is generally is Cds. The other quantum dots that are
used is cadmium selluroide, PbS etc.
15. Organic polymer solar cells are made from Polyphenylene.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Organic polymer solar cells are made from organic semi conductors. Some of
them are Polyphenylene, Vinylene, Carbon fullerenes.
MCQ No. 1.00

Next
Renewable energy souces

Sunlight, air, soil, and water are examples of
(A) renewable resources
(B) non- renewable resources
Answer
(A)
Which of the following is a disadvantage of most of the renewable energy
sources?
(A) Unreliable supply
(B) Highly polluting
(C) High waste disposal cost
(D) High running cost
Answer
(A)
Which among the following is not a renewable source of energy?
(A) Biomass energy
(B) Solar energy
(C) Hydro-power
(D) Geothermal energy
Answer
(A)
Identify the non-renewable energy resource from the following:

(A) fuel cells
(B) wind power
(C) wave power
(D) coal
Answer
(D)
Which parameter is used as an index for the standard of living of the people of
a country?
(A) Industrial production
(B) Number of vehicles per house
(C) Per capita energy consumption
(D) Population density
Answer
(C)
Out of energy, economy, and environment
(A) only energy and environment are related
(B) only energy and economy are related
(C) all the three are interrelated
(D) all the three are independent
Answer
(C)
Global warming is mainly caused due to
(A) emissions of heat from engines
(B) emission of CO2 due to the burning of fossil fuels
(C) use of nuclear energy
(D) air pollution
Answer
(B)
Global warming would lead to
(A) reduced ozone depletion
(B) acid rains
(C) change of climate pattern and its severity
(D) increase in the efficiency of heat engines
Answer
(C)
The resources that are inexhaustible and replace by nature are known as
(A) non- renewable resources
(B) renewable resources
Answer
(B)
Which renewable resource generate maximum power in India?
(A) Wind
(B) Solar
(C) Geothermal
(D) Biomass
Answer
(B)
Which of the area can often replace conventional fuel by renewable energy?
(A) Space heating
(B) Transportation
(C) Electricity generation
Answer
(D)
Solar energy-
(A) Solar energy
(B) Wind energy
(C) Thermal energy
Answer
(A)

(A) 1026 W
(B) 865 W
(C) 1016 W
(D) 1020 W
Answer
(C)
What is the total amount of solar energy received by earth and the atmosphere?
(A) 12.8 ×1024 JYear
(B) 2.8 ×1024 JYear
(C) 22.8 ×1024 JYear
(D) 3.8 ×1024 JYear
Answer
(D)
Which is the most common source of energy from which electricity is produced?
(B) Wind energy
(C) Coal
(D) Solar energy
Answer
(C)
Answer
(B)
called _____________
(A) Beam Radiation
Answer
(A)
(A) 30 %
(B) 45 %
(C) 50 %
(D) 47 %
Answer
(D)

Answer
(D)
(B) Beam Radiation
Answer
(C)
Answer
(A)
(A) Alpha radiation
(B) Beta radiation
(C) Gamma radiation
Answer
(A)
Answer
(D)
Answer
(B)
(A) Insolation
(B) Beam Radiation
(D) Infrared rays
Answer
(A)
(A) Chemical energy
(B) Thermal energy
Answer
(B)
(A) water heating
(B) distillation
(C) drying
Answer
(D)
(A) 1.8×109 MW
(B) 1.8×1015 MW
(C) 1.8×1011 MW
(D) 1.8×1019 MW
Answer
(C)
(A) Wind energy
(B) Biomass energy
(C) Wave energy
Answer
(D)
The ratio of the beam radiation flux falling on a tilted surface to that falling on a
horizontal surface is called the
(B) Tilt factor
(C) Slope
Answer
(B)
(A) Anemometer
(C) Pyrheliometer
Answer
(C)

(A) Pyranometer
(B) Anemometer
Answer
(A)
(A) Mantle
(B) Ponds
(C) Diffusers
(D) Heliostats
Answer
(D)
(A) Total beam radiation /Hourly diffuse radiation
(B) Hourly beam radiation /Hourly diffuse radiation
Answer
(C)
Answer
(A)
(A) Arsenic
(B) Silicon
(C) Cadmium
(D) Steel
Answer

Answer
(A)

(A) 0.2 to 4 μm
(B) 0.2 to 5 μm
(C) 0.2 to 8 μm
(D) 0.2 to 10 μm
Answer
(A)
(B) Battery
(C) Solar cell
Answer
(D)
(B) dry cell
(D) battery
Answer
(A)
(A) solar cooker
(B) woodstove
(C) gas oven
Answer
(A)
____________
(A) Pyrheliometer
(B) Pyranometer
(C) Net radiometer
Answer
(A)
Answer
(C)
(A) 63 %
(B) 53 %
(C) 33 %
(D) 43 %
Answer
(D)
Answer
(D)
(A) 1367 Wm2
(B) 1377 Wm2
(C) 1477 Wm2
(D) 1479 Wm2
Answer
(A)
(A) 575 – 600 K
(B) 7550 – 8000 K
(C) 4570 – 6000 K
(D) 5750 – 6000 K
Answer
(D)
Around how much percentage, the incident radiant flux can be absorbed by the
materials present on earth?
(A) 48 %
(B) 37 %
(C) 43 %
(D) 50 %
Answer
(A)
(A) Pyrometer
(B) Pyrheliomete
Answer
(B)
The approximate distribution of the flow of the sun’s energy to the earth’s surface
is
Answer
(C)
(D) Slope
Answer
(A)
(A) Altitude angle
(B) Zenith angle
(C) Slope
(D) Hour Angle
Answer
(C)
(B) at sunrise
(C) at sunset
Answer
(A)
called _________
(C) Solar altitude
(D) Hour angle
Answer
(B)
(A) Declination
(B) Azimuth angle
(C) Hour angle
(D) Incident angle
Answer
(D)
(A) 4 seconds
(B) 1 minute
(C) 4 minutes
(D) 15 minutes
Answer
(C)
The vector sum of the components along the line normal of the titled surface in
a direction normal to the tilted surface is called as__________
(A) Incident angle
(B) Declination
(C) Solar intensity
(D) Hour angle
Answer
(C)
(A) slope
(B) day length
(D) solar intensity
Answer
(B)
(A) -15.06°, November 1
(B) -15.06°, November 2
(C) -55.06°, November 2
(D) -35.06°, November 2
Answer
(A)

(A) 30.2°
(B) 30.4°
(C) 30.34°
(D) 20.34°
Answer
(D)
(A) -90° to 180°
(B) -180° to 180°
(C) -90° to 270°
(D) -90° to 360°
Answer
(B)
(B) Hour angle
(C) Declination
Answer
(A)
(A) 77 ° per hour
(B) 65 ° per hour
(C) 25 ° per hour
(D) 15 ° per hour
Answer
(D)
longitude.
(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 9
Answer
(A)
(A) 33
(B) 32
(C) 30
(D) 35
Answer
(B)
surface.
Answer
(C)
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer
(B)
(A) radiations
(B) thermal energy
Answer
(B)
(A) cooking
(C) heating water
Answer
(C)
(A) Absorber plate
(D) Insulation
Answer
(B)

(A) Insulation
(B) Absorber plate
(C) Surface plate
(D) Casing
Answer
(A)
(B) Insulation
(C) Absorber plate
(D) Fins
Answer
(C)
(A) box
(B) plate
(C) enclose
(D) container
Answer
(D)
(D) Finned absorber
Answer
(B)
eliminated?
(C) Finned absorber
Answer
(D)
(A) Finned absorber
Answer
(A)
(A) Finned absorber
Answer
(B)
(A) By casing
(C) By insulation
Answer
(C)
(A) South
(B) North
(C) East
(D) West
Answer
(A)
Answer
(B)
Answer
(D)

(A) 1
(B) 100
(C) 10
(D) 1000
Answer
(B)
Answer
(B)
Answer
(C)
In the paraboloid dish concept, the concentrator tracks the sun by rotating about
(A) One axis
(B) Two axis
(C) Three axis
Answer
(B)
Answer
(C)
(A) 90 °C
(B) 150 °C
(C) 250 °C
(D) 350 °C
Answer
(A)
(A) 350 °C
(B) 400 °C
(C) 450 °C
(D) 650 °C
Answer
(B)
(A) 2-axis tracking
(B) 1-axis tracking
(C) no tracking
Answer
(B)
(A) 1-axis tracking
(C) 2-axis tracking
(D) no tracking
Answer
(C)
(A) Lenses
(B) Mirrors
(C) Trackers
Answer
(D)
The ratio of energy actually absorbed and transferred to the heat-transport fluid
by the collector is known as
Answer
(A)
The ratio of the area of the aperture of the system to the area of the receiver is
known as
Answer
(B)
The absorber plate is usually made from a metal sheet ranging in thickness from
(A) 0.8 to 3 mm
(B) 0.7 to 6 mm
(C) 0.5 to 5 mm
(D) 0.2 to 1 mm
Answer
(D)
(C) Roll bond
Answer
(B)
(C) Roll bond
Answer
(A)
(B) Roll bond
Answer
(C)
(C) Roll bond
Answer
(B)
Answer
(B)
(A) 3 to 7
(B) 3 to 10
(C) 3 to 8
(D) 3 to 12
Answer
(A)
(A) 5 to 10
(B) 5 to 20
(C) 5 to 30
(D) 5 to 40
Answer
(C)
(A) 10 to 30
(B) 10 to 35
(C) 10 to 40
(D) 10 to 45
Answer
(A)
Approximately how much amount of temperature achieved in Paraboloidal Dish
Collector?
(A) 1000 °C
(B) 2000 °C
(C) 2500 °C
(D) 3000 °C
Answer
(D)
(D) not required
Answer
(A)
(A) 1000
(B) 1500
(C) 3000
(D) 2000
Answer
(C)
When hot water is taken out from the hot water outlet, the same is replaced by
cold water from cold water makeup tank fixed above the level of hot water tank
this scheme is known as
(A) active system
(C) neutral system
Answer
(B)
about
Answer
(D)
(A) 6-8 years
(B) 5-9 years
(C) 10-12 years
(D) 10-20 years
Answer
(C)
(A) 2-4 years
(B) 2-6 years
(C) 4-8 years
(D) 5-9 years
Answer
(B)
(A) 40 cm × 40 cm × 20 cm
(B) 60 cm × 60 cm × 20 cm
(C) 60 cm × 40 cm × 20 cm
(D) 40 cm × 40 cm × 10 cm
Answer
(B)
(A) 90 °C to 160 °C
(B) 90 °C to 260 °C
(C) 150 °C to 260 °C
(D) 140 °C to 160 °C
Answer
(D)
Cooker?
Answer
(B)
(A) 20-30 minutes
(B) 20-50 minutes
(C) 20-70 minutes
(D) 20-90 minutes
Answer
(A)
(A) 250 °C
(B) 300 °C
(C) 450 °C
(D) 120 °C
Answer
(C)
Solar Cooker?
Answer
(A)
Subject : Elective-IV (Solar & Wind Energy)
Question Question Option-A Option-B Option-C Option-D Correct
No Option

intercepted by the earth is 1.8 x
1 approximately 1.8 x 108 MW 1.8 x 1011 MW 1014MW 1.8 x 1018 MW B
The sun subtends an angle of

2 minutes at the earth’s surface. 22 32 42 52 B
3 The value of Solar Constant is 1347 W/m2 1357 W/m2 1367 W/m2 1377 W/m2 C
The extraterrestrial radiation

4 flux varies by ____ % over a year± 1.1 ± 2.2 ± 3.3 ± 4.4 C
The following is (are) laws of Stefan- both (A) None of the

5 black body radiation. Plank’s law Boltzmann law and (B) above C
Absorption of Solar radiations
at earth’s surface occur due to Carbon di- All of the
6 presence of Ozone Water vapours oxide above D
Direct radiation –Direct radiationDirect Diffuse
Diffuse + Diffuse radiation / Radiation /
7 Global radiation = Radiation Radiation Diffuse Direct B
The zenith angle is the angle R di ti di ti
made by the sun’s rays with thenormal, tangent, normal, tangent,
8 ____ to a ______ surface. horizontal horizontal vertical vertical B
The angle made by the plane Surface
surface with the horizontal is azimuth
9 known as Latitude Slope angle Declination B
The angle made in the Surface
horizontal plane between the azimuth Solar altitude
10 horizontal line due south and Hour angle Declination angle angle C

11 from 0 to 90° -90 to 90° 0 to 180° -180° to 180° D
20° per
12 The hour angle is equivalent to 10° per hour 15° per hour hour 25° per hour B
Solar
The complement of zenith Solar altitude Surface azimuth
13 angle is angle azimuth angle angle Slope A
magnitude of ___ minutes for
14 every degree difference in 2 4 6 8 C
Hourly beam Hourly Hourly diffuse
The global radiation reaching a Hourly beam radiation – beam radiation /
horizontal surface on the earth radiation + HourlyHourly diffuse radiation / Hourly beam
15 is given by diffuse radiation radiation Hourly radiation A
The ratio of the beam radiation diff
flux falling on a tilted surface Radiation shape None of the
16 to that falling on a horizontal factor Tilt factor Slope above B
17 The main daily solar radiation 100 kwh/m2 20 kwh/m2 5 kwh/m2 1 kwh/m2 C
at many
Most places
of the inradiation
solar India is
0.2 to 0.4 0.38 to 0.78 0 to 0.38 0.5 to 0.8
18 received on earth surface lies microns microns microns microns A
Beam radiations are measured Sunshine All of the
19 with Anemometer Pyrheliometer recorder above B
when the sun is when the
20 Insolation is less ? low at night sun right at sun rise A
SubjectElective-IV (Solar & Wind Energy)
Quest Question Option-A Option-B Option-C Option- Correct
ion D Option
All of
1 Direct Solar energy is used for Water heating DistillationDrying the D
A liquid flat plate collector is usually
2 held tilted in a fixed position, facingNorth South East West B
putting a evacuatin None of
The collection efficiency of Flat plate selective coatingg the both (A) and the
3 collector can be improved by on the plate space (B) above C
The efficiency of various types of remains depend
collectors ______ with _______ increases, decreasessame, s upon
4 decreasing increasing increasing type of B
temperature
Evacuated Line Parabol
Flat plate tube focussing oid dish
5 Maximum efficiency is obtained in collector D
collector collector collecto
The following type of energy is stored Chemical Electrical Mechan
6 as latent heat Thermal energy energy energy ical A
Which of the following type of Line Paraboloid All of
collector is used for low temperature Flat plate focussing dish the
7 systems? collector parabolic collector above A
In the paraboloid dish concept, the None of
concentrator tracks the sun by the
8 One axes Two axes Three axes above B
rotating about
All of
Solar radiation flux is usually Pyranome Sunshine the
9 measured with the help of a Anemometer ter recorder B
above
All of
The following is indirect method of Biomass Wave the
10 Solar energy utilization Wind energy energy energy D
above
The instrument used to measure solar Thermoco pyrhelio

11 radiation is Thermometer uple monometer meter D
By the From
12 How is heat loss over come in liquid plaBy insulation By casing transparent provided A
Which type of absorber increases the Porous absorber Non- Over lapped Finned
13 heat transfer area over a simple flat plate porous glass absorbe D
In which collector does air flow Porous absorber Over Finned Non-
14 without any obstruction? plate lapped absorber porous D
The frame which contains all the parts
15 is called __________ box plate container enclose C
Which part of flat plate collectors is Transparent Absorber

16 coated in black? cover plate Insulation Fins B
Transpa
_______is a glazing which limits the Selective rent
17 radiation and convection heat losses. Absorber plate surface Insulation cover D
Reflector mirrors used for exploiting

18 the solar energy are called Diffusers Heliostats Mantle Ponds B
Temperature attained by cylindrical 100 – 150 150 – 200 °C200 –

19 parabolic collector is of the order of 50 – 100 °C °C 300 °C D
Which of the following is not a
technology used in concentrating Linear Cathode ray Paraboli
20 solar power? Power tower fresnel tube c trough C
ubjectElective-IV (Solar & Wind Energy)
Ques Question Option-A Option-B Option-C Option-D Correct
tion Option

not sun light then the photo Photo voltaic Photo
1 voltaic cell is used as Photo diode cell Photo detector transmitter C
The region where the
electrons and holes Depletion Depletion Depletion
2 diffused across the Junction region Depletion space boundary B
j
The tiamount
i of ll photo
d
generated current Shunt
3 increases slightly with TemperaturePhotons Diode current current A
Solar cells are made from
bulk materials that are cut
into wafer of _________ 180-240μ
4 thickness. 120-180μm 120-220μm 180-220μm m D
The current produce by the IL – ID –

5 solar cell can be given by IL – ID + ISh IL + ID – ISh IL + ID + ISh ISh D
photo voltaic devices in the Cadmium Cadmium Cadmium Cadmium

6 form of thin films. Telluroide oxide sulphide sulphate A
7 Which of the following Barium Silicon Silver Selenium B
material is used
The efficiency ofina solar
solar
8 2 to 5% 30 to 40% 10 to 15% 70 to 80% C
cell may be in the range Series and
Series Parallel
A module in a solar panel arrangement arrangement parallel None of
9 refers to of solar cellsof solar cells. arrangement of the above C
What is the maximum l ll
10 300 W/m2 250 W/m2 100 W/m2 500 W/m2 B
possible output of a
The current density of asolar 10 – 20 mA/ 20 – 40 mA/ 40 – 50 mA/cm2 60 – 100
11 C
photo
What isvoltaic cell ranges
the major element cm2 cm2 mA/cm2
12 Hydrogen Nitrogen Silicon Carbon C
found in a photovoltaic (PV) Convert
Convert direct Change the flow Change
What is the purpose of an alternating current (DC) of electrons fromthe flow of
inverter in an active solar current (AC) to alternating positive to electrons
13 system to direct current (AC) negative from B
t (DC) Chemical ti t
Through
Concentratin
reactions the
g solar
performed in atmospher
power plants Photovoltaic (PV)
laboratories e as
What is the most common assembled cells that use
that harness sunlight
way that solar energy is around the semiconductor
14 energy from crosses
converted into electricity world technology C
the sun the earth’s
15 Quantum dot solar cells are Gratzel cell Solar cell Voltaic cell Galvanic A
based on
The nature of the current ac cell
None of
16 dc Both a and b B
developed in MHD
What is the working fluid in Helium and Coal these
17 Natural gas Potassium A
closed cycle MHD system argon Liquid
In a MHD generator the
18 conductor is made of Copper Liquid metal Gas metal or D
P-type N-type Intrinsic P-N
19 A solar cell is a semiconduc semiconduct semiconductor Junction D
20 Which of the following PbS GaAs CdS Si A
materials
Which of thecannot be used High
following High High Energy High
21 C
should not be the Absorption Conductivity Band Availability
ubjecElective-IV (Solar & Wind Energy)
Que Question Option-A Option-B Option-C Option-D Correct
stio Option
Electromagnetic Solar radiation Solar radiation

Photovoltaic cell or solar cell Thermal energy radiation directly into thermal into kinetic
1 converts into electricity into electricity energy energy B
What are the types of solar cooparabolic

2 cookers panel cookers box cookers all of above D
The voltage of a single solar

3 cell is 0.2 v 1.0 v 0.5 v 2.0 v C
The term photo voltaic comes
4 from Spanish Greek German English B
The temperature inside the
box type solar cooker ranges
5 500-100°C 100-140°C 150-200°C 70-80°C B
from
The use of reflector in the Decrease create green increase
6 solar cooker is to efficiency house effect efficiency none of these C
The material used for
interconnection the solar cells
7 in the solar panel is silicon aluminium copper silver D
A solar panel is made by solar
8 combining in an arrangement concentrator solar cookers solar cells solar chimney C
Which part of the solar cooker Coating with
is responsible for green house black colour Outer cover of
9 effect inside the box Mirror Glass sheet the solar cooker C
Solar cells having major Lack of Large area

10 disadvantages as Variable power High cost availability requirement B
Solar energy can be directly
converted to electrical energy
11 solar cooker solar heater solar geyser solar cell D
by
Air temperature in solar drying
12 in comparison to sun drying is High low Equal none of these A
Why direct heating by hot air High temperatureThe material can Low temperature Conduction gives
13 cannot be done in some cases not required degrade not required best results B
Which dryer used radiation for
14 drying Spray dryer Drum dryer Flash dryer Microwave dryer D
Which of the following is
normally used in solar cookers
15 for trapping solar energy Solar panels Silicon cells Mirrors none of these C
conversation Transmission
16 which factor is to be consider tFill factor factor factor none of these A
17 solar air heater used in solar cooker HVAC system Heat Engine all of above D
What is the best reflective
18 material for a solar cooker Aluminum foil glass fibre stainless steel copper A
The function of a solar dryer is
19 to heat air at constant A&B
pressure temperature volume B
What are the most common Crystalline
20 photovoltaic cells used today Organic cells Polymer cells silicon cells Plastic cells C
Subject Elective-IV (Solar & Wind Energy)
Questi Question Option-A Option-B Option-C Option-D
on No
1 What are used to turn wind energy Turbine Generators Yaw motor Blades
into
The electrical
wind speedenergy
is measured using
2 Pyranometer Manometer Anemometer Wind vane
an instrument called
The rate of change of wind speed None of the
3 with height is called Wind shear Wind rose Wind solidity above
4 Winds having following speed are 5 – 25m/s 10 – 35m/s 20 – 45m/s 30 – 55m/s
suitable to operate
The amount wind
of energy turbinesin the
available Square root Square root
5 wind at any instant is proportional to power of two power of three Square power Cube power
6 The wind intensity can be described Reynolds numberMach number Beaufort number Froude number
by
Low solidity rotors use which of the Drag
7 Lift Centrifugal Centripetal
following forceisfor
The following therotation
tangential Incident wind Blade linear
8 velocity of the blade due to the Wind velocity velocity velocity Relative velocity
9 Turbines blades have ____ type cross Aerofoil Elliptical Rectangular All of the above
section to extract energy from wind
10 The Nacelle of windmill houses Gearbox Brakes Generator All of the above
11 In which of the following region deserts offshore low altitudes All of the above
winds are stronger and constant sites Large
Small wind
What happens when the land near theAll the oceans currents are atmospheric
12 earth’s equator is heated gets heated up formed Rise in tides winds are
13 Which country created wind mills Egypt Mongolia Iran Japan

What does Heating and cooling of the Thermo line Radiation Conduction Convection
14 atmosphere generates circulation currents currents currents
Renewable Non-renewable Conventional Commercial
15 What type of energy is wind energy energy energy energy energy
Horizontal axis
with two Horizontal axis Horizontal axis
Which type of the following consists aerodynamic propeller type multi bladed type Sail type wind
16 of single blade blades wind mill wind mill mill
Horizontal axis
with two Horizontal axis Horizontal axis Horizontal axis
Which windmill blades are made by aerodynamic multi bladed type propeller type wind mill Dutch
17 an array of wooden slats blades wind mill wind mill type
Horizontal axis
Horizontal axis Horizontal axis with two
Which type of wind mills blade are Sail type wind wind mill Dutch multi bladed type aerodynamic
18 made out of cloth mill type wind mill blades
Which type of windmill has better Vertical type Darrieus type Horizontal type Magnus effect
19 performance wind mills machines windmills rotor
What does TSR stand for in design Torque- Tip suspension Temporary speed
20 consideration of wind mills synchronous Tip speed ratio ratio restriction
Turbines with how many propellers
21 are used in order to avoid vibrations 1 2 3 4
Wind energy Wind energy Wind engine
conversion Wind engine combined comparison
22 What does WECS stands for system control system system system
What units does the anemometer Meter per Centimeters per
23 measure in seconds Liters per minute minute Feet per minute
Which type of axis does a Savonius
24 Rotor has Horizontal axis Mediolateral axis Vertical axis Lateral Axis
What form of force acts on the Air resistance
25 blades of Darrieus machine Pure tension Compression Shear force force
Which type of vertical wind machine
has relatively low solidity and low Darrieus type Magnus effect
26 starting torques Cup anemometerSavonius rotor rotor rotor
Which type of vertical wind machine Magnus effect Darrieus type
27 consists of spinning cylinders Cup anemometerSavonius rotor rotor rotor
Which type of Generator is employed Synchronous Induction Permanent
28 in wind power plant generator generator magnet motor Brushless motor
Which of these is NOT a part of a
29 modern wind turbine Compressor Gearbox Nacelle Yaw drive
Which nation leads the world in

30 installed wind energy capacity Netherlands China United States Germany
Which state produces most wind

31 energy in India Rajasthan Gujarat Maharashtra Tamil Nadu
32 Which country is known as ‘country Denmark Iran Sweden France
of winds
Correct
Option
A
C
A
A
D
C
B
C
A
D
B
C
B
A
bje Elective-IV (Solar & Wind Energy)
Qu Question Option-A Option-B Option-C Option-D
es
1 How many blades does a modern wind 3 2 6 4

turbine have
Power coefficient is maximum for
2 which type of wind turbine rotor sail Dutch Modern propeller Farm
During component manufacturer
3 Steel Aluminum copper carbon fibre
energy consumption is high for
capicity factor is high for which type
4 open urban both type none of above
of terrain
Total capacity of domestic wind
5 5 KW 15 KW 20 KW 10 KW
turbine is not to be exceeds than
Micro wind turbine has rated capacity
6 4 KW 15 KW 1 KW 0.5 KW
less than
Betz criteria for maximum power
7 0.3 0.6 0.9 1.3
extraction is
The following factors affects the Mountain The trees and Frictional effect
8 distribution of wind energy chains, hills buildings of the surface All of the above
wind mill design capacity compare to
9 higher lower equal none of above
connected load is
Maximum power generation occurs at
10 0 0.3 0.5 1
axial interference factor of
stall condition of wind turbine occurs
11 2 0 1 0.33
at axial interference factor
None of the
12 At gradient height the shear force is Zero Minimum Maximum above
The gradient height is about ..m from
13 the ground 500 1000 1500 2000
Surface layer is the air layer
14 considered from the height of local 50m 100m 150m 200m
15 Air layer from 100 m that extends up toSurface layer Boundary layer Ekman layer none of above
the gradient height is known as
16 In component manufacturer energy concrete glass fibre stell epoxy resin
consumption is low for
A 50 kw A 1.5 MW turbine
Which of these is not an example of turbine at an A large, 100 MW at a university A small, 5 KW
17 distributed wind generation office building wind farm campus turbine at a home
Large
Small wind atmospheric
What happens when the land near the All the oceans currents are winds are
18 earth’s equator is heated gets heated up formed Rise in tides created
19 What is the diameter of wind turbine 320 feet 220 feet 80 feet 500 feet
blades
A wind turbine designed too to come
20 into operation at a minimum wind Cut in velocity Windward Cut out velocity Upwind location
To make a In order to adjust

Why is wind turbine designed to stop quick stop in To protect wheel To improve the the blades to
21 operation at cut out velocity emergencies against damage efficiency wind direction
On what does the selection of Length of Capacity of Transmission
22 supporting structure depends blades Rotating capacitygenerator systems
At what type of location vibrations are Downwind
23 less in the wind turbines Windward Leeward location Upwind Location
Why blade velocity of wind turbine Due to varying Long length of Due to the height Because of
24 varies wind speeds blades of mount hotness of Sun
Calculate the air density when 18 m/s
25 wind is at 1 std atmospheric pressure 1.149 kg/m3 1.9 kg/m3 2.88 kg/m3 5.89 kg/m3
Correct
Option
C
B
A
D
C
B
D
A
B
C
B
C
A
D
B

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• Based on usability, Energy Resources are classified into _____

a) primary, secondary and tertiary resources

• Which of the following is not a type of primary resource?

• Which of the statements is correct about Solar Energy?

• Wind and Hydrogen energy are examples of_________

• On the basis of long-term availability, resources are classified into____

• Which of these Energy resources is/are widely used in industries?

• Which of these is the major contributor to world pollution?

• The unit of energy yield ratio is _____

1. World Energy Needs are rising due to _________

2. Which of the following is a disadvantage of Hydro Power?

3. Which of the following statement is true about conventional energy sources?

5. To focus on Renewable and Other alternative sources of energy, ______ was

6. IREDA was developed by the Government of India _______

9. CASE was established after the Oil Crisis of 1973.

10. Which of the following schemes was launched by MNRE?

1. Conventional Energy Sources are cheaper than Non-Conventional Sources.

3. _____ is a petrochemical and is used as raw material for chemical, pharmaceutical,

4. Which of the following statements is not true about radioactive waste?

5. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of Hydro Power?

6. Sweden banned _______ in 1984.

7. Which Oxides of Nitrogen are generated by burning of fossil fuel?

9. Which Uranium isotope is used in nuclear power plants?

10. Based on the following statements, choose the correct option.

1. ______ energy sources provide energy in dilute form.

2. Non-Conventional Energy sources have a high gestation period.

3. Based on the following options, choose the correct option.

4. The availability of Renewable energy sources is _____

5. The cost of harnessing energy from Non-Conventional Energy sources is low.

6. Which of the following statements is not true about Renewable Energy?

7. Renewable energy-based power plants have ______

9.Most of the Renewable energy sources are ________

10. The storage of renewable energy sources is expensive.

2. Which of the following has caused global warming?

3. What is the major problem with wind energy?

4. How does acid rain affect the environment?

5. What is the pH level of acid rain?

6. Which of the following is/are directly harming the atmosphere?

7. Which of the following is/are major contributor(s) of acid rain?

9. What is a solar cooling technology?

11. Wind plants affect the habitat of _______

12. Which of the following is an example of a nuclear accident?

13. What happens when a nuclear reactor core is damaged?

14. Aerosols, CFCs and freons damage the ozone layer.

1. Which of the following is the cleanest fossil fuel?

3. What is the objective of the main international treaty on climate change?

6. Where is the ozone hole located?

7. What is main potential water pollutant from a geothermal reservoir?

11. Which of the following is the largest emitter of sulphur dioxide?

12. Land requirement of a geothermal plant depends on _______

14. Photovoltaic manufacturing requires hazardous materials.

4. Which of the following ensures sustainable growth?

5. Sustainable development requires that energy resource ________

6. Which of the following contributes towards growth of economic and energy?

7. Which of the following energy resources seems inexhaustible?

8. For sustainable development, environment damage rate _____ environment recovery

10. Which of the following best describes green economy?

11. What is the goal of sustainability in any process?

12. What are the three pillars of sustainable development?

13. What is the main problem with development of countries?

1. Which of the following best describes world energy consumption?

2. Which of the following is NOT included in world energy consumption?

3. World energy consumption is measured _______