Practice Questions (Closed) : Asme Section Viii, Div. I

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PRACTICE QUESTIONS
(Closed)
ASME SECTION VIII, DIV. I
1. An item, which cannot be found on a mill test report for

material, is:
A. SA Specification number
B. Heat number
C. Allowable stress value
D. Chemical composition
2. What is the minimum thickness of plate that can be used in the
shell or head of a pressure vessel?
A. 1/4"
B. 3116"
C. 1/16"
D. There is no minimum thickness
3. Surface defects in materials may be repaired when:
A Approved by the Inspector

B. Accepted by the engineering department
C. Approved by the pressure vessel engineer
D. Less than 2" in depth
4. Re-rating may be done after which of the following requirements

are met?
a. Calculations from either the manufacturer or an owner-

use pressure vessel engineer experienced in pressure
vessel design, fabrication or inspection shall justify the re-
rating.
b. The re-rating is in accordance with the construction code
to which the pressure vessel was originally built or by
computations that are determined using the appropriate
formulae in the latest edition of the ASME Code
c. Current inspection records verify that the pressure vessel
is satisfactory for the proposed service conditions and that
the corrosion allowance provided is adequate.
d. All of the above
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5. Which of the following types of heads will normally require the

greatest wall thickness?
A. 2:1 elliptical head
B. Dished torispherical
C. Hemispherical head
D. Flat head
6. Design and fabrication of pressure vessels shall be in accordance
with which of the following:
A. ASME Section I
B. ASME Section VIII
C. Engineering Guides and General Specifications
D. API - Pressure Vessels Section IV
7. Which of the following is / are to be undertaken in case the

ownership and location of vessel are changed?
a. The vessel shall be hydro tested only

b. The vessel shall be internally and externally inspected
before it is re-used
c. The allowable conditions of service shall be established
and the next period of inspection shall be established for
the new service.
d. Only “b” and “c”
8. The maximum deviation from the true circular form of a vessel

shall not exceed:
A. 2%
B. 1%
C. 10 % of the nominal inside diameter
D. 5%
9. A new pressure vessel should be inspected to which of the

following codes?
a. API 510
b. API 572
c. ASME Sec. VIII Div. 1
d. All of the above
10. For repairs as per API 510, the welders and welding procedures
shall be qualified to the requirement of:
a. API 1104 code
b. ASME Section V
c. ASME Section IX
d. AWS D 1.1
11. Which of the following liquid penetrant indications would be

unacceptable?
A. Relevant linear indications
B. Relevant rounded indications greater than 3/16"
C. Four or more relevant rounded indications in a line
separated by 1/16" or less
D. All of the above
12 According to the ASME Code, Section VIII, the metal
temperature during pneumatic test shall be at least _____
above the minimum design metal temperature to minimize the
risk of brittle fracture.
A. 200F
B. 300F
C. 400F
D. 500F
13. Calculate the remaining life of a vessel given the following data:
Actual thickness = 0.955 inch. Minimum thickness required =
0.787 inch Thickness at pervious inspection 5 years prior to
present inspection = 1.015 inch
a. 20 years
b. 14 years
c. 28 years
d. None of the above
14. Ultrasonic examination may be substituted for radiography when:
A. Radiographic equipment is not available
B. Final closure seam of a vessel does not permit
interpretable radiographs
C. Required by the designer
D. Final closure seam exceeds 2-in. thickness
15. If a vessel is so large that it must be PWHT in more than one
heat, what is the minimum overlap in the furnace?
A. 5’
B. 10'
C. 15'
D. 50'
16. The period between the two consecutive internal (or on-stream)
inspections shall not exceed?
a. One half of the remaining life of the vessel (based on
corrosion rate)
b. 10 years
c. cases where the safe working life is estimated to be less
than 4 years the inspection interval may be the full
remaining safe operating life up to a maximum of 2 years
d. The least of above
17. A vessel nameplate is stamped RT 4 this indicates that:

A. Only part of the complete vessel has satisfied the
radiographic requirements of UW-11(a)
B. The complete vessel satisfies the requirements of UW-
11(a)(5) and the spot radiography requirements of UW-1
(a )(5)(b) have been applied
C. All butt welds have been 100% radiographed
D. All butt welds have been spot radiographed per UW-52
18. What is the maximum allowable working pressure of a vessel?
A. The vessel's design pressure
B. The vessel's design pressure plus the static head
C. The maximum gauge pressure permitted at the bottom of
the vessel, which includes hydrostatic head
D. The maximum gauge pressure permitted at the top of the
vessel
19. The symbol ~HT" on a pressure vessel nameplate indicates:
A. Vessel was hammer tested
B. Whole vessel was Post Weld Heat Treated
C. Vessel is good for high temperature
D. Vessel was hydrotested
20. After completion or repairs, a pressure test
a. Must always be conducted

b. Shall be applied if the authorized pressure vessel inspector
believes that one is necessary
c. Must never be conducted
d. Shall be conducted only if repair is done on pressure parts.
21. If probable corrosion rates can not be determined, on stream

determinations shall be made after approximately:
a. 10,000 hours of service
b. 1000 hours of service
c. 5000 hours of service
d. After 2,500 hours of service
22. Which of the following documents referenced in API 510

addresses recommended inspection practices for pressure
vessels?
a. API 620
b. API 572
c. API Std 526
d. All of the above
30. After completion of alterations a pressure test

a. Normally required
b. Subject to approval of the jurisdiction ( where applicable )
appropriate NDE shall be required where pressure test is
not performed
c. Substituting NDE procedure for a pressure test after an
alteration ay be done only after consulting a pressure
vessel engineer experienced in pressure vessel design and
the authorized pressure vessel inspector have been
consulted
d. All of above
31. Vessels containing lethal substances are required to be postweld

heat treated in what thicknesses ?
A All
B. Above 5/8 in
C. Above 1 1/4 in.
D. Above 1 in.
32. Butt welds in vessels that contain lethal substances are required
to be _____ radiographed.
A. Spot
B. Fully
C. Partially
D. None of the above
33. Materials used for making repair by welding in carbon steel
vessels shall have the following limitations?
a. They shall meet the requirements stipulated I NACE MR
0175
b. The carbon content shall not be over 0.35%
c. Welding repair shall be done by using only the GTAW
process
d. All of the above
34. Longitudinal welded joints within the main shell or nozzles are
Category _____
A. C
B. D
C. A
D. B
35. The temperature used when calculating the required thickness of
a shell or head is known as the _____ design temperature.
A. Marginal
B. Minimum
C. Maximum
D. Optimal
36. The acronym MDMT stands for ______

A. Major Design Method Theory
B. Minimum Design Metal Temperature
C. Maximum Design Metal Temperature
A. Minimum Design Material Temperature
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
SET 2 (Open)
1. Which carbon low-alloy material listed below can be exempted

from impact testing per UG-84?
A. P-No. 8,1/2 in.
B. P-No. 1, Group 3, Curve E, 1 in.
C. P-No. 1, Group 1 or 2, Curve C, not exceeding 2 in.
D. P-No. 1, Group 1 or 2, Curve D, not exceeding 1 in.
2. P-No. 1, Group 1 or 2 material listed on Curve A is exempted
from impact testing if it does not exceed
A. 1 in.
B. 2 in.
C. 1/2 in.
D. 9/16 in.
3. Loadings to be considered in designing a pressure vessel are:

A. Internal and external pressure
B. Wind
C. Snow
D. All of the above
4. If a steel casting has a weld seam with a joint efficiency of 0.70
and is examined in accordance with the minimum requirements
of the material specification what would be the appropriate "E"
value to use when calculating the required thickness of the
casting?
A. 0.70
B. 1.00
C. 0.80
D. 1.00
5. You are calculating the required thickness of a cylindrical shell
under internal pressure. The inside radius including corrosion
allowance is 24 in. The corrosion allowance is 0.125 in. What
inside radius would you use?
A. 24 in.
B. 24.125 in.
C. 48.50 in.
D. 26 in.
6. A full size Charpy impact test specimen has a dimension of

A. 10 mm x 11mm
B. 0.394 in. x 0.394 in.
C. 0.394 in. x 0.393 in.
D. 0.262 in. x 0.394
7. What is done when full size impact test specimens cannot be

obtained?
A. Estimate the ft-bf that could be obtained
B. Refer to standard tables
C. Subsize specimens are to be used
D. Use a drop weight test as an alternative
8. You are to impact test a material, which is I in. thick, and has a
minimum specified yield strength of 55 ksi. What is the required
average for the 3 specimens?
A. 20 ft-lbf
B. l5 ft-lbf
C. 30 ft-lbf
D. 50 ft-lbf
9. When full radiography is required of the Category A and D butt
welds, the Category B and C butt welds shall as a minimum
meet the requirements for ______
A. Full radiography in accordance with UW-51
B. Spot radiography in accordance with UW-52
C. Partial radiography in accordance with UW-53
D. Spot radiography in accordance with UW-51
10. Ultrasonic examination in accordance with UW-53 may be

substituted for radiography for what condition?
A. It is never permitted
B. When radiographic equipment is not available
C. For the final closure seam if the construction does not
permit interpretable radioqraphs
D. For longitudinal welded seams when they are in excess
of 1 1/4 in.
11. Joint efficiencies for welded joints shall be in accordance with
A. Subsection C
B. UW-11(a)(5)(b)
C. Paragraph UW-12(d)
D. Table UW~12
12. When a value of E is taken from column (a) of Table UW-12

what are the values for Type 1 and Type 2 welded joints?
A. 1.00 & 0.90
B. 1.00 & 0.85
C 0.85 & 0.70
D. 0.85 & 0.65
13. What would be the value of E for a butt-welded longitudinal joint
welded from both sides?
A. 1.00
B. 0.85
C. 0.45
D. 0.60
14. Material for pressure parts shall comply with the requirements
for materials given in --------
A. UG-4 thru UG-15
B. UG-93
C. UW-15
D. UG-l5 thru UG-27
15. Material for non-pressure parts, which are welded to the vessel
_____ prior to being used in the vessel.
A. Must be tested using PT or MT
B. Must be proven of weldable quality
C. Must be ultrasonic thickness tested
D. Must be pressure tested
16. For material which is not identifiable in accordance with UG-10,
UG-11, UG-15, or UG-93, proof of weldable quality can be
demonstrated by:
A. Using weld material which meets the requirements of an
SFA specification
B. Preparing a butt joint test coupon from each piece of non-
identified material and making guided bend tests
C. Satisfactory qualification of the welding procedure
D. Both 2 and 3 above
17. When adjacent abutting sections differ in thickness by more

than the lesser of one-fourth the thickness of the thinner section
of 1/8 in. what must be done?
A. Provide a tapered transition of at least 3:1
B. Make six inch radiograph
C. Nothing
D. Provide a tapered transition of at least 4:1
18. Longitudinal welded joints of adjacent courses shall be

separated by at least-------to avoid the radiographic
requirement.
A. Five times the minimum thickness of the plate
B. Five times the thickness of the thinner plate
C. Six inches
D. Four times the thickness of the thicker plate
19. Full radiography is required for which of the following butt welds:
A. In shells and heads of vessels containing lethal substances
B. In shells and heads of unfired steam boilers having design
pressures less than 50 PSI
C. In all vessels where the least nominal thickness exceeds 1
in.
20. Category B and C butt welds in nozzles and communicating
chambers never require radiographic examination provided they
neither exceed:
A. NPS 10
B. 1 1/8 in.
C. NPS 6
D. NPS 10 nor 1 1/8 in.
21. Corrosion under insulation (CUI) due to environmental factors

like humidity, moisture, will be more pronounced at temperature
a. Below 250F
b. 250F to 2500F
c. More than 2500
d. Other factors being same corrosion in above temperature
ranges will be same minimize.
22. What is the set pressure tolerance for a pressure relief device
set at 350 PSI?
A. +/-2 PSI
B. +/-30 PSI
C. +/-10.5 PSI
D. +/- 15%
23. A pressure vessel, which is 50 in. inside diameter, has a flat

spot. What is the maximum permitted out of roundness at this
location?
A. 2.00 in.
B. 1.00 in.
C. 0.750 in.
D. 0.500 in.
24. The formula that is to be used calculating thickness and

pressure for cylindrical shells subject to circumferential stress is
found in Appendix
A. 1-1,formula2
B. 1-1,formulal
C. 1-4, formula 3
D. 1-8, formula 1
68. When calculating the required thickness for external pressure of
a shell factor B must be determined. Considering the D 0 / t ratio
what are the three parameters required to determine the factor?
A. Material, stress, temperature
B. Factor A, modulus of elasticity, material
C. Factor A, material, and the design temperature
D. Thickness, factor A, design temperature
69. A nozzle similar to Figure UW-16.1, sketch (e) has a shell
thickness of 9116 in. and a nozzle thickness of 3/4 in., what is
the value of tmin?
A. 9/l6 in.
B. 1/2 in.
C. 11/2 in.
D. 1 in.
70 Two shells are to be butt welded together to form a
circumferential joint. Each shell is 1" thick. What is the
maximum permitted offset?
A. 3/l6in.
B. 1/4t
C. 1/8 in.
D. 3/4 in.
71. Pressure vessels with a volume of 1 1/2 curt and 600 PSI design
pressure can be exempted from Authorized Inspection provided
they are not to be _____
A. Provided with quick actuating closures
B. Used for water service only
C. Used for steam service less than 4000F
D. Used for noncorrosive service
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
SET 3 (Open)
148. The required visual inspection after application of the hydrostatic

test pressure is conducted at not less than
A. Four-fifths the test pressure
B. The MAWP to be stamped on the vessel
C. Two-thirds the test pressure
D. Ten percent above operating pressure
149. What type liquids may be used for hydrostatic testing?

A. Water
B. Any nonhazardous liquid if below its boiling point
C. Combustible liquids having a flash point less than 1100 F
D. All of the above
150. The recommended test temperature above the MDMT for
hydrostatic testing in accordance with the ASME Code is _____
A. 100F
B. 300F
C. 200F
D. 500F
151. The hydrostatic test pressure shall be applied to a filled pressure
vessel when _____
A. The vessel and its contents are at about the same
temperature
B. The Inspector believes it should be applied
C. Required by the test procedure
D. All personnel are at a safe distance from the test site
152. What is the maximum metal temperature that need not be
exceeded during a hydrostatic pressure test?
A. 700F
B. 300F above the MDMT
C. 120~F
D. 10~F above the Design temperature
153. A small liquid relief valve installed on the vessel set to times
_____________ the hydrostatic test pressure is a recommended
precaution to prevent overpressure and damage
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1-1/2
D. 1-1/3
154. Except for lethal service a vessel ______ hydrostatic pressure

test.
A. May
B. May not
C. Should
D. Must
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
SET 4 (Open)
204. When a value of E is taken from column (a) of Table UW-12

what are the values for Type 1 and Type 2 welded joints?
A. 1.00&0.90
B. 1.00&O.85
C. 0.85 & 0.70
D. 0.85 & 0.65
205. What would be the value of E for a butt-welded longitudinal joint

welded from both sides?
A. 1.00
B. 0.85
C. 0.45
D. 0.60
206. A seamless vessel section is welded into a vessel with the
requirements of UW-1 1 (a)(5)(b) spot radiography
requirements met. What value of E would be used in the
calculation for the shell?
A. 0.85
B. 0.65
C. 0.90
D. 1.00
207. A seamless head is welded to a vessel shell using a Type 4 joint.

What value of E would be used in the calculation for the head?
A. 0.55
B. 0.45
C. 0.85
D. 1.00
208. An ERW pipe is being used as the shell of a vessel, what E value
would be used in the calculation of the shell if the requirements
of UW-1 1 (a)(5)(b) were met?
A. 1.00
B. 0.85
C. 0.45
D. 0.60
209. A single unreinforced opening meeting the requirements of UG-

36(c)(3) is located in a Category B weld joint. What radiographic
requirements must be met?
A. A radiograph must be taken that is two times the diameter
of the hole in length
B. A six inch radiograph must be taken which is centered
over where the hole will
be placed
C. A twenty inch radiograph must be taken which is centered
over the hole area
D. A radiograph must be taken that is three times the
diameter of the hole in length
210. Strength calculations are required for which of the following

nozzle configurations?
A. Figure UW-1 3.2, sketch h
B. Figure UW-16.1, sketch a-1
C. Figure UW-16.1, sketch b
D. Figure UW-13.1, sketch d
211. Reinforcing plates and saddles of nozzles attached to the outside
of a vessel shall be provided with at least one telltale hole ____
in size.
A. Maximum NPS 1/4 tap
B. Maximum NPS 2
C. Maximum NPS 1/2 tap
D. 2 in.
212. The largest throat size required for a ~ fillet weld when only
pressure loading is being considered is:
A. 3/4 in.
B. 1/3 the thickness of the nozzle
C. 3/l6in.
D. 1/4 in.
213. A nozzle similar to Figure UW-16.1, sketch (e) has a shell
thickness of 9/16 in. and a nozzle thickness of 3/4 in., what is
the value of tmin,?
A. 9/16 in.
B. ½ in.
C. 1 ½ in
D. 1 in.
214. When calculating the allowable load on fillet welds a joint
efficiency of _____% is used.
A. 60
B. 55
C. 1.0
D. 85
215. Welding procedures used in welding pressure parts and in
joining load-carrying nonpressure parts shall be qualified in
accordance with:
A. AWSB1
B. ASME Section IX
C. ASME Section VIII
D. Company engineering specifications
216. When welding nonpressure-bearing attachments, which have no
load-carrying function, is made by any automatic welding
process procedure qualification testing is:
A. Required when thickness exceeds 1/2"
B. Required for pressure pants only
C. Not required
D. Not required unless requested by the inspector
217. Each welder and welding operator shall be assigned a/an _____
by the manufacturer/repair firm.
A. Clock number
B. Welding helmet
C. Blue uniform
D. Identifying number, letter or symbol
218. It is recommended that no welding be performed when the
metal is lower than _____0F.
A. 32
B. 60
C. 0
D. 5
219. Tack welds
used to secure alignment shall be:
A. Removed completely
B. Ground on the starting and stopping ends
C. Examined with the PT method
D. Either 1 or 2
220. Surfaces to be welded shall be cleaned within what distance
from the weld joint?
A. 1”
B. Two times the plate thickness
C. There is no mandatory distance
0. As required by the inspector
221. Two shells are to be butt welded together to form a

circumferential joint. Each shell is 1" thick. What is the
maximum permitted offset?
A. 3/16 in.
B. 1/4t
C. 1/8in.
D. 3/4 in.
222. What is the maximum permitted weld reinforcement for a butt
in a pressure vessel shell that is 1-1/2 in. thick?
A. 1/2 in.
B. 3/32 in.
C. 1/8 in.
D. 1/4in.
223. When welds are identified by stamping, each welder or welding
operator shall stamp their identification at what intervals for
steel fabrications?
A. 6 ft.
B. 2 ft
C. 10 ft.
D. 3 ft.
224. Peening shall not be used on which of the following welds if the
vessel is not subsequently post weld heat treated?
A. Initial (root layer)
B. Intermediate layers
C. Final face layer
D. 1 and 3
225. What is the minimum overlap that must be provided when a
vessel is heat treated in more than one heat in a furnace?
A. 10 ft.
B. 5 ft.
C. No minimum specified
D. 15 ft.
226. Postweld heat treatment when required shall be done _____
A. Either before or after the hydrostatic test
B. Prior to minor repairs
C. Before hydrostatic test
D. After hydrostatic test
227. An example of nominal thickness for the purpose of determining

heat treatment time is:
A. The depth of a repair weld
B. The thickness of the attachment when a non pressure part
is welded to a pressure part
C. The thickness of the tubesheet in shell to tubesheet
connections
D. The thicker of the two adjacent welded butt welded pants
228. Surface weld metal buildup is required to be examined over the
full surface of the deposit by which of the following?
A. Radiographic
B. Ultrasonic
C. Magnetic Particle
D. Acid etching
229. The Inspector shall assure that which of the following has been
accomplished?
A. Welding procedures used have been qualified
B. Welders used have been qualified
C. Postweld heat treatments have been correctly performed
D. All of the above
230. When pneumatic testing is used instead of hydrostatic testing
which of the following welds must be examined with MT or PT?
A. All welds around openings
B. Welds around openings over 12 in. CD
C. Attachment welds with throat thickness exceeding 3/8 in.
231. When full radiography is required the radiographic personnel
shall be qualified to which standard?
A. Manufacturer's
B. ISO 926
C. SNT-TC-1A
D. AWS-1104
232. A longitudinal butt weld is being fully examined. The weld is 3/4
in. thick which includes 1/16 in. reinforcement. What is the
longest elongated inclusion permitted?
A. 3/16 in.
B. 1/4in.
C. 3/4 in.
0. 1/2t
233. For spot radiography, one spot shall be examined on each vessel
for each
A. 50 ft.
B. 25 ft.
C. 60 ft.
0. 10%
234. The minimum length of a spot radiograph shall be _____
A. 24in.
B. No minimum specified
C. 12 in.
D. 6in.
235. When a spot radiograph does not meet Code requirements

________ of length.
A. The entire increment will be acceptable if the weld is

repaired at the failed spot
B. Two additional spots shall be examined
C. One additional spot shall be examined
D. The entire increment must be rewelded and a new spot
examined
236. Ultrasonic examination when required is performed in

accordance with _____
A. Section V, Article 5
B. Appendix 8
C. Appendix 12
D. Appendix 7
237. For welded construction the carbon content for carbon and low
alloy steels shall not exceed
A. 0.035
B. 0.35
C. 3.5
0. 10
238. SA-36 and SA-283 Grades A, B, C, and 0 steel plates may be
used as pressure parts for which of the following applications?
A. Unfired steam boilers not exceeding 50 PSI
B. Vessels containing lethal substances
C. Vessels processing gasoline
239. The term nominal thickness for determination of postweld heat

treatment holding time is defined as:
A. Thickness of the weld including corrosion allowance
B. Thickness of the base metal
C. Thickness of the weld excluding corrosion allowance
D. Thickness of the base metal plus one-half the corrosion
allowance
240. When pressure parts of two different P-Number groups are
joined by welding the postweld heat treatment shall be that
specified in:
A. UCS~6 or UHT-56
B. UCS-56 or UHA-32
C. UHT-56 or UHA-32
D. UNF-56 or UCS-56
241. The temperature of the furnace shall not exceed _____ 0F at the
time the vessel or part is placed in it.
A. 600
B. 500
C. 800
D. 300
242. Above 8000F the heating rate shall not be more than ______
A. 5000F/hour divided by the maximum metal thickness
B. 4000F/hour divided by the maximum metal thickness
C. 9000F/hour divided by the maximum metal thickness
D. 2000F/hour divided by the maximum metal thickness
243. During the postweld heat treatment holding period there shall
be no greater difference than _____0F between the highest and
lowest temperature throughout the portion of the vessel being
heat treated.
A. 150
B. 200
C. 300
D. 250
244. During the heating and cooling periods, the furnace atmosphere
shall be controlled as to avoid
A. Excessive corrosion
B. Excessive bending
C. Excessive stress
D. Excessive oxidation
245. Above 8000F cooling shall be done in ______

A. A furnace
B. A furnace or cooling chamber
C. A cooling chamber
D. Still air
246. Above 8000F the cooling rate shall not be more than
A. 5000F/hour divided by the maximum metal thickness
B. 4000F/hour divided by the maximum metal thickness
C. 9000F/hour divided by the maximum metal thickness
D. 2000F/hour divided by the maximum metal thickness
247. What 15 the normal holding temperature for a P-No. 1 Group 3?

A. 11000F
B. 12000F
C. 9000F
D. 6000F
248. What is the minimum holding time for a P-No. 1 Group 2 welded
joint 2 in. thick?
A. 4 hours
B. 2 hours 15 minutes
C. 2 hours
D. 3 hours
joint 1/8 in. thick?
A. 1 hour
B. 12.5 minutes
C. 15 minutes
joint 6 in. thick?
A. 3 hours
B. 3 hours 30 minutes
C. 2 hours
0. 5 hours
251. A welded joint in a P-No. 1 Group 1 material is 1 3/16 in. thick.
No special service requirements apply. What would the minimum
holding time be?
A. 1 hour 11.25 minutes
B. No PWHT required
C. 2 hours

252. The special service conditions of UW-2 apply to a P-No. 1 Group
3 material. Which of the following can be exempted from PWHT
if a minimum 2000F preheat is applied?
A. Groove welds not over 1/2 in. that attach nozzles with an
inside diameter of 2 in.
B. Fillet welds with a throat thickness of 3/4 in. that attach
non pressure parts to pressure parts
C. Any weld less than 11/2 in.
D. Any weld not over 11/4 in.
253. The maximum depth of a repair weld using the temper bead
process that does not require a repostweld heat treatment for a
P-No. 1 Group 2 material is _____
A. 2 in.
B. 1-1/4 in.
C. 1-1/2 in.
D. 5/8 in.
254. After completing all welding, the repair area shall be maintained
at a temperature of --------- for a minimum period of _____
hours.
A. 3004000F 5 hours
B. 400-5000F 5 hours
C. 450-5500F 4 hours
D. 400-5000F 4 hours
255. The alternative postweld heat treatment temperate of 9500F is
to be used for a P-No. 1 Group 2 weld joint of 4 in. thick. What
would the minimum holding time be?
A. 10 hours 45 minutes
B. 10 hours
C. 4hours
0. 2 hours 30 minutes
256. For P-No. I Group 1 material full radiography is required when
the thicknesses exceeds ______ in.
A. 0
B. 1-1/2
C. 1-1/4
D. 5/8
257. Unless otherwise exempted impact testing is required for a
combination of thickness and
A. Minimum design metal temperature
B. Maximum design temperature
C. Specification and grade of material
D. Allowable stress
258. Components, which are to be evaluated to establish impact test

exemptions, are:
A. Shells
B. Heads
C. Attachments, which are essential to the structural integrity
of the vessel when, welded to pressure retaining
components
D. All of the above
259. The governing thickness tg for a corner, fillet or lap welded joint
is defined as:
A. The throat thickness of the attaching weld
B. The thinner of the two parts joined
C. The nominal thickness of the thickest welded joint
D. The thickness of the thicker member divided by 4
260. When the governing thickness for a welded joint exceeds
______ in. and is colder than ______0F impact tested material
shall be used.
A. 4, -50
B. 4, 120
C. 6, 120
D. 2, -50
261. The governing thickness of a fiat nonwelded tubesheet of 16 in.
thickness is:
A. 4 in.
B. 16 in.
C. Dependent on the attaching shell thickness
D. 6 in.
262. If the governing thickness of a nonwelded part exceeds 6 in.,
below what MDMT must the material be impact tested?
A. 1000F
B. 600F
C. 1200F
263. What is the basic minimum design metal temperature for a SA-
216 Grade WCB casting which is produced to a fine grain
practice and water quenched and tempered with the largest
nominal thickness 11/2 in.?
A. 880F
B. 140F
C. 430F
D. 510F
264. When the coincident ratio as defined in Figure UCS-66.1 is 0.70

what is the further reduction in the MDMT of the material?
A. 200F
B. 300F
C. 400F
D. 1100F
265. No impact testing is required for B16.5 steel flanges used at
design metal temperatures no colder than ______0F.
A. 1200F
B. -200F
C. -500F
D. 200F
266. No impact testing is required for UCS materials less than
______ in. thick.
A. 1.000
B. 0.099
C. 0.098
D. 0.250
267. If postweld heat treating is performed on a weld joint joining P-

No. I materials when not otherwise required by Section VIII an
additional ______0F in impact testing exemption temperature
may be given to the minimum permissible temperature from
Figure UCS-66.
A. 30
B. 35
C. 50
D. 70
ASME QUESTIONS ANSWER KEY
Section VIII General Questions
1. C
2. C
3. A
4. A
5. D
6. B
7. B
8. B
9. C
10 B
11. D
12. B
13. B
14. B
15. A
16. C
17. A
18. D
19. B
20. B
21. A
22. C
23. A
24. C
25. B
26. D
27. A
28. D
29. C
30. D
31. A
32. B
33. A
34. C
35. C
36. B
37. D
38. C
39. D
40. A
41. B
42. B
43. C
44. A
45. B
46. C
47. D
48. A
49. B
50. A
51. B
52. D
53. A
54. B
55. A
56. D
57 A
58.D
59 B
60. C
61. A
62.B
63.C
64.C
65. C
66.D
67. B
68.C
69. A
70. A
71. A
72.B
73. C
74. A
75. C
76. C
77. C
78. D
79. C
Subsection A
80. B, Foreword
81. 0, U-1 (e)
82. A, U-1 (j)
83. A, U-1 (j)
84. C, U- (2)
85. A, Table U-3
86. C UG-4 (a)
87. B, UG-4 (b)
88. A, UG-5, Note 2
89. D, UG-9
90. B, UG-l0
91. B; UG-16 (b)(1)
92. D, UG-16(c) 37
93. D, UG-16 (d)
94. A, UG-16 (e)
95. C, UG-20 (a)
96. B, Figure UCS-66.2
97. D, UG-20 (f)(1)(b)
98. C, UG-20 (f)(1)(a)
99. D, UG-22
100. A, U G-24 (a)
101 B, UG-27(c) & UG-16 (e)
102. D, Table UW-12
103. C, UG-28
104. A, UG-28(c)(1) Step 2
105. C, UG-28(c)(1) Step 4
106. B, UG-32 (a)
107. D, UG-32 (d)
108. D, UG-32 (d)
109. B, UG-32 (e)
110. B, UG-32 (o)
111. A, UG-34
112. C, UG-34(c)(2) & UW-12
113. A, UG-34(c)(2)
114. A, UG-36(c)(3)(a)
115. B, UG-36(c)(3)(c)
116. C, UG-37 (a)
117. A, UG-37 (a)
118. B, Figure UG-37.1
119. C, UG-37 (a)
120. C, Figure UG-37.1 & UG4O (b)(1) & (2)
121. A, UG-40 (e)
122. B, UG-76(c)
123. A, UG-77 (a)
124. D, UG-77 (b)
125. A, UG-79 (b)
126. D, UG-80 (a)
127. B, UG-82 (a)
128. A, UG-82 (b)
129. D, UG-84(c)(1)
130. B, UG-84(c)(2)
131. C, UG-84(c)(3)
132. A, Figure UG-84.lb
133. C, UG-84(c)(4)(b)
134. B, Table UG-84.2
135. D, TabIe UG-84.4
136. B, UG-85
137. 0, UG-90(c)(1)
138. A, UG-93 (a)(1)
139. C, UG-93 (d)
140. A, UG-96
141. C, UG-98 (a)
142. A, UG-98 (b)
143. C, UG-99 (b)
144. A, UG-99(c)
145. 0, UG-99 (d)
146. B, UG-99 (e)
147. A, UG-99 (f)
148. C, UG-99 (g)
149. B, UG-99 (h)
150. B, UG-99 (h)
151. A, UG-99 (h)
152. C, UG-99 (h)
153. D, UG-99 (h)
154. A, UG-99 (k)
155. C, UG-10O (b)
156. D, UG-100(c)
157. A, UG-100 (d)
158. B, UG-1O0 (d)
159. A, UG-100 (e)
160. A, UG-102 (a)
161. B, UG-102 (a)
162. A, UG-102 (b)
163. C, UG-102 (b)
164. A, UG-102 (b)
165. D, UG-102(c)
166. B, UG-103
167. C, UG-103
168. B, UG-115 (b)
169. B, UG-116 (a)(3)
170. 0, UG-116 (b)(1)
171. A, UG-116(c)
172 B, UG-116 (e)(2)
173. C, UG-116 (e)(3)
174. D, UG-116 (e)(4)
175. C, UG-116 (e)(1)
176. B, UG-116 (e)
177. A, UG-116 (f)(1)
178. C, UG-116 (f)(2)
179. D, UG-120 & Appendix W
180. C, UG-120(c)
181. A, UG-125(c)
182. D, UG-128
183. A, UG-134 (a)
Subsection B
184. D, UW-2
185. A, UW-2 (a)
186. B, UW-2 (a)
187. A, UW~(d)(2)
188. C, UW-3 (a)(1)
189. B, UW-3 (a)(2)
190. B, UW-3 (a)(1)
191. C, UW-3 (a)(3)
192. D, UW-3 (a)(4)
193. A, UW-3 (b)
194. A, UW-5 (a)
195. B, UW-5 (b)
196. D, UW-5 (b)(3)
197. A, UW-9(c)
198. B, UW-9 (d)
199. A, UW-11 (a)(1)

200. D, UW-11 (a)(2) & (4)
201. B, UW-11 (a)(5)(b)
202. C, UW-11 (a)(7)
203. D, UW-12
204. A, Table UW-12 Column (a)
205. B, Table UW-12 Column (b) type 1
206. D, UW-12 (d)
207. C, UW-12 (d)
208. A, UW-12 (e)
209. D, UW-14 (b)
210. B, UW-15 (b)
211. A, UW-15 (d)
212. D, UW-16 (b)
213. A, UW-16 (b)
214. B, UW-18 (d)
215. B, UW-28 (b)
216. C, UW-28(c)(2)
217. D, UW-29(c)
218. C, UW-30
219. D, UW-31(c)
220. C, UW-32 (a)
221. A, Table UW-33
222. C, Table UW-35
223. D, UW-35
224. D, UW-39 (a)
225. B, UW40 (a)(2)
226. C, UW40 (e)
227. A, UW40 (f)(6)
228. C, UWA2 (b)(2)
229. D, UW47, 48, 49
230. A, UW-50
231. C, UW-51 (a)(2)
232. B, UW-51 (b)(2)
233. A, UW-52 (b)(1)
234. 0, UW-52(c)
235. B, UW-52 (d)(2)
236. C, UW-53
Subsection C
237. B, UCS-5 (b)
238. C, UCS-6(b)
239. A, UCS-56 (a)
240. B, UCS-56(c)
241. C, UCS-56 (d)(1)
242. B, UCS-56 (d)(2)
243. A, UCS-56 (d)(3)
244. D, UCS-56 (d)(4)
245. B, UCS-56 (d)(5)

246. A, UCS-56 (d)(5)
247. A, Table UCS-56, P-No. 1 material
248. C, Table UCS-56, P-No. 1 material
249. C, Table UCS-56, P-No. 1 material
251. B, Table UCS-56, P-No. 1 material
253. C, UCS-56 (f)(2)
254. D, UCS-56 (~(4)(c)
255. A, Table UCS-56.1
256. C, Table UCS-57
257. A, UCS-66(a)
258. D, UCS-66(a)
259. B, UCS-66(a)(1)(b)
260. B UCS-66(a)
261. A, UCS-66(a)(3)
262. C, UCS-66(a)(5)
263. A, Figure UCS-66 & Table UCS-66
264. B, Figure UCS-66.1
265. B, UCS-66(c)
266. C, UCS-66(d)
267. A, UCS-68(c)
APPENDICES
268. C, Appendix 1-1, Formula 1
269. D, Appendix 4-2(c)
270. B, Appendix 4, Table 4-1
271. C, Appendix 6-3
272. D, Appendix 7-3(a)(1)
273. A, Appendix 7-3(a)(3)
274. C, Appendix 74(a)
275. D, Appendix 84
276. B, Appendix 8-2
277. C, Appendix 12-1(b)
278. A, Appendix 12-2
279. D, Appendix 12-3(b)
280. B, Appendix 12-4
281. C, Appendix W, Form U-IA
282. A, Appendix W, Form U-2

Practice Questions (Closed) : Asme Section Viii, Div. I

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Practice Questions (Closed) : Asme Section Viii, Div. I

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Professional Training and Consultation

1. An item, which cannot be found on a mill test report for

A Approved by the Inspector

4. Re-rating may be done after which of the following requirements

a. Calculations from either the manufacturer or an owner-

5. Which of the following types of heads will normally require the

7. Which of the following is / are to be undertaken in case the

a. The vessel shall be hydro tested only

8. The maximum deviation from the true circular form of a vessel

9. A new pressure vessel should be inspected to which of the

11. Which of the following liquid penetrant indications would be

17. A vessel nameplate is stamped RT 4 this indicates that:

20. After completion or repairs, a pressure test

a. Must always be conducted

21. If probable corrosion rates can not be determined, on stream

22. Which of the following documents referenced in API 510

30. After completion of alterations a pressure test

31. Vessels containing lethal substances are required to be postweld

36. The acronym MDMT stands for ______

1. Which carbon low-alloy material listed below can be exempted

3. Loadings to be considered in designing a pressure vessel are:

6. A full size Charpy impact test specimen has a dimension of

7. What is done when full size impact test specimens cannot be

10. Ultrasonic examination in accordance with UW-53 may be

12. When a value of E is taken from column (a) of Table UW-12

17. When adjacent abutting sections differ in thickness by more

18. Longitudinal welded joints of adjacent courses shall be

21. Corrosion under insulation (CUI) due to environmental factors

23. A pressure vessel, which is 50 in. inside diameter, has a flat

24. The formula that is to be used calculating thickness and

148. The required visual inspection after application of the hydrostatic

149. What type liquids may be used for hydrostatic testing?

154. Except for lethal service a vessel ______ hydrostatic pressure

204. When a value of E is taken from column (a) of Table UW-12

205. What would be the value of E for a butt-welded longitudinal joint

207. A seamless head is welded to a vessel shell using a Type 4 joint.

209. A single unreinforced opening meeting the requirements of UG-

210. Strength calculations are required for which of the following

221. Two shells are to be butt welded together to form a

227. An example of nominal thickness for the purpose of determining

235. When a spot radiograph does not meet Code requirements

A. The entire increment will be acceptable if the weld is

236. Ultrasonic examination when required is performed in

239. The term nominal thickness for determination of postweld heat

245. Above 8000F cooling shall be done in ______

247. What 15 the normal holding temperature for a P-No. 1 Group 3?

D. None of the above

258. Components, which are to be evaluated to establish impact test

264. When the coincident ratio as defined in Figure UCS-66.1 is 0.70

267. If postweld heat treating is performed on a weld joint joining P-

ASME QUESTIONS ANSWER KEY

Section VIII General Questions

199. A, UW-11 (a)(1)

245. B, UCS-56 (d)(5)

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