MOCK BAR EXAMINATION QUESTIONS IN

REMEDIAL LAW

1. The venue of a petition for a judicial settlement of the estate of a resident of the
Philippines, whether a citizen or alien is:

a. the place where he died.

b. his residence at the time of his death.
c. any of the provinces where he had any property at the time of his death.
d. any of the above places at the option of the petitioner.
e. none of the above.

2. Which of the following is not correct? The extrajudicial settlement of the estate of a
decedent is allowed:

a. when he died testate.

b. when he died intestate.
c. regardless of the value of his estate.
d. when he was not survived by children.
e. none of the above.

3. Which is correct? The allowance of a will is:

a. not conclusive as to its due execution.

b. conclusive as to its due execution.
c. conclusive as to the validity of the dispositions made therein.
d. not conclusive on anything.

4. The petition for the allowance of a will may not be filed by:

a. the testator himself during his lifetime

b. the executor
c. the devisee/ legatee
d. a person who is not interested in the estate.

5. A will proved and allowed in a foreign country may be allowed in the Philippines if:

a. It was proved and allowed in accordance with the laws of such foreign
country.
b. The will was executed in the Philippines.
c. The will was executed in such foreign country.
d. None of the above.

6. Which is not correct? A special administrator has the power to:

a. Commence and maintain suits as administrator.

b. Take possession of the estate of the deceased.
c. Sell any property of the estate without court authority.
d. Pay the debts of the deceased upon order of the court.

7. The actions, which may be filed against an executor or administrator, do not include:

a. recovery of real or personal property from the estate.

b. recovery of an interest in such property.
c. enforcement of a lien on such property.
d. recovery of a loan evidenced by a promissory note signed by the decedent.

8. A probate court can:

a. issue writs of execution in all cases.

b. not issue a writ of execution in any case.
c. issue a writ of execution in only three (3) instances.

9. The residue of the estate of a decedent may be distributed to the heirs, even before
all the obligations of the estate have been paid if the distributees or any of them gives
a bond to guarantee the payment of the unpaid obligations within the time fixed by
the court:
 a. in a sum fixed by the court.
b. in an amount equal to twice the said unpaid obligations.
c. a cash bond equal to the amount of the said unpaid obligations.

10. The venue of a petition for the escheat of the estate of a decedent who was a
resident of the Philippines is:

a. his residence at the time of his death.

b. the place of his death.
c. any of the places where his properties are located.
d. any of the places where he resides.
e. the place where he last resided.

11. The venue of a petition for guardianship of a minor or incompetent who resides in
the Philippines is:

a. his residence
b. the residence of the guardian.
c. the place where any of his properties is located.
d. anywhere in the Philippines.

12. A return of a writ of habeas corpus is considered prima facie evidence of the
cause of the detention if:

a. made by a public officer.

b. made by a private person.
c. the detention is pursuant to a warrant of arrest.

13. When a person is detained by a private person, the writ of habeas corpus is
directed:

a. to the said private person.

b. to an officer of the law.
c. to any person designated by the court.
d. none of the above.

14. Habeas Corpus issued by the Regional Trial Court (RTC) is enforceable only in:

a. the territorial jurisdiction of the RTC that issued it.

b. the place where the person is actually detained.
c. in the judicial region to which the RTC that issued it pertains.
d. none of the above.

15. The venue of a petition for a change of name is:

a. the place of birth of the petitioner.

b. his residence.
c. the place where his birth was registered.
d. the place where he was baptized.
e. any place in the Philippines.
16. The period of appeal from an order in a special proceeding is:

a. 15 days from notice, if no motion for reconsideration is filed.

b. 15 days from notice of denial of a motion for reconsideration.
c. 30 days from notice
d. none of the above.

17. Mr. PP, a resident of Quezon City was sideswiped while he was walking along a
narrow street by a car negligently driven by Mr. DD, a resident of Manila. Any suit for
damages should be filed in:

a. Makati city where the incident happened.

b. The place stipulated upon by the parties after the incident.
c. Manila, the residence of Mr. DD.
d. Quezon City if Mr. PP so desires.
18. The following defenses and objections not pleaded either in a motion to dismiss
or in the answer are not deemed waived. Which is the exception?

a. Jurisdiction over the subject matter

b. Jurisdiction over the person of the defendant
c. Litis pendencia
d. Res judicata
e. Prescription

19. Mr. PP files a complaint against Mr. DD. The latter failed to answer within the
reglamentary period.

a. The court may motu propio declare the defendant in default for violation of the
rules as long as the defendant is notified.
b. The court may thereupon render judgment granting the claimant the relief
prayed for.
c. The court may direct the defendant to answer so that the issues may be
joined.
d. The defendant is ipso facto in default.
e. The defendant may be declared in default upon motion of the claiming party,
notice to defending party, and upon proof of the defendant’s failure to answer.

20. Mr. Santos, the defendant in an action for annulment of marriage failed to file his
answer, under the circumstances:

a. The court shall order Mr. Santos to file his answer.

b. The court may motu propio declare Mr. Santos in default.
c. The court may declare Mr. Santos in default upon motion of Mrs. Santos and
proof the defendant’s failure to answer.
d. The court shall order the prosecuting attorney to determine whether or not
collusion exists between the parties.
e. The court shall order the prosecuting attorney to prevent fabrication of
evidence.

21. The following are the grounds that would justify a motu propio dismissal of the
complaint by the court. Which is the exception?

a. Improper venue.
b. Failure of plaintiff to appear on the date for presentation of his evidence in
chief.
c. Failure to prosecute the action for an unreasonable length of time.
d. Failure to comply with the Rules.
e. Failure to comply the order of the court.

22. DD, defendant in a civil suit failed to appear during the pre-trial:
a. His appearance is excused provided his counsel is present.
b. His appearance is excused as long as his attorney is fully authorized in writing
to enter into an amicable settlement without need for showing a cause for his
absence.
c. His non-appearance will be excused only if he is incapacitated.
d. His failure to appear without justifiable cause will automatically authorize the
plaintiff to present his evidence ex parte.
e. None of the above states a correct procedural rule.

23. Mr. PP sued Mr. DD. Mr. CC believes that he has a legal interest in the subject
matter of litigation and in the success of Mr. DD.

a. Without leave of court, Mr. CC may intervene in the suit.

b. Mr. CC should file a third party complaint with leave of court.
c. Mr. CC should file an inter pleader with leave of court.
d. Mr. CC should file a cross-claim with leave of court.
e. Mr. CC with leave of court may intervene in the suit.

24. Mr. PP sued Mr. DD who in his answer generally denied the material allegations
in the complaint. Mr. PP should file a:

a. Demurrer to evidence
b. A reply to the answer
 c. A motion for bill of particulars
d. A motion for summary judgment
e. A motion for judgment on the pleadings

25. Extra-territorial service of summons is proper only in the following instances.

Which is the exception?

a. When the action against the resident defendant affects the personal status of
the plaintiff and the defendant is temporarily outside the Philippines.
b. When the action is against a non-resident defendant who is formerly a
Philippine resident and the action affects the personal status of the plaintiff.
c. When the action against the non-resident defendant relates to property within
the Philippines in which the defendant has a claim or lien.
d. When the non-resident defendant is to be excluded from any interest on a
property located in the Philippines.
e. When the non-resident defendant’s property is to be attached in the
Philippines.

26. Mr. PP has just completed presentation of his evidence against the defendant,
Mr. DD. Believing that the plaintiff has shown no right to relief upon the facts and the
law, Mr. DD moved to dismiss the complaint (demurrer to evidence). The motion was
granted and the complaint was dismissed. Mr. PP appealed and the appellate court
reversed the order of dismissal.

a. Mr. DD may insist on his right to present evidence in support of his defense
on the ground of due process.
b. Mr. DD is deemed to have waived his right to present his evidence.
c. Mr. DD should avail of certiorari as a mode of appeal.
d. Mr. DD should avail of certiorari as a special civil action and raise
jurisdictional grounds.
e. Mr. DD should avail of prohibition to prevent the lower court from further
proceedings.

27. Mr. DD lost in a civil suit filed against him by Mr. PP. Mr. DD honestly believes
that the judgment is contrary to law and that its findings are not supported by the
evidence. Mr. PP was also awarded damages, which Mr. DD believes as “excessive”.
The remedy of Mr. DD is
a. to file an appeal by certiorari.
b. to file a motion for new trial and if denied then appeal from the judgment.
c. to file a motion for reconsideration and if denied file a petition for certiorari
raising jurisdictional grounds.
d. to file a motion for reconsideration and if denied then appeal from the
judgment..
e. to file an action to annul the judgment.

28. After a judgment has become final and executory, the following may constitute a
remedy of the losing party. Which is the exception?

a. Petition for relief

b. Action to annul the judgment
c. Motion for a new trial or consideration
d. Any of ‘a’ or ‘b’
e. None of the above

29. Judgments of the Regional Trial Court rendered in the exercise of its appellate
jurisdiction may be assailed:

a. by ordinary appeal to the Court of Appeals

b. by petition for review to the Supreme Court
c. by petition for review to the Court of Appeals
d. by ordinary appeal to the Supreme Court
e. by appeal by certiorari to the Supreme Court

30. At the commencement of the action or at any time before entry of judgment, a
plaintiff or any proper party may avail of a remedy to secure the satisfaction of the
judgment that may be rendered by the court. This remedy is:

a. accion pauliana
 b. accion reivindicatoria
c. preliminary attachment
d. preliminary injunction
e. replevin

31. Whenever conflicting claims upon the same subject matter are or may be made
against a person who claims no interest whatsoever in the subject matter, he may
bring an action against the conflicting claimants to compel them to litigate their
several claims among themselves. This action is called:

a. declaratory relief
b. partition of claims
c. receivership
d. inter pleader
e. none of the above
32. When a person is interested under a deed, will, contract or other written
instrument and whose rights are affected by a statute, executive order or regulation,
before the breach or violation thereof, may file a petition for declaratory relief in order:

a. to determine the effectivity of a statute

b. to seek for affirmative relief, specifically for damages
c. to seek for a declaration of the petitioner’s rights or duties
d. to find ways to attack the constitutionality of an executive order
e. to determine the effectivity of a law

33. When any tribunal board or officer exercising judicial or quasi-judicial functions
has acted without or in excess of jurisdiction or with grave abuse of discretion,
amounting to lack or excess of jurisdiction, and the purpose is to have the judgment
or order of such tribunal board or officer annuled or modified, the remedy available is:

a. certiorari under Rule 45

b. certiorari under Rule 65
c. prohibition
d. mandamus
e. quo warranto

34. Real Evidence is addressed to -

a. the senses of the Court

b. the opinion of an expert
c. the lawyer propounding the question
d. the clerk of court

35. A mere offer of compromise is admissible to prove-

a. civil liability
b. criminal propensity
c. criminal guilt
d. negligence

36. A witness is allowed to refer to a memorandum to refresh his memory-

a. respecting a matter of law

b. respecting the opinion of an expert
c. respecting a matter of fact recorded by his superior
d. respecting a matter of fact he recorded a long time ago

37. Independent relevant evidence is admissible to -

a. to prove the truth of a fact

b. to prove the falsity of a fact
c. to convince the judge to decide the case in favor of a party
d. to show that a fact occurred whether it is true or not

38. The testimony of a single witness is -

a. never credible
b. is always credible
 c. can be credible only if corroborated
d. may be believed even if not corroborated

39. When must an accused not under preventive detention be arraigned?

a. Within 30 days after the filing of the complaint or information against him.
b. Within 30 days after the approval of his bail bond.
c. Within 30 days from the date the court has acquired jurisdiction over his
person.

40. The court may allow an accused to plead guilty to a lesser offense necessarily
included in the offense charged against him, if his offer to so plead is consented to
by:

a. the public prosecutor

b. the private offended party
c. the public prosecutor and the private offended party

41. Leave of court is required for an amendment of a complaint or information even

before the accused has been arraigned, if the amendment:

a. is of a substantial nature
b. upgrades the nature of the offense from a lower to a higher offense
c. includes another accused
d. downgrades the nature of the offense from a higher to a lower offense or
excludes any accused

42. When is a preliminary investigation required?

a. In all cases regardless of the penalty for the offense charged.

b. In cases where the penalty for the offense charged is below four (4)
years, two (2) months and one (1) day of prision correccional.
c. In cases where the minimum penalty for the offense charged is four (4)
years, two (2) months and one (1) day of prision correccional.

43. When is an order sustaining a motion to quash a bar to a prosecution for the
same offense?

a. If the ground thereof is lack of jurisdiction of the court over the offense
charged.
b. If the ground thereof is that the complaint or information charges two or
more offense, which do not constitute a complex offense.
c. If the ground thereof is the prescription of the offense or the penalty
therefore.

44. When is the authentication of a private document offered in evidence not

required?

a. When it is offered as an authentic document.

b. When it is more than 30 years old, produced from a custody in which it
would naturally be found if genuine, and is unblemished by any alteration
or circumstance of suspicion.
c. When it is less than 30 years old at the time of its presentation.

45. Which of the following is not correct? A party against whom a witness testified
may impeach the latter by:

a. contradictory evidence
b. evidence that his general reputation for truth, honesty or integrity is bad
c. evidence that he has made at other times statements inconsistent with
his present testimony
d. evidence of particular wrongful acts committed by the witness

46. When is the extra-judicial confession of an accused sufficient for conviction?

a. Even without corroboration thereof by evidence of corpus delicti.

b. Only when it is corroborated by evidence of corpus delicti.
 c. Regardless of whether or not it is corroborated by evidence of corpus
delicti.

47. The written agreement between AA, a resident of Abra, and BB, a resident of
Cagayan made before the suit, states that “any suit involving this lot located in Nueva
Ecija, shall be filed only in the proper court of Pampanga.” Hence, the suit must be
filed:

a. in Abra
b. in Cagayan
c. in Nueva Ecija
d. In Pampanga

48. The Regional Trial Court (RTC) affirmed the order of the Municipal Trial Court
(MTC) granting a motion to dismiss (MTD) on the ground that it has no jurisdiction
over the subject matter of the case. Such subject matter is within the jurisdiction of
the RTC. Hence, what should RTC do?

a. Must merely affirm the MTC order.

b. Remand the case to the MTC for further proceedings.
c. Must try the case on the merits as if the case was originally filed with it.

49. In appeals by notice of appeal, when does the court lose jurisdiction over the
case?

a. Upon the perfection of the appeal of a party filed in due time.

b. Upon the expiration of the time to appeal of the other parties.
c. Upon the perfection of the appeal of a party filed in due time and the
expiration of the time to appeal of the other parties.

50. When may a plaintiff amend his pleading once as a matter of right?

a. At any time before the defendant has served on him his responsive
pleading.
b. At any time after the defendant has served on him his responsive
pleading.
c. A plaintiff has no right to amend his pleading, unless the court has
previously given him leave to amend his pleading.

51. In an original action for certiorari, prohibition, mandamus, quo warranto, when
does the Court of Appeals acquire jurisdiction over the person of the respondent?

a. By the service of summons upon him

b. By the service of a copy of the petition on him
c. Upon the service on him of the owner or resolution of the court of
appeals indicating its initial action on the petition or by his voluntary
submission to the jurisdiction of the court of appeals.

52. When the court renders a judgment in a judicial foreclosure against the
defendant, when is the mortgaged property sold at public auction to satisfy the
judgment?

a. After the decision has become final and executory.

b. After the failure of the defendant to pay the judgment amount within the
period fixed in the decision which shall not be less than ninety (90) nor
more than one hundred twenty (120) days from entry of judgment.
c. The mortgaged property is never sold at public auction.

53. In an action for the recovery of personal property, at what stage of the
proceedings may the plaintiff apply for an order for the delivery of such property to
him?

a. At any time during the trial

b. After an answer has been filed
c. At the commencement of the action but before an answer has been filed.

54. The court is mandated to take judicial notice of the fact that:
 a. On 05 February 1945, the seat of the Philippine Republic had been
transferred to Baguio City.
b. Real estate is usually declared for taxation purposes by the owners
thereof with an assessed value much lower than their actual market
value.
c. There is a crisis in the pre-need industry.
d. Before reaching a station, buses slow down and the conductor
announces the name of the station.

55. What is NOT considered an original of a document:

a. An entry repeated in the course of business, one being copied from

another at or near the time of the transaction.
b. A carbon copy of an application form
c. A document executed in triplicate at or about the same time with identical
contents.
d. None of the above

56. All except one of the following is hearsay:

a. An affidavit of a witness to the execution of a document who was not

presented as a witness in the trial.
b. The testimony of the owner of a building founded on the record prepared
according to the verbal statements of his employees.
c. The testimony of a complainant regarding text messages he received
from a respondent.
d. The testimony of a police inspector that he was told by others that there
were several gambling houses in a town among them the defendants.

57. All except one of the following is true with respect to confessions:

a. It is a categorical acknowledgment of guilt.

b. It must always be express, never implied.
c. It may be made by third persons and, in certain cases, are admissible
against a party.
d. It may be made only by the party himself and, in some instances, are
admissible against his co-accused.

58. What is NOT allowed to happen in enforcing a foreign judgment in the

Philippines?

a. The court with which the action to enforce the foreign judgment is filed
takes judicial notice of the foreign judgment.
b. The party who files the action presents a certified true copy of the
judgment by the clerk of the court of the foreign tribunal that rendered it.
c. The party who files the action presents a certification from the Philippine
diplomatic representative in the said foreign country that the person who
issued the copy is the legal custodian thereof.
d. All of the above

59. The police sought A for questioning in connection with the killing of the
deceased. He was seen wearing a bloodstained shirt. During his interrogation, A
was not assisted by counsel. He admitted his guilt and showed the knife he used to
commit the crime. What piece of evidence is admissible?

a. The bloodstained shirt

b. The knife he used to commit the crime
c. His extra-judicial confession
d. None of the above

60. Z was charged with robbery with rape. He took the stand on his own behalf and
testified on the alleged robbery. On what matters may the prosecution cross
examine the accused?

a. Only matters touched upon by Z in his direct testimony.

b. Matters involving the alleged rape.
c. Matters involving Z and other relevant matters.
d. All of the above
61. Which of the following is NOT a public document?

a. The written official acts, or records of the official acts of the sovereign
authority, official bodies and tribunals, and public officers.
b. Documents acknowledged before a notary public
c. Public records, kept in the Philippines, of private documents required by
law to be entered therein
d. Last wills and testaments

62. What is NOT a requisite in order for the Dead Man’s Statute to be applicable?

a. The witness is a party or an assignor of a party

b. The action is against an executor or an administrator of an estate
c. The testimony should refer to any matter of fact which occurred after the
death of the deceased.
d. The subject matter of the action is a claim or demand against the estate
of a deceased person.

63. Which of the following matters need to be proven by the parties to an action?

a. Facts which are admitted or which are not denied in the answer, provided
they have been insufficiently alleged.
b. Those which are the subject of an agreed statement of facts between the
parties.
c. Facts which are not subject to judicial notice.
d. Those admitted by any party.

64. An adverse party’s witness may NOT be impeached by:

a. evidence that in the community where he resides, his general reputation

for truth, honesty or integrity is bad.
b. a prior inconsistent statement
c. particular instances of immoral or wrongful acts, or improper or unlawful
conduct that the witness may have committed.
d. Evidence of a prior conviction of an offense which may be proved by
eliciting an admission from the witness or by a record of his conviction.

65. Who may NOT be excluded from the proceedings of a case?

a. Parties to the action or the accused in a criminal case

b. Expert witnesses
c. Rebuttal witnesses
d. All of the above

66. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. It is the duty of the judge to rest his findings of facts and his judgment
only and strictly upon the evidence offered by the parties at the trial.
b. It is the duty of a party to select the competent from the incompetent in
offering testimony and he cannot impose this duty upon the trial court.
c. It is discretionary upon the trial court to reject the entire evidence or
receive evidence those parts which are admissible and reject the other
parts.
d. All of the above

67. Which statement refers to “corpus delicti”?

a. It is the body or substance of the crime.

b. It is the fact that a crime has actually been committed.
c. It is the actual commission by someone of the particular crime charged.
d. All of the above

68. Which of the following is NOT a requisite for the admissibility of a dying
declaration?

a. The declaration relates to the facts or circumstances pertaining to the

fatal injury or death.
 b. The declarant is dead.
c. The declaration is made in connection with a startling occurrence.
d. The declarant would have been competent to testify had he survived.

69. All criminal actions shall be commenced by:

a. complaint
b. information
c. preliminary investigation
d. a or b

70. A holographic will which is contested may be allowed when its authenticity is
proven by:

a. one (1) witness who saw the testator write and sign it
b. two (2) witnesses who saw the signing thereof
c. three (3) witnesses who declare that they saw the testator sign it
d. three (3) witnesses who know the handwriting of the testator explicitly
declare that the will and the signature thereon are in the handwriting of
the testator

71. In a rape case, jurisdiction is conferred by:

a. law
b. complaint of offended party
c. information filed by the Prosecuting Officer
d. all of the above

72. The public prosecutor need not be present during the trial of a criminal case in
the Regional Trial Court:

a. when there is a private prosecutor

b. when he has turned over the active conduct of trial to the private
prosecutor
c. he should always be present unless the chief of the prosecution office or
the regional state prosecutor has authorized the private prosecution in
writing to prosecute the case subject to the approval of the court
d. when he has lost controls of the prosecution

73. The signature of counsel in the pleading constitutes a certification that:

a. his client had read the pleading and certifies to the accuracy of the
material allegations therein.
b. his client had read the pleading and that to the best of the client’s
knowledge, information and belief, there is good grounds to support it
and not interposed for delay.
c. he has read the pleading, that to the best of the client’s knowledge,
information and belief, there is good grounds to support it and that is not
interposed for delay.
d. he has read the pleading, that based on his personal information, there is
good grounds to support it, and that it is not interposed for delay.
e. that both client and counsel have read the pleading, that to the best of
their knowledge, information and belief there are good grounds to
support it and that it is not interposed for delay.

74. The rule that a complaint or information must charge only one offense is
absolute.

a. True
b. False, this is subject to exception.
c. False, except when existing laws prescribe a single punishment for
various offense.
d. False, except when there are several accused with different
participations in the commission of the crime.

75. Which of the following statements does not conform with existing procedural
concepts?
 a. Errors of jurisdiction are normally correctible by certiorari while errors of
judgment are correctible by appeal.
b. Jurisdiction over the plaintiff is acquired by the filing of the complaint,
petition or initiatory pleading.
c. Jurisdiction over the defendant is acquired only by a valid service of
summons.
d. Jurisdiction over the issues of the case is determined and conferred by
the pleadings filed in the case or by the agreement of the parties.
e. Jurisdiction over the rest is acquired by the actual or constructive seizure
by the court of the thing in question, placing the same under the custody
of the court.

76. If any of the defendants does not reside and is not found in the Philippines, and
the action affects the personal status of the plaintiff, the action may be commenced
and tried:

a. in the court of the place where the defendant may be found

b. in the court of the place where the plaintiff resides
c. in the court of the place where the defendant formerly resided
d. in the court of the place of birth of the plaintiff

77. During the trial of a damage suit, Mr. DD, defendant, introduced evidence on a
matter not raised in the pleadings of the parties. Mr. PP, plaintiff promptly objected
on the ground that the evidence concerns a matter not in issue. Under the
circumstances:

a. the court has no alternative but to sustain the objection

b. the court must overrule the objection and treat the issue as if it had been
raised in the pleadings
c. the court must order the amendment of the pleadings to conform to the
evidence and grant a continuance to enable the amendment to be made.
d. the court in its discretion may allow amendment of the pleading if doing
so would serve the ends of substantial justice.
e. the court may order the striking out of an allegation which does not
conform to the evidence.

78. Evidence beyond reasonable doubt -

a. is the same as preponderance of evidence

b. is the equivalent of substantial evidence in administrative cases
c. must be absolutely certain to convict
d. must be morally certain, otherwise the accused is entitled to acquittal

79. A petition for adoption may be filed in the Regional Trial Court of

a. the place where the adopter resides

b. the place where the adoptee resides
c. the place where the adoptee was born
d. the place where the birth of the adoptee was recovered

80. Habeas Corpus is not the proper remedy to secure the release of a person
detained pursuant to:

a. a warrantless arrest
b. a warrant of arrest
c. a warrant of arrest issued on the basis of an information charging an
offense which has already prescribed.
d. his voluntary surrender

81. In a case for alleged drug-pushing, evidence of:

a. the buy-bust money is indispensable

b. the confidant’s testimony who accompanied the poseur-buyer is
necessary
c. the drugs subject of the case is indispensable
d. the testimony of the chemist who examined the alleged drugs is
indispensable
82. The petition for the voluntary recognition of a minor natural child may be filed
only by:

a. the child
b. the mother of the child
c. the father of the child
d. the child or his parent
e. none of the above

83. The following pleadings are allowed under the Rules on Summary Procedure,
except a:

a. complaint
b. answer to the complaint
c. cross claim
d. compulsory counterclaim
e. reply

84. Quo warranto proceedings may be brought against the following, except:
a. a public officer who usurps, intrudes, or unlawfully holds a public office
b. a public officer who refuses to assume a public office because someone
has usurped his position
c. a public officer who commits an act which constitutes a ground for the
forfeiture of his office
d. a corporation which acts as a corporation without legal authority to act
e. None of the above

85. Mr. PP files a complaint against Mr. DD. The latter failed to answer within the
reglamentary period.

a. The court may motu propio declare the defendant in default for violation
of the rules as long as the defendant is notified.
b. The court may thereupon render judgment granting the claimant the relief
prayed for.
c. The court may direct the defendant to answer so the issues may be
joined.
d. The defendant is ipso facto in default.
e. The defendant may be declared in default upon motion of the claiming
party and upon proof of the defendant’s failure to answer.

86. When the criminal action has already been instituted, an application for search
warrant shall be filed in the:

a. Court within whose territorial jurisdiction a crime was committed.

b. Court where the criminal action is filed.
c. Court within the judicial region where the crime was committed if the
place of the commission of the crime is known.
d. Court where the criminal action is pending.

87. All of the following statement are true, except:

a. if the court denies demurrer to evidence filed with leave of court, the
accused may adduce evidence in his defense
b. The motion for leave of court to file demurrer to evidence shall be filed
within an extendible period of five (5) days
c. The order denying the motion for leave of court to file demurrer to
evidence or the demurrer itself shall be reviewable by appeal or by
certiorari before judgment
d. Both B and C

88. Which of the following statement is correct?

a. Even the counsel for the accused or prosecutor does not appear at the
pre-trial conference, they are not required to offer an acceptable excuse
for his lack of cooperation.
b. Warrant of arrest is valid only for ten days while a search warrant does
not expire.
 c. No bail shall be allowed after a judgment of conviction has become final
even the accused applies for probation.
d. The accused may, before arraignment, move for a bill of particulars.

89. When is the accused allowed to file motion to quash?

a. At any time before arraignment

b. Within 10 days after the accused has entered his plea
c. At any time before the judgment become final
d. After the accused has entered his plea

90. The following are allowed to conduct preliminary investigations except:

a. Provincial or City Prosecutor and their assistants.

b. Judges of Municipal Trial Courts and Municipal Circuit Trial Courts
c. National and Regional State Prosecutors
d. Special prosecutors of the Ombudsman

91. Bail is a matter of right under the following conditions:

1. In MTC, MTC in Cities, MCTC before or after convictions

2. In RTC, after conviction if the penalty imposed is not more than six (6)
years
3. In RTC, before conviction of an offense not punishable by death,
reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment.

Which of the following conditions are correct?

a. Statement No. 1 only

b. Statement No. 2 only
c. Statement No. 3 only
d. Both statement No. 1 and 3

92. Which of the following are the proper grounds that the court should consider in
order to properly grant a new trial in a criminal case?

a. Errors or mistakes of counsel

b. Errors of law or irregularities prejudicial to the substantial rights of the
accused
c. New and material evidence has been discovered which the accused
could not with reasonable diligence have discovered and produced at the
trial
d. Both B and C

93. An accused in a rape case was convicted by the Regional Trial Court of Manila
and the death penalty was imposed upon him. The judgment shall be reviewed by
the:

a. Supreme Court
b. Court of Appeals
c. The same Regional Trial Court
d. Department of Justice

94. Which of the following statements are true and correct?

a. Any amendment before plea, which downgrades the nature of the

offense charged or excludes the accused from the complaint or
information can be made only upon motion of the prosecutor, even
without notice to the offended party and without leave of court.
b. If it appears at the time before judgment that a mistake has been made in
charging the proper offense the court shall automatically dismiss the
complaint or information filed.
c. The venue of criminal prosecution may be waived same as the venue in
civil action.
d. The offended parties are allowed to intervene by counsel in the
prosecution of the offense when the civil action is instituted in the
criminal action.
95. Which of the following is not a right of an accused?

a. To be presumed innocent.
b. To be present and defend in person and by counsel at all times.
c. Allow conference or visits by any members of his immediate family, priest
or any religious organization, any medical doctors, members of national
and international non-governmental organization accredited by the
Commission on Human Rights and the Office of the President or by his
counsel.
d. To testify as a witness in his own behalf.

96. The court denied the demurrer to evidence which the accused filed with leave of
court. Hence, the accused:

a. Loses the right to present his evidence

b. Does not lose the right to present his evidence
c. Can be compelled by the court to present his evidence
d. Has the option whether to present or not his evidence.

97. The civil action which was reserved arose from the delict and not from articles
32, 33, 24, and 2176, new civil code. It may be filed by the offended party:

a. At any time
b. After the judgment in the criminal action has become final regardless of
whether the accused was acquitted or convicted
c. Only if such judgment does not contain a finding that the act or omission
from which the civil liability arises does not exist.

98. Before an accused has been arraigned, the prosecution may amend a complaint
or information by downgrading the offense or excluding an accused therefrom:
a. Without leave of court
b. With leave of court
c. The consent of the accused

99. An order granting a motion to quash is a bar to another prosecution for the same
offense if the ground thereof is:

a. The court has no jurisdiction over the person of the accused

b. The officer who signed the complaint or information has no authority to
do so
c. The criminal action or liability has been extinguished

100. In the court of appeals:

a. The accused has no right to move for new trial

b. The accused has a right to move for a new trial on any ground
c. The accused may file a motion for new trial based on one ground – newly
discovered evidence.

101. The effect of the reversal on appeal of an order granting a demurrer to evidence
is that:

a. The defendant loses the right to present his evidence

b. The defendant does not lose his right to present his evidence
c. He loses his right to present his evidence only if he did not make a
reservation to present his evidence in case of a denial of his demurrer to
evidence.

102. A dismissal of the complaint as a result of a preliminary hearing on the affirmative

defense pleaded in the answer has the following effects on the counterclaim pleaded
in the answer:

a. The counterclaim is dismissed

b. The counterclaim is not dismissed
c. The counterclaim can be prosecuted only in the same case.

103. The pendency of a special civil action under rule 65 produces the following effect:
 a. It interrupts the course of the principal case.
b. It interrupts the course of the principal case only if there is a temporary
restraining order or a writ of preliminary injunction issued against the
public respondent.
c. The court trying the principal case has no discretion to postpone the
hearing thereof to await the decision in the special civil action.

104. The mode of appeal from a decision of the Regional Trial Court rendered in the
exercise of its appellate jurisdiction is by:

a. A notice of appeal filed with the Regional Trial Court

b. Petition for review on certiorari under Rule 45
c. Petition for review under Rule 42

105. A final and executory judgment may be enforced by motion:

a. Within 15 days from the entry thereof

b. Within 10 years from the entry thereof
c. Within 5 years from the entry thereof

106. A writ of attachment may be issued against a party as security for the satisfaction
of any judgment that may be recovered in the following cases:

a. An action for the recovery of moral and exemplary damages

b. In any action – regardless of its nature
c. In an action for a specified amount of money other than for moral or
exemplary damages, arising from contract, quasi-contract, delict or
quasi-delict, against a party who is about to depart from the Philippines
with intent to defraud his creditors.

107. A party who has suffered damages due to the issuance of an improper, irregular
or excessive attachment against him may claim such damages:

a. In the same case wherein the writ of attachment was issued, at any time
before the trial, or before an appeal has been perfected or before the
judgment becomes executory.
b. Only in a separate action against the party who secured the writ of
attachment.
c. Only after the judgment has become final and executory.

108. The lifetime or effectivity of a temporary restraining order issued by a trial court
can be extended, after the expiration thereof:

a. By order of the court

b. By agreement of the parties
c. Can never be extended

109. Where the court declared that the person who has been giving support pendente
lite to a recipient is not liable therefore:

a. The recipient who returned the amounts of support pendente lite cannot
recover such amounts from anyone.
b. The recipient who returned such amounts can recover them against the
person legally obliged to give him the support in a separate action.
c. The recipient who returned such amounts can recover them against the
person legally obliged to give him the support in the same case wherein
support pendente lite was ordered.

110. In Inter-pleader, a motion to dismiss:

a. Is not allowed to be filed by the defendants.

b. Is permitted only on any of the grounds specified in Section 1, Rule 16.
c. Is permitted only on any appropriate ground specified in Section 1, Rule
16 and on the ground of the impropriety of inter-pleader.

111. The defendant appeals from a decision of the Regional Trial Court (RTC)
affirming a decision of the Municipal Trial Court (MTC) ordering the defendant to
vacate the premises:
 a. The RTC decision is immediately executory.
b. The defendant can stay the execution of the RTC decision by filing a
bond.
c. The RTC decision can be executed only after the decision of the
appellate court affirming such decision has become final and executory.

112. The Court of Appeals may annul the judgment of the Regional Trial Court on the
ground that:

a. The RTC decision resulted from an intrinsic fraud.

b. The RTC had no jurisdiction over the person of the defendant
c. The RTC had no jurisdiction over the subject matter of the case or that
the decision resulted from extrinsic fraud.

113. In the Court of Appeals, a party who appealed from a decision in a civil case:

a. Has no right to file a motion for new trial

b. May file a motion for new trial on the ground of fraud, accident, mistake,
or excusable negligence which ordinary prudence could not have
guarded against and by reason of which he has been probably impaired
in his rights.
c. May file a motion for new trial on the ground of newly discovered
evidence which he could not, with reasonable diligence, have discovered
and produced at the trial and which if presented would probably alter the
result.

114. In an original action filed in the Court of Appeals, jurisdiction over the person of
the respondent is acquired:

a. By the service of summons upon him in accordance with Rule 14.

b. By the service of the copy of the petition upon him by the petitioner.
c. By the service upon him or the order of resolution of the Court of Appeals
indicating its initial action on the petition or by his voluntary submission to
such jurisdiction.

115. The doctrine of primacy of the criminal action, which provides that civil action is
thus suspended in whatever stage it may be found upon the filing of the criminal
action, accepts certain exceptions. Which of the following are among those
exceptions?

a. In cases of independent civil action

b. In cases where the civil action presents a prejudicial questions
c. When the act or omission from which civil liability may arise did not exist
d. Both a and b
e. All of the above

116. What is the nature of the right to preliminary investigation?

a. Inquisitional
b. Personal
c. Alternative
d. Both a and b
e. All of the above

117. Which of the following instances will operate as waiver of the right to preliminary
investigation by the accused?

a. If the accused fails to ask for preliminary investigation after being aware for
more than five (5) days that the case had been filed in court.
b. Where the accused posted a bond
c. Failure to claim it before the accused pleaded
d. Both a and c
e. All of the above

118. For instance, the provincial or city prosecutor promulgated an unfavorable

resolution of the case, where can be accused file a petition for review of the said
resolution?
 a. Office of the President
b. Metropolitan Trial Court
c. Regional Trial Court
d. Department of Justice
e. None of the above

119. An escaped prisoner, then armed with a bamboo lance, was asked by a
policeman to surrender, refused to do so and instead answered the latter with a
stroke of his lance, the policeman in pursuing the prisoner fired his revolver and
caused the death of the prisoner. Is the act of the policeman on resorting to extreme
means will always be justified?

a. Yes, since an arresting officer is required to act within the performance of his
duty, he must stand his ground and cannot, like a private individual, take
refuge in fight; his duty requires to overcome his opponent.
b. No, it was provided under the Rules of Court that no violence or unnecessary
force shall be used in making an arrest. Such provision accepts no
exception.
c. It depends, the reasonableness of the force employed by the arresting officer
must be adjudged in the light of the circumstances as they appeared to the
officer at the time he acted, and the means is generally considered to that
which ordinary prudent and intelligent person with the knowledge would have
deemed necessary under the circumstances.

120. As a rule a private person making an arrest should notify the person arrested of
his purpose and acquaint him with the cause of the arrest, however this rule accepts
certain exceptions. Which of the following are those exceptions?

a. Where the arrest is made at the time the offense is committed for attempted
or on fresh pursuit;
b. When the giving of such information is largely impracticable, as when he
forcibly resists before the person making the arrest has the opportunity so to
inform him;
c. When the giving of the information will imperil the arrest;
d. All of the above

121. What is the nature of the right to appeal, which is extended to the accused?

a. Statutory right
b. Absolute right
c. Personal right
d. Both a and c
e. All of the above

122. It is one of the modes of discovery in criminal cases especially given to the
accused, the purpose of which is to prevent surprise, suppression, or alteration of
any written statements given by the complainant and the other witnesses in any
investigation of the offense conducted by the prosecution or any other investigating
officers:

a. Production or inspection of evidence in the possession of the prosecution

b. Suspension of arraignment
c. Presentation of bills of particular
d. Appointment of counsel de officio
e. Informing the accused of all the rights he can availed of

123. When is a provisional dismissal become permanent with respect to the offenses
punishable by imprisonment of more than six (6) years?

a. One (1) year after issuance without the case having been revived
b. Two (2) years after the issuance without the case having been revived
c. Fifteen (15) days after the issuance
d. Thirty (30) days after notice to the accused
e. None of the above

124. In a case involving the question of whether the plaintiff E had resigned from
office, thus allowing the respondent G, as the officer next in line to take over, the trial
 court, in its judgment, relied on newspaper reports on the diary entries of E’s
personal secretary, F. In his diary, F indicated that E had told him (F) that he (E)
intends to resign and had performed acts preparatory to leaving office. In his motion
for reconsideration, E questioned the trial court’s reliance on newspaper reports of
F’s diary entries as these are not proper sources to justify its ruling. Is E’s contention
correct?

a. Yes, because newspaper reports are mere secondary sources which have
no probative value;
b. No, because although secondary sources, newspapers reports can be used
to establish facts;
c. Yes, because if the trial court wanted proof on E’s intention, it should have
used resources based on E’s acts, not on what someone else heard or saw;
d. No, because being E’s personal secretary, F could not have lied regarding
E’s intention to resign.

125. Tender of excluded evidence can be made:

a. Only during the direct examination

b. Only during the cross examination
c. At any stage of the examination of a witness
d. None of the above

126. The testimony of a child witness:

a. Is admissible even if hearsay

b. Is not admissible if hearsay
c. Is sufficient to convict an accused even if hearsay
d. Is admissible only after his competency is established

127. A Xerox copy of a document:

a. Is admissible
b. Could be admissible
c. Never admissible
d. Has a probative value

128. Evidence of bad moral character in a rape case is:

a. Is admissible against a 16-year old girl

b. Is admissible against a 19-year old girl
c. Is admissible against a 16-year old girl if relevant and material to the issue
d. Is admissible against a 19-year old girl if relevant and material to the issue

129. Evidence to be credible must:

a. come from credible lips alone

b. Be incredible in itself
c. Come from credible lips and must be credible in itself
d. Come from a child

130. In resolving a motion to quash, the court shall consider no ground other than
those stated therein except:

a. Double jeopardy
b. Extinction of the criminal action
c. Extinction of the criminal liability
d. Lack of jurisdiction over the subject matter or offense charged.

131. Where the criminal action has already been filed in the proper court, the
application for the issuance of a search warrant for the seizure of the instrument used
in the commission of the crime may be filed in:

a. Any Court in the province where the instrument is kept.

b. The proper Court where the criminal action has been filed or is pending
c. Any Court in the Judicial region where the crime was committed
d. In any Court within the Judicial Region where the accused resides
132. A money claim against the estate of a decedent which is not filed within the
period fixed in the “NOTICE” to creditors to file their claims:

a. Is forever barred
b. May be enforced by action by the creditor against the executor or
administrator of the decedent.
c. May be raised as a counterclaim in a suit brought against the creditor by
the executor or administrator of the decedent.
d. May be ordered paid by the Court, if there is a residue of the estate after
all the claims against such estate have been fair.

133. Where the estate of a resident is escheated:

a. His personal properties shall be assigned to the municipality or city

where they are located.
b. His real properties shall be assigned to the municipality or city where he
last resided.
c. All his personal and legal properties shall be assigned to the province.
d. His personal properties shall be assigned to the municipality or city
where ha last resided and his real properties to the municipality or city where
they are located.

134. One of those actions cannot be brought against an executor or administrator:

a. To recover real or personal property from the estate of the decedent
b. To enforce a lieu or such real or personal properties.
c. To recover damages for an injury to person or property
d. To recover money, debt or interest therein from the estate of the
decedent.

135. The order fixing the date and time of the hearing of the petition for guardianship
or a minor or incompetent residing in the Philippines:

a. Must be published in a newspaper of general circulation in the province

where the minor or incompetent resides for (3) consecutives weeks prior to
the hearing.
b. Must be published in a newspaper of general circulation in the province
where the petitioner resides for three (3) consecutive weeks prior to the
hearing.
c. Must be published in a newspaper of general circulation in the
Philippines for three (3) consecutive weeks prior the hearing.
d. Is not required to re published in any newspaper

136. A judgment on the pleadings:

a. May aware all the reliefs prayed for in the complaint, regardless of their
nature
b. May not aware the claims for attorney’s fees and actual damages in any
event.
c. May award claims for attorney’s fees and actual damages at the
discretion of the Court.
d. May award claims for attorney’s fees and actual damages if there is
evidence adduced by the plaintiff in support thereof.

137. One of these statements is not correct: A party may impeach his own witness by-

a. Contrary evidence
b. Evidence that his general honesty, integrity and truth is bad
c. Evidence of his bad character
d. Evidence of his having been convicted of all offense

138. A second Motion for New Trial in a civil action:

a. Is never allowed
b. Allowed only if the ground thereof was not yet existence when the first
motion for New Trial was filed.
c. Allowed on any ground
d. Is allowed only at the discretion of the Court
139. One of these statements is not correct: The parol evidence rule-

a. Applies only to written agreements and wills.

b. Applies only to the parties thereto and their successors-in-interest.
c. Does not apply to a party to a suit who is not a signatory or who does not
derive a right from such signatory to the written agreement or will.
d. Applies to all parties to a suit regardless of whether they are parties or
not to or derive their right under a written agreement or will involved in
the suit

140. Choose from among the grounds below for dismissal of petition for certiorari the
ground which will which sustain the issuance of writ of certiorari.

a. If it is patently without merit.

b. If the act complained of was committed with grave abuse of discretion
amounting to lack or excess of jurisdiction.
c. If the questions raised are too insubstantial to require consideration.
d. If it is prosecuted manifestly for delay.

141. A judgment or final order or resolution of the Commission on Elections or

Commission on Audit may be brought by the aggrieved party to the Supreme Court
on certiorari under Rule 65 (Section 2, Rule 64 of the Revised Rules of Court).
Assuming upon receipt by the aggrieved party of the decision of the Comelec on
December 15, 2006 the aggrieved party files a motion for reconsideration of the
decision. The motion for reconsideration was denied per resolution of the Comelec, a
copy of which was received by aggrieved party today.

Within what time should the petition be filed by the petitioner with the Supreme
Court? It should be filed within:

a. The fresh period of 30 (30) days reckoned from receipt of the denial
resolution:
b. The fresh period of twenty (20) days reckoned from receipt of the denial
resolution:
c. The fresh period of fifteen (15) days reckoned from receipt of the denial
resolution:
d. The remaining period but not less than five (5) days in any event,
reckoned from the receipt of the denial resolution.

142. Y with the use of force entered into the premises belonging to Z with an
assessed value of P20, 000.00. The latter demanded the vacation of the premises
but the former refused to vacate despite the expiration of fifteen day notice to vacate
on December 31, 2005. Your services were engaged today by Y to enforce his right.
What action would you file?

a. I would file an action for recovery of possession of the property

with the RTC of the place where the property is dispute is located.
b. I would file an action to quiet the title of my client with the RTC of
the place where the property is located, plus damages.
c. I would file an action for unlawful detainer with the MTC of the
place where the property is located, damages and prayer for issuance of
the preliminary mandatory injunction in order to compel Y to vacate the
premises.
d. I would file an action for forcible entry with MTC of the place
where the property is located with prayer for the issuance of preliminary
mandatory injunction in order to compel Y to vacate the premises.

143. X was furnished a copy of the decision on December 10, 2006 he filed a motion
for new trial on December 17, 2006. On December 22, 2006, the motion was denied
and X received a copy of the order on December 28, 2006. When X shall take his
appeal? Why?

It must be observed that December 10, the day X received a computation of a

period (Art. 13, New Civil Code). December 17, 2006, the day when he filed a
motion for new trial, should not likewise included in the period as the first is excluded
and the last day included January. The period to run again on December 28, 2006
Therefore:
 a. X should take his appeal on or before January 3, 2007.
b. X should take his appeal on or before January 4, 2007.
c. X should take his appeal on or before January 5, 2007.
d. X should take his appeal on or before January 6, 2007.

144. When may a final order be deemed to be not determining the merits of a case?

a. When the final order has been in writing, personally or directly

prepared by the judge.
b. When the final order states clearly and distinctly the facts and
the law on which is based, signed by the judge and filed with the clerk of
court.
c. When the final order considers and determines the rights of the
parties as those rights presently exist, upon matters submitted in an
action or proceeding.
d. When the final order was signed by the judge personally and
filed with the clerk of court but does not state the reason or basis
therefore.

145. Choose one effect from the following which does not arise or result from the filing
of demurrer to evidence.

a. The defendant does not waive his right to offer evidence in the
event his motion was denied.
b. When the accused filed demurrer to evidence without express
leave of court, he waives his right to present evidence and denies the
motion dismiss, the accused may adduce evidence in his defense and
submits the case for judgment on the basis of the evidence of the
prosecution.
c. If the motion is granted and the order of dismissal is reversed
upon appeal, the movant loses the right to present evidence on his
behalf.
d. In case of reversal, the appellate court shall render judgment for
the plaintiff based on the evidence alone.

146. Of the four instances below, choose one when injunction is not proper:

a. To restrain the threatened enforcement of an invalid law.

b. In an action to compel a spouse to cohabit with the other.
c. In a petition to relief from judgment.
d. In an action to restrain a criminal prosecution under an unconstitutional
statute.

147. Choose the judicial proceeding below in which a writ of habeas corpus can not
be availed of as consequence thereof:

a. Where there has been deprivation of a constitutional right resulting in the

restraint of a person.
b. Where an excessive penalty has been imposed, such sentence is void as
to such excess.
c. Where the petitioner has been unable to establish by evidence to be
entitled to the custody of the minor on account of mistaken identity.
d. Where the lower court had no jurisdiction to impose the sentence.

148. An appeal in habeas corpus case shall be perfected by filing the notice of appeal
with the clerk of court or judge who rendered the judgment within:

a. 15 days from notice of judgment.

b. 30 days from notice of judgment.
c. 5 days from notice of judgment.
d. 48 hours from notice of judgment.

149. Who may not grant a writ of habeas corpus?

a. Any Regional Trial Court judge.

b. The Court of Tax Appeals or any member thereof.
c. The Court of Appeal or any member of thereof.
d. The Supreme Court or any thereof.
150. The Sandiganbayan:

a. Has no jurisdiction over petitions for prohibition, certiorari or

mandamus.
b. Has jurisdiction, if it is in an aid of its Appellate Jurisdiction.
c. Has jurisdiction regardless of whether it is in aid of its appellate
jurisdiction or not.

151. A petition for review on certiorari filed with the Supreme Court:

a. May include an application for a writ of preliminary injunction only.

b. May include an application for a unit of preliminary injunction or other
provisional remedies.
c. May not include an application for any provisional remedy.

152. The Trial Court, Court of Appeals, the Sandiganbayan or the Court of Tax
Appeals, that issued a writ of preliminary injunction against a lower court, board,
officer or quasi-judicial body:

a. Is not required to decide the main case or petition within a specified period
from the date of the issuance of the unit.
b. Is required to decide the main case or petition within thirty (30) days from the
date of the issuance of the unit.
c. Is required to decide the main case or petition within six (6) moths the date of
the issuance of the unit.
d. Is not required to decide the main case or petition after such issuance.

153. Whenever the estate of a resident of the Philippines is escheated, his personal
estate is assigned:

a. To the municipality where he last resided.

b. To the municipality where it is located.
c. To any municipality at the discretion of the court.

154. The unjustified absence of the plaintiff from a hearing is ground for the dismissal
of his action, if the hearing is:

a. From the presentation of the evidence in chief on his complaint.

b. For the hearing of his rebuttal evidence.
c. For the presentation of the evidence of the adverse party.

155. In an expropriation proceeding, the plaintiff can enter upon and take possession
of the property subject matter of the case:

a. Only if the decision therein is favorable and executory.

b. Only after such decision has become final and executory.
c. Only before any appeal has been taken from such favorable decision.
d. At any stage of the proceeding before the rendition of the decision by
reposting with the authorized government depositary and amount equivalent
to the assessed value of the property, or in lieu thereof, a certificate of
deposit of government bank of the Republic of the Philippines payable on
demand to the authorized government depositary.

156. In a foreclosure of real estate mortgage proceeding, the “Equity of Redemption”

over the foreclosed property:

a. Does not exist.

b. May be exercised at any time after the sale of the foreclosed property.
c. May be exercised only before the confirmation of sale.

157. When a defendant is validly declared in default, the court may render a decision
on the basis of:
a. The complaint only.
b. The evidence which the plaintiff presents only.
c. The complaint or the evidence which the plaintiff presents.
d. The complaint and the evidence which the plaintiff presents.
158. The Regional Trial Court in which a petition for a Writ of Amparo is filed is the
one which has jurisdiction over the:

a. Place of residence of the respondent or any of the respondents.

b. Place of residence of the aggrieved party only.
c. Place of residence of the petitioner who is not aggrieved party.
d. Place where the threat, act or omission was committed or any of its elements
occurred.

159. While R was walking along a deserted street in Esperanza, Agusan del Sur, a
heavily tinted van stopped behind him and five armed, masked men alighted from the
vehicle. The men grabbed R, threw him inside the van, blindfolded him and tied his
hands behind his back. The van proceeded to Cagayan De Oro City, passing by
Agusan del Norte. In Cagayan de Oro, the group transferred to another van and went
up to Malaybalay, Bukidnon. Upon arriving in Malaybalay, the group met someone
who, after confirming R”s identity, gave a thick wad a peso bills to the group’s leader,
T. Using a handgun, T shot R five times at the back, instantly killing him. What
crime/s was/were committed and when court/s have jurisdiction over the case/s?

a. The crime committed was Kidnapping with Murder and the RTCs of
Esperanza, Agusan del Norte, Cagayan de Oro and Bukidnon have
concurrent jurisdiction over the case.
b. The crime committed was Murder and the RTCs of Esperanza, Agusan Del
Norte, Cagayan de Oro and Bukidnon have concurrent jurisdiction over the
case.
c. The crime committed was Kidnapping with Murder and the RTC of
Esperanza has exclusive jurisdiction over the case.
d. The crime committed was murder and the RTC of Bukidnon has exclusive
original jurisdiction over the case.

160. N, a barangay tanod, also moonlights as driver of cargo forwarder, transporting

goods and materials to and from the Manila South pier. One night, while driving one
of the employer’s cargo trucks to the pier, N met a road mishap resulted in the
opening of some of the crates in the truck’s cargo hold. Upon inspection, N noticed
that crates contained bags of white powdery substance. Suspecting the substance to
be shabu, N immediately called a kumpadre narcotics agent who took possession of
the cargo for laboratory examination. The cargo was confirmed to be shabu. The
shabu’s shipper, M, was tracked and prosecuted for illegal possession of shabu.
During the trial. M moved to suppress the shabu on the ground that they were the
product of an unreasonable warrantless search, As Judge, would you exclude the
evidence?

a. Yes the search was unreasonable because N, a barangay tanod, is a

government agent thus he should have first secure a warrant.
b. No, the warrantless search was valid under the plain view doctrine.
Supported by N’s reasonable suspicion that the white powdery substance
was shabu.
c. Yes, there was no probable cause to conduct a warrantless search, as
shown by the fact N had to call a narcotics agent kumpadre to determine if
the spilt cargo was prohibited substance.
d. No, N search the cargo as a private citizen thus, he can do so even without a
warrant.

161. While patrolling an area known for high incidence of drug related offenses, Sgt.
Matalis-mata and Sgt. Bilis-takbo came upon a group of five teenagers standing in
the curb, near a parked car. Upon seeing the patrol car, the five teenagers
scampered in all directions. Sgt. Bilis-takbo quickly alighted from the vehicle and
chased the nearest teenager, H, Sgt. Bilis-takbo shouted at H to stop but H
continued running. Upon rounding a corner, H threw away something. Sgt Bilis-takbo,
who was hot on H’s heels scooped-up the object, and continued the chase.
Eventually, Sgt. Bilis-takbo overtook H and patted him down. No weapons or
incriminating evidence were found. However, upon examination by the crime lab, the
object H threw on the sidewalk turned out to be “crack cocaine”. During his trial for
illegal possession of prohibited substance, H objected to the admission of the crack
cocaine. As judge would you admit the evidence?
 a. Yes, the search was validly done incident to the warrantless arrest based on
probable cause arising from the suspect’s suspicious conduct in running
away upon seeing the police car.
b. No, the search was illegal because there was no valid arrest. The suspect’s
conduct of running not being sufficient to engender a well-founded belief that
the suspect was committing as a crime.
c. Yes, the evidence was obtained even before the suspect was arrested
rendering the rules on valid search and seizure inapplicable.
d. No, the evidence should be suppressed because the suspect was effectively
already under the policeman’s control, yet there was no probable cause to
effect the arrest.

162. Z, who was charge with Murder, applied for bail. After the bail hearing, the
Regional Trial Court of Dumaguete (RTC) found that the evidence against Z is strong
thus it denied his bail application. However, after trial, the RTC Dumaguete found Z
guilty of Homicide only and sentenced him to an indeterminate term of eight years
and one day of prison mayor, as minimum, to fourteen years and eight months of
reclusion temporal, as maximum and cancelled Z’s bail. Z had filed a notice of appeal
to the Court of Appeals. He wants to be freed on bail pending his appeal. Where
should Z apply for bail?

a. Z. should apply for bail in the RTC Dumaguete which rendered judgment
against him.
b. Z should apply for bail in the CA as he had filed a notice of appeal of a
conviction for a bailable offense.
c. Z should apply for bail in the RTC Dumaguete which retains residual
jurisdiction over the case for purposes of granting bail pending appeal.
d. Z should apply for bail in the CA as the trial court had lost jurisdiction over
the case upon the filing of Z’s appeal.

163. After receiving tips that marijuana shrubs are being grown in a compound inside
a subdivision, Sgt. Liit, a narcotics agent specializing in marijuana horticulture,
checked-out the place. To his dismay, Sgt. Liit a narcotics discovered that the
compound was walled-off by a seven-foot concrete fence. To get a better view, Sgt.
Liit climbed a nearby kaimito tree. With the higher elevation, Sgt. Liit saw in one
corner of the compound a green house where meter-high , marijuana like shrubs
were being grown. Sgt. Liit went down the tree. Knocked on the compound’s gate,
introduced himself to the lone caretaker, went inside the compound and uprooted
some of the shrubs. Upon examination by the crime laboratory, the shrubs were
confirmed to be marijuana. In the hearing to suppress the evidence, the prosecution
contended that Sgt. Liit seized the evidence under the plain view doctrine, is this
contention tenable?

a. Yes, because it was immediately apparent to Sgt. Liit, a marijuana

horticulturist, that the shrubs were marijuana.
b. No, because the shrubs were not in “plain view” as Sgt. Liit had to climb a
nearby tree to see them.
c. Yes, because Sgt. Liit, upon seeing the shrubs, had probable cause to
believe that they were marijuana.
d. No, because Sgt. Liit had to enter the compound in order to obtain a sample
of the marijuana.

164. Is a mandatory “file search” of laptops of departing passengers at airports (that

is, the activation of laptops and the random opening of any of its files) reasonable?

a. Yes, because the search is just pro-forma and there is reduced expectation
of privacy in airports.
b. No, because such search without probable cause violates the right of
passengers to the privacy of their papers.
c. Yes, because the government’s interest in monitoring cases of violation of
anti-piracy and pornographic laws is paramount over the passenger’s right to
privacy.
d. No, because the government’s interest in instituting screening measures in
transportation hubs such as airports and terminals relates to ensuring the
safety of passengers, not crimes the evidence for which may be found in
laptops.
165. Can Department of Justice prosecutors conduct preliminary invitation of a
complaint for Bribery against a BIR Regional Director for violation of Republic Act
3019 (Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act)?

a. Yes, as DOJ prosecutors’ have been with a very broad investigatory powers.
b. No, because the Ombudsman has exclusive original jurisdiction to
investigate public officials and employees.
c. Yes, because the DOJ prosecutors and the Ombudsman exercise concurrent
investigatory powers over public officers.
d. No, unless the parties submit themselves to the DOJ prosecutors’

166. Which court/s has/have jurisdiction over a case for violation of Section 3(e) of
Republic Act No. 3019 (Anti Graft and Corrupt Practices Act) where the defendants
are a city mayor (salary grade 27), the city tourism operations officer (salary grade
11) and a computer operator (salary grade 9)?

a. The proper Regional Trial Court since two of the respondents are officials
with salary grade 27.
b. The Sandiganbayan for the city mayor (salary grade 27) and the proper
Regional Trial Court for the city tourism operations officer (salary grade 11)
and computer operator (salary grade 9).
c. The Sandiganbayan since one of the respondents is an official with salary
grade 27.
d. The Sandiganbayan of the proper Regional Trial Court, depending on which
court first acquires jurisdiction over the case.

167. Can a prosecutor conducting a preliminary investigation require the parties to

submit a draft Resolutions for their respective positions (that is, for the complaint, a
Resolution dismissing the complaint for lack of probable cause) either of which he will
just adopt, depending on his evaluation of the case?
a. Yes, nothing in the Revised Rules of Criminal Procedure prohibits such a
procedure.
b. No, as this will allow the parties to exert undue influence on the prosecutor.
c. Yes, as this will result in the prompt resolution of preliminary investigations.
d. No, because the prosecutor should personally determine whether there is
probable cause to try the accused.

168. A party who has suffered damages due to the issuance of an improper irregular
or excessive attachment against him may claim such damages:
a. Only after the judgement has become final executory
b. Only in a separate action against the party who secured the writ of attachment.
c. In the same case wherein the writ of attachment was issued, at any time before
the trial, or before an appeal has been perfected or before the judgment becomes
executory.

169. Who may not grant a writ of habeas corpus?

a. Any Regional Trial court judge

b. The court of tax appeals or any members thereof
c. The court of appeals or any member thereof
d. The Supreme Court or any member thereof

170. If any of the defendants does not reside and is not found in the Philippines, and
the action affects the personal status of the plaintiff, the action may be commenced
and tried:

a. in the court of the place where the defendant ,may be found

b. in the court of the place of birth of the plaintiff
c. in the court of the place where the defendant formerly resided.
d. in the court of the place where the plaintiff resides.

171. Choose from among the grounds below for the dismissal of the petition for
certiorari the ground which will sustain the issuance of writ of certiorari.

a. if it is patently without merit

b. if the act of was committed with grave abuse of discretion amounting to lack or
excess of jurisdiction
c. if the questions raised are too insubstantial to require consideration; or
 d. if it is prosecuted manifestly for delay

172. The mode appeal from the decision of the Regional Trial Court rendered in the
exercise of its appellate jurisdiction is by:
a. Petition for review under rule 42.
b. Petition for review on certiorari under Rule 45.
c. A notice of appeal filed with the Regional Trial Court.

173. Choose one effect from the following which does not arise or result from the filing
of demurrer to evidence.

a. The defendant does not waive his right to offer evidence in the event
his motion is denied.
b. In case of reversal, the appellate court shall render judgement for the
plaintiff base on the evidence alone.
c. If the motion is granted and the order of dismissal is reversed upon appeal,
the movant loses the right to present evidence on his behalf.
d. When the accused filed demurrer to evidence and denies the motion
to dismiss, the accused may adduce evidence in his defense and submits
the case for judgement on the basis of the evidence of the prosecution.

174. When may final order be deemed to be not determining the merits of a case?

a. When the final order has been writing, personally or directly prepared by
the judge.
b. When the final order was signed by the judge personally and filed with
the clerk of court but does not state the reason or basis thereof.
c. When the final order considers and determines the rights of the parties
as those rights which presently exist, upon matters submitted in an action
or proceeding.
d. When the final orders states clearly and distinctly the facts and the law
on which it is based, signed by the judge and filed with the clerk of court.

175. “X” sued “Y” who is in answer generally denied the material allegations in the
complaint. “X” should file a

a. Demurrer to evidence
b. A motion for judgment on the pleadings.
c. A motion for bill of particulars
d. A motion for summary judgment
e. A reply to the answer

176. Choose the judicial proceedings below in which a writ of habeas corpus can not
be availed of as consequence thereof

a. Where there has been deprivation of a constitutional right resulting in the

resistant of a person
b. Where an excessive penalty has been imposed, as such sentence is void
as to such excess.
c. Where the petitioner has been unable to establish by the evidence to be
entitled to the custody of the minor on account of mistaken identity.
d. Where the lower court had no jurisdiction to impose the sentence.

177. The pendency of a special civil action under Rule 65 produces the following effect:

a. It interrupts the course of the principal case.

b. It interrupts the course of the principal case if there is a temporary
restraining order or a writ of preliminary injunction issued against the public
respondent.
c. The court trying the principal case has no discretion to postpone the
hearing to await the decision in the special civil action.
 ANSWER KEY IN REMEDIAL LAW REVIEW

1. B 56. C 111. A 166. C

2. A 57. B 112. C 167. D
3. B 58. A 113. C 168. C
4. D 59. A 114. C 169. B
5. A 60. A 115. D 170. D
6. C 61. D 116. D 171. B
7. D 62. C 117. D 172. A
8. C 63. C 118. D 173. D
9. A 64. C 119. C 174. B
10. E 65. A 120. D 175. B
11. A 66. D 121. D 176. C
12. C 67. D 122. A 177. B
13. B 68. C 123. A
14. C 69. D 124. A
15. B 70. D 125. A
16. B 71. A 126. A
17. 72. C 127. D
18. C 73. D. 128. D
19. E 74. C 129. B
20. D 75. C 130. D
21. A 76. B 131. B
22. E 77. D 132. C
23. E 78. D 133. D
24. E 79. A 134. D
25. A 80. C 135. C
26. B 81. C 136. C
27. D 82. D 137. D
28. C 83. E 138. B
29. C 84. B 139. D
30. C 85. E 140. B
31. D 86. D 141. D
32. C 87. B 142. D
33. B 88. D 143. D
34. A 89. A 144. D
35. C 90. B 145. B
36. D 91. D 146. B
37. D 92. D 147. C
38. C 93. B 148. D
39. C 94. D 149. B
40. C 95. C 150. C
41. D 96. B 151.
42. C 97. C 152. C
43. C 98. B 153. B
44. B 99. C 154. A
45. D 100. 155. D
46. B 101. A 156. C
47. D 102. B 157. B
48. C 103. B 158. D
49. C 104. C 159. D
50. A 105. C 160. D
51. C 106. C 161. C
52. B 107. A 162. B
53. C 108. C 163. B
54. A 109. B 164. B
55. D 110. C 165. A