FINAL Grade X QP PDF

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS,THANJAVUR
2021-2022
GRADE:X
ENGLISH
PROSE - LETTER TO GOD
Q1- Where was Lencho’s house situated?

A) bottom of the hill B) top of a hill C) top of a plateau D) in a city
Q2- What was the only thing that the Earth needed according to Lencho?
A) a shower B) a snowfall C) strong winds D) sunlight
Q3- Where did Lencho expect the downpour to come from?

A) north B) north-east C) north-west D) south-east
Q4 – What did Lencho compare the large raindrops with?

A) silver coins B) pearls C) diamonds D) new coins
Q5- Which crop was growing on Lencho’s fields?

A) Corn B) Barley C) Rice D) None of the above
Q6- What destroyed Lencho’s fields?

A) heavy rainfall B) hailstorm C) landslide D) flood
Q7- The field looked as if it were covered in _______.

A) salt B) locusts C) sugar D) ice
Q8- Lencho compared the quantum of damage with

A) attack by rats B) attack by crows C) plague of locusts D) None of the above
Q9- What was the only hope left in the hearts of Lencho’s family?
A) compensation from government B) help from farmer’s association
C) help from God D) there was no hope left
Q10- How did Lencho decide to contact his last resort?

A) by visiting them personally B) through a letter
C) through e-mail D) through fax
MCQ-POEM :DUST OF SNOW

Question 1.
What is the name of the poet?
(a) Sylvia Plath (b) W.B Yeats (c) Robert Frost (d) Robert Burns
Question 2.
How did the dust of snow affect the poet?
(a) It made him energetic (b) It changed his mood
(c) It made him superior (d) None of the Above
Question 3.
What was the mood of the poet in the beginning of the poem?
(a) Sad mood (b) Happy mood (c) Confuse mood (d) None of the Above
Question 4.
What did crow shake on the poet?
(a) dust of tree (b) dust of garden (c) dust of snow (d) dust of land
Question 5.
The crow and Hemlock tree symbolize ____
(a) sorrow (b) happiness (c) celebration (d) death
Question 6.
What does “Dust of Snow” represent?
(a) healing power of nature (b) particles of snow (c) cool weather (d) none of the above
Question 7.
Name the poetic device used in the line “Has given my heart” _______
(a) alliteration (b) metaphor (c) oxymoron (d) similie
Question 8.
What uplifted his mood?
(a) falling of snow on his shoulder (b) the crow (c) hemlock tree (d) all of the above
Question 9.
Why does the poet call it “dust of snow”?
(a) snow particles were too tiny (b) they came over him like dust
(c) they felt like dust (d) they looked like dust
Question 10.
What are the two negative creatures that Frost used as carriers of positivity?
(a) snow, dust (b) hemlock tree, snow (c) snow, crow (d) hemlock tree, crow
POEM:FIRE AND ICE

MCQ
Question 1.
Question 2.
Why do some people say that the world will end in ice?
(a) because love among people is increasing fast.
(b) because hatred among people is increasing fast.
(c) because lust among people is increasing fast.
(d) None of the Above
Question 3.
Question 4.
Why do some people say that the world will end in ice?
(a) because love among people is increasing fast.
(b) because hatred among people is increasing fast.
(c) because lust among people is increasing fast.
(d) None of the Above
Question 5.
What is ‘Ice’ a symbol of?
(a) Lust (b) Love (c) Desire (d) Hatred
Question 6.
What is ‘fire’ a symbol of?
(a) love and new desires (b) lust and endless desires
(c) love and beginning of a new thing. (d) Revolution
Question 7.
Where has he used personification?
(a) fire (b) ice (c) earth (d) both 1 and 2
Question 8.
Name the poetic device used in the line “Some say the world will end in fire”.
(a) Metaphor (b) Imagery (c) Alliteration (d) Oxymoron
Question 9.
What is the rhyming scheme of the poem?
(a) abaa bcbcb (b) aaba bcbcb (c) aaab bcbcb (d) abab bcbcb
Question 10.
What would suffice if the world were to perish twice?
(a) ice (b) fire (c) hatred (d) both 1 and 2
Question 11.
What does the poet compare fire with?
(a) hatred (b) desire (c) hot (d) both 1 and 3
Question 12.
Name the poetic device used in the line “To say that for destruction ice is also great”.
(a) Metaphor (b) Imagery (c) Alliteration (d) Oxymoron
SUPPLEMENTARY READER
Q1- Who is the author of the story "A Triumph of Surgery"?

A) James Herriot B) Ruskin Bond C) Robert Arthur D) Victor Canning
Q2- Who does "I" refer to in the story?
A) Tricki B) Mrs. Pumphrey C) Veterinary surgeon D) none of the above
Q3- What is the name of the veterinary surgeon?
A) Tricki B) Mrs. Pumphrey C) Hodgkin D) Mr. Herriot
Q4- What problem does Mrs Pumphrey think Tricki has?
A) diarrhea B) malnutrition C) allergies D) all of the above
Q5- Did Mrs Pumphrey cut down on sweets as was advised?
A) yes B) no C) only for a while D) she was not advised anything like that
Q6- Who is Hodgkin?
A) dog owner B) gardener C) Veterinary surgeon D) Dog
Q7- What was the dog unable to play?
A) ring-throw B) walk C) hide and seek D) all of the above
Q8- What did the doctor advise?
A) cut his food B) give him more exercise
C) keep him on a very strict diet D) all of the above
Q9- Was the narrator waiting for a call from Mrs Pumphrey?
A) no B) yes C) maybe D) maybe not
Q10- What is the meaning of ‘distraught’?
A) bend B) worried C) upset D) both b and c
Q11- How was Tricki acting?
A) refusing to eat his favourite food B) didn’t go for walks
C) vomiting D) all of the above
Q12- What was best according to the vet?
A) to take him to the hospital B) to take him for a walk
C) to let him have sugar D) both b and c
Q13- Why did the other dogs ignore Tricki?
A) he was an uninteresting object B) he was ill
C) he was furious D) all of the above
Q14- for how many days he was given no food?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5
Q15- Who was Joe?
A) nurse B) pug C) greyhound D) cat
Q16- What did the dogs know about food?
A) last ones will be liable to have competition for the leftover food
B) there was no competition
C) it wasn’t good
D) it was the best part of the day
Q17- what is the meaning of the word "jostling"?
A) running B) struggling C) walking D) none of the above
Q18- What is the meaning of the word "scrimmage"?
A) fight B) play C) run D) none of the above
Q19- What does the narrator refer to Tricki as, in the group of other dogs?
A) silky little object B) shaggy little object
C) he didn’t say anything D) none of the above
Q20- What is the meaning of the word "convalescing"?

A) condescending B) worsen C) disappointing D) recover
Q21- Who is the author of the story "The Thief’s story"?
Q22- What is he a "fairly successful hand" at?
A) wrestling B) stealing C) deceiving D) working hard
Q23- What was his name?
A) Hari B) Anil C) Amol D) Harry
Q24- What was the boy’s age?
A) 15 B) 25 C) 20 D) none of the above
Q25- What was Anil’s age?
A) 15 B) 25 C) 20 D) none of the above
Q26- How has the narrator described Anil?
A) simple B) kind C) easy-going D) all of the above
Q27- What was Anil doing when the boy met him?
A) cooking B) watching a match C) playing D) writing an article
Q28- How did the narrator attempt at being friends with Anil?
A) flattering him B) teasing him C) introducing himself D) none of the above
Q29- What did the boy ask Anil for?
A) to give him food B) to employ him C) to give him money D) to teach him
Q30- How often did he change his name?
A) every day B) every week C) every month D) every year
Q31- He changed his name in order to stay ahead of _____
A) police B) employers C) none of them D) both of them
Q32- What name did he tell Anil?
A) Anil Singh B) Hari Lal C) Hari Singh D) Anil Lal
Q33- What do you mean by the word "grunting"?
A) make a low inarticulate sound B) say something which is clearly audible
C) shouting D) none of the above
Q34- How was the meal he cooked first night?
A) delicious B) mouth-watering C) finger-licking good D) terrible
Q35- How did he infer that about his food?
A) Anil said he liked it B) Anil couldn’t have enough of it
C) Anil was licking his fingers D) Anil gave it to a stray dog
Q36- What did Anil promise him to teach?
A) write his name B) cook C) write full sentences D) all of the above
Q37- Did Anil really mind his petty ways of earning money?
A) yes B) no C) maybe D) he didn’t earn through petty ways
Q38- "a queer way to earn money"..What is the meaning of the word "queer"?
A) strange B) famous C) rare D) illegal
Q39- Who was the most trusting person narrator had ever met ?
A) Anil B) publisher C) Anil’s friends D) none of the above
Q40- Who is easier to rob?
A) a careless man B) a greedy man C) a trusting man D) Anil
Q41- Who is the author of the story "The Midnight Visitor"?
Q42- "_____ did not fit any description of a secret agent."
A) Fowler B) Ausable C) Max D) None of the above
Q43- Ausable was a _____ fellow.
A) fat and sloppy B) fat and enthusiastic C) thin and enthusiastic D) thin and sloppy
Q44- What is the meaning of the word "wheezily"?
A) making a sound when you can’t breathe easily B) sneezing
C) coughing D) None of the above
Q45- Where was Ausable staying?
A) Fowler’s home B) French hotel C) Max’s home D) French Inn
Q46- Which floor was he staying at?
A) ground floor B) first floor C) second floor D) top floor
Q47- What language did Ausable speak?
A) German B) French C) none of these D) both a and b
Q48- Where did he come from?
A) Paris B) Germany C) Boston D) None of the above
Q49- When did he move to Paris?
A) 5 years ago B) 10 years ago C) 20 years ago D) 25 years ago
Q50- "he had never lost his _____ accent."
A) American B) French C) British D) None of the above
GRAMMAR MCQ
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER FROM THE OPTIONS GIVEN BELOW :

1. Hostilities ——————– after the truce.
a) did resumed b) were resumed c) was resumed d) had resumed
2. Has the problem ——————-?
a) been solved b) solved c) being solved d) solve
3. The accused —————— the verdict of the jury with anxiety.
a) awaited b) was awaiting c) is awaiting d) have awaited
4. A wide spread outbreak of influenza ——————- in the year 1919.
a) occur b) had occurred c) occurred d) was occurring
5. He ——————– some of the samples presented to him.
a) was selecting b) had selected c) selected d) is selecting.
6. I ——————– some photos to be developed.
a) had left b) left c) was leaving d) did left
7. It must ——————- to you that he was simply bluffing.
a) have occurred b) occurred c) occur d) have occur
8. They have all ————
a) told b) been told c) been telling d) will be told
9. He —————— much of his spare time with a friend.
a) spend b) spends c) is spending d) has spent
10. He was properly —————— by the authorities.
a) dealt with b) deal with c) dealt at d) dealt after
11. He ——————- ill for a weak when his brother came.
a) was b) had been c) has been d) is
12. We ——————- not hurry, we have got plenty of time.
a) need b) ought c) must d) should
13. I ——————- visit my parents every Sunday; now I go twice a month.
a) must b) used to c) should d) will
14. Candidates —————— not write their names on the answer-sheets.
a) should b) must c) ought d) need
15. How ————— you call me a liar?
a) dare b) must c) should d) would
16. Children ————— to respect their parents.
a) need b) ought c) should d) must
17. In my youth I —————- exercise everyday.
a) took b) had taken c) was taking d) take
18. He said that he ——————- from fever for three days.
a) had been suffering b) was suffering c) suffered d) is suffering
19. By this time next year, he —————– the construction of his house
a) will have completed b) would complete
c) would have completed d) should have completed
20. He does not ——————– to go against the wishes of his father.
a) dare b) need c) ought d) should
21. —————— you go to Delhi, do visit my brother there.
a) Would b) Should c) Will d) Could
22. Work hard lest you —————- fail.
a) should b) could c) would d) might
23. If he had not made a mistake, the teacher ——————- punished him.
a) would not have b) should not have c) could not have d) will not have
24. The sailors ——————– to the broken mast, as the ship sank.
a) clung b) were clinging c) cling d) was clinging
25. The snake ————— round his hand, but he flung it away.
a) wound b) wind c) was winding d) had wound
26. Raj______certainly attend the conference
a) Will b) Would c) Could d) Ought
27.If you step on a dog, it ___________ bite you.
a) Will b) Must c) Ought d) Would
28.I wish you _________write to me more often.
a) Could b) Must c) Ought d) Would
29.I_______get back to my work.
30.We_______to help the poor.
31. I _______ the book today.
a) Will need b) Must need c) Ought to need d) May be need
32.He _____________not to sing song for so long.
33. ________you please lend me your novel?
34.Students________answer all the questions.
a) Will b) Must c) Ought d) Would
35. Every morning Salman Khan_________go for a long walk.
II. Choose the right form of verb from the given options:
36) The pots on the table is/ are beautiful.

37) The detectives are/ is investigating the case.
38) One of the diamonds was/ were stolen.
39) A number of videos have/ has been deleted from the phone.
40) Two hundred rupees seem/ seems a fair price for 2 bricks of ice cream.
41) None of these flowers grow/ grows well inside the house.
42) Not everyone want/ wants to learn more and more.
43) Neither of these printers work/ works properly.
44) Each of the employess is/ are going to get a trip as a gift.
45) Bread and eggs is/ are my favourite.
46) The style and colour of trouser are/ is best for you.
47) One of you has/ have to take the responsibility of the kid.
48) What does/ do a pair of jeans cost?
49) Dont you think oil in America cost/ costs much less than in India.
50) Nine and nine make/ makes eighteen.
jkpo;
1. குமரிக் கண்டத்தில் அரசாண்ட மமாழி ---------- மமாழி.
அ) கன்னடம் ஆ) துளு இ) தமிழ்
2. பாண்டிய மன்னனின் மகள் ------------
அ) மதலுங் கு ஆ) தமிழ் இ) மலலயாளம்
3. சாகும் பபாதும் தமிழ் படித்துச் சாகபேண்டும் என்றேர் ---------
அ)மபருஞ் சித்திரனார் ஆ)கால் டுமேல் இ)கண்ணதாசன்
4. பாேலபரறு மபருஞ் சித்திரனாரின் ------------- மதாகுப் பிலிருந்து நமக்கு பாடல் கள்

எடுத்தாளப் பட்டுள் ளன.
அ)கனிச்சாறு ஆ)பள் ளிப் பறலேகள் இ)மகாய் யாக்கனி
5. பாேலபரறு -------------, ------- இதழ் களின் ோயிலாகத் தமிழுணர்லே உலமகங் கும்

பரப் பினார்.
அ)கனிச்சாறு ,பள் ளிப் பறலேகள் ஆ) மதன்மமாழி,தமிழ் சசி

் ட்டு
இ)மகாய் யாக்கனி, மலர்கள்
6. துலர.மாணிக்கம் என்பது ------------ இயற் மபயர்
அ)மபருஞ் சித்திரனார் ஆ)பாரதிதாசன் இ)கண்ணதாசன்
7. பாேலபரறு எழுதிய திருக்குறள் மமய் ப் மபாருளுலர தமிழுக்கு ------------ ஆக

அலமந்தது.
அ) கருவூலமாய் ஆ) அணிகலனாய் இ) இலக்கியமாய்
9. சின் ன குழந்லதயின் -------------- ஆனேள் அன்லன தமிழ் மமாழி.
அ)அழுலக ஆ)சிரிப் பு இ)சிறப் பு
10. மதன்னேன் என்பது யாலரக் குறிக்கும் மசால் ------------
அ) பாண்டியன் ஆ) பசாழன் இ) பசரன்

11. இன்னறும் பாப் பத்பத, எண்மதாலகபய என்பது --------- ----------- நூல் கலளக்
குறிக்கும் .
அ) எட்டுத்மதாலக, குறுந்மதாலக ஆ) பத்துப் பாட்டு,எட்டுத்மதாலக
இ) பத்துப் பாட்டு, மணிபமகலல
12.'நாடும் மமாழியும் நமதிரு கண்கள் " என்றேர் -----------
அ) மகாகவி பாரதியார். ஆ) பாரதிதாசன் இ) முடியரசன்
13. மதலுங் கு, கன்னடம் முதலிய திராவிட மமாழிகளுக்பக உரிய மசாற் களும் தமிழில்
உண்டு என்றேர் -------------
அ)மபருஞ் சித்திரனார் ஆ)கால் டுமேல் . இ)கண்ணதாசன்
14.திராவிட மமாழிகளின் ஒப் பியல் இலக்கணம் என்ற நூலின் ஆசிரியர் --------------------
அ)பாரதியார் ஆ)கால் டுமேல் இ)முத்லதயா
15. மநல் , பகழ் ேரகு பபான்ற தாேரத்தின் அடி ---------- எனப் படும் .
அ) தாள் ஆ) தண்டு இ) பகால்
16. கீலர, ோலழ பபான்ற தாேரத்தின் அடி ------ எனப் படும் .
அ) தூறு ஆ) தண்டு இ) பகால்
17. மநட்டி, மிளகாய் பபான்ற தாேரத்தின் அடி ----------- எனப் படும் .
அ) தட்டு ஆ) க ோல் . இ) தூறு
18. தூறு என்பது குத்துச்மசடி, ---------- முதலியேற் றின் அடி.
அ)புதர் ஆ)க ோல் இ)கீரர
19.தட்டு அல் லது தட்லட----------------- பபான்றேற் றின் அடி. கம் பு, பசாளம்
அ) தட்டு ஆ) கரும் பின் இ) கம் பு, பசாளம்
20.புளி, பேம் பு முதலியேற் றின் மகாழுந்து ---------- ஆகும் .
அ) பபாத்து. ஆ) சண்டு இ) மகாழுந்து
21.கரும் பின் நுனிப் பகுதி ------------ எனப்படும் .
அ) கலே ஆ) பபாத்து இ) மகாழுந்தாலட
22.மரஞ் மசடியினின்று பூ கீபழ விழுந்த நிலல ------------.
அ) வீ ஆ)சண்டு இ)மலர்
23.பூ ோடிய நிலலலய மசம் மல் என்பர்.
அ)அலர் ஆ) மசம் மல் இ)கலே
24.மசால் லாராய் ச்சியில் பாோணரும் வியந்த மபருமகனார் -----------
அ) பாரதிதாசன் ஆ) திருேள் ளுேர் இ)இரா.இளங் குமரனார்.
25.திருேள் ளுேருக்கு திருச்சி --------- ல் தேச்சிலல அலமத்தேர் இளங் குமரனார்.

அ) திருமானூரில் ஆ) அல் லூரில் இ) காரக்குடி
26. -------------- நூலகம் அலமத்தேர் இளங் குமரனார்.
அ) பாோணர் ஆ) திருமூலர் இ) நாயனார்
27.------------ இழக்க பநரிட்டாலும் கூட தாய் த்தமிழிலன இழந்து விடக்கூடாது என

எண்ணியேர் இளங் குமரனார்.
அ) மலர்கலள ஆ) விழிகலள இ) பாதங் கலள
28.திரு.வி.க பபால இலமகலள மூடிய படி எழுதும் ஆற் றலலக் கற் றுக் மகாண்டேர் ------
-----------
அ) முடியரசன் ஆ)இளங் குமரன். இ) பாோணர்
29. --------------, ------------ இளங் குமரனார் இயற் றிய நூல் கள் ஆகும் .
அ)தமிழிலச இயக்கம் , திருக்குறள் தமிழ் மரபுலர
ஆ) பள் ளிப் பறலேகள் , மகாய் யாக்கனி இ) மசால் லியல் ,மரபியல்
30. தாேர பிஞ் சு ேலகயில் நுழாய் என்பது எலத குறிக்கும் -----------
அ) இளம் பாக்கு ஆ) பிஞ் சு இ) சீப் பு
31. கச்சல் என்பது ோலழப் --------
அ)நுழாய் ஆ) பிஞ் சு இ) சீப் பு
32. ோலழத்தாற் றின் பகுதி ----------
அ) குருத்து ஆ) பிஞ் சு இ) சீப் பு
33. சுருங் கிய பழத்திலன ------------- என்பர்.
அ) சீப் பு ஆ) பிஞ் சு இ) சிவியல்
34. பதலர அமர்ந்ததினால் மகட்ட காய் ----------
அ) ஓடு ஆ) பதலரக்காய் இ) குடுக்லக
35. சுலரக்காயின் ஓடு --------------
அ) குடுக்லக ஆ) மகாம் லம இ) முதிலர
36. ேரகு, பகழ் ேரகு முதலியேற் றின் உமி ----------
அ) குடுக்லக ஆ) ஆமணக்கு இ) மகாம் லம
37. அேலர, துேலர தானிய மணிேலக -------------
அ) பேம் பு ஆ) முத்து இ) முதிலர
38. பேம் பு, ஆமணக்கு முதலியேற் றின் வித்து -----------
அ) முத்து ஆ) மகாம் லம இ) விளா
39. மா, புளி, ோலழ முதலியேற் றின் இளநிலல ---------
அ) காய் ஆ) கனி இ) கன்று

40. விளாவின் இளநிலல குட்டி.
அ) குடுக்லக ஆ) குட்டி இ) முதிலர
41. சம் பா மநல் ேலகயில் -------------- ேலககள் உள் ளன.
அ) 60 ஆ) 80 இ) 100
42. ேரகு, குதிலரோலி, காலடக்கண்ணி முதலிய சிறுகூலங் கள் விலளயும் ஒபர இடம் --
----------
அ) ஆந்திரா ஆ)தமிழ் நாடு இ) மத்தியபிரபதசம்
43. ஒரு நாட்டு ேளத்திற் பகற் ப அந்நாட்டு மக்களின் ---------------அலமந்திருக்கும் .
அ) அறிமோழுக்கம் ஆ) அகமோழுக்கம் இ) நல் மலாழுக்கம்
44. திருந்திய மக்கலள மற் ற உயிரினின்றும் பிரித்துக் காட்டுேது -------
அ) மசயல் ஆ)மமாழி இ)மசய் யுள்
45. 'மமாழி ஞாயிறு" என்று அலழக்கப் படுபேர் --------------
அ) பதேபநயப் பாோணர் ஆ) திருஞானசம் பந்தர் இ) அண்ணா
46. நம் பாடப் பகுதி தமிழ் சம

் சால் ேளம் , 'மசால் லாய் வுக் கட்டுலரகள் " என்னும்
பதேபநயப் பாோணரின் நூலில் இருந்து எடுக்கப் பட்டுள் ளது.
அ) மசால் லாய் வுக் கட்டுலரகள் ஆ) மமாழிமபயர்ப்புக் கட்டுலரகள்
இ) இலக்கிய ேடிேம் மபற் ற கட்டுலரகள்
47. தமிழ் மசால் லாராய் ச்சியில் உச்சம் மதாட்டேர் --------------
அ) திரு.வி.கலியாணசுந்தரனார் ஆ) பதேபநயப் பாோணர் இ) திருஞானசம் பந்தர்
48. மசந்தமிழ் ச ் மசாற் பிறப்பியல் அகரமுதலித் திட்ட இயக்குநராகப் பணியாற் றியேர் --

-------------
அ) கணமுத்லதயா ஆ) மா.மபா.சிேஞானம் இ)பதேபநயப் பாோணர்.
49. உலகத் தமிழ் க் கழகத்லத நிறுவித் தலலேராக இருந்தேர் ------------
அ) திரு.வி.கலியாணசுந்தரனார் ஆ) பதேபநயப் பாோணர் இ) திருஞானசம் பந்தர்
50. இந்திய மமாழிகளிபலபய --------- எழுத்துருவில் முதலில் அச்பசறியது தமிழ் தான்.
அ) மதன்நாட்டு ஆ) ேடநாட்டு இ) பமலலநாட்டு
51. மமாழிக்காக உலக மாநாடு நடத்திய முதல் நாடு ---------- அம் மமாழி தமிழ் .
அ) மபலசியா ஆ) சிங் கப் பூர் இ) சீனா
51. ஆழிக்கு இலணயாகப் பபசப் படுேது -----------
அ) கடல் ஆ)தமிழ் இ) மலலயாளம்
52. கடல் --------------- சங் குகலளத் தருகிறது.
அ) மூன்று ஆ) எட்டு இ) இரண்டு

53. ----------- முத்தமிலழ ேளர்க்கிறது.
அ) கடல் ஆ) ோனம் இ) தமிழ்
54. ஒரு மசால் பலா மசாற் மறாடபரா இருமபாருள் பட ேருேது ------------ அணி எனப்படும் .
அ) இரட்டுற மமாழிதல் ஆ) மதாடர் இ) மசாற் மறாடர்
55.இரட்டுற மமாழிதலல ------------ என்பர்.
அ) அணி ஆ) சிபலலட இ) கவிலத
56.சிபலலடகள் -------------------- , ------------ , பமலடயிலும் பயன்படுத்தப் படுகின்றன.
அ) மசய் யுளிலும் , உலரநலடயிலும் ஆ) கவிலதயிலும் , மசய் யுளிலும
இ) உலரநலடயிலும் , பாட்டிலும்
57.நம் பாடப் பகுதியில் இரட்டுற மமாழிதல் பாடல் --------------- என்னும் நூலிலிருந்து

எடுத்தாளப் பட்டுள் ளது.
அ) போரதியோர் விரத ள் ஆ) தனிப் பாடல் திரட்டு இ)கதன் சிட்டு
58. சந்தக் கவிமணி எனப் பபாற் றப் படுபேர் -----------
அ) தமிழழகனார் ஆ) சண்முகசுந்தரம் இ) போவோணர்
59.தமிழழகனாரின் இயற் மபயர் -------------------
அ)சண்முகசுந்தரம் ஆ)போவோணர் இ) ரலவோணர்
60.தமிழழகனார் ------ சிற் றிலக்கியங் கலளப் பலடத்துள் ளார்.
அ) 10. ஆ) 12. இ) 42
61.முதல் தமிழ் க்கணினியின் மபயர் '----------------- அது உருோக்கப் பட்ட ஆண்டு 1983.
அ) போரதியோர் ஆ)திருேள் ளுேர். இ) திரு. வி.
62. நா. பார்த்தசாரதி உேலமலயப் பயன்படுத்திய நூல் ---------------
அ) கதன் சிட்டு ஆ) பள் ளி பறரவ ள் இ)குறிஞ் சி மலர்.
63.உேலமயும் மபாருளும் பேற் றுலம ஒழிவித்து ஒன்மறன மாட்டின் அஃது உருேமாகும்

என்பர் _-------------
அ) தண்டி ஆ) பவணந்தி இ) ததோல் ோப் பியர்
64. இலக்கியங் களில் உேலமலயவிட ------------ உணர்வுகலளத் தூண்டி எழுப் புேதில்

மேற் றி மபறுகின்றது.
அ) உள் ளுரற ஆ) உருேகம்் இ) இரறச்சி
65. எடுத்துக்காட்டு உேலம அணிலய உலரநலடய்ில் பயன்படுத்துலகயில் -----------

என்கிபறாம் .'
அ) கநரிரண ஆ) எதிரிரண இ) இலணஒப் பு
66. ' மலழயும் புயலும் " என்னும் நூலின் ஆசிரியர்-----------
அ) ே.ராமசாமி ஆ) ண்ணதோசன். இ) வரதரோசன்

67.ஞாயிறு, திங் கள் மநஞ் சம் பபான்ற அஃறிலணப் மபாருள் கலள உயர்திலணயாக ---
------------ சுட்டியுள் ளார்.
அ) ஔரவயோர் ஆ) பிலர் இ)மதால் காப் பியர்
68. உயிர் இல் லா மபாருட்கலள உயிர் உள் ளன பபால் 'பசாலலயில் புகுபேன் மரங் கள்
கூப் பிடும் " என்று திரு.வி.க எழுதியுள் ளார். இதலன ------------ என்பபாம் .
அ) இலக்கலண ஆ) இரண ஒப் பு. இ) எதிரிரசவு
69.'------------ என்னும் நூலில் மசால் லின் மசல் ேர் இரா.பி.பசதுபிள் லள எதுலக பமாலன
அலமய பாடியுள் ளார்..'
அ) இன்பத்தமிழ் ஆ) தமிழின்பம் . இ) முத்தமிழ்
70. மசாற் கலள அளோகப் பயன்படுத்தி உலரநலடலய அழகு மசய் தவர் ----------
அ) மு.ேரதராசனார். ஆ) ஈ.கவ.ரோ இ) இ.ரோ.பி. கசதுபிள் ரள
71.'நாட்டுப் பற் று" என்னும் கட்டுலர மதாகுப் லப எழுதியவர் ----------
அ) மு.ேரதராசனார். ஆ)இ.ரோ.பி.கசதுபிள் ரள இ) திரு.வி.
72.முரண்படாத - மமய் ம் லமலயச் மசால் ேது ------------
அ) முரண்படு மமய் ம் லம ஆ) தசோல் முரண். இ) இல ் ரண
73. கலப் பில் லாத மபாய் - இது ----------- ஆகும்
அ) உச்ச நிரல ஆ) மசால் முரண்். இ) முரண்போடு தமய் ம் ரம
74.'எதிரும் புதிரும் " - இது ----------------- எனப் படும் .
அ) எதிரிலணஇலசவு ஆ) தசோல் முரண். இ) இல ் ரண
76.அேர் பபசாத நாள் உண்டா? இது ----------------- பற் றி அண்ணா கூறியது.
அ) மபரியாலர. ஆ) அண்ணோ. இ) வியரசு
77 -------------- என்பது மசால் லலபயா , கருத்லதபயா அடுத்தடுத்து லேப் பது.
அ) உணர்ச்சிமபருமேள் ளம் ஆ) லப் பில் லோத தபோய் இ) தசோல் முரண்
78. மோ. இராமலிங் கத்தின் மற் மறாரு மபயர் ----------
அ) நப்பூதனோர் ஆ) எழில் முதல் ேன் இ) சிங் ோரம்
79. ----------- நூல் கள் இனிக்கும் நிலனவுகள் , எங் மகங் கு காணினும் , யாதுமாகி
நின்றாய் ஆகியனவோகும் .
அ) மோ.இராமலிங் கத்தின். ஆ) ண்ணதோசனின் இ) இளவழ னின்
80. எழில் முதல் ேன் புதிய உலரநலட என்னும் நூலுக்காக ------------- விருதுமபற் றார்.
அ) துகரோணோச்சோரியோ ஆ) பத்ம பூசண் இ)சாகித்தியஅகாமதமி
81.மமாழிலயத் மதளிவுறப் பபசவும் எழுதவும் உதவுேது ----------
அ) இலக்கணம் . ஆ) பயிற் சி. இ) ற் றல்
82. --------- சிறப் லப அறிய உதவுேது இலக்கணம் .

அ) தமோழியின் ஆ) எழுத்தின். இ) கபச்சின்
83. முதல் எழுத்துகலள சார்ந்து பதான்றும் எழுத்துகள் சார்மபழுத்துகள் இது ---------

ேலகப் படும் .
அ) 10 ஆ) 20. இ)30
84.அளமபலட --------- ேலகப் படும் .
அ) .இரண்டு ஆ) மூன்று. இ) இருபது
85.அளமபடுத்தல் என்பதன் தபோருள் ------
அ) ஒலிப் பு முரற ஆ) நீ ண்டு ஒலித்தல் இ) கபசுதல்
86. உயிரளமபலட --------- ேலகப் படும் .
அ) 3. ஆ) 2. இ) 5
87. மசய் யுளில் ஓலச குலறயும் பபாது அதலன நிலறவு மசய் ய மநட்மடழுத்து
அளமபடுப் பது ----------------+
அ) மசய் யுளிலச அளமபலட. ஆ) இலசநிலறஅளமபரட
இ) இன்னிலசஅளமபலட.
88.மசய் யுளிலச அளமபலடலய ----------- என்பர்.
அ) இலசநிலற அளமபலட ஆ) தமோழி இ) தசோல் லினச அளதபரட
89. இனிய ஓலசக்காக அளமபடுப் பது --------------
அ) இன்னிலச அளமபலட. ஆ) தசோல் லினசஅளதபரட இ)இலசநிலறஅளமபரட
90. மசய் யுளில் ஒரு மபயர்ச்மசால் எச்சச் மசால் லாகத் திரிந்து அளமபடுப் பது -----------
அ)இன் னிலசஅளமபலட. ஆ)தசோல் லிரசஅளதபரட இ)இலசநிலறஅளதபரட
91. மமாழி -----++---- ேலகப் படும் .
அ)மூன்று ஆ) இரண்டு. இ) பத்து
92.தனிமமாழிக்கும் , மதாடர்மமாழிக்கும் மபாதுோய் அலமேது ----------- எனப்படும் .
அ) ததோடர் தமோழி ஆ) மபாதுமமாழி இ)தனி தமோழி
93. ஒரு மசால் தனித்து நின்று மபாருள் தரும்ோயின் அது ---------- எனப் படும் .
அ) தனிமமாழி ஆ) பிரிதமோழி. இ) ததோடர் தமோழி
94. இரண்டு அல் லது அதற் கு பமற் பட்ட தனிமமாழிகள் மதாடர்ந்து ேந்து மபாருள்
தருேது ---------- எனப் படும் .
அ) தபோது தமோழி ஆ) மதாடர்மமாழி இ) இனதமோழி
95. விலனயடியுடன் விகுதி பசர்ேதால் உருோகும் மதாழிற் மபயர் ---------- ஆகும் .
அ) முதனிரலத் ததோழிற் தபயர் ஆ) விகுதி மபற் ற மதாழிற் மபயர்
இ) ததோழிற் தபயர்
96. எதிர்மலறப் மபாருளில் ேருேது ------------- ஆகும் .
அ) விரனயோலரணயும் தபயர். ஆ) எதிர்மலறத்மதாழிற் மபயர்.
இ) முதனிரலத்திரிந்த ததோழிற் தபயர்
97. விகுதி மபறாமல் விலனப் பகுதிபய மதாழிற் மபயராதல் ------------ தபயரோகும் .
அ)விரனயோலரணயும் தபயர். ஆ)எதிர்மலறத்மதாழிற் மபயர்.

இ)முதனிரலத்திரிந்தததோழிற் தபயர்
98. விகுதி மபறாமல் முதனிலல திரிந்து ேரும் மதாழிற் மபயர் --------------
அ) முதனிலலத்திரிந்த மதாழிற் மபயர். ஆ) விரனயோலரணயும் தபயர்
இ) எதிர்மலறத்மதாழிற் மபயர்
99. உணர் மேழுப் ப என்பலதப் பிரித்தால் ...................... என ேரும் . (உணர்வு எழுப் ப)
100. அல் லிக்காய் , கூலகக்காய் , பதலரக்காய் என்பன ......................... ேலகலயச் பசர்ந்தது.
அ) பிஞ் சு ேலக ஆ) குலல ேலக இ) மகட்டுப் பபான காய் கனி ேலக
HINDI MCQ
Part-A
A1- प्रेम चन्द जी ने साहित्य का नाता हकस से जोडा ?
A) स्वयं से B) अपने जन्म स्थान से C) हकसी से निी D) जन जीवन से

A2- प्रेम चन्द जी जीवन भर हकस से जू झते रिे ?
A) स्वयं से B) लोगो से C) ह़िल्म्कारो से D) आहथि क तङ्गी से

A3- बडे भाई साहिब उनकी अन्य रचनाओ से हकस दृहि से उच्च कोहि की रचना िै ?
A) भाषा शे ली की B) साहित्य की C) किानी की D) शब्ों के चयन की
A4- वे मु म्बई मे पिकथा ले खक के रूप मे ज्यादा दे र तक कायि क्यो निी कर पाये ?
A) ह़िल्म हनमाि ताओ के हनदे श के अनु सार हलखने के कारण B) घर से दू र िोने कारण
C) रुहच न िोने के कारण D) समय न िोने के कारण
A5- बडे भाई साहिब किानी हकस शै ली मे हलखी गयी िै ?

A) व्यं ग्यात्मक B) करुणामयी C) आत्म कथात्मक D) सभी
A6- प्रेम जी का शरीर जजि र क्यो िो गया ?

A) हनरन्तर हवकि पररस्तिहथयो का सामना करने के कारण B) पानी के कारण
C) आहथि क तन्गी के कारण D) सभी
A7- प्रेम जी प्र्मुख रूप से क्या थे ?
A) कथाकार B) ले खक C) गायक D) किानीकार

A8- प्रेम जी ने हकस वगि को हविारपूविक वहणित हकया िै ?
A) शोषक एवं शोहषत B) ह़िल्मी वगि को C) आम जनता को D) सभी

A9- इस किानी मे हकन शब्ो का सुन्दर हमश्रण िै ?
A) तत्सम B) तदभव C) दे शज एवं हवदे शी D) सभी
A10- प्रेम जी ने लगभग हकतनी किाहनयां हलखी ?
A) 200 B) 300 C) 400 D) लगभग 100
A11- प्रेम जी का प्र्हसद्ध् किानी संग्रि मानसरोवर हकतने भागो मे संकहलत िै ?

A) 7 B) 6 C) 5 D) 8
A12- ले खक के भाई साहिब उस से हकतने साल बडे थे ?
A) ३ साल B) ५ साल C) ६ साल D) आठ साल
A13- भाई साहिब ले खक से हकतनी कक्षा आगे थे ?
A) दो कक्षा B) तीन कक्षा C) चार कक्षा D) सात
A14- भाई साहिब हकस मामले में जल्दबाजी निीं करते थे ?
A) खे ल कूद मे B) लडने मे C) हशक्षा के मामले मे D) हनणिय ले ने के बारे में
A15- वे िर काम को साल मे दो य तीन बार क्यो करते थे ?
A) क्योहक वे धीरे चलना पसंद करते थे B) क्योहक बुहनयाद को मजबूत बनाना पसंद करते थे
C) क्योहक आलसी थे D) अच्छा लगता था

A16- अवसर हमलते िी ले खक कौन से काम करता था ?
A) चार दीवारी पर चढता उतरता था B) कागज की हततहलय| उडात| था
C) कङ्कर् उछालता था D) सभी
A17- ले खक का मन हकस काम मे निी लगता था ?

A) पढने मे B) खे लने मे C) दोिो के साथ D) काम में
A18- भाई सहिब हकस कला मे हनपुण थे ?
A) खे लो मे B) पढने मे C) कन्चे खे लने मे D) पतङ्ग उडाने की कला मे
A19- ले खक को मू खि रिना क्यो पसंद िै ?
A) क्योहक वि मे िनत निी करना चािता B) पढना उसके वश मे निी था
C) भाई सहिब के उपदे श सुनना पसंद निी था D) सभी
A20- ले खक के हदल के िु कडे हकस बात पर िो जाते थे ?
A) पतंग किने से B) खे ल में िार जाने से C) फेल िोने िोने से D) भाई साहिब के उपदे श सुनने से
A21- भू मं डल का स्वामी कौन था ?
A) बडे भाई साहिब B) हपता जी C) रावण D) कोई निीं

A22- ले खक को भाई साहिब की बातें अच्छी क्यों निीं लगती थी ?
A) क्योहक ले खक अव्वल दजे में पास हुआ था B) भाई साहिब फेल िो गए थे
C) भाई साहिब उपदे श दे ते थे D) सभी
A23- ले खक को कौन सा नया शौक पैदा िो गया था ?
A) कंचे खे लने का B) हकताबे पढ़ने का C) पतंग उडाने का D) सभी

A24- बडे भाई साहिब के अनु सार कैसी बुस्तद्ध व्यथि िै ?
A) जो आत्म गौरव को मार डाले B) पढ़ाई न करने दे C) जो खे ल कूद में लगी रिे D) सभी
A25- ले खक की अपने बारे में क्या धारणा बन गई थी ?
A) वि हबना पढ़े भी प्रथम आएगा B) हक वि फेल िो जायेगा C) हक वि निीं पढ़ सकता D) कोई निीं
Part- B
B1- पहले पद में मीरा ने अपनी पीडा हरने की विनती हरी से कैसे की है ?
A) जैसे सभी भक्तो – द्रौपदी , प्रह्लाद का साथ ददया B) जैसे राधा का साथ ददया
C) जैसे सुदामा का साथ ददया D) कोई नहीीं
B2- मीरा िृन्दािन में क्यों जा बसी थी ?

A) कृ ष्ण के ललए B) रास लीला दे खने के ललए C) पाररिाररक सींतापों से मुवक्त पाने के ललए D) कोई
नहीीं
B3- मीरा की रचनाओीं में उनके आराध्य दकस रूप में सींकल्पपत दकये गए हैं ?
A) लनगुण
ु लनराकार ब्रह्म B) सगुन साकार गोपी िपलभ श्री कृ ष्ण C) लनमोही परदे शी जोगी D) सगुन
साकार गोपी
B4- मीरा बाई का जन्म कब और कहााँ हुआ ?
A) जोधपुर के चोकडी में १५०३ में B) जयपुर में १५०४ में C) सीतापुर में १५०५ में D) जोधपुर
B5- मीरा के पद दकसको सम्बोलधत दकये गए हैं ?
A) मेिाड के महाराणा साींगा B) अपने आराध्य को C) अपने पलत को D) अपने वपता को
B6- मीरा की शादी दकस आयु में हुई ?
A) १२ िर्ु की आयु में B) ११ िर्ु की आयु में C) १३ िर्ु की आयु में D) १7 िर्ु की आयु मे
B7- मीरा कौन सी भार्ाओ की किलयत्री मानी जाती है ?
A) गुजराती और राजस्थानी B) दहीं दी और गुजराती C) दहीं दी और मराठी D) सभी
B8- मीरा की शादी दकस से हुई ?
A) मेिाड के महाराणा साींगा के कुींिर भोजराज से B) मेिाड के सेनापलत से
C) मेिाड के प्रजापलत से D) दकसे से नहीीं
B9- मीरा दकसकी लशष्या थी ?
A) सींत रविदास B) सींत रै दास C) सींत रिीश द|स D) सींत दास
B10- मीरा की भवक्त दकस तरह की है ?
A) दै न्य और मदरु भाि B) प्रेम भाि C) कठोर भाि D) उदार भाि
B11- मीरा के पदों में दकन भार्ाओँ का लमश्रण पाया जाता है ?

A) राजस्थानी B) ब्रज C) गुजराती D) सभी
B12- दकसको बचाने के ललए श्री कृ ष्ण ने नृलसींह का रूप धारण दकया था ?
A) भक्त प्रह्लाद B) भक्त ऐराित C) भक्त अहलाित D) सभी
B13- दस
ू रे पद में मीराबाई श्याम की चाकरी क्यों करना चाहती है ?
A) श्री कृ ष्ण के नजदीक रहने के ललए B) कृ ष्ण के ललए
C) कृ ष्ण का हारलसींगार करने के ललए D) दोहे ललखने के ललए
B14- मीराबाई ने श्री कृ ष्ण के रूप सौंदयु का िणुन कैसे दकया है ?
A) पीताम्बर मनमोहक के रूप में B) पीताम्बर जनमोहक के रूप में C) पीताम्बर के रूप में D) दकसी रूप में नहीीं
B15- मीरा बाई की भार्ा शैली पर प्रकाश डाललये |
A) सरल\ B) सहज C) आम बोलचाल की भार्ा D) सभी
B16- मीरा श्री कृ ष्ण को पाने के ललए क्या क्या करने को तैयार है ?
A) बाग बगीचे लगाने को B) ऊींचे महल बनिाने को C) दासी बनने को D) सभी
B17- "हरर आप हरो जन री भीर " इन पींवक्तयों पर प्रकाश डालें |
A) हे ईश्वर! जैसे आपने अपने सभी भक्तो के दुःु ख हरे मेरे भी कष्ट हरो B) हे प्रभु मेरी पीर हरो
C) हे प्रभु हररजन की पीर हरो D) कोई नहीीं
B18- "बूढ़तो गजराज राख्यो , काटी कुींजर पीर |" पींवक्त पर भाि प्रकट करें |
A) जैसे अपने ऐराित को मगरमच्छ से बचाया B) जैसे आपने इीं द्र को मगरमच्छ से बचाया
C) जैसे आपने भगिान ् को मगरमच्छ से बचाया D) सभी
B19- " चाकरी में दरसण पास्यूाँ , सुमरन पास्यूाँ खरची | " इस पींवक्त में मीरा क्या कह रही है ?
A) दासी बन मीरा श्री कृ ष्ण के पास रहे गी और उसे उनको याद भी नहीीं करना पडे गा |
B) कृ ष्ण के दशुन पाने को मीरा नाचेगी
C) कृ ष्ण के दशुन पाने को मीरा गली गली घूमेगी
D) याद नहीीं करना पडे गा
B20- मीरा के भवक्त भाि का सम्राज्य कैसे बढ़े गा ?
A) मीरा के कृ ष्ण के पास रहने से B) मीरा के नृत्य करने से C) मीरा के गली गली घूमने से D) मीरा के दोहे
ललखने से
B21- श्री कृ ष्ण दकसकी साडी को बढ़ाते चले गए ?
A) मीरा की B) राधा की C) द्रौपदी की D) कोई नहीीं

B22- मीरा श्री कृ ष्ण के पास रहने के कौन से फायदे बताती है ?
A) उसे हमेशा दशुन प्राप्त होंगे B) उसे श्री कृ ष्ण को याद करने की जरूरत नहीीं होगी
C) उसकी भाि भवक्त का साम्राज्य बढ़ता ही जायेगा। D) सभी
B23- मीरा के पद दकस भाि को प्रकट करते हैं ?
A) सौंदयु भाि को B) रासलीला को,उदासी को C) कृ ष्ण भवक्त भाि को D) भवक्त भाि को
B24- मीरा श्री कृ ष्ण के दशुन दकस रीं ग की साडी पहन कर करना चाहती है ?
A) लाल रीं ग B) योगी रीं ग C) कुसुम्बी रीं ग D) रीं ग वबरीं गी
B25- मीरा श्री कृ ष्ण के घूमने के ललए क्या बनाना चाहती है ?
A) पौधे B) हीरे C) बाग़ बगीचे D) हरा रीं ग
Part-C
C1- मीठी िाणी बोलने से औरों को सुख और अपने तन को शीतलता कैसे प्राप्त होती है ?
A) अहीं कार रदहत मीठे बोल सबके ह्रदय को छूते हैं B) लमश्री गलती है C) लमश्री घुलती है D) मीठे
बोल
C2- साखी शब्द दकसका तद्भि रूप है ?
A) साक्षी B) साखी C) सल्ख D) साक्ष्य
C3- सखी शब्द दकस से बना है ?
A) साक्षी B) साक्ष्य C) सल्ख D) साखी
C4- साक्ष्य का क्या अथु है ?
A) प्रत्यक्ष ज्ञान B) साक्ष्य ज्ञान C) साींसाररक ज्ञान D) मायािी ज्ञान की
C5- सींत समाज में दकस ज्ञान की महत्ता है ?
A) अनुभि ज्ञान की B) बाहरी ज्ञान की C) मायािी ज्ञान की D) साींसाररक ज्ञान
C6- कबीर की साल्खयों में दकन भार्ाओीं का स्पष्ट प्रभाि ददखाई दे ता है ?
A) अिधी B) राजस्थानी C) भोजपुरी और पींजाबी D) सभी
C7- साखी क्या है ?
A) दोहा छीं द B) पद्य गद्य C) छीं द D) दोहा
C8- दोहा छीं द के क्या लक्षण हैं ?
A) १३ और ११ के विश्राम से २४ मात्रा B) १२ और ११ के विश्राम से २४ मात्रा
C) १२ और ११ के विश्राम से २८ मात्रा D) १३ और ११7के विश्राम से २४ मात्रा
C9- गुरु लशष्य को तत्त्ि ज्ञान की लशक्षा कैसे दे ता है ?

A) सत्य की साक्षी दे ता हुआ B) व्यिहाररक ज्ञान दे कर C) असत्य की साक्षी दे ता हुआ D) सत्क्ष दे ता हुआ
C10- कबीर का जन्म कब और कहााँ हुआ ?
A) १३९८ में काशी में B) १३२१ में बोधगया में C) १३५४ में उत्तराखींड में D) १३९५ में काशी
में
C11- कबीर के गुरु कौन थे ?
A) स्िामी चररतानन्द B) रामानींद सागर C) गुरु रामानींद D) गुरु
मानींद
C12- अपने स्िभाि को लनमुल रखने के ललए कबीर ने क्या सुााि ददया है ?
A) लनींदक को नमस्ते करने को कहा है B) लनींदक से दरू रहने को कहा है
C) लनींदक पास रखने को कहा है D) लनींदा पास रखने को कहा है
C13- लमट्टी शब्द का अथु बताएीं |
A) लमटना B) लमटटी C) मीट D) मीत
C14- कबीर के अनुसार सुखी कौन है ?
A) साींसाररक लोग जो सोते और खाते हैं B) आध्याल्त्मक लोग C) लालची लोग D) साींसाररक लोग जो
खाते हैं
C15- कबीर के अनुसार दख

ु ी कौन है ?
A) आध्याल्त्मक लोग B) लालची लोग C) जो ज्ञानी है D) जो अज्ञानी है
C16- दीपक ददखाई दे ने से अाँधेरा कैसे लमट जाता है ?
A) कोई भी नहीीं
B) बादल दरू होते हैं
C) अहीं कार रुपी माया दरू होती है जब ज्ञान रुपी दीपक ददखाई दे ता है
D) माया दरू होती है जब ज्ञान रुपी दीपक ददखाई दे ता है
C17- ईशिर कण कण में व्याप्त है , पर हम उसे दे ख क्यों नहीीं पाते ?
A) मन में छुपे अहीं कार के कारण B) आाँखें बींद होने के कारण C) आाँखों पर चश्मा होने के कारण D) मन के
कारण
C18- कबीर के अनुसार कौन ज्ञानी नहीीं बन पाया ?
A) मोती पुस्तके पढ़ने िाला B) मोटी पुस्तके पढ़ने िाला C) दस

ू रों को ज्ञान दे ने िाला D) अज्ञानी
C19- कबीर की साल्खयों का मुख्य उद्दे श्य क्या है ?

A) जीिन जीने के सही ढीं ग का ज्ञान दे ना B) क्षवत्रय ज्ञान C) शास्त्रीय ज्ञान D) सही ढीं ग का
ज्ञान
C20- वबरह भुिींगम तन बसै मन्त्र न लागे कोय | का भाि स्पष्ट कील्जये |
A) जब शरीर में दकसी से वबछुरने का दुःु ख हो तो कोई दिा या मन्त्र काम नहीीं करता
B) मन्त्र जपने से सेहत अच्छी होती है
C) जब दुःु ख हो तो मन्त्र काम करते हैं
D) कोई नहीीं
Part-D
D1- हररहर काका कहानी के लेखक कौन हैं ?
A) गुरदयाल लसींह B) लमलथलेश्वर C) कोई नहीीं D) दयाल लसींह
D2- ठाकुरबारी के प्रलत गाींि िालो के मन में क्या है ?
A) अपार श्रद्धा B) घृणा C) नफरत D) प्रेम
D3- ठाकुरबारी के गाींि के लोगो ने मींददर कैसे बनिाया था?
A) पैसो से B) ठाकुर के पैसो से C) चींदा इकठा करके D) कोई नहीीं
D4- गाींि के लोग अपनी सफलता का श्रेय दकसको दे ते हैं ?
A) सरपींच को B) ठाकुरबारी जी को C) स्ियीं को D) कोई नहीीं
D5- ठाकुरबारी में लोग अपनी श्रद्धा कैसे व्यक्त करते है ?
A) रूपए दे कर B) जेिर C) सभी D) अन्न दे कर
D6- ठाकुरबारी के नाम पर दकतने खेत हैं ?
A) १० बीघे B) २० बीघे C) ३० बीघे D) २ बीघे
D7- गाींि िालो की अपार श्रद्धा से उनकी दकस मनोिृलत का पता चलता है ?
A) अींध भवक्त B) अविश्वास C) धालमुक प्रिृलत का D) विश्वास की
D8- महीं त और हररहर काका के भाई एक ही श्रेणी के क्यों हैं ?
A) दोनों दव्ु युिहार करते हैं B) दोनों ने ज़मीन हलथयाने का र्ड्यींत्र दकया C) दोनों
D9- महीं त ने हररहर काका की दकस पररल्स्तलथ का लाभ उठाया ?
A) पाररिाररक मजबूरी का B) गरीबी का C) पाररिाररक नाराजगी का D) नाराजगी का
D10- महीं त ने हररहर काका को दकस आधार पर ब्लैकमेल दकया ?

A) भािनात्मक आधार पर B) पररिार के नाम पर C) धमु के नाम पर
D11- कथा िाचक और हररहर काका के में क्या सींबींध है ?
A) दोनों दोस्त हैं B) एक ही पररिार से हैं C) दोनों एक ही गाींि के लनिासी हैं D) कोई
नहीीं
D12- हररहर काका कथा िाचक को कैसे घुमाया करते थे ?
A) साइदकल पर B) अपने कींधे पर बैठा कर C) पैदल D) अींगुली पकड
कर
D13- हररहर काका की सम्पलत के दािेदार कौन थे ?
A) महीं त B) हररहर काका के भाई C) दोनों D) कोई नहीीं
D14- हररहर काका और कथािाचक आपस में कैसे बातें करते थे ?
A) खुल कर B) छुप कर C) कोई नहीीं D) घुल घुल कर
D15- हररहर काका के गाींि में यदद मीदडया होती तो उनकी ल्स्तलथ कैसी होती ?
A) लडाई ागडे होते
B) िास्तविकता का सबको पता चलता और उनकी ल्स्तलथ बेहतर होती
C) कोई नहीीं
D) बात और बढ़ती
D16- हररहर काका की कहानी का उद्दे श्य क्या है ?
A) स्िाथी और दहीं सिृवत्त को बेनकाब करना B) पररिारक ागडे ददखाना
C) सम्पलत का लालच ददखाना D) टी आर पी बढ़ाना
D17- पुललस के जिान हररहर काका की सुरक्षा के नाम पर क्या करते थे ?
A) ड्यूटी B) मौज मस्ती C) कुछ नहीीं D) मौज
D18- हररहर काका की हालत की तुलना लेखक ने दकसके साथ की है ?
A) मछली के साथ B) चूहे के साथ C) जाल में फींसी लचदडया से D) जाल में
फींसे आदमी के साथ
D19- हररहर काका से कागज़ो पर अींगूठे कैसे लगिाए गए ?
A) उन्हें सब कुछ पढ़ कर सुना कर B) जबरन धोखे से C) कोई नहीीं D)
बन्दक
ू ददखा कर
D20- ठाकुरबारी में पूजा पाठ के अलािा और क्या होता था?

A) धन सींपवत्त धमु के नाम पर लूटी जाती B) अनैलतक गलतविलधया C) सभी D) कोई नहीीं
Part-E
E1 – श्रीधर के चार पुत्र थे ।
i) क्रिया पदबंध ii) सर्व नाम पदबं ध iii) क्रर्शे षण पदबंध iv) संज्ञा
पदबंध
E2 – लधरे चलने िाली गादडयााँ प्रायुः दे र से पहुाँचती हैं ।

i) सींज्ञा पदबींध ii) विशेर्ण पदबींध iii) सिुनाम पदबींध iv) दिया पदबींध
E3 – अक्लमींदी ददखते हुए आपने बालक को लगरने से बचा ललया।

i) विशेर्ण पदबींध ii) दिया पदबींध iii) सींज्ञा पदबींध iv) सिुनाम पदबींध
E4 – बरगद के पेड की घनी छााँि से हमें गमी में भी ठीं डक का एहसास हुआ
i) दिया पदबींध ii) सिुनाम पदबींध iii) विशेर्ण पदबींध iv) सींज्ञा पदबींध.
E5 – दो हष्ट-पुष्ट लोग बडे पत्थर को रास्ते से हटा पाए

E6) राधा का कुत्ता अत्यींत सुद

ीं र, और आज्ञाकारी है ।
i) विशेर्ण पदबींध ii) सींज्ञा पदबींध iii) सिुनाम पदबींध iv) दिया पदबींध
E7) चोरी करने िाले बदमाशों में से कुछ पकडे गए।

i) दिया पदबींध ii) सिुनाम पदबींध iii) विशेर्ण पदबींध iv) सींज्ञा पदबींध
E8) उस छत के कोने में बैठा हुआ व्यवक्त पागल है ।

i) दिया पदबींध ii) सिुनाम पदबींध iii) विशेर्ण पदबींध iv) सींज्ञा पदबींध
E9) िह विद्यालय से लनकल कर बाजार की ओर आया होगा।

E10) राम दकसी से अच्छा व्यिहार नहीीं करता इसीललए उसके जन्मददन पर कोई नहीीं आया।
i) दियाविशेर्ण पदबींध ii) सींज्ञा पदबींध iii) सिुनाम पदबींध iv) विशेर्ण पदबींध
MATHS
Topic: REAL NUMBERS
1)The LCM and HCF of marks scored by Supravinand Kumar in a test are1489645 and 1
respectively. If supravin’s score is 1145then what is Kumar’sscore is ------
a)68 b)666 c)1295 d)1301
2)5.6723232323……..is
a)an integer b)a rational number c) an irrational number d) a natural number
3) ‘ P’ is the remainder obtained when a perfect square is divided by 3. What is the value of P?
a)1 b)0 c) either a or b d) neither a nor b
4) Euclid’s division lemma: for any two positive integers a and b there exist unique integers q
and r such that a=bq+ r. what is the condition that r must be satisfy
a) 0 ≤ r <b b) 0 < r ≤ b c) 0 ≤ r ≤ b d) 0 < r <b
5) For what value of ‘x’ does 3ˣ end with 5?
a)0 b)5 c)500 d ) Never end with 5
6)x₁,x₂,x₃,……..x₁₂ are integers none of which are divisible by 3 the remainder when
x₁²+x₂²+x₃²+……….x₁₂² is divided by 3 is……
a)0 b)0 or 2 c)1 or 2 d)1
7)Diagonals of a rhombus are (2⁵×7) cm and (2×5²×7³)cm. Express the area of the rhombus in
prime factorization form
a)2×5×7 cm² b ) 2²×5²×7² cm² c) 2⁵×5²×7⁴ cm² d) 2⁶×5²×7⁴ cm²
8)Given a=p - √q and b= p + √q. Which of the following is correct where q is a prime number
a)a+ b is irrational b) a - b is rational c)2ab is a rational d)a/b is a rational
9)According to the fundamental theorem of arithmetic if p is a prime divides a² and a is positive
then ________
a) a divides p b) a² divides p c) p² divides a² d) p divides a
10)The number in the form of 4k+3 where k is a whole number,is always ; _______
a) An odd number b) An even number c) Perfect square d) divisible by 3
11) What is the greatest possible speed at which a man can walk 52 km and 91 km in A in
exact number of minutes?
a) 17 m/min b) 7 m/min c)13 m/min d) 26 m/min
12) If A = 2n + 13, B = n + 7, where n is a natural number then HCF of A and B is:
a) 2 b) 1 c) 3 d) 4
13) Pairs of natural numbers whose least common multiple is 78 and the greatest common
divisor is 13 are:
a) 58 and 13 or 16 and 29 b) 68 and 23 or 36 and 49
c) 18 and 73 or 56 and 93 d) 78 and 13 or 26 and 39
14)Bells toll together at 9.00 am. They toll after 7, 8, 11 and 12 secondsrespectively. How
many times will they toll together again in the next 3 hours?
a)3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
15) A forester wants to plant 66 apple trees, 88 banana trees and 110 mango trees in equal rows
(in terms of number of trees). Also he wants to make distinct rows of trees (i.e., only one type
of trees in one row). The number of minimum rows required are ____
a) 2 b) 3 c) 10 d) 12
16)A number 10x + y is multiplied by another number 10a + b and the result comes as
100p + 10q +r, where r = 2y, q = 2(x + y) and p = 2x; x, y < 5, q ≠ 0. The value
of 10a + b may be:
a) 11 b) 13 c) 31 d) 22
17) If the HCF of 65 and 117 is expressible in the form 65m – 117, then the value ofm is ____
a) 4 b) 2 c) 1 d) 3
3 2 3
18)If two positive integers a and b are written as a = x y and b = xy ; x, y are prime
numbers, then HCF (a, b) is _______
a) xy b) xy2 c) x3y3 d) x2y2
19)The least number that is divisible by all the numbers from 1 to 10 (both inclusive)is ______
a) 10 b) 100 c) 504 d) 2520
20)The decimal expansion of the rational number will terminate after ______
a) one decimal place b) two decimal places
c) three decimal places d) four decimal places
21)Find the number which when divided by 87 leaves a remainder 49 and gives quotient50.
a)3997 b)4399 c)4301 d)4019
22) By what number must 1587 be divided to get a quotient 27 and remainder 21 _____
a)58 b)57 c)59 d)63
23) At an event on Sarasvati puja for students, 1643 Calendar’s and 1060 sweets were to be
distributed amongst students of class X such that each student get the same number of
calendar and also same number of sweets. What is the maximum number of students in class X
a)53 b)93 c)79 d)69
24)A positive number n when divided by 9 leaves a remainder 6 . What is the remainder
when 3n+2 divided by 3 ?
a)0 b)1 c)2 d)3
25)Given that HCF(306,954,1314) = 18 find LCM(306,954,1314)
a)1183234 b)1123238 c)1183914 d)1123328
26) The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 33 and 264 respectively. When the first number is
completely divided by 2 the quotient is 33. The other number is:
a) 66 b) 130 c) 132 d) 196
27) What will be the least possible number of the planks, if three pieces of timber 42m, 49 m
and 63 m long have to be divided into planks of the same length?
a) 5 b)6 c) 7 d) none of these
28) What is the least number that must be added to 1056 so the number is divisibleby 23?
a)0 b)3 c)2 d)1
29) The difference of two numbers is 1365. On dividing the larger number by thesmaller,
we get 6 as quotient and the 15 as remainder. What is the smallernumber?
a)360 b)295 c)270 d)240
30) a and b, when divided by 7 and 6 respectively, leave remainders p and q respectively.
What is the maximum value of p + q?
a)5 b)6 c)12 d)11
31) Which one of the following can’t be the square of a natural number?
a)42437 b)20164 c)81225 d)32761
32) If the number 91876y2 is completely divisible by 8, then the smallest whole number in
place of y will be:
a)2 b)4 c)3 d)1
33) If x and y are the two digits of the number 653xy such that this number is divisible by 80,
then x + y =?
a)4 or 8 b)6 c)4 d)8
34) Which among the following options is irrational?
a)3.1415926535… (non-repeating and non-terminating) b)10.2 c)(0.2)2 d)0.2
35) Write down the decimal expansions of : 13/ 6250
a)0.0208 b)0.00208 c)0.00512 d)0.00416
36) Without actually performing the long division, state whether the following rational
numbers will have a terminating decimal expansion or a non-terminating decimal
expansion: 23/8
a)non-terminating non – repeating decimal b)non-terminating repeating decimal
c)non-terminating decimal d)terminating decimal
37) Decide whether 52.123456789 is a rational number or not. If rational (in theformp/q), what
can you say about the prime factors of q?
a)Rational Number, Prime factor of q will be only 2.
b)Rational Number, Prime factor of q will have a factor other than 2 or 5.
c)Not rational number
d)Rational Number, Prime factors of q will have either 2 or 5 or both
38) Find the HCF of 1848, 3058 and 1331.
a)9 b)14 c)13 d)11
39) An army contingent of 616 members is to march behind an army band of 32 members in a
parade. The two groups are to march in the same number of columns. What is the maximum
number of columns in which they can march?
a)8 b)7 c)6 d)9
40)A number which divides 542 and 128 and leaves a remainder 2 in both cases.
a)12 b)9 c)6 d)3
41) the HCF (a, b) =2 and LCM (a, b) =27. What is the value a×b ______
a) 25 b)9 c) 27 d)54
42) A number when divided by a divisor leaves a remainder of 24.When twice the original
number is divided by the same divisor, the remainder is 11. What is the value of the divisor?
a)13 b)59 c)37 d)35
43) The product of 4 consecutive even numbers is always divisible by:
a)600 b)768 c)864 d)384
44) What is the minimum number of square marbles required to tile a floor oflength 5
meters 78 cm and width 3 meters 74 cm?
a)176 b)187 c)540 d)748
45) Find the remainder when 2⁸⁹ is divided by 89?
a)1 b)2 c)87 d)88
46) A boy writes all the numbers from 100 to 999. The number of zeroes that he uses is 'a', the
number of 5's that he uses is 'b' and the number of 8's he uses is 'c’. What is the value
of b+c−a?
a)280 b)380 c)180 d)80
47) In a meet, persons from five different places have assembled in Bangalore High School.
Fromthe five places the persons come to represent are 42,60,210,90 and 84.What is the
minimum number of rooms that would be required to accommodate so that each room has the
same number of occupants and occupants are all from the same places?
a)44 b)62 c)81 d)96
48) Find the remainder when 3¹⁶⁴ is divided by 162?
a)0 b)9 c)11 d)81
49) What is the remainder when 9¹+9²+9³+....+9⁸ is divided by 6 ?
a)3 b)2 c)0 d)5
50) What is the unit's digit of the number 6²⁵⁶ - 4²⁵⁶ ?
a)1 b)7 c)0 d)4
51) If a and b are positive integers, and x=2×3×7×a ,and y=2×2×8×band the values of both x and
y lie between 120 and 130 (not including the two), then a–b=
a)1 b)-2 c)2 d)-1
52) A number when divided by 342 gives a remainder 47. When the same number is divided
by 19, what would be the remainder?
a)5 b)4 c)9 d)0
53) The least common multiple of two natural numbers a and b, is 399.What is the minimum
possible sum of the digits of the number a(given a>b)?
a)1 b)3 c)5 d)7
54) What is the remainder when 7²×8² is divided by 6?
a)2 b)4 c)6 d)8
55) Euclid’s division lemma can be used to find the .............. of any two positive integers
a) HCF b) Multiples c) Both d)None
56) Euclid’s division lemma is not applicable for which value of b ?
a)Positive integer b)Zero c) Negative integer d)All of these
57)Any odd positive integer can be expressed as ?
a)6q +1 b)6q +3 c)6q+5 d)All of these
58) Product of 3 consecutive positive integers is always divisible by ?
a)4 b) 5 c)6 d) 7
59) (n + 1)2 – 1 is divisible by 8, if n is :
a) an odd integer b) an even integer c) a natural number d) an integer
60) If the HCF of 85 and 153 is expressible in the form 85m – 153, then the value of m is :
a) 1 b) 4 c) 3 d) 2
61) The largest number which divides 71 and 126, leaving remainders 6 and 9 respectively is :
a) 1750 b) 13 c) 65 d) 875
62) The sum of a rational and irrational number is
a) rational b) irrational c) both of above d) none of above
63) The product of two different irrational numbers is always
a) rational b) irrational c) both of above d) none of above
64) LCM of the given number ‘x’ and ‘y’ where y is a multiple of ‘x’ is given by
a) x b) y c) xy d)
65) The largest number that will divide 398,436 and 542 leaving remainders 7,11 and 15
respectively is
a) 17 b) 11 c) 34 d) 45
66)There are 312, 260 and 156 students in class X, XI and XII respectively. Buses are to be
hired to take these students to a picnic. Find the maximum number of students who can sit
in a bus if each bus takes equal number of students
a) 52 b) 56 c) 48 d) 63
67) There is a circular path around a sports field. Priya takes 18 minutes to drive one round of
the field. Harish takes 12 minutes. Suppose they both start at the same point and at the same
time and go in the same direction. After how many minutes will they meet?
a) 36 minutes b) 18 minutes c) 6 minutes d) They will not meet
68) Three farmers have 490 kg, 588 kg and 882 kg of wheat respectively. Find the maximum
capacity of a bag so that the wheat can be packed in exact number of bags.
a) 98 kg b) 290 kg c) 200 kg d) 350 kg
69) If the HCF of 408 and 1032 is expressible in the form 1032 x 2 + 408 × p, then the
value of p is __________
a) 5 b) -5 c) 4 d) -4
70) The number in the form of 4p + 3, where p is a whole number, will always be
a) even b) odd c) even or odd d) multiple of 3
71) If HCF (16, y) = 8 and LCM (16, y) = 48, then the value of y is
a) 24 b) 16 c) 8 d) 48
72) Find the greatest number of 5 digits, that will give us remainder of 5 when divided by 8
and 9 respectively.
a) 99921 b) 99931 c) 99941 d) 99951
73) For some integers p and 5, there exist unique integers q and r such that p = 5q + r.
Possible values of r are __________
a) 0 or 1 b) 0, 1 or 2 c) 0, 1, 2 or 3 d) 0, 1, 2, 3 or 4
74) Two alarm clocks ring their alarms at regular intervals of 50 seconds and 48 seconds.
If they first beep together at 12 noon, at what time will theybeep again for the first time ?
a) 12.20 pm b) 12.12 pm c) 12.11pm d) none of these
75) If A = 2n + 13, B = n + 7, where n is anatural number, then HCF of A and B is:
a) 2 b) 1 c) 3 d) 4
76) There are 576 boys and 448 girls in a school that are to be divided into equal sections of
either boys or girls alone. The total number of sectionsthus formed are:
a) 22 b) 16 c) 36 d) 21
77) The HCF of 2472, 1284 and a third number N is 12. If their LCM is 2³x 3²x 5 x 103 x 107,
then the number N is :
a) 2² x 3² x 7 b) 2² x 3³ x 103 c) 2² x 3² x 5 d) 2⁴ x 3²x 11
78)Two natural numbers whose difference is 66 and the least common multiple is 360,are:
a) 120 and 54 b) 90 and 24 c) 180 and 114 d) 130 and 64
79) 4 Bells toll together at 9.00 am. They toll after 7, 8, 11 and 12 seconds respectively. How
many times will they toll together again in the next 3 hours?
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
80) The decimal expansion of the rational number will terminate after
a) one decimal place b) two decimal places
c) three decimal places d) four decimal places
81) If 3(x – y) = 27 and 3(x + y) = 243, then x is equal to:
a)5 b)0 c) 4 d)3
82) Given that 100.48 = x, 100.70 = y and xz = y2, then the value of z is close to:
a)3.7 b)2.9 c)1.88 d)1.45
83) What is the least number which when divided by the numbers 3, 5, 6, 8, 10 and 12 leaves
in each case a remainder 2 but which when divided by 13 leaves no remainder?
a) 312 b)962 c)1586 d)1562
84) The sum of two numbers is 156 and their HCF is 13. The numbers of such number pairs is:
a) 2 b) 5 c)4 d)3
85) The greatest length of the scale that can measure exactly 30 cm, 90 cm, 1 m 20 cm and 1 m
35 cm lengths is _______
a)5 cm b)10 cm c) 15cm d)30 cm
86) 3 birds fly along the circumference of a jungle. They complete one round in 27 minutes, 45
minutes and 63 minutes respectively. Since they start together, when will they meet again
at the starting position?
a)945 minutes b)126 minutes c)135 minutes d)9 hours
87) There are 3 equilateral triangles with sides 114cm, 76cm and 152 cm. What maximum size
scale can measure them exactly?
a)19 cm b)21 cm c)38 cm d)None of the above
88) The L.C.M. Of 2, 2.7 and 0.09 is:
a)5.4 b)0.54 c)0.054 d)54

89) What will be fraction form of 0.3523?
a) 3488/9900 b)3523/9900 c)3523/10000 d)3488/10000
90) How many zeroes are there in 200010?
a)10 b) 30 c)20 d)15
91) is:
a)a rational number b)an irrational number
c) a prime number d)an even number
92) Find the smallest number which when increased by 20 is exactly divisible by 90 and 144.
a)700 b)790 c)720 d) none of these
93) Which of the following rational numbers have a terminating decimal expansion?
(a) b) c) d)
94) Given that LCM (91, 26) = 182, then HCF (91, 26) is:
a) 13 b)26 c) 7 d) 9
95)The LCM of 2 numbers is 14 times their HCF. The sum of LCM and HCF is 600. If one
number is 280, then find the other number.
a)80 b) 18 c)88 d) None of these
96) If n is a positive integer, which one of the following numbers must have a remainder of 3
when divided by any of the numbers 4, 5 and 6?
a)12n+3 b)24n+3 c)90n+2 d)120n+3
97) A certain number when divided by 222 leaves a remainder 35, another number when
divided by 407 leaves a remainder 47.What is the remainder when the sum of these two
numbers is divided by 37?
a)8 b)9 c)12 d)17

98) The sum of three digit number is subtracted from the number.The resulting number is
always:
a)Divisible by 6 b) Not Divisible by 6 c) Divisible by 9 d) Not Divisible by 9
99) If N=2³×3⁴ , M=2²×3×5, then find the number of factors of N that are common with the
factors of M.
a)8 b)6 c)18 d)20
100) The remainder when the positive integer m is divided by 7is x. The remainder when m is
divided by 14 is x+7.Which one of the following could m equal?
a)45 b)53 c)72 d)85
PHYSICS
Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers
1.Which of the following can make a parallel beam of light when light from a point source is
incident on it?
(a) Concave mirror as well as convex lens (b) Convex mirror as well as concave lens
(c) Two plane mirrors placed at 90° to each other (d) Concave mirror as well as concave lens
2.A 10 mm long pin is placed vertically in front of a concave mirror. A 5 mm long image of the
awl pin is formed at 30 cm in front of the mirror. The focal length of this mirror is
(a) -30 cm (b) -20 cm (c) -40cm (d) -60 cm
3.Under which of the following conditions a concave mirror can form an image larger than the
actual object?
(a) When the object is kept at a distance equal to its radius of curvature
(b) When object is kept at a distance less than its focal length
(c) When object is placed between the focus and centre of curvature
(d) When object is kept at a distance greater than its radius of curvature
4.A light ray enters from medium A to medium B as shown in figure. The refractive index of
medium B relative to A will be
(a) greater than unity (b) less than unity (c) equal to unity (d) zero
5. Beams of light are incident through the holes A and B and emerge out of box through the holes
C and D respectively as shown in the figure. Which of the following could be inside the box?
(a) A rectangular glass slab (b) A convex lens (c) A concave lens (d) A prism
6. A beam of light is incident through the holes on side A and emerges out of the holes on the
other face of the box as show in the figure. Which of the following could be inside the box?
(a) Concave lens (b) Rectangular glass slab (c) Prism (d) Convex lens
7. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) A convex lens has 4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
(b) A convex lens has -4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
(c) A concave lens has 4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
(d) A concave lens has -4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m.
8. Magnification produced by a rear view mirror fitted in vehicles

(a) is less than one
(b) is more than one
(c) is equal to one
(d) can be more than or less than one depending upon the position of the object in front of it.
9. Rays from Sun converge at a point 15 cm in front of a concave mirror. Where should an object
be placed so that size of its image is equal to the size of the object?
(a) 15 cm in front of the mirror
(b) 30 cm in front of the mirror
(c) between 15 cm and and 30 cm in front of the mirror
(d) more than 30 cm in front of the mirror
10. A full length image of a distant tall building can definitely be seen by using
(a) a concave mirror (b) a convex mirror
(c) a plane mirror (d) both concave as well as plane mirror
11.In torches, search lights and headlights of vehicles the bulb is placed
(a) between the pole and the focus of the reflector
(b) very near to the focus of the reflector
(c) between the focus and centre of curvature of the reflector
(d) at the centre of curvature of the reflector
12. The laws of reflection hold good for

(a) plane mirror only (b) concave mirror only
(c) convex mirror only (d) all mirrors irrespective of their shape
13. The path of a ray of light coming from air passing through a rectangular glass slab traced by
four students are shown as A, B, C and D in figure. Which one of them is correct?
(a) (b) B (c) C (d) D
14. You are given water, mustard oil, glycerine and kerosene. In which of these media a ray of
light incident obliquely at same angle would bend the most?
(a) Kerosene (b) Water (c) Mustard oil (d) Glycerine
15. Which of the following ray diagrams is correct for the ray of light incident on a concave
mirror as shown in figure?
(a) Fig. A (b) Fig. B (c) Fig. C (d) Fig. D
16. Which of the following ray diagrams is correct for the ray of light incident on a lens shown in
figure?
(a) Fig. A (b) Fig. B (c) Fig. C (d) Fig. D

17. A child is standing in front of a magic mirror. She finds the image of her head bigger, the
middle portion of her body of the same size and that of the legs smaller. The following is the
order of combinations for the magic mirror from the top.
(a) Plane, convex and concave (b) Convex, concave and plane
(c) Concave, plane and convex (d) Convex, plane and concave
18. In which of the following, the image of an object placed at infinity will be highly diminished
and point sized?
(a) Concave mirror only
(b) Convex mirror only
(c) Convex lens only
(d) Concave mirror, convex mirror, concave lens and convex lens
19. Light travel fastest in

(a) Water (b) Air (c) Glass (d) Diamond
20. A student used a device (X) to obtain/focus the image of a well illuminated distant building
on a screen (S) as shown alongside in the diagram. Select the correct statement about the device
(X).
(a) This device is a concave lens of focal length 8 cm.

(b) This device is a convex mirror of focal length 8 cm.
(c) This device is a convex lens of focal length 4 cm.
(d) This device is a convex lens of focal length 8 cm.
21. A student obtains a sharp image of the distant window (W) of the school laboratory on the
screen (S) using the given concave mirror (M) to determine its focal length. Which of the
following distances should he measure to get the focal length of the mirror?
(a) MW (b) MS (c) SW (d) MW- WS

22. The mirror having reflection surface curved outward
(a) plane mirror (b) concave mirror
(c) convex mirror (d) cylindrical mirror
23. The mirror having reflecting surface curved inwards

(a) plane mirror (b) convex mirror
(c) cylindrical mirror (d) concave mirror
24. The mirror used as rear-view mirror in vehicles

(a) convex mirror (b) plane mirror
(c) cylindrical mirror (d) concave mirror
25. The deviation of light ray from its path when it travels from one transparent medium to
another transparent medium is called
(a) reflection (b) refraction (c) dispersion (d) scattering
26. Convex lens is also known as

(a) converging lens (b) diverging lens (c) radial lens
27. The image which is formed behind the mirror

(a) real image (b) virtual image (c) blue image (d) partial image
28. An object is placed 20 cm in front of a plane mirror. The mirror is moved 2 cm towards the
object. The distance between the positions of the original and final images seen in the mirror is:
(a) 2 cm (b) 4 cm (c) 10 cm (d) 22 cm
28. A ray of light that strikes a plane mirror PQ at an angle of incidence of 30o, is reflected from
the plane mirror and then strikes a second plane mirror QR placed at right angles to the first
mirror. The angle of reflection at the second mirror is:
(a) 30o (b) 45o (c) 60o (d) 90o
29. An object is placed at 100 mm in front of a concave mirror which produces an upright image
(erect image). The radius of curvature of the mirror is:
(a) Less than 100 mm (b) Between 100 mm and 200 mm
(c) Exactly 200 mm (d) More than 200 mm
30. Which position of the object will produce a magnified virtual image, if a concave mirror of
focal length 15 cm is being used?
(a) 10 cm (b) 20 cm (c) 30 cm (d) 35 cm
31. A concave mirror produces a magnification of +4. The object is placed:

(a) At the focus (b) Between focus and centre of curvature
(c) Between focus and pole (d) Beyond the centre of curvature
32. Two big mirrors A and B are fitted side by side on a wall. A man is standing at such a
distance from the wall that he can see the erect image of his face in both the mirrors. When the
man starts walking towards the mirrors, he finds that the size of his face in mirror A goes on
increasing but that in mirror B remains the same:
(a) Mirror A is concave and mirror B is convex
(b) Mirror A is plane and mirror B is concave
(c) Mirror A is concave and mirror B is plane
(d) Mirror A is convex and mirror B is concave
33. A ray of light is travelling in a direction perpendicular to the boundary of a parallel glass slab.
The ray of light:
(a) Is refracted towards the normal (b) Is refracted away from the normal
(c) Is reflected along the same path (d) Does not get refracted
34. A ray of light passes from a medium X to another medium Y. No refraction of light occurs if
the ray of light hits the boundary of medium Y at an angle of:
(a) 120o (b) 90o (c) 45o (d) 0o
35. A lens of focal length 12 cm forms an erect image, three times the size of the object. The
distance between the object and image is:
(a) 8 cm (b) 16 cm (c) 24 cm (d) 36 cm
36. If an object is placed 21 cm from a converging lens, the image formed is slightly smaller than
the object. If the object is placed at a distance of 19 cm from the lens, the image formed is
slightly larger than the object. The approximate focal length of the lens is:
(a) 20 cm (b) 18 cm (c) 10 cm (d) 5 cm
37. A student does the experiment on tracing the path of a ray of light passing through a
rectangular glass slab for different angles of incidence. He can get a correct measure of the angle
of incidence and the angle of emergence by following the labelling indicated in figure:
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
38. While performing an experiment on determination of focal length of a convex lens, four
students obtained the image of the same distant tree on the screen as follows:
Which diagram shows the formation of image correctly?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

39. A student traces the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular slab.
For measuring the angle of incidence, he must position the protractor in the manner shown in the
figure:
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
40. Four students A, B, C and D performed the experiment to determine the focal length of a
concave mirror by obtaining the image of a distant tree on a screen. They measured the distances
between the screen and the mirror as shown in the diagrams given below:
The correct way to measure accurate focal length of the mirror is:
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
41. A student traces the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular slab for three different
values of angle of incidence (∠i ) namely 30o, 45o and 60o. He extends the direction of incident
ray by a dotted line and measures the perpendicular distance ‘l’ between the extended incident ray
and the emergent ray.
He will observe that:
(a) ‘l’ keeps on increasing with increase in angle of incidence

(b) ‘l’ keeps on decreasing with increase in angle of incidence
(c) ‘l’ remains the same for all three angles of incidence
(d) ‘l’ is the maximum for ∠i = 45o and is less than this value for ∠i = 30o and ∠i = 60o.
42. Focal length of plane mirror is

a. At infinity b. Zero c. Negative d. None of these
43. Image formed by plane mirror is

a. Real and erect b. Real and inverted
c. Virtual and erect d. Virtual and inverted
44. A concave mirror gives real, inverted and same size image if the object is placed
a. At F b. At infinity c. At C d. Beyond C
45. Power of the lens is -40, its focal length is

a. 4m b. -40m c. -0.25m d. -25m
46. A concave mirror gives virtual, refract and enlarged image of the object but image of smaller
size than the size of the object is
a. At infinity b. Between F and C c. Between P and F d. At E
47. In optics an object which has higher refractive index is called

a. Optically rarer b. Optically denser c. Optical density d. Refractive index
48. The optical phenomena, twinkling of stars, is due to

a. Atmospheric reflection b. Total reflection
c. Atmospheric refraction d. Total refraction
49. Convex lens focus a real, point sized image at focus, the object is placed
a. At focus b. Between F and 2F
c. At infinity d. At 2F
50. The unit of power of lens is

a. Metre b. Centimeter c. Diopter d. M-1
51. The radius of curvature of a mirror is 20cm the focal length is

a. 20cm b. 10cm c. 40cm d. 5cm
52) When a plane mirror is rotated through a certain angle, the reflected ray turns through twice
as much and the size of the image:
(a) is doubled (b) is halved (c) becomes infinite (d) remains same
53) If an object is placed symmetrically between two plane mirrors, inclined at angle of 72
degree, then total no. of images formed:
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) infinite
54) Which statement is true for the reflection of light?
(a) The angle of incidence and reflection are equal.
(b) The reflected light is less bright than the incident light.
(c) The sum of angle of incidence and reflection is always greater than 900.
(d) The beams of incident light after reflection diverge at unequal angles.
55) Focal length of a plane mirror is

(a) 0 (b) infinite (c) 25cm (d) -25
56) The image shows the path of incident rays to a concave mirror.
Where would the reflected rays meet for the image formation to take place?
(a) behind the mirror (b) between F and O (c) between C and F (d) beyond C
57) A beam of light incident on a plane mirror forms a real image on reflection. The incident
beam is :
(a) parallel (b) convergent (c) divergent (d) not certain
58) An object is placed at a distance of 40cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 20cm.
The image produced is:
(a) virtual and inverted
(b) real and erect
(c) real, inverted and of the opposite size as that of the object
(d) real, inverted and of the same size as that of the object
59) A student conducts an experiment using a convex lens. He places the object at a distance of
60 cm in front of the lens and observes that the image is formed at a distance of 30 cm behind the
lens. What is the power of the lens?
(a) 0.005 dioptre (b) 0.05 dioptre (c) 5 dioptre (d) 50 dioptre
60) An image of an object produced on a screen which is about 36 cm using a convex lens.
The image produced is about 3 times the size of the object. What is the size of the object?
(a) 12 cm (b) 33 cm (c) 39 cm (d) 108 cm3
61) Image formed by a convex spherical mirror is:

(a) virtual (b) real (c) enlarged (d) inverted
62) A student studies that a convex lens always forms a virtual image irrespective of its position.
What causes the convex mirror to always form a virtual image?
(a) because the reflected ray never intersects
(b) because the reflected ray converges at a single point
(c) because the incident ray traces its path back along the principal axis
(d) because the incident ray of a convex mirror gets absorbed in the mirror
63) A 10 mm long awl pin is placed vertically in front pin is formed at 30cm in front of the
mirror. The focal length of this mirror is:
(a) -30cm (b) -20cm (c) -40cm (d) -60cm
64) Rahul conducts an experiment using an object of height 10 cm and a concave lens with focal
length 20 cm. The object is placed at a distance of 25 cm from the lens. Can the image be formed
on a screen?
(a) yes, as the image formed will be real (b) yes, as the image formed will be erect
(c) no, as the image formed will be virtual (d) no, as the image formed will be inverted
65) Magnification produced by a rear view mirror fitted in vehicles:

(a) is less than one
(b) is more than one
(c) is equal to one
(d) can be more than or less than one depending upon the position of the object in front of it
66) A student conducts an activity using a concave mirror with focal length of 10 cm. He placed
the object 15 cm from the mirror. Where is the image likely to form?
(a) at 6 cm behind the mirror (b) at 30 cm behind the mirror
(c) at 6 cm in front of the mirror (d) at 30 cm in front of the mirror
67) The image of an object placed in front of a convex mirror is formed at
(a) the object itself
(b) twice the distance of the object in front of the mirror
(c) half the distance of the object in front of the mirror
(d) behind the mirror
68) A full length of image of a distant tall building can definitely be seen using:
(a) a concave mirror (b) a convex mirror
(c) a plane mirror (d) both concave as well as plane mirror
69) A student conducts an activity using a flask of height 15 cm and a concave mirror. He finds
that the image formed is 45 cm in height. What is the magnification of the image?
(a) -3 times (b) -1/ 3 times (c) 1/ 3 times (d) 3 times
70) Which of the following can make a parallel beam of light from a point source incident on it?
(a) concave mirror as well as convex lens
(b) convex mirror as well as concave lens
(c) two plane mirrors placed at 90degree to each other
(d) concave mirror as well as concave lens
71) A student studies that the speed of light in air is 300000 kms/ sec where that of speed in a
glass slab is about 197000 kms/ sec. What causes the difference in speed of light in these two
media?
(a) difference in density (b) difference in temperature
(c) difference in amount of light (d) difference in direction of wind flow
72) An object is placed at a distance of 0.25 m in front of a plane mirror. The distance between
the object and image will be
(a) 0.25 m (b) 1.0 m (c) 0.5 m (d) 0.125 m
73) The angle of incidence for a ray of light having zero reflection angle is
(a) 0 (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 90°
74) For a real object, which of the following can produce a real image?
(a) Plane mirror (b) Concave mirror (c) Concave lens (d) Convex mirror
75) Which of the following mirror is used by a dentist to examine a small cavity?
(a) Convex mirror (b) Plane mirror
(c) Concave mirror (d) Combination of convex and concave mirror
76) An object at a distance of 30 cm from a

concave mirror gets its image at the same point. The focal length of the mirror is
(a) – 30 cm (b) 30 cm (c) – 15 cm (d) +15 cm
77) An object at a distance of + 15 cm is slowly moved towards the pole of a convex mirror. The
image will get
(a) shortened and real (b) enlarged and real
(c) enlarge and virtual (d) diminished and virtual
78) A concave mirror of radius 30 cm is placed in water. It’s focal length in air and water differ
by
(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) 0
79) A concave mirror of focal length 20 cm forms an image having twice the size of object. For
the virtual position of object, the position of object will be at
(a) 25 cm (b) 40 cm (c) 10 cm (d) At infinity
80) The image formed by concave mirror is real, inverted and of the same size as that of the
object. The position of object should be
(a) at the focus (b) at the centre of curvature
(c) between focus and centre of curvature (d) beyond centre of curvature
81)The nature of the image formed by concave mirror when the object is placed between the
focus (F) and centre of curvature (C) of the mirror observed by us is
(a) real, inverted and diminished (b) virtual, erect and smaller in size
(c) real, inverted and enlarged (d) virtual, upright and enlarged
82) The nature of image formed by a convex mirror when the object distance from the mirror is
less than the distance between pole and focal point (F) of the mirror would be
(a) real, inverted and diminished in size (b) real, inverted and enlarged in size
(c) virtual, upright and diminished in size (d) virtual, upright and enlarged in size
83) If a man’s face is 25 cm in front of concave shaving mirror producing erect image 1.5 times
the size of face, focal length of the mirror would be
(a) 75 cm (b) 25 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 60 cm
84) As light travels from a rarer to a denser medium it will have

(a) increased velocity (b) decreased velocity
(c) decreased wavelength (d) both (b) and (c)
85) The angle of incidence i and refraction r are equal in a transparent slab when the value of i is
(a) 0° (b) 45° (c) 90° (d) depend on the material of the slab
86) The refractive index of transparent medium is greater than one because
(a) Speed of light in vacuum < speed of light in tansparent medium
(b) Speed of light in vacuum > speed of light in tansparent medium
(c) Speed flight in vacuum = speed of light in tansparent medium
(d) Frequency of light wave changes when it moves from rarer to denser medium
87) The refractive index of water is 1.33. The speed of light in water will be
(a) 1.33 × 108 m/s (b) 3 × 108 m/s (c) 2.26 × 108 m/s (d) 2.66 × 108 m/s
88) You are given three media A, B and C of refractive index 1.33, 1.65 and 1.46. The medium in
which the light will travel fastest is
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) equal in all three media
89) Light from the Sun falling on a convex lens will converge at a point called
(a) centre of curvature (b) focus (c) radius of curvature (d) optical centre
90) Large number of thin stripes of black paint are made on the surface of a convex lens of focal
length 20 cm to catch the image of a white horse. The image will be
(a) a zebra of black stripes (b) a horse of black stripes
(c) a horse of less brightness (d) a zebra of less brightness
91) A divergent lens will produce

(a) always real image (b) always virtual image
(c) both real and virtual image (d) none of these
92) When object moves closer to convex lens, the image formed by it shift
(a) away from the lens
(b) towards the lens
(c) first towards and then away from the lens
(d) first away and then towards the lens
93) When object moves closer to a concave lens the image by it shift
(a) away from the lens on the same side of object
(b) toward the lens
(c) away from the lens on the other side of lens
(d) first towards and then away from the lens
94) A magnified real image is formed by a convex lens when the object is at
(a) F (b) between F and 2F (c) 2F (d) only (a) and (b) both
95) The distance between the potical centre and point of convergence is called focal length in
which of the following cases?
The questions given below consist of an assertion and the reason. Use the following key to
choose the appropriate answer.
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
96) Assertion: Incident light is reflected in only one direction from a smooth surface.
Reason: Since the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection are same, a beam of parallel rays
of light falling on a smooth surface is reflected as a beam of parallel light rays in one direction
only.
97) Assertion: The word AMBULANCE on the hospital vans is written in the form of its mirror
as
Reason: The image formed in a plane mirror is same size of the oblect.
98) Assertion: Cannot see the distant object clearly.

Reason: The far point of an eye suffering j, from myopia is less than infinity.
99) Assertion: Pupil is black in colour.

Reason: Pupil is black in colour as no light is reflected in it.
100) Assertion: The rainbow is a man made spectrum of sunlight in the sky.
Reason: The rainbow is formed in the sky when the sun is shining and it is raining at the same
time.
CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS
1.Which of the following is a displacement reaction?
2. Magnesium ribbon is rubbed before burning because it has a coating of

(a) basic magnesium carbonate (b) basic magnesium oxide
(c)basic magnesium sulphide (d) basic magnesium chloride
3. Which of the following statements about the given reaction are correct?
3Fe (s) + 4H2O (g) → Fe3O4 (s) + 4 H2 (g)
(i) Iron metal is getting oxidised
(ii) Water is getting reduced
(iii) Water is acting as reducing agent
(iv) Water is acting as oxidising agent
(a) (i), (zi) and (iii) (b) (in) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
4.Which of the following are exothermic processes?

(i) Reaction of water with quick lime
(ii) Dilution of an acid
(iii) Evaporation of water
(iv) Sublimation of camphor (crystals)
(a)(i) and (ii)
(a) (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
5.Oxidation is a process which involves

(a) addition of oxygen
(b) addition of hydrogen
(c) removal of oxygen
(d) removal of hydrogen
6. The process of reduction involves
(a) addition of oxygen
(b) addition of hydrogen
(c) removal of oxygen
(d) removal of hydrogen
7. Three beakers labelled as A, B and C each containing 25 ml of water were taken.

A small amount of NaOH, anhydrous CuSO4 and NaCl were added to the beakers A, B
and C respectively. It was observed that there was an increase in the temperature of the
solution contained in beakers A and B, whereas in case of beaker C, the temperature of
the solution falls. Which one of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?
(i) In beakers A and B, exothermic process has occurred.
(ii) In beakers A and B, endothermic process has occuBftd.
(iii) In beaker C exothermic process has occurred.
(iv) In beaker C endothermic process has occurred.
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (iv), (ii) and (iii)
8. Give the ratio in which hydrogen and oxygen are present in water by volume.
(a) 1:2
(b) 1:1
(c) 2:1
(d) 1:8
9. Which among the following statement(s) is (are) true?

Exposure of silver chloride to sunlight for a long duration turns grey due to
(i) the formation of silver by decomposition of silver chloride
(ii) sublimation of silver chloride
(iii decomposition of chlorine gas from silver chloride
(iv) oxidation of silver chloride
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iv) only
10. MnO2 + 4HCl → 2 + 2H2O + Cl2

Identify the substance oxidized in the above . equation.
(a) MnCl2
(b) HCl
(c) H2O
(d) MnO2
11. A substance ‘X’ is used in white-washing and is obtained by heating
limestone in the absence of air. Identify ‘X’.
(a) CaOCl2
(b) Ca (OH)2
(c) CaO
(d) CaCO3
12. When Ag is exposed to air it gets a black coating of

(a) AgNO3
(b) Ag2S
(c) Ag2O
(d) Ag2CO3
13. Which of the following is an endothermic process?

(a) Dilution of sulphuric acid
(b) Sublimation of dry ice
(c) Condensation of water vapours
(d) Respiration in human beings
14. In the double displacement reaction between aqueous potassium iodide and
aqueous lead nitrate, a yellow precipitate of lead iodide is formed. While performing the
activity if lead nitrate is not available, which of the following can be used in place of lead
nitrate?
(a) Lead sulphate (insoluble)
(&) Lead acetate
(c) Ammonium nitrate
(d) Potassium sulphate
15. What type of chemical reactions take place when electricity is passed through water?
(a) Displacement
(b) Combination
(c) Decomposition
(d) Double displacement
16. Select the oxidising agent for the following reaction:

H2S + I2 > 2HI + S
(a) I2
(b) H2S
(c) HI
(d) S
17. A substance added to food containing fats and oils is called:
(a) Oxidant
(b) Rancid
(c) Coolant
(d) Antioxidant
18. The condition produced by aerial oxidation of fats and oils in foods marked by
unpleasant smell and taste is called:
(a) antioxidation
(b) reduction
(c) rancidity
(d) corrosion
19. Electrolysis of water is a decomposition reaction. The mole ratio of hydrogen and
oxygen gases liberated during electrolysis of water is:
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 2:1
(c) 4:1
(d) 1:2
20. When SO2 gas is passed through saturated solution of H2S, which of the
following reaction occurs?
(a) SO2 + 2H2S → 2H2O + 3S
(b) SO2 + 2H2S → H2O + 3S
(c) SO2 + H2S → H2O + S
(d) SO2 + H2O → SO3 + H2
21. Name the products formed when iron filings are heated with dilute hydrochloric acid
(a) Fe (III) chloride and water
(b) Fe (II) chloride and water
(c) Fe (II) chloride and hydrogen gas
(d) Fe (III) chloride and hydrogen gas
22. Pb + CuCl2 → PbCl2 + Cu

The above reaction is an example of:
(a) combination
(b) double displacement
(c) decomposition
(d) displacement
23. Which of the following gases can be used for storage

(a) Carbon dioxide or Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen or Oxygen
(c) Carbon dioxide or Helium
(d) Helium or Nitrogen
24. A dilute ferrous sulphate solution was gradually added to the beaker containing acidified
permanganate solution. The light purple colour of the solution fades and finally disappears.
Which of the following is the correct explanation for the observation?
(a) KMnO4 is an oxidising agent, it oxidises FeSO4.
(b) FeSO4 acts as an oxidising agent and oxidises KMNO4.
(c) The colour disappears due to dilution; no reaction is involved.
(d) KMnO4 is an unstable compound and de-composes in presence of FeSO4. to a colourless
compound.
25. In which of the following chemical equations, the abbreviations represent the correct
states of the reactants and products involved at reaction temperature?
(a) 2H2 (l) + O2 (l) > 2H2O(g)
(b) 2H2 (g) + O2 (l) > 2H2O (l)
(c) 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) > 2H2O (l)
(d) 2H2 (g) +O2 (g) > 2H2O (g)
26. Before burning in air, the magnesium ribbon is cleaned by rubbing with a sand paper to:
a. Make the ribbon surface shinier
b. Remove the layer of magnesium oxide from the ribbon surface
c. Remove the layer of magnesium carbonate from the ribbon surface
d. Remove the moisture from the ribbon surface
27. In a chemical reaction between sulphuric acid and barium chloride solution the white
precipitates formed are of:
a. Hydrochloric acid
b. Barium sulphate
c. Chlorine
d. Sulphur
28. The respiration process during which glucose undergoes slow combustion by combining
with oxygen in the cells of our body to produce energy, is a kind of:
a. Exothermic process
b. Endothermic process
c. Reversible process
d. Physical process
29. A chemical reaction does not involve:

a. Formation of new substances having entirely different properties than that of the reactants
b. Breaking of old chemical bonds and formation of new chemical bonds
c. Rearrangement of the atoms of reactants to form new products
d. Changing of the atoms of on element into those of another element to form new products
30. One of the following processes does not involve a chemical reaction. That is:
a. Melting of candle wax when heated
b. Burning of candle wax when heated
c. Digestion of food in our stomach
d. Ripening of banana
31. It is necessary to balance a chemical equation in order to satisfy the law of:
a. Conservation of motion
b. Conservation of momentum
c. Conservation of energy
32. All the methods mentioned below can be used to prevent the food from getting rancid
except:
i. Storing the food in the air-tight containers
ii. Storing the food in refrigerator
iii. Keeping the food in clean and covered containers
iv. Always touching the food with clean hands
a. (i) and (ii)
b. (i) and (iii)
c. (i), (iii) and (iv)
d. (iii) and (iv)
33. Rusting of iron involves a chemical reaction which is a combination of:

a. Reduction as well as combination reactions
b. Oxidation as well as combination reactions
c. Reduction as well as displacement reactions
d. Oxidation as well as displacement reactions
34. You are given the following chemical reaction:
This reaction represents:

a. Combination reaction as well as double displacement reaction
b. Redox reaction as well as displacement reaction
c. Double displacement reaction as well as redox reaction
d. Decomposition reaction as well as displacement reaction
35. When ferrous sulphate is heated strongly it undergoes decomposition to form ferric oxide as
a main product accompanied by a change in colour from:
a. Blue to green.
b. Green to blue.
c. Green to brown.
d. Green to yellow.
36. Which of the following gases is used in the storage of fat and oil containing foods for a
long time?
a. Carbondioxide gas
b. Nitrogen gas
c. Oxygen gas
d. Neon gas
37. Following is given a diagram showing an experimental set-up:
The given set-up is used to carry out:

a. Distillation of water
b. Purification of water
c. Electrolysis of water
d. Hydrolysis
38. The displacement reaction between iron (III) oxide and a metal X is used for
welding the rail tracks. Here X is:
a. Copper granules
b. Magnesium ribbon
c. Sodium pellets
d. Aluminium dust
39. The neutralization reaction between an acid and a base is a type of:
a. Double displacement reaction
b. Displacement reaction
c. Addition reaction
d. Decomposition reaction
40. The chemical reaction between Hydrogen sulphide and iodine to give Hydrogen
iodide and sulphur is given below:
The reducing and oxidizing agents involved in this redox reaction are:
a. Iodine and sulphur respectively
b. Iodine and hydrogen sulphide respectively
c. Sulphur and iodine respectively
d. Hydrogen sulphide and Sulphur
41. Which of the following are exothermic processes?

(i) Reaction of water with quick lime
(ii) Dilution of an acid
(iii) Evaporation of water
(iv) Sublimation of camphor (crystals)
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
42. A teacher gave two test tubes to the students, one containing water and the other
containing sodium hydroxide. She asked them to identify the test tube containing sodium
hydroxide solution. Which one of the following can be used for the identification?
(a) Blue litmus
(b) Red litmus
(c) Sodium carbonate solution
(d) Dilute hydrochloric acid
43. Which of the following is not physical change?

(a) Boiling of water to give water vapour
(b) Melting of ice to give water
(c) Dissolution of salt in water
(d) Combustion of Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG)
44. The following reaction is an example of a

4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)
(i) displacement reaction
(ii) combination reaction
(iii) redox reaction
(iv) neutralisation reaction
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
45. Which of the following is true for an unbalanced chemical equation?

(a) Number of atoms is equal on both sides of the equation
(b) Number of atoms is less on the left side of the equation
(c) Number of atoms is more on the right side of the equation
(d) Both (b) and (c).
46. Which option denotes a double displacement reaction?

(a) A + B + C
(b) A + B → C
(c) AC + BD → AD + BC
(d) AC + B → AB + C
47. Which among the following is (are) double displacement reaction(s)?

(t) Pb + CuCl → PbCl2 + Cu
(ii) Na2SO4 + BaCl2 → BaSO4 + 2NaCl
(iii) C + O2 → CO2
(iv) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) only
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
48. The following reaction is used for the preparation of oxygen gas in the laboratory:
Which of the following statement about the reaction is correct?

(a) It is a decomposition reaction and endothermic in nature.
(b) It is a combination reaction.
(c) It is a decomposition reaction and accompanied by release of heat.
(d) It is a photochemical decomposition reaction and exothermic in nature.
49. Which of the following is Not True with respect to the neutralisation reaction?
(a) Salt is formed.
(b) Reaction occurs between an acid and a base.
(c) Reactive element displaces less reactive element.
(d) Reactants are in gaseous state.
50. Electrolysis of water is a decomposition reaction. The mole ratio of hydrogen and oxygen
gases liberated during electrolysis of water is
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 4 : 1
(d) 1 : 2
51. Combustion reactions are always

(a) Exothermic
(b) Endothermic
(c) Sometimes exothermic
(d) Both (a) and (b).
52. Barium chloride on reacting with ammonium sulphate forms barium sulphate and
ammonium chloride. Which of the following correctly represents the type of the reaction
involved?
(i) Displacement reaction
(ii) Precipitation reaction
(iii) Combination reaction
(iv) Double displacement reaction
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (iv) only
(d) (ii) and (iv)
53. Which one of the following processes involve chemical reactions?

(a) Storing of oxygen gas under pressure in a gas cylinder
(b) Liquefaction of air
(c) Keeping petrol in a China dish in the open
(d) Heating copper wire in presence of air at high temperature
54. In the double displacement reaction between aqueous potassium iodide and aqueous lead
nitrate, a yellow precipitate of lead iodide is formed. While performing the activity if lead nitrate
is not available, which of the following can be used in place of lead nitrate?
(a) Lead sulphate (insoluble)
(b) Lead acetate
(c) Ammonium nitrate
(d) Potassium sulphate
55. In which of the following chemical equations, the abbreviations represent the correct
states of the reactants and products involved at reaction temperature?
(a) 2H2(l) + O2(l) → 2H2O(g)
(b) 2H2(g) + O2(l) → 2H2O(l)
(c) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l)
(d) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(g)
56. Which of the following reactions involves the combination of two elements :-
(a)CaO + CO2 -> CaCO3
(b)4Na + O2 -> 2Na2O
(c)SO2 +(1/2)O2 -> SO3
(d)NH3 + HCI -> NH4CI
57. When hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through a blue solution of copper sulphate, a black
precipitate of copper sulphate is obtained and the sulphuric acid so formed remains in the
solution. The reaction is an example of :-
(a)A combination reaction
(b)A displacement reaction
(c)A decomposition reaction
(d)A double decomposition reaction
58. What happens when copper rod is dipped in iron sulphate solution :-
(a)Copper displaces iron
(b)Blue color of copper sulphate solution is obtained
(c)No reaction takes place
(d)Reaction is exothermic
59. A student added dilute HCI to a test tube containing zinc granules and made following
observations :-
(a)The zinc surface became dull and black
(b)A gas evolved which burnt with a pop sound
(c)The solution remained colorless
(d)The solution becomes green in color.
60. A dilute solution of sodium carbonate was added to two test tubes one containing dilute HCI
(A) and the other containing dilute NaOH (B). the correct observation was :-
(a)A brown colored gas liberated in test tube A (b)A
brown colored gas liberated in test tube B (c)A
colorless gas liberated in test tube A
(d)A colorless gas liberated in test tube B
61. A balanced chemical equation is in accordance with

(a)Avogadro’s law
(b)Law of multiple proportion (c)Law of
conservation of mass (d)Law of gaseous
volumes
62. The equation

Cu + xHNO3 -> Cu(NO3)2 + yNO2 + 2H2O
The values of x and y are
(a)3 and 5
(b) 8 and 6
(c) 4 and 2
(d) 7 and 1
63. Zn + H2SO4(dil) ->ZnSO4 + H2 Above reaction is

(a)Decomposition reaction
(b)Single displacement reaction
(c)Combination reaction (d)Synthesis reaction
64. The reaction in which two compounds exchange their ions to form two new compounds is
(a)A displacement reaction
(b)A decomposition reaction (c)An
isomerization reaction
(d)A double displacement reaction
65. When the gases sulphur dioxide and hydrogen sulphide mix in the presence of water,
the reaction is SO2 + 2H2S -> 2H2O + 3S. here hydrogen sulphide is acting as
(a)An oxidizing agent
(b)A reducing agent
(c)A dehydrating agent
(d)A catalyst
66. CuO + H2 ->H2O + Cu, reaction is an example of
(a)Redox reaction
(b)Synthesis reaction
(c)Neutralization
(d)Analysis reaction
67. A substance which oxidized itself and reduces other is known as

(a)Oxidizing agent
(b)Reducing agent
(c)Both of these
(d)None of these
68. A redox reaction is one in which

(a)Both the substance are reduced
(b)Both the substance are oxidized
(c)An acid is neutralized by the base
(d)One substance is oxidized while the other is reduced
69. In the following equation:

Na2CO3 + xHCI -> 2NaCI +CO2 + H2O, the value of x is
(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)4
70. In the equation, NaOH + HNO3 -> NaNO3 + H2O nitric acid is acting as
(a)An oxidizing agent
(b) An acid
(c) A nitrating agent
(d) (d)A dehydrating agent
71. Fe2O3+ 2Al2O3 + 2Fe

The above reaction is an example of a
(a)Combination reaction
(b)Double displacement reaction
(c)Decomposition reaction
(d)Displacement reaction
72. White silver chloride in sunlight turns to

(a)Grey
(b)Yellow
(c)Remain white
(d)Red
73. Black and white photography uses (a)Decomposition
of silver chloride
(b)Decomposition of silver bromide
(c)Both
(d)None of these
74. When copper powder is heated it gets coated with (a)Black copper
oxide
(b)Yellow copper oxide (c)Red
copper oxide (d)None of these
75. Combination of phosphorus and oxygen is an example of (a)Oxidation

(b)Reduction (c)Rancidity
(d)None of these
76. Rusting of an iron is an example of

a)Reduction
b)Ionization c)Oxidation
d)Dissociation
77. Which of the following does not corrode when exposed to the atmosphere-
(a)Iron
(b)Copper (c)Gold
(d)Silver
78. Take about 1.0g CaCO3 in a test tube. Heat it over a flame, when a colorless gas comes
out. The reaction is called a
(a)Decomposition reaction
(b)Displacement reaction
(c)Double decomposition reaction
(d)Double displacement reaction
79. Hydrogen sulphide (H2S) is a strong reducing agent. Which of the following reactions
shows its reducing action
(a)Cd(NO3)2 + H2S -> CdS + 2HNO3
(b)CuSO4 + H2S -> CuS + H2SO4
(c)2FeCl3 + H2S -> 2FeCl2 + 2HCl + S
(d)Pb(NO3)2 +H2S -> PbS + 2CH3COOH
80. When P reacts with caustic soda, the products are PH3 and NaH2PO2. This reaction is an
example of
(a)Oxidation
(b)Reduction
(c)Oxidation and reduction (redox)
(d)Neutralization
81. 2CuI-> Cu + CuI2, the reaction is
(a)Redox
(b)Neutralization
85. Which one of the given processes involves chemical reactions?

a) storing of oxygen gas under pressure in a gas cylinder
b) keeping petrol in a china dish in the open
c) liquefaction of air
d) heating copper wire in the presence of air at high temperature
86. An element X on exposure to moist air turns reddish-brown and a new compound Y is
formed. The substances X and Y are
a) X = Fe, Y = Fe₂O₃
b) X = Ag, Y = Ag₂S
c) X = Cu, Y = CuO
d) X = Al, Y = Al₂O₃
87. Rancidity can be prevented by

a) adding antioxidants
b) storing food away from light
c) keeping food in refrigerator
d) all of these
88. In which of the given, heat energy will be evolved?

a) electrolysis of water
b) dissolution of NH₄Cl in water
c) burning of L.P.G.
d) decomposition of AgBr in the presence of sunlight
89. Which of the given gases can be used for storage of fresh sample of an oil for a long
time?
a) Carbon Dioxide Or Oxygen
b) Nitrogen Or Oxygen
c) Carbon Dioxide Or Helium
d) Helium Or Nitrogen
90. Fatty foods become rancid due to the process of

a) oxidation
b) corrosion
c) reduction
d) hydrogenation
91. Chemically, rust is

a) hydrated ferrous
b) only ferric oxide
c) hydrated ferric oxide
d) none of these
92. Both CO₂ and H₂ gases are

a) heavier than air
b) colourless
c) acidic in nature
d) soluble in water
93. Which of the following are exothermic processes?
(a) Reaction of water with quick lime
(b) Dilution of an acid
(c) Evaporation of water
(d) Sublimation of camphor (crystals) a) (a)
& (b)
b) (b) & (c)
c) (a) & (d)
d) (c) & (d)
94. In the decomposition of lead (II) nitrate to give lead (II) oxide, nitrogen dioxide and
oxygen gas, the coefficient of nitrogen dioxide (in the balanced equation) is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
95. We store silver chloride in a dark coloured bottle because it is

a) a white solid
b) undergoes redox reaction
c) to avoid action by sunlight
d) none of the above
96. Silver article turns black when kept in the open for a few days due to formation of
a) H₂S
b) AgS
c) AgSO₄
d) Ag₂S
97. When crystals of lead nitrate are heated strongly in a dry test tube
a) crystals immediately melt
b) a brown residue is left
c) white fumes appear in the tube
d) a yellow residue is left
98. Which of the given products is formed when calcium oxide reacts with water?
a) slaked lime
b) carbon dioxide
c) calcium oxide
d) oxygen gas
99. What is the other name for quick lime?

a) calcium hydroxide
b) calcium oxide
c) carbon dioxide
d) sodium oxide
100. What is the chemical name for slaked lime?

a) calcium carbonate
b) calcium oxide
c) calcium hydroxide
d) carbon monoxide
FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. The addition of oxygen to a substance is called ................. whereas removal of oxygen is
called …………. .
2. The addition of hydrogen to a substance is called................. whereas removal of hydrogen

is called …………. .
3. Precipitation reactions produce insoluble …………. .
4. Reactions in which energy is given out are known as …………. .
5. Reaction in which an element displaces another element from its compound is called
…………. .
6. Two antioxidants which are usually added to fat and oil containing foods to prevent
rancidity, are …………., …………. .
7 ...................is the process in which metals are eaten up gradually by the action of air,
moisture or a chemical on their surface.
8. 2 FeSO4 → Fe2O3 + SO2 + ………….
9. Na2SO4 + BaCl2 → .................... + 2NaCl
10. Complete the missing components/variables given as x and y in the following reactions:
(a) Pb (NO3)2 (aq) + 2KI (aq) → Pbl2 (x) + 2KNO3 (y)
(b) Cu (s) + 2AgNO3 (aq) → Cu (NO3)2 (aq) + x (s)
11. is burnt in air to form magnesium oxide.
12. Respiration is an ....................... reaction.
13. Zinc and lead are more reactive elements than …………..
14. Any reaction that produces a ...................... is called a precipitation reaction.
15. Oxidation is the gain of ………….. or loss of …………..
16. are added to foods containing fats and oil.
17. In rusting of iron, reddish brown coating formed on iron is …………..
18. can be retarded by storing foods away from light.
19. The oxidation and reduction reaction are also called ................... reactions.
20. Magnesium is able to displace copper from copper sulphate solution because magnesium is
reactive than copper.
BIOLOGY
CHAPTER 6. LIFE PROCESSES
1. Which of the following is not a digestive enzyme contained in the pancreatic

juice?
i. Lipase ii. Hydrochloric acid iii. Mucus iv. Trypsin
a) (i) and (ii) b) (i) and (iv) c) (ii) and (iii) d) (i) and (iii)
2. The enzymes pepsin and trypsin are secreted respectively by
a) Stomach and pancreas b) Salivary gland and stomach
c) Liver and pancreas d) Liver and salivary gland
3. Among the following choose the correct option which includes the organisms that
have a holozoic mode of nutrition:
a) Plasmodium and Amoeba b) Parakeet and Amoeba
c) Paramecium and Plasmodium d) Paramecium and Parasite
4. Raw materials required in the autotrophic mode of nutrition involves:
i. Carbon dioxide and water ii. Chlorophylliii. Nitrogen iv. Sunlight
a) (i), (ii) and (iii) b) (i) and (ii) c) (i), (ii) and (iv) d) All
5. The enzymes contained in pancreatic juices help in the digestion of:
a) Fats and carbohydrates b) Proteins and fats
c) Proteins and carbohydrates d) Proteins, fats and carbohydrates
6. Which of the following help in protecting the inner lining of the stomach
from the harmful effect of hydrochloric acid?
a) Mucus b) Pepsin c) Trypsin d) Bile
7. Sometimes we get painful cramps in our leg muscles after running for a long time
due to the accumulation of:
a) Hydrochloric acid b) Fat c) Carbon dioxide d) Lactic acid
8. The vein which brings clean blood from the lungs into the heart is known as:
a) Pulmonary vein b) Hepatic vein
c) Superior vena cava d) Pulmonary artery
9. Movement of the synthesized products from the leaves to the roots and other parts
of a plant’s body takes place through the phloem. This process is known as:
a) Translocation b) Transpiration c) Transportation d) Excretion
10. The process of diffusion of solvent particles from the region of less solute
concentration to a region of high solute concentration through semi-permeable membrane is
known as
a) Diffusion b) Osmosis c) Translocation d) Transpiration
11. Which among the following procedures is used for cleaning the blood of a
person by separating the waste substance from it?
a) Kidney transplant b) Blood transfusion c) Dialysis d) Hydrolysis
12. The excretory unit of the human excretory system is known as:
a) Nephridia b) Neuron c) Nephron d) kidneys
13. Plants use the energy stored in ATP to accomplish the process of transportation of:
a) Water and minerals b) Oxygen c) Water, minerals and food d) Food
14. Which among the following is necessary to carry out the blood coagulation in a
cut or wound?
a) White Blood Cells b) Blood plasma c) Platelets d) Red blood cells
15. Arteries and veins are connected by a network of extremely narrow tubes called:
a) Sieve tubes b) Capillaries c) Vena cava d) Valves
16. In which group of the organisms the food material is broken down outside the body?
A) Mushroom, green plants, amoeba
B) Yeast, mushroom, bread mould
C) Paramecium, amoeba, cuscuta
D) Cuscuta, lice, tapeworm
17. Select the correct

statement –
A) Hetrotrophs make
their food
B) Heterotrophs utilize solar energy to make food
C) Heterotrophs do not make their own food
D) Heterotrophs are capable of converting carbon dioxide and water into
carbohydrates
18. Which of the following statements about autotrophs is incorrect ?

A) They synthesize carbohydrates by using carbon dioxide , water in presence of
sunlight and chlorophyll
B) They store carbohydrates in form of starch
C) They convert carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates in the absence of
sunlight
D) They form the first trophic level in food chain
19. Which of these reactions occur in photosynthesis?

A) Carbon dioxide is reduced and water is oxidised
B) water is reduced and carbon dioxide is oxidised
C) carbon dioxide and water are oxidised
D) carbon dioxide and water are reduced
20. A few drops of iodine solution were added to rice water. The solution turned blue
black in colour. This indicates rice water has –
A) complex proteins
B) simple proteins
C) starch
D) Fats
21. Which is the correct sequence -

A) mouth → stomach → small intestine → oesophagus → large intestine
B) mouth → oesophagus → stomach → large intestine → small intestine
C) mouth → stomach → oesophagus → small intestine → large intestine
D) mouth → oesophagus → stomach → small intestine → large intestine
22. If salivary amylase is lacking in saliva, which of the event in mouth will be affected-
A) Proteins breaking down into amino acids
B) starch breaking down into sugars
C) Fats breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol
D) Absorption of vitamins
23. The inner lining of the stomach is protected by one of the following from
hydrochloric acid. Choose the correct one -
A) Mucus
B) Salivary amylase
C) Pepsin
D) Bile
24. Which part of alimentary canal receives bile from liver -

A) stomach
B) small intestine
C) large intestine
D) oesophagus
25. In which part of alimentary canal food is finally digested ?

A) large intestine
b)Stomach
C) Mouth cavity
D) small intestine
26. Choose the function of pancreatic juice from following :

A) Trypsin digests proteins and lipase digests carbohydrates
B) Trypsin digests emulsified fats and lipase digests proteins
C) Trypsin and lipase digest fats
D) Trypsin digests proteins and lipase digests emulsified fats
27. The correct sequence of anaerobic respiration -

A)Glucose → pyruvate → lactic acid
B) glucose → pyruvate → carbondioxide + ethanol
C) glucose → pyruvate → ADP→ lactic acid
D)glucose -→ pyruvate → carbondioxide + ethanol + energy
28. The pancreatic juice doesn't contain following enzymes-

A)Trypsin
B) Amylase
C) Lipase
D)Ptyalin
29. The pancreas pour their secretion into .

A)Small intestine
B) large intestine
C) stomach
D)Duodenum
30. The kidneys in human beings are part of .

A) Nutrition
B) Respiration
C) Excretion
D) Circulation
31. The opening and closing of stomatal pore depends upon .

A) Oxygen
B) water in guard cells
C) concentration of carbon dioxide in stomata
D) temperature
32. In the human digestion system the enzymes pepsin and trypsin are secreted by ?
A) Pancreas and liver
B) pancreas and gall bladder
C) stomach and pancreas
D) stomach and salivary glands
33. Which of the statements is correct regarding bile?

A) secreted by duct and stored in liver
B) secreted by liver and stored in bile duct
C) secreted by liver and stored in gall bladder
D) secreted by gall bladder and stored in liver
34. Which of the following components of food is digested by s. amylase?

A) proteins
B) fats
C) Minerals
D) carbohydrates
35. Where are proteins first digested?

A) small intestine
B) stomach
C) large intestine
D) mouth
36. Which is the first enzyme that mixes with food?
A) s.amylase
B) trypsin
C) erepsin
D) gastric juice
37. The cellular energy reserves in autotrophs are .

A) glycogen
B) starch
C) protein
D) fatty acids
38. The autotrophs require .

A) CO2 and water
B) chlorophyll
C) sunlight
D) All
39. The breakdown of pyruvate into carbon dioxide, energy and water takes place in .
A) mitochondria
B) cytoplasm
C) Endoplasmic reticulum
D) ribosomes
40. When air is blown through lime water it turns milky because of .
A) water
B) carbon dioxide
C) limestone
D) calcium oxide
41. Write the correct sequence of air passage involved in inhalation?

A) larynx→ Nostrils → Pharynx → lungs
B) nostrils→ Pharynx→ larynx→ Trachea → alveoli
C) nasal passage → larynx → Trachea → Pharynx→ Alveoli
D) None
42. During respiration exchange of gases takes place in .

A) Trachea and larynx
B) alveoli of lungs
C) Alveoli and throat
D) Throat and larynx
43. What prevents back flow of blood during contraction?

A) Valves in heart
B) Thick muscular walls of ventricles
C) Thin walls of atria
D) All
44. The correct path of urine is .

A) Kidney→ ureter → urthra→ urinary bladder
B) Kidney → urinary bladder → urethra → ureter
C) kidney→ ureter → urinary bladder→ urethra
D) urinary bladder → kidney → ureter →urethra
45. During deficiency of oxygen in tissues of humans, pyruvic acid is converted into lactic acid
in .
A) Cytoplasm
B) chloroplast
C) mitochondria
D) golgi body
46. Xylem helps in .
A) transportation of water
B) translocation of food
C) both a and b
D) transportation of water and minerals
47. What is the approximate length of an alimentary canal?
A) 3m
B) 4m
C) 5m
D) 4.5-5 m
48. Which organelle is called power house of cell?

A) Mitochondria
B) golgi body
C) ribosomes
D) none
49. Which respiration is much efficient?

A) aerobic
B) anaerobic
C) both are equal
D) none
50. Write full form of ATP.

A) adenosine diphosphate
B) adenosine phosphate
C) adenosine triphosphate
D) none
51. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true about respiration?

A) During inhalation, ribs move inward and diaphragm is raised
B) In the alveoli, exchange of gases takes place i.e., oxygen from alveolar air diffuses
C) into blood and carbon dioxide from blood into alveolar air sacs
D) Haemoglobin has greater affinity for carbon dioxide than oxygen Alveoli does not help in
increasing surface area for exchange of gases
52. Rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the alimentary canal is called

(A) Peristalsis (B) Ingestion (C) Deglutition (D) None of these
53. Which of the following statement (s) is (are) true about heart?
A) Left atrium receives oxygenated blood from different parts of body while right atrium
receives deoxygenated blood from lungs
b) Left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to different body parts while right ventricle pumps
deoxygenated blood to lungs
c) Left atrium transfers oxygenated blood to the right ventricle which sends it to different
body parts
d)Right atrium receives oxygenated blood from different parts of the body while left ventricle
pumps oxygenated blood to different parts of the body.
54. Single circulation i.e., blood flows through the heart only once during one cycle of
passage through the body, is exhibited by .
A) Labeo, Chameleon, Salamander
B) Hippocampus, Exocoetus, Anabas
C) Hyla, Rana, Draco
D) Whale, Dolphin, Turtle
55. Choose the correct statement that describes arteries:

A) They have thick elastic walls, blood flows under high pressure; collect blood from
different organs and bring it back to the heart
B) They have thin walls with valves inside, blood flows under low pressure and carry blood
away from the heart to various organs of the body
C) They have thick elastic walls, blood flows under low pressure; carry blood from the heart
to various organs of the body
D) They have thick elastic walls without valves inside. The Blood flows under high pressure
and carry blood away from the heart to different parts of the body
56. The filtration units of the kidney are called .

A) urethra
B) ureter
C) Neuron
D) nephron
57. Oxygen released during photosynthesis comes from .

A) water
B) Chlorophyll
C) carbon dioxide
D) glucose
58. The blood leaving the tissues becomes rich in .

A) Haemoglobin
B) carbon dioxide
C) water
D) oxygen
59. Which of the following is incorrect statement:

A) organism grow with time
B) Organisms must repair and maintain their structure
C) Movement of molecules does not take place among cells
D) Energy is essential for life processes
60. The normal systolic pressure is about mm of Hg and diastolic pressure is mm of Hg.
(A)100,60 (B)120,80 (C)140,100 (D)160,120
61. Choose the event that does not occur in photosynthesis?
A) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
B) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates
C) Oxidation of carbon to carbon dioxide
D) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy
62. Choose the form in which most of the plants absorb nitrogen from the atmosphere ?
A) proteins
B) nitrates and nitrites
C) atmospheric nitrogen
D) amino acids
63. Which process converts light energy to chemical energy ?

A) Respiration
B) photosynthesis
C) transpiration
D) transportation of water and minerals
64. Which of these is the simplest form of food ?

A) rice
B) wheat
C) Butter
D) Glucose
65. Which out of them is raw material for photosynthesis ?

A) carbon dioxide
B) water
C) oxygen
D) all
66. are utilised for providing energy to the plant

(A)carbohydrates (B)vitamins (C)proteins (D)fats
67. Chlorophyll is contained in

(A)leaf (B)stem (C)roots (D)both (A) and (B)
68. Tiny pores present on the surface of the leaves are known as
(A)stomata (B)chloroplast (C)organelles (D)none of the above
69. Following used in photosynthesis is taken up from the soil by the roots in terrestrial
plants (A)water (B)nitrogen (C)magnesium (D)all of the above
70. takes in food using temporary finger-like extensions of the cell surface.
(A)Amoeba (B)green plants (C)tape worms (D)none of the above
71. The inner lining of the small intestine has numerous finger-like projections called
(A)Vitli (B)villi (C)vipli (D)none of the above
72. Glucose is a carbon molecule.

(A)Four (B)five (C)six (D)seven
73. Pyruvate is a carbon molecule

(A)three (B)four (C)five (D)six
74. The process of breaking molecules in the absence of oxygen is called

(A)Respiration (B)aerobic respiration (C)anaerobic respiration (D)none of the above
75. Lactic acid is a carbon molecule
(A)Three (B)four (C)five (D)six
76. Following is true about lungs

(A) Within the lungs, the passage divides into smaller and smaller tubes
(B) The lungs always contain a residual volume of air so that there is sufficient time for oxygen
to be absorbed
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D)None of the above
77. Plasma transports in dissolved form

(A)Food (B)carbon dioxide (C)nitrogenous wastes (D)all of the above 3
78. Amphibians or many reptiles have - chambered hearts

(A)One (B)two (C)three (D)four
79. Blood pressure is measured with an instrument called

(A)Manometer (B)sphygmomanometer (C)hydrometer (D)anemometer
80. Following is true for tissue fluid or lymph

(A)It is similar to the plasma of blood (B)It is colorless (C)It contains less protein (D)All of the
above
81. Following is true for plants

(A) Plants have low energy needs
(B) The xylem moves water and minerals obtained from the soil
(C) Phloem transports products of photosynthesis from the leaves to other parts of the plant
(D)All of the above
82. The loss of water in the form of vapour from the aerial parts of the plant is known
(A)Transpiration (B)respiration (C)transportation (D)none of the above
83. Which of the following is an example of anabolic process

(A)Digestion (B) Respiration (C) photosynthesis (D) Response to stimuli
84. Gastric glands release _ , a protein digesting enzyme called pepsin, and mucus.
(A)Sulphuric acid (B)hydrochloric acid (C)nitric acid (D)none of the above
85. Which element is used in the synthesis of proteins?

A)Hydrogen B) Oxygen C) Nitrogen D) Carbon dioxide
86. One cell-thick vessels are called

A) Arteries B) Veins C) Capillaries D) Pulmonary artery
87. When water enters the guard cells, the stomata

A)opens B) closes C)opens or closes D) no effect
88. In photosynthesis, atmospheric carbon di oxide is to carbohydrates

A)oxidized B)Reduced c)neutralized d)burnt
89. Right part of human heart contains

A) oxygenated blood B) mixed blood c)deoxygenated blood d)no blood
90. Main site of photosynthesis

A)Leaf B) Stem C) ChloroplastD)Guard cells
91. ln order for the blood to flow from right ventricle to left ventricle in mammalian heart, it must
flow through
(A). Right ventricle pulmonary arteries, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium
(B). Right ventricle, pulmonary veins, lungs, pulmonary arteries, left atrium
(C). Right ventricle, right atrium, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium.
(D). Right ventricle, systemic aorta, pulmonary veins, left atrium
READ THE FOLLOWING ASSERTION AND REASON AND CHOOSE THE CORRECT
ANSWER
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.

D. A is false but R is true.
E. Both A and R are false
1. Assertion: Molecular movements are needed for life

Reason:Body structures made up o these molecules need continuous repair and maintenance
2. Assertion: Diffusion does not meet high-energy requirement of multicellular organisms

Reason: Diffusion is a fast process but only occurs at the surface of the body
3. Assertion : The opening and closing of the pore is a function of the guard cell
Reason : Stomatal pores are the site of exchange of gases by diffusion
4. Assertion: Saliva contains pepsin enzyme.

Reason: Pepsin digests lipids
5. Assertion: The inner lining of the small intestine contains large number of small finger like
projections called villi
Reason:The villi increases the surface area for absorption
6. Assertion : Pyruvate is a six-carbon molecule

Reason: It is prepared in the cytoplasm as the first step to cellular respiration
7. Assertion: Rings of cartilage are present in the throat

Reason: These ensures that the air passage does not collapse
8. Assertion: in human beings, the respiratory pigment is Haemoglobin

Reason: It is a type of protein which has high affinity for carbon dioxide
9. Assertion: arteries are thick walled and elastic in nature

Reason: Arteries have to transport blood away from heart
10. Assertion : The purpose of making urine is to filter out undigested food from intestine
Reason: Kidneys filter the waste and produce urine
HISTORY
TOPIC: CH 1: Rise of Nationalism in Europe
1. Choose the correct nationality of the artist Frederic Sorrieu who visualised in his painting a
society made up of Democratic and Social Republic.
(a) German (b) Swiss (c) French (d) American
2. ‘Nationalism’, which emerged as a force in the late 19th century, means

(a) strong devotion for one’s own country and its history and culture.
(b) strong devotion for one’s own country without appreciation for other nations.
(c) strong love for one’s own country and hatred for others.
(d) equally strong devotion for all the countries of the world.
3. Match the term with the statements given below:

A ‘Utopian Society’ is -------------------------
(i) a society under a benevolent monarchy (ii) a society that is unlikely to ever
exist
(iii) a society under the control of a chosen few wise men
(iv) a society under Parliamentary Democracy
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (ii) only (d) (iii) only
4. Pick out the correct definition to define the term ‘Plebiscite’.

(a) Plebiscite is a direct vote by which only the female members of a region are asked to accept
or
reject a proposal.
(b) Plebiscite is a direct vote by the female members of a matriarchal system to accept or reject a
proposal.
(c) Plebiscite is a direct vote by only a chosen few from the total population of a parti-cular
region
to accept or reject a proposal.
(d) Plebiscite is a direct vote by which all the citizens of a region are asked to accept or reject a
proposal.
5. Ernst Renan believed that the existence of nations is a necessity because ----------------
(a) it ensures protection to all inhabitants. (b) it ensures liberty to all inhabitant citizens.
(c) it ensures Parliamentary form of govern-ment to its inhabitants.
(d) it ensures jobs and good health to all its inhabitants.
6. Which of the following countries did not attend the Congress of Vienna?
(a) Britain (b) Russia (c) Prussia (d) Switzerland
7. The first great revolution which gave the clear idea of nationalism with its core words: ‘Liberty,
Equality and Fraternity’ was: ----------------------
(a) The Russian Revolution (b) The French Revolution
(c) The American Revolution (d) India’s First War of Independence
8. Which of the following statements about the ‘French Revolution’ are correct?
(i) After the end of the French Revolution it was proclaimed that it was the people who would
henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny.
(ii) France will have a constitutional monarchy and the new republic will be headed by a member
of
the royal family.
(iii) A centralised administrative system will be put in place to formulate uniform laws for all
citizens.
(iv) Imposition of internal custom duties and dues will continue to exist in France.
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
9. The French revolutionaries declared that the mission and destiny of the French nation was
(a) to conquer the people of Europe.
(b) to liberate the people of Europe from despotism.
(c) to strengthen absolute monarchies in all the countries of Europe.
(d) to propagate the ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity in every part of the world.
10. The Civil Code of 1804 in France is usually known as:

(a) The French Revolutionary Code (b) Napoleonic Code
(c) European Imperial Code (d) The French Civil Code
11. The Napoleonic Code was exported to which of the following regions?
(a) England (b) Spain (c) Regions under French control (d) Poland
12. The liberal nationalism stands for:

(a) freedom for the individual and equality before law.
(b) preservation of autocracy and clerical privileges.
(c) freedom for only male members of society and equality before law.
(d) freedom only for senior citizens.
13. Who among the following formed the secret society called ‘Young Italy’? [Delhi 2012]
(a) Otto von Bismarck (b) Giuseppe Mazzini (c) Mettemich (d) Johann Gottfried Herder
14. The term ‘Universal Suffrage’ means:

(a) the right to vote and get elected, granted only to men.
(b) the right to vote for all adults.
(c) the right to vote and get elected, granted exclusively to property owning men.
(d) the right to vote and get elected, granted only to educated men and women.
15. Which of the following is not a feature or belief of ‘Conservatism’?

(a) Conservatives believe in established, traditional institutions of state and policy.
(b) Conservatives stressed the importance of tradition and preferred gradual develop¬ment to
quick
change.
(c) Conservatives proposed to return to the society of pre-revolutionary days and were against the
ideas of modernisation to strengthen monarchy.
(d) Conservatives believed in the monarchy, church, and other social hierarchies.
16. The Treaty of recognized Greece as an independent nation:

(a) Vienna 1815 (b) Constantinople 1832 (c) Warsaw 1814 (d) Leipzig 1813
17. Who said ‘When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold’?
(a) Garibaldi (b) Bismarck (c) Mazzini (d) Duke Metternich
18. What happened to Poland at the end of 18th century. Which of the following answers is
correct?
(a) Poland achieved independence at the end of the 18th century.
(b) Poland came totally under the control of Russia and became part of Russia.
(c) Poland became the part of East Germany.
(d) Poland was partitioned at the end of the 18th century by three Great Powers: Russia,
Prussia and Austria.
19. Who played the leading role in the unification of Germany?

(a) German Emperor (formerly King of Prussia) — Kaiser William I.
(b) Otto Von Bismarck (Prussian Chief Minister).
(c) Johann Gottfried Herder — German philosopher.
(d) Austrian Chancellor — Duke Metternich.
20. Three wars over seven years with Austria, Denmark, Germany and France, ended in
(a) Danish victory (b) Prussian victory (c) French victory (d) German victory
21. Who was proclaimed the emperor of Germany in 1871?

(a) Otto Von Bismarck (b) Victor Emmanuel II
(c) Count Cavour (d) Kaiser William I of Prussia
22. Who became the King of United Italy in 1861?

(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi (b) Victor Emmanuel II (c) Count Cavour (d) Giuseppe Mazzini
23. What helped in the formation of a nation-state in Britain?

(a) The formation of a nation-state in Britain was the result of a sudden upheaval.
(b) In 1688, the monarchy in Britain had seized the power from English Parliament.
(c) The parliament through a bloodless revolution seized power from the monarchy which
gradually led to the emergence of a nation-state.

(d) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Scotland and Wales.
24. Who was responsible for the unification of Germany?

(a) Count Cavour (b) Bismarck (c) Garibaldi (d) Giuseppe Mazzini
25. The allegory of the German nation who wears a crown of oak leaves was a:
(a) Marianne (b) Union Jack (c) Britannia (d) Germania
26. A large part of Balkan region was under the control of:
(a) Russian empire (b) Ottoman empire (c) German empire (d) Habsburg rulers
27. Nationalism brought about in Europe the emergence of :

(a) The Nation State (b) The Modern State
(c) Multinational Dynastic State (d) Alliances formed among many European states
28. The first clear expression of Nationalism in Europe came with :

(a) The American Revolution (b) The French Revolution
(c) The Russian Revolution (d) The Industrial Revolution
29. The ideas of a United Community enjoying equal rights under a Constitution were expressed
by
the French as :
(a) La Patrie (b) Le Citoyen (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
30. Frederic Serrieu, a French artist, in his series of four prints (1848) visualised his dream of a
world
as:
(a) A world made up of ‘democratic and social republics’
(b) A world made up of one nation, one world
(c) A world with one absolute ruler (d) A world following one religion, one language
31. What kind of political and constitutional change was brought about by the French Revolution?
(a) It ended the absolute monarchy
(b) It transferred power to a body of the French citizens
(c) It proclaimed that henceforth people would constitute the nation and shape its destiny
(d) All the above
32. The Civil Code of 1804, also known as the Napoleonic Code, established :
(a) Equality before the law (b) Secured the right to property
(c) Did away with all the privileges based on birth (d) All the above
33. Socially and politically dominant class in Europe during mid-eighteenth century was
__________
(a) The Nobility (b) The landed aristocracy (c) The Church (d) The absolute
monarchs
34. All the new regimes, set up in 1815, were autocratic because:
(a) They did not tolerate criticism and dissent
(b) They imposed censorship laws to control what was said in newspapers, plays, songs etc.
(c) They curbed activities which questioned their legitimacy (d) All the above
35. Name one kind of revolt that started in Europe in 1848.
(a) Linguistic Revolt in Germany
(b) Artisans, industrial workers and peasants revolted against economic hardships
(c) Revolt against monarchy in Switzerland (d) Revolt for freedom in Greece
36. In politics, liberalism emphasised ______________ .

(a) End of autocracy and clerical privileges, a constitution and a representative government
through
Parliament (b) The inviolability of private property
(c) The right to vote (d) Both (a) and (b)
37. Which new spirit guided European nations after Napoleon’s defeat?
(a) Fascism (b) Conservatism (c) Nazism (d) Communism
38. The denial of universal suffrage in Europe, led to __________

(a) Revolutions
(b) Women and non-propertied men organising opposition movements, demanding equal rights
throughout 19th and early 20th centuries
(c) Demand of equal political rights (d) Return of monarchy
39. The three leaders who helped unification of Italy were :

(a) Giuseppe Mazzini, Victor Emmanuel II, Cavour
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini, Cavour, Giuseppe Garibaldi
(c) Victor Emmanuel, Bismarck, Cavour (d) None of the above
40. In the 19th century, the French artists symbolised the French nation as :
(a) Marianne, a popular Christian name for women
(b) Marianne, a female figure, with a red cap, the tricolour and the cockade
(c) As a female named Marianne, with characteristics of liberty (a red cap, a broken chair) and
the
Republic (the red cap, tricolour and the cockade) (d) All the above
41. Repression of liberal revolutionaries after 1815, in Europe, led to
(a) Armies being trained by revolutionaries
(b) All revolutionaries trained to overthrow monarchy
(c) Secret societies being formed in many European states to train revolutionaries and spread
their Ideas
(d) All the above
42. The Nationalist Greeks got the support of the West European nations because :
(a) They were fighting against the Muslim Ottoman Empire
(b) They had sympathies for ancient Greek culture
(c) Greece was considered the cradle of European civilization (d) All the above
43. The purpose behind the painting “The Massacre at Chios” by Eugene Delacroix, 1824, was:
(a) To appeal to the emotions of the spectators and create sympathy for the Greeks
(b) To dramatise the incident in which 20,000 Greeks were killed
(c) To focus on the suffering of women and children (d) All the above
44. German philosopher Johann Gotfried Herder claimed that true German culture was discovered
through -------------------
(a) Folk songs, folk poetry, folk dances (b) Common people — das volk
(c) Vernacular language (d) All the above
45. Cavour’s contribution to Italian unification was :

(a) Diplomatic alliance with the enemies of Austria (b) War with Austrians and
Bourbons.
(c) Diplomatic alliance with France in 1859 and strengthening Sardinia and Piedmont
(d) Defeated the Bourbon kings
46. Which one of the following is true regarding how the new artists depicted liberty during the
French Revolution?
(a) As a female figure with a torch of enlightenment in one hand and the Charter of Rights of
Man
in the other hand.
(b) Blindfolded woman carrying a pair of weighing scales.
(c) The gold red and black tricolour. (d) Rays of the rising sun.
47. Conservatives did not believe in establishing and preserving :

(a) the monarchy (b) the democracy
(c) traditional institutions of state and society (d) social hierarchies
48. Which of the following powers was not interested in Balkan peninsula?
(a) England (b) Germany (c) Russia (d) Japan
49. Which one of the following is not true regarding the history of the nationalist movement in
Great
Britain?
(a) It was the result of a long-drawn-out process and not of a sudden revolution.
(b) The wealthy and powerful English nation steadily extended its influence over the Welsh, the
Scots and the Irish.
(c) Ireland and Scotland were equal partners in the union called the United Kingdoms.
(d) The British flag and national anthem were actively promoted in this Union.
50. Which one of the following is not regarding the reforms carried out by the Union called
Zollverein?
(a) Creation of a network of railways to promote nationalism
(b) Opposition to unhindered movement of goods, people and capital in member states
(c) Reduction of tariff barriers in states
(d) Reduction of number of currencies in Germany
51. Which of the following was the result of the Act of Union 1707?
(a) United Kingdom of Irish (b) United Kingdom of Scotland
(c) United Kingdom of America (d) United Kingdom of Great Britain
52. What emerged as a force which brought about sweeping changes in the political and material
world of Europe in the nineteenth century?
(a) The emergence of the nation state (b) The multinational dynastic empire
(c) Territorial state (d) Absolute monarchy
53. Which one of the following areas was the most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe
after 1871?
(a) The Balkans (b) The Romanians (c) Great Britain (d) Germania
54. Which one of the following is true regarding the ideas promoted by Mazzini?
(a) Opposition to monarchy and support to democratic republic
(b) To establish liberty and freedom under a monarchy
(c) Disintegration of the German confederation under 39 States
(d) Censorship of newspapers, books, plays and songs
55. Which one of the following was not the feature of Napoleonic Code?
(a) Equality before the law (b) Universal Adult Franchise
(c) Right to Property (d) No privileges based on birth
56. Who amongst the following Italian leaders was neither a revolutionary nor a democrat?
(a) Mazzini (b) Cavour (b) Garibaldi (d) Victor Emmanuel II
57. Which one of the following was not implemented under the Treaty of Vienna of 1815?
(a) Restoration of Bourbon dynasty
(b) Setting up series of states on the boundaries of France
(c) Restoration of monarchies (d) Diluting the German confederation of 39 states
58. Which of the following treaty recognised Greece as an independent nation?

(a) Vienna Treaty of 1815 (b) Constantinople Treaty
(c) Diplomatic Treaty of Sardenia-Piedmont (d) None of these
59. Who among the following was described as ‘the most dangerous enemy of social order’ by
Duke
Metternich?
(a) Louis Philippe (b) Karol Kurpinski (c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) Johann
Gottfried
60. What did the ideas of la patrie and le citoyen signify in the French Revolution?
(a) The motherland and the children (b) The fatherland and the citizens
(c) The community and the citizens (d) The state and the community
61. Which one of the following areas was the most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe
after 1871?
(a) The Balkans (b) The Romanians (c) Great Britain (d) Germania
62. The main function of the Prussian Zollverein was to:
(a) impose customs duty on imported goods (b) abolish tarrif barriers
(c) reduce customs duties (d) introduce new rules for trade
63. ‘Young Italy’, the secret society of Italy, was set up by:
(a) Garibaldi (b) Cavour (c) Mazzini (d) Victor Emmanuel II
64. Elle, the measuring unit in Germany was used to measure

(a) Cloth (b) Thread (c) Land (d) Height
65. Why was the treaty of Vienna (1815) drawn up?

(a) To establish tariff barriers (b) To restore the monarchies
(c) To divide the German Confederation of 39 states (d) To establish democracies
66. Which of the following best explains a Utopian Society?

(a) A Society where everybody is equal (b) A democratic society
(c) An idealist society which can never be achieved
(d) A society with a comprehensive constitution
67. Who said “When France sneezes, the rest of the Europe catches cold”?
(a) Garibaldi (b) Mazzini (c) Metternich (d) Bismarck
68. What does a blindfolded woman carrying a pair of weighing scales symbolise?
(a) Peace (b) Equality (c) Justice (d) Liberty
69. Which one of the following countries was appreciated as ‘Cradle of European Civilisation’ by
poets and artists?
(a) Greece (b) Italy (c) France (d) Switzerland
70. What does the crown of oak leaves worn by Germania stand for?
(a) Courage (b) Heroism (c) Freedom (d) Unity
71. Which one of the following is true regarding the Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 ?
(a) It recognised Turkey as an independent nation
(b) It recognised Germany as an independent nation
(c) It recognised France as an independent nation
(d) It recognised Greece as an independent nation
72. Who led the protest movement against the Protestants in Ireland?
(a) Garibaldi (b) Wolfe Tone (c) Mazzini (d) Cavour
73. Who among the following was associated with the Treaty of Vienna of 1815?
(a) Bismarck (b) Duke Metternich (c) Louis Philippe (d) Victor Emmanuel II
74. Who led the protest movement against the Protestants in Ireland?
(a) Garibaldi (b) Wolfe Tone (c) Mazzini (d) Cavour
75.The term 'absolutist' is referred to:
(a) Monarchical government (b) Abstract theory (c) A vision (d) None of these
76. In mid-eighteenth-century Europe what was the status of Germany, Italy and Switzerland?
a. they were divided into kingdoms, duchies and cantons whose rulers had their autonomous
territories b. they were sovereign states
c. they were democracies d. they were republics
77. When did Napoleon invade Italy?

a. 1777 b.1797 c. 1787 d. 1767
78. Which territories were included under the Habsburg Empire?

a. Alpine regions – the Tyrol, Austria Hungry and the Sudetenland , Bohemia, Lombardy and
Venetia
b. Tyrol, Austria and the Sudetenland c. Bohemia, Lombardy and Venetia
d. Sudetenland , Bohemia, Lombardy
79. When did Industrialisation take place in France and parts of the German states?
a 18th century b. later 18th century
c. nineteenth century d. mid 18th century
80. What is Liberalism?
a. ‘liberalism’ derives from the Latin root liber, meaning free- freedom for the individual and
equality of all before the law. b. end of autocracy
c. equal rules for all d. liberty to the upper classes
81. What is Suffrage?

a. Right to property b. Right to Justice c. Right to vote d. Right to complain
82. In revolutionary France, the right to vote and to get elected was granted exclusively to ---------
a. property-owning men b. all c. Men and women d. upper class
83. A merchant travelling in 1833 from Hamburg to Nuremberg to sell his goods would have had
to
pass through ……………….
a. 11 customs barriers b. no custom barriers c. 6 custom barriers d. 3 custom barriers
84. When was the customs union or zollverein formed at the initiative of Prussia and joined by
most
of the German states?
A. 1836 B. 1834 C. 1837 D 1835
85. What did the customs union or zollverein do?
A. abolished tax
B. abolished tariff barriers and reduced the number of currencies from over thirty to two
C. abolished tariff charges and reduced the currencies to 5
D.only abolished tariff barriers
86. When was Napoleon defeated?
A. 1815 B. 1820 C. 1817 D. 1821
87. What was conservatism?

A. strict rules on the society B.social norms became conservative
C. monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property and the family – should be preserved
D. different norms for different classes
88. When did the Treaty of Vienna take place and who were the participants?
A. 1816, Britain, Russia, Prussia B. 1815, Britain, Russia, Prussia, Austria
C. 1820, Britain and Russia D 1817, Russia, Prussia, Austria
89. Who was Giuseppe Mazzini, what did he do?

A. French revolutionary, formed groups B. British statesman, gave a speech
C. Russian politician, wrote a book
D. Italian Revolutionary, founded two underground societies – Young Italy in Marseilles and
Young Europe in Berne and opposed monarchy
90. Who said “ When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold. ’
A. Napoleon B. Giuseppe Mazzini C. Metternich D. Louis Philippe
91. What happened at the Treaty of Constantinople of 1832?
A. revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off
B. struggle for independence amongst the Greeks began
C. Greece was recognised as an independent nation
D. European civilisation and mobilised public opinion to support its struggle against a Muslim
empire
92. In which year did Louis Philippe flee and the National Assembly was proclaimed a Republic?
A. 1846 B. 1848 C. 1845 D. 1847
93. When Prussia took on the leadership of the movement for national unification who was the
chief architect of the movement?
A. Otto von Bismarck B. Kaiser William I C. Giuseppe Mazzini D. Metternich
94. How many wars over seven years – with Austria, Denmark and France – ended in Prussian
victory and completed the process of unification?
A. four B. three C. six D. two
95.In January 1871 who was proclaimed German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles?
A. William II B. Otto von Bismarck C. Kaiser William I D. Metternich
96. Who had sought to put together a coherent programme for a unitary Italian Republic in the
1830s?
A. Metternich B.Otto von Bismarck C. Giuseppe Mazzini D. Napoleon
97. In 1861 ……………. was proclaimed king of united Italy.

A. Victor Emmanuel II B. Kaiser William I C. Napoleon D. Giuseppe Mazzini
98………………..is perhaps the most celebrated of Italian freedom fighters, (1807-82)
A. Giuseppe Mazzini B. Metternich C. Otto von Bismarck D. Giuseppe Garibaldi
99. Which area was the most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871?
A. Southern Europe B. mid Europe C.Balkan States D.Eastern
States
100. Each power – Russia, Germany, England, Austro-Hungary – was keen on countering the hold
of
other powers over the Balkans, this became one of the major reasons for …………
A. First World War B. Second World War
C. Fall of the Ottomon Empire D. Integration of the Balkan States
DEMOCRATIC POLITICS
CH:1-POWER SHARING
1.Belgium is a small country of which continent?

a) Europe b)Asia c) Africa d)None of these
2.Belgium is smaller in area than the state of………………………..
a)Tamil Nadu b)Kerala c)Haryana d)Andhra Pradesh
3.It is a country in Europe, smaller in area than the state of Haryana.
a) France b) Belgium c) Netherland d) England
4. Whichoneofthefollowingcountriesdoesnotshareits boundary withBelgium?

a)France b)Netherlands c)Sweden d)Luxembourg
5. Belgium shares its border with:
a)France b) Germany c) Luxembourg d)all of the above
6. List out the population of Belgium

a) little over one crore b) little over 3 crore
c) little over 5 crore d) little over 2 crore
7. What is the percentage of people in Flemish region speaks Dutch

a) 59% b) 89% c) 29% d) 50%
8. The people lives in the Flemish region speaks _____

a) Spanish b) French c) Dutch d) English
9. 40% people live in the Wallonia region speaks ____

a) German b) Dutch c) French d) Spanish
10. How many per cent of the Belgians speak German?

a)1% b)2% c)3% d)4%
11. What is the name of the capital city in Belgium
a) Brussels b) Wallonia c) Flemish d) none of these
12. List out, the percentage of French speaking people in Brussels

a) 20% b) 40% c) 80% d) 90%
13.59 per cent of the country’s total population who speaks Dutch, lives in
a) Wallonia region b) Brussels c) Flemish region d) None of
these
14.Which language is spoken by the majority of Belgians?
a) German b) French c) Dutch d) English
15.Which language is spoken by 80 per cent people of Brussels?
a) French b) Dutch c) German d) Latin
16. List out the percentage of Dutch speaking people in Brussels

a) 30% b) 20% c) 40% d) 50%
17. What led to tensions between the Dutch-speaking and French-speaking communities in
Belgium during the 1950s and 1960s?
a) Both the communities demanded special powers
b) The minority French-speaking community was richer and more powerful than the majority
dutch- speaking community
c) The majority Dutch-speaking community was richer and more powerful than the minority
French-speaking community
d) Both the communities were equal in socio-economic ladder and this was resented by the
18. The rich and powerful of the French speaking led to tensions between Dutch and French
during
this time.
a)1950s and 1960s b) 1930s and 1940s c)1980s and 1990s d)none of these
19. An island nation located just a few kilometres of the Southern Coast of Tamilnadu.
a) Singapore b) Andaman c) Nicobar d)Srilanka
20. List out the population of Srilanka

a)little over one crore b)little over 3 crore c)little over 5 crore d) little over 2 crore
21. List out the percentage of Sinhala speakers in Srilanka.

a) 18% b) 50% c) 65% d) 74%
22. List out the percentage of Tamil speakers in Srilanka

a) 50% b) 65% c) 18% d) 74%
23. How the Tamil natives of the Srilanka are called ----------------------
a)Srilankan Tamils b) Indian Tamils c)Tamilans from India d) None of these
24. How the forefathers who came from India to Srilanka as a plantation workers during
colonial period are called ------------------------
a)Srilankan Tamils b) Indian Tamils c)TamilansFrom India d) Sinhala Tamils
25. When Srilanka emerged as an independent country?

a) 1947 b) 1953 c) 1948 d) 1933
26. In which part of Sri Lanka are the Sri Lankan Tamils concentrated?
a) North and South b) North and East c) East and West d) South and
East
27. Most of the Sinhala-speaking people are

a) Buddhists b) Hindus c) Muslims d) Christians
28.How many per cent of Christians, who are both in Tamil and Sinhala
a)8% b)2% c)7% d)4%
29. Which language is dominantly spoken in Srilanka?
a)Tamil b)Hindi c)Sinhala d)English
30.List out the percentage of SriLankantamils

a) 11% b)13% c)15% d)18%
31.List out the percentage of Indian tamils

a) 6% b)5% c)3% d)4%
32. Which of the following is not a major social group in Sri Lanka?
a) Sinhala-speakers or Sinhala Community b) Sri Lankan Tamils
c) Indian Tamils d) Anglo-Indians
33. An Act of recognizing Sinhala as the official language was signed in:
a) 1942 b) 1956 c) 1954 d) 1948
34. Which language was declared as the only official language of Sri Lanka by an Act passed in
1956?
a) Tamil b) Sinhala c) Hindi d) English
35.In Srilanka the democratically elected government adopted a series of ……….. measures to
establish Sinhala supremacy?
a)Extreme b)Democratic c)Political d)Majoritarian
36. Which of the following community is in majority in Sri Lanka?

a) Tamil b) Sinhala c) Buddhist d) Hindu
37. Which is the state religion of Sri Lanka?
a) Buddhism b) Hinduism c) Islam d) Christianity
38. Sri Lanka is an island nation, just a few kilometres from the Southern coast of
a)Goa b) Kerala c) Tamil Nadu d) Lakshadweep
39. The idea of power-sharing has emerged in opposition to …….?
a)Democracy b)Dictatorship c) Monarchy d)Undivided political power under one
sect
40. How the forefathers who came from India to Srilanka as a plantation workers during
colonial period are called
a)Srilankan Tamils b)Indian Tamils c)Tamilans From India d)Sinhala Tamils
41. Name the religion which was protected and developed in Srilanka with the new constitution
a)Jainism b)Hindusm c)Buddhism d)None of these
42. Power shared among governments at different levels is also called:

a)horizontal distribution b) vertical distribution c) slant distribution d) none of the above
43. A war-like conflict between two opposite groups in a country is called

a)Cold war b) Civil war c) Ethnic war d) None of these
44.Belgium has worked on the principles of:

a)majoritarianism b) accommodation c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the above
45. Majoritarianist constitution was adopted by:

a)Belgium b) India c) Sri Lanka d) Pakistan
46. Power sharing is desirable because it -------------------

a) helps the people of different communities to celebrated their festivals.
b) imposes the will of the majority community over others.
c) reduces the conflict between social groups.
d) ensures the stability of political order.
47. Intelligent sharing of power is done among -------------

a)Legislature and Central Government b) Executive and Judiciary
c) Legislature and Executive d) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary
48.Division of power between higher and lower level of government is known as ------------------
a) vertical division of power b) horizontal distribution of power
c ) union division of power d) community division of power
49.Power sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of:
a)population (b) political order (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above
50.When power is shared among different organs of the government it is called as

a)horizontal distribution of power b)community distribution of power
c)coalition of power d)federal distribution of power
51.Which of the following is not the benefit of power sharing?
a)Itupholds the spirit of democracy b)Political parties get their expected share.
c)It ensures political stability in the long-run
d)It reduces the possibility of conflicts between social groups.
52. Which of the following is not the form of power sharing?
a)Vertical division of power b)Horizontal division of power
c) Division of power between people d)Division of power among social groups
53.Power struggle demanding separating Eelam was launched by:
a) Sinhalese b) Buddhists c) Tamilians d) none of the above
54.Which of the following was not one of the initial demands of the Sri Lankan Tamils?
a) Recognition of Tamil as an official language b) Regional autonomy
c) Equality of opportunity in securing jobs and education
d) Creation of an independent Tamil Eelam (state)
55.Which of the statements about power-sharing arrangements in Belgium and Sri Lanka are
correct?
a) In Belgium, the Dutch-speaking majority people tried to impose their domination on the
minority French-speaking people
b) In Sri Lanka, the policies of the government sought to ensure the dominance of the Sinhala-
speaking majority
c) The Tamils in Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of power-sharing to protect their
culture, language and equality of opportunity in education and jobs
d) The transformation of Belgium from a unitary government to a federal one prevented
the division of country on linguistic lines.
56.Which is a prudent reason for power-sharing?
a) It reduces the possibility of conflict between communities and ensures the stability of political
order b) Power-sharing is the very spirit of democracy
c) Both A and B d ) None of the above
57. Why did the Sri Lankan Tamils launch parties and struggle?
a) to adopt majoritarianism b) to recognise Sinhalese as the only official language
c) to recognise Tamil as an official language d) to dominate other language
58.Main significance of Belgium Model of Power Sharing ----------------

a) Majoritarianism b) power shared in all ethnic groups according to their population
c) on the basis of adult franchise d) none of the above
59.What is a coalition government?

a) power shared among different social group
b) power shared among different levels of government
c) power shared among different political parties
d) power shared among different organs of government
60.Where is the parliament of European Union?
a) Belgium b) Britain c) Germany d) France
61. Which one of the following is the 3rd tier of government in India?
a) Community Government b) State Government
c) Panchayati Raj Government d) b & c
62.Brussels presented a special problem:What was it?
a) Dutch-speaking people constituted a minority in the country, but a majority in the capital
b) Dutch-speaking people constituted a majority in the country, but a minority in the capital
c) Otherforiehn languages were seeping in
d) English was becoming dominant
63. Which of the following statements about power-sharing arrangements in Belgium are correct?
(i) Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers shall be
equal in the central government
(ii) The state governments are not subordinate to the central government
(iii) Brussels has a separate government in which both the communities have equal representation
(iv) The ‘community government’ is elected by people belonging to one linguistic community.
(a) 1, 2, 4 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4 (c) 1, 3, 4 (d) 1, 2, 3
64.By the 1980s several political organisations were formed demanding ……..?
a)Certain rights b)Independent Tamil Eelam (state)
c)Sovereign State d)Priority in Jobs for Tamils
65. Choose the incorrect statement.
a) Belgium and Sri Lanka are democracies

b) Both of them dealt with the question of power-sharing similarly
c) In Belgium, leaders realised that unity of the country was possible only by respecting
thefeelings and interests of all communities
d) In Sri Lanka, majority community forced its domination over others and refused to
sharepower.
66. What led to tensions between the Dutch-speaking and French-speaking communities in
Belgium during the 1950s and 1960s?
a) Both the communities demanded special powers
b) The minority French-speaking community was richer and more powerful than the majority
Dutch-speaking community
c) The majority Dutch-speaking community was richer and more powerful than the minority
d) Both the communities were equal in socio-economic ladder and this was resented by the
67.Non-sharing of power leads to
a) peace among all the communities

b) tyranny of the majority and oppression of the minority
c) negation of the very spirit of democracy
d) both (b) and (c)
68.Which of the following is an example of horizontal sharing of power?
a) Power sharing between different states.

b) Power sharing between different organs of the government.
c) Power sharing between different levels of the government.
d) Power sharing between different political parties.
69. Who elects the community government in Belgium?
a) People belonging to one language community only. b) By the leader of Belgium.

c) The citizens of the whole country. d) The community leaders of Belgium.
70. The Community Government signies:

a) The powers of government regarding community development.
b) The powers ofthegovernmentregarding law making for the community.
c) The powers of the government regarding cultural, educational and language related issues.
d) The government enjoys privileges to safeguard the interest of a particular community
71. The word ‘ethnic’ signies:
a) different religions. b) social division on shared culture.
c) a violent conflict between opposite groups. d) a careful calculation of gains and losses
72. Power sharing is desirable because it helps:

a) To increase pressure on government. b) To reduce possibilities of conflicts.
c) To generate awareness among people. d) To increase percentage of voters.
73.System of ‘checks and balances’ means:
a) Horizontal distribution of powers. b) Separation of powers.
c) Put a check on the exercise of unlimited powers of the organs of government by maintaining a
balanceof power among various institutions. d) Federal division of powers
74. In dealing with power sharing, which one of the following statements is NOT correct about
democracy?
a) People are the source of all political power.
b) In a democracy, people rule themselves j through institutions of self-governance.
c) In a democracy, due respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society.
d) In a democracy, if the power to decide is dispersed, it is not possible to take quick decisions
and
enforcethem.
75.A belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it
wants, by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority is:
a) Power Sharing b) Central Government
c) Majoritarianism d) Community Government
76.A system of ‘checks and balances’ is another name for which one of the following
power-sharing arrangements:
a) Power sharing among different social groups.
b) Vertical division of power or power shared among different levels of government.
c) Horizontal division of power or power shared among different organs of the government.
d) Power sharing in the form of political parties, pressure groups and government.
77. Prudential reasons of power sharing stress on the facts that:

A. It ensures the stability of political order.
B. It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups.
C. It gives a fair share to minority. D. It is the very spirit of democracy.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) A, B b) A, C and D c) All are correct d) A, B & C
78.It is a country in Europe, smaller in area than the state of Haryana.
a) France b)Belgium c)Netherland d)England
.
79. Which country has borders with France, the Netherlands Germany and Luxembourg?
a)Dutch b)England c)Belgium d)None of these
80. Name the religion which was protected and developed in Srilanka with the new
constitution
a)Jainism b)Hindusm c)Buddhism d)None of these
81. Between 1970 and 1993 how many times the Belgium constitution was amended?
a) two times b) three times c)four times d)five times
82. Who accepted equal representation in Brussels because the Dutch speaking
community has accepted equal representation in the central government?
a)German b)French c)Spanish d)none of these
83. What is the third type of government elected by people in Belgium?

a)Local self-government b)Social government
c)Community government d)Majority government
84. Name the city which was chosen as headquarters of European Union.
a)Wallonia b)Flemish c)Brussels d)None of these
85. It is the very spirit of democracy

a)Federalism b)Power sharing c)UAF d)Equality
86. In this form of democracy power sharing arrangements can take many forms.
a)modern b)Ancient c)Medieval d)Representative democracy
87. In which government people are ruled themselves through institutions

a)people government b)central government
c)self-government d)none of these
88. Consider the following and pick the answer.

Legislature, Executive, Judiciary
a) Levels of government b)types of government
c)organs of government d)spirit of democracy
89. There was a feeling of alienation among………………………...

a)Sri Lankan Tamils b)Indian Tamils c)Sinhalese d)Buddhist
90. The ……………………government denied them equal political rights and discriminated
against them in getting jobs and other opportunities
a) Sri Lankan b)Belgium c)France d)England
91. Each organ of the government checks the other it is known as………………..
a) Coalition Government b) Civil War
c) Check and Balance d) Community Government
92. Government of more than two political parties is known as……………………

93. Power may also be shared among different social groups is known as………………
94. A violent conflict between opposing groups………………….

95. A government for the entire country is usually called …………………………….

a)Federal government b) State government
c)Unitary government d) None of these
96. Belgium successfully solved its problem by ………………………………..
a) Coalition Government b) Majority government
c) Community Government d) None of these
97. The Depth of Democracy empowers the …………………………….
a) Vertical distribution of Power b) Horizontal distribution of Power
c)organs of government d) None of these
98. When did the Civil War of Sri Lanka end?

a)2010 b)2009 c)2005 d)2011
99. The Constitution of Belgium prescribes that the number of Dutch and French-speaking
ministers ……….. in the central government?
a)Shall be equal b)Dutch speaking shall be more
c)French speaking will be more d)None of the above
100.Majoritarianist constitution was adopted by:

(a)Belgium (b) India (c) Sri Lanka (d) Pakistan
GEOGRAPHY
TOPIC: CH-1 Resources and Development
1. Which soil is ideal for growing cotton?

(a) Regur soil
(b) Laterite soil
(c) Desert soil
(d) Mountainous soil
2. Soil is formed by the process of
(a) Denudation
(b) Gradation
(c) Weathering
(d) Erosion
3. Land left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year is called
(a) Culturable waste land
(b) Current fallow land
(c) Waste land
(d) None of the above
4. “There is enough for everybody’s need but not for anybody’s greed”. Who said this?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Atal Bihari Vajpai
(c) M. K. Gandhi
(d) Sunder Lal Bahuguna
5. The First International Earth Summit was held in
(a) Geneva
(b) New York
(c) Japan
(d) Rio de Janeiro
6. Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilised
(a) Renewable
(b) Developed
(c) National
(d) Potential
7. Which one of the following is true about the term resources?
(a) Resources are free gifts of nature.
(b) They are the functions of human activities.
(c) All those things which are found in nature.
(d) Things which cannot be used to fulfill our needs.
8. The red soil is red in colour because
(a) it is rich in humus.
(b) it is rich in iron compounds.
(c) it is derived from volcanic origin.
(d) it is rich in potash.
9. Which one of the following type of resource is iron ore?

(a) Renewable
(b) Biotic
(c) Flow
(d) Non-renewable
10. Tidal energy comes under
(a) Replenishable
(b) Human-made
(c) Abiotic
(d) Non-renewable
11. Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?
(a) Intensive cultivation
(b) Deforestation
(c) Over-irrigation
(d) Overgrazing
12. Terrace cultivation is practiced in ______________ state.
(a) Punjab
(b) Plains of Uttar Pradesh
(c) Haryana
(d) Uttaranchal
13. What percentage of our land should be under forest according to the National Forest
Policy (1952)?
(a) 3
3
(b)
2
2
.
5
(c) 31
(d) 30
14. Materials in the environment which have the potential to satisfy human needs but
human beings do not have appropriate technology to access them are called:
(a) Potential resource
(b) Stock
(c) Developed resource
(d) Reserves
15. India’s territorial water extends upto a distance of:
(a) 12 km
(b) 12 nautical miles
(c) 19.2 miles
(d) 200 nautical miles
16. Land that is left uncultivated for more than TWO agricultural years is called:
(a) Pasture land
(b) Culturable waste land
(c) Barren land
(d) Current fallow
17. Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus net sown area is known as:
(a) Net sown area
(b) Forest cover
(c) Waste land
(d) Gross cropped area
18. The total degraded land in our country is:

(a) 133 million hectares
(b) 130 million sq. km.
(c) 140 million hectares
(d) 130 million hectares
19. The main cause of land degradation in Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh is:
(a) Mining
(b) Over irrigation
(c) Deforestation
(d) Over grazing
20. Which is the most common soil of Northern India?
(a) Black soil
(b) Laterite soil
(c) Alluvial soil
(d) Red soil
21. Red soil is mostly found in:
(a) Parts of Jammu & Kashmir
(b) Upper Ganga Plains
(c) Eastern and Southern part of Deccan Plateau
22. Red soil is reddish in colour due to:
(a) high clay content
(b) presence of kankar nodules in the subsoil
(c) diffusion of iron in igneous and metamorphic rocks
(d) high moisture content
23. Black soil is also called:
(a) Bangar
(b) Khadar
(c) Regur
(d) Humus
24. Black soils are common in:
(a) Deccan trap region
(b) Kashmir Valley
(c) Ganga Valley
(d) Northern Plains
25. Laterite soil is very useful for growing:
(a) Rice, wheat and mustard
(b) Tea, coffee and cashewnut
(c) Pulses, sugarcane and resin
26. Which soil has self-aeration capacity?
(a) Alluvial
(b) Red soil
(c) Black soil
(d) Mountain soil
27. Ploughing along the contour lines to decelerate the flow of water down the slopes is
called:
(a) Strip cropping
(b) Sheet erosion
(c) Contour ploughing
(d) Terrace cultivation
28. Which of the following is not a measure for soil conservation?
(a) Strip cropping
(b) Terrace cultivation
(c) Shelter belts
(d) Overdrawing of ground water
29. Black soil is found in which state?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Gujarat
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Jharkhand
30. Laterite soil is developed in areas with
(a) low temperature and low rainfall
(b) high temperature and low rainfall
(c) low temperature and heavy rainfall
(d) high temperature and heavy rainfall
31. Which soil develops a reddish colour due to diffusion of iron in crystalline
and metamorphic rocks?
a) Laterite soil
b) Arid soil
c) Red and Yellow soils
d) Alluvial soil
32. Regur soil is the other name of
a) Black cotton soil
b) Alluvial soil
c) Arid soil
d) Laterite soil
33. Culturable waste land is the piece of land left uncultivated for
a) one or less than one agricultural years
b) more than 5 agricultural years
c) two agricultural years
d) past 1 to 2 years
34. 'Laterite' has been derived from the greek word 'later' which means:
a) Mountain
b) Brick
c) Rock
d) Stone
35. Which among the following is a type of resource classified on the basis of exhaustability:
a) biotic and abiotic
b) renewable and non-renewable
c) national and individual
d) potential and reserves
36. How much desired area is required for forest in our
country?
a) 16%
b) 20%
c) 23.2%
d) 33%
37. Overgrazing is responsible for land degradation in which state?
a) Jharkhand and Orissa
b) Madhya pradesh and Rajasthan
c) Punjab and Haryana
d) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
38. Resources which are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been determined
for utilization are known as:
a) Potential resources
b) stock
c) developed resources
d) Reserves
39. When running water cuts through clayey soil and makes deep channels it is called
a) Gully erosion
b) Sheet erosion
c) Deforestation
d) Afforestation
40. How can the resources be classified on the basis of their origin:
a) biotic and abiotic
b) renewable and non-renewable
c) individual and community
d) potential and reserves
41. Resource which can be renewed again are called
a) Natural resource
b) Renewable resource
c) Potential resource
d) Stock
42. Khader is a type of
a) Black soil
b) Alluvial soil
c) Laterite soil
d) Desert soil
43. In which year was the earth summit held?
a)1990
b)1991
c)1992
d)1993
44. How much percentage of land is plain in
India?
a)41%
b)45%
c)43%
d)47%
45. Soil can be conserved by a)cutting of trees
b) over grazing
c) planting of trees
d) excess mining
46. Land degradation due to over irrigation can be seen in the
state of
a) Punjab and Haryana
b) Assam
c) Orissa
d) Mizoram
47. Example of biotic resources

_
a) Rock
b) Mountain
c) Mineral
d) Flora
48. They are gift of nature which satisfy human wants
a) A commodity
b) a thing
c) resources
d) none of these
49. Example of non-renewable resources
a)solar energy
b) Tidal energy
c) petroleum
d) Hydel energy
50. On the basis of ownership resources can be classified

in to
a)two types
b) Three types
c)Four types
d) None of them
51. Soil is a
a)Renewable resources
b) Potential resources
c)Developed resources
d)Non-Renewable
52. The main cause of land and water pollution in India in recent
years.
a)Industrial effluent
b) Chemical fertilizer
c) Deforestation
d) None of them
53. Coal, iron ore, petroleum, diesel etc. is the example of
a) Biotic resources
b) Abiotic resources
c) Renewable resources
d) Non renewable resources
54. Identify the old &new alluvium respectively.

a) Khadar &terai
b) terai & bangar
c) Bangar &khadar
d) tarai & duars
55. __________-soil develop due to high temperate and evaporation.
a) Arid soil
b) forest soil
c) Black soil
d) Alluvial soil
56. resources can be acquired by a nation.
b) international resources
c) national resources
d) public resources
57. is responsible for sheet erosion
a)Underground water
b) Wind
c) glacier
d) water
58. _method is used to break up the force of wind.

a) Shelter wind
b) Strip cropping
c) Contour ploughing
d) Terrace farming
59. is the main cause of land degradation on Madhya Pradesh.

a) Mining
b) Overgrazing
c) Deforestation
d) Over irrigation
60. The sustainable development refers ________________.

a) over all development of various resources
b) development should take place without damaging the environment.
c) Economic development of place
d) development that meets the desire of the members of all communities
61. The resources which are found everywhere are known as
(a) Ubiquitous
(b) Nonrenewable resources
(c) Human made resources
(d) none of the above
62. Balancing the need to use resources and also conserve them for the future is called
(a) Sustainable development
(b) Resources conservation
(c) Resources development
(d) Human resource development
63. The resource can be conserved by
(a) Reducing consumption
(b) Recycling
(c) Reusing
(d) All the of the above
64. Consider the following:
1.Technologically accessible 2. Economically feasible3. Culturally accessible
Which of the above are characteristics of a resource?
a) 1 &2 only
b) 2&3 only
c) all are correct
d) 1 & 3 only
65. Land cover only about percent of the total area of the earth‘s surface
a) 26
b) 31
c) 3
d) 35
66. The total percent of land of world under forest is

a) 26
b) 31
c) 36
d) 41
67. The thin layer of grainy substance covering the surface of the earth is
called
a)soil
b) sand
c) mineral
d) organic matter
68. The following is /are not a factors of soil formation

a) Organic matter
b) Time
c) Soil texture
d) All the above
69. The following factor is/ are responsible for degradation of soil
a) Chemical fertilizers
b) Landslides
c) Floods
d) All the above
70. The process in which different crops are grown in alternate rows and are sown at
different times to protect the soil from rain wash, is known as
(a) Crop rotation
(b) Intercropping
(c) Terrace farming
(d) Contour cropping
71. The major factor of soil formation is/are
(a) the nature of the parent rock
(b) Climatic factor
(c) time taken for the composition of soil formation
(d) all of the above
72. Match the following:
COLUMN B
COLUMN A
i) Black soil a) Western Rajasthan

ii) Alluvial soil b) Himalayan region
iii) Arid soil c) Northern plains
iv) Forest soil d) Maharashtra
A) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b

B) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
C) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
D) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
73. Which of the following is an example of cultivable wasteland?
a) Gross cropped area
b) Uncultivated land
c) Barren wasteland
d) Current fallow land
74. How many layers of soil are seen in profile?
a) 2 layers
b) 4 layers
c) 1 layers
d) 3 layers
75. Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options:
i) Contour ploughing
ii) Terrace farming
iii) Strip cropping
iv) Afforestation
Options:
A) Measures for ploughing

B) Measures for soil conservation
C) Measures for terrace farming
D) Measures for afforestation.
76. ___________ existence is a component of sustainable development.

a) Sustainable
b) Mutual
c) Cooperative
d) Happy
77. Which of the following crisis occurs due to exploitation of resources?

a) Global warming
b) Afforestation
c) Soil conservation
d) All of the these
78. What harm does the mineral processing and cement industry do the environment and
land?
a) Helps in growing of trees
b) Generates huge quantity of dust in the atmosphere
c) Kills animals
d) None of these.
79. Analyze the information given below considering one of the following correct options:
i) It is formed by the deposition of alluvium brought down by east flowing
peninsular rivers
ii) It is highly fertile
iii) It consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay
iv) It is rich in potash, phosphoric acid and lime but deficient in organic matter.
Options:
a) Main features of alluvial soil

b) Main features of black soil
c) Main features of arid soil
d) Main features of laterite soil
80. Resource planning is essential for _________ existence of all forms of life.
a) Ecological balance
b) Sustainable
c) Exploitation
d) None of these
81. The resources of ownership are:

a) Plantation
b) Pasture land
c) Ponds
d) All of the above
82. Which state among the North eastern states has been fully surveyed for its land use?
a) Arunachal Pradesh
b) Manipur
c) Tripura
d) Assam
83. The ocean resources beyond 200 nautical miles are classified under which zone?
a) Exclusive economic zone
b) Export processing zone
c) Special economic zone
d) None of these
84. Geothermal energy in Puga valley and Parvati valley are:

a) Stock resources
b) Developed resources
c) Reserve resources
d) Potential resources.
85. Individual, community, national and International resources are classified on the basis of:
a) Origin
b) Exhaustibility
c) Ownership
d) Status of development
86. Which of the following is not classified on the basis of status of development?
b) Developed stock resource
c) Reserves resources
d) Renewable resources
87. Which of the following soil is more common in piedmont plains such as Duars, chos and
Terai?
a) Black soil
b) Alluvial soil
c) Laterite soil
d) Red soil
88. The lower horizons of the arid soil is occupied by kankar due to increasing
a) Calcium content
b) Potash content
c) Lime, potash and Phosphorous content
d) Phosphorous content
89. How much is the total geographical area of India?

a) 3.28 million sq km
b) 4.28 million sq km
c) 2.28 million sq km
d) 5.28 million sq km
90. In the snow covered areas of Himalayas, which of the following soil experiences
denudation and is acidic in nature with
humus content?
a) Laterite soil
b) Black soil
c) Forest soil
d) Alluvial soil
91. What is the main reason behind global ecological crisis such as global warming and
environmental pollution?
a) Depletion of resources
b) Accumulation of resources in few hands
c) Indiscriminate exploitation of resources
d) Use of resources.
92. Which land is used for grazing cattle and livestock?

a) Barren land
b) Pasture land
c) Forests
d) Fallow land
93. What is the arrangement of soil in different layers of horizon known as?
a) Soil composition
b) Soil erosion
c) Soil profile
d) Soil texture
94. What was the main contribution of Brundtland commission report 1987?
a) Sustainable development as means for resource conservation
b) Advocated resource conservation for the first time
c) Presented Gandhian philosophy
d) All the above.
95. Which of the following is the root cause for resource depletion at global level, according
to Gandhiji?
a) Conservation of resources
b) Use of resources
c) Greedy and selfish individuals and exploitative nature of modern technology
d) Backward technology.
96. Which type of soil is the result of intense leaching due to heavy rainfall?
a) Red soil
b) Black soil
c) Alluvial soil
d) Laterite soil.
97. Which soil type is made up of lava flows?

a) Black soil
b) Laterite soil
c) Red soil
d) Mountain soil
98. Name the land with deep channels that is unfit for cultivation.
a) Bad land
b) Contour land
c) Barren land
d) Fallow land
99. Gully erosion is common in which basin?

a) Chambal basin
b) Indus basin
c) Ganga basin
d) Godavari basin
100. Which of the following regions in India possesses rich reserves of minerals and fossil
fuels?
a) Plains
b) Mountains
c) Plateaus
d) Deserts.
DEPARTMENT OF SST
ECONOMICS
TOPIC: CH-1 Development
1.Development of a country can generally be determined by its:

a)per capita income b)average literacy level
c)health status of its people d)none of these
2. Different persons could have different as well as conflicting notions of a country’s
development. A fair and just path for all should be achieved. Interpret the concept being
discussed here.
a) Social development b)Cultural development
c)National development d)Economic development
3. Countries with higher income are _____________ than others with less income.
a) Less developed b)More developed
c) Less stronger d) More organized
4.Total income of the country divided by its total population is known as:
a) Capital Income b)National Income
c)Per capita income d)GDP
5. Proportion of literate population in the 7 and above age group is called as:
a) Knowledge rate b)Literacy rate
c)Attendance rate d)Excellence Rate
6.Which age group of children is included for calculating Net Attendance Ratio?
a) 6-10 b)7-11 c)5-9 d)14-15
7.For calculating Body Mass Index (BMI), weight of the person is divided by the:
a) Square of the weight b)Square of the height
c)Square root of the height d)Square of the sum of height and weight
8. If BMI is less than 18.5 then the person would be considered:
a)over weight b)long height c)under nourished d)short height
9.What proportion of the country is over using their groundwater reserves?
a) One-Fourth b)One-Tenth c) One-Third d)half
10.Resources which will get exhausted after years of use are:
a)Renewable resources b)Non-durable resources
c)Non-renewable resources d)Competing resources
11.What will be the top priority in the developmental goal of a landless labourer?
a)Expansion of rural banking b)More days of work and better wages
c)Metal roads for transportation d)Establishment of a high school
12.What will be the aspiration of an educated urban unemployed youth?
a)An educated urban unemployed youth will aspire for better opportunities in agriculture.
b)Support from government at every step in life for his upward movement.
c)An urban educated unemployed will aspire for good job opportunities where his
education can be made use of.
d) Better facilities of recreation for his leisure time.
13.Pick out the correct meaning listed below to define ‘average income’.
a)Average income of the country means the total income of the country.
b)The average income in a country is the income of only employed people.
c)The average income is the same as per capita income.
d)The average income includes the value of property held.
9. Money cannot buy all the goods and services that we may need to have a good life.
A list of things required for a good life is given below. Which among the following are things
money cannot buy?
(i) Full protection from infectious diseases
(ii) High quality education
(in) A luxury home
(iv) A pollution-free atmosphere in every part of the country
(a) (i) and(ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (in)
(d) (i) and (iv)
10. HDI stands for ‘Human Development Index’ that focuses on Fill in the blanks with one of
the
following options:
(a) life expectancy
(b) gross enrolment ratio for three levels of schooling
(c) national income
(d) All the above
11. Kerala has a low infant mortality rate. What could be the reason? Find the correct answer
from the following:
(a) Kerala has a low infant mortality rate because all the girls are trained at the primary level
schooling to look after a newborn child.
(b) (b) Because most of the girls are nurses in Kerala.
(c) Because Kerala has very high female literacy rate and adequate health facilities are
available for both mothers and children.
(d) Kerala’s good climatic condition helps infants to survive.
12. What would be the most promising source of energy fifty years from now and why?
(a) Petroleum energy, because it is obtained from fossil fuels.
(b) Solar energy, because it is not exhaustible.
(c) Coal based energy, because it is pollution- free.
(d) Forest product based energy, because India has abundant forests.
13. Pick out the cause (from below) that enhances environmental degradation:
(a) Planting of trees.
(b) Prevention of factory wastes getting mixed up with river water.
(c) Ban on use of plastic bags.
(d) Allowing increase in the level of exhaust fumes emitted by cars, buses, trucks, etc.
14. There are 4 families with per capita income Rs.40,000, Family A earns Rs.39,000, Family
B earns Rs.45,000, Family C earns RS.28,000. What is the income of Family D?
a. Rs.46,000
b. Rs.44,000
c. Rs.48,000
d. Rs.45,000
15. Development goal for a prosperous farmer is
a. To get loan from bank
b. To get irrigation facility
c. To get his children educated
d. To get farming implements
16. Development goal of a girl in a rich urban family is
a. Freedom
b. Going to school
c. Get married
d. Learning cooking
17. Which of the following levels of the people can compare human development index of
countries?
a. Composition of society
b. Type of Government
c. The health of people
d. Environment of country
18. The total number of children attending school as a percentage of total number of children
in the same age group is called
(a) net attendance ratio
(b) literacy rate
(c) gross enrolment ratio
(d) level of education
19. Per capita income hides
(a) disparities
(b) average income
(c) total population
(d) none of these
20. Per capita income of Kerala is higher than that of
(a) Bihar
(b) Punjab
(c) Gujarat
(d) none of these
21. Dividing the total income of country with its population, we get
(a)Per-Capita income
(b)National income
(c)Average Income
(d)Total Income
(a) Only III (b) I and II (c) All of the above (d) None of these
27. The per-capita income of different countries is counted in which currency?
(a)Rupees
(b) Pounds
(c) US Dollars
(d) Canadian Dollars
28. The hopes of development can be achieved through...........................

a) Democratic parties
b) Regional parties
c) National parties
d) All of these
29. _______ is the most common method of measuring development.
a) Income
b) Health
c) Public facilities
d) Sustainability
30. The data for development is taken from reports published by the _____.
a) United Nations Development Programme
b) World Bank
c) Government of India
d) All the above

31. The hopes of development can be archived through _______
a) Democratic parties
b) Regional parties
c) National parties
d) All the above
32. For comparing countries which one is considered to be one of the most important
attributes?
a) Health
b) Literacy
c) Total income
d) Average income
33. What is an important goal of a country?

a) Greater income
b) Greater literacy rate

c) Greater production
d) Greater population
34. An example for developed country

i) Middle East
countries
ii) ii) India
iii) Some small countries
iv) iv) Myanmar
a) i, ii, iii b) i, iv
c) iii, iv d) i, iii
35. What is the earning of a person in Bihar according to 2012-13 survey?
a) 23436
b) 20435
c) 23500
d) 30930
36. What cannot be brought by money that is needed to live well?
a) Goods
b) Pollution free environment

c) Services
d) Education
a) a, c b) a, b, d c) a, b d) All of the above
37. What is the full form of NSSO?
a) National Sample Secondary Organization
b) National Sample States Organization
c) National Sample Survey Organization
d) National Service Survey Organization
38. What is the main desire of people?
a) Regular work
b) Irregular employment
c) Happy life
d) None of the above

39. Money is a
a) Material thing
b) External thing
c) Non-material thing
d) All the above

40. What are important developments?
a) Income
b) Literacy rate
c) Per capita income
d) All the above

41. What do you mean by HDP?
a) Health Development Progress
b) Hospital Development Progress

c) Hygiene Development Progress
d) Human Development Progress

42. What are the developmental goals of rural areas?
a) Equal status
b) Regular income
c) National development
d) Both A&B
43. Besides income, people also seek
a) Freedom
b) security
c) respect
d) all of the above

44. A vessel dumped 500 tons of liquid toxic wastes into open-air dumps in a city. The city is
a) San Francisco
b) Washington
c) Abidjan
d) Free monk
45. Your friend is 150cm tall and has a weight of 110kg. His BMI is
a) 18
b) 12.9
c) 17.77
d) 16.72
46. Quality of life depends upon
a) Material things
b) Non material things

c) Both ‗A‘ and ‗B‘
d) Neither ‗A‘ nor ‗B‘

47. Groundwater over use is particularly found in
a) Desert regions
b) Forest regions
c) over populated area
d) Coastal areas
48. About 300 districts have reported a ________ level decline of over 4 meters during the past
20 years. a) Water
b) population
c) income
d) literacy
49. Find the odd one out
a) Ground water
b) Soil
c) Crude oil
d) Sunlight
50. Consequences of environmental degradation do not respect
a) National boundaries
b) State boundaries
c) A or B
d) A and B
51. Reason for over use of resources
a) Over population
b) Lack of awareness
c) Industrial need
d) All the above
52. What are the 3 main complex process involved in resource planning in India.
a) Identification and inventory of new resources

b) Evolving a planning structure
c) Matching the development plans with overall national development plans
d) d) All the above
53. In which year Agenda 21 was adopted.

a) 1936
b) 1992
c) 1948
d) 2004
54. What is UNCED?
a) United Nations Conference on Education & Development
b) United Nations Conference on Economic Development
c) United Nations Conference on Environment & Development
d) All of the above
55. The calculation of per capita income of all countries is made in
a) Rupees
b) Dollars
c) Yen
d) Pounds
56. A person is considered as overweight if his BMI is
a) More than 25
b) less than 18
c) less than 20
d) less than 22
57. Which organization publishes the Human Development Report?

a) UNO
b) WHO
c) UNDP
d) World Bank
58. Which one is not an important goal of our life?
a) Good education
b) Blood donation
c) High salaried job
d) Facilities for going abroad

59. The full form of PDS is
a) Private Development System
b) Public Department System

c) Pure Domestic System
d) Public Distribution System

60. National development
a) Economic development
b) Social development
c) Political development
d) All around development

61. By national income, we mean the money value of
a) All goods produced during a year
b) All final goods produced in during a year
c) All services produced during a year
d) All final goods and services produced during a year
62. According to per capita income prepared by the World Bank in 2004, in which category is
India included.
a) Rich countries
b) Middle income countries

c) Low income countries

63. Which of the following neighbouring countries has better performance in terms of
human development than India?
a) Bangladesh
b) Sri Lanka
c) Nepal
d) Pakistan
64. Body Mass Index (BMI) of a person is calculated by
a) Dividing height by weight
b) Multiplying height by weight

c) Dividing the weight by the square of the height
d) Adding height to weight

65. A person is considered under nourished if his BMI is
a) less than 30.5
b) less than 25.7
c) less than 20.9
d) less than 18.5

66. In which rank does India stand in HDI?
a) 92
b) 146
c) 126
d) 149
67. HDI ranks are out of how many countries?

a) 136
b) 186
c) 117
d) 177
68. Which is the most common method of measuring economic development?

a) Profit loss
b) Income
c) Sales
d) Import-export
69. What are the developmental goals of landless rural laborers?
a) More days of work and better wages
b) Acquirement of land for self tilling
c) More hours of work
d) Self-reliance
70. What brings about stable income?
a) Better wages
b) Work opportunities
c) Regular work
d) Decent price for their crops or other products
71. Besides seeking more income, there is something people resent, what is it?
a) Getting fewer wages for more work
b) Discrimination
c) No work
d) Poverty
72. What is the one factor on which our life depends?
a) Employment
b) Security of work
c) Money or material things that one can buy with it.
d) Freedom
73. If women are engaged in paid work, what difference does it make?
a) Their dignity in the household and society decreases
b) No difference
c) No dignity
d) Their dignity in the household and society increases
74. Different persons could have ------------ notions of a country’s development.

a) Different as well as conflicting
b) Same
c) Indifferent
d) No
75. What is considered to be one of the most important attributes when we compare countries at
the level of development?
a) Industrial development
b) Resources of the country
c) Income
d) Import-export
76. More income means --------------

a) Average out of needs of people
b) More of all things that human beings need.
c) No effect on the common man
d) More business
77. -------------- is the total income of the country divided by its total population?
a) Per capita income
b) Gross income
c) Net income
d) Total income
78. In world Development Reports, brought out by the World Bank, which criterion is used in
classifying countries?
a) Total income
b) Gross income
c) Per capita income
d) Net income
79. Countries with per capita income of US$ ------------ per annum and above in 2017, are called
rich countries?
a) 12,126
b) 11,246
c) 12,056
d) 10,056
80. Countries with per capita income of US$ ----------- or less are called low-income countries.
a) 995
b) 885
c) 955
d) 855
81. Which category does India come under?
a) High-income countries
b) Low middle-income countries
c) Low-income countries
d) High middle-income countries
82. What was India’s per capita income in 2017?
a) US$ 1950 per annum
b) US$ 1880 per annum
c) US$ 1930 per annum
d) US$ 1820 per annum
83. What can money not buy you?
a) Unadulterated medicines
b) Water
c) Pollution-free environment
d) Organic food
84. Why does Kerala have a low Infant Mortality Rate?

a) Adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities
b) Suitable climate
c) Pollution Free environment
d) Good water
85. Over the past decade or so, ----------- indicators have come to be widely used along with
income as a measure of development?
a) Health and nutrition
b) Health and education
c) Child development
d) Human development
86. According to the Human Development Report, 2018, United Nations Development
Programme which two countries have a higher Life expectancy at Birth rate than India?
a) Sri Lanka and Myanmar
b) Pakistan and Nepal
c) Pakistan and Bangladesh
d) Nepal and Bangladesh
87. About ----------- districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 meters during the past
20 years?
a) 300
b) 500
c) 450
d) 350
88. Nearly ---------- of the country is overusing their groundwater reserves?
a) Two-third
b) One-third
c) Half
d) One fourth
89. Where is groundwater overuse found in India?
a) Assam
b) Shillong
c) Punjab
d) Karnataka
90. Groundwater is an example of ----------- resources?
a) Renewable
b) Non-renewable
c) Protected
d) Reserve
91. Since the second half of the twentieth century, a number of scientists have been warning that --
---------
a) Health and nutrition is declining
b) Per capita income is unstable
c) Levels of resources are not sustainable
d) Levels of development are not sustainable
92. How can we find out if we are properly nourished?
a) Through good weight and scale
b) Body Mass Index
c) Nutrient table
d) Height and weight table
93. The literacy rate for the rural population of males in Uttar Pradesh is -----------
a) 73%
b) 70%
c) 76%
d) 78%
94. In the comparative data on Haryana, Kerala and Uttar Pradesh which state has the highest
literacy rate?
a) Haryana
b) Kerala
c) UP
d) All are equal
95. In the data for the Per capita income of Haryana, Kerala, and Bihar – which state has the
lowest per capita income?
a) Haryana
b) Kerala
c) Bihar
d) All equal
96. Life expectancy at birth means:
a) Average expected length of a person expected at the time of birth
b) Average expected length of life of a person at the time of death
c) Average expected length of a child at the time of birth
97. Which one of the following is the most important attribute while comparing the level of
development of various countries?
a) Population
b) Social status of the people
c) Political status
d) Per capita income
98. Underemployment occurs when people:
a) Do not want to work
b) Are working in a lazy manner
c) Are working less than what they are capable of doing
d) Are not paid for their work
99. Which of the following is most likely to be a development goal for landless rural laborers?
a) Higher support prices for their crops
b) They should be able to settle their children abroad
c) Raised wages
d) None of these
100. We can obtain per capita income of a country by calculating:
a) The total income of a person
b) By dividing the national income by the total population of the country
c) The total value of all goods and services
d) The total exports of the country

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS,THANJAVUR

Q1- Where was Lencho’s house situated?

Q3- Where did Lencho expect the downpour to come from?

Q4 – What did Lencho compare the large raindrops with?

Q5- Which crop was growing on Lencho’s fields?

Q6- What destroyed Lencho’s fields?

Q7- The field looked as if it were covered in _______.

Q8- Lencho compared the quantum of damage with

Q10- How did Lencho decide to contact his last resort?

MCQ-POEM :DUST OF SNOW

POEM:FIRE AND ICE

Q1- Who is the author of the story "A Triumph of Surgery"?

Q20- What is the meaning of the word "convalescing"?

I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER FROM THE OPTIONS GIVEN BELOW :

36) The pots on the table is/ are beautiful.

அ) கன்னடம் ஆ) துளு இ) தமிழ்

2. பாண்டிய மன்னனின் மகள் ------------

அ) மதலுங் கு ஆ) தமிழ் இ) மலலயாளம்

3. சாகும் பபாதும் தமிழ் படித்துச் சாகபேண்டும் என்றேர் ---------

அ)மபருஞ் சித்திரனார் ஆ)கால் டுமேல் இ)கண்ணதாசன்

4. பாேலபரறு மபருஞ் சித்திரனாரின் ------------- மதாகுப் பிலிருந்து நமக்கு பாடல் கள்

அ)கனிச்சாறு ஆ)பள் ளிப் பறலேகள் இ)மகாய் யாக்கனி

5. பாேலபரறு -------------, ------- இதழ் களின் ோயிலாகத் தமிழுணர்லே உலமகங் கும்

அ)கனிச்சாறு ,பள் ளிப் பறலேகள் ஆ) மதன்மமாழி,தமிழ் சசி

6. துலர.மாணிக்கம் என்பது ------------ இயற் மபயர்

அ)மபருஞ் சித்திரனார் ஆ)பாரதிதாசன் இ)கண்ணதாசன்

7. பாேலபரறு எழுதிய திருக்குறள் மமய் ப் மபாருளுலர தமிழுக்கு ------------ ஆக

அ) கருவூலமாய் ஆ) அணிகலனாய் இ) இலக்கியமாய்

9. சின் ன குழந்லதயின் -------------- ஆனேள் அன்லன தமிழ் மமாழி.

அ)அழுலக ஆ)சிரிப் பு இ)சிறப் பு

10. மதன்னேன் என்பது யாலரக் குறிக்கும் மசால் ------------

அ) பாண்டியன் ஆ) பசாழன் இ) பசரன்

அ) எட்டுத்மதாலக, குறுந்மதாலக ஆ) பத்துப் பாட்டு,எட்டுத்மதாலக

இ) பத்துப் பாட்டு, மணிபமகலல

12.'நாடும் மமாழியும் நமதிரு கண்கள் " என்றேர் -----------

அ) மகாகவி பாரதியார். ஆ) பாரதிதாசன் இ) முடியரசன்

அ)மபருஞ் சித்திரனார் ஆ)கால் டுமேல் . இ)கண்ணதாசன்

14.திராவிட மமாழிகளின் ஒப் பியல் இலக்கணம் என்ற நூலின் ஆசிரியர் --------------------

அ)பாரதியார் ஆ)கால் டுமேல் இ)முத்லதயா

அ) தாள் ஆ) தண்டு இ) பகால்

16. கீலர, ோலழ பபான்ற தாேரத்தின் அடி ------ எனப் படும் .

அ) தூறு ஆ) தண்டு இ) பகால்

17. மநட்டி, மிளகாய் பபான்ற தாேரத்தின் அடி ----------- எனப் படும் .

அ) தட்டு ஆ) க ோல் . இ) தூறு

18. தூறு என்பது குத்துச்மசடி, ---------- முதலியேற் றின் அடி.

அ)புதர் ஆ)க ோல் இ)கீரர

அ) தட்டு ஆ) கரும் பின் இ) கம் பு, பசாளம்

20.புளி, பேம் பு முதலியேற் றின் மகாழுந்து ---------- ஆகும் .

அ) பபாத்து. ஆ) சண்டு இ) மகாழுந்து

21.கரும் பின் நுனிப் பகுதி ------------ எனப்படும் .

அ) கலே ஆ) பபாத்து இ) மகாழுந்தாலட

22.மரஞ் மசடியினின்று பூ கீபழ விழுந்த நிலல ------------.

23.பூ ோடிய நிலலலய மசம் மல் என்பர்.

அ)அலர் ஆ) மசம் மல் இ)கலே

24.மசால் லாராய் ச்சியில் பாோணரும் வியந்த மபருமகனார் -----------

அ) பாரதிதாசன் ஆ) திருேள் ளுேர் இ)இரா.இளங் குமரனார்.

25.திருேள் ளுேருக்கு திருச்சி --------- ல் தேச்சிலல அலமத்தேர் இளங் குமரனார்.

26. -------------- நூலகம் அலமத்தேர் இளங் குமரனார்.

அ) பாோணர் ஆ) திருமூலர் இ) நாயனார்

27.------------ இழக்க பநரிட்டாலும் கூட தாய் த்தமிழிலன இழந்து விடக்கூடாது என

அ) மலர்கலள ஆ) விழிகலள இ) பாதங் கலள

அ)தமிழிலச இயக்கம் , திருக்குறள் தமிழ் மரபுலர