Comprehensive question preview under 40 characters

Comprehensive Question Preview
Questions Choices
1.h/2
2.
h/4
As per the uncertainty principle, x.p equal to 3.

4.
Zero
1.
H
2.
H+
Perturbation theory needs to have exact solution for
3.
He+
4.
He
1.
Orthogonality
2.
Quantization
What is the physical significance of Planck’s constant?
3.
Angular Momentum
4.
Normalization
1.
30 Å
2.
1200 Å
1 eV of energy is equivalent to a photon with a wavelength about
3.
12000 Å
4.
300 Å
1.
E, C3, 3v
2.
Determine the order of the C2V point group
E, C2, 2v
3.
E, C2, i, h
Questions Choices
4.
E, S4, 3C2, 2d
1.
D5h
2.
C5h
Identify the point group to which the staggered ferrocene belongs
3.
D5d
4.
C5d
1.
Radio-frequency
2.
Microwave
Both NMR and NQR spectra are observed in ---------- region.
3.
X-ray
4.
UV-Vis
1.
75
2.
45
The ESR spectrum of anthracene radical anion consists of
3.
60
4.
0
1.
CO
2.
Which one of the following diatomic molecule does not give a HCl
rotational spectrum? 3.
HF
4.
H2
1.
A compound shows a H NMR peak at 240 Hz downfield from the 2
1
TMS peak in a spectrometer operating at 60 MHz. The chemical 2.

shift (in ppm) is 1
3.
Questions Choices
4
4.
3
1.
42c22eµ
2.
If force constant, k, of a diatomic simple harmonic oscillator 42c2eµ2
(SHO) is equal to 3.
4c2eµ2
4.
162c2eµ2
1.
Langmuir
2.
Freundlich
Which of the following is a multilayer adsorption isotherm model? 3.
BET
4.
Gibb’s adsorption
isotherm
1.
Pure rotational spectra
2.
Frank Condon principle is used for the interpretation of the Vibrational spectra
intensity of 3.
Raman spectra
4.
Microwave spectra
1.
Mw/Mn
2.
Mn/Mw
Polydispersity index of polymer is
3.
Mn+Mw
4.
Mn-Mw
1.
Optical properties of colloids can be explained by Electrophoresis
2.
Questions Choices
Tyndall Effect
3.
Electro-Osmosis
4.
Brownian movement
1.
Potential energy of the
products
2.
Heat of the reaction
In a chemical reaction, a catalyst changes the
3.
Potential energy of the
reactants
4.
Activation energy
1.
Tetragonal
2.
A crystal has the lattice parameters a ≠ b ≠ c and α = β = γ = 90 ,
o Monoclinic
The crystal system is 3.
Orthorhombic
4.
Cubic
1.
Diamagnetic
2.
Paramagnetic
Neel temperature is associated with ---------- solids
3.
Ferromagnetic
4.
Anti-ferromagnetic
1.
Reflection
2.
Bragg’s law in X-ray diffraction assumes ---------- of X-rays from Transmission
successive planes of atoms 3.
Absorption
4.
Rotation
Questions Choices
1.
bond order is zero and it
is paramagnetic
2.
bond order is zero and it
is diamagnetic
According to MO theory for the atomic species C2
3.
bond order is two and it is
paramagnetic
4.
diamagnetic
1.
10
The overall rate of the following series of reactions is
2.
A→B k1 = 10 sec-1 102
B→C k2 = 102 sec-1 3.
104
C→D k3 = 104 sec-1
4.
107
1.
Filling of 5d before 4f
2.
The lanthanide contraction is due to
3.
Filling of 4f before 5d
4.
1.
1.5
2.
2
The bond order of O2+ is
3.
2.5
4.
3.5
1.
1/16
2.
If an isotope has a half-life of 30 years, how much of an 1/32
original sample remains after 120 years? 3.
1/64
4.
1/8
1.
d-d transitions
2.
Electron transfer from Fe(H2O)62+ to Fe(H2O)63+ is likely Inner sphere electron transfer
occur via 3.
SN1 mechanism
4.
Outer sphere electron transfer
1.
Ligand to metal charge
transfer
2.
Metal to ligand charge transfer
MnO4− is colored due to
3.
d-d transitions
4.
d-d transitions and ligand to
metal charge transfer
1.
1.73 BM
2.
2.83 BM
The spin-only magnetic moment of K3[Fe(CN)6] is
3.
4.90 BM
4.
5.92 BM
1.
[Fe(H2O)5NO]3+
2.
The complex formed in the brown ring test for nitrates is [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+
3.
[Fe(H2O)4NO]2+
4.
[Fe(H2O)4NO]3+
1.
NH4OH
2.
NH3
The conjugate base of NH4+is
3.
OH-
4.
NH2
1.
3 and 6
2.
The total number of metal-metal bonds in Ru3(CO)12 and 4 and 5
Co4(CO)12 respectively, is 3.
0 and 4
4.
3 and 4
1.
Alkene hydrogenation
2.
Alkene polymerization
Ziegler-Natta catalysis is
3.
Hydroformylation of alkenes
4.
Alkyene metathesis
1.
[PtCl2(NH3)2]2-
2.
Trans-[PtCl2(NH3)2]
The reaction of [PtCl4]2- with NH3 gives rise to
3.
[PtCl2 (NH3)2]
4.
Cis-[PtCl2(NH3)2]
1.
B5H9
2.
Which one of the following will show closo structure? B12H122-
3.
B4H10
4.
B5H11
1.
CH4
2.
CH3
[Co(CO)4] is isolobal with
3.
CH
4.
CH2
1.
3
F2
2.
5
D0
The ground state term symbol of V3+ion is
3.
3
F4
4.
2
D5/2
1.
Change in weight
2.
The property measured in derivative thermogravimetric Rate of change in weight
(DTG) analysis is 3.
Heat evolved or absorbed
4.
Change in temperature
1.
Borazine
2.
Phosphazene
Inorganic benzene is called
3.
Phosphazane
4.
Sulphur cluster
1.
d-d transition
The red colour of oxyhaemoglobin is mainly due to the 2.
transition
3.
Ligand to metal charge transfer
transition
4.
Intraligand π- π* transition
1.
Stronger 2p (B) – 2p (F) σ-
bonding
2.
Stronger 2p (B) – 2p (F) π-
The Lewis acidity of BF3 is less than BCl3 even though bonding
fluorine is more electronegative than chlorine. This is due
to 3.
Stronger 2p (B) – 3p (Cl) σ-
bonding
4.
Stronger 2p (B) – 3p (Cl) π-
bonding
Questions Choices
1.
I>II>III>IV
Arrange the following in increasing order of CO
stretching 2.
I. V(CO)6 II<I<III<IV
II. Cr(CO)6 3.
III. [Mn(CO)6]+ I<II<III<IV
IV. CO
4.
III<I<II<IV
1.
Li2
2.
Among the following diatomic molecules, the one that B2
shows EPR signal is 3.
C2
4.
N2
1.
The correct IUPAC name of the spiro compound is 1-oxaspiro [4, 3] octane
2.
5-oxaspiro [4, 3] octane
3.
Questions Choices
4.
1.
ANS=1
2.
Formula of N,N-dimethylethanamide is
3.
4.
1.
Which of the following compound is not aromatic? Compound B
2.
Compound A
3.
Compound D
4.
Compound C
Determine the reactant A in the following reaction
1.
Questions Choices
2.
3.
4.
1.
Thermally allowed
2.
Thermally not allowed
3.
Photo chemically
allowed
4.
Both thermally and photo
chemically allowed
1.
Acetonitrile is a Polar protic solvent
2.
Questions Choices
Polar aprotic solvent
3.
Non-polar solvent
4.
Hydroxylic solvent
1.
Umpolung
2.
Dipole moment
The term “reversal of polarity” refers to
3.
Polarization
4.
Equilibrium reaction
1. True and True
Both ε and χ are dimensionless: The statement is
0 e
________ and ______ respectively

2. False and True
3. True and False
4. False and False
1.
Imaginary and even
2.
Imaginary and Odd
If x(t) is even, then X(j Omega) is
3.
Real and Even
4.
Real and Odd
1.
Information Rate
2.
Which among the following is used to construct the binary Noiseless Channel
code that satisfies the prefix condition? 3.
Channel Coding Theorem
4.
Kraft Inequality
The following reaction is an example of 1.
Robinson annulation
2.
Dieckmann condensation
3.
Stobbe condensation
Questions Choices
4.
Aldol condensation
1.
2.
Most stable free radical 3.
4.
1.
[2+2] thermal cyclization
2.
[4+2] photo addition
Diels-Alder reaction is a
3.
[4+2] cyclo addition
4.
1.
4e−
2.
6e−
Pyridine has a delocalized -molecular orbital containing
3.
8e−
4.
12e−
1.
Carbohydrates
Proteins are biopolymers. The monomer unit present in
them are 2.
Amino acids
3.
Questions Choices
Fatty acids
4.
Alkenes
The expected position of the max in the following trienone
is 1.
244 nm
2.
349 nm
3.
305 nm
4.
360 nm
1.
CH3COOH
Which of the following compound is expected to show a 2.
sharp singlet for one of its protons at 8 ppm in 1H NMR CH3CONHC6H5
spectrum, given that this signal remains unaffected on 3.
shaking the solution thoroughly with D2O? n-C6H13CCH
4.
n-C6H13CHO
1.
2.
Among the following compounds, the one that undergoes

de-protonation most readily in the presence of base to form
a carbanion is 3.
4.
The electrophilic aromatic substitution proceeds through a 1.

Questions Choices
Free radical
2.
Sigma complex
3.
Benzyne
4.
Carbene
1.
[2, 3] sigmatropic shift
2.
Fisher’s indole synthesis involves
3.
4.
1.
2.
The major product of the reaction is
3.
4.
1.
Wolff rearrangement
The following reaction is an example of
2.
Benzylic acid rearrangement
3.
Questions Choices
Steven’s rearrangement
4.
Wagner-Meerwin rearrangement
1.
2.
Among the following, the most stable isomer for 3-

methoxycyclohexanol is 3.
4.
1.
100 to 1000
2.
0.1 to 10
The size of nanoparticles is between---------nm
3.
1 to 100
4.
0.01 to 1
1.
Strong bonds like covalent
bonds
2.
Supramolecular chemistry is the study of Magnetic properties
3.
Hydrogen bonding
and − interactions
4.
Questions Choices
Electronic trasitions
1.
Diazepam
2.
Procaine
Which of the following is used as a local anesthetic agent?
3.
Mescaline
4.
Seconal
1.
CsCl
2.
LiF
Pixels in the high definition T.V. monitors are made of
3.
ZnS
4.
BaS
1.
Antituberculosis
2.
Anticancer
Cis-Platin is a well-known---------metal drug.
3.
Antibacterial
4.
Antifungal
1.
Use of catalysts
2.
Recycling
Which of the following is/are not part of the Twelve
Principles in green chemistry? 3.
Accident prevention
4.
Use of less hazardous or no
solvents
1. Asynchronous detector
The envelop detector is an 2. Synchronous detector
3. Coherent detector
4. Product demodulator
1. Low Pass Filter (LPF) alone
PAM signal can be demodulated by using a 2. Schmitt trigger followed by
LPF
Questions Choices
3. Clipper circuit followed by a
LPF
4. Differentiator followed by a
LPF
Which technology has a longer handset battery life? 1. TDMA
2. FDMA/TDMA
3. CDMA
4. SDMA
1. By a multiplicative factor N
In FHSS, spectrum of transmitted signal is spread 2. Sequentially
3. Instantaneously
4. Additively
1. 16,000 bps
The capacity of an analog communication channel with 2. 8,000 bps
4kHz bandwidth and 15dB SNR is approximately 3. 20,000 bps
4. 10,000 bps
1. zener
In a comparator with output bounding, what type of diode 2. junction
is used in the feedback loop? 3. shottky
4. varactor
Questions Choices
1. 20dB
If bit energy to noise density ratio is 10dB and feedback shift 2. 30dB
length is 10, then the jamming margin is approximately 3. 32dB
4. 26dB
1. Asymmetric data
subscriber loop
2. .Asymmetric data
ADSL Stands for subscriber line
3. Asymmetric digital
subscriber loop
4. Asymmetric digital
subscriber line
The cellular technology that brings perfect real world wireless is 1. 3G
called WWWW : "World Wide Wireless Web" is 2. 4G
3. 1G
4. 2G
1. finite geometric series
The Z-transform is a, 2. geometric series
3. infinite power series
4. finite series
A current of 3+j4 amperes is flowing through the circuit.The
1.7 A 2.1 A 3.5 A 4.1.33 A
magnitude of the current is _______
If a signal f(t) has an energy E, the energy of the signal f(2t) is 1.
equal to E
Questions Choices
2.
E/2
3.
2E
4.
4E
1.
. If the transfer function of a first-order system
10 seconds.
isG(s)=1/(1+2s),then the time constant
of the system is
2. 0.1second.
3. 2 seconds.
4. 0.5second.
1.
y(n) = nx(n)
2.
y(n) = x(n)x(n-1)
which of the following systems are invertible?
3.
y(t) = dx(t)/dt
4.
y(n) = x(1-n)
1.
causal, linear and time
variant
2.
causal, linear, time invariant
The discrete time system described by y(n) = x(n^2) is 3.
non-causal, linear, time
invariant
4.
non-causal, linear, time
variant
1.
cycles of input
Rectifier output polarity depends upon: 2. diode installation
3.
capacitor polarity
4. half or full wave
1.
causal and memory less
The system y(n+2)+y(n+1) = x(n+2) is
2.
causal and has memory
Questions Choices
3.
is causal
4.
is non-causal
1.
y(t) = x(2t)
2.
y(t) = x(t) + x(t-1)
Which of the following system is time invariant
3.
y(t) = x(t/2)
4.
y(t) = x(-t)
1.
linear, time variant
2.
linear, time invariant
The system y(t) = x(3t-6) is
3.
non linear, time variant
4.
non linear, time invariant
1.
stable, causal
2.
non-causal, stable
The system y(t) = e^x(t) is
3.
non stable, causal
4.
unstable, non causal
1. One
In CDMA, Reduction of co channel interference due to 2. Zero
processing gain allows frequency reuse factor of ________. 3. Infinity
4. Ten
1.
16 Mbps
Assuming that the channel is noiseless, if TV channels are 8 kHz 2.

24 Mbps
wide with the bits/sample = 3Hz and signaling rate = 16 ×
3.
106 samples/second, then what would be the value of data rate?
48 Mbps
4.
64 Mbps
Questions Choices
1.
stable, but not causal
2.
The impulse response of a linear time invariant system is given stable and causal
by h(n) = u(n+3) + u(n-2) -2u(n-7), where u(n) is unit step
sequence. The above system is 3.
causal, but unstable
4.
1.
unstable, because it is FIR
system
2.
stable, because it is an IIR
system
The system represented by h(n) = 0.99^n u(n+2) is 3.
unstable, because it does
not obey BIBO stability
criterion
4.
stable, because it obeys
BIBO stability criterion
1.
N(N-1)
2.
The direct evaluation of DFT requires ______________ N^2
complex multiplications. 3.
N(N+1)
4.
N(N-1)/2
1.
Only sine terms
2.
Only cosine terms
If f(t) = f(-t) and f(t) satisfies the Dirichlet's conditions, then f(t) 3.
can be expanded in a Fourier series containing Cosine terms and constant
term
4.
Sine terms and a constant
term
Questions Choices
1.
150 samples / sec
2.
The Nyquist sampling rate for the signal g(t) = 10 cos (50 pi t) 200 samples/ sec
cos^2 (150 pi t), where t is in seconds is 3.
300 samples / sec
4.
350 samples/ sec
1.
x(t-12 )
2.
Convolution of x(t+5) with impulse function \delta(t-7) is equal x(t+12)
to 3.
x(t-2)
4.
x(t+2)
1.
non-causal, stable
2.
non-causal, unstable
The system with impulse response h(t) = e^-6|t| is
3.
causal, unstable
4.
causal, stable
1.
convolution
2.
A good measure of similarity between two signals x1(t) and correlation
x2(t) is 3.
power density spectrum
4.
fourier transform
1.
DC term
2.
The trigonometric fourier series of an even function of time does
Cosine term
not have the
3.
Sine term
4.
Questions Choices
Odd harmonic temrs
1.
c^*_n
2.
If the Fourier series coefficients of x(t) are c_n , then the Fourier c_-n
series coefficients of x(-t) is given by 3.
c^*_-n
4.
c_n
1.
Only sine terms
2.
If the periodic signal has an even symmetry, then the Fourier Only cosine terms
series contains, 3.
Constant and cosine terms
4.
Both sine and cosine terms
1.
j Im {x_n}
2.
Re{c_n}
The Fourier series coefficients of the even part of x(t) are
3.
Even {c_n}
4.
Odd {c_n}
1.
real and odd
2.
imaginary and odd
If x(t) is even, then its Fourier series coefficients must be
3.
real and even
4.
imaginary and even
1.
c_n d_n
If x(t) and y(t) are two periodic signals, with Fourier series
2.
coefficients c_n and d_n respectively, then the Fourier series
Tc_n d_n
coefficients of z(t) = x(t)y(t) are
3.
c_n *d_n
Questions Choices
4.
1/T c_n d_n
1.
X(f) is complex
2.
X(f) is imaginary
If X(f) represents the Fourier transform of a signal x(t), which is
real and odd symmetric in time, then 3.
X(f) is real
4.
X(f) is real and non-
negative
1.
Periodic continuous spectra
2.
Aperiodic discrete spectra
Continuous time non periodic signal has 3.
Aperiodic continuous
spectra
4.
Periodic discrete spectra
1.
Imaginary and odd
2.
Imaginary and even
If x(t) is odd, then X(j omega) is
3.
Real and odd
4.
Real and even
1.
Uniform
2.
Sine function
The amplitude spectrum of Gaussian pulse is 3.Gaussian function
4.
An impulse function
1.
A signal x(t) has Fourier transform X(j omega). If x(t) is a real
A real and even function
and even function of t, then X(j omega) is
of omega
Questions Choices
2.
Imaginary and odd function
of omega
3.
An imaginary and even
function of Omega
4.
A real and odd function of
Omega
1.
Real and even
2.
Imaginary and even
The Fourier transform of odd signal is
3.
Imaginary and odd
4.
Real and odd
1.
N log_2 N
2.
The number of complex multiplications required to calculate N N/2 log_10 N
point DFT using radix-2 DIT-FFT algorithm is 3.
N log_10 N
4.
N/2 log_2 N
1.
200
2.
The Nyquist sampling frequency in Hz of a signal given by 6 x 300
10^4 sinc(400\pit) x 10^6 sinc(100\pit) is 3.
500
4.
1000
1.
1
2.
Fourier transform of impulse function is -1
3.
2
4.
Questions Choices
Can not be found
1.
2/(j omega)
2.
1/(j omega)
Fourier transform of u(t) is
3.
-1/ (j omega)
4.
1
1. PORT12
____ PORT in 8051 is requiring external pull up resistor 2. PORT3
network 3. PORT0
4. PORT1
1. Friction
The transient response of a system is mainly due to: 2. Inertia forces
3. Internal forces
4. Stored energy
1. SSB-SC
Which modulation technique is not suitable for audio, video but 2. VSB-SC
is used for transmission of telephone signals? 3. AM
4. DSB-SC
1.linear. 2.time-invariant.
Superposition theorem is applicable only to networks that are:
3.nonlinear. 4.passive.
1. 10
The acceptable VSWR level of the antenna is upto ...................... 2. 0.1
3. 1
4. 2
1. The electric field of the
radiating horn is
perpendicular to ground.
The radiation pattern we measure for a horn antenna is of E- 2. The magnetic field of the
plane type. At what condition radiating horn is in circular
direction
we will say it is an E-plane type. 3. The electric field of the
radiating horn is parallel to
ground.
4. The magnetic field of the
ground
1. local oscillator operates
below the signal frequency
2. mixer input must be
In broadcast super heterodyne receiver, the tuned to the signal
frequency
3. local oscillator frequency
is normally double the IF
Questions Choices
4. RF amplifier normally
works at 455KHz above the
carrier frequency
The largest frequency that will be returned to earth when 1. hop frequency
transmitted vertically under given ionosphere conditions is 2. Critical frequecny
called the_________. 3. LUF
4. MUF
1.to provide for setup
times and hold times 2.to
Why would a delay gate be needed for a digital circuit? provide for hold times 3.to
provide for setup times4.A
delay gate is never needed.
1. linear if b<0
The system characterized by the equation y(t)=ax(t)+b is 2. linear for any value of b
3. non-linear
4. linear if b>0
1. 750 KHz
A super heterodyne receiver with an IF of 450KHz is tuned to a 2. 900 KHz
signal at 1200KHz. The image frequency is 3. 2100 KHz
4. 1650 KHz
1. Skin effect
2. Coupling capacitor at the
Generally, the gain of a transistor amplifier falls at high output
frequencies due to the 3. Coupling capacitor at the
input
4. Internal capacitance of
the device
1. broadside array
Yagi antenna is 2. circular array
3. planar array
4. end fire array
1. P = 1, P = 1, P = 0
Determine odd parity for each of the following data words: 2. P = 0, P = 0, P = 1
1011101;11110111; 1001101 3. P = 0, P = 0, P = 0
4. P = 1, P = 1, P = 1
If the radiation from the antenna is expressed in terms of the
1. Voltage pattern
field
2. field pattern
strength(either E or H ) then the radiation pattern is called as
3. current pattern
4. reflection pattern
1.
Barrel distortion
A sinusoidal signal is passed through an amplifier and results in 2.
the following waveform. What form of distortion is Crossover distortion
predominant?
3.
Clipping
4.
Questions Choices
Harmonic distortion
1. 16,00
“A” register of 8051 is of ___ bit wide and it is loaded with the 2. 16,0000
default value of ___ after reset. 3. 8,07
4. 8,00
1.
less, faster
2.
Dynamic RAM consumes ________ Power and ________ then more, faster
the Static RAM 3.
less, slower
4.
more, slower
1. 20H through 2FH
Bit-addressable memory locations are: 2. 30H through 3FH
3. 40H through 4FH 4. 10H
through 1FH
1.
3
2.
4
The 8051 can handle ________ interrupt sources. 3.
5
4.
6
1.
PC and ACC
2.
.__________ and ________are the two 16 bit registers in 8051 PC and DPTR
3.
IE and PC
4.
Questions Choices
ACC and B
1. Program code is stored in
on-chip RAM
2. DATA is stored in on-
. In 8051, what indicates when EA is connected to ground? chip RAM
3. Program code is stored
in external ROM
on-chip ROM
1.
1
2.
2
The 8051 has ________ 16-bit counter/timers 3.
3
4.
4
1.
INT0
2.
INT1
Which is the non-maskable interrupt in 8051?
3.
TIMER0
4.
RESET
1.
16K
2.
What is the maximum size of the memory that can be interfaced 32K
with 8051? 3.
64K
4.
128K
1.
INT 0
2.
What is the alternative function of P3.2 in 8051? INT 1
3.
COUNTER
4.
Questions Choices
TIMER INTERRUPT
1.
MOV PC,#0022h
2.
MOV DPTR,#0022H
Odd one out the following
3.
MOVC A,@A+DPTR
4.
MOV A,R0
1.
TF0,RI
2.
TF0,TI
RETI instruction clears the following flags
3.
TF0,IE0
4.
RI,TI
1.
R0
2.
ACCUMLATOR
Serial data bits being received are initially stored in
3.
SBUF
4.
TF0
1.
3 PORTS
2.
2 PORTS
To interface LCD to 8051 we need
3.
1 PORTS
4.
4 PORTS
1.
00H-77H
What is the address range of SFR Register bank? 2.
40H-80H
3.
Questions Choices
80H-7FH
4.
80H-FFH
Point charges 30nC,-20nCand 10nC are located at (-
1.20nC 2.10nC 3.30nC 4.-
1,0,2),(0,0,0) and (1,5,-1), respectively. The total flux leaving a
20nC
cube of side 6m centered at the origin is
1. less gain
The purpose of using more directors in Yagi Uda antenna is to 2. more gain
achieve 3. less bandwidth
4. more bandwidth
Bandwidth of broad band antennas is 1. infinity
2. 10:1 ratio
3. 0:1 ratio
4. 2:1 ratio
1.Points of different
Suppose a uniform electric field exists in the room in which you potential. 2.Points of the
are working, such that the lines of force are horizontal and at same potential
right angles to one wall. As you walk toward the wall from (equipotential line)?
which the lines of force emerge into the room, are you walking 3.Points of lower potential?
toward 4.Points of higher
potential?
1. emitter current (I ) versus
E
collector-emitter voltage
(V ) with (V ) base bias
CE BB
voltage held constant

2. collector current (I ) C
versus collector-emitter
voltage (V ) with (V ) base
C BB
bias voltage held constant

A collector characteristic curve is a graph showing ____ 3. collector current (I ) C
voltage (V ) with (V ) base
CC BB
bias voltage held constant

4. collector current (I ) C
voltage (V ) with (V )
CE BB
base bias voltage held

constant
Questions Choices
1. Zero
What is PSRR value of an ideal op-amp? 2. Unity
3. Infinite
4. Unpredictable
Questions Choices
1. perpendicular to the charge
The direction of electric field due to positive 2.parallel to the charge
charge is
3. towards the charge
4. away from the charge
1. I – I
B C
Total emitter current is 2. I – I

E C
3. I + I
B C
4. I + I
C E
1. become zero
If the sheet of a bakelite is inserted between the 2. increase
plates of an air capacitor, the capacitance will 3. decrease
4. remains unchanged
1.
32 bytes
2.
64 bytes
The internal RAM memory of the 8051 is:
3.
128 bytes
4.
256 bytes
1. Conjugate matching
For Maximum gain amplifier design, what kind 2. Complex matching
of matching been proposed? 3. Resistive matching
4. lattice matching.
1.
2
2.
3
The 8051 has ________ parallel I/O ports.
3.
4
4.
5
1.
PSW.5=0 and PSW.4=1
2.
How are the bits of the register PSW PSW.2=0 and PSW.3=1
affected if we select Bank2 of 8051? 3.
PSW.3=1 and PSW.4=1
4.
PSW.3=0 and PSW.4=1
Questions Choices
1.
8 bytes
2.
How many bytes of bit addressable memory 32 bytes
is present in 8051 based micro controllers? 3.
16 bytes
4.
128 bytes
1.
11010111
The contents of the accumulator after the
following operation 2.
11011010
MOV A,#0BH
ANL A,#2CH 3.
00001000
will be
4.
00101000
1.
ADD @R3, @A
2.
Which of the following statements will add ADD @A, R3
the accumulator and register 3? 3.
ADD R3, A
4.
ADD A, R3
1.
MOV A, P27
2.
Which of the following commands will move MOV A, #27H
the number 27H into the accumulator? 3.
MOV A, 27H
4.
MOV A, @27
1.
MOV A, 04H
Which of the following commands will copy 2.
the contents of location 4H to the MOV A, L4
accumulator? 3.
MOV L4, A
4.
Questions Choices
MOV 04H, A
1.
DPTR
2.
When 8051 wakes up then 0x00 is loaded to SP
which register? 3.
PC
4.
PSW
1.
PSW
2.
When the micro controller executes some SP
arithmetic operations, then the flag bits of
which register are affected? 3.
DPTR
4.
PC
1.
to the next instruction which is to be
executed
2.
When any interrupt is enabled, then where to the first instruction of ISR
does the pointer moves immediately after
this interrupt has occurred? 3.
to the first location of the memory
called the interrupt vector table
4.
to the end of the program
1.
MOVX A, @DPTR
2.
Which of the following comes under indexed MOVC @A+DPTR,A
addressing mode? 3.
MOV A,R0
4.
MOV @R0,A
1.
What is the disadvantage of a level triggered a constant pulse is to be maintained for
pulse? a greater span of time
2.
Questions Choices
difficult to analyse its effects
3.
it is difficult to produce
4.
another interrupt may be caused, if
the signal is still low before the
completion of the last instruction
1.
MOV A,P0
2.
Which instruction is used to check the status ADD A,#05H
of a single bit? 3.
JNB PO.0, label
4.
CLR P0.05H
1.
immediate
2.
Which addressing mode is used in pushing direct
or popping any element on or from the
stack? 3.
indirect
4.
register
1.
$
2.
Which operator is the most important while #
assigning any instruction as register indirect
instruction? 3.
@
4.
&
1.
- 0.25 V
2.
Determine the output voltage for this circuit - 0.125 V
with a sinusoidal input of 2.5 mV. 3.
0.25 V
4.
0.125 V
Questions Choices
A MOD-12 and a MOD-10 counter are 1. 2000kHz

cascaded. Determine the output frequency if the 2. 1500kHz
input clock frequency is 60 MHz? 3. 500kHz
4. 1000kHz
The electric and magnetic fields (components) 1. radiation
radiated from an antenna form the 2. magnetic
_______________ field. 3. electro-magnetic
4. induction
A source of angular frequency 1 rad/sec has 1.1O resistance 2.1O resistance in parallel
source impedance consisting of 1Ω resistance in with 1H inductance 3.1O resistance in
series with 1H inductance. The load that will parallel with 1F capacitor 4.1O resistance
obtain the maximum power transfer is: in series with 1F capacitor
if the differential mode voltage gain and the 1. 25dB
common mode voltage gain of the differential 2. 23dB
amplifier are 48dB and 2 dB respectively, then 3. 46dB
its common mode rejection ratio is ___ 4. 50dB
Which performance parameter of a regulator is 1. Temperature stability factor
defined as the change in regulated load voltage 2. Line regulation
due to variation in line voltage in a specified 3. Load regulation
range at a constant load current? 4. Ripple rejection
1. adjustable bandwidth circuit
A digital-to-analog converter is an application of 2. voltage-to-current converter
the 3. noninverting amplifier
4. scaling adder
1. thigh = 0.695 RAC
tlow = 0.695 RBC
2. tlow = 0.695 (RA + RB)C
Thigh and Tlow for astable mode operation of thigh = 0.695 RBC
IC555 are 3. thigh = 0.695 (RA + RB)C
tlow = 0.695 (RA + 2RB)C
4. thigh = 0.695(RA + RB)C
tlow = 0.695 RBC
1. integrator
2. comparator
3. differentiator
4. summing amplifier
Questions Choices
In a ________, when the input voltage exceeds a
specified reference voltage, the output changes
state.
1. select the last input.

2. select the lowest value input.
In a flash A/D converter, the priority encoder is 3. select the highest value input.
used to 4. select the first input.
1. 0 to FH
The 8-bit address bus allows access to an address 2. 00 to FFH
range of: 3. 000 to FFFH
4. 0000 to FFFFH
1.
8
2.
The vast majority of registers in 8051 are 16
_________ bits 3.
32
4.
64
1.4 bit,00H
2.8 bit,07H
SP of 8051 is of ___ wide and it is loaded with
the default value of ___ after reset
3.8 bit,00H
4.
32 bit,00H
1.
copy R1 to the accumulator
2.
copy the accumulator to R1
MOV A, @ R1 will 3.
copy the contents of memory whose
address is in R1 to the accumulator
4.
copy the accumulator to the contents of
memory whose address is in R1
1.
MOV TH0, #35H
Which of the following instructions will load 2.
the value 35H into the high byte of timer 0? MOV TH0, 35H
3.
Questions Choices
MOV T0, #35H
4.
MOV T0, 35H
1.
CY=0,AC=0,P=0
How is the status of the carry, auxiliary carry 2.
and parity flag affected if write instruction CY=1,AC=1,P=0
MOV A,#9C 3.
ADD A,#64H CY=0,AC=1,P=0
4.
CY=1,AC=1,P=1
1.
TCON
2.
Which register is used to make the pulse a IE
level or a edge triggered pulse? 3.
IPR
4.
SCON
1.
PORT 0 and PORT 1
2.
Which of the ports act as the 16 bit address PORT 1 and PORT 2
lines for transferring data through it? 3.
PORT 0 and PORT 2
4.
PORT 1 and PORT 3
1. NOR
Which type of gate can be used to add two bits? 2. EX-NAND
3. EX-OR
4. EX-NOR
1. Asynchronous counters do not have
propagation delays, which limits their
use in high-frequency applications.
2. low-frequency applications are limited
One of the major drawbacks to the use of because of internal propagation delays
asynchronous counters is that: 3. Asynchronous counters do not have
major drawbacks and are suitable for use in
high- and low-frequency counting
applications
Questions Choices
4. high-frequency applications are limited
because of internal propagation delays
1. Hour
Information rate basically gives an idea about the 2. Distance
generated information per _____ by source 3. Second
4. Minute
1. 500 samples/sec
If a noiseless channel bandlimited to 5 kHz is
sampled every 1msec, what will be the value of 2. 800 samples/sec
sampling frequency?
3. 1000 samples/sec
4. 250 samples/sec
1. Decibel
2. Signal to Noise Ratio
On which factor/s do/does the channel capacity
depend/s in the communication system? 3. Bandwidth and SNR
4. Bandwidth
1. 1
For a (6,4) block code where n = 6, k = 4 and 2. 2

d = 3, how many errors can be corrected by this
min
code? 3. 0
4. 3
1. One
2. Two
In Repetition Code, how many information bit/s
is/are present in addition to n-1 parity bits? 3.
Four
4. Eight
Consider the assertions related to decoding
process of cyclic code. Which among the
following is a correct sequence of steps
necessary for the correction of errors? 1. D,A,C,B
A. Syndrome determination after the division of 2. C,B,D,A
r(x) & g(x)
B. Addition of error pattern to received code 3. B,A,D,C
word
C. Selection of error pattern corresponding to the 4. A,B,C,D
syndrome
D. Preparation of table comprising error patterns
and syndromes
Questions Choices
1. NRZ- Polar
2.
Symbols 1 and 0 are represented by pulse of

equal positive and negative amplitudes is called
as
RZ- Polar
3. NRZ- Unipolar
4. RZ- Unipolar
1. Bit error
2. interference
3.
If the spacing between received pulses deviated
from its assigned value a -------------- is
Data rate
introduced into the regenerated pulse position.
4.
Jitter
1. Arithmetic coding
2. Convolutional Codes
Which one is channel coding technique? 3. Shannon Coding
4. Huffman coding
1. Turbo Code
Which coding technique/s exhibit/s the usability 2. Huffman
of fixed length codes? 3. Lempel Ziv
4. Convolution code
1. uniform
2. Non Uniform
The output is zero for zero input, and the idle
channel noise is correspondingly Zero 3. Mid-tread
4. Mid-riser
1. Overlapping combinations
Which of the following combinations cannot be 2. Diagonal corners
combined into K-map groups? 3. Corners in the same row
4. Corners in the same column
1.
Coherent BPSK
Which one of the following is used to detect the 2. DPSK

unknown signal 3.
QPSK
4.
Coherent BFSK
Questions Choices
1. twice
QPSK requires ----------------transmission 2. 1/3
bandwidth of the BPSK 3. 1/2
4. 1/4
1. Pe= ½ erfc (sqrt (Eb/No)
Transmitted signal energy per symbol is twice 2. Pe= ½ erfc (sqrt (Eb/2No)
the signal energy per bit. Identify the system
3. Pe= ½ erfc (sqrt (Eb/4No)
4. Pe= erfc (sqrt (Eb/No)

1.
40 %
A carrier is amplitude modulation to depth of

40%. The increase in power is
2. 20 %
3. 8 %
4.
16 %
1.
DSB-SC
Which of the following analog modulation
scheme requires the minimum transmitted power
2. AM
and minimum bandwidth?
3. SSB
4.
VSB
1. FM
2.
AM
In FDM system used for telephone, which
modulation scheme is adopted? 3.
DSB-SC
4.
SSB
1. 1
2.
In amplitude modulated system, the total power 0.75
is 600W and the power in carrier is 400W, then
the modulation index is 3. c) 0.90
4.
0.5
1.
The modulating frequency in frequency
Increased by 20 kHz
modulation is increased from 10 kHz to 20
kHz. The bandwidth is
2.
Questions Choices
doubled
3.
Halved
4. Increase tremendously
1. 35 kHz/V
2.
70 kHz/V
A sinusoidal 400 Hz modulating signal of 2V
amplitude frequency modulates a carrier and 3.
produces 70 kHz frequency deviation. The 140 kHz/V
frequency sensitivity is given by
4.
72 kHz/V
1.
IF amplifier
2.
Which one of the following blocks is not
Mixer
common in both AM and FM receiver?
3.
RF amplifier
4. Slope detector
1.
2.5 kHz
The Nyquist sampling rate for a signal band 2. 20 kHz

limited 5 kHz is 3.
5 kHz
4.
10 kHz
1.
White for all practical frequencies
2. Depends on temperature.
Johnson noise is 3.
Never white
4.
Always white
A system has a receiver noise resistance of 50 1. 101
ohm. It is connected to an antenna with an input 2.
resistance of 50 ohm. The noise figure of the 2
system is
Questions Choices
3.
1
4.
50
1.
3 db
If the number of bits per sample in PCM system
2.
is increased from n to n + 1, then the
10 db
improvement in signal to quantization noise ratio
will be
3.
6 db
4. 8db
1.
57.6 Kbps
Three analog signals, having bandwidths 1200
Hz, 600 Hz, and 600 Hz are sampled at their 2.
respective Nyquist rates, encoded with 12 bit 100 Kbps
words, and time division multiplexed. The bit
rate for the multiplexed signal is 3.
27.6 Kbps
4. 10.2 Kbps
1.
FSK
The peak amplitude of one signal level is 0; the
2. QPSK
other is the same as the amplitude of the carrier
3.
frequency
BPSK
4.
ASK
1.
10 Hz
13
2.
Thermal noise has a power spectral density 10 Hz
10
which is quite uniform upto frequencies in the

order of 3.
10 Hz
11
4.
10 Hz12
Questions Choices
1.
Lower power
Which of the following is the main advantage of 2. High power

PCM system 3.
Lower Bandwidth
4.
Lower noise
1.
Channel Bandwidth
What are the primary resources of an 2. noise

communication system 3.
power and Bandwidth
4.
Transmitted Power
1.
QPSK
2. 32PSK
Which modulation technique transmits at higher
3.
data rate
BPSK
4.
16-PSK
1.
1
2.
How many carrier frequencies are used in BFSK 2
3. 4
4.
3
1.
Walsh code
2. randaom noise
Which code is used to spread the signal across 3.
the places Fast code
4.
Pseudo-noise code
Questions Choices
1.
Erlang C
2. Erlang B
Block calls held condition specified the held a) Erlang B

probability at a time period equal to an average b) Erlang C
holding time. c) Erlang D
d) D. Poisson
3.
Erlang D
4. Poisson
1. 666
Number of channels for GSM
2. 248
3. 124
4. 333
1.
Gateway Mobile Switching Center
It is the functional entity from which the
2.
operator monitors and controls the mobile
Operation and Maintenance System
communication system.
3.
Mobile Switching Center
4. Operation and Support System

1. fidelity
2.
The ________ of radio receiver amplify weak
selectivity
signal and produce a desirable intelligence at the
output speaker.
3. sensitivity 4.
reliability
1.
833
What is the number of channels of a cellular
2.
system with an allocated spectrum of 25 MHz
1000
and with a channel of 30 kHz bandwidth?
3. 666
4.
240
1. GMSK
GSM uses what digital modulation technique?
2.
GFSK
Questions Choices
3.
QAM
4.
BPSK
1. base station controller
2.
air interface
The combination of the mobile cellular phone
and the cell-site radio equipment is known as
3.
forward link
4.
base transceiver station
1.
TDMA
A multiple access technique used in GSM 2.

cellular system. FDMA
3.
CDMA
4. TACS
1.
Diversity
In a cellular system, ________ is used to
measure the spectrum efficiency. 2. Radio capacity
3. Radio efficiency 4.
Frequency reuse
1.
935-960 MHz
The mobile-to-base station frequency assignment
2. 825-845 MHz
for GSM system is
3.
870-890 MHz
4.
890-915 MHz
1.
–3 dB frequency
The center frequency of a band-pass filter is 2. geometric average of the critical

always equal to the frequencies
3.
bandwidth divided by Q
4.
Questions Choices
bandwidth
1. limiter
2.
comparator with a sine-wave output
A zero-level detector is a 3.
peak detector
4.
comparator with a trip point referenced
to zero
Transmission of power to a load over a 1. 1:1
transmission line achieves optimum value when 2. 2:1
standing-wave ratio (SWR) becomes 3. 1:3
4. 1:2
The EM field and current are concentrated close 1. Ohm's effect
to the surface of the conductor. The phenomenon 2. Skin effect
is called 3. Faraday's effect
4. EM concentration effect
1. Power/Unit area
The Poynting Vector has the dimensions of 2. Volts
3. Power
4. Volt/Unit length
An electric potential field is produced in air by 1. 2.57mJ
point charges 1µc and 4µc located at (-2,1,5) and 2. 5.14mJ
(1,3,1) respectively. The energy stored in the 3. 10.28mJ
field is 4. 12.5mJ
1. Gradient of V
Laplacian of a scalar function V is 2. Divergence of V
3. Gradient of the gradient of V
4. Divergence of the gradient of V
1. Is independent of the attenuation
constant.
2. Has logarithmic relationship with the
For an electromagnetic wave incident on a attenuation constant
conducting medium, the depth of penetration 3. Is directly proportional to the attenuation
constant
4. Is inversely proportional to the
attenuation constant
1. surface integral and line integral
Stokes theorem relates 2. surface integral and volume integral
3. volume integral and contour integral
4. line integral and volume integral
1. J=0
For free space,
2. σ = 0
Questions Choices
3. σ = infinity
4. μ =0r
In a binary PCM system, the output signal-to-

quantizing-noise ratio is to be held to a minimum 1. 7
of 40dB. Determine the number of required bits 2. 5
for the quantizer to satisfy the above 3. 4
requirement. 4. 8
An FM station is operating at 100 MHz.

Maximum frequency deviation is 75 kHz. If the 1. 10, 180kHz
highest modulating frequency is limited to 15 2. 10, 150kHz
kHz, find the modulation index and approximate 3. 5, 180kHz
bandwidth required by the system? 4. 5, 150kHz
In the envelope of an AM wave, given Vmax = 1. 0.25, 10V

30 volts and Vmin = 10 volts. Determine the 2. 0.25, 20V
modulation index and message signal amplitude? 3. 0.5, 10V
4. 0.5, 20V
Radio channel used for transmission of 1. Reverse Control Channel
information from the mobile to the base station 2. Reverse Voice Channel
is called as ____________________ 3. Forward Voice channel
4. Forward Control Channel
1. Switching
The process of transferring a mobile station from 2. Channel Borrowing
one base station to another is__________ 3. Call Setup
4. Handoff
1. Third generation
To which one of the following generations does 2. Second generation
CDMA belong? 3. Fourth generation
4. First generation
The cell having the same number in the adjacent 1. Co channel cell
cluster using the same set of RF channels are 2. Macro cell
termed as 3. Selective Cell
4. Adjacent cell
1. Pico Cell
2. Macro Cell
The remote and sparsely populated areas will be
3. Micro Cell
covered by
4.
pentagon cell
1. Power Signal
Real audio/video signal is a/an 2. Periodic Signal
3. Energy Signal
4. Deterministic Signal
1.SDMA
The type of access used in GSM technology is 2. CDMA
3. OFDMA
4. FDMA/TDMA
Questions Choices
1. Planar Inverted-F antenna
Internal antenna for mobile handset is 2. Dish antenna
........................... 3. Horn antenna
4. Spiral antenna
1.Dynamic access
For real time voice transmission the suitable
multiple access type is 2. Fixed assignment based access
3. Random access
4. Reservation access
1. SDMA
In which of the following multiple access 2. FDMA
schemes, the frequency reuse concept is utilized? 3.TDMA
4. CDMA
Consider a repetition code where code words are 1. 1
formed by repeating each bit five times. What is 2. 4
the minimum Hamming distance for this code? 3. 5
4. 3
Consider a repetition code where code words are
formed by repeating each bit five times. Suppose 1. 4
we wish to detect and correct errors in each 2. 3
received code word. What is the maximum 3. 2
number of bit errors that we can correct? 4. 1
1. does not consists of loss to due to

diffraction, reflection and niose etc.,
Free space loss 2. does consists of loss to due to diffraction,
reflection and niose etc.,
3. reflection loss due to tall buildings
4. reflection due to ionosphere
Suppose we sample a signal at frequency Fs. If 1. 350
we collect 1500 samples in 5 seconds, what 2. 400
is Fs in Hz? 3. 300
4. 4500
1. voltage
Which is the higher gain provided by a C-E 2. Power
configuration? 3. current
4. resistance
1. Good conductor
If wet soil has σ = 10 mho/m, ε = 15, μ = 1, f = 2. semiconductor
-2
r r
60 Hz, it is a 3. good dielectric

4. magnetic material
1. semi conductor
A dielectric material must be 2. insulator
3. resistor
4. good conductor
1.width of line is large 2.width of line
Conductor loss in Microstrip line will be less if small 3.height of substrate is more 4.height
of substrate is less
Questions Choices
1. 2.26 x 10 F/m
-9
The electric susceptibility of a dielectric is 4, its 2. 4.42 x 10 F/m

-7
permittivity is 3. 5 F/m
4. 1.26 x 10 F/m
-3
The bit sequence 0010 is serially entered (right- 1. 0000

most bit first) into a 4-bit parallel out shift register 2. 0010
that is initially clear. What are the Q outputs after 3. 1000
two clock pulses?
4. 1111
_________________ and
_______________________ equations are 1. ampere, Helmholtz
necessary in a communication system to 2. Maxwell, faraday
calculate the ratio between the Rx power 3. Nyquist, sampling
and TX power. 4. Friss, radar range
Using four cascaded counters with a total of 16

bits, how many states must be deleted to achieve 1.25,536 2.65,536 3.50,000 4.15,536
a modulus of 50,000
1.a single gate 2.all flip-flops and gates
Synchronous construction reduces the delay time
after a 3 count 3.all flip-flops and gates 4.a
of a counter to the delay of
single flip-flop and a gate
With a 12 V supply, a silicon diode, and a 370- 1. 0.3 V
ohm resistor in series, what voltage will be 2. 0.9 V
dropped across the diode? 3. 1.4 V
4. 0.7 V
Solving –11 + (–2) will yield which two's- 1.1111 0011 2.1111 1001 3.1110 1001
complement answer? 4.1110 1101
With a half-wave rectified voltage across the 1. 90 degrees
load resistor, load current flows for what part of 2. 360 degrees
a cycle? 3. 180 degrees
4. 0 degrees
The voltage where current may start to flow in a 1. breakdown voltage
reverse-biased pn junction is called the 2. barrier potential
_________ 3. forward voltage
4. biasing voltage
The area at the junction of p-type and n-type 1. barrier potential
materials that has lost its majority carriers is 2. p region
called the _______ 3. depletion region
4. n region
When two counters are cascaded, the overall
MOD number is equal to the ________ of their 1.Reciprocal 2.Log 3.Sum 4.Product
individual MOD numbers
1. integrator
A triangular-wave oscillator can consist of an 2. amplifier
op-amp comparator, followed by __________ 3. differentiator
4. multivibrator
How many flip-flops are required to produce a 1. 7
divide-by-128 device? 2. 1
Questions Choices
3. 4
4. 6
1. 50 Hz
If the ac supply is 50 Hz, what will be the ripple 2. 100 Hz
frequency out of the full-wave rectifier? 3. 60 Hz
4. 120 Hz
1.
0.8 to 1.0 nm
2.
400 to 750 nm
The wavelength of visible light extends from
3.
200 to 660 nm
4.
700 to 1200 nm
A ________ filter significantly attenuates all 1. high-pass

frequencies below fc and passes all frequencies 2. band-stop
above fc. 3. band-pass
4. low-pass
1. F=AC+AD
Use Boolean algebra to find the most simplified 2.
SOP expression for F = ABD + ABC + CD
F = ABD + CD +ACD + ABC + ABCD. 3. F = CD + AD
4. F = BC + AB
1. Integrator
Another name for a unity gain amplifier is 2. Inverting Amplifier
3. Differentiator
4. Voltage follower
1. A-m
What is the unit of magnetic charge? 2. Ampere
3. A-m2
4. Coulomb
1. 4
How many exclusive-NOR gates would be 2. 6
required for an 8-bit comparator circuit? 3. 8
4. 10
To operate properly, a transistor's base-emitter 1. collector-emitter
junction must be forward biased with reverse 2. collector-base
bias applied to which junction? 3. base-emitter
4. base-collector
To reduce the effects of noise resulting in erratic 1. the upper trigger point.
switching of output states of a comparator, you 2. hysteresis.
can use 3. nonzero-level detection.
4. the lower trigger point.
For a 4-bit twisted ring counter, the maximum no of 1. 4
states possible are: 2. 2
3. 8
Questions Choices
4. 16
1. 16
For a 8-bit ring counter, the maximum no of 2. 8
states possible are : 3. 4
4. 2
1. each flip-flop
A ripple counter's speed is limited by the 2. all flip-flops and gates
propagation delay of: 3. the flip-flops only with gates
4. only circuit gates
1. input clock pulses are applied
simultaneously to each stage
2. input clock pulses are not used to
activate any of the counter stages
Synchronous counters eliminate the delay
problems encountered with asynchronous d) input clock pulses are applied
(ripple) counters because the: simultaneously to each stage
3. input clock pulses are applied only to the
last stage .
first and last stages.
1. a
The simplification of Boolean expression 2. bc
(a'bc')'+(ab'c)' is 3. 0
4. 1
1. 450
2.
200
The voltage across R and L in a series RL circuit
is found to be 200 V and 150 V respectively. The
rms value of the voltage across the series 3.
combination is __ V 250
4.
360
What is the major factor for determining whether 1. Attenuation Constant

a medium is free space, lossless dielectric, lossy 2. Loss tangent
dielctric or good conductor? 3. Complex permittivity
4. Reflection Coefficient.
1. VCC
With a PNP circuit, the most positive voltage is 2. ground

probably ______ 3. VC
4. VBE
1. fixed resistor
A transistor may be used as a switching device 2. variable resistor
or as a ______ 3. tuning device
4. rectifier
Questions Choices
In sky wave propagation, the shortest distance 1. Line of sight
covered by the single frequency untouched to the 2. skip distance
ground is called as_____________. 3. transmitted distance
4. 2 – ray distance
1. emitter voltage
When a silicon diode is forward biased, what is 2. voltage-divider bias
V for a C-E configuration?
BE
3. 0.4 V
4. 0.7 V
What is the current gain for a common-base 1. 1.05
configuration where I = 4.2 mA and I = 4.0
E C
2. 16.80
mA? 3. 0.95
4. 0.20
1.
x(t) must be absolutely integrable
2.
x(t) must have finite number of minima and
Which of the following is not the condition for maxima
existence of Fourier transform 3.
x(t) must have finite number of
discontinuous points
4.
x(t) must be even signal
1. 8 kHz.
2.
7.8 kHz.
A T-section low pass filter has series
inductor 80 mH and shunt capacitance
3.
0.022μF. What is the cut-off frequency?
7.58 kHz.
4.
7 kHz.
1. 10 s
-6
2. 15 Hours
The Relaxation time of mica (σ = 10 mho/m,
-15
3.
ε =6) is
r
5x 10 s -10
4. 5 Hours
The force between two charges is 120 N. If the 1. 15 N
distance between the charges is doubled, the 2. 30 N
force will be 3. 40 N
4. 60 N
1. 8.75
In a certain CS amplifier, V = 3.2 V and V = 2. 1
DS rms GS
280mV . The voltage gain is

rms
3. 3.2
4. 11.4
Questions Choices
1. Divergenceless
Given field A = 3x yz a + x z a + (x y – 2z) a , 2. Harmonic
2
x
3
y
3
z
it can be said that A is 3. Conservative
4. Solenoidal
1. the unity-gain cut-off frequency f T
An increase in the base recombination of a BJT 2. the common emitter dc current gain β
will increase 3. the transconductance g m
4. the breakdown voltage BV CEO
1. contact potential
The potential which exists in a p-n junction to 2. diffusion potential
cause drift of charge carriers is called ___ 3. ionisation potential
4. threshold potential
1. surface volume
Divergence theorem is applicable for a ____ that 2. line, surface
is bounded by a ________. 3. volume, surface
4. surface, line
1. 15a mA/m
x
Plane y = 0 carries a uniform current of

30a mA/m. At (1,10,-2), the magnetic
z
2. 15a mA/m
y
field intensity is ______ 3. -15a mA/m

y
4. -15a mA/m
x
1. sometimes curved
2. always straight
The lines of force due to charged particles are 3.not straight
4. always curved
1. out of the base lead
Most of the electrons in the base of an NPN 2. into the base supply
transistor flow 3. into the emitter
4. into the collector
1. inversely proportional to d
2. proportional to d
The electric field at a point situated at a distance
3. inversely proportional to H
d from straight charged conductor is
4.
proportional to H
The total electric flux through any closed surface 1. Gauss's law
surrounding charges is equal to the amount of 2. Maxwell's first law
the charge enclosed". The above statement is 3. Coulomb's square law
associated with 4. Maxwell's second law
The phenomenon of an uncharged body getting 1. chemical effect
charged merely by the nearness of a charged 2. magnetic effect
body is known as 3. pholoelectric effect
4. induction
1. Increases with decreasing band gap
The diffusion potential across a PN junction 2. Increases with increase in doping
concentrations
Questions Choices
3. Decreases with increasing doping
concentration
4. Does not depend on doping
concentration
1.curl
Electric displacement is a______quantity. 2. vector
3. scalar
4. divergenceless
The magnetic field intensity (in A/m ) at the 1. 3
centre of a circular coil of diameter 1 metre and 2. 4
carrying current of 2 A is 3. 2
4. 8
1. The edge of the depletion region on N
side
In a P N junction diode under reverse bias, the 2. The centre of the depletion region on the
+
magnitude of electric field is maximum at N side

3. The P N junction
+
4. The edge of the depletion region on P

side
2’s complement representation of a 16 bit 1. 1
number (one sign bit and 15 magnitude bits) is 2. 65535
FFFF. Its magnitude in decimal representation is 3. 32767
4. 0
1. infinity
2.
In a dielectric-conductor boundary (interface),
E t
the tangential component of electric field is
3. zero
4. 2E
t
1. 7865
No of ripple counter IC is 2. 7654
3. 7492
4. 7493
1. 75 ohm
The intrinsic impedance of free space is 2. 73 ohm
3. 120 ohm
4. 377ohm
1. Charge storage capacitance
Which of the following is NOT associated with a 2. Depletion capacitance
PN junction? 3. Channel length modulation
4. Junction capacitance
1. Multiplexer
A combinational logic circuit which generates a 2. Decoder
particular binary word or number is 3. Date Selector
4. Data Distributor
1. 10010
Convert BCD 0001 0111 to binary. 2. 11000
3. 10001
Questions Choices
4. 10101
1. gradient of F
Laplacian of a Scalar function F is
2. divergence of gradient of F
3. divergence of F
4. gradient of gradient of F
A silicon PN junction is forward biased with a 1. Increases by 60 mV
constant current at room temperature. When the 2. Decreases by 60 mV
temperature is increased by 10 C, the forward
o
3. Increases by 25 mV
bias voltage across the PN junction 4. Decreases by 25 mV
1. maximum
Electric Flux inside a conducting sphere is 2. zero
3. uniform
4. minimum
1. Forward bias region
A Zener diode when used in voltage stabilization 2. Forward bias constant current mode
circuits, is biased in 3. Reverse breakdown region
4. Reverse bias region below the
breakdown voltage
1. Resistance and capacitance in series
For small signal ac operation, a practical forward 2. Ideal diode and resistance in parallel
biased diode can be modeled as 3. Resistance
4. Resistance and ideal diode in series
1. 6
How many flip-flops are required to make a 2. 5
MOD-32 binary counter 3. 3
4. 4
1. permeability
The depth of penetration of a wave in a lossy 2. conductivity
dielectric increase with increasing 3. wavelength
4. permittivity
1. Filters
In which of the following are operational amplifiers 2. Instrumentation circuits
(op-amps) used? 3. Oscillators
4. All of the above
1. an unbalanced line
The parallel wire transmission line is an example 2. a balanced line
of 3. lossy line
4.lossless
1. α=0, β≠0
For lossless line 2. α≠0, β≠0
3. α=0, β=0
4. α≠0, β=0
1. Base emitter junction is in forward
A BJT is said to be operating in the saturation biased, and base collector junction is
region, if reverse biased
2. Both the junctions are forward biased
Questions Choices
3. Base emitter junction is in reverse
biased, and base collector junction is
forward biased
4. Both the junctions are reverse biased
1. (R + jωL)(G + jωC)
The characteristic impedances Z of a
0
2. (R+ jωL) / (G +jω C)
2
transmission line is given by, (where R, L, G, C

are the unit length parameters) 3. [(R+ jωL)/ (G +jω C)] 1/2
4. (R + jωL)/(G + jωC)
1. (Z - 1)/ (Z +1 )
s s
The reflection coefficient over the normalized Z 2. (Z + 1)/ (Z -1 )

l
l l
3. (Z - 1)/ (Z +1 )
l l
4.0
1. less than 1
In the left half of the Smith chart, the resistance 2. 2
and reactance values are
3. more than 1
4. Zero
If a transistor is operating with both of its 1. Reverse saturation mode
junctions forward biased, but with the collector 2. Reverse active mode
base forward bias greater than the emitter base 3. Forward active mode
forward bias, then it is operating in the 4. Forward saturation mode
A long transmission line is energized at then 1. Vs is greater than Vr
sending end and is kept open circuited at the 2. Vs is less than Vr
receiving end. The magnitudes of the sending
end voltage Vs and of the receiving end voltage 3.0
Vr satisfy the following relationship: 4. Vs =Vr
1. 40 ohms
The surge impedance of a double-circuit power 2. 800 ohms
transmission line is 3. 400 ohms
4. 200 ohms
1. Parasitic inductance effects
The current gain of a bipolar transistor drops at 2. The Early Effect
high frequencies because of 3. High current effects in the base
4. Transistor capacitances
1. Temperature
The velocity factor of a transmission line 2. Doppler effect
depends on 3. skin effect
4. Relative permittivity of dielectric
1.parallel wire
Which of the following lines is non-radiating? 2. waveguide
3. Open two wire

4. Coaxial
Questions Choices
In MOSFET devices, the N-channel type is 1. It has better drive capability
better than the P-channel type in the following 2. It is TTL compatible
respects 3. It has better noise immunity
4. It is faster
1. Inductance
A quarter wave line open circuited at far end 2. L and C in series
behaves as 3. Capacitance
4. L and C in parallel
1. Drain voltage
The effective channel length of a MOSFET in 2. Body voltage
saturation decreases with increase in 3. Source voltage
4. Gate voltage
1. there will be only 1 or 2 oscillations on
line
A line is excited by a 100 V dc source. If 2. the oscillations will continue
reflection coefficients at both ends are 1 each indefinitely
then 3. there will be a finite number of
oscillations on line
4. there will be no oscillations on line

1.
1.8 a mV/m ρ
2.
An infinite length of uniform line charge has 180 a mV/m ρ
ρl = 10pC/m and it lies along the z axis.

Determine the electric field E at (4, 3, 3)
3. 18 a mV/m ρ
4. 280 a mV/m
ρ
1. unaffected
The bandwidth of an amplifier is _________ by 2. attenuated
a negative feedback 3. maintained
4. augmented
1.
45 V
A point charge, Q = 10nC is at the origin. The 2. 50 V
estimated potential difference at A (1,0,0) with 3.
respect to B (2,0,0) is 30 V
4. -45 V
When the input is symmetrical, to operate the 1. at the bottom edge of the load line
BJT in active region, the quiescent point is 2. can be chosen any where on the load line
chosen 3. at the centre of the load line
4. at the top edge of the load line
Questions Choices
1.
1 Wb
1. If the flux density is 10 Wb/ m and the 2. 20 Wb
2
area of the coil is 2m , the flux is

2 3.
10 Wb
4. 40 Wb
1. 120 πΩ
The intrinsic impedance of the medium whose σ
= 0, ε = 9, μ = 1 is
r r
2. 9Ω
3. 60 πΩ
4. 40 πΩ
1. dynamic load line
AC load line is also known as ________ 2. quiescent load line
3. variable load line
4. active load line
1. B1n X B2n=0
2.
B1n /B2n
Boundary conditions for normal component in
magnetostatic field is
3. B1n=B2n
4.
B1n+B2n
1. Perpendicular to the lines and
Two thin parallel wires are carrying current attractive.
along the same direction. The force experienced 2. Parallel to the lines
by one due to other is 3. Perpendicular to the line and repulsive
4. Zero
The electric flux density on a spherical surface
r=b is the same for a point charge Q located at 1. It will be higher
the origin and for the charge Q uniformly 2. Not necessarily
distributed on surface r=a (a<b)< p="" 3. No
style="box-sizing: border-box;"></b)<> 4. yes
1. The code rate is 0.5

For a (8, 4 ,3) block code, which one of the 2. Each codeword contains 4 message bits
following statements is incorrect? 3. We can detect and correct 1 bit errors
4. We can detect 3 bit errors
1. 10 m
The wavelength of a wave with a propagation 2. 25 m
constant = 0.1π + j 0.2π 3. 30 m
4. 20 m
Questions Choices
1. Not always true
The Poynting Vector physically denotes the
power density leaving or entering a given 2. True
volume in a time varying field. 3. false
4. Not always false.
1. It is conservative
Which one of these statements is not 2. Magnetic flux lines are always closed.
characteristic of static magnetic field: 3. It is solenoidal
4. It has no sinks or sources

1.
N-C
2. N
The unit of Electric Field is 3.
C/N
4. N/C
1. 3
Given A = -6a + 3 a + 2 a , the projection of A 2. 7
x y z
along a is
y
3. -12
4. -3
1. -360π a z
Plane z = 10m carries charge 20nC/m . The 2

2. -10a V/m
z
electric Field intensity at the origin is 3. -18π a V/m z
4. -72π a V/m
z
1. D=εE
Of the following,the incorrect relation is 2. B=μH
3. J=σE
4. B=μD
Which of the concepts is used to find the 1. Concept of scalar electric potential
expression of related E and H field due to a 2. Concept of vector magnetic potential
magnetic current element? 3. Concept of scalar magnetic potential
4. Concept of vector electric potential
1. 8
The minimum number of comparators required 2. 255
to build a 8-bit flash type ADC is 3. 256
4. 63
If each character in a 45 character text message 1. 420
is encoded using an 8-bit ASCII code, how many 2. 360
bits would be required to encode the entire 3. 440
message? 4. 480
1. The excess charge on a conductor doesn't
Under electrostatic conditions where does the reside.
excess charge lies? 2. The excess charge on a conductor
resides on its outer surface
Questions Choices
3. The excess charge on a conductor resides
on its inner surface
4. The excess charge on a conductor resides
in its middle surface
Consider a system that uses 8-bit ASCII codes to encode

letters. How long will it take to transmit the bit sequence 1. 384
encoding "Good Morning" (not including quotation marks) 2. 484
if we use a bit time of 4 samples per bit, and transmit 3. 300
samples at a rate of 1MHz? Represent the answer in micro 4. 458
seconds.
1. Constant imag characteristic
impedance
A distortion less line has 2. vanishing attenuation
constant
3. Constant velocity
4.high G
1. 10
What is VSWR for short-circuited transmission lines 2. 5
3. 1
4. infinity
1. Left of the smith chart is open
circuit end
2. VSWR at centre of smith chart
Which statement is false for Admittance smith chart. is 2
3. Right of the smith chart is
short circuit end
4. Reflection coefficietn at centre
of smith chart is 1
1.
100
For the transfer function given below find the gain at very low
frequencies (assume DC). 2.
0
3.
10
4.
1
Consider a repetition code where code words are formed by
repeating each bit five times. Suppose we receive the
following bitstream. 1. 01010110
2. 11010110
0000011110000111111011000111001111000001 3. 01010111
If we assume that we can both detect and correct errors, 4. 01010100
what was the original bit stream?
1. TM10 and TE10
Which mode is known as dominant mode for Rectangular 2. TM10
waveguide 3. TM11
4. TE10
1.
Microstrip line
Which of these trasmission line supports Quasi-TEM mode 2. Strip line
3. Microstrip line and Stripline
Both
4. Parallel Plate waveguide
1. 1 to infinity
What is the theoretical range of VSWR 2. 0 to 1
3. - infinity to + infinity
4. -1 to 1
1. 0 to 1
What is the range of magnitude of reflection coefficient due 2. 1 to infinity
to passive load 3. 0.5 to 1
4. 0 to infinity
In a GSM system, eight channels co-exist in 200 kHz
bandwidth using TDMA. A GSM based cellular operator is 1. 40
allocated 5 MHz bandwidth. Assuming a frequency reuse 2. 100
factor of 1/5 (five-cell repeat pattern), the maximum of 3. 50
simultaneous channels that can exist in one cell is 4. 200
1.
What is the highest frequency content of a 250 kHz, 6.37 V
triangle wave of 30-V peak-to-peak amplitude that 2.
can be exactly reproduced by an op amp whose 146 kHz, 5.45 V
slew rate is 10 V/µs? Also For a sine wave of the 3.
same frequency what is the maximum amplitude 300 KHz, 3.54 V
of output signal that remain un-distorted?
4.
167 KHz, 9.53 V
1. Quarter wave matching

Which of the matching network is having higher bandwidth 2. Single stub shunt matching
for a given load. 3. Single stub series matching
4. Double stub matching
1.
100 kHz
2.
A 741 op-amp has a gain bandwidth product of 1 MHz. A non 300 kHz
inverting amplifier using this op-amp and having a voltage gain of 40
dB will exhibit a 3 dB bandwidth of how much? 3.
10 kHz
4.
500 kHz
1. 10 N 6
0
An additive white Gaussian process X(t) is passed through
2. 2 x 10 N 6
0
an ideal bandpass filter of center frequency 100 MHz and
3. N 0
bandwidth 2 MHz. Let X(t) have a power spectral density 4. N /2 0
of N /2 and the output of BPF is P(t). The variance of P(t) is

0
The op- amp circuit shown below is a certain class of filter. Find the type
of the filter
1.
A) High Pass Filter
2.
A) Low Pass Filter
3.
A) Band Reject Filter
4.
A) Band Pass filter
Diversity technique is a method for improving which of the 1. All are Correct
following message signal by utilizing two or more 2. Reliability
communication channels with different characteristics? 3. Error detection capability
4. Error correction capability
1.
25.53 mV
An amplifier using an op-amp with a slew rate of 1V/µ has a gain of 60 dB. 2.
If the amplifier has to faithfully amplify the sinusoidal signals from DC to 3.98 mV
40 KHz without introduced any slew rate induced distortion, then the input
signal must not exceed what value?
3.
34.4 mV
4.
32.89 mV
A rate 1/2 convolution code with d = 10 is used to encode

frec
1. 7 dB
a data requeence occurring at a rate of 1 kbps. The 2. 12 dB
modulation is binary PSK. The DS spread spectrum 3. 14 dB
sequence has a chip rate of 10 MHz. The coding gain is 4. 24 dB
1. the lower the modulating
power required
One of the advantages of base modulation over collector 2. high power output per
modulation of a transistor class C amplifier transistor
3. better efficiency
4. better linearity
1. it is more noise immune than
other modulation system
2. compared with other system it
requires less transmitting power
Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because 3. its use avoids receiver
complexity
4. no other modulation system
can provide the necessary
bandwidth for high fidelity
In a CD player, the sampling rate is 44.1 kHz and the 1. 1.39 x 10 9
samples are quantized using a 16-bit/sample quantizer. The 2. 4.23 x 10 9
resulting number of bits for a piece of music with a 3. 8.46 x 10 9
duration of 50 minutes is 4. 12.23 x 10 9
A receiver is operated at a temperature of 300 K. The 1. 1.8 µV

transistor used in the receiver has an average output 2. 12.6 µV
resistance of 1 kΩ. The Johnson noise voltage for a receiver 3. 4.3 µV
with a bandwidth of 200 kHz is 4. 0.8 µV
1. frequency shift and phase shift
2. superimposing a low
Amplitude modulation is the process of frequency on a high frequency
3. superimposing a high
frequency on a low frequency
4. carrier interruption
1. Impulse Noise
One of the following types of noise becomes a great 2. Shot Noise
importance at high frequencies 3. Transit Time Noise
4. Random Noise
1. Unchanged
The value of the resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. 2. Halved
The noise power generated is therefore 3. Quadrupled
4. Doubled
1. Galactic Noise
Indicate the noise whose source is in a category different 2. Cosmic Noise
from that of the other three 3. Atmospheric Noise
4. Solar Noise
1. Thermal Noise Agitation
Which of the following is the most reliable measurement 2. Shot Noise
for comparing amplifier noise characteristics? 3. Signal to Noise ratio
4. Noise Factor
1. Increase by 50%
The modulation index of an AM is changed from 0 to 1. 2. Unchanged
The transmitted power is 3. Halved
4. Doubled
1. the carrier frequency cannot
disappear
2. the total number of side-bands
not depend on the modulation
index
In the spectrum of a frequency modulated wave 3. the carrier frequency
disappears when the modulation
index is large
4. the amplitude of any
sideband depends on the
modulation index
1.
For the given circuit below for the cut off frequency of 3 kHz find the
4.5 kOhm
value of R2
2.
10.61 kOhm
3.
3.4 kOhm
4.
1.9 kOhm
Find the cut off frequency for the filter circuit given below
1.
1000 rad/sec
2.
A) 2000 rad/sec
3.
A) 200 rad/sec
4.
A) 100 rad/sec
1.
55.25%
2.
An amplifier for which design was done with A =100 and β=0.01 is 70%
manufactured using an amplifier with half the intended gain. Find the
sensitivity of the closed loop to open loop gain in dB? 3.
13%
4.
67%
1.
ROC can not have a pole
2.
ROC is right side of right most
Which of the following is not the property of Region of pole if x(t) is causal
convergence 3.
ROC can not have a zero
4.
ROC is left side of left most pole
if x(t) is anti causal
1. Frequency multiplications
Indicate the false statement regarding the Armstrong must be used
modulation system 2. AFC is not needed, as the
crystal oscillator is used
3. the system is basically phase
and not frequency modulation
4. Equalization is unnecessary
1.
differentiating x(t)
2.
x(t) - x(t-1)
x(t)*u(t) is equivalent to
3.
accumulating x(t)
4.
x(t) + x(t+1)
1. is too great to make the two
system compatible
2. is purely theoretical because
The difference between the phase and frequency they are the same in practice
modulation 3. lies in the different
definitions of the modulation
index
4. lies in the poorer audio
response of the phase modulation
1. an impulse
The Fourier transform of the exponential signal e t is
jω
0
2. a constant
3. a rectangular gate
4. a series of impulses
When the modulating frequency is doubled, the modulation 1. Frequency Modulation
index is halved, and the modulating voltage remains 2.phase shift keying modulation
constant. The modulation system is 3. Phase Modulation
4. Amplitude Modulation
The unit impulse response of a linear time invariant system 1. 1-e
-at
is the unit step function u(t). For t>0, the response of the 2. a(1-e )
-at
system to an excitation e u(t), a>0, will be

-at 3. ae-at
4. (1-e )/a-at
1. inadequate selectivity at high

frequencies
Indicate the false statement. The super heterodyne receiver 2. insufficient gain and
replaced the TRF receiver because the latter suffered from sensitivity
3. gain variation over the
frequency coverage range
4. instability
1. is not rejected by the IF
tuned circuits
2. is due to insufficient adjacent
channel rejection
The image frequency of a super heterodyne receiver 3. is created within the receiver
itself
4. is independent of the
frequency to which the receiver
is tuned
1. to help the image frequency
rejection
2. to permit easier tracking
The local oscillator of a broadcast receiver is tuned to a 3. to allow adequate frequency
frequency higher that the incoming frequency coverage without switching
4. because otherwise an
intermediate frequency could not
be produced
1. the local oscillator need to be
extremely stable
If the intermediate frequency is very high (indicate the false 2. image frequency rejection is
statement) very good
3. the selectivity will be poor
4. tracking will be improved
1. linear, time varying, dynamic
system
dy(t)/dt + 2ty(t) = t x(t) is for a
2 2. linear system
3. linear, time varying, static
system
4. non-linear system
1. 1/n m
If a signal x(t) is differentiated ‘m’ times to produce an 2. 1/n m-1
impulse then its Fourier coefficients will be proportional to, 3. n m-1
4. nm
The signals x (t) and x (t) are both band limited to (-ω , +ω ) 1. (ω + ω )/2
1 2 1 1
1 2
and (-ω , +ω ) respectively. The Nyquist sampling rate for 2. 2ω if ω < ω

2 2
2 1 2
the signal x (t)x (t) will be

1 2
3. 2ω if ω > ω
1 1 2
4. 2(ω + ω ) 1 2
1.
overflow
Most significant bit of arithmetic addition is called
2. Carry
3. Output
4. Zero Bit
1. Digital counter
Which of the following circuit can be used as parallel to 2. Decoder
serial converter ? 3. Demultiplexer
4. Multiplexer
A band pass signal extends from 1KHz to 2 KHz. The 1. 2 KHz
minimum sampling frequency needed to retain all 2. 1 KHz
information in the sampled signal is 3. 4 KHz
4. 3 KHz
1. Cp = AB
The carry propagation can be expressed as 2. Cp = A + B
3. Cp = A^B
4. Cp = A+B'
1. 1000
A MOD-16 ripple counter is holding the count 1001 . What 2. 1010
2
will the count be after 31 clock pulses? 3. 1001

4. 1011
1. A > B = 1, A B = 0, A B = 1, A B = 0, A < B = 1, A = B =
1
1. 40 μs
With a 200 kHz clock frequency, eight bits can be serially 2. 400 μs
entered into a shift register in 3. 40 ms
4. 4 μs
A 4-bit up/down binary counter is in the DOWN mode and in 1. 1101
the 1100 state. To what state does the counter go on the next 2. 1011
clock pulse? 3. 1111
4. 0000
1. 4 cos(20t+3)+3 sin(10t)
Choose the function f(t), -∞<t<+∞, for which a Fourier series 2. exp(-|t|)sin(25t)
cannot be defined 3. 3 sin(25t)
4. 1
1.
AND-OR gates
Code conversion circuits mostly uses 2. AND gates
3. OR gates
4. XOR gates
1. G(f) is real
If G(f) represents the Fourier transform of a signal g(t) 2. G(f) is complex
which is real and odd symmetric in time, then 3. G(f) is imaginary
4. G(f) is real and non-negative
1. |z| > 1
The ROC of the sequence x(n) = u(-n) is, 2. |z| < 1
3. No ROC
4. -1 < |z| < 1
In a 2-terminal network containing at least one inductor and
1.purely resistive 2.purely
one capacitor, resonance condition exists only when the
reactive 3.infinite 4.finite
input impedance of the network is:
The Q-factor of a parallel resonance circuit consisting of an
inductance of value 1mH,capacitance of value 10^-5 F and 1.1 2.10 3.20 4.100
a resistance of 100 ohms is
1. unstable system
An LTI system with impulse response, h(n) = (-a) u(n) and 2. stable system
n
–a < -1 will be, 3. anticausal system

4. neither stable nor causal
1. ROC does not exist
What is the ROC of the Z-transform of x(n) = -(0.5) u(-n- 2. |z| > 0.8
n
1) + (0.2) u(n) + (0.8) u(n)?

n n
3. |z| < 0.5
4. |z|> 0.5 and |z| < 0.8
1. 1
Fourier transform of unit impulse at origin is 2. 0
3. infinity
4. undefined
The property of Fourier Transform which states that the 1. Frequency Shifting
compression in time domain is equivalent to expansion in 2. Scaling
the frequency domain is 3. Time Scaling
4. Duality
1. Sine term
The trigonometric Fourier series of an even function of time does 2. Cosine term
not contain 3. Odd harmonic term
4. DC term
1. Digital image
Continuous functions are sampled to form a 2. Fast Fourier series
3. Fourier transform
4. Fourier series
1. aperiodic impulse
Sum of many infinitely many periodic impulses is called 2. periodic impulse
3. impulse train
4. summation
1. accentuated
To reduce effect of aliasing, high frequencies are 2. attenuated
3. removed
4. reduced
1. antihermition
If ƒ(x,y) is imaginary, then its Fourier transform is 2. hermition
3. symmetry
4. Conjugate symmetry
1. High pass function
Any function whose Fourier transform is zero for frequencies 2. Low pass function
outside finite interval is called 3. Band limited function
4. Band pass function
1. finite
Forward and inverse Fourier transforms exist for samples having 2. discrete
values 3. infinite
4. integers
1. contracted
Greater, values of continuous variables, spectrum of Fourier 2. discrete
transform will be 3. continuous
4. expanded
1. rotating property
Impulse has property called 2. additive property
3. shifting property
4. additive inverse
1. critical sampling
Sampled frequency less than nyquist rate is called 2. nyquist sampling
3. under sampling
4. over sampling
Effect caused by under sampling is called 1. aliasing
2. summation
3. sharpening
4. smoothing
1. ringing effect
Most common example of temporal aliasing is 2. image sharpening
3. wagon wheel effect
4. blurring
1. Discrete time signal should be
absolutely multipliable
Which among the following assertions represents a necessary 2. Discrete time signal should be
condition for the existence of Fourier Transform of discrete time absolutely differentiable
signal (DTFT)? 3. Discrete time signal should be
absolutely integrable
absolutely summable
1. Cosine waves
Which are the only waves that correspond/ support the 2. Triangular waves
measurement of phase angle in the line spectra? 3. Square waves
4. Sine waves
1. Possess an odd & even
symmetry respectively
Double-sided phase & amplitude spectra _____ 2. Both possess an odd symmetry
3. Both possess an even symmetry
4. Possess an even & odd symmetry
respectively
Which type/s of Fourier Series allow/s to represent the negative 1. Exponential Fourier Series
frequencies by plotting the double-sided spectrum for the 2. Trigonometric Fourier Series
analysis of periodic signals ? 3. All types specified
4. Polar Fourier Series
1. Expansion in frequency
Which phenomenon occurs due to an increase in the channel domain
bandwidth during the transmission of narrow pulses in order to 2. Compression in frequency
avoid any intervention of signal distortion? domain
3. Compression in time domain
4. Expansion in time domain
Which among the below assertions is precise in accordance
to the effect of time scaling ?
1. Both A & B are true
A : Inverse relationship exists between the time and
2. A is false & B is true
frequency domain representation of signal
3. Both A & B are false
4. A is true & B is false
B : A signal must be necessarily limited in time as well as
frequency domains
1. Continuous & periodic
What is the nature of Fourier representation of a discrete & 2. Continuous & aperiodic
aperiodic signal? 3. Discrete & periodic
4. Discrete and aperiodic
What are the number of samples present in an impulse response 1. length
called as? 2. string
3. array
4. element
A parallel plate capacitor of 5pf capacitance has a charge of 1. 1mJ
0.1µC on its plates. What is the energy stored in the 2. 1 nJ
Capacitor? 3. 1pJ
4. 1µJ
For a series R-C circuit excited by a d-c voltage of 10V,
1.10(1-e^-1) V 2.10-e^-1 V
and with time-constant t, s, the voltage across C at time t =
3.10(1-e) V 4.1-e^-1 V
t is given by
1.Vm/2 2.1.414 Vm 3.2Vm
The rms value of the sinusoidal wave is given by__
4.vm/1.414
The average power in the RL circuit is ______ the average 1.Equal to 2.Greater than
power in a pure resistive circuit 3.lesser than 4.greater or equal to
The power factor is ____ for a pure resistor 1.0 2.1 3.Between 0 and 1 4.>1
For a RL circuit, the power factor is ________
1.0 2.1 3.Between 0 and 1 4.>1
For a RC circuit, the power factor is ________ 1.0 2.1 3.between 0 and 1 4.>1
1.v2 leads v1 by -75 2.v1 leads
v1(t)=20 cos(wt+30),v2=30 sin(wt+45) v2 by 75 3.v2 leads v1 by 15
4.v1 leads v2 by 15
When a circuit is in resonance,the impedance of the circuit
1.XC 2.2R 3.XL 4.R
is_____
1.voltage leads the current
2.voltage lags the current
In a pure inductive circuit, 3.current and voltage are in
phase 4.no relation between
current and voltage
1.current and voltage are in
phase 2.voltage lags the current
In a pure capacitive circuit, 3.voltage leads the current 4.no
relation between current and
voltage
1. I = y V + y V and I = y V +
1 11 1 12 2 2 21 1
yV 22 2
2. V = z I + z I and V = z I +
1 11 1 12 2 2 21 1
The defining equations for analyzing a two-port network in z I 22 2
terms of its impedance (z) parameters are: 3. V = h I + h V and I = h I +

1 11 1 12 2 2 21 1
hV 22 2
4. V = t V − t I and I = t V −
1 11 2 12 2 1 21 2
tI 22 2
1. I = y V + y V and I = y V +
1 11 1 12 2 2 21 1
yV 22 2
2. V = z I + z I and V = z I +
1 11 1 12 2 2 21 1
zI 22 2
The defining equations for analyzing a two-port network in 3. V = t V − t I and I = t V −

1 11 2 12 2 1 21 2
terms of its admittance (y) parameters are: tI 22 2
4. V = h I + h V and I = h I +
1 11 1 12 2 2 21 1
hV 22 2
1.
V = h I + h V and I = h I +
1 11 1 12 2 2 21 1
hV
22 2
The defining equations for analyzing a two-port network in

terms of its transmission (t) parameters (also called the 2. V = z I + z I and V = z I +
1 11 1 12 2 2 21 1
ABCD parameters) are: zI

22 2
3. I = y V + y V and I = y V +
1 11 1 12 2 2 21 1
yV
22 2
4. V = t V − t I and I = t V −
1 11 2 12 2 1 21 2
tI
22 2
1. 5 V
A short circuit has a ________ drop across its terminals, 2. 0 V
and the current is limited only by the surrounding network. 3. Infinity
4. 1 V
1. input reference signal is zero
2. zero stored energy
3. initial movement of moving
Zero initial condition for a system means parts
4. system is at rest and no
energy is stored in any of its
components
1.
+90 degrees leading
What would be the power factor for an RLC circuit that 2.
acts inductively? one
3.
zero
4. –90 degrees lagging

1.
–45.0 degrees
What is the approximate phase angle in a series RLC 2.
circuit when V = 117 V, V = 14.5V, and V = 3.3 V?
C R L
–90.0 degrees
3.
-82.7 degrees
4. –172.7 degrees
1. The larger of the two
reactance is dominant
Which statement best describes reactance in a series 2.
RLC circuit? Resistance is always
dominant
3.
Inductive reactance is always
dominant
4.
Capacitive reactance is
always dominant
1. 1/10s
The impedance of a 10-F capacitor is: 2. 10/s
3. s/10
4. 10s
1. True
We can usually obtain the Thevenin equivalent in the time 2. False
domain. 3. Some times
4. Incomplete Question
1. R = R (1 + Q ) and X = X (1 +
p s
1
p s
Q)
−1
2. R = R (1 + Q ) and X = X (1 +
p s
3
p s
A series resonant circuit and a parallel resonant circuit are Q )

−3
equivalent if 3. R = R (1 + Q ) and X = X (1 +
p s
2
p s
Q)
−2
4. R = R (1 - Q ) and X = X (1 -
p s
2
p s
Q)
−2
1.
5
A circuit which has ω0 = 10 rad / sec (ω = resonant
6
0
2. 1
frequency) C = 10 pF and Q = 100, must have a 3.
resistance of ___________ kΩ. 10
4.
100
1.
y = 16
21
When port 1 of a two-port circuit is short-circuited, I = 2.

1
4I and V = 0.25I . Which of the following is true?

2 2 2 y = 16 12
3.
y =4 11
4. y = 0.25
22
1. B = 50
2.
A two-port is described by the following equations: h = 0.512
V = 50I + 10I V = 30I +20I then which of the

1 1 2, 2 1 2
following is not true? 3.

Z = 10
12
4.
y = −0.0143
12
1.
h =h21 12
If a two-port is reciprocal, which of the following is not

true? 2. AD = BC + 1
3.
y =y
21 12
4.
z =z
21 12
1.
Economical
The circuits in homes are connected in parallel rather than 2. easy to do
series because it is 3. possible to get same current
4.
possible to get same voltage
1. 0.8
2.
A current of 4 A flows in an AC circuit when 100 V DC is 0.6
applied to it whereas it takes 250 V AC to produce the
same current the power factor of the circuit is 3.
0.4
4.
1
1. draws minimum current
2.
draws maximum current
When XC = XL the circuit: 3.
applied voltage is zero
4.
is at resonance
1.
5.08 A
A series circuit consists of R = 20 Ω, L = 20 mH, and
AC supply 60 V with f = 100 Hz. The current in R is 2. 10.16 A
3.
1.27 A
4.
2.54 A
If the percentage reactance of an element is 20 % and 1.
the full load current is 50 A, the short circuit current 200 A.
will be
2.
300 A.
3.
250 A.
4. 350 A
1. 125 pF
2.
1000 pF.
For the resonance circuit ω0 = 105, Q = 50, R = 400 Ω
the value of C is
3.
250 pF.
4.
500 pF.
1. 22.5 kW
2.
30.3 kW
A practical DC current source provides 20 kW to a 50 Ω
load and 20 kW to a 200 Ω load. The maximum power that
3.
can draw from it is
40 kW
4.
45 kW
1.
34.98 V
What is the Vs for a series RLC Circuit when I = 3 mA,

T
2. 48.00 V
VL = 30V, VC = 18V, and R =1KΩ 3.
3.00 V
4.
12.37 V
1.
1.05 A
How much current will flow in a 100 Hz series RLC 2.
circuit if V = 20 V, R = 66 ohms and X = 47 ohms?
S T T
303 mA
3. 107 mA
4.
247 mA
1. same magnitude
Resistors may be represented in the frequency domain by 2. opposite in magnitude
an impedance having the ____________ 3. complex in magnitue
4. negative complex in magnitue
The voltage through a resistor with current i(t) in the s- 1. False
domain is sRI(s). 2. Sometimes
4. True
1.
Z12 = Z21
2.
A 2 port network using Z parameter representation is
Z11 = Z22
said to be reciprocal if
3.
Z12 = –Z21
4. Z11Z22 – Z12Z21 = 1
1. 1/sL
Inductors may be represented in the frequency domain by 2. -sL
an impedance as _______________ 3. sL
4. -1/sL
1. Li(0 )
+
If the initial current is nonzero, then the impedance must be 2. −Li(0 ) +
placed in series with a voltage source 3. −Li(0 ) −
4. Li(0 )
−
1. 1
The impulse response of a LTI system is a unit step 2. 1/s2
function, then the corresponding transfer function is 3. 1/s
4. s
1. e-3t
The final value of x(t ) = [2+ e - 3t ]u(t ) is 2. 3
3. 2
4. 0
If the Nyquist plot of the loop transfer function G(s) H(s) of
a closed-loop system 1.less than zero 2.greater than
encloses the (-1, jo) point in the G(s) H(s) plane, the gain zero 3.Zero4.infinity
margin of the system is
A system with gain margin close to unity or a phase margin 1.highly stable 2.unstable
close to zero is 3.relatively stable 4.oscillatory
1. 1
Final value of X(s) = 1/(s-2) is 2. 0
3. 2
4. Infinity
1.
s = - 0.05
2.
If the gain margin of a certain feedback system is given as 20 s = - 0.2
dB, the Nyquist plot will cross the negative real axis at the
point 3.
s = - 0.1
4.
s = -0.01
In force-current analogy, electrical analogous 1.

quantity for displacement (x) is voltage
2.
inductance
3.
capacitance
4.
flux
1.
infinite
2.
The open loop transfer function of a unity
0.707
feedback control system is given by G(s) =
k/s(s+1). If gain k is increased to infinity, then 3.
damping ratio will tend to become unity
4.
zero
1.
4/3
2.
Consider a network function H(s) = 1/2
2(s+3)/((s+2)(s+4)). What is the steady state
response due to step input? 3.
1
4.
3/4
1.
0
The open loop transfer function for unity 2.
feedback system is given by 5(1+0.1s) / 2
(s(1+5s)(1+20s)) Find the steady state error 3.
for a step input of magnitude 10 is equal to infinite
4.
5
1.
1/(s² + s + 2)
The input-output relationship of a linear time
invariant continuous time system is given by 2.
r(t) = d²c(t)/dt² + 3 dc(t)/dt + 2 c(t) Where 1/(s² + 3*s + 2)
r(t) and c(t) are input and output respectively. 3.
What is the transfer function of the system 2/(s² + 3*s + 2)
equal to?
4.
2/(s² + s + 2)
1.
1
2.
Number of roots in left hand half of s plane if 2
characteristic equation is s - 4*s + s + 6 = 0
3 2
3.
? 3
4.
0
1.
The second order system
is defined by 25 / ( s +
2
5s + 25) is given step

input. The time taken for
The second order system is defined by 25 / ( the output to settle with
s + 5s + 25) is given step input. The time
2 in 2 % of input is
taken for the output to settle with in 2 % of 2.
input is 1.2 sec.
3.
2 sec.
4.
0.4 sec.
1.
1
2.
The dc gain of a system represented by the 2
transfer function 12 / {( s + 1 )( s + 3 )} is 3.
5
4.
10
1.
an over damped.
The transfer function of a system given by 2.
a critically damped.
3.
The system i an under damped.
4.
a unstable.
A unity feedback control system has an open 1.
loop transfer function G(s) = k/(s(s² + 7s + 4
12) The gain k for which s = -1 + j1 will lie on 2.
the root locus of the system is 6.5
3.
5
4.
10
1.60°
The characteristic equation of a control system
is give by s(s + 4)(s² + 2s + 1) + k(s + 1) =0. 2. 360°
Find the angle between the asymptotes?
3. 120°
4.180°
1.
45°
2.
The phase margin of a system having the loop 30°
transfer function G(s)H(s) = 2√3/s(s+1) is 3.
60°
4.
80°
1.
0.707
2.
The value of 'a' to give phase margin = 45° 1.414
will be G(s) = (as+1)/s² 3.
1.18
4.
0.9
1.
1
2.
A open loop transfer function is given as G(s) 0
= (s+2)/(s+1)(s-1). Find the number of
encirclements about '-1+j0'? 3.
2
4.
3
1. Causal
The system function H(z) = (z -2z +z)/(z +0.25z+0.125) is, 2. Unstable but causal
3 2 2
3. Cannot be defined
4. Noncausal
1.opposite polarity signals are
In differential-mode, ……………. applied at the inputs
2.
the gain is one
3.
the outputs are of different
amplitudes
4.
only one supply voltage is used
1. v(0 )/s
−
If the initial voltage is nonzero, then the impedance must be 2. -v(0 )/s−
placed in series with a voltage source ______________ 3. -v(0 )/s

+
4. v(0 )/s
+
1.Real parts of zeros 2.Poles and

zeros 3.Real parts of poles
A network function can be completely specified by:
4.Poles, zeros and a scale
factor
In a double tuned circuit, consisting of two magnetically 1.a peak, always 2.a dip, always
coupled, identical high-Q tuned circuits, at the resonance 3.either a peak or a dip 4.neither
frequency of either circuit, the amplitude response has a peak nor a dip
1.200 V 2.157.23 V 3.314 V
The rms value of the a-c voltage v(t) = 200 sin 314 t is:
4.141.42 V
1.correct. 2.incorrect 3.the one to
In the solution of network differential equations, the
be followed for finding the
constants in the complementary function have to be
natural response 4.the one to be
evaluated from the initial conditions, and then the particular
followed for finding the natural
integral i is to be added. This procedure is
and forced responses
1.a stable function. 2.a non-
If a network function has zeros only in the left-half of the s- minimum phase function 3.a
plane, then it is said to be minimum phase function. 4.an
all-pass function.
A network N is to be connected to load of 500 ohms. If the
Thevenin’s equivalent voltage and Norton’s equivalent
1.10mA 2.2.5mA 3.5mA 4.1mA
current of N are 5Volts and 10mA respectively, the current
through the load will be
A unit impulse voltage is applied to one port network
1.R and L in series 2.R and L in
having two linear components. If the current through the
parallel 3.R and C in parallel 4.R
network is 0 for t<0 and decays exponentially for t>0 then
and C in series
the network consists of
Vr=10 cos (300 t),R=5 ohms; Ir=____ 1.2/_0 2.10/_0 3.5/_0 4.60
w=200;L=0.5,the value of ZL=_____ 1.100 2.-100j 3.100j 4.j/100
The condition for maximum power transfer to take place in 1.ZL=-ZTH 2.ZL=ZTH*
a ac circuit is ___ 3.ZL=ZTH 4.ZL=0
Zth is 50 +30 j;what should be the load resistance 1.50+30 j 2.50-30 j 3.-50-30j 4.-
connected for maximum power transfer to take place? 50+30j
1.
Causal
The system function H(z) = (z -2z +z)/(z +0.25z+0.125) is,=
3 2 2
2.
Unstable but causal
3.
Noncausal
4.
Cannot be defined
1.
u[n]
2.
u[n]-u[n-1]
δ[n] =
3.
u[n-1]
4.
u[-n]
1. sinusoid signals multiplied by
growing exponentials
2. sinusoid signals divided by
Damped sinusoids are _____ decaying exponentials
decaying exponentials
For the circuit given below find out what type of feedback
configuration it is. Also find out the feedback factor (assume
that and r=5 k and R2= 10 K)
1.
A) Series-Series, 0.25
2.
A) Series-Shunt, -0.25
3.
Shunt-Series, -0.5
4.
A) Shunt-Shunt, 0.5
1.
a) 0.25
2.
A feedback arrangement is shown in figure a) 0.225
below. If Xo = 4.0 V, Xf = 0.9 V , Xs= 1.00
3.
V. Find β.
a) 0.3
4.
a) 0.4
A feedback arrangement is shown in figure
below. If Xo = 4.0 V, Xf = 0.9 V , Xs= 1.00
V. Find the amount of feedback. 1.
a) 10
2.
1
3.
100
4.
90
a) Consider the figure given below. The given

amplifier is showing nonlinear behavior with A
=10 V/V for Vo <= 0.2 V , A= 10 V/V for 0.2 V
4 3
< Vo < 1 V but it hard limits at Vo =1 V. The β

of feedback loop is 0.01. Find the closed loop 1.
gain when 0.2 V<="" 1="" v. <="" span="" 90.9
style="box-sizing: border-box;">
2.
91.9
3.
99
4.
89.9
The comparator using op-amp with input sine waveform 1. triangular waveform
gives 2. square form
3. cos waveform
4. sine waveform
1. Compression of the
modulating signal
2. Expansion of the modulating
signal
Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves 3. Amplification of lower
frequency components of the
modulating signal
4. Amplification of higher
modulating signal
1. d.c.
A capacitor circuit does not allow to 2. current
pass________component. 3. a.c.
4. voltage
1. 20V
2. 12V
If an op-amp comparator has a gain of 100,000, an input 3. 15V
difference of 0.2 mV above reference, and a supply of 12 4. 10V
V, the output will be
1. Gain margin is negative and
phase margin is positive
2. Both gain margin and

A Closed- loop system is unstable if Phase margin are negative
3. Gain margin is positive and

phase margin is negative
4. Both gain and phase margin

are positive
1.
(-1,-2)
2.
Find the zero of the transfer function given
a) (1,2)
3.
a) (2,-1)
4.
a) (1,4)
1. a triangle wave.
An op-amp integrator has a square-wave input. The output 2. a square wave.
should be 3. pure dc
4. a sine wave.
1.
6
Specifications of butterworth low pass filter 2.
are given as fp = 30kHz, Amax = 1 dB, fs = 40 11
kHz, Amin = 20 dB. What is the order of filter 3.
N? 10
4.
14
1. base-collector
A log amplifier may use the ________ junction of a BJT in the 2. emitter-collector
feedback loop. 3. base-emitter
4. emitter-ground
Specifications of Butterworth low pass filter 1.13.1 dB 2.
are given as fp =30kHz, Amax = 1 dB, fs = 40 14.2 dB
kHz, Amin = 20 dB. What attenuation is provided at 3.9.3 dB
35 KHz ? 4.
40 dB
1. Air
. Which one of the following is an example of open-loop conditioner
system?
2. Light switch
3. Automatic electric iron
4. Water level controller

On which of the following factors does the 1. Frequency
sensitivity of a closed loop system to gain 2. Loop gain
changes and load disturbances depend ? 3. All of the above
4. Forward gain
1.
2
How many op-amps are required to implement this 2.
equation? 3
3.
4
4.
1
1.
0V
2.
Calculate the output voltage if V1 = –0.2 V and V2 = 0 - 6.6 V
V.
3.
-4V
4.
2V
Determine the output voltage when V1 = –V2 = 1 V.

1.
0V
2.
-2V
3.
1V
4.
2V
1.convolution of h1( t) and

Two systems with impulse responses h1( t) and h2(t) are
h2(t) 2.sum of h1( t) and h2(t)
connected in cascade.Then the overall impulse response of
3.Product of h1( t) and h2(t)
the cascaded system is given by
4.subtraction of h1( t) and h2(t)
1.
both the inputs are grounded.
2.
the outputs are connected
together
In the common mode, ……………
3.
an identical signal appears on
both the inputs
4.
the output signals are in phase
1.90 V/μs 2.
0.67 V/μs
The output of a particular Op-amp increases 8V in 3.
12μs. The slew rate is ……. 1.5 V/μs
4.
0
1.
differential amplifier
2.
The input stage of an Op-amp is usually a ………. class B push pull amplifier
3.
CE amplifier
4.
Swamped Amplifier
1.
1.273 kHz
2.
12.73 kHz
Calculate the cutoff frequency of a first-order low-pass
filter for R1 = 2.5 k and C1 = 0.05 F. 3.
127.3 kHz
4.
127.30 Hz
1. 1.0
A carrier is simultaneously modulated by two sine waves 2. 0.35
with modulation indices of 0.4 and 0.3. 3. 0.5
4. 0.7
1.linear for any value of b
The system characterized by the equation y(t )= ax(t) + b is 2.linear if b > 0 3.linear if b < 0
4.non-linear
1.u(t)
Assuming zero initial condition, the response y(t) of the
2.e-tu(t)
system given U(s)->1/s->Y(s) to a
3.t^2/2*u(t)
unit step input u(t) is
4.tu(t)
Two sequences x1(n ) and x 2 (n) are related by x 2(n) = 1. same
x1(- n ). In the 2. reciprocal of each other
Z-domain, their ROCs are 3. negative of each other
4. complement of each other
1. real
The Fourier Transform of a conjugate symmetric function 2. conjugate symmetry
is always 3. Imaginary
4. conjugate anti-symmetric
How many 3-to-8 line decoders with an enable input are 1. 7
needed to construct a 6-to-64 line decoder without using 2. 8
any other logic gates? 3. 9
4. 10
For a type one system, the steady – state error due to step
1.0.5 2.infinite 3.0.25 4.zero
input is equal to
1. Remains unaffected
If the modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 2. Increase by 100%
to 1, the transmitted power 3. Increase by 75%
4. Increase by 50%
1. 2500Hz
An FM wave uses a 2 - 5V 1500Hz modulating frequency 2. 1250Hz
and has a modulation index of 10. The deviation is 3. 1000Hz
4. 5000Hz
Quantization bit rate for a an analog i/p signal with a 1. 58 kb/s
bandwidth of 3.4 kHz in a delta modulator with a signal to 2. 68 kb/s
quantization noise ratio of 25dB, will be 3. 78 kb/s
4. 48 kb/s
A TDM link has 20 signal channels and each channel is 1. 1180 kbps
sampled 8000 times/sec. Each sample is represented by 2. 1280 kbps
seven binary bits and contains an additional bit for 3. 1280 Mbps
synchronization, the total bit rate for the TDM link is 4. 1180 Mbps
The number of bits in a binary PCM system is increased 1. 2^(n+1)/n
from n to n+1. As a result, the signal to quantization noise 2. Which is independent of n
ratio will improve by a factor. 3. (n+1)/n
4. 2^2(n+1)/n
1. VSB and FM
In commercial TV transmission in India, picture and speech 2. VSB and VSB
signal are modulated respectively as 3. VSB and SSB
4. FM and VSB
1. Class - C audio amplifier
In an SSB transmitter one is most likely to find 2. Class - B RF amplifier
3. Tuned modulator
4. Class- AB power amplifier
For an FM wave, the maximum frequency deviation is 1. 36%
75kHz, if the frequency sensitivity is 3 kHz/V and the 2. 33%
modulating signal has an amplitude of 9V then the 3. 100%
percentage modulation is 4. 277%
1. fs/N
A frequency multiplier using PLL has VCO output 2. fs
frequency f0 is given by 3. Nfs
4. 1/Nfs
A FM signal has a carrier swing of 100 kHz when the 1. 6.25
modulating signal has a frequency of 8 kHz. The 2. 12.5
modulation index is 3. 7.5
4. 15
1.both z and y parameters
exist. 2.neither z nor y
parameters exist. 3.z-parameters
For an ideal transformer,
exist, but not the y-parameters.
4.y-parameters exist, but not the
z-parameters.
The period of the output waveform of mono-stable 1. 1.5 ms
multivibrator using 555 Timer with R =7.5 kΩ and C = 0.1 2. 0.825 ms
A
µF when triggered by a negative pulse is 3. 0.75 ms

4. 0.525 ms
1. 2n
If n is the +ve frequency power density , the power density 2. n/2
of white noise d(ω) is equal to 3. 1/n
4. n
1. Avβ > 1, Phase Shift 0°
For self-sustain oscillations, the conditions to be satisfied 2. Avβ < 1, Phase Shift 90°
for op-amp oscillators are 3. Avβ = 1, Phase Shift 0°
4. Avβ = 1 only
A communication channel with additive white Gaussian 1. 32kbps
noise, has a bandwidth of 4 kHz and an SNR of 15, its 2. 16kbps
channel capacity is 3. 256kbps
4. 20kbps
A communication channel distributed by additive white 1. 16
Gaussian noise has a bandwidth of 4 kHz and SNR of 15. 2. 1.6
The highest transmission rate that such a channel can 3. 3.2
support (in k-bits/sec) is 4. 60
1. Switch
For V > ±4V , the function of differential amplifier will be 2. Limiter

d T
3. Automatic gain control
4. Linear Amplifier
Change in value of common mode input signal in 1. Change in voltage across
differential pair amplifier make collector
2. Slight change in collector
voltage
3. Emitterr voltage decreases to
zero
4. Collector voltage decreases to
zero
1. Upper side band frequency is
1001000
Which one of the following statements regarding the signal: 2. Lower side band frequency is
X(t) = 5sin(2π10 t)sin(2π10 t) is correct?
3 6
999000
3. X(t) is a DSB ? SC signal
4. All of these
1.
remains at 25
A certain inverting amplifier has a closed-loop voltage gain of 2.
25. The Op-amp has an open-loop voltage gain of 100,000. If an drops to 12.5
Op-amp with an open-loop voltage gain of 200,000 is substituted 3.
in the arrangement, the closed-loop gain …….. doubles
4.
increases slightly
A 60kHz carrier is amplitude modulated by the speech 1. 57 to 59.7 kHz
band of 300 to 3000 Hz. The range of upper side band will 2. 60 to 59.7 kHz
be 3. 60.3 to 63 kHz
4. 56.7 to 56.3 kHz
1. 25%
The Maximum power efficiency of an AM modulator is 2. 75%
3. 50%
4. 100%
1. Time Division Multiple
Synchronization is an important aspect in Access
2. Code Division Multiple
Access
3. Space Division Multiple
Access
4. Frequency Division Multiple
Access
gain in dBi is with reference to
1. isotropic
2. hertzian dipole
3. dipole
4. milliwatt power
For an AM signal the bandwidth is 20 kHz and the highest 1. 790kHz

frequency component present is 800kHz.The carrier 2. 710kHz
frequency used for this AM signal is. 3. 700kHz
4. 705kHz
1. Triangular input
In VCO IC 566, the value of charging & discharging is 2. Modulating input
dependent on the voltage applied at ______. 3. Square wave output
4. Triangular wave output
1. Frequency to antenna gain
2. Antenna gain to transmission
Shannon's law relates losses
3. Information carrying capacity
to S/N ratio
4. Antenna gain to bandwidth
1. Differential PCM
Which of the following pulse modulation is analog? 2. PWM
3. Delta
4. PCM
1. Inversely proportional to the
modulated signal frequency
square root of the modulation
In phase modulation, frequency deviation is frequency
3. Independent of the modulated
signal
4. Directly proportional to the
1. Transmission of data at
random
Time Division Multiplexing requires 2. Transmission of data of only
one measured
3. Constant data transmission
4. Transmission of data samples
1. Monochromatic
Laser light is very bright because it is 2. Coherent
3. White
4. Pure
The primary disadvantage of the flash analog-to digital 1. a large number of comparators
converter (ADC) is that: is required to represent a
reasonable sized binary number
2. a long conversion time is
required
3. a large number of output lines
is required to simultaneously
decode the input voltage
4. it requires the input voltage
to be applied to the inputs
simultaneously

In phase modulation, frequency deviation is frequency
signal
1. Transmission of data at random
2. Transmission of data of only one
Time Division Multiplexing requires measured
1. Monochromatic
3. White
4. Pure
1. a large number of comparators is
required to represent a reasonable
sized binary number
The primary disadvantage of the flash analog-to digital converter (ADC) 2. a long conversion time is required
is that: 3. a large number of output lines is
required to simultaneously decode the
input voltage
4. it requires the input voltage to be
applied to the inputs simultaneously
1. 1.06 KW
1 kW carrier is modulated to a length of 60%. The total power in the 2. 1KW
modulated carrier is 3. 1.6 KW
4. 1.18 KW
1.
Higher cut off frequency
2. Faster drop in filter response

When compared a 1st order LPF with a 2nd order LPF has
3.
Lower voltage gain.
4.
Higher voltage gain.
The admittance and impedance of the following kind of network
1.LC 2.RL 3.PLC 4.RC
have the same properties:
1. Binary phase shift keying
On-off keying is the modulation scheme used for the majority of 2. Binary frequency shift keying
optical-fiber communication systems. This scheme is an example of 3. Continuous-phase frequency shift
keying
4. Binary amplitude shift keying
1. to remove quantization noise
2. to provide high quality of
Speech is coded at low bit rates reproduction
3. to secure transmission over
channels having low capacity
4. to increase SNR
A PN sequence generator using feedback shift register of 1. 16
length,m=4. Chip rate is 10M chips per second. Determine the PN 2. 12
sequence length. 3. 20
4. 15
A network has 7 nodes and 5 independent loops. The number of
1.13 2.12 3.11 4.10
branches in the network is:
1. single-mode step-index
Which type of fiber optic cable is best for very high speed data? 2. multimode step-index
3. single-mode graded-index
4. multimode graded-index
1. 90 degree
Antipodal signals differ in phase by 2. zero degree
3. 180 degree
4. 45 degree
1. QPSK
Which modulation scheme has the lowest probability of error? 2. Non-coherent FSK
3. DPSK
4. Coherent FSK
1. distortion at sampling times
To analyze the effect of intersymbol interference, eye pattern is used. 2. best sampling instant
The width of the eye defines 3. margin over noise
4. sensitivity of system to timing
error
1. Reducing error propagation by
factor two
To combat intereference,duobinary signaling is used. 'Duo' implies 2. Doubling channel bandwidth
3. Doubling transmission capacity
4. Doubling the symbol duration
1. Low bandwidth
2. Ternary signaling
Advantage of Manchester Coding 3. Most of power lies between DC
and bit rate
4. No DC component
In a pure inductive circuit with V=10 sin(1000 t) and L=0.05 H,the 1.-0.2 cos(1000 t) 2.0.2 cos(1000 t)
current in ampere is___ 3.-0.2 sin(1000 t)4.0.2 sin(1000 t)
1.0 2.VmIm 3.VmIm/1.414
The average power in a resistive circuit is given by __________
4.VmIm/2
1.VmIm/2 2.VmIm/1.414 3.VmIm
The average power in a pure inductive load is _____
4.0
1.resistor 2.capacitor 3.inductor
the power factor value is equal to 1 for a pure______
4.voltage source
1.
Responsitivity
2.
Spectral response
One of the following is not a characteristic of light detectors
3.
Transmit time
4.
Dispersion
Vm=150 cos (200 pi t-30).The rms value is _____ 1.128 2.106.1 3.156 4.110
1.
Ampere/watt
2.
Ampere/Volt
What is the unit of responsitivity?
3.
Watt/Ampere
4.
Votl/Ampere
The power factor is ____ for a pure inductor 1.0 2.1 3.between 0 and 1 4.>1
1.voltage leads the current 2.voltage
lags the current 3.current and voltage
In a pure inductive circuit,
are in phase 4.no relation between
current and voltage
1.
2
2.
5
How many longitudinal modes can fall within a laser’s gain
bandwidth? 3.
9
4.
No fixed limit, dependent on
bandwidth and mode spacing
1.
PIN photodiode
2.
Which of the following is the fastest light sensor
Photo voltaic photodiode
3.
Avalanche photodiode
4.
Photo transistor
1. 20 to 40nm
2. 30 to 50 nm
3.
What is the spectral width of a standard LED? 40 to 60nm
4.
10 to 50nm
1.
Slower
2.
. Faster
The speed of light in plastic compared to the speed of light in air is
3.
The same
4.
Either lower or faster
Differential coding produces an output in which the information is
contained in differences between successive bits such that the output 1. 1000110
changes state if the input bit is a 1 otherwise the output remains the 2. 1100100
same. Assuming the initial condition for the output is 0, the 3. 1011101
differential coding for the input sequence 1100101 is 4. 1010101
1. Model based coding

An example of temporal speech coder is 2. Subband coding
3. Differential PCM
4. Adaptive transform coding
1. 40kHz
In a PCM system, amplitude levels transmitted in 6 bits.Sampling 2. 45kHz
done at 10kHz.Bandwidth should be 3. 30kHz
4. 35kHz
1. 4
If a sinusoidal modulating signal is uniformly quantized with a 2. 2
(SNR)q of 20dB, determine the number of bits required per sample 3. 3
4. 5
Consider a linear delta modulator system designed to accomdate a 1. 75.5mV
sinusoid of amplitude 1V, frequency 800Hz.Sampling rate is 64kHz. 2. 60.5mV
Minimum value of step size to avoid overload is 3. 70.5mV
4. 78.5mV
The output S/N ratio of a matched filter, fed at its input by a 1. 2AT/No
rectangular pulse of energy A and duration T is given as (assume 2. AT
N as noise power spectral density)
o
3. A/No
4. A/T
1. suitable signaling format for
transmission over channel
Source encoding of digital data is performed 2. for reliable transmission through
the channel
3. for the efficient use of channel
4. for more robust transmission
1. Envelope Detector
For a transmitted signal of unknown phase, which of the following 2. Correlator
receiver is used to get maximum SNR? 3. Matched Filter
1. OFDM
The most bandwidth efficient scheme is 2. TDM
3. CDM
4. FDM
An important impairment to digital signals in a communication 1. Fading
system is the irregularities in timing caused by imperfections in 2. Aliasing
clock extraction and waveform regeneration. This effect is known as 3. Attenuation
4. Jitter
Arrange the following in chronological order
a)Alec Reeves invention of PCM 1. d a c b
b)Shannon's Mathematical theroy of Communication 2. d b a c
c)D.O.North's Matched Filter 3. a b c d
d)Harry Nyquist's theory of Signal transmission in telegraphy 4. c d a b
1. Constant Envelope property

2. Time spread of frequency-shaping
Why GMSK is preferred over MSK in Wireless Communication? pulse
3. Better out-of band spectral
characteristics
4. Wider bandwidth
1. Improper synchronization
2. Distortions due to jitter
Adaptive equalization is used to combat the effect of 3. Channel noise and Intersymbol
interference
4. Phase distortion
1. Top down approach
Reducing the cellsize to increase capacity is called as ---------------. 2. Microcell Approach
3. Intelligent cell approach
4. Bottom up approach
1. In PCM transmitters, to allow
amplitude limiting in receivers
Companding is used 2. To overcome quantizing noise
3. To protect small signals in PCM
from quantizing distortion
4. To overcome impulse noise
1. Energy Spectral Density and
Fourier transform of a signal
2. Fourier transform of a signal and
its autocorrelation
Wiener-Khintchine relationship is between 3. Power Spectral Density and Auto-
correlation function of a random
process
4. Power Spectral Density and
Energy Spectral density of a random
process
1. 20ms
In a time multiplexed switching system, one speech sample appears 2. 125ms
every 3. 125microsec
4. 100ms
1. 200-400Hz
Typical human voice is centered around 2. 280-3000Hz
3. 400-600Hz
4. 1400-1800Hz
If BPSK modulation is used for transmission of data, the required 1. 8-ary PSK
minimum bandwidth is 9600Hz.To reduce the transmission 2. Minimum Shift Keying
bandwidth to 2400Hz, the modulation scheme adapted should be 3. Quadrature Phase Shift Keying
4. 16-ary PSK
1. Encryption
Process of converting plaintext into ciphertext 2. Decryption
3. compression
4. Authentication
The type of multiple access technique used in GSM is 1. FDMA
2. FDMA/TDMA
3. CDMA
4. SDMA
1. External Noise
Reason for call drop is 2. Handoff
3. Channel Assignment
4. Co-channel Interference
Which is the type of antenna used in OFDM technique? 1. Smart Antenna
2. Micro Strip Antenna
3. Log Periodic
4. Yagi Uda
1. 56 kbps
Cable modem is capable of delivering up to 2. 30-40 mbps
3. 2 mbps
4. 256 kbps
1. TDD
In CDMA, the system uses ______for the Forward and Reverse links 2. TDMA
3. FDD
4. FDD and TDD
1. two
Unlike GSM, in WCDMA there is ____________dedicated transport 2. one
channel, DCH 3. three
4. four
1. 2 bits/s/Hz
If a system requires 4 kHz of bandwidth to continuously send 8000 2. 1 bits/s/Hz
binary digits/sec, the bandwidth efficiency will be _______ 3. 32 bits/s/Hz
4. 0.5 bits/s/Hz
1. TFPA
Which of these Controls call processing and status management of 2. GPS-R
the BTS, as the highest-level processor within the BTS. 3. BSPA
4. TFBB
Which of this Controls FSU power during call? 1. Order wire
2. APC Channel
3. Traffic Channels
4. Access Channel
The closed loop power control also uses an outer loop power control. 1. Frame Error Rate (FER)
This method measures the __________________both by the mobile 2. Bit Error Rate (BER)
and the base station and then adjusts the power according to whether 3. Signal to Noise Ratio
it is acceptable. 4. Power ratio
Walsh codes are used only by the base station and in this fashion, it 1. synchronous, asynchronous
is a __________CDMA on the forward link, whereas on the return 2. synchronous , synchronous
link it is ______________ CDMA, 3. asynchronous, asynchronous
4. asynchronous, synchronous
1. FER
Sectorization Reduces Interference and adds a Gain to the system 2. Sectorization removal
which is called _______________ 3. Cell breathing
4. Sectorization Gain
1. Frequency Reuse
The core concept used in Cellular technology is 2. FDM
3. Code reuse
4. TDM
The _________ is a database that contains information about the 1. XME
identity of mobile equipment that prevents calls from stolen, 2. HLR
unauthorized, or defective mobile stations. 3. EIR
4. AUC
The process of channel coding, Encryption, Multiplexing and 1. BSC
modulation for Trans direction and reverse for reception are to be 2. MSC
carried out by 3. MS
4. BTS
1.FM only
2.AM only
The signal cos ωct – 0.5cos ωmt sin ωct
3.both AM and FM
4.neither AM or FM
1.Half Power Bandwidth
Width of the main spectral lobe, where most of the signal power is 2.Null to Null Bandwidth
contained.
3. Absolute Bandwidth
4.Full Power Bandwidth

1.Additive noise Channel
2.Linear Filter Channel.

Signal travel through various paths and arrives at receivers at
different time multi path propagation. 3.Linear Time-Variant Filter
Channel.
4.Linear Time Invariant Filter

1. 2 V
2. –2 V
3. 1 V
4. 0 V
How many op-amps are required to implement this equation? 1. 4

2. 1
3. 2
4. 3
1. Integrator with larger time
constant
2.
a. Integrator with low time

A low pass filter circuit is basically constant
3. Differentiator with low time

constant
4. Differentiator with larger time
constant
1. V = ρzsinϕ +ρ
1
2
Which of the following potential expression does satisfy Laplace’s 2. V = x +y +5z -10
1
2 2 2
Equation: 3. V = x +y -2z +10

1
2 2 2
4. V = 2x +5
1
2
1. Volatile RAM
Stack is ___________Memory 2. Non Volatile ROM
3. Volatile ROM
4. Non Volatile RAM
1. Voltage shunt feedback amplifier
The inverting amplifier is a 2. Current shunt feedback amplifier
3. Current series feedback amplifier
4. Voltage series feedback amplifier
1. 85.6%
The maximum efficiency of full wave rectification is 2. 81.2%
3. 100%
4. 40.6%
1. ADM
2. DM
Step size can be made smaller for smaller signals and larger for 3.
larger signals DPCM
4. PCM
1. BW of FM < BW of AM; power
FM > power AM; noise FM > noise
AM
FM < power AM; noise FM < noise
Which of the following is true about the AM and FM systems? AM
FM > power AM; noise FM < noise
AM
4. BW of FM > BW of AM; power
FM < power AM; noise FM < noise
AM
1. Ring Modulator
Which of the following methods can be used for generating SSB-SC 2. Frequency Discrimination Method
signals? 3. Switching modulator
4. Square-law modulator
1. Both vary according to the shape
of the message signal
With respect to the envelopes of the AM and FM modulated waves, 2. Envelope of AM is constant, FM is
which of the following is true? variable
3. Both are of constant amplitude
4. Envelope of AM varies and FM
envelope is constant
Find the value of Quantization noise in Watts, in a Pulse code 1. ¼
modulation system when a signal of 0-16 volts amplitude is 2. 1/12
quantized using 3-bit quantization. 3. 1/6
4. 1/3
1. Inversely proportional to β
The velocity of an EM wave 2. Directly proportional to α
3. inversely proportional to α
4. directly proportional to β
A uniform plane electromagnetic wave incident normally on a plane
surface of a dielectric material is reflected with a VSWR of 3 .what 1.10% 2.25% 3.75% 4.50%
is the percentage of incident power that is reflected ?
1. an unstable Q point
2. a stable Q point
3. a Q point that is stable and easily
Voltage-divider bias provides varies with changes in the transistor’s
current gain
4. a Q point that easily varies with
changes in the transistor's current
gain
1. linear region
When transistors are used in digital circuits they usually operate in 2. active region
the ________ 3. breakdown region
4. saturation and cutoff regions
1. filter circuit
The Circuit which converts undirectional flow to D.C. is called 2. Eliminator
_______ 3. Rectifier circuit
4. Converter circuit
1. regulator
In a power supply diagram, which block indicates a pulsating dc 2. filter
output? 3. rectifier
4. transformer
1. a Johnson counter has an inverted
feedback path
2. a ring counter has an inverted
A comparison between ring and johnson counters indicates that: feedback path
3. a Johnson counter has fewer flip-

flops but requires more decoding
circuitry
4. a ring counter has fewer flip-flops

but requires more decoding circuitry
In a modulo-16 ripple counter using JK flipflip, if each flipflop 1. 5MHz
propagation delay is 50nsec, the maximum clock frequency that can 2. 2.5MHz
be used is equal to 3. 1.25MHz
4. 10MHz
1.
α 1/2
2.
The frequency of a continuous time signal x(t) changes on 1/ α
transformation from x(t) to x(αt), α>0 by a factor 3.
α
4.
α2
1. 3
How many flip-flops are required to make a MOD-29 binary 2. 6
counter? 3. 5
4. 4
1. one-half
The output frequency of a full-wave rectifier is ________ the input 2. equal to
frequency. 3. twice
4. one-quarter
1. 5 kHz
The output frequency for a frequency division circuit that contains 2. 15 kHz
12 flip-flops with an input clock frequency of 20.48 MHz is 3. 30.24 kHz
4. 10.24 kHz
1. forward-bias region
The normal operating region for a zener diode is the 2. reverse-breakdown region
3. zero-crossing region
4. reverse-bias region
1. Schottky
What type of diode is commonly used in electronic tuners in TVs? 2. LED
3. Gunn
4. varactor
1. provide improved tracking
2. permit better adjacent-channel
One of the main functions of the RF amplifier in a super heterodyne rejection
receiver is to 3. increase the tuning range of the
receiver
4. improve the rejection of the image
frequency
What is the minimum number of gates required to implement the
1. 5
Boolean function (AB+C) if we have to use only 2-input NOR
2. 4
gates?
3. 2
4. 3
1. They loss their nonlinearity
property above the Curie
Temperature
Identify the statement that is not true for ferromagnetic materials 2. They have fixed value of μ r
3. They have large χm
4. Energy loss is proportional to the

area of the hysteresis loop
1. down
If a transistor operates at the middle of the dc load line, a decrease in 2. nowhere
the current gain will move the Q point 3. off the load line
4. up
1. the amplification factor
The ends of a load line drawn on a family of curves determine 2. saturation and cutoff
3. the power curve
4. the operating point
1. V B
The Q point on a load line may be used to determine 2. Vcc

3. I
C
4. V C
The figure shown below is a Mod-K counter, K = ……………
1. 3
2. 1
3. 2
4. 4
One of the following is not a source of Magnetostatics field: 1. A permanent magnet

2. An accelerated charge
3. A dc current in a wire
4. The electric field linearly changing
with time
1. 0
Depth of penetration in free space is 2. small
3. 1/α
4. Infinity
1. Parity gate or the equality gate
The Ex-NOR is sometimes called the 2. inverted OR
3. equality gate
4. parity gate
1. 90°
Travel to length λg/2 over the line corresponds to rotation over
smith chart by
2. 180°
3. 270°
4. 360°
For a BJT, the common base current gain α = 0.98 and the collector
base junction reverse bias saturation current, I = 0.6 µA. This BJT
CO
1. 0.98 mA
is connected in the common emitter mode and operated in the active 2. 0.99 mA
region with a base current (I ) of 20 µA. The collector current I for
B C
3. 1.01 mA
this mode of operation is 4. 1.0 mA
1. a decrease in the
Transconductance
In a MOSFET operating in the saturation region, the channel length 2. an increase in the gate-source
modulationeffect causes capacitance
3. a decrease in the unity-gain cutoff
frequency
4. a decrease in the output resistance
1. Industrial noise is usually of the
impulse type
2. Thermal noise is independent of
Indicate the false statement
the frequency at which it is measured
3. Impulse noised voltage is
independent of the bandwidth
4. HF mixers are generally noisier
than HF amplifiers
The bit sequence 10011100 is serially entered (right-most bit first) into 1. 11110000
an 8-bit parallel out shift register that is initially clear. What are the Q 2. 00001100
outputs after four clock pulses? 3. 11000000
4. 10011100
1. Triangular pulse
The Fourier Transform of a rectangular pulse is 2. Another rectangular pulse
3. Sinc function
4. Impulse
1. ac component
Displacement of various sinusoids with respect to their origin is 2. dc component
3. phase
4. vector
1. big cluster size
Higher value of Q is achievable in 2. medium cluster size
3. micro cluster size
4. small cluster size
1.
Linear, time invariant
2.
A system with an input x(t) and output y(t) is described by the Linear, time variant
relation y(t) = tx(t). This system is 3.
nonlinear , time invariant
4.
1.
give rise to apperture effect
2.
Implies oversampling
Flat-top sampling of low pass signals
3.
Leads to aliasing
4.
Introduces delay distortion
1. |a| < 1
The signal a u[n] is a power signal if
n 2. |a| = 1
3. |a| = 0
4. |a| > 1
1.always stable 2.stable, if the jw-
A network function contains only poles whose real-parts are zero or
axis poles are simple 3.stable, if the
negative. The network is
jw-axis poles are at most of
multiplicity 2 4.always unstable
1.a resistance, a capacitance and an
opamp. 2.a resistance, an inductance
The minimum amount of hardware required to make a lowpass filter
and an opamp. 3.a resistance, a
is
capacitance and an inductance. 4.a
resistance and a capacitance.
1. BIBO stable
If all the poles of the system function H(Z) have magnitude smaller 2. stable
than 1, then the system will be, 3. marginally stable
4. unstable
1.Series-Series. 3.34 X 10^(3) 2.Series-
Shunt, 2.54 X 10^(3) 3.
For the circuit given below Find out what is the type of feedback? Also find
out the feedback factor (assume that and r=5 k and R2= 10 K and R1=20 Shunt-Series, 2.45 X 10^(3)
K)
4.
Shunt-Shunt, 4.67 X 10^(3)
below. If Xo = 4.0 V, Xf = 0.9 V , Xs= 1.00 V. Find
1.
Xi.
0.01 V
2.
0.1 V
3.
0.02 V
4.
0.001 V

below. If Xo = 4.0 V, Xf = 0.9 V , Xs= 1.00 V. Find A
1.
a) 30
2.
a) 40
3.
a) 50
4.
a) 60
A network contains linear resistors and ideal voltage sources.If the

1.not changed 2.increases four times
value of all the resistors are doubledthen the voltage across each
3.doubled4.halved
resistor_______
1. BSS
_________ is a subscriber module that stores all the subscriber 2. MS
related information. 3. ME
4. SIM
_______________ is the constant change of the range of the 1. Cell loading factor
geographical area covered by a cellular telephone transmitter based 2. Sectorization
on the amount of traffic currently using that transmitter. 3. FER
4. Cell breathing
1.
Envelope detector
2.
Synchronous detector
The most suitable method for detecting a modulated signal (2.5 + 5
cos ω t) cos ω t is:
m c
3.
Ratio detector
4.
Both Envelop and Synchronous
detector
1.
2.
3.
Rh(Ph3)3Cl reacts very fast with a gaseous mixture of H2 and C2H4 to
give Z. The structure of Z is
4.
1.
Enantiomers
What is the stereochemical relationship between the following
2.
molecules?
Diastereomers
3.
Both are meso
4.
Same compound
1.Methane 2.
Carbon dioxide
Which one of the following is mainly responsible for depletion of 3.
ozone layers? Water
4.
Chlorofluorocarbon
1.
RAM, ROM, I/O devices, serial
and parallel ports and timers
2.
CPU, RAM, I/O devices, serial
1. A micro controller at-least should consist of:

3.
CPU,RAM, ROM, I/O devices,
serial and parallel ports and
timers
4.
CPU, ROM, I/O devices and
timers
1.
decode,fetch,execute
2.
1. What is the order decided by a processor or the CPU of a controller to execute,fetch,decode
execute an instruction?
3.
fetch,execute,decode
4.
fetch,decode,execute
1.
because they are based on VLSI
technology
2.
1. Why micro controllers are not called general purpose devices? because they are not meant to do
a single work at a time
3.
because they are cheap
4.
because they consume low power
1.
00-2F
2.
00-07
1. On power up, the 8051 uses which RAM locations for register R0- R7
3.
00-7F
4.
00-0F
1.
some immediate data
2.
any register
1. When we add two numbers the destination address must always be.
3.
accumulator
4.
Memory
1.
CY and AC are necessarily 1
2.
either CY or AC is 1
1. DAA command adds 6 to the nibble if:
3.
no relation with CY or AC
4.
CY is 1
1.
a carry is generated from D7 bit
2.
1. In 8 bit signed number operations, OV flag is set to 1 if: 3.
a carry is generated from D7 or
D3 bit
4.
D6 bit
1.
OV
1. In unsigned number addition, status of which bit is important?
2.
CY
3.
AC
4.
PSW
1.
some external crystal applied to
the micro-controller for executing
the timer
2.
1. What is the clock source for the timers? from the crystal applied to the
micro-controller
3.
through the software
4.
through programming
1.
Connect the
decoder input
select lines CBA
to D
Which of the following best describes how to construct a 1-line to 8-
line de-multiplexer from a 3-line to 8-line decoder:
2.connect the select lines of de-mux
CBA as input D for decoder and
input of de-mux as enable input for
decoder
3. Connect the decoder input data
lines to D i
4. Connect the decoder output to D i
1.
USART
2.
The 8051 Micro controller has inbuilt
UART
3.I2C 4.
PWM
1.11.0592 MHz
For serial communication, standard frequency of the crystal for 8051 2.11.0952 MHz
would be 3.11.0295 MHz
4.11MHz
1.Timer 0 & Mode 1
2.Timer 1& Mode 0
In serial communication with 8051 Micro controller ________ timer
&_____mode is used for baud rate generation 3.Timer 0& Mode 2
4.Timer 1& Mode 2

1.
A pole of the transfer function generates the form of the
forced response
2.
natural response
3.Both natural and forced response
4.
Exponential Response
1. Waveguide cant behave as filter
2.
Low pass filter
3.
Rectangular Waveguide behaves as All pass filter
4.
High pass filter
1. TE 20
In circular waveguide the dominat mode is

2. TE 10
3. TE 21
4. TE 11
1.
momentum
2.
velocity
The capacitance, in force-current analogy, is analogous to
3.
displacement
4.
Mass
1.
next interrupt of the interrupt
vector table
2.
next instruction of the program
After RETI instruction is executed then the pointer will move to after the IE instruction
which location in the program?
3.
next instruction after the RETI in
the memory
4.
First Instruction of the program
1.
To initialize any port as an output port what value is to be 0xFF
given to it? 2.
0x11
3.
0x22
4.
A port is by default an output port
1.
Root locus
2.
Bode
Technique gives quick transient and stability response
3.
Nyquist
4.
nichols
1. 24
How many memory chips of (128 x 8) are needed to provide a 2. 32
memory capacity of 4096 x 16? 3. 46
4. 64
1. The Q-point will shift
A certain CE amplifier has a voltage gain of 100. If the emitter 2. The circuit will become unstable
bypass capacitor is removed 3. The voltage gain will decrease
4. The voltage gain will increase
1.has simple poles and zeros in the
left half of the s-plane
2.has no zero or pole at the origin or
An L-C impedance or admittance function: infinity.
3.has all poles on the negative real
axis of the s-plane.
4.is an odd rational function.
1.LPF
By cascading LPF and HPF active filter, the resulting circuit is 2.HPF
3. BPF
4. narrow BSF
1.Bandwidth decreases
2. Implies feedback with positive
sign
Regenerative feedback: 3. Is used to increase the loop gain
of the feedback system
4. Has the transfer function with a
negative sign in the denominator
1. 8
The constellation diagram of QPSK has 2.1
3.2
4. 4
1.circuit with packet switch
Switching technology used in 4G 2. Digital with packet voice
3. Circuit Switched
4. Packet Switched
1.-1
The reflection coefficient of a transmission line with a short- 2. 0.1∠0°

circuited load is
3. ∞
4. 0
1.3dB cut-off frequencies
The bandwidth of an amplifier is determined by 2. The input capacitances
3. The critical frequencies
4. The midrange gain
1.No change
What effect does a clamper have on the peak-to-peak value of its 2. It decreases
input signal 3. It increases
4. zero
1. collector bias
In a C-E configuration, an emitter resistor is used for 2. stabilization
3. higher gain
4. ac signal bypass
1.base voltage
In a transistor, collector current is controlled by 2. base current
3. collector voltage
4. collector resistance
1. Acl<3
The closed loop gain of the wein bridge oscillator must be _______ 2. 0
3. ACl=1
4. Acl=3
1. minimum current gain
In BJT, the Q point on a dc load line in the saturation region 2. cutoff point
represents the 3. intermediate current gain
4. maximum current gain
1. 200
A ring oscillator consisting of 5 inverters is running at a frequency of 2. 400
1MHz.The propagation delay of each inverter is ………………nsec 3. 50
4. 100
1.input imepedance
The input impedance of a λ/2 transformer is 2. terminal admittance

3. characteristics impedance
4. terminal impedance
A direct sequence spread binary phase-shift keying system uses a
feedback shift register of Length 19 for the generation of PN 1. 12.6 dB
sequence. The system is required to have an average probability of 2. 47.5 dB
symbol error due to externally generated interfering signals that does 3. 93.8 dB
not exceed 10 . The Anti-jam margin is
-5 4. 86.9 dB
1. 117
A CDMA system is designed based on DS spread spectrum with a 2. 147
processing gain of 1000 and BPSK modulation scheme. If user has 3. 216
4. 89
equal power and the desired level of performance of an error
probability of 10^-6, the number of user will be
1.One AND and one OR gate
Design procedure of combinational circuit which gives output high if 2.Two AND and one OR gate
the input is greater than 5 involves minimum of ................ gates 3.One AND and two OR gate
4.One AND gate
1. 8
How many minimum numbers of 3-line-to-8-line decoders are 2. 2
required for a 5-of-32 decoder? 3.5
4. 1
1. 1
How many basic binary subtraction operations are possible? 2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
1. 11110000
2. 00000000
If an 8-bit ring counter has an initial state 10111110, what is the state 3. 00010111
after the fourth clock pulse 4.00001011
Ans.all options wrong correct answer
is 11101011
Suppose only one multiplexer and one inverter are allowed to be
1. 2 line to one line
n
used to implement any Boolean function of n variables. What is the

2. 2 line one line
n+1
minimum size of the multiplexer needed?

n-1

n-2
1.
h1(t) * h2(t)
2.
If two system with impulse responses are h1(t) and h2(t) connected h1(t) + h2(t)
in parallel then the overall impulse response is 3.
h1(t) - h2(t)
4.
h1(t)h2(t)
1.
100 VARS.
2.
For an AC circuit, if v(t) = 160 sin (ω t+ 10°) v and i(t) = 5 sin (ωt - 200 VARS.
20 °) A; then reactive power absorbed by the circuit is
3. 400 VARS.
4.
300 VARS.
1.Cut-off Frequency
______________ is defined as the frequency at which the magnitude
of a circuit response function is reduced to 1/√2 times its maximum 2. Critical Frequency
value 3.Power frequency
4. Resonant Frequency
1.
1236 W.
A balanced 3 - Φ star connected load is fed from a 208 V, 3 - Φ
supply. Each load has resistance of 35 Ω. The total power is 2.
618 W.
3.
411.3 W.
4.309 W
1.
1∠ 90° Ω.
A balanced delta connected load has an impedance of 9∠ 30° Ω 2.

per phase. What is the impedance per phase of its equivalent 3∠ 30° Ω.
star?
3.
28∠ 30° Ω.
4.
27∠ 90° Ω.
1.
f /2
0
A circuit with resistor, inductor, and capacitor in series is 2. Still f . 0
resonant frequency of 50 Hz. If all the values are now doubled, 3.

the new resonant frequency is f / 4.
0
4.
2f . 0
1.
47.1 Ω
2.
A reactance having an inductor of 0.15 H is connected in series 1.5 Ω
with 10 Ω resistances. What will be the inductive reactance?
3.
10 Ω
4.
48.15 Ω
1.32 MHz
An RLC circuit has a resonance frequency of 160 kHz and a Q- 2.16 MHz
factor of 100. Its band width is 3.
1.6 kHz.
4.
0.625 kHz.
1. Characteristics impedance
Input impedance of transmission line does not depends on 2. Frequency
3. Length of the line
4. Source impedance
1.
I = Irms / √2
2.
In a series RLC circuit the current can be found using: I = V(across source) / Z
3.
I = V(across resistance)/R
4.
I = Irms * √2
1.
1/(1 + 4π2f2)
2.
If the autocorrelation function of a random process X(t) is given 1/(1 + π f )
2 2
byRX(τ)=exp(-2|tau|)u(tau) . Power spectral density of X(t) is 3.

1/(4 + π2f2) same
4.
4/(4 + 4π2f2)
1. completely specified function of
time
A deterministic signal has 2. uncertainity
3. no uncertainity
4.Definite Certainity
1. zero input produces non-zero output
2. zero input produces zero output
A LTI system is said to be initially relaxed system only if ____ 3.Zero input produces infinite output
4. zero input produces an output equal to

unity
1.
only sine terms
2.
Only cosine terms
If periodic signal has odd symmetry, then the Fourier series contains
3.
4.
Multiply of Cosine and Sine terms
1.both the input offset voltage and the
The output offset voltage is determined by ________. closed-loop gain
2. input offset current
3. the closed-loop gain
4. the input offset voltage and input
offset current
1. Miss penalty
The extra time needed to bring the data into memory in case of a 2. jitter
miss is called as 3. Propogation Time
4. Delay
1.worsen the stability
Compensating networks are used in op-amp to 2. decrease the gain
3. increase the BW
4. improve the stability
1. Soft
In a ______ handoff, a mobile station can communicate with two 2.hard – medium
base stations at the same time 3. Hard
4. Medium
1. Grade of Service
______ denotes the traffic intensity the entire trunked radio system. 2. Load
3. Traffic intensity
4.quality of Service
1.greater
2.very smaller
Ideal physical antenna length is ________ than its electrical length.
3.smaller
4.equal
1. Mini waves
The frequency range of 1GHz to 30 GHz are referred as 2. Light waves
3. Sound waves
4. Microwaves
1.non-radiating
Spiral antenna is a 2. narraow band antenna
3. broadband antenna
4. dual band antenna
1. PIN photodiode
Which of the following is NOT a common light detector 2.Zener diode
3. Photodiode
4. Avalanche photodiode
1. capacitor within op-amp
2. feedback network with active
The gain of op-amp decreases to high frequencies because of device
3.capacitor in the feedback
4.resistance in the feedback
1.fluctuating
As reverse bias voltage is increased, for a diode, the base width at 2. increases
the junction 3. decreases
4. remains same
1. both open and closed loop
Faraday's law is valid for both open and closed loops. The Lenz's 2. Only open loop
law is valid for 3. only closed loop.
4. neither open loop nor closed loop
1.
A) 10 MHz
2.
An amplifier whose open loop response is characterized by a dc gain of 105 V/V A) 30 MHz
and a 3 dB roll off at 20 KHz, is connected in a feedback loop for which the
overall low frequency gain is 100V/V. what is the 3 dB roll-off with feedback? 3.
A) 20 MHz
4.
A) 40 MHz
1. To maintain the amplitude

spectrum
2. To maintain the symmetry of the
Why are the negative & positive phase shifts introduced for positive & phase spectrum
negative frequencies respectively in amplitude and phase spectra? 3. To change the symmetry of the phase
spectrum
4. To change and maintain the symmetry
of the phase spectrum
1.90
2.180
when a phasor is multiplied by –j,it is rotated through ________in
3.45
the counter clockwise direction
4.Both magnitude and direction
change
1.Trignometrical
2.Rectangular
For addition or subtraction of phasors,we use ______ form
3.Polar
4.Trignometrical and polar
1.Linear and time variant system
RC low pass filter is a 2. Linear and time invariant system
3. Time variant system
4. Linear system
What form of waveform is shown here?
1.
a multi-valued digital signal
2.
a binary signal
3.
an analogue signal
4.
a digital signal
1. Electric discharge
The work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to 2. Potential difference
another in an electric field is known as 3. displacement
4. charge transformation
Consider the figure given below. The given amplifier
is showing nonlinear behavior with A =104 V/V for Vo
<= 0.2 V , A= 103 V/V for 0.2 V < Vo < 1 V but it hard
limits at Vo =1 V. The β of feedback loop is 0.01.
1.
Find Vi when Vo=0.99 V.
a) 0.9 mV
2.
a) 0.099 mV
3.
a) 0.99 mV
4.
2.5 mV
Refer to this figure. Determine the frequency of oscillation,
1. 232 Hz
2. 262 Hz
3. 2.62 kHz
4. 131 Hz
1. short circuit protection

2. o/p voltage is fixed
The three terminal regulator has output following limitations: 3. no short circuit protection
4.o/p voltage is fixed and no short
circuit protection
1.
The input offset current equals the ………. difference between two bias currents
2.
average of two bias currents
3.
collector current divided by current
gain
4.
addition of two bias currents
1. Telephony
FSK is used mostly in 2. Radar communication
3. Radio transmission
4. Telegraphy
1.
more
2.
Total recombination lifetime in direct bandgap less
semiconductors…………………..than that of indirect bandgap
semiconductors 3.
Equal
4.
Equal or more
1. Java
System of embedding links in a text to link to other text 2. HTML
3. Embedded linking
4. HTTP
1.DSL available multiplexer
DSLAM stands for 2. DSL asynchronous multiplexer
3. DSL access multiplexer
4. DSL asymmetric multiplexer
1. 890-915 MHz
The uplink frequency of P-GSM system is 2.890-915 GHz
3. 1710-1785MHz
4. 1850-1910MHz
1. By installing the Omnidirectional
The technique adopted to increase the system capacity and reduce antenna
co-chl interference is 2. Sectorisation
3. High power BTS
4.Low power BTS
1. equal to that of a half wave
rectifier
2.higher than half that for a half-
The ripple factor of a full-wave rectifier circuit compared to that of a wave rectifier circuit
half wave rectifier circuit without filter is 3. half of that for a half 'wave
rectifier
4. less than half that for a half-wave
rectifier circuit
What type of diode circuit is used to add or restore a dc level to an 1. clipper or limiter
electrical signal? 2. clamper
3. IC voltage regulator
4. Quantizer
A signal m(t) = 10cos(2π100t) undergoes frequency modulates a 1. 3.2 kHz
carrier. The resulting FM signal is x(t) = 20cos(2π106t + 2. 10 KHz
15sin(2π100t)). The approximate bandwidth of the FM used be 3. 1 kHz
4. 100kHz
1.no switching
3G wireless data network uses 2.Both Circuit and Packet Switched
3. Circuit Switched
4. Packet Switched
1. By increasing the number of wires
2. By random access
The capacity of the wire-line system can be increased 3. By TDMA
4.By increasing the number of wires
or random access or TDMA
1.Watts
2.Volt ampere
the unit of average power is _____
3.Newton
4.Volt ampere Reactive
1.
is periodic
2.
is not periodic
The signal x(t) = 2 cos (pi t) + 3sin (2t)
3.
may or may not be periodic
4.
is periodic with certain conditions
1.
sin ((1 - α)/(1 + α) -1
The transfer function of phase lead compensator is 2.

given by G(s) = (1 + TS)/(1 + αTS), where, T > 0, α cos ((1 - α)/(1 + α)
-1
< 0. What is the maximum phase shit provided by this 3.

compensator? tan ((1 - α)/(2√α) -1
4.
sin-1((1 - α)/(1 + α) and tan-
1
((1 - α)/(2√α)
1. General packet radio Switching
____________ is the expansion of GPRS. 2. Genuine packet radio System
3. General packet radio service
4. Genuine packet radio switching
1. Shape of signal in time domain &
shape of spectrum can never be
interchangeable
2. Shape of signal in frequency domain
Duality Theorem / Property of Fourier Transform states that _________ & shape of spectrum can never be
interchangeable
shape of spectrum can be
interchangeable
4. Shape of signal in frequency domain
& shape of spectrum can be
interchangeable
1. It is the comparison between the
actual output of the converter and its
expected output.
2. It is the difference between the input
and output
What is the resolution of a digital-to-analog converter (DAC)? 3. It is its ability to resolve between
forward and reverse steps when
sequenced over its entire range.
4. It is the smallest analog output
change that can occur as a result of an
increment in the digital input.
1.
An energy signal
2.
A power signal
A signal x(t) = A cos(omega_0 t+phi) is
3.
Energy as well as power signal
4.
Neither energy nor power signal
1.
power signal
2.
energy signal
The signal x(t) = e^(-2t)u(t) is
3.
neither power nor energy
4.
either power or energy
1.
2 sec
2.
5 sec
The time period of the signal x(t) = cos (2*pi*t) + sin (5*pi*t) is
3.
10 sec
4.
2.5 sec
1.
periodic with period pi
2.
The signal x[n] = cos (2n) is
periodic with period 2
3.
periodic with period 4\pi
4.
Aperiodic
1.
cost, sint
2.
sint, -cos t
The odd and even component of signal u(t) are
3.
(u(t) - u(-t))/2, (u(t) + u(-t))/2
4.
cost,-jsint
1.1/Cos x
2.tan x
The power factor is given by _______
3.sin x
4.Cos x
1.
1 ohm resistance
2.
1 ohm resistance in parallel with 1H
inductance
A source of angular frequency 1 rad/sec has source impedance
consisting of 1 ohm resistance in series with 1 H inductance. The 3.
load that will obtain the maximum power transfer is: 1 ohm resistance in parallel with 1F
capacitor
4.
1 ohm resistance in series with 1F
capacitor
School of Electronics Engineering
Department of Communication Engg.
B.Tech. - Electronics and Communication Engg.
COMPRE Model Questions
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
Question Question with choice Answer

No.
1. One of the following laws governs the movement of artificial satellites in d
earths orbit.
a) Newton law of mechanics
b) Laws of quantum mechanics
c) Galilean laws
d) Kepler’s laws
2. One of the following is a standard payload of any meteorological satellite a
a) Very High resolution radiometer (VHRR)
b) Telescope
c) Beam Shifter
d) antenna
3. With reference to satellite orbit Apogee is a
a) Highest point in the orbit
b) lowest point in the orbit
c)Parking orbit
d) still orbit
4. The earth observational satellites are placed in _________ orbits a
a) sun synchronous
b) elliptical orbit
c) circular orbit
d) corner orbit
5. The orbit inclination correction maneuver is carried out at ______ b

a) midnight
b) nodal points
c) regular intervals
d) center points.
6. An eccentricity figure of greater than unity would imply that c

a) the satellite orbit becomes elliptical
b) the satellite orbit becomes circular
c) the satellite escapes from the orbit
d) the satellite will not operate in the orbit.
7. The satellite orbit is termed as a retrograde orbit when its angle of inclination b
a) becomes 45°
b) exceeds 90°
c) zero
d) becomes 90°
8. The orbital velocity of the satellite b
a) is directly proportional to its distance from earths surface
b) is inversely proportional to square root of its distance from earths
center.
c) depends upon the thrust with which it is launched.
d) ) is inversely proportional to the distance from earths center.
9. The Minimum number of geostationary satellite needed for uninterrupted a
global coverage is
a) 3
b) 4
c) 1
d) 2
10. Satellite Capacity depends on d
a) weight that can be placed in orbit
b)panel area available for energy dissipation
c) transmitter power
d) all the above.
11. The average failure rate of a satellite component is c
a) 2 λ = 1 / MTBF
b) λ = 3.14 / MTBF
c) λ = 1 / MTBF
d) λ = MTBF
12. One of the following communication satellites is in a highly eccentric a
inclined orbit
a)Molniya series
b) Raduga satellite.
c) Ekran Satellite
d) Gorizont satellite.
13. Power loss that comes from the spreading of the signal in space is _______ b
a) Feeder space loss
b) Free space loss
c) spreading loss
d) zero
14. In Analog links the degradation of signal takes the form of a decrease in a
a) S/N ratio
b) spikes
c) frequency
d) signal
15. If(G) is the earth’s gravitational constant and (M) the mass of earth, then for a a
circular orbit of radius (R) ,the satellite’s Orbital velocity (V) is given by
a) V=SQRT(GM/R)
b) V=SQRT(2GM/R)
c) V=SQRT(R/GM)
d) V=SQRT(2G/R)
16. In a satellite orbit around the earth, the force acting outwards from the center c
of earth is the
a) force of gravitation
b) centripetal force
c) centrifugal force
d) Impulse force.
17. a
In a spin stabilized geostationary satellite, the spin axis is
a) Perpendicular to the orbital plane.
b) in the plane of the orbit.
c) Inclined at 45° to the orbital plane.
d) Parallel to the orbital plane.
18. b
For an antenna with a circular aperture, if the operating frequency is
doubled, then for the same antenna gain, the antenna diameter
a) can be reduced to one-fourth
b)can be reduced to half
c) can be increased to four times
d) can be reduced to one-third.
19. a
For an eccentric elliptical orbit with eccentricity (e) and semi-major axis (a)
The apogee point distance from the center of earth having a radius of (R) is
given by
a) ra=a(1+e)
b) ra=a(1-e)
c) ra=a(1+e)/R
d) ra=aR(1+e)
20. a
Earth station figure of merit is defined as
a) 10log (G/T)
b) 10ln (G/T)
c) 10log GT
d) 20log (G/T)
21. Which one of the following is an example of open-loop system?
a) Light switch
b) Automatic electric iron a
c) Air conditioner
d) Water level controller
22. Consider the following statements regarding a linear system 𝑦=𝑓 𝑥

1. 𝑓 𝑥1 + 𝑥2 = 𝑓 𝑥1 + 𝑓 𝑥2 c
2. 𝑓 𝑥 𝑡 + 𝑇 = 𝑓 𝑥 𝑡 + 𝑓 𝑥 𝑇
3. 𝑓 𝐾𝑥 = 𝐾 𝑓(𝑥)
Of these statements
a) 1, 2, 3 are correct
b) 1 & 2 are correct
c) 1 & 3 are correct
d) 3 alone is correct
23. Which of the following is the best method for determining the stability and
transient response ?
a) Root locus a
b) Bode plot
c) Nyquist plot
d) None of the above
24. The steady-state error of a feedback control system with an acceleration input c
becomes finite in a
a) type 0 system.
b) type 1 system.
c) type 2 system
d) type 3 system.
25. The transient response, with feedback system, d
a) rises slowly
b) rises quickly
c) decays slowly
d) decays quickly
26. The damping ratio of a system having the characteristic equation S 2 +2S+8=0 a
is
a) 0.353
b) 0.330
c) 0.300
d) 0.250
27. The input to a controller is c
a) sensed signal.
b) desired variable value.
c) error signal.
d) servo-signal.
28. Transfer function of a system is used to calculate which of the following ? c
a) The order of the system
b) The time constant
c) The output for any given input
d) The steady state gain
29. Which of the following statements is correct for a system with gain margin c
close to unity or a phase margin close to zero ?
a) The system is relatively stable
b) The system is highly stable
c) The system is highly oscillatory
30. A phase lag lead network introduces in the output c
a) lag at all frequencies
b) lag at high frequencies and lead at low frequencies
c) lag at low frequencies and lead at high frequencies
d) none of the above
31. In force-voltage analogy, velocity is analogous to a
a) current
b) charge
c) inductance
d) capacitance
32. a
A Closed- loop system is unstable if
a)Both gain margin and Phase margin are negative
b)Gain margin is positive and phase margin is negative
c)Gain margin is negative and phase margin is positive
d) Both gain and phase margin are positive
33. Static error co-efficients are used as a measure of the effectiveness of closed d
loop systems for specified ________ input signal.
a) acceleration
b) velocity
c) position
d) all of the above
34. ________ Technique is not applicable to nonlinear system ? a
a) Nyquist Criterion
b) Quasi linearization
c) Functional analysis
d) Phase-plane representation
35. c
36. If the gain of the critical damped system is increased it will behave as d
a) oscillatory
b) critically damped
c) overdamped
d) underdamped
37. In order to increase the damping of a badly underdamped system which of a
following compensators may be used ?
a) Phase-lead
b) Phase-lag
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Either (a) and (b)
38. Phase margin of a system is used to specify which of the following ? c
a) Frequency response
b) Absolute stability
c) Relative stability
d) Time response
39. b
For the system shown in the figure the transfer function C  s  R  s  is equal to
40. The initial response when the output is not equal to input is called a
a) Transient response
b) Error response
c) Dynamic response
d) Either of the above
41. If the Nyquist plot of the loop transfer function GsHsof a closed-loop c
system encloses the 1, jopoint in the GsHsplane, the gain margin of
the system is
a) zero.
b) greater than zero.
c) less than zero.
d) infinity.
42. The circuits in homes are connected in parallel rather than series because it is c
a) Economical
b) easy to do
c) possible to get same voltage
d) possible to get same current
43. Find the current in 5 Ω resistors using nodal voltage method. a
a) 2 A
b) b) 10 A
c) c) 4 A
d) d) 20 A
44. Determine thevenin resistance across bc terminals. b
a) 5Ω
b) 2.86 Ω
c) 3.21 Ω
d) 3 Ω
45. Determine,No.of meshes ,No.of nodes and No.of branches for the following c
circuit.
a) 3,4,5
b) 4,3,5
c) 3.3.5
d) 3,5,3
46. a
The equivalent resistance of the circuit in Fig.
a) 4kΩ b) 8k Ω c) 5k Ω d) 14 k Ω
47. . Superposition theorem is applicable only to networks that are: a
a) Linear.
b) Nonlinear.
c)time-invariant.
d)passive.
48. A network N is to be connected to load of 500 ohms. If the Thevenin’s b
equivalent voltage and Norton’s equivalent current of N are 5 Volts and
10mA respectively, the current through
the load will be
a) 10mA
b) 5mA
c) 2.5mA
d) 1mA
49. 5. For the circuit shown in Fig, the voltage across the last resistor is 1V. All a
resistors are of 1Ω .
The VS is given by
a) 13 V
b) 4V
c) 8V
d) 1V
50. b
A delta configuration has equal resistances of 5 Ω. Find the resistances in its
star equivalent.
a) 5 Ω
b) 1.67 Ω
c) 10 Ω
d) 15 Ω
51. c
The total current supplied by the 6 v battery is

a) 1 A
b) 2A
c) 4 A
d) 6 A
52. Which coding technique/s exhibit/s the usability of fixed length codes? a
a) Lempel Ziv
b) Huffman
c) Both a and b
d)None of the above
53. Which among the following is used to construct the binary code that satisfies d
the prefix condition?
a) Information Rate
b)Noiseless Channel
c) Channel Coding Theorem
d) Kraft Inequality
54. Information rate basically gives an idea about the generated information per a
_____ by source.
a)Second
b) Minute
c) Hour
55. If a noiseless channel bandlimited to 5 kHz is sampled every 1msec, what d

will be the value of sampling frequency?
a) 250 samples/sec
b) 500 samples/sec
c) 800 samples/sec
d) 1000 samples/sec
56. Assuming that the channel is noiseless, if TV channels are 8 kHz wide with c
the bits/sample = 3Hz and signaling rate = 16 x 106 samples/second, then
what would be the value of data rate?
a) 16 Mbps
b) 24 Mbps
c) 48 Mbps
d) 64 Mbps
57. On which factor/s do/does the channel capacity depend/s in the c

communication system?
a) Bandwidth
b) Signal to Noise Ratio
c) Both a and b
58. For a (6,4) block code where n = 6, k = 4 and dmin = 3, how many errors can b
be corrected by this code?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
59. In Repetition Code, how many information bit/s is/are present in addition to a
n-1 parity bits?
a) One
b) Two
c) Four
d) Eight
60. Consider the assertions related to decoding process of cyclic code. Which d
among the following is a correct sequence of steps necessary for the
correction of errors?
A. Syndrome determination after the division of r(x) & g(x)
B. Addition of error pattern to received code word
C. Selection of error pattern corresponding to the syndrome
D. Preparation of table comprising error patterns and syndromes
a)A,B,C,D
b)B,A,D,C
c) C,B,D,A
d) D,A,C,B
61. Which among the below stated logical circuits are present in encoder and A
decoder used for the implementation of cyclic codes?
A. Shift Registers
B. Modulo-2 Adders
C. Counters
D. Multiplexers
a) A & B
b) C & D
c) A & C
d) B & D
62. Which one of the below is not divide and conquer approach? b
a) Insertion Sort
b) Merge Sort
c) Shell Sort
d) Heap Sort
63. What data structure can be used to check if syntax has balanced parenthesis? d
a) Queue
b) Tree
c) List
d) stack
64. The following formula is of c
left_subtree (keys) ≤ node (key) ≤ right_subtree (keys)

a) Binary Tree
b) Complete Binary Tree
c) Binary Search Tree
d) All of the above
65. Which of the following commands will copy the contents of RAM whose c
address is in register 0 to port 1?
a) MOV @ P1, R0
b) MOV @ R0, P1
c) MOV P1, @ R0
d) MOV P1, R0
66. An alternate function of port pin P3.0 (RXD) in the 8051 is: a
a) serial port input

b) serial port output
c) memory write strobe
d) memory read strobe
67. When the 8051 is reset and the line is HIGH, the program counter points to a
the first program instruction in the:
a) internal code memory

b) external code memory
c) internal data memory
d) external data memory
68. The transmit buffer of serial data buffer is a b
a) serial-in parallel-out register

b) parallel-in serial-out register
c) serial-in serial-out register
d) parallel-in parallel-out register
69. The register that provides control and status information about serial port is d
a) IP
b) IE
c) TSCON
d) PCON and SCON
70. An example of a system that may use a process pipeline is a _________. a
a) High-speed data acquisition system

b) Failure of a power supply in an embedded system
c) Both High-speed data acquisition system AND Failure of a power
supply in an embedded system
d) None of the mentioned.
71. The extra time needed to bring the data into memory in case of a miss is called c
as _____.
a) Delay
b) Propagation time
c) Miss penalty
72. Out of the following which is not a CISC machine. d
a) IBM 370/168
b) VAX 11/780
c) Intel 80486
d) Motorola A567
73. c
To increase the speed of memory access in pipelining, we make use of _______.
a) Special memory locations
b) Special purpose registers
c) Cache
d) Buffers
74. The contention for the usage of a hardware device is called as ______. a
a) Structural hazard
b) Stalk
c) Deadlock
d) None of the mentioned
75. b
If memory access takes 20 ns with cache and 110 ns without it, then the ratio (
cache uses a 10 ns memory) is
a) 93%
b) 90%
c) 88%
d) 87%
76. c
If the main memory is of 8K bytes and the cache memory is of 2K words. It
uses associative mapping. Then each word of cache memory shall be
a) 11 bits
b) 21 bits
c) 16 bits
d) 20 bits
77. a
The return address from the interrupt-service routine is stored on the
a) System heap
b) Processor register
c) Processor stack
d) Memory
78. c
The DMA controller has _______ registers
a) 4
b) 2
c) 3
d) 1
79. a
Which method/s of representation of numbers occupies large amount of
memory than others?
a) Sign-magnitude
b) 1’s compliment
c) 2’s compliment
d) Both a and b
80. d
When 1101 is used to divide 100010010 the remainder is ______.
a) 101
b) 11
c) 0
d) 1
81. b
The program is divided into operable parts called as _________.
a) Frames
b) Segments
c) Pages
d) Sheets
82. A characteristic curve is the result of a current versus voltage plot of diode c
activity, which begins at the:
a) 3rd quadrant
b) current plot
c) graph origin
d) voltage plot
83. Rectifier output polarity depends upon: d

a) cycles of input
b) capacitor polarity
c) half or full wave
d) diode installation
84. With a 12 V supply, a silicon diode, and a 370-ohm resistor in series, what b
voltage will be dropped across the diode?
a) 0.3 V
b) 0.7 V
c) 0.9 V
d) 1.4 V
85. With a half-wave rectified voltage across the load resistor, load current flows c
for what part of a cycle?
a) 0 degrees
b) 90 degrees
c) 180 degrees
d) 360 degrees
86. The voltage where current may start to flow in a reverse-biased pn junction is a
called the
a) breakdown voltage
b) barrier potential
c) forward voltage
d) biasing voltage
87. The area at the junction of p-type and n-type materials that has lost its b
majority carriers is called the
a) barrier potential
b) depletion region
c) n region
d) p region
88. In a power supply diagram, which block indicates a pulsating dc output? c

a) transformer
b) filter
c) rectifier
d) regulator
89. The ripple factor of a full-wave rectifier circuit compared to that of a half b
wave rectifier circuit without filter is
a) half of that for a half 'wave rectifier
b) less than half that for a half-wave rectifier circuit
c) equal to that of a half wave rectifier.
d) none of the above.
90. The output frequency of a full-wave rectifier is ________ the input c

frequency.
a) one-half
b) equal to
c) twice
d) one-quarter
91. A short circuit has a ________ drop across its terminals, and the current is b
limited only by the surrounding network.
a) 5 V
b) 0 V
c) 1 V
d) infinity
92. What type of diode circuit is used to add or restore a dc level to an electrical b
signal?
a) clipper or limiter
b) clamper
c) IC voltage regulator
93. If the ac supply is 50 Hz, what will be the ripple frequency out of the full- c
wave rectifier?
a) 50 Hz
b) 60 Hz
c) 100 Hz
d) D. 120 Hz
94. Rectifiers are commonly used in battery chargers. a
a) True
b) B. False
95. The normal operating region for a zener diode is the d
a) forward-bias region.
b) reverse-bias region.
c) zero-crossing region.
d) D. reverse-breakdown region
96. What type of diode is commonly used in electronic tuners in TVs? a
a) varactor
b) Schottky
c) LED
d) D. Gunn
97. A ________ filter significantly attenuates all frequencies below fc and passes b
all frequencies above fc.
a) low-pass
b) high-pass
c) band-pass
d) D. band-stop
98. A capacitor circuit doesnot allow to pass________component. b
a) a.c.
b) d.c.
c) voltage
d) D. current
99. The maximum efficiency of full wave rectification is c
a) 40.6%
b) 100%
c) 81.2%
d) D. 85.6%
100. What is another name for a clipper? A
a) A limiter
b) A dc restorer
c) C. A half-wave rectifier
101. What effect does a clamper have on the peak-to-peak value of its input signal a
a) It increases.
b) It decreases.
c) C. None
102. All
A precision diode can be used as
a) Half wave rectification
b) Full wave rectification
c) Clipper
d) Damper
103. The frequency of triangular wave generator oscillates is given by ( c

Where P = Vpp / Vsat)
a) f = 4 PRC
b) f = PR/2C
c) f = P/2RC
d) f = P/RC
104. a
In Schmitt trigger, Vo = 8 V, Vut = 4 V and Vlt = 3 V. Calculate R1 / R2 &
Vref.
a) 15, 3.73 V
b) 1.5, 37.3 V
c) 15, 37.3 V
d) 1.5, 0.373 V
105. The slew rate for IC 741 is a
a) 0.5 V/μs
b) (b) 0.9 V/μs
c) (c) 0.8 V/μs
d) (d) 1 V/μs
106. Another name for a unity gain amplifier is a

a) Voltage follower
b) b)Integrator
c) c) Differentiator
d) d) Inverting Amplifier
107. c
An ideal op-amp should have
a) Zero input impedance and output impedance
b) Infinite input and output impedance
c) Infinite input impedance and zero output impedance
d) Zero input impedance and infinite output impedance
108. What is the slew rate of an op-amp if the output voltages change from 2 V to b
3 V in 0.2 ms?
a) 5 V/ms
b)
c) 50 V/ ms
d)
109. A retriggerable one shot has a pulse of 10 ms. 3 ms after being triggered, c
another trigger pulse is applied. The resulting output pulse will be ________
ms.
a) 3
b) 7
c) 10
d) 13
110. A 22-k resistor and a 0.02- F capacitor are connected in series to a 5-V b
source. How long will it take the capacitor to charge to 3.4 V?
a) 0.44 ms
b) 0.501 ms
c) 0.66 ms
d) 0.70 ms
111. What is the function of the comparators in the 555 timer circuit? b
a) to compare the output voltages to the internal voltage divider
b) to compare the input voltages to the internal voltage divider
c) to compare the output voltages to the external voltage divider
d) to compare the input voltages to the external voltage divider
112. What is the difference between an astable multivibrator and a monostable a

multivibrator?
a) The astable is free running.
b) The astable needs to be clocked.
c) The monostable is free running.
113. A monostable 555 timer has the following number of stable states: b
a) A.0
b) B. 1
c) C. 2
d) D. 3
114. A 4-bit R/2R digital-to-analog (DAC) converter has a reference of 5 volts. b
What is the analog output for the input code 0101.
a) 0.3125 V
b) 3.125 V
c) 0.78125 V
d) –3.125 V
115. A binary-weighted digital-to-analog converter has a feedback resistor, Rf, of b

12 k . If 50 A of current is through the resistor, the voltage out of the
circuit is:
a) 0.6 V
b) –0.6 V
c) 0.1 V
d) –0.1 V
116. The difference between analog voltage represented by two adjacent digital c
codes, or the analog step size of DAC, is the:
a) quantization
b) accuracy
c) resolution
d) monotonicity
117. The resolution of a 0–5 V 6-bit digital-to-analog converter (DAC) is: c

a) 63%
b) 64%
c) 1.56%
d) 15.6%
118. What is the major advantage of the R/2R ladder digital-to-analog (DAC), as a
compared to a binary-weighted digital-to-analog DAC converter?
a) It only uses two different resistor values.
b) It has fewer parts for the same number of inputs.
c) Its operation is much easier to analyze.
d) The virtual ground is eliminated and the circuit is therefore easier
to understand and troubleshoot.
119. A binary-weighted resistor used in a digital-to-analog converter (DAC) is d

only practical up to a resolution of ________.
a) 10 bits
b) 2 bits
c) 8 bits
d) 4 bits
120. A low-pass filter has a cutoff frequency of 1.23 kHz. Determine the b
bandwidth of the filter.
a) 2.46 kHz
b) 1.23 kHz
c) 644 Hz
d) not enough information given
121. Refer to the given figure. This is a ________ filter. a
a) band-pass
b) band-stop
c) high-pass
d) low-pass
122. Signal travel through various paths and arrives at receivers at different time- b
multipath propagation.
a) Additive Noise Channel.
b) Linear Filter Channel.
c) Linear Time-Variant Filter Channel.
d) None of the above.
123. Symbols 1 and 0 are represented by pulse of equal positive and negative a
amplitudes is called as
a) NRZ- Polar
b) RZ- Polar
c) NRZ- Unipolar
d) RZ- Unipolar
124. The presence of channel noise and interference causes the repeater to make b
wrong decision occasionally, thereby introducing
____________________________ in the regenerated signal.
a) Jitter
b) Bit error
c) Data rate
d) interference
125. If the spacing between received pulses deviated from its assigned value a ----- a
--------- is introduced into the regenerated pulse position.
a) Jitter
b) Bit error
c) Data rate
d) interference
126. Which one is channel coding technique? c
a) Huffman coding
b) Shannon Coding
c) Convolutional Codes
d) Arithmetic coding
127. Step size can be made smaller for smaller signals and larger for larger signals. d
a) PCM
b) DPCM
c) DM
d) ADM
128. The output is zero for zero input, and the idle channel noise is b
correspondingly Zero
a) Mid-tread
b) Mid-riser
c) Non Uniform
129. Width of the main spectral lobe, where most of the signal power is contained. b
a) Half power Bandwidth
b) Null to null Bandwidth
c) Absolute Bandwidth
d) None
130. Which one of the following is used to detect the unknown signal d
a) Coherent BFSK
b) Coherent BPSK
c) QPSK
d) DPSK
131. QPSK requires ----------------transmission bandwidth of the BPSK. b
a) ¼
b) b.1/2
c) 1/3
d) d. twice
132. Transmitted signal energy per symbol is twice the signal energy per bit. d
Identify the system
a) Pe= ½ erfc (sqrt (Eb/4No)
b) Pe= ½ erfc (sqrt (Eb/No)
c) Pe= ½ erfc (sqrt (Eb/2No)
d) Pe= erfc (sqrt (Eb/No)
133. For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for n data packets sent, _______ acknowledgments b
are needed.
a) a.0
b) b. n
c) c.n-1
d) d.n+1
134. The shortest frame in HDLC protocol is _________ b
a) I-frame
b) B.S-frame
c) U-Frame
d) d. None
135. In _________, the station configuration is unbalanced. We have one primary b
station and multiple secondary stations.
a) a.ABM
b) b.NRM
c) c.ARM
d) d.NBM
136. c
A timer is set when _______ is (are) sent out.
a) a.ACK
b) b.NAK
c) c. Data frame
d) d. All of the above
137. You download a file from an FTP site on the Internet. What is the highest b
layer in the OSI model used in this FTP operation?
a) Data link
b) Application
c) Session
d) Network
138. b
Source routing Bridge is used in
a)Ethernet LAN
b) Token ring
c) Wi-Fi
d) None
139. b
Actual rate at which information is sent over the channel.
a) Efficiency
b) Throughput
c) normalized delay bandwidth
d) frame transfer delay.
140. The subnet mask for a class C network is 255.255.255.240. How many a
subnetwork are available?
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16
d) None
141. An organization has been granted a class B address. If the organization has 64 b
subnets, how many addresses are available in each subnet (including special
addresses)?
a) 65,534
b) 1024
c) 256
d) None
142. The frequency range of 1GHz to 30 GHz are referred as b
a) Sound waves
b) Microwaves
c) Mini waves
d) None of these
143. The most suitable method for detecting a modulated signal a

2.5 + 5 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜔𝑚 𝑡 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜔𝑐 𝑡 𝑖𝑠
a) Envelope detector
b) Synchronous detector
c) Ratio detector
d) both (a) and (b)
144. In FM the carrier frequency deviation is determined by a

a) Modulating voltage
b) Modulating frequency
c) Both a &b
d) None of these.
145. The received signal frequency of a superhetrodyne receiver having IF=456 a

kHZ, is 1MHz. The corresponding image signal is
a) With in its medium band
b) Outside the medium band
c) Depends on modulation index
d) Depends on modulating frequency
146. The plot of modulation index versus carrier amplitude yields a d
a) Horizontal line
b) Vertical line
c) Parabola
d) Hyperbola
147. A carrier is amplitude modulation to depth of 40%. The increase in power is d
a) 40 %
b) 20 %
c) 16 %
d) 8 %
148. Which of the following analog modulation scheme requires the minimum c
transmitted power and minimum bandwidth?
a) VSB
b) DSB-SC
c) SSB
d) AM
149. The Hilbert transform is a a
a) Non linear system
b) Non-causal system
c) Time varying system
d) Low pass system
150. In FDM system used for telephone, which modulation scheme is adopted? b
a) AM
b) DSB-SC
c) SSB
d) FM
151. In amplitude modulated system, the total power is 600W and the power in d
carrier is 400W, then the modulation index is
a) 0.5
b) 0.75
c) 0.90
d) 1
152. The modulating frequency in frequency modulation is increased from 10 kHz c
to 20 kHz. The bandwidth is
a)doubled
b) Halved
c) Increased by 20 kHz
d) Increase tremendously
153. a
Figure of merit is always unity in
a)SSB
b) AM
c) FM
d) All the three
154. A sinusoidal 400 Hz modulating signal of 2V amplitude frequency modulates d
a carrier and produces 70 kHz frequency deviation. The frequency sensitivity
is given by
a) 140 kHz/V
b) b) 70 kHz/V
c) c) 72 kHz/V
d) d) 35 kHz/V
155. Two sinusoidal signals of same amplitude and frequency of 10 kHz and 10.1 a
kHz are added together. The combined signal is given to an ideal frequency
detector. The output of the detector
a)0.1 kHz sinusoid
b) 20.1 kHz sinusoid
c) A linear function of time
d) A constant
156. Which one of the following blocks is not common in both AM and FM d
receiver?
a)RF amplifier
b) Mixer
c) IF amplifier
d) Slope detector
157. b
A PAM signal can be detected by using
a)ADC
b) Integrator
c) Bandpass filter
d) High pass filter
158. The Nyquist sampling rate for a signal band limited 5 kHz is b
a)5 kHz
b) 10 kHz
c) 2.5 kHz
d) 20 kHz
159. b
Johnson noise is
a)Always white
b) White for all practical frequencies
c)Never white
d)Depends on temperature.
160. c
A narrow band noise shows
a)Amplitude modulation only
b) Frequency modulation only
c)Both AM and FM
d) None
161. A system has a receiver noise resistance of 50 ohm. It is connected to an c
antenna with an input resistance of 50 ohm. The noise figure of the system is
a)1
b) 2
c ) 50
d) 101
162. What is the maximum data rate for the 802.11a standard d
a) 6Mbps
b) 60Mbps
c) 16Mbps
d) d. 54Mbps
163. If the number of bits per sample in PCM system is increased from n to n + 1, b
then the improvement in signal to quantization noise ratio will be
a) 3 db
b) 6 db
c) 10 db
d) 8db
164. Three analog signals, having bandwidths 1200 Hz, 600 Hz, and 600 Hz are c
sampled at their respective Nyquist rates, encoded with 12 bit words, and
time division multiplexed. The bit rate for the multiplexed signal is
a) 100 Kbps
b) 27.6 Kbps
c) 57.6 Kbps
d) 10.2 Kbps
165. The peak amplitude of one signal level is 0; the other is the same as the c
amplitude of the carrier frequency
a) BPSK
b) FSK
c) ASK
d) QPSK
166. Twenty Four telephone channels, each band limited to 3.4 kHz are to be time
division multiplexed using PCM. If sampling frequency is 10 kHz and
number of quantization levels is 128, the required bandwidth of PCM is a
a) 1.68MHz
b) 2.54 MHz
c) 12 MHz
d) 3.25 MHz
167. Thermal noise has a power spectral density which is quite uniform upto c
frequencies in the order of
a) 1012 Hz
b) 1011 Hz
c) 1013 Hz
d) d. 1010 Hz
168. Which of the following is the main advantage of PCM system c
a) Lower power
b) Lower Bandwidth
c) Lower noise
d) High power
169. A discrete zero memory information source has 40 symbols and each symbol a
is equally likely. The minimum number of bits required to code the source
with uniform length code and entropy of the source are
a) 6 and 5.32
b) 1 .06 and 15.32
c) 16 and 25.82
d) 2 and 3.33
170. The constellation diagram of QPSK has d
a) 2
b) 1
c) 8
d) 4
171. What are the primary resources of an communication system c
a) Transmitted Power
b) Channel Bandwidth
c) power and Bandwidth
d) none
172. What is meant by Thicknet a
a) 10 BASE 5
b) 10 BASE 2
c) 10 BASE T
d) 10 BASE F
173. d
Which modulation technique transmits at higher data rate
a) BPSK
b) QPSK
c) 16-PSK
d) 32PSK
174. How many carrier frequencies are used in BFSK a
a) 2
b) 1
c) 3
d) 4
175. c
What is the length of IPv6 address
a) 32 bits
b) 64 bits
c) 128 bits
d) 48 bits
176. a
Which code is used to spread the signal across the places
a) Pseudo-noise code
b) Walsh code
c) Fast code
d) d. none
177. d
Where is the base station synchronization used
a) GSM
b) CDMA
c) AMPS
d) IS-96
178. a
What is the default data rate for CDDI
a) a.100 Mbps
b) b. 10 Mbps
c) c. 4 Mbps
d) d. 1000Mbps
179. b
What is the default data rate for FDDI
a) a.10 Mbps
b) b. 100 Mbps
c) c. 4 Mbps
d) d. 1000Mbps
180. b
What is the standard for IEEE802.4
a) Ethernet
b) Token Bus
c) Token ring
d) Fddi
181. a
IMEI stands for
a) International Mobile Equipment Identity
b) International mandatary equipment insight
c) internet mobile equipment identity
d) Indian mobile equipment identity
182. MOV A, @ R1 will: c
a) copy R1 to the accumulator
b) copy the accumulator to R1
c) copy the contents of memory whose address is in R1 to the

accumulator
d) copy the accumulator to the contents of memory whose address is in
R1
183. When the 8051 is reset and the line is HIGH, the program counter points a
to the first program instruction in the:
a) internal code memory
b) external code memory
c) internal data memory
d) external data memory

184. An alternate function of port pin P3.4 in the 8051 is: a
a) Timer 0
b) Timer 1
c) interrupt 0
d) interrupt 1
185. The 8051 has ________ parallel I/O ports. c

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
186. The total external data memory that can be interfaced to the 8051 is: b
a) 32K
b) 64K
c) 128K
d) 256K
187. Which of the following instructions will load the value 35H into the high byte a
of timer 0?
a) MOV TH0, #35H
b) MOV TH0, 35H
c) MOV T0, #35H
d) MOV T0, 35H

188. Bit-addressable memory locations are: a
a) 10H through 1FH
b) 20H through 2FH
c) 30H through 3FH
d) 40H through 4FH
189. The contents of the accumulator after this operation will be c

MOV A,#0BH
ANL A,#2CH
a) 11010111
b) 11011010
c) 00001000
d) 00101000
190. Which of the following statements will add the accumulator and register 3? d
a) ADD @R3, @A
b) ADD @A, R3
c) ADD R3, A
d) ADD A, R3
191. The I/O port that does not have a dual-purpose role is: b
a) port 0
b) port 1
c) port 2
d) port 3
192. The contents of the accumulator after this operation will be: b
MOV A,#2BH
ORL A,00H
a) 1B
b) 2B
c) 3B
d) 4B
193. Which of the following commands will copy the contents of location 4H to a
the accumulator?
a) MOV A, 04H
b) MOV A, #04H
c) MOV A, @04H
d) MOV 04H,A
194. The ADC0804 has ________ resolution. b

a) 4-bit
b) 8-bit
c) 16-bit
d) 32-bit
195. An alternate function of port pin P3.1 in the 8051 is: b
a) serial port input
b) serial port output
c) memory write strobe

d) memory read strobe
196. What is the address range of SFR Register bank? d
a) 00H-77H
b) 40H-80H
c) 80H-7FH
d) 80H-FFH
197. b
ACALL instruction allows specifying ______address in the instruction

and calling subroutine within ______ program memory block
a) 2 Byte, 3K
b) 11bit, 2K
c) 9 bit ,2K
d) 1 Byte,3K
198. c
Which of the following instruction is wrong
a) INC DPTR
b) MOV @DPTR, A
c) MOV A, @A+DPTR
d) MOV A, @DPTR
199. b
SP of 8051 is of ___ wide and it is loaded with the default value of ___
after reset
a) 4 bit,00H
b) 8 bit,07H
c) 16 bit,07H
d) 32 bit,00H
200. d
Serial port interrupt is generated, if ____ bits are set
a) IE, IP
b) RI, IE
c) TI, IP
d) TI, RI
201. c
In 8051 which interrupt has highest priority?
a) INT1
b) T0
c) INT0
d) T1
202. Which are of the following has the highest priority in CSMA/CA network. a
a) SIFS
b) PIFS
c) DIFS
203. In _______, the sequences are generated using orthogonal codes such the c
Walsh tables.
a) FDMA
b) TDMA
c) CDMA
204. The _____ sublayer is responsible for the operation of the CSMA/CD access b
method and framing.
a) LLC
b) MAC
c) PDU
d) SDU
205. In IEEE 802.11, communication between two stations in two different BSSs c
usually occurs via two ________.
a) BSSs
b) ESSs
c) APs
206. Data rate of FDDI is b
a) 10 Mbps
b) 100 Mbps
c) 1000 Mbps
d) 50 Mbps.
207. Real time services in FDDI can be carried out by ------------------- a
a) S-Frames
b) I-Frames
c) A-Frames
d)None
208. Non Real time services in FDDI can be carried out by ------------------- c
a) S-Frames
b) I-Frames
c) A-Frames
d) None
209. Media Access Control belongs to ------------------ c
a) Physical Layer
b) Data link Layer
c) Network Layer
d) None
210. ARQ stands for _______. b
a) Automatic repeat quantization

b) Automatic repeat request
c) Automatic retransmission request
d) Acknowledge repeat request
211. For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for 10 data packets sent, _______ a
acknowledgments are needed.
a) exactly 10
b) less than 10
c) more than 10
212. HDLC is an acronym for _______. b

a) High-duplex line communication
b) High-level data link control
c) Half-duplex digital link combination
d) Host double-level circuit D)Host do
213. For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for n data packets sent, _______ acknowledgments b
are needed.
a) a.0
b) b. n
c) c.n-1
d) d.n+1
214. The shortest frame in HDLC protocol is _________ b
a) I-frame
b) S-frame
c) U-Frame
d) None
215. Data link control deals with the design and procedures for ______ a
communication.
a) node-to-node
b) host-to-host
c) process-to-process
216. c
_______ in the data link layer separates a message from one source to a
destination, or from other messages going from other sources to other
destinations.
a) Digitizing
b) Controlling
c) Framing
217. The process-to-process delivery of the entire message is the responsibility of b
the _______ layer.
a) Network
b) Transport
c) Application
d) Physical
218. a
The _______ layer is the layer closest to the transmission medium.
a) Physical
b) Data link
c) Network
d) Transport
219. a
The _______ layer changes bits into electromagnetic signals.
a) Physical
b) Data link
c) Transport
220. The subnet mask for a class C network is 255.255.255.192 How many c
subnetwork are available?
a) a.4
b) b.8
c) c.26
d) d. None
221. c
IPv6 has _______ -bit addresses.
a) 32
b) 64
c) 128
d) variable
222. The Inbuilt Timers of 8051 are a
a) up counters
b) down counters
c) up-down counters
223. In the microcontroller 8051, the inbuilt timers are b
a) 8 bit Timers
b) 16 bit Timers
c) 7 bit Timers
224. Timers built in 8051 has a
a) 4 modes of operations
b) two modes of operations
c) three modes of operations
225. The microcontroller 8051 has inbuilt (a) two Timers (b) one Timer (c) three a
Timers
226. The Timer in the microcontroller 8051 is called a Counter a
a) when its clock is external
b) when its clock is internal
c) when it has no clock.
227. TCON register is c
a) Bit addressable
b) Byte Addressable
c) both
228. TMOD register is b
a) Bit addressable
b) Byte Addressable
c) both
229. Choose the correct answer, from the code below (a) P0 is input port (b) P1 a
input port (c) P0 is output port
230. With XTAL = 11.0592 MHz, to have 9600 baud rates, the TH1 value needed a
is
a) -3
b) -6
c) -12
d) -24
231. With XTAL = 11.0592 MHz, and SMOD =1, to have 9600 baud rates, the b
TH1 value needed is
a) -3
b) -6
c) -12
d) -24
232. In serial communication with 8051 microcontroller d
a) Timer 0 in mode 1
b)Timer 1 in mode 0
c) Timer 0 in mode 2
d) Timer 1 in mode 2 is used for baud rate generation.
233. The 8051 microcontroller has inbuilt (a) USART (b) UART (c) both (d) b
none
234. In the following baud rates which is not a standard baud rate a
a) 28,800
b) 19,200
c) 9600
d) 4800
235. To interface LCD to 8051 we need b

a) three ports
b) two ports
c) one port
d) no ports
236. Mode 01 of serial communication is c
a) one start bit and two stop bits
b) two start bits and two stop bits
c) one start bit and one stop bits
d) no start bit and no stop bits.
237. a
MAX 232 is
a) line driver
b) voltage amplifier
c) line amplifier
d) line stabilizer
238. Serial data transmission is initiated by a
a) placing the data byte in SBUF
b) b)setting TI flag
c) enabling Timer1 interrupt
d) none of these
239. Which of the following bits, when set, would double the baud rate generated by b
8051 microcontroller for serial communication?
a) REN of SCON
b) b) SMOD of PCON
c) c)TF1 of TCON
d) d) SM2 of SCON
240. Serial data bits being received are initially stored in c
a) temp. buffer
b) b) accumulator
c) c) SBUF
d) d) TH1
241. For serial communication, standard frequency of the crystal for 8051 would be a
a) 11.0592 MHz
b) b) 11.0952 MHz
c) c) 12 MHz
d) d) 16 MHz
242. Which of the following is/are the main part(s) of basic cellular system. d
a) A mobile Unit
b) A cell Site
c) A mobile Telephone Switching Office
d) D) All of the above
243. Block calls held condition specified the held probability at a time period equal to an d
average holding time.
a) Erlang B
b) Erlang C
c) Erlang D
d) D. Poisson
244. The channel separation of GSM channel b
a) 270 kHz
b) 200 kHz
c) 120 kHz
d) D. 60 kHz
245. Speech coding rate for GSM d
a) 80 kbps
b) 25 kbps
c) 21 kbps
d) D. 13 kbps
246. Number of channels for GSM c
a) 333
b) 666
c) 124
d) D. 248
247. It is a database that contains information about the identity of mobile equipment that a
prevents calls from stolen, unauthorized, or defective mobile stations.
a) Equipment Identity Register

b) Authentication Center
c) Home Location Register
d) D. Visitor Location Register
248. It provides all the control functions and physical links between the MSC and BTS a
a) OSS
b) OMC
c) MSC
d) D. BSC
249. It is the functional entity from which the operator monitors and controls the mobile a
communication system.
a) Operation and Maintenance System

b) Mobile Switching Center
c) Gateway Mobile Switching Center
d) D. Operation and Support System
250. Which stage increases the selectivity of the circuit in an AM receiver? a
a) Detector
b) IF stage
c) Modulator
d) D. Mixer
251. The ________ of radio receiver amplify weak signal and produce a desirable a
intelligence at the output speaker.
a) sensitivity
b) selectivity
c) reliability
d) D. fidelity
252. What is the number of channels of a cellular system with an allocated spectrum of a
25 MHz and with a channel of 30 kHz bandwidth?
a) 833
b) 240
c) 1000
d) D. 666
253. GSM uses what digital modulation technique? d
a) QAM
b) GFSK
c) BPSK
d) D. GMSK
254. The combination of the mobile cellular phone and the cell-site radio equipment is c
known as
a) forward link
b) base transceiver station
c) air interface
d) D. base station controller
255. The duplex frequency of GSM b
a) 40 MHz
b) 80 MHz
c) 120 MHz
d) D. 30 MHz
256. A multiple access technique used in GSM cellular system. c
a) FDMA
b) CDMA
c) TDMA
d) D. TACS
257. In a cellular system, ________ is used to measure the spectrum efficiency. d
a) Radio efficiency
b) Diversity
c) Frequency reuse
d) D. Radio capacity
258. The mobile-to-base station frequency assignment for GSM system is b
a) 890-915 MHz
b) 935-960 MHz
c) 870-890 MHz
d) D. 825-845 MHz
259. PABX means b
a) Private All-purpose Broadcasting Exchange

b) Private Automatic Branch Exchange
c) Public Access Bi-directional Exchange
d) D. Public Automatic Branch Exchange
260. Cellular CDMA system uses what modulation method? d
a) GFSK
b) ASK
c) QAM
d) D. BPSK
261. Blocked calls delay condition specified delay probability B
a) Erlang B
b) Erlang C
c) Erlang D
d) D. Poisson
262. The center frequency of a band-pass filter is always equal to the d
(a) bandwidth
(b) –3 dB frequency
(c) bandwidth divided by Q
(d) geometric average of the critical frequencies
263. A zero-level detector is a b
(a) comparator with a sine-wave output
(b) comparator with a trip point referenced to zero
(c) peak detector
(d) limiter
264. A digital-to-analog converter is an application of the a
a) scaling adder
b) voltage-to-current converter
c) non inverting amplifier
d) adjustable bandwidth circuit
265. A basic series regulator has d
a) an error detector
b) a load
c) a reference voltage
d) both an error detector and a reference voltage

266. If the input to a comparator is a sine wave, the output is a c
a) ramp voltage
b) sine wave
c) rectangular wave
d) saw tooth wave
267. A comparator is an example of a(n) d
a) active filter
b) current source
c) linear circuit
d) nonlinear circuit
268. c
In an averaging amplifier, the input resistances are
a) equal to the feedback resistance
b) less than the feedback resistance
c) greater than the feedback resistance
d) unequal
269. c
A triangular-wave oscillator can consist of an op-amp comparator, followed
by a(n)
a) differentiator
b) amplifier
c) integrator
d) multivibrator
270. The ramp voltage at the output of an op-amp integrator a

a) increases or decreases at a linear rate
b) increases or decreases exponentially
c) is always increasing and never decreasing
d) is constant
271. A two-pole high-pass active filter would have a roll-off rate of b
a) 40 dB/decade
b) –40 dB/decade
c) 20 dB/decade
d) –20 dB/decade
272. An ideal OP-AMP is an ideal c
a) Current controlled Current source
b) Current controlled Voltage source
c) Voltage controlled Voltage source
d) Voltage controlled Current source
273. a
The ideal OP-AMP has the following characteristics
a) Ri=∞,A=∞,R0=0
b) Ri=0,A=∞,R0=0
c) Ri=∞,A=∞,R0=∞
d) Ri=0,A=∞,R0=∞
274. An opamp has a slew rate of 5V/ S. the largest sine wave o/p voltage a
possible at a frequency of 1MHz is
a) 10 V
b) 5 V
c) 5V
d) 5/2 V
275. A differential amplifier is invariably used in the i/p stage of all op-amps. This c
is done basically to provide the op-amps with a very high
a) CMMR
b) Bandwidth
c) Slew rate
d) Open-loop gain
276. A differential amplifier has a differential gain of 20,000. CMMR=80dB. The c

common mode gain is given by
a) 2
b) 1
c) 1/2
d) D.0
277. c
An ideal operational amplifier has
a) infinite output impedance

b) zero input impedance
c) infinite bandwidth
d) All of the above
278. a
A series dissipative regulator is an example of a
a)linear regulator
b) switching regulator
c) shunt regulator
d) dc-to-dc converter
279. b
An astable multivibrator is also known as a:
a) one-shot multivibrator
b) free-running multivibrator
c) bistable multivibrator
d) monostable multivibrator
280. c
With negative feedback, the returning signal:
a)aids the input signal
b) is proportional to output current
c) opposes the input signal
d) is proportional to differential voltage gain
281. d
What starts a free-running multivibrator?
a) a trigger
b) an input signal
c) an external circuit
d) nothing
282. The voltage across R and L in a series RL circuit is found to be 200 V and b
150 V respectively. The rms value of the voltage across the series
combination is __ V
a) 360
b) 250
c) 200
d) 450
283. A current of 4 A flows in an AC circuit when 100 V DC is applied to it b
whereas it takes 250 V AC to produce the same current the power factor of
the circuit is
a) 1
b) 0.4
c) 0.6
d) 0.8
284. A reactance having an inductor of 0.15 H is connected in series with 10 Ω b
resistance. What will be the inductive reactance?
a) 48.15 Ω
b) 47.1 Ω
c) 1.5 Ω
d) None of these.
285. A series circuit consists of R = 20 Ω, L = 20 mH, and AC supply 60 V with f a

= 100 Hz. The current in R is
a) A)2.54 A
b) B)1.27 A
c) C)5.08 A
d) D)10.16 A
286. A series circuit consists of R = 20 Ω, L = 20 mH, and AC supply 60 V with f b
= 100 Hz. The voltage drop across R is
a) 30.6 V
b) 50.8 V
c) C)40.8 V
d) D)24.4 V

= 100 Hz. The voltage drop across L is
a) 39.1 V
b) 31.9 V
c) 45.5 V
d) 50.5 V
= 100 Hz. The phase angle of current in respect of supply voltage will be
a) 40.4
b) 32.1
c) 28.8
d) 20.2
289. If a resistor and an inductor are connected in series across a voltage source. a
Which two parameters in that circuit increase if frequency of voltage source
increases?
a) VL and Z.
b) Z and I.
c) VL and I.
d) VL and VR.
290. a tuned
In a double tuned circuit, consisting of two magnetically coupled, identical high-Q
circuits, at the resonance frequency of either circuit, the amplitude response has
a) A peak, always.
b) A dip, always.
c) Either a peak or a dip.
d) Neither a peak nor a dip.
291. b
A T-section low pass filter has series inductor 80 mH and shunt capacitance 0.022
μF. What is the cut-off frequency?
a) 7 kHz.
b) 7.58 kHz.
c) 7.8 kHz.
d) 8 kHz.
292. An RLC circuit has a resonance frequency of 160 kHz and a Q-factor of
100. Its band width is
a) 1.6 kHz.
b) 0.625 kHz.
c) 16 MHz
d) none of these a
293. A circuit which has ω0 = 106 rad / sec (ω0 = resonant frequency) C = 10 pF
and Q = 100,
must have a resistance of ___________ kΩ.
a) 5
b) B) 100
c) C) 10
d) D) 1 b
294. When compared a 1st order LPF with a 2nd order LPF has c
a) Lower voltage gain.
b) Higher voltage gain.
c) Higher cut off frequency.
d) Faster drop in filter response

295. In active filter which element is absent? a
a) Inductor.
b) B) Capacitor.
c) C) Both of above.
d) D) Resistor.
296. If L and C are 4 mH and 0.0001 μF respectively a current chop of magnitude b
50 Amp would induced a voltage
a) 200 kV.
b) B) 100 kV.
c) C) 50 kV.
d) D) 400 kV.
297. If the percentage reactance of an element is 20 % and the full load current is a
50 A,
the short circuit current will be
a) 250 A.
b) 300 A.
c) 200 A.
d) 350 A.
298. A circuit with resistor, inductor, capacitor in series is resonant of 50 Hz. If all a
the values are now doubled, the new resonant frequency is
a) f0 / 2.
b) B) f0 / 4.
c) C) 2f0.
d) D) Still f0.
299. Can a 250 V, 5 A single way switches be used in place of a 250 V, 15 A c
Switches?
Single way switch doesn't exist.
a) Yes.
b) No.
c) Single way switch
d) doesn't operate at such current ratings.
300. .A periodic voltage having the Fourier series V(t)= {1 + 4sinωt + 2cosωt} V c
is applied across
a one ohm resistor. The power dissipated in the one ohm resistor is
a) 1 W.
b) 21 W
c) 11 W.
d) 24.5 W.
301. For the resonance circuit ω0 = 105, Q = 50, R = 400 Ω the value of C is b
a) 250 pF.
b) 500 pF.
c) 1000 pF.
d) 125 pF
302. The vast majority of registers in 8051 are _________ bits a
a) 8
b) 16
c) 32
d) 4
303. Which are the PSW(Program Status Word) bits are the responsible for the b
bank selection
a) PSW.3,PSW.2
b) PSW.3,PSW.4
c) PSW.4,PSW.5
d) PSW.5,PSW.3
304. PC(Program Counter) is ______________ bits wide b
a) 8
b) 16
c) 32
d) 64
305. There are a total of ___________ports in the 8051 and each has c
________bits.
a) 3, 8
b) 4,16
c) 4,8
d) 4,4
306. What is the addressing mode used in the instruction MOV @R1,A b
a) Direct
b) Register Indirect
c) Register direct
d) indexed
307. 8051 Bit addressable address range of RAM. a
a) 20-2F
b) 30-3F
c) 30-7F
d) 20-7F
308. The following 8051 registers are bit addressable. b
a) ACC,PC
b) ACC,IP
c) B,IE
d) ACC,B
309. ____________ timer mode in 8051 is an auto re-load mode c
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4
310. For setting the baud rate in 8051, _________ is used in mode _____ d
a) Timer 0, 1
b) Timer 1, 1
c) Timer 0, 2
d) Timer 1, 2
311. SCON.4 bit of SCON register can also be called as b
a) SM2
b) REN
c) TB8
d) RB8
312. ____________bit of PCON register is responsible for altering baud rate. b
a) SCON
b) SMOD
c) PMOD
d) TMOD
313. c
a) TF0,RI
b) TF0,TI
c) TF0,IE0
d) d. RI,TI
314. The vector address set aside for serial communication in 8051 c
a) OBH
b) 13H
c) 23H
d) 03H
315. ________________________________ is the value to be loaded in to _________________ d
Register to configure Counter 0 in Mode 2.
a) 06H, SCON
b) 60H,PCON
c) 04H,TMOD
d) 06H,TMOD
316. b
How many interrupts are present in 8051
a) 4
b) 6
c) 5
d) 7
317. b
__________ and ________are the two 16 bit registers in 8051.
a) PC and ACC
b) PC and DPTR
c) IE and PC
d) IP and IE
318. 8051 has _____________timers. b
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
319. d
The following are the control lines of LCD
a) Enable
b) Register Select
c) Data Select
d) Enable, Read/Write and Enable
320. b
8051 has _____________ bit data lines and ________bit address lines.
a) 8, 8
b) 8, 16
c) 16, 8
d) 16 , 16
321. C
Which interrupt has the highest priority in 8051 by default?
a) External Interrupt 1
b) Timer 0
c) External Interrupt 0
d) Timer 1
322. Prosthesis area of robotics deals with a
a) Artificial replacements for parts of the human body
b) Remote manipulation
c) Robot designed to walk on legs
d) None of these
323. The main function of a robot is d
a) ‘sensing’ the environment by external sensors
b) ‘decision making’ based on the information received from the sensor
c) ‘performing’ the task decided
d) All of the above
324. A robot may be designed for which of the following jobs d
a) To simply pick up and place the work pieces
b) To interact with and work load a lathe, a milling machine or any
equipment
c) To perform some assembly work
d) All of the above
325. Which are the following methods of gripping is used in a robot? d
a) Mechanical gripping
b) Magnetic gripping
c) Vacuum gripping
d) All of the above
326. Which of the following drives are clean and quiet with a high degree of c
accuracy and reliability?
a) Pneumatic drives
b) Hydraulic drives
c) Electrical drives
d) All of the above
327. Which of the following sensors are non-contact type robotic sensors? d
a) Proximity Sensors
b) Electro-optical sensors
c) Range imaging sensors
328. Which of the following configurations has three mutually perpendicular a
axes?
a) Cartesian coordinate configuration
b) Cylindrical Configuration
c) Spherical Configuration
329. ‘Pitch motion’ enables c
a) Rotation of wrist
b) Rightward or Leftward swiveling movement of the wrist
c) Up and down movement of the wrist and involves rotational
movements as well
d) None of these
330. What refers to the minimum and maximum changes in input signal to which b
the sensor can respond?
a) Sensitivity
b) Range
c) Threshold
d) All of the above
331. Tachometer is what kind of state sensor? b
a) External
b) Internal
c) Orthogonal
d) All of the above
332. LVDT is a Tactile Sensor, Microswitch is a status sensor c
a) Yes, No
b) No, Yes
c) Yes, Yes
d) No, No
333. A potentiometer is the simplest device that can be used to measure a
a) Position
b) Velocity
c) Acceleration
334. What sensor determines the range by measuring the elapsed time between the d
transmission of certain frequencies and their detected echos?
a) Proximity sensor
b) LVDT
c) Potentiometer
d) Ultrasonic
335. What is the process of identifying a group of related pixels for locating a
connected regions or areas of image having similar characteristics?
a) Segmentation
b) Thresholding
c) Opening
d) Closing
336. What is a binary conversion technique in which each pixel is converted into a c
binary value, either black or white?
a) Dilation
b) Erosion
c) Thresholding
337. Median Filter is used to a
a) Remove Salt and pepper noise
b) Smooth the image
c) Increase the PSNR
d) All of the above
338. Frequency distribution of pixels is called as b
a) Edge detection
b) Histogram
c) Filtering operation
d) Feature Extraction
339. Erosion process is b
a) Shrinkage of foreground image
b) Shrinkage of background image
c) Both A and B
d) None of above
340. Closing process is b
a) Erosion followed by Dilation
b) Dilation followed by Erosion
c) Applying Erosion only once
d) All of the above
341. Opening process is a
a) Erosion followed by Dilation
b) Dilation followed by Erosion
c) Applying Erosion only once
d) All of the above
342. If timer/counter 0 is used as an event counter, what is the maximum count for c
the MODE1?
a) 65535
b) 65534
c) 65536
d) 65533
343. Indicate which pin is used for timer/counter 1 b

a) P3.4
b) P3.5
c) P3.2
d) P3.3
344. On reset, which interrupt has the highest priority? c
a) Timer 0
b) Timer 1
c) Reset
d) External Interrupts
345. The 8051 can transmit/receive data in a
a) Full Duplex
b) Half Duplex
c) Simplex
d) Cannot transmit or receive
346. The ADC804 is a(n) ____-bit converter b
a) 4 bit
b) 8 bit
c) 2 bit
d) 16 bit
347. When is the information (code or data) on the LCD pin latched into the LCD? d
a) Low to High signal on RS pin of LCD
b) Low to High signal on EN pin of LCD
c) High to Low signal on RS pin of LCD
d) High to Low signal on EN pin of LCD
348. To send letter 'A' to be displayed on the LCD, we must make RS = ____. c
a) Low to high
b) Low
c) High
d) High to low
349. How does the LCD distinguish data from instruction codes when receiving b
information at its data pin?
a) By sending Low to RS pin
b) By sending High to RS pin
c) By sending High to EN pin
d) By sending Low to EN pin
350. Which port of the 8051 does not have internal pull-up resistors? a
a) Port 0
b) Port 1
c) Port 2
d) Port 3
351. With XTAL=11.0592 MHz, what is the maximum baud rate for the 8051? a
a) 19200
b) 9600
c) 4800
d) 38400
352. Upon pushing data onto the stack, the SP register is b
a) Incremented two locations
b) Incremented one location
c) Decremented two locations
d) Decremented one location
353. c
The stack uses the same area of RAM as bank
a) Bank 3
b) Bank 2
c) Bank 1
d) Bank 0
354. Upon reset, what is the value in the SP register? d
a) 0AH
b) 09H
c) 08H
d) 07H
355. a
Embedded Systems communicate with the outside world through
a) Peripherals
b) Processors
c) OS
d) Microcontrollers
356. d
What is the purpose of an In-Circuit debugger (ICD)?
a) specific debugging capabilities
b) allows the operation of the microprocessor to be controlled externally
c) Provides full control over all aspects of the microprocessor
d) Both a and c
357. In which type of embedded system architecture a series of tasks are defined d
and each task gets its own environment to run in?
a) multi-threading
b) Simple control loop
c) Interrupt controlled system
d) Cooperative multitasking
358. Embedded middleware sits between c
a) embedded application and operating system
b) kernel and the real time operating system
c) embedded application and the real time operating system
d) kernel and the real time operating system
359. Which provides a simulation of all aspects of the hardware a

a) Emulator
b) ICD
c) ICE
d) HLL
360. a
Which is the most commonly used language(s) used in embedded system?
a) C
b) JAVA
c) COBOL
d) Both a and c
361. d
Which of the following are examples of peripherals?
a) Universal serial bus
b) Networks
c) Timers
d) All of the above
362. The energy stored in the magnetic field at a solenoid 30 cm long and 3 cm b
diameter wound with 1000 turns of wire carrying an current at 10 A, is
a) 0.015 J.
b) 0.15 J.
c) 0.5 J.
d) 1.15 J.
363. Which of the following theorem can be applied to any network, which is d
linear (or) nonlinear active (or) passive, time variant (or) time in variant?
a) Superposition theorem.
b) Norton’s theorem.
c) Thevenin’s theorem.
d) Tellegen’s theorem.
364. A practical DC current source provides 20 kW to a 50 Ω load and 20 kW to a d
200 Ω load. The maximum power that can draw from it is
a) 45 kW
b) 40 kW
c) 30.3 kW
d) 22.5 kW
365. A balanced star connected load with impedance of 30∠ - 300 Ω is supplied a
from a 3 - Φ, 4-wire, 173 V system, the voltages to neutral being 100∠ -900,
100∠ - 300 and 100∠ -1500 V. The current in neutral wire is
a) Zero.
b) 5 A.
c) 8.85 A
d) 50 A.
366. A balanced delta connected load has an impedance of 9∠ 30° Ω per phase. c
What is the impedance per phase of its equivalent star?
a) 28∠ 30° Ω.
b) 27∠ 90° Ω.
c) 3∠ 30° Ω.
d) None of above
367. Phase voltages of a star connected alternator are ER = 240∠ 0° V, EY = 240∠ a
-120° V and EB = 240 ∠ + 120° V. What is the phase sequence of the
system?
a) RYB
b) RBY
c) YBR
d) D) BYR
368. A balanced 3 - Φ star connected load is fed from a 208 V, 3 - Φ supply. Each c
load has resistance of 35 Ω. The total power is
a) 411.3 W.
b) 618 W.
c) 1236 W.
d) none of these.
369. A system with transfer function G(S) = {(S2 + 9) (S + 2)}{(S + 1) (S + 3) (S c

+ 4)} is excited by sinω t. The steady state output of the system output of the
system is zero at
a) ω = 1 rad/sec.
b) ω = 2 rad/sec.
c) ω = 3 rad/sec.
d) D) ω = 4 rad/sec.
370. For an ac circuit, if u(t) = 160 sin (ω t+ 10°) and b
i(t) = 5sin(ωt - 20 °); then reactive power absorbed by the circuit is
a) 100 VARS.
b) B) 200 VARS.
c) C) 300 VARS.
d) D) 400 VARS.
371. A 2 port network using Z parameter representation is said to be reciprocal if b

a) Z11 = Z22
b) Z12 = Z21
c) Z12 = –Z21
d) Z11Z22 – Z12Z21 = 1
372. The period of the signal x (t) = 8 sin (0.8πt + π /4) is d

a) 0.4πs
b) 0.8πs
c) 1.25s
d) 2.5s
373. For the single-element two-port network in Fig, then Z12 is: c
a) 0
b) 5
c) 10
d) 20
374. For the single-element two-port network in Fig, then Y12 is d
a) 0
b) 5
c) 10
d) doesn’t exist
375. For the single-element two-port network in Fig, then h21 is a
a) -1
b) 0
c) 10
d) doesn’t exist
376. For the single-element two-port network in Fig, thenB is a
a) 0
b) 5
c) 10
d) doesn’t exist
377. When port 1 of a two-port circuit is short-circuited, I1 = 4I2 and V2 = 0.25I2. b

Which of the following is true?
a) y11 = 4
b) y12 = 16
c) y21 = 16
d) y22 = 0.25
378. A two-port is described by the following equations: d
V1 = 50I1 + 10I2V2 = 30I1 + 20I2 then which of the following is not true?
a) Z12 = 10
b) y12 = −0.0143
c) h12 = 0.5
d) B = 50
379. If a two-port is reciprocal, which of the following is not true? c
a) z21 = z12
b) y21 = y12
c) h21 = h12
d) AD = BC + 1
380. Which of the following cannot be the Fourier series expansion of a periodic b
signal?
a) x(t) = 2 cos t +3 cos 3t
b) x (t) = 2 cos πt +7 cos t
c) x(t) = cos t +0.5
d) x(t) = 2 cos 1.5πt + sin 3.5 πt
381. The Fourier Transform of a conjugate symmetric function is always C
a) Imaginary
b) conjugate anti-symmetric
c) C)real
d) conjugate symmetry
382. The range between a ground station and a satellite is 42,000 km. Calculate a
the free-space loss at a frequency of 6 GHz.
a) 200 dB
b) 300dB
c) 400dB
d) 500dB
383. An amplifier has a noise figure of 2.5 dB.What is its equivalent noise b
temperature?
a) 226K
b) 200K
c) 430K
d) 520K
384. The first geostationary satellite launched in 1965 was called b
A a) ANIK
.
B b) EARLY BIRD (Intelsat-I)

.
C c) WESTAR
.
D d) MOLNIYA
.
385. Rotation of a geosynchronous satellite means its b
A a) drift from stationary position
.
B b) wobbling
.
C c )three-axis stabilization
.
D d )three-dimensional stabilization
.
386. Noise temperature of Sun is more than __________ °K. c
a)1000
A b)5000 B
. c)100000 .
d)500
C D
. .
387. A 20 m antenna gives a certain uplink gain at frequencies of 4/6 GHz. For
getting same gain in the 20/30 GHz band, antenna size required is metre. b
(a)100
A (b)4 B
. (c)1 .
(d)10
C D
. .
388. he discussing sharing of a communication satellite by many geographically a

dispersed Earth station, DAMA means
A a)Demand-Assigned Multiple Access
.
B b)Decibel Attenuated Microwave Access

.
C c)Digital Analog Master Antenna

.
D d)Dynamically-Assigned Multiple Access

.
389. The angle subtended by earth at geostationary communication satellite is a
a)17.34°
A b)51.4° B
. c)120° .
d)60°
(
C
d
.
)
390. A transponder is a satellite equipment which d
A a) receives a signal from Earth station and amplifies
.
B b) changes the frequency of the received signal

.
C (c )retransmits the received signal

.
D c) does all of the above-mentioned functions

.
391. A geosynchronous satellite d
A a)has the same period a that of the Earth
.
B b)has a circular orbit

.
C c)rotates in the equatorial plane

.
D d)has all of the above

.
392. To make antenna more directional, either its size must be increased or b
A a)the number of its feed horns must be increased
.
B b)the frequency of its transmission must be increased

.
C c )its effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) must be increased

.
D d)its footprint must be increased

.
393. Satellite launch sites are invariably located on Eastern seaboards to ensure d
that
A a)launch takes place eastward
.
B b)expenditure of propulsion fuel is reduced during plane changing

.
C c )the satellite achieves circular orbit quickly

.
D d)spent rocket motor and other launcher debris falls into the sea
.
394. The number of days when Earth's shadow falls on a geosynchronous a
satellite is
a)88
A b)277 (
. c)5 b
d)10
(
C
d
.
)
395. Radio broadcasting is a familiar example of c
A a) space multiplexing
.
B b) time multiplexing
.
C c )frequency multiplexing
.
D d)none of the above

.
396. The quality of a space-link is measured in terms of the __________ ratio. a
a)C/N
A b)S/N B
. c )G/T .
d)EIRP
C (
. d
397. At present, the radio-frequency band mainly used by most satellites is d
a)EHF
A b)UHF B
. c )VHF .
d)SHF
C D
. .
398. Orbital disturbances of a geosynchronous satellite are caused by the d
A a)moon
.
B b)sun
.
C c )earth
.
D d)all of the above

.
399. Which one of the following statement is correct? c
A a)Satellite spacing is not affected by the bandwidth of the transmitting

. earth station
B b)Beamwidth is independent of antenna size and frequency band used

.
C c )The width of a beam in space is inversely proportional to the width

. of the transmitting antenna
D d)Use of high-frequency bands permits less number of satellites to

. share the orbit
400. In a stop-and-wait ARQ system, the transmitting terminal d
A a) waits for positive or negative acknowled-gement from the

. receiving terminal after sending a block
B b) sends another block if positive acknowledge is received through

. ACK character
C c)resends the previous block if negative acknowledgement is

. received through a NAK character
D d)does not wait for acknowledgement after sending a block

.
401. d
A geostationary satellite is one which
A a) hangs motionless in space about 36000 km about Earth
.
B b)travels around the Earth in 24 hours

.
C c)remains stationary above the Earth

.
D d)appears stationary to everybody on Earth

.
402. In a virtual memory system, the addresses used by the programmer belongs to c
a. Memory space.
b. Physical addresses.
c. Address space.
d. Main memory address.
403. DMA interface unit eliminates the need to use CPU registers to transfer data d
from
a. a) MAR to MBR
b. b) MBR to MAR
c. c) I/O units to memory
d. d) Memory to I/O units
404. How many 128 x 8 RAM chips are needed to provide a memory capacity of b
2048 bytes?
a. a) 8
b. b)16
c. c) 24
d. d) 32
405. Which is true for a typical RISC architecture? a

a) Micro programmed control unit.
b) Instruction takes multiple clock cycles.
c) Have few registers in CPU.
d) Emphasis on optimizing instruction pipelines.
406. How many memory chips of (128 x 8) are needed to provide a memory capacity a
of 4096 x 16?
a) 64
b) 46
c) 32
d) None
407. Dynamic RAM consumes ________ Power and ________ then the Static c
RAM.
a) more, faster
b) more, slower
c) less, slower
d) less, faster
408. Cache memory works on the principle of b

a) Locality of data.
b) Locality of reference
c) Locality of memory
d) Locality of reference & memory
409. In DMA the data transfer is controlled by d

a) Microprocessor
b) RAM
c) Memory
d) I/O devices
410. Cycle stealing technique is used in c

a) Interrupt based data transfer
b) Polled mode data transfer
c) DMA based data transfer
d) None of these
411. If the main memory is of 8K bytes and the cache memory is of 2K words. c
It uses associative mapping. Then each word of cache memory shall
be_____.
a) a.11 bits
b) b.21 bits
c) c.16 bits
d) d.20 bits
412. The average time required to reach a storage location in memory and c
obtain its contents is called the _____.
a) seek time
b) turnaround time
c) access time
d) d. transfer time
413. Page Fault Occurs when? c
a) The page is corrupted by application software
b) The page is in main memory
c) The page is not in main memory
d) When the process enters the BLOCKED state.
414. Which transmission mode is used for data communication along b
telephone lines?
a) Parallel
b) Serial
c) Synchronous
d) Asynchronous
415. Odd one out: In SPI Communication c
a) Multiple slaves are very complicated.
b) No acknowledgement ability
c) Good inherent arbitration
d) d. No flow control
416. IrDA is d
a) Point to point protocol
b) Uses synchronous serial communication
c) Uses asynchronous serial communication
d) Both a & c
417. Context switching time is equal to b

a) Interrupt latency time
b) Dispatch latency time
c) both (a) and (b)
d) Depends on scheduling policy
418. An embedded system must have b
a) hard disk
b) processor and memory
c) operating system
d) processor and input-output unit(s).
419. RTOS is used in most embedded systems when the system does d
a) concurrent processing of multiple real time processes

b) sequential processing of multiple processes when the tasks have
real time constraints
c) real time processing of multiple processes
d) d. the concurrent processing of multiple processes, tasks have
real time constraints and deadlines, and high priority task
preempts low priority task as per the real time constraints.
420. A device driver is software for a
a) opening or connecting or binding or reading or writing or

closing or other actions of the device
b) receiving input or sending outputs from device
c) access to parallel or serial port by the device
d) d. controlling and configuring the device for read and write
functions.
421. A system must have an interrupt handling mechanism for executing the d
interrupt service routines in case of the interrupts from
a) physical devices
b) interfaced circuits or systems, software interrupt instructions and
software exceptions
c) physical devices or interfaced circuits or systems
d) d. physical devices or interfaced circuits or systems, software interrupt
instructions and software exceptions.
Questio Question with choice Answer

n No.
422. Which of the following system is causal? d
1 𝑛
a) ℎ 𝑛 = 𝑛 2
𝑢 𝑛+1 𝑏) 𝑦 𝑛 = 𝑥 2 𝑛 − 𝑥(𝑛 + 1)
1 𝑛
c) 𝑦 𝑛 = 𝑥 −𝑛 + 𝑥(2𝑛 − 1) d) ℎ 𝑛 = 𝑛 𝑢 𝑛
2
423. Which of these is false about the following system? c
𝑦 𝑛 = 𝑥 𝑛 − 3 − 4 𝑥(𝑛 − 10)
a) Linear b) causal c) time varying d) dynamic
424. Which of these is true about the following system? b

𝑦 𝑛 = 𝑛𝑥 𝑛 − 4𝑥 𝑛 − 10 + 10
a) Linear b) causal c) time invariant d) BIBO stable
425. The minimum sampling frequency of the following analog signal, to avoid b
aliasing should be 𝑥 𝑡 = 4 sin 150𝜋𝑡 + 2 cos⁡
(50𝜋𝑡) should be,
a) 75 Hz b) 150 Hz c) 200 Hz d) 50 Hz
426. The transfer function of the LTI system y(n) = 0.5 y(n-1) + 2 x(n) has a pole at b
z=____________
a) z = 2 b) z = ½ c) z = 1/5 d) z=5
427. 𝑧
If the ROC of X(z) = 𝑧−2 + 𝑧−0.5 +
𝑧 𝑧
is |z|< 0.5; then d
𝑧−1
What is x(n)?
a) -(0.5)n u(-n-1) + (0.2)n u(n) + (0.8)n u(n).
b) (0.5)n u(n) + (0.2)n u(n) + (0.8)n u(n).
c) (0.5)n u(n) - (0.2)n u(-n-1) + (0.8)n u(n).
d) -(2)n u(-n-1) -(0.5)n u(-n-1) - u(-n-1)
428. What is the ROC of the Z-transform of x(n) = -(0.5)n u(-n-1) + (0.2)n u(n) + (0.8)n d
u(n)?
a) |z| > 0.8 b) |z| < 0.5 c) |z|> 0.5 and |z| < 0.8 d) ROC does not exist
429. What is the circular convolution between two discrete time sequences given by b
x(n) = {1,0,-1,0} and h(n)={0,0,2,6}.
a) {2,2,6,6} b) {-2,-6,2,6}
c) {2,0,2,0} d) {0,2,0,2}
430. What is the linear convolution between two discrete time sequences given by d
x(n) = {1,0,-1,0} and h(n)={0,1,2,3}.
a) {2,2,6,6} b) {0, 0, 2, 6, -2, -6, 0}
c) {2,0,2,0} d) { 0, 1, 2, 2, -2, -3, 0}
431. What is the 4-point DFT of the sequence x(n) = { 0,-1,1,0}? a

a) {0, -1+j, 2, -1-j} b) {0, 2j, 0, -2j}
c) {0, 2, 0, 2} d) {0, -2j, 0, 2j}
432. Give the number of butterfly stages for a 2048 point FFT. d
a) 2048 b) 1024 c) 14 d) 11
433. Which of the following is true about the AM and FM systems? c
a) BW of FM < BW of AM; power FM > power AM; noise FM < noise AM
b) BW of FM < BW of AM; power FM < power AM; noise FM < noise AM
c) BW of FM > BW of AM; power FM < power AM; noise FM < noise AM
d) BW of FM < BW of AM; power FM > power AM; noise FM > noise AM
434. Which of the following methods can be used for generating SSB-SC signals? c
a) Square-law modulator
b) Switching modulator
c) Frequency Discrimination Method
d) Ring Modulator
435. W.r.to the envelopes of the AM and FM modulated waves, which of the d
following is true
a) Both are of constant amplitude
b) Both vary according to the shape of the message signal.
c) Envelope of AM is constant, FM is variable
d) Envelope of AM varies and FM envelope is constant.
436. Which of the following is true about the AM and FM propagation and b
commercial transmission bandwidth?
a) AM = Ionospheric sky-wave; 550- 1650 kHz; FM = Ground-wave; 88-108
MHz
b) AM = Ionospheric sky-wave; 550- 1650 kHz; FM = Line of sight; 88-108
MHz
c) AM = Ground-wave; 550- 1650 kHz; FM = Ground-wave; 88-108 MHz
d) AM = Line of Sight; 550- 1650 kHz; FM = Line of sight; 88-108 MHz
437. Which modulation technique is not suitable for audio, video but is used for d
transmission of telephone signals?
a) AM b) VSB-SC c) DSB-SC d) SSB-SC
438. Find the value of Quantization noise in Watts, in a Pulse code modulation b
system when a signal of 0-16 volts amplitude is quantized using 3-bit
quantization.
a) 1/4 b) 1/3 c) 1/6 d) 1/12
439. In a binary PCM system, the output signal-to-quantizing-noise ratio is to be d
held to a minimum of 40dB. Determine the number of required bits for the
quantizer to satisfy the above requirement.
a) n = 4 b) n = 8 c) n=5 d) n=7
440. An FM station is operating at 100 MHz. Maximum frequency deviation is 75 c
kHz. If the highest modulating frequency is limited to 15 kHz, find the
modulation index and approximate bandwidth required by the system.
a) 10, 180kHz b) 5, 150kHz c) 5, 180kHz d) 10, 150kHz

441. In the envelope of an AM wave, given Vmax = 30 volts and Vmin = 10 volts. b
Determine the modulation index and message signal amplitude.
a) 0.25, 10V b) 0.5, 10V c) 0.25, 20V d) 0.5, 20V

n No.
442. If f X  x   0.4  x     0.6  x    , Find Mean of X. a
a) 0.2  b) 0.3  c) 0.4  d) 0.5 
443. If f X  x   0.4  x     0.6  x    , Find Variance of X. c
a) 0.92  2 b) 0.94  2 c) 0.96  2 d) 0.98  2
444. n2 12 a
A Random Variable X has the distribution function FX  x    u  x  n.
n 1 650
What is the probability of random variable X taking a value 4.
a) 16/650 b) 25/650 c) 36/650 d) 47/650
445. A random variable X is known to be Poisson with b=4. What is the probability of the b
event 0  X  2 .
a) 0.0915 b) 0.2381 c) 0.3718 d) None
446. 1 4 a
Let Y   X i , where X i are independent zero mean, unit variance random
4 i 1
variables. What is the variance of Y.?
a) 0.25 b) 0.5 c) 0.33 d) 1

b)
447. 1. A random variable X has the characteristic function a

X  w  1  p  pe jw  .
N
What is the mean of the random variable X.
a) NP b. N 2 P c. NP 2 d.None
448. 1 3 d
Let Y   X i , where X i are independent unit mean, unit variance random
3 i 1
variables. What is the mean of Y.?
a) 0.25 b) 0.5 c) 0.33 d) 1
449. If X and Y are zero mean , unit variance Gaussian random variables find the c
Variance of newly transformed variable W = X + 3Y
a) 4 b) 9 c) 10 d) None
450. A transformation T is called monotonically decreasing if a
a) T(X1) > T(X2) for X1<X2

b) T(X1) = T(X2) for X1<X2
c) T(X1) < T(X2) for X1<X2
d) None
451. If A and B are mutually exclusive events , P  A  B   ......... a
a) 0 b) 1 c) P  A  B   P  A P  B  d) None
452. If x1  n  is odd signal and x2  n  is even signal then the product x1  n x2  n is b

a) even b) odd c) neither even nor odd d) both even and odd
453. The following signal is a

x t   e u t 
 at
a) energy signal b) power signal c) neither energy nor power signal d)None
454. Find the convolution to the following signals c

x  n  a u  n 
n
h  n     n  2
a) a nu  n  b) a nu  n  2  c) a n2u  n  2  d) a n 2u  n  2 
455. Calculate period to the following signal. d
 
x  n  2cos  3n  
 4
a)  b) 2 / 3 c) 3 d) aperiodic
456. Calculate period to the following signal. a
 
x  t   cos  2t  
 4
a)  b) 2 c) 2 d) aperiodic
457. The following system is c
y  t   x  t 2   x 2  t  1
a) Memory b) causal c) memory and causal d)None

458. The following system is c
y t   x t 2   x2 t 
a) Linear b) Time variant c) Linear and Time variant d)None

459. For the given message signal x  t   cos 100  t   sin 2 150  t  , Find b
Nyquist period ?
a) 100Hz b) 300Hz c) 150Hz d)None
460. For the Given Causal system H  z  , Find first sample of the impulse a
response h(0) ?
d0
H  z 
1  a1 z  a2 z 2  a3 z 3
1
a) d 0 b) a3 c) a2 d) a1
461. 𝑛 b
Find the period of the signal 𝑥 𝑛 = −1
a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) Aperiodic
Q.No Question with choice Answer

462. Every run length pair introduce new
A. pixels
B. matrix D
C. frames
D. intensity
463. Transforming difference between adjacent pixels is called
A. mapping A
B. image compression
C. image watermarking
D. image equalization
464. Second derivative approximation says that it is nonzero only at
A. ramp C
B. step
C. onset
D. edges
465. Fourier transform of unit impulse at origin is
A. undefined C
B. infinity
C. 1
D. 0
466. Principle tools used in image processing for a broad spectrum of applications
A. low pass filtering

B. intensity filtering C
C. spatial filtering
D. high pass filtering
467. To improve speed of convergence algorithm used is
A. newton D
B. Raphson
C. wiener
D. newton-Raphson
468. Probability density functions are always
A. decreasing C
B. increasing
C. positive
D. negative
469. Base of image pyramid contains
A. low resolution B
B. high resolution
C. intensity
D. blurred portion
470. Replacing object from its origin referred to as
A. reflection D
B. compression
C. decompression
D. translation
471. Images usually gets corrupted during

A
A. transmission
B. degradation
C. restoration
D. acquisition
472. Periodic noises arise from
A. electrical interference A
B. gamma interference
C. beta interference
D. mechanical interference
473. Correction of power law response is called
A. alpha correction B
B. gamma correction
C. beta correction
D. pixel correction
474. Image can be sharpened using
A. low pass filter D

B. contouring
C. erosion
D. high pass filter
475. Bit plane slicing is used in
A. aortic angiogram A
B. radar
C. contrast stretching
D. MRI
476. Process involved in linear spatial filtering is
A. correlation
B. convolution D
C. histogram equalization
D. Both A and B
477. Convolution of two functions means rotating one function at angle of
A. 360 D
B. 270
C. 90
D. 180
478. Hit-or-miss transformation is used for shape
A. removal B
B. detection
C. compression
D. decompression
479. Example of discontinuity approach in image segmentation is
A. edge based segmentation D

B. boundary based segmentation
C. region based segmentation
D. Both A and B
480. Morphology refers to
A. pixels D
B. matrix
C. frames
D. shape
481. Tomography is algorithm that uses images
A. edges
B. slices B
C. boundaries
D. illumination

n No.
482. Sea water has εr = 80, its permittivity is (b)
(a) 1.162  10-10 F/m (b) 7.074  10-10 F/m (c) ) 5.162  10-10 F/m (d) 81 F/m
483. Which of the following potential expression (s) does satisfy Laplace’s (d)
Equation:
(a) V1 = 2x2+5 (b) V1 = x2+y2 +5z2-10 (c) V1 = ρzsinϕ +ρ2 (d) V1 = x2+y2-2z2
+10
484. The expression for spherical capacitor with inner and outer radius as a (d)
and b is given by:
4
2 L 1
(  )
1
ln( b ) 1 1
a
ln( b )
a b (  )
(a) 4 L (b) a (c) 2 L (d) a b
485. Identify the configuration in the given Figure that is not a correct (d)

representation of I and H
(a) (b) (c) (d)
486. What is the unit of magnetic charge? a) A-m b) Coulomb c) Ampere d) (a)
2
A-m
487. One of the following is not a source of Magnetostatics field: a) A dc (c)

current in a wire b) A permanent magnet c) An accelerated charge d) The
electric field linearly changing with time.
    
488.
  A is given by : (a) H (b) (c) (d)   0 J
2 B J
489. Depth of penetration in free space is (a)
(a) Infinity (b) 1/α (c) 0 (d) small
490. The velocity of an EM wave (a) Inversely proportional to β (b) inversely (a)
proportional to α (c) directly proportional to β (d) Directly proportional to α
491. The flux through each turn of a 100 turn coil is (t 3-2t) mWb, where t is in (b)
seconds. The induced emf at t = 2s is
(a) 1 V (b) -1 V (c) 4 mV (d) 0.4 V (e) -0.4 V
492. . The direction of propagation of EM wave is obtained from (a)
     
(a) E  H (b) E  H (c) E (d) H
493. The electric field component of a wave in free space is given by (b) and
 (c)
E  10 cos(10 7 t  kz)aˆ y
it can be inferred that

(a) The wave propagates along â y (b) The wavelength λ = 188.5 (c) The wave
amplitude is 10 V/m (d) The wave number k = 0.33 rad/m (e) The wave
attenuates as it travels.
494. If wet soil has σ = 10-2 mho/m, εr = 15, μr = 1, f = 60 Hz, it is a (a)

(a) Good conductor (b) good dielectric (c) semiconductor (d) magnetic
material
495. Poynting vector gives (a)
(a) Rate of energy flow (b) direction of polarization (c) electric field (d)
magnetic field.
496. What is the major factor for determining whether a medium is free (c)
space, lossless dielectric, lossy dielctric or good conductor?
(a) Attenuation Constant (b) Complex permittivity (c) Loss tangent (d)
Reflection Coefficient.
497. Velocity of propagation of an EM wave in a lossless dielectric (c)
0  1
(a) (b) 0 (c) (d) 0
0 0 
498. Which of these formulas is wrong ? a) B1n=B2n b) B2 = B22n  B22t c) (c)
 
  
H1=H1n + H2n d) an 21  H1  H 2  K
499. Identify the statement that is not true for ferromagnetic materials a) (b)
They have large χm. b) They have fixed value of μr. c) Energy loss is
proportional to the area of the hysteresis loop. d) They loss their nonlinearity
property above the Curie Temperature.
500. Both ε0 and χe are dimensionless: The statement is ________ and (b)
______ respectively
(a) True and False (b) False and True (c) True and True (d) False
and False.
501. The Relaxation time of mica (σ = 10-15 mho/m, εr =6) is (e)
(a) 5x 10-10 s (b) 10-6 s (c) 5 Hours (d) 10 Hours (e) 15 Hours

n No.
502. The force between two charges is 120 N. If the distance between the charges b
is doubled, the force will be (a) 60 N (b) 30 N (c) 40 N (d) 15 N
503. The electric field intensity at a point situated 4 metres from a point charge is c
200 N/C. If the distance is reduced to 2 metres, the field intensity will be
(a) 400 N/C (b) 600 N/C (c) 800 N/C (d) 1200 N/C
504. The lines of force due to charged particles are b
(a) always straight (b) always curved (c) sometimes curved (d) none of the
above
505. The electric field at a point situated at a distance d from straight charged b
conductor is
(a) proportional to d (b) inversely proportional to d
(c) inversely proportional to d (d) none of the above
506. The direction of electric field due to positive charge is a
(a) away from the charge (b) towards the charge
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above
507. If the sheet of a bakelite is inserted between the plates of an air capacitor, the b
capacitance will
(a) decrease (b) increase (c) remains unchanged (d) become zero
508. A dielectric material must be b
(a) resistor (b) insulator (c) good conductor (d) semi conductor
509. The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding charges is b
equal to the amount of the charge enclosed". The above statement is
associated with
(a) Coulomb's square law (b) Gauss's law
(c) Maxwell's first law (d) Maxwell's second law
510. Three capacitors each of the capacity C are given. The resultant capacity c
2/3 C can be obtained by using them
(a) all in series (b) all in parallel (c) two in parallel and third in series with
this combination (d) two in series and third in parallel across this
combination
511. The electrostatic force between two charges of one coulomb each and placed d
at a distance of 0.5 m will be
(a) 36 x 10 N (b) 36 x 107 N (c) 36 x 108 N (d) 36 x 109 N
512. Two infinite parallel plates 10 mm apart have maintained between them a d
potential difference of 100 V. The acceleration of an electron placed between
them is
(a) 0.56 x 1015 m/s2 (b) 1.5 x 1015 m/s2 (c) 1.6 x 1015 m/s2 (d) 1.76 x 1015
m/s2
513. c
The relative permittivity has the following units
(a) F/m (b) m/F (c) Wb/m (d) no units
514. The phenomenon of an uncharged body getting charged merely by the d
nearness of a charged body is known as
(a) pholoelectric effect (b) chemical effect (c) magnetic effect (d) induction
515. b
Electric displacement is a______quantity.
(a) scalar (b) vector (c) both of the above (d) none of the above
516. c
In a travelling electromagnetic wave, E and H vector fields are
(a) perpendicular in space . (b) parallel in space. (c) E is in the direction of
wave travel. (d) H is in the direction of wave travel.
517. a
The magnetic field intensity (in A/m ) at the centre of a circular coil of
diameter 1 metre and carrying current of 2 A is
(a) 8. (b) 4. (c) 3. (d) 2
518. A wave is incident normally on a good conductor. If the frequency of a plane d
electromagnetic wave increases four times, the skin depth, will
(a) increase by a factor of 2. (b) decrease by a factor of 4. (c) remain the same
(d) decrease by a factor of 2.
519. In a dielectric-conductor boundary (interface), the tangential component of c
electric field is
(a) E t (b) 2Et (c) zero (d) infinity
520. d
The intrinsic impedance of free space is
(a) 75 ohm. (b) 73 ohm. (c) 120 ohm. (d) 377ohm.
521. a
During night which layer does not exist?
(a) D layer (b) F1 layer (c) F2 layer (d) E layer

n No.
522. Curve B is the A
a. Phase response of a Low pass filter
b. Amplitude response of a Low pass filter
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
523. This frequency response graph is for a A
a. Low pass filter b. High pass filter

c. Band pass filter d. Band stop filter
524. The DFT of x(n)=δ(n) A
a. 1 b. 0 c. e-j2π/N d. None of the above
525. FFT algorithms - A
a. Eliminate redundant calculation and enable to analyse the
spectral properties of a signal
b. Enable the redundant calculation and redundant to
analyse the spectral properties of a signal
c. Increases the number of computations
526. If the Fourier series coefficients of a signal are periodic then B

the signal must be
a. Continuous-time, periodic
b. discrete-time, periodic
c. Continuous-time, non-periodic
d. discrete-time, non-periodic
527. The Fourier Transform of a rectangular pulse is C
a. Another rectangular pulse b. Triangular pulse
c. Sinc function d. Impulse
528. The property of Fourier Transform which states that the B
compression in time domain is equivalent to expansion in the
frequency domain is
a. Duality. b. Scaling.
c. Time Scaling. d. Frequency Shifting
529. The number of complex multiplications required for evaluating the C
DFT of a 64 point sequence is
a. 2048
b. 1024
c. 4096
d. 256
530. Which of the following statements are true about Butterworth filter v
a. The magnitude response of the Butterworth filter decreases
monotonically as the frequency Ώ increases from 0 to ∞
b. The magnitude response of the Butterworth filter closely
approximates the ideal response as the order N increases.
c. The poles of the Butterworth filter lie on a circle
i. a,b ii. a,c iii. b,c iv. None of the above v. All of them
531. Type II Chebyshev filters C

a. All-pole filters
b. All-zero filters
c. Pole-Zero filters
532. The Normalized Butterworth polynomial of order 2 is _______ B
a) 𝑠 2 + 2𝑠 + 1
b) 𝑠 2 + 2𝑠 + 1
c) 𝑠 2 + 2.414𝑠 + 1
d) 𝑠 2 + 2𝑠 + 2
533. A Chebsyhev filter implementation normally gives the lowest order A

compared to Butterworth filter assuming equal cutoff attenuation and
stopband attenuation.
(a). TRUE (b) FALSE
534. At the cutoff frequency, the magnitude of the butterworth filter is A
_____times the maximum value.
𝟏
a)
𝟐
1
b)
3
1
c)
2 3
1
𝑑.
2 2
535. In Butterworth approximation, the magnitude response approaches the A
ideal response as the order is increased.
(a). TRUE (b) FALSE
536. FIR filters are inherently stable, since no _________ are present in A
H(z)
a) Poles
b) zeros
c) poles and zeros
537. IIR filters D
a) Use feedback
b) Are sometimes called recursive filters
c) Can oscillate if not properly designed
d) All of the above
538. The DFT of a sequence 𝑥 𝑛 = 𝛿(𝑛 − 𝑛0 ) is____ C

a) 1
b) 𝑒 𝑗 2𝜋𝑘 𝑛 0
−𝑗 2𝜋𝑘 𝑛 0
c) 𝑒 𝑁
𝑗 2𝜋𝑘 𝑛 0
d) 𝑒 𝑁
539. If 𝑋 𝑘 is DFT of a sequence 𝑥(𝑛) then DFT of real part of 𝑥(𝑛) is __ C

a) 𝑋 ∗ (𝑘)
b) 𝑋 ∗ (𝑁 − 𝑘)
1
c) [𝑋 𝑘 + 𝑋 ∗ 𝑁 − 𝑘 ]
2
1
d) [𝑋 𝑘 − 𝑋 ∗ 𝑁 − 𝑘 ]
2
540. The peak ______________ amplitude of the window is determined by A

the shape of the window, and it is essentially ______________ of the
window length.
a) side-lobe, independent
b) side-lobe, dependent
c) main-lobe, independent
d) main-lobe, dependent
541. If a signal is 𝑥 𝑛 = 𝑎𝑛 𝑢 𝑛 − 𝑏 𝑛 𝑢 −𝑛 − 1 , then its ROC will be, A

a). 𝑎 < 𝑧 < 𝑏 b). 𝑎 < 𝑧 c). 𝑎 + 𝑏 < 𝑧 d). 𝑧 < 𝑏

n No.
542. A time invariant system is a system whose output ------------------- C
a) Increases with a delay in input b) Decreases with a delay in input
c) Remains same with a delay in input d) Vanishes with a delay in input
543. All causal systems must have the component of------------------------ A
a) Memory B) Time Invariance C) Stability D) Linearity
544. An example of a discrete set of information/system is--------------------------- B

a) The trajectory of the Sun b) Data on a CD
c) Universe time scale d) Movement of water through a pipe
545. Is the system 𝑦(𝑡) = 𝑅𝑥(𝑡), where R is an arbitrary constant, a memoryless B

system?
a) Yes B) No C) Information is not sufficient to decide
546. Should real time instruments like oscilloscopes be time invariant? A

a) Yes b) Sometimes
c) Never d) They have no relation with time variance
547. The type of systems which are characterized by input and the output quantized at B
certain levels are called as-----------------
a) Analog b) Discrete c) Continuous d) Digital
548. 𝑦[𝑛] = 𝑥[−𝑛 + 2]. Comment on its causality and linearity C
a) Causal and linear b) Non causal and non-linear
c) Non causal and linear d) Causal and non-linear
549. Comment on the stability and shift variance of 𝑦 𝑛 = 𝑥 𝑛 + 𝑛𝑥[𝑛 + 1] C
a) Stable and Shift variant b) Stable and Shift Invariant

c) Unstable and Shift variant d) Unstable and Shift Invariant
550. i) For a causal discrete-time LSI system, the ROC of the system function includes
infinity, say whether true or false; …………True…………..
(ii) The Z transform of unit impulse function is 1 and the ROC is entire Z plane
except z=0 say whether true or false; ……False………………..
551. If a signal is 𝑥 𝑛 = 𝑎𝑛 𝑢 𝑛 − 𝑏 𝑛 𝑢 −𝑛 − 1 , then its ROC will be, A
a). 𝑎 < 𝑧 < 𝑏 b). 𝑎 < 𝑧 c). 𝑎 + 𝑏 < 𝑧 d). 𝑧 < 𝑏
552. 𝑦[𝑛] = 𝑥[2𝑛]. Comment on its causality and linearity C

a) Causal and linear b) Non causal and non-linear
c) Non causal and linear d) Causal and non-linear
553. Comment on the stability and shift variance of 𝑦 𝑛 = 𝑥 𝑛 cos⁡

(𝜔𝑛) C
a) Stable and Shift variant b) Stable and Shift Invariant

c) Unstable and Shift variant d) Unstable and Shift Invariant
554. 𝑦(𝑡) = 𝑥(𝑡 − 2) + 𝑥(2 − 𝑡). Comment on its causality: B
a) Causal b) Non causal
555. Comment on the linearity of 𝑦[𝑛] = 𝑛 ∗ 𝑥[𝑛] D

a) Linear b) Only additive c) Not scalable d)
Non linear
556. Which of the following systems is time invariant? D

a) 𝑦 𝑡 = 𝑥 2𝑡 + 𝑥 𝑡 𝑏) 𝑦(𝑡) = 𝑥(𝑡) + 𝑥(1 − 𝑡)
𝑐) 𝑦 𝑡 = −𝑥 𝑡 + 𝑥 1 − 𝑡 𝑑) 𝑦(𝑡) = 𝑥(𝑡) + 𝑥(𝑡 − 1)
557. Determine the convolution sum of two sequences x(n) = {1, 2, 1, 3} and h(n) C
= {1, 2, 1, 1}
a) y(n) = {1,4,6,7,8,4,3} b) y(n) = {1,4,6,9,8,4,4}
c) y(n) = {1,4,6,8,9,4,3} d) y(n) = {1,4,6,8,9,3,3}
558. Determine the correlation between two sequences C

𝑥 𝑛 = 𝛿 𝑛 + 2𝛿 𝑛 − 1 + 𝛿 𝑛 − 2 , ℎ 𝑛 = 2𝛿 𝑛 + 𝛿 𝑛 − 1 + 3𝛿(𝑛 − 2)
a). {2,5,7,7,3} b). {2,5,7,5,2}
c). {3,7,7,5,2} d). {3,7,5,7,2}
559. A system is said to be defined as non - causal, when D

a) The output at the present depends on the input at an earlier time
b) The output at the present does not depend on the factor of time at all
c) The output at the present depends on the input at the current time
d) The output at the present depends on the input at a time instant in the
future
560. 𝑦(𝑡) = 𝑠𝑖𝑛(𝑥(𝑡 − 1)) : Comment on its memory aspects. A

a) Having memory b) Needn’t have memory
c) Memoryless system d) Time invariant system
561. Does the system ℎ(𝑡) = 𝑒 −7𝑡 correspond to a stable system? A

a) Yes b) No c) Marginally Stable
562. The signal x(t )  sin15 t  sin 20 t is

a. Periodic b. Not Periodic
c. Semi Periodic d. None of the above b
563. Which one of the following property of unit step function  (t ) is true
1
a.  (at )   (t ) b.  (at )  a  (t )
a
c.  (at )  a d.  (at )  1 a
564. The complex exponential Fourier representation of a signal f (t ) over the interval (0, T ) is

3
f (t )   4  (n )
n 
2
e jn t
The numerical value of T is
a. 4 b. 1
c. 2 d. 0 c
565. Which one of the following property of Fourier transform is true
 jwt0
a. f (t  t0 )  F ( jw)e b. f (t  t0 )  F ( jw)e
jwt0
 jwt02
c. f (t  t0 )  F ( jw)e d. none of the above a
566. Fourier transform of Gaussian pulse f (t )  e a t is

2 2
f f
 (
a
)2  (
a
)2
a. e b. e
2a a
 
  ( )2
a
  ( )2
a
c. e d. e b
a a
567. Laplace transform of e at cos 0t is
sa sa
a. b.
( s  a)2  0 2 ( s  a)2  0 2
s sa
c. d. d
( s  a)2  0 2 ( s  a)2  0 2
568. Z-transform of the signal 2n u (n  2) is
4 z 2 2 z 2
a. b.
1  2 z 1 1  2 z 1
z 2 4 z 2
c. d. a
1  2 z 1 1  z 1
569. The signal y(t )  7 x(t )  10 is

a. Non-linear b. ramp
c. Linear d. none of the above c
570. Which of the following distinguish FIR filter from IIR
a. Linear phase characteristics b. order of the filter
c. efficiency d. none of the above a
571. If the cumulative distribution function is FX ( x) , then the probability density function
f X ( x) is given by
d
a. F
X ( x)dx b.
dx
FX ( x)
d
c. F X ( x)dx d.
dx
FX ( x) b
572. A signal x(t )  6cos10 t is sampled at the rate of 14Hz.To recover the original signal the
cut-off frequency fc of the ideal LPF should be
a. 5Hz < fc < 9 Hz b. 9Hz
c. 10Hz d. 14 Hz a
573. The stop band attenuation Ap for the design of Kaiser window is given by
1  p 1  p
a. Ap  10log10 dB b. Ap  10log10 dB
1  p 1  p
1  p 1  p
c. Ap  20log10 dB d. Ap  20log10 dB c
1  p 1  p
0.0476(1  z 1 ) 2
574. The bilinear transformation H ( z )  corresponds to which of the following
(1  0.9048 z 1 ) 2
1 1
a. H ( s)  b. H ( s) 
( s  1)2 ( s  1)2
1 1
c. H ( s)  d. H ( s)  a
(2s  1) 2 (2s  1) 2
575. The quantization noise power of the digital filter, when the input signal is quantized to have
eight bits is given by
a. 1X 106 b. 1.27 X 106
c. 1.27 X 108 d. 1X 108 b
576. The phenomenon spectral leakage is the result of

a. autocorrelation process b. Fourier transform
c. Windowing d. Quantization c
577. Frequency resolution of the Bartlett method of power estimation for a quality factor Q  10
and the length of the sample sequence 1000 is
a. 0.0009 b. 0.009
c. 0.09 d. 0.9 a
578. The discrete time system described by y(n)  x(n2 ) is
a. Causal, linear and time varying

b. Causal, non- linear and time varying
c. Non-causal, linear and time invariant
d. Non-causal, non-linear and time variant c
579. The response of a Linear, time invariant, discrete-time system to a unit step input u(t) is the
unit impulse  (n) .The system response to a ramp input nu (n) would be
a. u(n) b. u(n-1)

c. n (n) d.  k ( n  k )
k 0
d
580. The units of the spectrum obtained by Fourier transforming the co-variance function of a
stationary stochastic process is
a. Power per Hertz b. Energy per Hertz
c. Power per second d. Energy per second b
581. Solution of Laplace’s equation, which are continuous through the second derivative, are
called
a. Bessel functions b. Odd functions
c. Harmonic functions d. Fundamental function c

n No.
582. Radio channel used for transmission of information from the mobile to the b
base station is called as _____
(a) Forward Voice channel (b) Reverse Voice Channel
(c) Forward Control Channel (d) Reverse Control Channel
583. The process of transferring a mobile station from one base station to another c
is__________
(a) Switching (b) Channel Borrowing
(c) Handoff (d) Call Setup
584. ______ coordinates the routing of calls in a large service area. c
(a) Mobile equipment (b) Base Station
(c) MSC (d) None of the above
585. ____________ is the expansion of GPRS. c
(a) Genuine packet radio System (b) Genuine packet radio System
(c) General packet radio service (d) General packet radio Switching
586. To which one of the following generations does CDMA belong? b
(a) First generation (b) Second generation
(c) Third generation (d) Fourth generation
587. The cell having the same number in the adjacent cluster using the same set of b
RF channels are termed as
(a) adjacent cell (b) Co channel cell
(c) Macro cell (d) Selective Cell
588. Higher value of Q is achievable in a
(a) big cluster size (b) small cluster size
(c) medium cluster size (d) None of the above
589. The process of transferring a channel from one base station to another is b
__________
(a) Switching (b) Channel Borrowing
(c) Handoff (d) Call Setup
590. The core concept used in Cellular technology is b
(a) TDM (b) Frequency Reuse
(c) Code reuse (d) CDMA
591. ______ denotes the traffic intensity the entire trunked radio system. c
(a) Traffic intensity (b) Grade of Service
(c) Load (d) None of the above
592. The coverage & capacity of CDMA system is more than that of GSM system a
(a) True (b) False
(c) Equal (d) None of the above
593. The technique adopted to increase the system capacity and reduce co-channel c
interference is
(a) High power BTS (b) With Omnidirectional antenna
(c) Sectorization (d) None of the above
594. The remote and sparsely populated areas will be covered by b
(a) Microcell (b) Macrocell
(c) Picocell (d) None of the above
595. Real audio/video signal is a/an a
(a) Energy Signal (b) Power Signal
(c) Deterministic Signal (d) Periodic Signal
596. The type of access used in GSM technology is a
(a) FDMA/TDMA (b) CDMA
(c) OFDMA (d) None of the above
597. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station can communicate with two base b
stations at the same time
(a) Hard (b) Soft
(c) Medium (d) None of the above
598. Which of the following is the communication system mainly suitable for d
wireless digital communication?
(a) Analog input – analog transmission(b) Analog data – digital transmission
(c) Digital data-digital transmission (d) Digital data-analog transmission
599. The capacity of the wire-line system can be increased d
(a) By TDMA (b) By random access
(c) By increasing the number of wires(d) By all the methods
600. For real time voice transmission the suitable multiple access type is b
(a) Random access (b) Fixed assignment based access
(c) Reservation access (d) None of the above
601. In which of the following multiple access schemes, the frequency reuse c
concept is utilized?
(a) FDMA (b) CDMA
(c) SDMA (d) None of the above

n No.
602. Laplacian of a Scalar function F is
(a) gradient of F
(b) divergence of F d
(c) gradient of gradient of F
(d) divergence of gradient of F
603. Poisson's Equation relating the potential V at any point to the volume charge
density ρ at that point states that

(a)  2V 

 b
(b)  2V  

(c)  V  
2
(d)  2V  
604. Electric Flux inside a conducting sphere is
(a) zero
(b) uniform a
(c) minimum
(d) maximum
605. If the vector A and B are conservative, then
(a) A X B is solenoidal
(b) A X B is conservative a
(c) A + B is solenoidal
(d) A - B is solenoidal
606. If the vector field F=(αxy+βZ3 )ux +(3x2-γz)uy+(3xz2-y)uz is irrotational,then

value of α,β andγ is
(a) α = β = γ =1
(b) α = β = 1,γ =0
a
(c) α = 0,β = γ =1
(d) α = β = γ =0
607. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave propagating in the positive z-

direction is given by E=aˆx sin(ωt-βz) + aˆy sin(ωt-βz+Π/2 ).The wave is
(a) linearly polarized in the z-direction.
(b) elliptically polarized c
(c) left-hand circularly polarized
(d) right-hand circularly polarized
608. Equation J  0 is called
(a) Laplacian equation
(b) Poisson's equation

c
(c) Continuity equation for discrete currents
(d) Kirchoff's node equation
609. Boundary conditions at the interface between two dielectrics in an electric

field are
(a) Dn=0;En=0
(b) Dn=0;Et=0 b
(c) Dt=0;Et=0
(d) Dt=0;En=0 (where subscript n and t denote the normal and tangential
components respectively)
610. Intrinsic impedance of free space is given by

(a) Zo = µo εo
µo
(b) Zo = b
o
µo
(c) Zo =
o
(d) Zo =  o  o
611. In which direction is the plane wave E =50 sin (108t +2z) aˆy v/m,(where aˆy
is unit vector in y-direction),traveling?
(a) Along y direction
(b) Along -y direction d
(c) Along z direction
(d) Along -z direction
612. A single turn loop is situated in air,with a uniform magnetic field normal to
its plane.The area of the loop is 5 m2 and the rate of change of flux density is
2 Wb/m2/s .what is the emf appearing at the terminals of the loop?
(a) -5 V
b
(b) -2 V
(c) -0.4 V
(d) 0 V
613. Maxwell's divergence equation for the magnetic field is given by
(a) XB  0
(b) .B  0
b
(c) XB  
(d) .B  
614. Consider the following statements regarding maxwell's equations in

differential form (symbols have the usual meanings)
1. For free space XH  (  j ) E

2. For free space .D   c
3. For steady current XH  J
4. For static electric field .D  

Of these statements:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
615. The internal dimension of a coaxial capacitor is a = 1.2 cm, b = 4 cm and c =

40 cm.The homogeneous material inside the capacitor has the parameter ε=
10-11 F/m,µ = 10-5 S/m.The electric field intensity is E = (107 /γ ) cos (10 5t)up
V/m. The current density J is
(a) (200/ρ) sin (105 t) uρ A/m2 c
(b) (400/ρ) sin (105 t) uρ A/m2
(c) (100/ρ) cos (105 t) uρ A/m2
(d) none of these
616. The depth of penetration of a wave in a lossy dielectric increase with

increasing
(a) conductivity
(b) permeability
(c) wavelength c
(d) permittivity
617.   
The time averaged pointing vector,in 2
, for a wave with E =24 ej(ωt+βz). a j
m
in free space is

(a) - 2.4/Π a z
b

(b) 2.4/Π a z

(c) 4.8/Π a z

(d) – 4.8/Π a z
618. When electromagnetic waves are reflected at an angle from a wall,their wave
length along the wall is
(a) same as in the free space
(b) same as the wavelength perpendicular to the wall d
(c) shortened because of the doppler effect
(d) greater than in the actual direction of propagation
619. Transmission of power to a load over a transmission line achieves optimum

value when standing-wave ratio (SWR) becomes
(a) 2:1
(b) 1:2 c
(c) 1:1
(d) 1: 2
620. 
For an EM wave transmitted in a good dielectric having 1 , the

attenuation constant α and phase shift factor β are given by
 
(a)   ;   
2  a
 
(b)   ;  
2 
 
(c)   ; 
 
 1
(d)   ; 
 
621. The EM field and current are concentrated close to the surface of the
conductor. The phenomenon is called
(a) Faraday's effect
(b) Skin effect

b
(c) EM concentration effect
(d) Ohm's effect

n No.
622. Microwave antenna aperture efficiency depends on b
a. feed pattern b. antenna aperture c. surface losses
d. sidelobe level
623. If the antenna diameter in a radar system is increased by a factor of 9, then c

the maximum range will increase by a factor of
a. 3 b. 3 c. 9 d. 81
624. In antenna measurements the minimum separation distance between the d

antenna should be greater than
a. d/2 b. 2/d c. 22/d d. 2d2/
625. Noise temperature and gain are two important parameters of satellite b
antennas. Which one of the following antenna has the largest G/T ratio?
a. parabolic reflector b. Cassegrian antenna
c. pyramidal horn antenna d. dipole antenna
626. The radiation resistance of Hertzian dipole antenna of length dl is a

𝑑𝑙 2 𝑑𝑙 𝜆𝑑𝑙 𝜋𝑑𝑙 2
a. 80𝜋 𝜆
Ω b. 80𝜋 𝜆
c. 80 𝜋
d. 80 𝜆
627. If the minimum range is to be doubled in a radar, the peak power has to be d
increased by a factor of
a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16
628. Which of the following antenna produces circular polarization b

a. horn antenna b. helical antenna c. dipole antenna
d. parabolic dish antenna
629. A dipole antenna of length 0.1m radiates in air at a wavelength of 5m. If the a
peak current is 1A determine the radiation resistance
a. 0.3158Ω b. 3.158 Ω c. 31.58 Ω d. 315.8 Ω
630. A power gain test of a reference antenna and a test antenna resulted in the a
following data: input power to the reference antenna is 400 mW and input power
to the test antenna is 100 mW. The power gain is
a. 6.02 dB b.62 .6 dB c. 26.6 dB
d 2.06 dB
631. An antenna with the efficiency of 95% is radiating 10W. The input power to the c
antenna is
a. 20 .5 W b. 12.11W c. 10.52 W d. 9.92W
632. A parabolic reflector antenna with a gain of 40 dB is required at a frequency of b

4GHz. The overall efficiency is 0.65. The required diameter of the reflector is
a. 4.9m b. 2.9m c. 7.2m d. 8.2m
633. A TV transmitter antenna has a height of 169m and receive antenna has a height of b
16m. The maximum distance through which the signal can be received by space
wave propagation is
a. 40 km b. 68 km c. 74 km d. 47 km
634. A helical antenna has directivity of 18 dB, pitch angle of 12 and circumference b
equal to one wavelength. The number of turns of helix is
a. 5 b. 20 c. 25 d. 15
635. A thin wire at load end has dipole antenna with the impedance 73+j42.5. a
Impedance of quarter wave transformer required to match this antenna with the
transmission line of characteristic impedance 100 is
a. 91.9  b. 133.7 c. 150 d.
180.2
636. d
Which of the following antenna is frequency independent
a. folded dipole b. half wave dipole c. helical
d. log periodic
637. d
The mode of propagation in microstrip antenna is
a. TEM b. quasi TEM c. TE d. TM
638. d
Cassegrain feed is used with parabolic reflector to
a. Increase the gain
b. Increase bandwidth
c. Reduce the size of main reflector
d. Allow feed to be placed at convenient location
639. d
In microwave communication, sometimes microwave signals reach large
distances by following earth’s curvature. This phenomenon is called
a. tropospheric scatter b. faraday effect c. ionospheric reflection
d. ducting
640. A dipole antenna of /8 length has radiation resistance of 72 Ω an equivalent d

total loss resistance of 1.5Ω. The efficiency of the antenna is
a. 0.89% b. 8.91% c. 89.1% d. 97.9%
641. The radiation efficiency of the antenna is usually quite high. The reasons for b
this high efficiency are:
a. Large radiation resistance and large antenna size
b. Low internal impedance and large radiation resistance
c. Small antenna size and low radiation impedance
d. Low internal impedance and small antenna size

n No.
642. In bilinear transformation, the left-half s-plane is mapped to which of the d
following in the z-domain?
a) Entirely outside the unit circle |z|=1
b) Partially outside the unit circle |z|=1
c) Partially inside the unit circle |z|=1
d) Entirely inside the unit circle |z|=1
643. If x(n) is a real sequence and X(k) is its N-point DFT, then which of the d
following is true?
a) X(N-k)=X(-k)
b) X(N-k)=X*(k)
c) X(-k)=X*(k)
d) All of the mentioned
644. If X(k) is the N-point DFT of a sequence x(n), then what is the DFT of x*(n)? c
a) X(N-k)
b) X*(k)
c) X*(N-k)
645. If x(n) is real and odd, then what is the IDFT of the given sequence? a

646. According to Time shifting property of z-transform, if X(z) is the z- b
transform of x(n) then what is the z-transform of x(n-k)?
a)zkX(z)
b)z-kX(z)
c)X(z-k)
d) X(z+k)
647. What is the kind of relationship between Ω and ω? c
a) Many-to-one
b) One-to-many
c) One-to-one
d) Many-to-many
648. If NB and NC are the orders of the Butterworth and Chebyshev filters b
respectively to meet the same frequency specifications, then which of the
following relation is true?
a) NC=NB
b) NC<NB
c) NC>NB
d) Cannot be determined
649. If the discrimination factor ‘d’ and the selectivity factor ‘k’ of a chebyshev I b
filter are 0.077 and 0.769 respectively, then what is the order of the filter?
a) 2
b) 5
c) 4
d) 3
650. The sum of number of maxima and minima in the pass band equals the order a
of the filter.
a) True
b) False
651. What is the value of chebyshev polynomial of degree 3? d
a) 3x3+4x
b) 3x3-4x
c) 4x3+3x
d) 4x3-3x
652. Chebyshev polynomials of odd orders are: b

a) Even functions
b) Odd functions
c) Exponential functions
d) Logarithmic functions
653. If H(s)= 1/(s2+s+1) represent the transfer function of a low pass filter(not a
Butterworth) with a pass band of 1 rad/sec, then what is the system function
of a lowpass filter with a pass band 10 rad/sec?

654. What is the cutoff frequency of the Butterworth filter with a pass band gain d
KP= -1 dB at ΩP= 4 rad/sec and stop band attenuation greater than or equal
to 20dB at ΩS= 8 rad/sec?
a) 3.5787 rad/sec
b) 1.069 rad/sec
c) 6 rad/sec
d) 4.5787 rad/sec
655. What is the lowest order of the Butterworth filter with a pass band gain of b
KP= -1 dB at ΩP= 4 rad/sec and stop band attenuation greater than or equal
to 20dB at ΩS= 8 rad/sec?
a)4
b)5
c)6
d)3
656. Let x1(t) and x2(t) be periodic signals with fundamental periods T1 and T2 c
respectively. Which of the following must be a rational number for
x(t)=x1(t)+x2(t) to be periodic?
a)T1+T2
b)T1-T2
c)T1/T2
d) T1*T2
657. b
All energy signals will have an average power of:
a) Infinite
b) Zero
c) Positive
d) Cannot be calculated
658. Which of the following is true regarding the number of computations a
required to compute an N-point DFT?
a)N2 complex multiplications and N(N-1) complex additions
b)N2 complex additions and N(N-1) complex multiplications
c)N2 complex multiplications and N(N+1) complex additions
d) N2 complex additions and N(N+1) complex multiplications
659. If we split the N point data sequence into two N/2 point data sequences f1(n) c
and f2(n) corresponding to the even numbered and odd numbered samples of
x(n) and F1(k) and F2(k) are the N/2 point DFTs of f1(k) and f2(k)
respectively, then what is the N/2 point DFT X(k) of x(n)?
a)F1(k)+F2(k)
b)F1(k)-WNk F2(k)
c)F1(k)+WNkNk F2(k)
660. a
Physically realizable and stable IIR filters cannot have linear phase.
a) True
b) False
661. If M and N are the orders of numerator and denominator of rational system a
function respectively, then how many memory locations are required in direct
form-I realization of that IIR filter?
a)M+N+1
b)M+N
c)M+N-1
d) M+N-2

n No.
662. The operating frequency of an air filled rectangular wave guide can be calculated b
from the successive the successive minima method. If the operating frequency is
f, to compute 
the following relationship hold good
1 1 1
(a)   c  g   (c) g    c
2 2 2
(b) (d) None
 2
c 2
g 2
663. The radiation pattern we measure for a horn antenna is of E-plane type. At what b
condition
we will say it is an E-plane type.
(a) The electric field of the radiating horn is parallel to ground.
(b) The electric field of the radiating horn is perpendicular to ground.
(c) The magnetic field of the radiating horn is parallel to ground..
(d) None of these.
664. The distance between the transmitting and receiving antenna should be a
2 2
2D D D
(a)  (b)  (c)  (d) None
  
Where D is the broader dimension of the horn and  free space wavelength
for the operating frequency.
665. What is the advantage of Wilkinson power divider over other power dividers? d
[ ]
(a) Lossless (b) Matched (c) Reciprocal (d) Isolation
666. For Wilkinson power divider, one of the following is not correct. b
(a) Three ports are matched ( b) network is lossless (c) S32=S23
(d) No power dissipation in resistors
667. How many isolation resistors are required for 4-way Wilkinson power divider? a
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d)2
668. For Maximum gain amplifier design, what kind of matching been proposed? c
(a) Resistive matching (b) Complex matching (c) Conjugate matching
(d) lattice matching.
669. What is the condition for a transistor to be “Unconditionally stable”? b

(a) K>1, Δ=1 (b) k>1, Δ<1 (c) K>1, Δ>1 d) μ=1, Δ=1
670. The parameter that can be measured at microwave frequencies is d
(a) Current (b) Power (c) Voltage (d) Transmission and reflection
Coefficient
671. The relation between reflection coefficient and VSWR is a

VSWR  1 VSWR  1 1  VSWR
(a)   (b)   (c)   (d)
VSWR  1 VSWR  1 1  VSWR
1  VSWR

1  VSWR
672. The frequency range for X- band is d
(a) 1- 2 GHz (b) 4- 8 GHz (c) 2- 4 GHz (d) 8- 12 GHz
673. When one port of a three port circulator is terminated with a matched load it can a
be used as
(a) Transmission line (b)Isolator (c) Direction coupler (d)Power divider
674. One of the following devices is a four port microwave device c

(a) E- plane bend (b) 90 degree twist (c) Directional coupler (d) PIN
modulator
675. In RADAR, one of the following microwave devices is used to route outgoing and a
incoming signals between antenna, transmitter and receiver.
(a) Circulator (b)Isolator (c) Magic Tee (d) Attenuator
676. The microwave device in which power entering any port is transmitted to the next c
port in rotation is called
(a) Slotted line waveguide (b) Matched termination (c)Circulator (d)
Direction coupler
677. The forbidden energy gap of GaAs is a
(a) 1.43 ev (b) 1.34 ev (c) 1.21 ev (d) 0.7 ev

678. Which of the following diode operates on avalanche process? b
(a) Tunnel diode (b) IMPATT diode (c) Gunn diode (d) BARITT
679. d
8. Which of the following diode is having negative resistance region in its VI
characteristics?
(a) Tunnel diode (b) Gunn diode (c) IMPATT diode (d) All
680. Scattering parameters are important at microwave frequencies because, d
(a) Easy to measure V& I (b) make use of short & open circuits (c) easy to apply
KVL & KCL (d) none
681. What is the scattering matrix of a matched Isolator c
(a) S11=0, S12=0, S21=0, S22=0 (b) S11=0, S12=1, S21=0, S22=0 (c) S11=0, S12=0, S21=1, S22=0
(d) S11=0, S12=1, S21=1, S22=0
Quest Question with choice Answer

ion
No.
682. The parallel wire transmission line is an example of (b)an
unbalanced
(a) a balanced line line
(b) an unbalanced line
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
683. For lossless line, (b)α=0, β≠0
(a) α=0, β=0

(b) α=0, β≠0
(c) α≠0, β=0
(d) α≠0, β≠0
684. The input impedance of a λ/2 transformer is (a)terminal

impedance
(a) terminal impedance
(b) terminal admittance
(c) characteristics impedance
(d) none of these
685. The reflection coefficient of a transmission line with a short-circuited load is (a)0
(a) 0
(b) ∞
(c) 0.1∠0°
(d) 0.1
686. The characteristic impedances Z 0 of a transmission line is given by, (where R, L, G, (d)[(R+
C are the unit length parameters) jωL)/ (G
+jω C)]1/2
(a) (R + jωL)/(G + jωC)
(b) (R + jωL)(G + jωC)
(c) (R+ jωL)2 / (G +jω C)
(d) [(R+ jωL)/ (G +jω C)]1/2
687. The reflection coefficient over the normalized Zl (a)(Zl- 1)/
(Zl +1 )
(a) (Zl - 1)/ (Zl +1 )
(b) (Zl + 1)/ (Zl -1 )
(c) (Zs - 1)/ (Zs +1 )
(d) none of these
688. In the left half of the Smith chart, the resistance and reactance values are (a)less than
1
(a) less than 1
(b) more than 1
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) Zero
689. Travel to length λg/2 over the line corresponds to rotation over smith chart by (b)360°
(a) 180°
(b) 360°
(c) 90°
(d) 270°
690. A long transmission line is energized at then sending end and is kept open circuited (c)Vs is less
at the receiving end. The magnitudes of the sending end voltage Vs and of the than Vr
receiving end voltage Vr satisfy the following relationship:
(a) Vs =Vr
(b) Vs is greater than Vr
(c) Vs is less than Vr
(d) None of these
691. The surge impedance of a double-circuit power transmission line is (b)200 ohms
(a) 40 ohms
(b) 200 ohms
(c) 400 ohms
(d) 800 ohms
692. The velocity factor of a transmission line depends on (c)Relative

permittivity
(a) Temperature of dielectric
(b) skin effect
(c) Relative permittivity of dielectric
(d) Doppler effect
693. In circular waveguide the dominat mode is (b)TE11
(a) TE10
(b) TE11
(c) TE20
(d) TE21
694. In a TWT the amplitude of resultant wave travelling down the helix (a)increases
exponentiall
(a) increases exponentially y
(b) increases linearly
(c) decreases exponentially
(d) is almost constant
695. Which of the following lines is non-radiating? (b)Coaxial
(a) Open two wire

(b) Coaxial
(c) Both
(d) None of the above
696. A quarter wave line open circuited at far end behaves as (d)L and C
in series
(a) Inductance
(b) L and C in parallel
(c) Capacitance
(d) L and C in series
697. A line is excited by a 100 V dc source. If reflection coefficients at both ends are 1 (d)The
each then oscillation
will
(a) there will be no oscillations on line continue
(b) there will be only 1 or 2 oscillations on line indefinitely
(c) there will be a finite number of oscillations on line
(d) the oscillations will continue indefinitely
698. In a klystron amplifier dc electron velocity is v0 and dc electron charge density (a)ρ0v0
is r0 the dc beam current is
(a) ρ0v0
(b) ρ0/v0
(c) v0/ρ0
(d) (v0/ρ0)2
699. A space between two cavities in two cavity klystron is (a)Drift
space
(a) Drift space
(b) Free space
(c) Running Space
(d) Normal Space
700. Where is the resistive load placed in a directional coupler? (d)back end
of the
(a) front end of the primary secondary
(b) front end of the secondary
(c) back end of the primary
(d) back end of the secondary
701. Given the frequency and dimensions of 5 GHz and 7 cm by 9 cm respectively, the (b)52
beam of the pyramidal horn is about. degrees
(a) 27 degrees
(b) 52 degrees
(c) 60 degrees
(d) 80 degrees

n No.
702. Two digital filters can be operated in cascade. Or, the same effect can c
be achieved by
a. Adding their coefficients
b. Subtracting their coefficients
c. Convolving their coefficients
d. Averaging their coefficients and then using a Blackman
window
703. FFT algorithms a

a. Eliminate redundant calculation and enable to analyse the
spectral properties of a signal
b. Enable the redundant calculation and redundant to analyse
the spectral properties of a signal
c. Increases the number of computations
704. If the Fourier series coefficients of a signal are periodic then the b
signal must be
a. Continuous-time, periodic
b. Discrete-time, periodic
c. Continuous-time, non-periodic
d. Discrete-time, non-periodic
705. Coefficient symmetry is important in FIR filters because it d
provides
a. a smaller transition bandwidth
b. less passband ripple
c. less stopband ripple
d. a linear phase response
706. The property of Fourier Transform which states that the b
compression in time
domain is equivalent to expansion in the frequency domain is
a. Duality.
b. Scaling.
c. Time Scaling.
d. Frequency Shifting.
707. Correlation
a. Gives a measure of similarity between two data sequences. a
b. increases the dis-similarity between two data sequences
c. a&b
d. none of the above
708. The system having input x(n) related to output y(n) as y(n) = log10 |x(n)| a
is:
a. nonlinear, causal, stable.
b. linear, noncausal, stable.
c. nonlinear, causal, not stable.
d. linear, noncausal, not stable
709. The region of convergence of the z-transform of the signal 2𝑛 𝑢(𝑛) − C
3𝑛 𝑢(−𝑛 − 1)
a. is z > 1.
b. is z < 1.
c. is 2 < z < 3 .
d. does not exist.
710. A continuous-time periodic signal x(t), having a period T, is convolved b
with itself. The resulting signal is
a. not periodic
b. periodic having a period T
c. periodic having a period 2T
d. periodic having a period T/2
711. The period of the signal x(t)=10sin12πt+4cos18 πt is d
a. π/4
b. 1/6
c. 1/9
d. 1/3
712. The auto-correlation function of a rectangular pulse of duration d
T is
a. a rectangular pulse of duration T.
b. a rectangular pulse of duration 2T.
c. a triangular pulse of duration T.
d. a triangular pulse of duration 2T.
713. If the Nyquist rate for xa(t) is Ωs , what is the Nyquist rate for dxa(t)/dt b
a. dΩs /df
b. Ωs
c. Ωs/2
d. 2Ωs
714. If the Nyquist rate for xa(t) is Ωs , what is the Nyquist rate for xa(2t) a
a. 2Ωs
b. Ωs/2
c. Ωs
d. Ωs /4
715. If the Nyquist rate for xa(t) is Ωs, what is the Nyquist rate for xa2(t) a
a. 2Ωs
b. Ωs/2
c. Ωs
d. Ωs/4
716. If the Nyquist rate for xa(t) is Ωs, what is the Nyquist rate for a
xa(t)Cos(Ω0t)
a. Ωs + 2Ω0
b. Ωs * 2Ω0
c. Ωs /2Ω0
d. Ωs - 2Ω0
717. The impulse response of a system is h(n)= anu(n) . The condition for d
the system to be BIBO stable is
a. a is real and positive.
b. a is real and negative.
c. a > 1.
d. a < 1.
718. If R1 is the region of convergence of x(n) and R2 is the region of c
convergence of y(n), then the region of convergence of x(n) convoluted
y(n) is
a. R1+R2.
b. R1−R2.
c. R1∩R2.
d. R1∪R2.
719. The continuous time system described by y(t) = x(t2) is d
a. causal, linear and time varying.
b. causal, non-linear and time varying.
c. non causal, non-linear and time-invariant.
d. non causal, linear and time-invariant.
720. x(n)=alnl, a<1 is a
a. an energy signal.
b. a power signal.
c. neither an energy nor a power signal.
d. an energy as well as a power signal.
721. The system characterized by the equation 𝑦(𝑡) = 𝑎 𝑥(𝑡) + 𝑏 is d
a. linear for any value of b.
b. linear if b > 0.
c. linear if b < 0.
d. non-linear.

n No.
722. Microwave refers to alternating current with frequencies in the range B
a. 3MHz to 3GHz
b. 3GHz to 3000GHz
c. 300MHz to 300GHz
d. 3KHz to 300MHz
723. Wilkinson power divider doesn’t have one of the following properties D
a. Isolation between output ports
b. All ports are matched
c. Lossless when all ports are matched
d. Non-reciprocal when all ports are matched
724. 180 quadrature hybrid coupler is also called as B

a. 3dB branch line coupler
b. Rat-race coupler
c. Coupled line coupler
d. Lange Coupler
725. Ferrite materials are referred with C

a. Faraday’s Law
b. Maxwell polarization
c. Faraday Rotation
d. Bose-Einstein condensation
726. Which one is called as ‘Analog calculator’ A

a. Magic Tee
b. E-plane Tee
c. Branch line coupler
d. Directional coupler
727. Electron movement in Magnetron is B

a. Cylindrical
b. Cyclic
c. Curl
d. Parabolic
728. Resistive power divider is A

a. Lossy network
b. Non-reciprocal network
c. Unmatched network
d. Lossless network
729. If a 3db coupler is fed with -20dB of input power, what is the power expected at D
port-3
a. -40dB
b. -17dB
c. +13dB
d. -23dB
730. What is the operating frequency of Bluetooth devices D

a. 3.1GHz
b. 2.15GHz
c. 855MHz
d. 2.45GHz
731. Junction effect is identified in C

a. Gunn diode
b. Circulator
c. E-plane Tee
d. Magic Tee
732. For a matched reciprocal three port network, one the following is impossible D
a. Input reflection coefficient as zero
b. Lossless when input is matched
c. Any port can be input
d. All ports are matched
733. A lossless microwave network should have S matrix of C
a. Unit matrix
b. Zero Matrix
c. Unitary matrix
d. Reciprocal matrix
734. Circulator is a A
a. Matched lossless device
b. Unmatched and non-reciprocal device
c. Non-reciprocal and lossy device
d. Matched lossy device
735. Characteristics impedance of QWT to match 100Ω load to 50Ω source is D

a. 3.353Ω
b. 35.358Ω
c. 7.787Ω
d. 70.710Ω
736. Transmission line equations are also called A

a. Telegraph equations
b. Maxwell’s Equations
c. RADAR range equations
d. Friss Transmission equations
737. Among the following which is non-reciprocal two port network C

a. Circulator
b. Coupler
c. Isolator
d. Diode
738. The dominant mode is rectangular wave guide is B
a. TEM
b. TE10
c. TM10
d. TM11
739. Slotted Section is not useful to measure D

a. Impedance
b. Wavelength
c. Frequency of operation
d. Input power
740. If reflection coefficient measured across a load is 0.1, then the return loss is A
a. 20dB
b. 40dB
c. 30dB
d. 10dB
741. Among these which one is not a planar transmission line C

a. Microstrip line
b. Strip line
c. Coaxial line
d. Co-planar line

No.
742. To increase the data transmission rate, the bit time should be a
a) Shorter
b) longer
743. The main role of the transmitter in a communications system is a
a) To translate the information to a physical waveform
b) To recover the information from a physical waveform
c) To provide the medium over which the physical waveform travels
744. If we choose a longer bit time, which of the following statements about bit rate and BER is d
generally true
a) Bit rate increases, BER increases
b) Bit rate increases, BER decreases
c) Bit rate decreases, BER increases
d) Bit rate decreases, BER decreases
745. Consider a repetition code where code words are formed by repeating each bit five times. a
What is the minimum Hamming distance for this code?
a) 5
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
746. 1. Consider a repetition code where code words are formed by repeating each bit five times. d
Suppose we wish to detect and correct errors in each received code word. What is the
maximum number of bit errors that we can detect?
2. a) 1
3. b) 2
4. c) 3
5. d) 4
747. 6. Consider a repetition code where code words are formed by repeating each bit five times. b
Suppose we wish to detect and correct errors in each received code word. What is the
maximum number of bit errors that we can correct?
7. a) 1
8. b) 2
9. c) 3
10. d) 4
748. Suppose we sample a signal at frequency Fs. If we collect 1500 samples in 5 seconds, what a
is Fs in Hz?
a) 300
b) 400
c) 350
d) 4500
749. If each character in a 45 character text message is encoded using an 8-bit ASCII code, how b
many bits would be required to encode the entire message?
a) 480
b) 360
c) 420
d) 440
750. For a (8, 4 ,3) block code, which one of the following statements is incorrect? c
a) Each codeword contains 4 message bits
b) The code rate is 0.5
c) We can detect 3 bit errors
d) We can detect and correct 1 bit errors
751. Compact discs record two channels (left and right) of music at a sampling frequency a
of Fs=44.1kHz. If each sample is encoded with 16 bits, and one byte is 8 bits, how many
bytes are required to store one minute of music?
a) 10584000
b) 20584000
c) 10584456
d) 10594000
752. Consider a system that uses 8-bit ASCII codes to encode letters. How long will it take to a
transmit the bit sequence encoding "Good Morning" (not including quotation marks) if we
use a bit time of 4 samples per bit, and transmit samples at a rate of 1MHz? Represent the
answer in  s .
a) 384
b) 484
c) 300
d) 458
753. Consider a repetition code where code words are formed by repeating each bit five times. c
Suppose we receive the following bitstream.
0000011110000111111011000111001111000001
If we assume that we can both detect and correct errors, what was the original bit stream?
a) 01010111
b) 11010110
c) 01010110
d) 01010100
754. Consider the figure, where input and output of a channel is given. Estimate the BER of the d
communication channel. Express the BER as a ratio lying between 0 and 1.
a) 0.3
b) 0.1
c) 0.4
d) 0.2
755. Consider the figure, where input and output of a channel is given. How many bit errors are c
made?
.
a)3
b)10
c)4
d)2
756. b
Assume that a student took a final exam with an equal number of "easy" and "hard"
questions. Assume that the student made errors on only 12% of the "easy" questions, but
made errors on 24% of the "hard" questions. If a question is selected at random (all questions
have equal probability of being selected), what is the probability that the student made an
error on that question?
a) 0.12
b) 0.18
c) 0.22
d) 0.41
757. d
Suppose that the test is made easier. There are twice as many "easy" questions as "hard"
questions. If the probability of error on the "easy" and "hard" questions remains the same,
what is the probability the student makes an error on a randomly selected question?
a) 0.12
b) 0.18
c) 0.22
d) 0.16
758. a
The figure below shows an example set of input and output bit streams from a binary
channel.
Estimate the bit error rate (BER) of this channel.

a) 0.25
b) 0.2
c) 0.6
d) 0.8
759. a
channel.
Estimate the probability the transmitter sends a 0 bit

a) 0.45
b) 0.42
c) 0.85
d) 0.8
760. a
channel.
Estimate the probability of an error if a 0 bit is transmitted

a)0.33
b)0.22
c)0.21
d)0.32
761. b
channel.
Estimate the probability of an error if a 1 bit is transmitted
a) 0.12
b) 0.18
c) 0.22
d) 0.16

n No.
762. An additive white Gaussian process X(t) is passed through an ideal bandpass (a)
filter of center frequency 100 MHz and bandwidth 2 MHz. Let X(t) have a
N
power spectral density of 0 and the output of BPF is P(t). The variance of
2
P(t) is
(a) 106 N0
N
(b) 0
2
(c) 2 x 106 N0
(d) N0
763. If the autocorrelation function of a random process X(t) is given by (b)
RX    e2  . Power spectral density of X(t) is
1
(a)
1  4 2 f 2
1
(b)
1  2 f 2
1
(c)
4  2 f 2
2
(d)
1  4 2 f 2
764. In mobile IP, which of the following is a router that maintains a list of (b)
registered mobile nodes in a visitor list
(a) Foreign Agent

(b) Home Agent
(c) Correspondent Node
(d) All of them
765. IEEE 802.15.2 describes the coexistence of WPAN with (c)
(a) Wired devices
(b) Optical Devices
(c) Wireless Devices
(d) All of them
766. Method available for contention free channel access in WBAN is (d)
(a) Polling
(b) Strobing
(c) Cyclic broadcast
(d) All of the above
767. In a communication system, transmitter operates at a frequency of 850 MHz (d)
with a power of 125 mW. This transmitter communicates with the receiver
having received power of 1 µ W. The distance between the transmitter and
receiver is
(a) 7.63 km
(b) 7.63 m
(c) 8.57 m
(d) 9.93 m
768. For wavelength upto 1 µm, the predominant loss mechanism in fibre is (b)
(a) UV absorption loss

(b) Rayleigh scattering loss
(c) Radiative loss
(d) IR absorption loss
769. Assuming a Gaussian frequency response, the 3dB optical bandwidth for an (c)
LED corresponding to a 3 dB electrical bandwidth of 50 MHz will be
(a) 25 MHz
(b) 100 MHz
(c) 70.7 MHz
(d) 50 MHz
770. Modal dispersion is comparatively less in graded index fibres than step index (d)
fibres due to
(a) Reduced relative refractive index difference

(b) Reduced value of core refractive index
(c) Increased value of core radius
(d) Reduced path length differences by self-focusing action
771. In a GaAs laser diode, R1=R2=0.34 for uncoated facets and material (a)
absorption α is 10/cm. The threshold gain Kth for a laser diode of length 500
µm and width 10 µm is
(a) 31.5/cm
(b) 21.5/cm
(c) 11.5/cm
(d) 20.5/cm
772. For a pump wavelength of 980 nm (for a typical EDFA), the pump absorption (c)
cross-sectional area is 3.11025 m2 and the spontaneous emission lifetime is
12 ms. If the signal to be amplified is of 1536 nm and the signal absorption
and emission cross-sectional area are both 4.644 1025 m2 , the threshold
pump intensity can be evaluated as
(a) 23.67 MW/m2

(b) 13.17 MW/m2
(c) 54.51 MW/m2
(d) 11.67 MW/m2
773. A GRIN fibre with parabolic refractive index profile core has a refractive (b)
index at the core axis of 1.5 and relative index difference at 1%. Calculate
maximum possible core diameter that allows single mode operation at λ=1.3
µm.
(a) 3.3 µm
(b) 6.6 µm
(c) 1.1 µm
(d) 9.9 µm
774. In a GSM system, eight channels co-exist in 200 kHz bandwidth using (d)
TDMA. A GSM based cellular operator is allocated 5 MHz bandwidth.
Assuming a frequency reuse factor of 1/5 (five-cell repeat pattern), the
maximum of simultaneous channels that can exist in one cell is
(a) 200
(b) 100
(c) 50
(d) 40
775. cos ct  0.5cos mt sin ct (c)
The signal is
(a) FM only
(b) AM only
(c) both AM and FM
(d) neither AM or FM
776. Diversity technique is a method for improving which of the following (c)
message signal by utilizing two or more communication channels with
different characteristics?
(a) Error detection capability

(b) Error correction capability
(c) Reliability
(d) All are correct
777. A CDMA system is designed based on DS spread spectrum with a processing (d)
gain of 1000 and BPSK modulation scheme. If user has equal power and the
desired level of performance of an error probability of 10  6, the number of
user will be
(a) 89
(b) 117
(c) 147
(d) 216
778. A rate 1/2 convolution code with d frec = 10 is used to encode a data requeence (a)
occurring at a rate of 1 kbps. The modulation is binary PSK. The DS spread
spectrum sequence has a chip rate of 10 MHz. The coding gain is
(a) 7 dB
(b) 12 dB
(c) 14 dB
(d) 24 dB
779. A direct sequence spread binary phase-shift keying system uses a feedback (c)
shift register of Length 19 for the generation of PN sequence. The system is
required to have an average probability of symbol error due to externally
generated interfering signals that does not exceed 10  5. The Antijam margin
is
(a) 47.5 dB
(b) 93.8 dB
(c) 86.9 dB
(d) 12.6 dB
780. In a CD player, the sampling rate is 44.1 kHz and the samples are quantized (b)
using a 16-bit/sample quantizer. The resulting number of bits for a piece of
music with a duration of 50 minutes is
(a) 1.39 109
(b) 4.23 109
(c) 8.46 109
(d) 12.23 109
781. A receiver is operated at a temperature of 300 K. The transistor used in the (b)
receiver has an average output resistance of 1 kΩ. The Johnson noise voltage
for a receiver with a bandwidth of 200 kHz is
(a) 0.8 µV
(b) 1.8 µV
(c) 4.3 µV
(d) 12.6 µV

n No.
782. For three events A1, A2 , A3 they are said to be independent allover b
axis if and only if they are independent as a triple then
P(A1 ∩ A2 ∩ A3 ) =
a) P (A1) P (A2) b) P (A1) P (A2 ) P(A3)
c) P (A2) P (A3) d) P (A1) P (A3)
783. Let A be any event defined on a sample space S , then P(A) is b

a) -1 b) 1 c) 0 d) ∞
784. A discreet RV is one having d
a) Continuous values b) 1, 2
c) -∞ to 0 d) only discreet
785. The normalized third central moment is known as b

a) Mean b) Skewness of density function
c) Standard Deviation d) Variance of density function
786. Two dimensional product space is known as b

a) Vector b) Range of sample space
c) Sample Space d) Phasor
787. The second central moment is also known as a

a) Variance b) Standard deviation c) Mean d) Skew
788. MGF is given by X(V)= b
a) E[ev] b) E[evX] c)eVx d)E(e2x)
789. Joint Distribution Function FXY (∞ , ∞) = a

a) 1 b) 2 c) 0 d) -1
790. The PDF of sum of a large number of RV’s approaches a distribution c

a) Rayleigh b) Uniform c) Gaussian
d) Poisson
791. The conditional probability of an event a

a) P(A/B) b) P(AB) c)P(B/A)
d)P(A+B)
792. For three events A1, A2 , A3 they are said to be the independent by all d
pairs and are also independent as a triple then P(A1∩ A2 ∩ A3 )
a)P(A2)P(A3) b)P(A1)P(A2) c)P(A2) d)P(A1)P(A3)
793. FX(-∞) D
a) ∞ b) 1 c) 0.5 d) 0
794. Let S1 and S2 be the sample space of the sub experiments. If S 1 has M d
elements and S2 has N elements , then combined sample space S will have
a) M elements b) N elements c) ∞ d) MN elements
795. 65. For the events to be independent, they must have an intersection of c
a) non zero b) P(A) c) 0 d) ∞
796. If events A and C are mutually exclusive P(AUC / B) is equal to d

a) P(A/B) + P(C)
b) P(B/A) + P(C)
c) P(A) +
P(C/B)
d) d) P(A/B) +
P(C/B)
797. Given that P(A)= 0.9, P(B)= 0.89,P(A∩B)=0.75 then P(AUB) a
is
a) 0.95 b) 9.5 c) 0.958 d) 0.095
798. The relation between conditional probability P(A/B) and P(B/A) is derived d
using one of the following theorems
a) Bernoulli b) Maxwell c) De Moirés d) Bayer’s
799. A mixed random RV is one having c
a)discrete values only
b) - ∞ to 0 only
c) both continuous and discrete
d) continuous values only
800. If events A and B are statistically independent then P(A/B) a
a) P(A)
b) 0
c) 1
d) P(B)
801. For mutually exclusive b
events the joint
probability is
a) 1 b) 0 c) ∞ d) 0.5

No.
802. Total internal reflection takes place if the light ray strikes the b. Grater than
interface at an angle with what relationship to the critical angle?
a. Less than
b. Grater than
c. Equal to
d. Zero
803. What parameter of light detector determines the range or system b. Spectral response
length that can be achieved for a given wavelength?
a. Transit time
b. Spectral response
c. Dark current
d. Responsitivity
804. 92. How many longitudinal modes can fall within a laser’s gain d. No fixed limit,
bandwidth? dependent on
bandwidth and mode
a. 2 spacing
b. 5
c. 9
d. No fixed limit, dependent on bandwidth and mode spacing
805. 90. The ultrapure glass used to manufacture optical fibers is b. 99.99 %
approximately ___pure
a. 99.9 %
b. 99.99 %
c. 99.999 %
d. 99.9999 %
806. 89. Coherence of laser light is important for _________ d. Holography
a. Light propagation
b. Getting laser light to pass through air
c. Drilling holes
d. Holography
807. 86. An important requirement for successful transmission system a. Powerful, reliable
using light light source
a. Powerful, reliable light source
b. Strong glass
c. Reliable, high cost transmission medium
d. Powerful regenerators
808. 85. Which fiber-optic system is better? a. 3 repeaters
a. 3 repeaters
b. 8 repeaters
c. 11 repeaters
d. 20 repeaters
809. 84. The product of the bit rate and distance of a fiber-optic c. 400 Mbits/s
system is 2 Gbits km/s. What is the maximum rate at 5 km?
a. 100 Mbits/s
b. 200 Mbits/s
c. 400 Mbits/s
d. 1000 Gbits/s
810. 72. Which of the following is not a factor in cable light loss? a. Reflection
a. Reflection
b. Absorption
c. Scattering
d. Dispersion
811. Fiber-optic cables with attenuations of 1.8, 3.4, 5.9, and 18 dB b. Spectral response
are linked together. The total loss is
a. 7.5 dB
b. 19.8 dB
c. 29.1 dB
d. 650 dB
812. Which of the following is the fastest light sensor d.Avalanche

photodiode
a. PIN photodiode
b. Photovoltaic diode
c. Phototransistor
d. Avalanche photodiode
813. A fiber-optic cable has a loss of 15 dB/km. The attenuation in a a. 4.57 dB

cable, 100 ft long is
a. 4.57 dB
b. 9.3 dB
c. 24 dB
d. 49.2 dB
814. Which type of fiber-optic cable has the least modal dispersion? a. Single mode step-
index
a. Single mode step-index
b. Multimode step-index
c. Single-mode graded-index
d. Multimode graded-index
815. A popular light wavelength in fiber-optic cable is c. 1.3 um
a. 0.7 um
b. 1.3 um
c. 1.5 um
d. 1.8 um
816. The wavelength of visible light extends from b. 400 to 750 nm
a. 0.8 to 1.0 nm
b. 400 to 750 nm
c. 200 to 660 nm
d. 700 to 1200 nm
817. Which of the following is not a major benefit of fiber-optic b. No electrical

cable? safety problems
a. Immunity from interference
b. No electrical safety problems
c. Excellent data security
d. Lower cost
818. The speed of light in plastic compared to the speed of light in air a. Slower
is
a. Slower
b. Faster
c. The same
d. Either lower or faster
819. Which of the cable length has the highest attenuation? b. 2 km
a. 1 km
b. 2 km
c. 95 ft
d. 5500 ft
820. Which of the following is not a common type of fiber-optic c. Single-mode

cable? graded-index
a. Single-mode step-index
b. Multimode graded-index
c. Single-mode graded-index
d. Multimode step-index
821. Which of the following is not a common application of fiber- d. Consumer TV
optic cable?
a. Computer networks
b. Long-distance telephone systems
c. Closed circuit TV
d. Consumer TV

n No.
822. Amplitude modulation is the process of a
a. superimposing a low frequency on a high frequency
b. superimposing a high frequency on a low frequency
c. carrier interruption
d. frequency shift and phase shift
823. One of the following types of noise becomes a great importance at high d
frequencies. Is the
a. shot noise
b. random noise
c. impulse noise
d. transit-time noise
824. Indicate the false statement a

a. HF mixers are generally noisier than HF amplifiers
b. Impulse noised voltage is independent of the bandwidth
c. Thermal noise is independent of the frequency at which it is
measured
d. Industrial noise is usually of the impulse type
825. The value of the resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise d
power generated is therefore
a. halved
b. quadrupled
c. double
d. unchanged
826. Indicate the noise whose source is in a category different from that of the c
other three.
a. solar noise
b. cosmic noise
c. atmospheric noise
d. galactic noise
827. Which of the following is the most reliable measurement for comparing b
amplifier noise characteristics?
a. signal-to-noise ratio
b. noise factor
c. shot noise
d. thermal noise agitation
828. The modulation index of an AM is changed from 0 to 1. The transmitted d

power is
a. unchanged
b. halved
c. doubled
d. increase by 50percent
829. One of the advantages of base modulation over collector modulation of a a

transistor class C amplifier
a. the lower the modulating power required
b. high power output per transistor
c. better efficiency
d. better linearity
830. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because c
a. it is more noise immune than other modulation system
b. compared with other system it requires less transmitting power
c. its use avoids receiver complexity
d. no other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth
for high fidelity
831. In the spectrum of a frequency modulated wave b

a. the carrier frequency disappears when the modulation index is
large
b. the amplitude of any sideband depends on the modulation index
c. the total number of sidebands depend on the modulation index
the carrier frequency cannot disappear
832. The difference between the phase and frequency modulation d

a. is purely theoretical because they are the same in practice
b. is too great to make the two system compatible
c. lies in the poorer audio response of the phase modulation
d. lies in the different definitions of the modulation index
833. Indicate the false statement regarding the Armstrong modulation system, d
a. the system is basically phase and not frequency modulation.
b. AFC is not needed, as the crystal oscillator is used.
c. Frequency multiplications must be used
d. Equalization is unnecessary
834. When the modulating frequency is doubled, the modulation index is c
halved, and the modulating voltage remains constant. The modulation
system is
a. amplitude modulation
b. phase modulation
c. frequency modulation
d. any one of the three
835. In broadcast super heterodyne receiver, the a

a. local oscillator operates below the signal frequency
b. mixer input must be tuned to the signal frequency
c. local oscillator frequency is normally double the IF
d. RF amplifier normally works at 455KHz above the carrier frequency
836. A super heterodyne receiver with an IF of 450KHz is tuned to a signal at d

1200KHz. The image frequency is
a. 750KHz
b. 900KHz
c. 1650KHz
d. 2100KHz
837. Indicate the false statement. The super heterodyne receiver replaced the b
TRF receiver because the latter suffered from
a. gain variation over the frequency coverage range
b. insufficient gain and sensitivity
c. inadequate selectivity at high frequencies
d. instability
838. The image frequency of a super heterodyne receiver c

a. is created within the receiver itself
b. is due to insufficient adjacent channel rejection
c. is not rejected by the IF tuned circuits
d.is independent of the frequency to which the receiver is tuned
839. One of the main functions of the RF amplifier in a super heterodyne d
receiver is to
a. provide improved tracking
b. permit better adjacent-channel rejection
c. increase the tuning range of the receiver
d. improve the rejection of the image frequency
840. The local oscillator of a broadcast receiver is tuned to a frequency higher d
that the incoming frequency
a. to help the image frequency rejection
b. to permit easier tracking
c. because otherwise an intermediate frequency could not be
produced
d.to allow adequate frequency coverage without switching
841. If the intermediate frequency is very high (indicate the false statement) d
a. image frequency rejection is very good
b. the local oscillator need to be extremely stable
c. the selectivity will be poor
d. tracking will be improved
842. A small signal amplifier

a) Uses only a portion of its load line
b) Always has an output signal in the mV range
c) Goes into saturation once on each input cycle
d) Is always a common emitter
amplifier Answer: a
843. If a 10mV signal is applied to the base of the CC circuit, the output signal is
approximately
e) 100mV
f) 150mV
g) 1.5V
h) 10mV
Answer: d
844. A certain class A amplifier has a current gain of 75 and a voltage gain of 50.
The power gain is
i) 1.5
j) 125
k) 3750
l) 25
Answer: c
845. The transistors in a class B amplifier are biased

m) Into cutoff
n) In saturation
o) At midpoint
p) Right at cutoff
Answer: a
846. A certain CD amplifier with RS = 1kΩ has a transconductance of 6000µS. The

voltage gain is
q) 1
r) 0.86
s) 0.98
t) 6 Answer:
b
847. The high frequency response of an amplifier is determined in part by
a) The gain bandwidth product
b) The bypass capacitor
c) The internal transistor capacitances
d) The roll off
Answer: c
848. An oscillator differs from an amplifier because

e) It has more gain
f) It requires no input signal
g) It requires no dc supply
h) It always has the same output
Answer: b
849. If Ad = 3500 and ACM = 0.35, the CMRR is

i) 1225
j) 10,000
k) 80 dB
l) Answers (b) and (c)
Answer: d
850. In Class AB power amplifier, the output stage conducts for

a) 0˚ to 360˚
b) 180˚ to 360˚
c) less than 180
d) more than 90˚
Answer: b
851. If the fT of the transistor used in a certain amplifier is 75 MHz and the
bandwidth is 10 MHZ, the voltage gain must be
a) 750
b) 7.5
c) 10
d) 1 Answer:
852. In a certain oscillator, Av = 50, the attenuation of the feedback circuit must
be
e) 1
f) 0.01
g) 10
h) 0.02
Answer: d
Questio Question with choice Answe

n No. r
853. Which of the following is zero in static condition? c
a. grad div b. div grad c. curl grad d. curl curl
854. An infinite length of uniform line charge has ρl = 10pC/m and it lies along c
the z axis. Determine the electric field E at (4, 3, 3)
a. 18 aρmV/m b. 1.8 aρmV/m c. 180 aρmV/m d. 280 aρmV/m
855. Maxwell’s first equation in static form is given by a

a. ρv = ∇. D b. ρv = ∇ x D c. ρv = ∇+D d. ρv = ∇- D
856. A point charge, Q = 10nC is at the origin. The estimated potential difference b
at A (1,0,0) with respect to B (2,0,0) is
a. 50 V b. 45 V c. 30 V d. -45 V
857. Maxwell’s second equation is given by a
a. ∇ X E=0 b. ∇ +E=0 c. ∇ - E=0 d. ∇ / E=0
858. A charge density of 10nC/m2 is distributed on a plane z = 10m, the electric b
field
intensity at the origin is
a. -180π az b. -18π az c. 180π az d. 18π az
859. Given field A = 3x2 yz ax + x3z ay + (x3 y – 2z) az , it can be said that A is d
a. Harmonic b. Solenoidal c. Conservative d. Divergenceless
860. A charge of 10 pC is at rest in free space. The potential at a point A, 10 cm a
away from the charge will be
a. 0.9 V b. 0.545 V c. -0.9 V d. 0. 2 V
861. Plane z = 10m carries charge 20nC/m2. The electric Field intensity at the d
origin is
a. -10azV/m b. -18π az V/m c. -72π az V/m d. -360π az
862. Maxwell’s third equation is given by a
a. ∇. B=0 b. ∇ X B=0 c. ∇+B=0 d. ∇- B=0
863. Stokes theorem relates ____ integral to a ______ integral. c
a. volume, surface b. volume,line
c line, surface d. all of these.
864. The electric flux density 𝑫 = 2𝑥 3 𝒂𝑥 C/m2. The volume charge density at a
P(3mm,-2mm,4mm) is
a. 54 C/m3 c. 54 mC/m3
b. 54 C/m3 d. 54 nC/m3
865. Divergence theorem is applicable for a ____ that is bounded by a ________. a
a.volume, surface b. surface volume
c. surface,line d. line, surface
866. Plane y = 0 carries a uniform current of 30az mA/m. At (1,10,-2), the a

magnetic field intensity is ______
a. -15ax mA/m c. 15ax mA/m

b. -15ay mA/m c. 15ay mA/m
867. If a charge of 2C is placed in an electric field of 2V/m the force on the a
charge is i) 0 ii) 4N iii) 1𝑁 iv) ) 2N
868. If both the medium are dielectrics, then boundary conditions is given as a
______
a. E1t + E2t = 0 c. E1t x E2t = 0
b. E1t - E2t = 0 d. None of the above
869. The z-axis carries filamentary current of 10 A along az. Which of these is a
incorrect?
a. H = -ax A/m at (0,5,0) c. H = -0.8ax -0.6ay A/m at (-
3,4,0)
b. H = a A/m at (5, /4,0) d. H = -a A/m at (5, 3/2,0)
870. If the flux density is 10 Wb/ m and the area of the coil is 2m2, the flux
2
d
is a. 20 Wb b. Wb c. 10 Wb d. 40 Wb
871. Boundary conditions for normal component in magnetostatic field is a
a) B1n=B2n b) B1n+B2n c) B1n /B2n d) B1n X B2n=0
872. Maxwell’s fourth equation is given by c
a) ∇ X B=H b) ∇ X H=B c) ∇ X H=J d) ∇ X J=H
1. When transistors are used in digital circuits they usually operate in the:
A. active region
B. breakdown region
C. saturation and cutoff regions
D.linear region
Ans : C
2. Three different Q points are shown on a dc load line. The upper Q point
represents the:
A. minimum current gain
B. intermediate current gain
C. maximum current gain
D.cutoff point
Ans : C
3. A transistor has a of 250 and a base current, IB, of 20 A. The

collector current, IC, equals:
A. 500 A
B. 5 mA
C. 50 mA
D.5 A
Ans : B
4.In a C-E configuration, an emitter resistor is used for:

A.stabilization
B. ac signal bypass
C. collector bias
D.higher gain
Ans : B
5.Voltage-divider bias provides:

A.an unstable Q point
B. a stable Q point
C. a Q point that easily varies with changes in the transistor's current gain
D.a Q point that is stable and easily varies with changes in the transistor’s current gain
Ans : A
6.To operate properly, a transistor's base-emitter junction must be forward

biased with reverse bias applied to which junction?
A. collector-emitter B. base-collector
C. base-emitter D.collector-base
Ans : D
7. The ends of a load line drawn on a family of curves determine:

A. saturation and cutoff
B. the operating point
C. the power curve
D.the amplification factor
Ans : A
8. The Q point on a load line may be used to determine:

A.VC B. VCC
C. VB D.IC
Ans : C
9. A transistor may be used as a switching device or as a:

A. fixed resistor
B. tuning device
C. rectifier
D.variable resistor
Ans : D
10. Which is beta's current ratio?

A. IC/IB B. IC/IE
C. IB/IE D.IE/IB
Ans : A
11 .A collector characteristic curve is a graph showing:

emitter current (IE) versus collector-emitter voltage (VCE) with (VBB) base bias voltage
A.
held constant
collector current (IC) versus collector-emitter voltage (VCE) with (VBB) base bias
B.
collector current (IC) versus collector-emitter voltage (VC) with (VBB) base bias voltage
C.
held constant
D.collector current (IC) versus collector-emitter voltage (VCC) with (VBB) base bias
Ans : B
12.When a silicon diode is forward biased, what is VBE for a C-E

configuration?
A. voltage-divider bias
B. 0.4 V
C. 0.7 V
D.emitter voltage
Ans : C
13.Whatis the current gain for a common-base configuration where IE = 4.2

mA and IC = 4.0 mA?
A.16.80 B. 1.05
C. 0.20 D.0.95
Ans : D
14.With a PNP circuit, the most positive voltage is probably:

A. ground B. VC
C. VBE D.VCC
Ans : A
15.The symbol hfe is the same as:

A.
B.
C. hi-fi
D.
Ans : A
16.. Most of the electrons in the base of an NPN transistor flow:

A.out of the base lead
B. into the collector
C. into the emitter
D.into the base supply
Ans : B
17. In a transistor, collector current is controlled by:

A.collector voltage
B. base current
C. collector resistance
D.all of the above
Ans : B
18. Total emitter current is:

A.IE – IC
B. IC + IE
C. IB + IC
D.IB – IC
Ans : C
19. If a transistor operates at the middle of the dc load line, a decrease in the current gain
will move the Q point:
A.off the load line
B. nowhere
C. up
D.down
Ans : D
20. Which is the higher gain provided by a C-E configuration?

A.voltage B. current
C. resistance D.Power
Ans : D
1. The signal x(t )  sin15 t  sin 20 t is

a. Periodic b. Not Periodic
c. Semi Periodic d. None of the above b

2. Which one of the following property of unit step function  (t ) is true
1
a.  (at )   (t ) b.  (at )  a  (t )
a
c.  (at )  a d.  (at )  1 a
3. The complex exponential Fourier representation of a signal f (t ) over the interval (0, T )
is

3
f (t )   4  (n )
n 
2
e jn t
The numerical value of T is
a. 4 b. 1
c. 2 d. 0 c
4. Which one of the following property of Fourier transform is true
a. f (t  t0 )  F ( jw)e jwt0 b. f (t  t0 )  F ( jw)e jwt0
 jwt02
c. f (t  t0 )  F ( jw)e d. none of the above a
5. Fourier transform of Gaussian pulse f (t )  e a t is

2 2
f f
 (
a
)2  (
a
)2
a. e b. e
2a a
 
  ( )2
a
  ( )2
a
c. e d. e b
a a
6. Laplace transform of e at cos 0t is

sa sa
a. b.
( s  a)2  0 2 ( s  a)2  0 2
s sa
c. d. d
( s  a)2  0 2 ( s  a)2  0 2
7. Z-transform of the signal 2n u (n  2) is
4 z 2 2 z 2
a. b.
1  2 z 1 1  2 z 1
z 2 4 z 2
c. d. a
1  2 z 1 1  z 1
8. The signal y(t )  7 x(t )  10 is

a. Non-linear b. ramp
c. Linear d. none of the above c
9. Which of the following distinguish FIR filter from IIR
a. Linear phase characteristics b. order of the filter
c. efficiency d. none of the above a
10. If the cumulative distribution function is FX ( x) , then the probability density function
f X ( x) is given by
d
a. F X ( x)dx b.
dx
FX ( x)
d
c. F X ( x)dx d.
dx
FX ( x) b
11. A signal x(t )  6cos10 t is sampled at the rate of 14Hz.To recover the original signal the
cut-off frequency fc of the ideal LPF should be
a. 5Hz < fc < 9 Hz b. 9Hz
c. 10Hz d. 14 Hz
12. The stop band attenuation Ap for the design of Kaiser window is given by
1  p 1  p
a. Ap  10log10 dB b. Ap  10log10 dB
1  p 1  p
1  p 1  p
c. Ap  20log10 dB d. Ap  20log10 dB
1  p 1  p
0.0476(1  z 1 ) 2
13. The bilinear transformation H ( z )  corresponds to which of the following
(1  0.9048 z 1 ) 2
1 1
a. H ( s)  b. H ( s) 
( s  1)2 ( s  1)2
1 1
c. H ( s)  d. H ( s)  a
(2s  1) 2 (2s  1) 2
14. The quantization noise power of the digital filter, when the input signal is quantized to have
eight bits is given by
a. 1X 106 b. 1.27 X 106
c. 1.27 X 108 d. 1X 108 b
15. The phenomenon spectral leakage is the result of
a. autocorrelation process b. Fourier transform
c. Windowing d. Quantization c
16. Frequency resolution of the Bartlett method of power estimation for a quality factor Q  10
and the length of the sample sequence 1000 is
a. 0.0009 b. 0.009
c. 0.09 d. 0.9 a
17. The discrete time system described by y(n)  x(n2 ) is
a. Causal, linear and time varying

b. Causal, non- linear and time varying
c. Non-causal, linear and time invariant
d. Non-causal, non-linear and time variant c
18. The response of a Linear, time invariant, discrete-time system to a unit step input u(t) is the
unit impulse  (n) .The system response to a ramp input nu (n) would be
a. u(n) b. u(n-1)

c. n (n) d.  k ( n  k )
k 0
d
19. The units of the spectrum obtained by Fourier transforming the co-variance function of a
stationary stochastic process is
a. Power per Hertz b. Energy per Hertz
c. Power per second d. Energy per second
20. Solution of Laplace’s equation, which is continuous through the second derivative, is
called
a. Bessel functions b. Odd functions
c. Harmonic functions d. Fundamental function c

21. (n ) 
a) u(n)u(n  1)
b) u(n)  u(n  1)
c) u(n)  u(n  1)
d) u(n  1)  u(n) c
22. A signal is an energy signal if
a. E = 0, P = 0 b. E = infinite, P = finite
c. E = finite, P = 0 d. E = finite, P = infinite c
23. VLIW architecture differs from conventional P-DSP in which of the following aspects?
a. instruction cache b. number of functional units
c. use pipelining d. Parallelism b
24. The number of complex multiplication involved in the direct computation of 8 – point DFT is
a. 8 b. 64
c. 16 d. 56 b
25. If the DFT of a real signal is X (k)= {1, 2-j, 2, 2+j }. What is its signal energy?
a. 15 b. 7
c. 12 d. not defined a
1. In an open loop control system

(a) Output is independent of control input
(b) Output is dependent on control input
(c) Only system parameters have effect on the control output
Ans: a
2. For open control system which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(a) Less expensive
(b) Recalibration is not required for maintaining the required quality of the output
(c) Construction is simple and maintenance easy
(d) Errors are caused by disturbances
Ans: b
3. A control system in which the control action is somehow dependent on the output is
known as
(a) Closed loop system
(b) Semiclosed loop system
(c) Open system
Ans: a
4. In closed loop control system, with positive value of feedback gain the overall gain of the
system will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) be unaffected
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
5. Which of the following is an open loop control system ?

(a) Field controlled D.C. motor
(b) Ward leonard control
(c) Metadyne
(d) Stroboscope
Ans: a
6. Which of the following statements is not necessarily correct for open control system ?
(a) Input command is the sole factor responsible for providing the control action
(b) Presence of non-linearities causes malfunctioning
(c) Less expensive
(d) Generally free from problems of non-linearities
Ans: b
7. In open loop system
(a) the control action depends on the size of the system
(b) the control action depends on system variables
(c) the control action depends on the input signal
(d) the control action is independent of the output
Ans: d
8 ______________has tendency to oscillate.

(a) Open loop system
(b) Closed loop system
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: b
9. A good control system has all the following features except

(a) good stability
(b) slow response
(c) good accuracy
(d) sufficient power handling capacity
Ans: b
10. A car is running at a constant speed of 50 km/h, which of the following is the feedback
element for the driver?
(a) Clutch
(b) Eyes
(c) Needle of the speedometer
(d) Steering wheel
(e) None of the above
Ans: c
11. The initial response when the output is not equal to input is called
(a) Transient response
(b) Error response
(c) Dynamic response
(d) Either of the above
Ans: a
12. A control system working under unknown random actions is called

(a) computer control system
(b) digital data system
(c) stochastic control system
(d) adaptive control system
Ans: c
13. An automatic toaster is a ______ loop control system.

(a) open
(b) closed
(c) partially closed
Ans: a
13. An automatic toaster is a ______ loop control system.
(a) open
(b) closed
(c) partially closed
Ans: a
14. Any externally introduced signal affecting the controlled output is called a
(a) feedback
(b) stimulus
(c) signal
(d) gain control
Ans: b
15. A closed loop system is distinguished from open loop system by which of the following ?
(a) Servomechanism
(b) Feedback
(c) Output pattern
(d) Input pattern
Ans: b
16 ____________is a part of the human temperature control system.

(a) Digestive system
(b) Perspiration system
(c) Ear
(d) Leg movement
Ans: b
17. By which of the following the control action is determined when a man walks along a
path ?
(a) Brain
(b) Hands
(c) Legs
(d) Eyes
Ans: d
18 ______________is a closed loop system.

(a) Auto-pilot for an aircraft
(6) Direct current generator
(c) Car starter
(d) Electric switch
Ans: a
19. Which of the following devices are commonly used as error detectors in instruments ?
(a) Vernistats
(b) Microsyns
(c) Resolvers
(d) Any of the above
Ans: d
20. Which of the following should be done to make an unstable system stable ?
(a) The gain of the system should be decreased
(b) The gain of the system should be increased
(c) The number of poles to the loop transfer function should be increased
(d) The number of zeros to the loop transfer function should be increased
Ans: b
21 ________________increases the steady state accuracy.

(a) Integrator
(b) Differentiator
(c) Phase lead compensator
(d) Phase lag compensator
Ans: a
22. A.C. servomotor resembles

(a) two phase induction motor
(b) Three phase induction motor
(c) direct current series motor
(d) universal motor
Ans: a
23. As a result of introduction of negative feedback which of the following will not decrease
?
(a) Band width
(b) Overall gain
(c) Distortion
(d) Instability
Ans: a
24. Regenerative feedback implies feedback with

(a) oscillations
(b) step input
(c) negative sign
(d) positive sign
Ans: d
25. The output of a feedback control system must be a function of

(a) reference and output
(b) reference and input
(e) input and feedback signal
(d) output and feedback signal
Ans: a
26 _____________is an open loop control system.

(a) Ward Leonard control
(b) Field controlled D.C. motor
(c) Stroboscope
(d) Metadyne
Ans: b
1. The diffusion potential across a PN junction

a. Decreases with increasing doping concentration
b. Increases with decreasing band gap
c. Does not depend on doping concentration
d. Increases with increase in doping concentrations
Ans: d
2. In a P+N junction diode under reverse bias, the magnitude of electric field is
maximum at
a. The edge of the depletion region on P side
b. The edge of the depletion region on N side
c. The P+N junction
d. The centre of the depletion region on the N side
Ans: C
3. Which of the following is NOT associated with a PN junction?
a. Junction capacitance
b. Charge storage capacitance
c. Depletion capacitance
d. Channel length modulation
Ans:d
4. In the circuit below, the diode is ideal. The voltage V is given by
a. Min(Vi,1)
b. Max(Vi,1)
c. Min(-Vi,1)
d. Max(-Vi,1)
Ans: d
5. A silicon PN junction is forward biased with a constant current at room

temperature. When the temperature is increased by 10oC, the forward bias voltage
across the PN junction
a. Increases by 60 mV
b. Decreases by 60 mV
c. Increases by 25 mV
d. Decreases by 25 mV
Ans: d
6. A Zener diode when used in voltage stabilization circuits, is biased in

a. Reverse bias region below the breakdown voltage
b. Reverse breakdown region
c. Forward bias region
d. Forward bias constant current mode
Ans: b
7. For small signal ac operation, a practical forward biased diode can be modeled as
a. Resistance and capacitance in series
b. Ideal diode and resistance in parallel
c. Resistance and ideal diode in series
d. Resistance
Ans:d
8. In the figure, assume that the forward voltage drops to the PN diode D1 and
Schottky diode D2 are 0.7 volts and 0.3 volts respectively. If ON denotes
conducting state of the diode and OFF denotes the non conducting state of the
diode, then in the circuit,
a. Both are ON
b. D1 is ON and D2 is OFF
c. Both are OFF
d. D1 is OFF and D2 is ON
Ans:d
9. A 741 OP-AMP has a gain-bandwidth product of 1 MHz. A non-inverting

amplifier using this OP-AMP and having a voltage gain of 20 dB will exhibit a –3
dB bandwidth of
a. 50 kHz
b. 100 kHz
c. 100/17 kHz
d. 1000/7.07 kHz
Ans: b
10. If the input to the ideal comparator shown in the figure is a sinusoidal signal of 8
volts peak to peak, without any DC component, then the output of the comparator
has a duty cycle of
a. 1/2
b. 1/3
c. 1/6
d. ½
Ans:b
11. A BJT is said to be operating in the saturation region, if

a. Both the junctions are reverse biased
b. Base emitter junction is in reverse biased, and base collector junction is
forward biased
c. Base emitter junction is in forward biased, and base collector junction is
reverse biased
d. Both the junctions are forward biased
Ans:d
12. The Ebers – Moll model is applicable to

a. Bipolar junction transistors
b. nMOS transistors
c. Unipolar Junction transistors
d. Junction field effect transistors
Ans: a
13. In bipolar junction transistor(BJT), at room temperature, if the emitter current is

doubled, then the voltage across its base emitter junction
a. Doubles
b. Halves
c. Increases by about 20 mV
d. Decreases by about 20 mV
Ans:c
14. If a transistor is operating with both of its junctions forward biased, but with the
collector base forward bias greater than the emitter base forward bias, then it is
operating in the
a. Forward active mode
b. Reverse active mode
c. Reverse saturation mode
d. Forward saturation mode
Ans: b
15. In a multistage RC coupled amplifier, the coupling capacitor

a. limits the low frequency response
b. limits the high frequency response
c. does not affect the frequency response
d. blocks the DC component without affecting the frequency response
Ans:a
16. For a BJT, the common base current gain α = 0.98 and the collector base junction
reverse bias saturation current, ICO = 0.6 µA. This BJT is connected in the
common emitter mode and operated in the active region with a base current (I B) of
20 µA. The collector current IC for this mode of operation is
a. 0.98 mA
b. 0.99 mA
c. 1.0 mA
d. 1.01 mA
Ans: d
17. In the circuit shown, the silicon BJT has β = 50. Assume VBE = 0.7 volts and
VCEsat = 0.2 volts. Which one of the following statements is correct?
a. For RC = 1 kΩ, the BJT operates in the saturation region

b. For RC = 3 kΩ, the BJT operates in the saturation region
c. For RC = 20 kΩ, the BJT operates in the cutoff region
d. For RC = 20 kΩ, the BJT operates in the linear region
Ans: b
18. In the following transistor circuit, VBE = 0.7 volts, re = 25 mV/IE, β and all the
capacitances are very large. The value of DC current IE is
a. 1 mA
b. 2 mA
c. 5 mA
d. 10 mA
Ans:a
19. An amplifier is assumed to have a single pole high frequency transfer function.
The rise time of its output response to a step function input is 35 nsec. The upper -
3 dB frequency (in MHz) for the amplifier to a sinusoidal input is approximately
at
a. 4.55
b. 10
c. 20
d. 28.6
Ans: b
20. The current gain of a bipolar transistor drops at high frequencies because of
a. Transistor capacitances
b. High current effects in the base
c. Parasitic inductance effects
d. The Early Effect
Ans: a
21. Generally, the gain of a transistor amplifier falls at high frequencies due to the
a. Internal capacitance of the device
b. Coupling capacitor at the input
c. Skin effect
d. Coupling capacitor at the output
Ans: a
22. An n-channel JFET has a pinch off voltage VP = -5 volts, VDSmax = 20 volts, and
gm = 2 mA/V. The minimum ON resistance is achieved in the JFET for …………
a. VGS = - 7 volts and VDS = 0 volts

b. VGS = 7 volts and VDS = 0 volts
c. VGS = 0 volts and VDS = 20 volts
d. VGS = - 7 volts and VDS = 20 volts
Ans: b
23. The action of a JFET in its equivalent circuit can best be represented as a
a. Current controlled current source
b. Current controlled voltage source
c. Voltage controlled current source
d. Voltage controlled voltage source
Ans: c
24. In MOSFET devices, the N-channel type is better than the P-channel type in the
following respects
a. It has better noise immunity
b. It is faster
c. It is TTL compatible
d. It has better drive capability
Ans: b
25. The effective channel length of a MOSFET in saturation decreases with increase
in
a. Gate voltage
b. Drain voltage
c. Source voltage
d. Body voltage
Ans: b
1. Assuming zero initial condition, the response y(t) of the system given below to a unit
step input u(t) is
(A) u (t )
(B) tu (t )
t2
(C) u (t )
2
(D) e t u (t )
Ans. D
2. The circuit shown is a
1
(A) Low pass filter with f 3dB  Hz
( R1  R 2)C
1
(B) (B) High pass filter with f 3dB  Hz
R1C
1
(C) Low pass filter with f 3dB  Hz
R1C
1
(D) High pass filter with f 3dB  Hz
( R1  R 2)C
Ans. B
sa
3. Transfer function of compensator is given as Gc ( s)  . Gc is lead compensator if
sb
(A) a=l, b=2
(B) a=3, b=2
(C) a=-3,b=-1
(D) a=3, b=1
Ans. A
4. The feedback system shown below oscillates at 2Hz, when
(A) K=2 and a=0.7 5

(B) K=3 and a=0.75
(C) K=4 and a=O.5
(D) K=2 and a=O .5
Ans. A
5. The I-V characteristics of the diode in the circuit given below are:
V  0.7
 A if V  0.7V
I   5.0

0 A if V  0.7
The current in the circuit is
(A) l0 mA
(B) 9. 3mA
(C) 6.67 mA
(D) 6.2mA
Ans. D
6. The open-loop transfer function of a unity negative feedback control system is given by
1
G( s)  . The value of K for the damping ratio  to be 0.5 corresponding to the
s  53
dominant closed-loop complex conjugate pair is
(A) 250
(B) 125
(C) 75
(D) 50
Ans. B
7. The first two rows of Routh's table of a third-order characteristic equation are
s2 3 3
s1 4 4
It can be inferred that the system has
(A) one real pole in right half of s-plane
(B) a pair of complex conjugate poles in the right half of s-plane
(C) a pair of real poles symmetrically placed around s=0
(D) a pair of complex conjugate poles on the imaginary axis of the s-plane
Ans. D
8. The conventional way of expressing vibration is in terms of

(A) Richter scale
(B) Acceleration due to gravity
(C) Speed of sound
(D) Atmospheric pressure
Ans. B
9. The average power delivered to an impedance (4-j3) by a current 5 cos (100t +

100) A is
(A) 44.2 W
(B) 50 W
(C) 62.5W
(D) 125 W
Ans. B
( s 2  9)( s  2)
10. A system with transfer function is excited by G( s)  is excited by
s  1s  3s  4
sin(wt). the steady state output of the system is zero at
(A) w = 1rad/sec
(B) w = 2rad/sec
(C) w = 3rad/sec
(D) w = 4rad/sec
Ans. C
11, The bridge method commonly used for finding mutual Inductance is:
(A) Heaviside Campbell bridge
(B) Scherlng bridge
(C) De Sauty bridge
(D) Wien bridge
Ans. A
12. An analog voltmeter uses external multiplier settings. With a multiplier setting of
20k, It reads 440V and with a multiplier setting of 80k, it reads 352V. For a multiplier
setting of 40k, the voltmeter reads:
(A) 371 V
(B) 383V
(C) 394V
(D) 406V
Ans. D
13. A control system working under unknown random actions is called

(A) computer control system
(B) digital data system
(C) stochastic control system
(D) adaptive control system
Ans. C
14. The transfer function of a system is defined as:
(A) The laplace transform of the impulse response

(B) Laplace transform of the step response
(C) Laplace transform of the ramp response
(D) Laplace transform of the sinusoidal input
Ans. A
15. Control Systems are normally designed with damping factor:
(A) Less than unity

(B) More than unity
(C) Zero
(D) Unity
Ans. A
16. Error Constants of a system are measure of:
(A) Relative stability

(B) Transient state response
(C) Steady state response
(D) Steady state as well as transient state response
Ans. A
17. Introduction of integral action in the forward path of a unity feedback system results
in
(A) Marginally stable system
(B) System with no steady state error
(C) System with increase stability margin
(D) System with better speed of response
Ans. A
18. The differentiator has a transfer function whose
(A) Phase increases linearly with frequency
(B) Amplitude remains constant
(C) Amplitude increases linearly with frequency
(D) Amplitude decreases linearly with frequency
Ans. A
19. The Fourier transform of a signal h(t) is H(jω) = (2cosω)(sin2ω)/ω. The value of h(0)
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/2
(C) 1
(D) 2
Ans. C
20. An open loop system represented by the transfer function G(s) = (s-1) / (s+2)(s+3) is
(A) Stable and of the minimum phase type

(B) Stable and of the non-minimum phase type
(C) Unstable and of the minimum phase type
(D) Unstable and of the non-minimum phase type
Ans. B
12. In the differential mode,
a) Opposite polarity signals are applied to the inputs
b) The gains is 1
c) The outputs are different amplitudes
d) Only one supply voltage is used
Answer: a
13. The bandwidth of an amplifier is determined by

a) The midrange gain
b) The critical frequencies
c) The roll off rate
d) The input capacitances
Answer: b
14. In a certain CS amplifier, VDS = 3.2 Vrms and VGS = 280mVrms. The voltage gain is
a) 1
b) 11.4
c) 8.75
d) 3.2
Answer: b
15. A certain CE amplifier has a voltage gain of 100. If the emitter bypass capacitor is
removed,
a) The circuit will become unstable
b) The voltage gain will decrease
c) The voltage gain will increase
d) The Q-point will shift
Answer: b
16. In a common source amplifier, the output voltage is

a) 180 degrees out of phase with the input
b) In phase with the input
c) Taken at the source
d) Answers (a) and (c)
Answer: a
17. A class A amplifier is biased with a centered Q point at V CEQ = 5V and ICEQ =
10mA. The maximum output power is
a) 25mW
b) 50mW
c) 10mW
d) 37.5mW
Answer: a
18. When the Q-point of an inverting Class A amplifier is closer to saturation than cutoff and the
input sine wave is gradually increased, clipping on the output will appear on
a) The positive peaks
b) The negative peaks
c) Both peaks simultaneously
d) None of the answers
Answer: b
19. All oscillators are based on

a) Positive feedback
b) Negative feedback
c) Piezoelectric effect
d) High gain
Answer: a
20. The wein bridge oscillator’s feedback circuit is

a) An RL circuit
b) An LC circuit
c) A voltage divider
d) A lead-lag circuit
Answer: d
1. Which of the system is causal?
A. y(n) = x(n) + [1/x(n-1)]
B. y(n) = |x(3n)|
C. Both (a)and (b)
D. None of the above
Ans. A
2. Which of the following system is time variant?
A. y(n) = x(n) + x(-n-1)

B. y(n) = x(-n)
C. Both (a)and (b)
Ans. C
3. Input sequence is {1,2,1,2} and the impulse response is {3,2,1,2} then the output is
A. {3,8,8,12,9,4,4}
B. {9,7,12,8,12}
C. {12,12,12,12}
Ans. A
4. Which of the given system is linear?

A. y(n) = x(n) + [1/x(n-1)]
B. y(n) = x2(n)
C. y(n) = n x(n)
Ans. C
5. y(n) = 1 for n ≥ 0 and it is = 0 for n < 0. This way of representing a signal is called as
_________________
A. Graphical
B. Sequential
C. Functional
Ans. C
6. Fast convolution techniques

A. overlap save
B. overlap add
C. a & b
D. none of above
Ans. C
7. If a linear phase filter has a phase response of 40 degrees at 200 Hz, what will its phase response
be at a frequency of 400 Hz (assuming that both frequencies are in the passband of the filter)?
A. 35 degrees
B. 40 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 80 degrees
Ans. D
8. TMS320C50 is based on
A . Harvard architecture
B. Von Neumann architecture
C. VLIW Architecture
Ans. A
9. The factor that do not influence the selection of the processor
A. Architecture
B. Logics involved in processing
C. Both the above
Ans. B
10. Which is not the property of FIR filter?
A. FIR is always stable

B. A realizable filter can always be obtained
C. FIR filter has a linear phase response
D. FIR filter has a linear magnitude response
Ans. D
11. Decreased performance is the disadvantage of

A. Harvard architecture
Ans. B
12. The factor that influence the selection of the processor

A. Word length
B. Manufacturer
C. Logics involved in processing
Ans. A
13. IIR filters
A. use feedback
B. are sometimes called recursive filters
C. can oscillate if not properly designed
D. all of the above
Ans. D
14. Two digital filters can be operated in cascade. Or, the same effect can be achieved by
A. adding their coefficients

B. subtracting their coefficients
C. convolving their coefficients
D. averaging their coefficients and then using a rectangular window
Ans. C
15. More memory consumption is required by
A. Harvard architecture
D. All of the above
Ans. C
16. The output of two digital filters can be added. Or, the same effect can be achieved by
A. adding their coefficients

B. subtracting their coefficients
C. convolving their coefficients
D. averaging their coefficients and then using a Blackman window
Ans. A
17. Z transform is evaluated on a unit ___________ corresponds to the Fourier transform.
A. Impulse
B. Sequence
C. Circle
Ans. C
18. Determine the convolution sum of two sequences x(n) = {3, 2, 1, 2} and h(n) = {1, 2, 1, 2}
A. y(n) = {3,8,8,12,9,4,4}
B. y(n) = {3,8,3,12,9,4,4}
C. y(n) = {3,8,8,12,9,1,4}
D. y(n) = {3,8,8,1,9,4,4}
Ans. A
19. Sampling theorem:

A. fm<fs
B. fs>fm
C. fs>=2fm
D. fs=2fm
Ans. C
20. Application of Convolution:
A. FIR Filtering
B. Addition
C. Manipulation
D. None of these
Ans. A
1. Velocity of propagation of an EM wave in a lossless dielectric
0  1
(a) (b) 0 (c) (d) 0
0 0 
2. Poynting Vector is given by

       
(a) E  H (b) E  H (c) H  E (d) H  E
3. The wavelength of a wave with a propagation constant = 0.1π + j 0.2π
(a) 10 m (b) 20 m (c) 30 m (d) 25 m
4. The intrinsic impedance of the medium whose σ = 0, ε r = 9, μr = 1 is
(a) 40 πΩ (b) 9Ω (c) 120 πΩ (d) 60 πΩ

5. Given that H  0.5e 0.1x sin(10 6 t  2 x)aˆ z A/m, which of these statements are
incorrect?
(a) α = 0.1 Np/m (b) β = -2 rad/m (c) w = 106 rad/s (d) The wave travels along ax.
6. If wet soil has σ = 10-2 mho/m, εr = 15, μr = 1, f = 10 GHz, it is a
(a) Good conductor (b) good dielectric (c) semiconductor (d) magnetic material
7. For free space,
(a) σ = inf (b) σ = 0 (c) J  0 (d) μr =0
8. Given that A = ax +αay + az and B = αax + ay +az , if A and B are normal to each other,
α is (i) -2 (ii) -1/2 (iii) 1 (iv) 2
9. The Poynting Vector physically denotes the power density leaving or

entering a given volume in a time varying field.
(a) True (b) false (c) Not always true (d) Not always false.
10. Both ε0 and χe are dimensionless: The statement is ________ and ______
respectively
(a) True and False (b) False and True (c) True and True (d) False and
False.
11. The Relaxation time of mica (σ = 10-15 mho/m, εr =6) is
(a) 5x 10-10 s (b) 10-6 s (c) 5 Hours (d) 10 Hours (e) 15 Hours
12. The electric susceptibility of a dielectric is 4, its permittivity is
(a) 2.26  10-9 F/m (b) 4.42  10-7 F/m (c) 5 F/m (d) 1.26  10-3 F/m
13. Which of the following potential does not satisfy Laplace’s Equation:
(a) V1 = 2x+5 (b) V1 = x2+y2+5z2-10 (c) V1 = 3x+7 (d) V1 = x2+y2-2z2 +10
14. Which one of these statements is not characteristic of static magnetic field:
(a) It is solenoidal (b) It is conservative (c) It has no sinks or sources (d)
Magnetic flux lines are always closed.
15. The unit of Electric Field is
(a)N/C (b)N-C (c)C/N (d)N
16. Dot product of ax and aφ is
(a) –cosϕ (b) cosϕ (c) –sinϕ (d) sinϕ.
17. The Frequency range of UHF band is
(a)30-300 Hz (b)20-200MHz (c)30-3000 MHz (d)20-200KHz
18. Given A = -6ax + 3 ay + 2 az, the projection of A along ay is
(a) -12 (b) 7 (c) -3 (d) 3
19. Plane z = 10m carries charge 20nC/m2. The electric Field intensity at
the origin is
(a) -10az V/m (b) -18π az V/m (c) -72π az V/m (d) -360π az
20. Dot product of az and aφ is (a) –cosϕ (b) cosϕ (c) 0 (d) sinϕ.
21. Given field A = 3x2yz ax + x3z ay + (x3y – 2z) az , it can be said that A is
(a) Harmonic (b) Divergenceless (c) Solenoidal (d) Conservative
22. A charge of 10 pC is at rest in free space. The potential at a point A, 10
cm away from the charge will be
(a) 0.9 V (b) 0.545 V (c) -0.9 V (d) 0. 2 V
23. A charge density of 10nC/m2 is distributed on a plane z = 10m, the
electric field intensity at the origin is
(a) -180π az (b) -18π az (c) 180π az (d) 18π az
24. Dot product of ax and ar is
(a) –sinθcosϕ (b) sinθcosϕ (c) 0 (d) sinϕcosθ.
25. If H = 4ap – 3aϕ + 5az at (1, π/2, 0), in cylindrical co-ordinates the
component of H parallel to surface p = 1 is
(a) 4ap (b) 5az (c) -3aϕ (d)-3aϕ + 5 az

1. What is the Vs for a series RLC ckt when IT = 3 mA, VL = 30V, VC = 18V, and R =1KΩ
A) 3.00 V
B) 12.37 V
C) 34.98 V
D) 48.00 V
Ans. B
2. How much current will flow in a 100 Hz series RLC circuit if V S = 20 V, RT = 66 ohms
and XT = 47 ohms?
A) 1.05 A
B) 303 mA
C) 247 mA
D) 107 mA
Ans. C
3. What is the total current in the circuit given?
A) 56.6 mA
B) 141 mA
C) 191 mA
D) 244 mA
Ans. B
4. What is the resonant frequency in the given circuit?
A) 11.6 Hz
B) 275.8 Hz
C) 1.5 kHz
D) 3.2 kHz
Ans. D
5. When XC = XL the circuit:
A) draws maximum current
B) applied voltage is zero
C) is at resonance
D) draws minimum current
Ans. C
6. In a series RLC circuit the current can be found using:

A) I = V(across resistance)/R
B) I = V(across source) / Z
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above
Ans. C
7. What would be the power factor for an RLC circuit that acts inductively?
A. +90 degrees leading

B. one
C. zero
D. –90 degrees lagging
Ans. C
8. What is the approximate phase angle in a series RLC circuit when V C = 117 V, VR =
14.5V, and VL = 3.3 V?
A) –45.0 degrees
B) -82.7 degrees
C) –90.0 degrees
D) –172.7 degrees
Ans. B
9. Which statement best describes reactance in a series RLC circuit?

A) Capacitive reactance is always dominant
B) Inductive reactance is always dominant
C) Resistance is always dominant
D) The larger of the two reactances is dominant
Ans. D
10. What is the true power consumed in a 30 V series RLC circuit if Z = 20Ω and R=10Ω?
A) 15 W
B) 22.5 W
C) 30 W
D) 45 W
Ans. B
11. Filters used to reject the 50Hz noise picked up from power lines are called
A) Low pass filters
B) High pass filters
C) Band pass filters
D) Notch Filters
Ans. D
12. Which amplifier rejects any common mode signal that appears simultaneously at both
amplifier input terminals?
A) Ac coupled amplifier
B) dc amplifier
C) differential amplifier
D) carrier amplifier
Ans. C
13. For accurate measurement of the current source signals, which of the statements is true?
A) The source output should be small compared with the receiver input signal
B) The source output should be large compared with the receiver input signal
C) The source input should be small compared with the receiver output signal
D) The source input should be large compared with the receiver output signal
1. Ans. B
14. Light beam oscilloscope recorders use ___________________ amplifiers

A) Ac coupled
B) Chopper stabilized dc
C) Carrier
D) dc bridge
Ans. B
15. Gain of instrumentation amplifier is calculated using_____

A) R2/R1
B) 1+ (2R/Rg)
C) (1+2Rg) /R
D)1+ (2Rg/R)
Ans. B
16. Which type of modulation is adopted in carrier amplification?

A) Phase modulation
B) Amplitude modulation
C) Frequency modulation
Ans. B
17. ________________ offers highest isolation voltage.

A) Transformer coupled amplifier
B) Capacitance coupled amplifier
C) Opto-isolated amplifier
Ans. B
18. The filter which has a figure of merit ______, has the narrowest band pass.
A) Q=1
B) Q=5
C) Q=10
D) Q=20
Ans. D
19. The preamplifiers used for EMG are ________ type.
A) Carrier
B) Chopper stabilized
C) isolated
D) Differential
Ans. D
20. How many pick-up surfaces are available down the side of one needle in EMG
recording?
A) 16
B) 13
C) 14
D) 12
Ans. C
1. An instruction used to set the carry flag in a computer can be classified as

a. Data transfer
b. Arithmetic
c. Logical
d. Program control
ANSWER: [d-Program control]

2. An 8085 microprocessor based system uses a 4K x8 bit RAM whose starting address is
AA00H. The address of the last byte in this RAM is
a. 0FFFH
b. 1000H
c. B9FFH
d. BA00H
ANSWER: [c-B9FFH]
3. In a microprocessor, the service routine for a certain interrupt starts from a fixed location
of memory which cannot be externally set, but the interrupt can be delayed or rejected.
Such an interrupt is
a. non-maskable and non-vectored
b. maskable and non-vectored
c. non-maskable and vectored
d. maskable and vectored
ANSWER: [d-maskable and vectored]

4. 8085 microprocessor has ___________ address lines and ___________ data lines
a. 16 bit, 16 bit
b. 8 bit ,8 bit
c. 8 bit,16 bit
d. 16 bit,8 bit
ANSWER: [d-16 bit, 8 bit]

5. In 8085 which of the following interrupt has the highest priority
a. RST 5.5
b. TRAP
c. INTR
d. RST 7.5
ANSWER:[b-TRAP]
6. 8086 can access maximum of __________ MB of memory.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
ANSWER: [a-1]
7. In 8051,execution of following instructions selects which bank

SETB PSW.3
CLR PSW.4
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
ANSWER: [b-1]
8. What is the value present in Accumulator and Carry, after executing the following
program?
ORG 0H
MOV A,#4FH
MOV B,#6FH
SUBB A,B
END
a. A0 and 1
b. E0 and 1
c. E0 and 0
d. A0 and 0
ANSWER: [b- E0 and 1]
9. What is the value present in Accumulator, after executing the following program?
ORG 0H
MOV A,#0AAH
SETB PSW.7
RRC A
RRC A
END
a. 45H
b. 54H
c. A6H
d. 6AH
ANSWER: [d- 6AH]
10. Bit addressable address range of the 8051- RAM memory is

a. 20-7Fh
b. 20-2Fh
c. 30-3FH
d. 20-3Fh
ANSWER: [b.20-2FH]
11. In 8051 microcontroller , moving the value 02H to TMOD register configures
a. Timer 0 in Mode 1
b. Counter 0 in Mode 1
c. Timer 0 in Mode 2
d. Timer 1 in Mode 2
ANSWER: [c-Timer 0 in Mode 2]
12. To generate a square wave of 1.2kHz , What is the initial value to be loaded to timer 1
operated in mode 1.Assume the XTAL=11.0592 MHz.
a. FE7FH
b. 6745H
c. DC45H
d. FC00H
ANSWER: [a. FE7FH]
13. _______________ bit should be set to double the baud rate in 8051.
a. TCON
b. PCON
c. SMOD
d. TMOD
ANSWER: [c-SMOD]
14. How many interrupt sources are available in 8051?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
ANSWER: [d-6]
15. What value should be moved to TH1 register to set the baud rate to 600
a. -12
b. -6
c. -24
d. -48
ANSWER: [d--48]
16. How many serial communications interrupts are available in 8051.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
ANSWER: [a-1]
17. To identify a level triggered interrupt in INT1 (External interrupt 1) of 8051, this pin
should be pulled down more than ___________ machine cycles.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
ANSWER: [d-4]
18. In 8051, Timer 1 interrupt vector address is
a. 13H
b. 0Bh
c. 23h
d. 1Bh
ANSWER: [d-1BH]
19. Given the value of IP register is 04H, among the following which one has the highest
priority
a. External Interrupt 0
b. Timer 1
c. External Interrupt 1
d. Timer 0
ANSWER: [c-External Interrupt 1]
20. When data is supplied to data pins, _____________ must be applied to the Enable pin of
the LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) to latch the data present at the data pins.
a. Low to high pulse
b. Low pulse
c. High to Low pulse
d. High pulse
ANSWER: [c-High to Low Pulse]
21. The following bit of IE (Interrupt Enable) should be set to enable all the interrupts in
8051.
a) IE.3
b) IE.5
c) IE.7
d) IE.6
ANSWER: [c- IE.7]
22. In 8051 microcontroller, INT0 and INT1 interrupts are _______________by default
a) Positive edge triggered
b) Level 1 triggered
c) Level 0 triggered
d) Negative Edge triggered
ANSWER: [c- Level 0 triggered]
23. RETI instruction clears the following flags

a. TI,RI,TF0 and TF1
b. TF0,TF1,TCON.1 and TCON.3
c. TI,RI,TCON.1 and TCON.3
d. TI,RI,TF0,TF1,TCON.1 and TCON.3
ANSWER: [b- TF0, TF1, TCON.1 and TCON.3]
24. Assume IE(Interrupt Enable)Register has configured with the value of 98H, then
a) Serial communication and external interrupt 1 are enabled
b) Timer 0 and External interrupt 0 are enabled
c) Timer 1 and Serial communication interrupts are enabled
d) Timer 0 and Serial communication interrupts are enabled
ANSWER: [c- Timer 1 and Serial communication interrupts are enabled]
25. The following value should be moved to IP(Interrupt priority)Register to assign Higher
priority to Serial communication Interrupt.
a. 03H
b. 10H
c. 20H
d. 01H
ANSWER: [b-10H]
1. A bulb in a staircase has two switches, one switch being at the ground floorand the other one at
the first floor. The bulb can be turned ON and also can be turned OFF by any one of the switches
irrespective of the state of theother switch. The logic of switching of the bulb resembles
(A) an AND gate
(B) an OR gate
(C) an XOR gate
(D) a NAND gate
Ans. C.
2. In a forward biased pn junction diode, the sequence of events that best describes the
mechanism of current flow is
(A) injection, and subsequent diffusion and recombination of minority carriers
(B) injection, and subsequent drift and generation of minority carriers
(C) extraction, and subsequent diffusion and generation of minority carriers
(D) extraction, and subsequent drift and recombination of minority carriers
Ans. A
3. In IC technology, dry oxidation (using dry oxygen) as compared to wet oxidation (using steam or
water vapor) produces
(A) superior quality oxide with a higher growth rate
(B) inferior quality oxide with a higher growth rate
(C) inferior quality oxide with a lower growth rate
(D) superior quality oxide with a lower growth rate
Ans. D
4. In a voltage-voltage feedback as shown below, which one of the followingstatements is TRUE if

the gain k is increased?
(A) The input impedance increases and output impedance decreases

(B) The input impedance increases and output impedance also increases
(C) The input impedance decreases and output impedance also decreases
(D) The input impedance decreases and output impedance increases
Ans. A
5. In a MOSFET operating in the saturation region, the channel length modulationeffect causes
(A) an increase in the gate-source capacitance
(B) a decrease in the Transconductance
(C) a decrease in the unity-gain cutoff frequency
(D) a decrease in the output resistance
Ans. D
6. The small-signal resistance (i.e., dVB / dID ) in kΩ offered by the n-channelMOSFET M shown in
the figure below, at a bias point of VB = 2 V is (device datafor M: device Transconductance
parameter kN = μNCox(W/L)= 40 μA / V2 threshold voltage VTN=1 V, and neglect body effect and
channel length modulation effects)
(A) 12.5
(B) 25
(C) 50
(D) 100
Ans. B
7. A silicon bar is doped with donor impurities ND = 2.25 x 1015 atoms / cm3 . Given the intrinsic
carrier concentration of silicon at T = 300 K is ni = 1.5 x 1010 cm-3. Assuming complete impurity
ionization, the equilibrium electron and hole concentrations are
(A) n0 = 1.5 x 1016 cm-3 , p0 = 1.5 x 105 cm-3
(B) n0 = 1.5 x 1010 cm-3 , p0= 1.5 x 1015 cm-3
(C) n0 = 2.25 x 1015 cm-3 , p0 = 1.5 x 1010 cm-3
(D) n0 = 2.25 x 1015 cm-3 , p0 = 1 x 105 cm-3
Ans. D
8. An increase in the base recombination of a BJT will increase

(A) the common emitter dc current gain β
(B) the breakdown voltage BVCEO
(C) the unity-gain cut-off frequency fT
(D) thetransconductancegm
Ans. B
9. In CMOS technology, shallow P-well or N-well regions can be formed using

(A) low pressure chemical vapour deposition
(B) low energy sputtering
(C) low temperature dry oxidation
(D) low energy ion-implantation
Ans. D
10. The feedback topology in the amplifier circuit (the base bias circuit is not shown for simplicity) in
the figure is
(A) Voltage shunt feedback

(B) Current series feedback
(C) Current shunt feedback
(D) Voltage series feedback
Ans. B
11. In the differential amplifier shown in the figure, the magnitudes of the common-mode
anddifferential-mode gains are Acm and Ad, respectively. If the resistance RE is increased, then
(A) Acm increases
(B) common-mode rejection ratio increases
(C) Ad increases
(D) common-mode rejection ratio decreases
Ans. B
12. A cascade connection of two voltage amplifiers A1 and A2 is shown in the figure. The openloop
gain Av0, input resistance Rin, and output resistance RO for A1 and A2 are as follows:
A1:AVO= 10,Rin= 10kΩ ,Ro= 1kΩ
A2 : AVO= 5,Rin= 5kΩ , R0 = 200Ω The approximate overall voltage gain Vin / Vout is __________.
(A) 24
(B) 30
(C) 34
(D) None
Ans. C
13. When a silicon diode having a doping concentration of NA = 9 × 1016 cm-3 on p-side and ND = 1 ×
1016 cm-3 on n-side is reverse biased, the total depletion width is found to be 3 µm. Given that
the permittivity of silicon is 1.04 × 10–12 F/cm, the depletion width on the p-side and the
maximum electric field in the depletion region, respectively, are
(A) 2.7µm and 2.3 × 105 V/cm
(B) 0.3µm and 4.15 × 105 V/cm
(C) 0.3µm and 0.42 × 105 V/cm
(D) 2.1µm and 0.42 × 105 V/cm
Ans. B
14. For the n-channel MOS transistor shown in the figure, the threshold voltage VTh is 0.8 V. Neglect
channel length modulation effects. When the drain voltage VD = 1.6 V, the drain current ID was
found to be 0.5 mA. If VD is adjusted to be 2 V by changing the values of R and VDD, the new
value of ID (in mA) is
(A) 0.625
(B) 0.75
(C) 1.125
(D) 1.5
Ans. C
15. Consider the state space system expressed by the signal flow diagram shown in the figure
The corresponding system is

(A) always controllable
(B) always observable
(C) always stable
(D) always unstable
Ans. A
1. The Fourier transform of the exponential signal 𝑒 𝑗 𝜔 0 𝑡 is

a) a constant
b) a rectangular gate
c) an impulse
d) a series of impulses
2. The unit impulse response of a linear time invariant system is the unit step function u(t). For t>0,
the response of the system to an excitation 𝑒 −𝑎𝑡 𝑢 𝑡 , 𝑎 > 0, will be
a) 𝑎𝑒 −𝑎𝑡
1−𝑒 −𝑎𝑡
b) 𝑎
c) 𝑎(1 − 𝑒 −𝑎𝑡 )
d) 1 − 𝑒 −𝑎𝑡
3. The auto-correlation function of a rectangular pulse of duration T is
a) a rectangular pulse of duration T
b) a rectangular pulse of duration 2T
c) a triangular pulse of duration T
d) a triangular pulse of duration 2T
4. The system characterized by the equation y(t)=ax(t)+b is
a) linear for any value of b
b) linear if b>0
c) linear if b<0
d) non-linear
𝐻𝑇
5. If 𝑥 𝑡 𝑥 (𝑡); 𝑋 𝜔 = 𝐹[𝑥 (𝑡)]and 𝑋 𝜔 = |𝑋 𝜔 |𝑒 𝑗 𝜃 (𝜔 ) then
a) 𝑋 𝜔 = −|𝑋 𝜔 |
b) 𝑋 𝜔 = 𝑋(𝜔)
c) 𝑋 𝜔 = 𝑋 𝜔 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝜃 𝜔 = −90°
d) 𝑋 𝜔 = 𝑋 𝜔 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝜃 𝜔 = 90°
6. For distortionless transmission, system bandwidth must be equal to

a) signal bandwidth
b) two times signal bandwidth
c) ½ of signal bandwidth
d) infinite
𝑑𝑦 (𝑡)
7. + 2𝑡𝑦 𝑡 = 𝑡 2 𝑥(𝑡)is for a
𝑑𝑡
a)
linear system
b)
non-linear system
c)
linear, time varying, static system
d)
linear, time varying, dynamic system
8. If a signal x(t) is differentiated ‘m’ times to produce an impulse then its Fourier
coefficients will be proportional to,
a) 𝑛𝑚
1
b)
𝑛 𝑚 −1
1
c)
𝑛𝑚
𝑚 −1
d) 𝑛
9. The transfer function of a distortionless network is
a) 𝐻 𝜔 = 𝑘𝑒 𝑗𝜔 𝑡𝑑
b) 𝐻 𝜔 = 𝑘𝑒 −𝑗𝜔 𝑡𝑑
c) 𝐻 𝜔 = 𝑘𝑥(𝑡 − 𝑡0 )
d) 𝐻 𝜔 = 𝑘
10. The signals x1(t) and x2(t) are both band limited to (-ω1, +ω1) and (-ω2, +ω2) respectively. The
Nyquist sampling rate for the signal x1(t)x2(t) will be
a) 2ω1 if ω1 > ω2
b) 2ω2 if ω1 < ω2
c) 2(ω1+ ω2)
d) (ω1+ ω2)/2
11. A band pass signal extends from 1KHz to 2 KHz. The minimum sampling frequency needed to
retain all information in the sampled signal is
a) 1 KHz
b) 2 KHz
c) 3 KHz
d) 4 KHz
12. Choose the function f(t), -∞<t<+∞, for which a Fourier series cannot be defined
a) 3 sin(25t)
b) 4 cos(20t+3)+3 sin(10t)
c) exp(-|t|)sin(25t)
d) 1
13. If G(f) represents the Fourier transform of a signal g(t) which is real and odd symmetric in time,
then
a) G(f) is complex
b) G(f) is imaginary
c) G(f) is real
d) G(f) is real and non-negative
14. Hilbert transform of *cosω1t+sinω2t] is
a) sinω1t-cosω2t
b) cosω1t+sinω2t
c) cosω1t-sinω2t
d) sinω1t+sinω2t
15. The ROC of a causal signal 𝑥 𝑡 is,
a) entire s-plane
b) region in between two abscissa of convergence
c) right of abscissa of convergence
d) left of abscissa of convergence
𝑥 𝑡
16. If 𝑥 𝑡 and X 𝑠 are Laplace transform pairs, then Laplace transform of is,
𝑡
∞
a) 0
𝑋 𝑠 𝑑𝑠
∞
b) 𝑠
𝑋 𝑠 𝑑𝑠
1 ∞
c) 𝑠 0
𝑋 𝑠 𝑑𝑠
1 ∞
d) 𝑠 𝑠
𝑋 𝑠 𝑑𝑠
17. If 𝑥 𝑡 is periodic with period T, then Laplace transform of 𝑥 𝑡 is defined as,
1 𝑇
a) 1−𝑒 −𝑠𝑇 0
𝑥 𝑡 𝑒 −𝑠𝑡 𝑑𝑡
1 𝑇
b) 1+𝑒 −𝑠𝑇 0
1 𝑇
c) 1−𝑒 𝑠𝑇 0
1 𝑇
d) 1+𝑒 𝑠𝑇 0
4
18. The inverse Laplace transform of 𝑋 𝑠 = 𝑠+5for ROC 𝑅𝑒 𝑠 > −4and 𝑅𝑒 𝑠 < −4are
respectively.
a) 4𝑒 −5𝑡 𝑢 𝑡 𝑎𝑛𝑑 4𝑒 −5𝑡 𝑢 −𝑡
b) 4𝑒 5𝑡 𝑢 𝑡 𝑎𝑛𝑑 4𝑒 5𝑡 𝑢 −𝑡
c) 4𝑒 −5𝑡 𝑢 𝑡 𝑎𝑛𝑑 − 4𝑒 −5𝑡 𝑢 −𝑡
d) −4𝑒 −5𝑡 𝑢 𝑡 𝑎𝑛𝑑 − 4𝑒 −5𝑡 𝑢 𝑡
19. The convolution of 𝑢 𝑡 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑢 𝑡 will be equal to,
a) 𝛿 𝑡
b) 𝑢 𝑡
c) 𝑡 𝑢 𝑡
d) 𝑡 2 𝑢 𝑡
20. The ROC of the sequence 𝑥 𝑛 = 𝑢 −𝑛 is,
a) 𝑧 > 1
b) 𝑧 < 1
c) No ROC
d) −1 < 𝑧 < 1
𝑧 3 −2𝑧 2 +𝑧
21. The system function 𝐻 𝑧 = 𝑧 2 +0.25𝑧+0.125
is,
a) Causal
b) Unstable but causal
c) Noncausal
d) Cannot be defined
22. If all the poles of the system function 𝐻 𝑧 have magnitude smaller than 1, then the system will
be,
a) stable
b) unstable
c) BIBO stable
d) a and c
23. The Z-transform is a,
a) finite series
b) infinite power series
c) geometric series
d) both a and c
24. An LTI system with impulse response, ℎ 𝑛 = −𝑎 𝑛 𝑢 𝑛 𝑎𝑛𝑑 − 𝑎 < −1 will be,
a) stable system
b) unstable system
c) anticausal system
d) neither stable nor causal
1) The reliability of an instrument refers to,

a) Measurement changes due to temperature variation,
b) Degree to which repeatability continues to remain within specific limits,
c) Life of instrument,
d) The extent to which the characteristics remain linear
2) The degree of reproducibility among several independent measurement of the same vaule
under reference conditions is known as
a) Accuracy,
b) Precision,
c) Linearity,
d) Calibration.
3) The errors committed by a person in the measurement are,

a) Gross errors,
b) Random errors,
c) Instrumental errors,
d) Environmental errors.
4) A linear variable differential transformer (LVDT) is

a) A displacement transducer,
b) An impedance matching transformer,
c) A differential temperature sensor,
d) An auto transformer
5) In order to reduce the effect of fringing in a capacitive transducer,

a) The transducer is shielded and the shield is kept at ground potential,
b) A guard ring is provided and it is kept at ground potential,
c) The transducer is shielded and the shield is kept at same potential as the moving plate,
d) A guard ring is provided and it is kept at the same potential as the moving plate.
6) A resistance potentiometer has a total resistance of 10 kΩ and is rated at 4 W. If the range of

potentiometer is 0 to 100 mm, then its sensitivity in V/mm is
a) 1.0
b) 2.0
c) 2.5
d) 25
7) A semiconductor strain gauge,

a) Has a much higher gauge factor that that of metal wire gauge,
b) Employs piezoelectric property of undoped silicon,
c) Does not require temperature compensation,
d) Exhibits very little gauge factor variation as compared to that of metal wire gauges.
8) All metal resistive strain gauges have a gauge factor nearly 2.5 because
a) Young’s modulus is the same for all metals and alloys,
b) Poisson’s ration is the same for all metals and alloys,
c) the conductivity of metal changes with the applied strain in the elastic region in the same
way,
d) The conductivity of the material is independent of the applied strain.
9) A strain gauge is attached to a bar of 20 cm which is subjected to a tensile force. The

nominal resistance of strain gauge is 100Ω. The changes in resistance and elongation in the
bar measured are 0.35 Ω and 0.2 mm respectively. The gauge factor is the strain gauge is,
a) 2
b) 3.5
c) 10
d) 100
10) A piezoelectric type accelerometer has a sensitivity of 100 v/g. the transducer is subjected to
a constant acceleration of 5g. The steady state output of the transducer will be
a) 0 V
b) 100 mV
c) 0.5 V
d) 5V
11) The torque in a rotating shaft is measured using strain gauges. The strain gauges must be
positioned on the shaft such that the axes of the strain gauges are at,
a) 0° with respect to the axis of the shaft,
b) 30° with respect to the axis of the shaft,
c) 45° with respect to the axis of the shaft,
d) 90° with respect to the axis of the shaft.
12) In a thermocouple element heat energy transferred to the hot junction is converted to
electrical energy by
a) Johnson’s effect,
b) Seebeck effect,
c) Hall effect,
d) Faraday effect.
13) Thermistor shows,

a) Positive resistance characteristics,
b) Negative resistance characteristics,
c) Positive temperature characteristics,
d) Negative temperature characteristics.
14) Non-contact type temperature sensor is

a) Thermocouple,
b) Radiation pyrometer,
c) Thermistor,
d) RTD.
15) T-type thermocouple is made of

a) Chromel-alumel
b) Copper-constantan
c) Iron-constantan
d) Iron-copper
16) The performance of a capacitive level indicator is severely affected by dirt, because it
changes the
a) Area of the plate
b) Distance between the plates
c) Dielectric constant
d) Level of the liquid
17) A gas chromatograph is used for

a) Measuring the flow rate of a gas,
b) Measuring the temperature of a gas,
c) Measuring the pressure of a gas,
d) Analysing the composition of a gas.
18) The signal conditioning stage after a piezoelectric sensor would be

a) DC bridge,
b) Phase sensitive detector,
c) Charge amplifier,
d) Cold junction compensation.
19) The temperature being sensed by anegative temperature oefficient (NTC) type thermistor
is linearly increasing. Its resistance will
a) Linearly increase with temperature,
b) Exponentially increase with temperature,
c) Linearly decrease with temperature,
d) Exponentially decrease with temperature,
20) In a capacitive type hygrometer, the variation in humidity is measured as a variation in

a) Area between the plates,
b) Distance between the plates,
c) Dielectric constant between the plates,
d) Density between the plates.
ANSWERS:
Q.No Answer
1) b
2) b
3) a
4) a
5) d
6) b
7) a
8) c
9) b
10) a
11) c
12) b
13) c
14) b
15) b
16) c
17) d
18) c
19) d
20) c
1. Microcontrollers are
a) ASIP
b) GPP
c) DSP
d) ADSP
Answer: A
2. The most common type of microcontroller

a)CISC
b) RISC
c) Instruction
d) ALL
Answer: B
3. An embedded system must have

a) Hard disk
b) Processor and memory
c) Operating system
d) Processor and input-output unit(s)
Answer: B
4. Count interval =
a) p × δT interval
b) PxT
c)PTxδ interval
d) PδxT interval
Answer: A
5. The ___________protocol control method requires the servant to assert an acknowledge, line to
indicate to the master the data is read in a data transfer.
a) Strobe b) Standard c) Handshake d) Fixed
Answer: A
6. HDLC
a) High-level Direct Link Control
b) High-level Data Link Control
c) High-link Data Link Control
d) High-level Data Line Control
Answer: A
7. The potential which exists in a p-n junction to cause drift of charge carriers is called
(a) contact potential
(b) diffusion potential
(c) ionisation potential
(d) threshold potential
Answer: A
8. Wave mechanics in electron theory is also known as

(a) Eienstein theory
(b) Quantum mechanics
(c) Bohr mechanics
(d) Classical theory
Answer: B
9. Fermi level in Intrinsic semiconductor lies
(a) close to conduction band
(b) In the middle
(c) close to valence band
(d) None of the these

Answer: C
10. A diode which is formed by using lightly doped GaAs or silicon witil metal is called
(a) Zener diode
(b) Schottky diode
(c) Varactor diode
(d) tunnel diode
Answer: B
11. Special types of diodes in which transition time and storage time are made small are called ...
(a) Snap diodes
(b) Rectifier diodes
(c) Storage diodes
(d) Memory' diodes
Answer: A
12. The Circuit which converts undirectional flow to D.C. is called

(a) Rectifier circuit
(b) Converter circuit
(c) filter circuit
(d) Eliminator
Answer: C
13. For ideal Rectifier and filter circuits, % regulations must be ...
(a) 1%
(b) 0.1 %
(c) 5%
(d) 0%
Answer: D
14. The value of current that flows through RL in a 'n' section filter circuit at no load is
(a) infinite
(b) 0.1 rnA
(c) 0
(d) few rnA
Answer: C
15. As reverse bias voltage is increased, for a diode, the base width at the junction
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains same
(d) none of these
Answer: B
16. The forward break over voltage is symbolically represented as, (For SCR)
(a) VBO
(b) VBOO
(c) VBR
(d) VFBO
Answer: D
17. Insulated Gate Field Effect Transistor (IGFET) is a ...

(a) Normal JFET device
(b) n-channel J FET device
(c) p-channel JFET device
(d) MOSFET device
Answer: D
18. The resistor which is connected in series with source resistance Rs to reduce distortion in
JFET amplifier circuits is called
(a) Swamping resistor
(b) swinging resistor
(c) bias resistor
(d) distortion control resistor
Answer: A
19. When the input is symmetrical, to operate the BJT in active region, the quiescent point is chosen
.
(a) at the top edge of the load line
(b) at the bottom edge of the load line
(c) at the centre of the load line
(d) can be chosen any where on the load line
Answer: C
20. AC load line is also known as ....

(a) dynamic load line
(b) variable load line
(c) quiescent load line
(d) active load line
Answer: A
1. Band tailing causes absorption of photons of energy……………..
(a) Lower than Eg
(b) Equal to Eg
(c) Greater than Eg
(d) None
Ans. C
2. In Franz-Keldysh effect, the band gap of the semiconductor ………………………with increasing field
strength.
(a) Decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains same
(d) None
Ans. C
3. Momentum of a photon is …………………than that of phonon.
(a) Equal
(b) lesser
(c) greater
(d) None
Ans. B
4. The selection rule for transitions in multiple quantum well is……………………

(a) n=1
(b) n=2
(c) n=0
(d) None
Ans. C
5. The LH and HH are degenerate at…………………………

(a) k=1
(b) k=0
(c) k=-1
(d) None
Ans. B
6. Band-to-band transitions in indirect bandgap semiconductors require……………….

(a) phonons
(b) photons
(c) holes
(d) None
Ans. A
7. Total recombination lifetime in direct bandgap semiconductors…………………..than that of indirect

bandgap semiconductors.
(a) more
(b) less
(c) equal
(d) None
Ans. B
8. In a non-absorbing medium, the refractive index is equal to………………

(a) 1/2
(b) 1/3
(c) 1/4
(d) None
Ans. A
9. Mean lifetime of a photon is ………………………..proportional to the absorption coefficient.

(a) Directly
(b) inversely
(c) no relation
(d) None
Ans.B
10. Semiconductor at absolute zero behaves like a ………………………….

(a) Metal
(b) superconductor
(c) Insulator
(d) None
Ans. C
11. The threshold current density of an injection laser………………………….with temperature.

(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) unchanged
(d) None
Ans. B
12. For high internal quantum efficiency of an LED the radiative recombination time should be
…………………………..
(a) low
(b) high
(c) no change
(d) none
Ans. A
13. Higher order transverse modes in a semiconductor (SC) laser cavity can be controlled by
reducing………………………of the cavity.
(a) Length
(b) width
(c) layer thickness
(d) none
Ans. B
14. For Fabry-Perot resonance, the length of the laser cavity should be an integral multiple of …..
(a) /3
(b) /5
(c) /2
(d) None
Ans. C
15. 3dB electrical band width is………………………..than 3 dB electrical bandwidth in anfibre optic
communications system.
(a) smaller
(b) greater
(c) equal to
(d) none
Ans. A
16. the thermal noise of a pin photodiode is ……………………proportional to the load resistance.
(a) directly
(b) inversely
(c) not related
(d) none
Ans. B
17. The statistics of monochromatic radiation arriving at a detector follows…………….distribution.
(a) Binomial
(b) Gaussian
(c) Poisson’s
(d) None
Ans. C
18. The reverse bias voltage in an avalanche is ……………….than that of a pin photodiode.
(a) larger
(b) smaller
(c) equal to
(d) none
Ans. A
19. ……………………in conjunction with single mode fibres are preferred for long haul-off
communication links.
(a)LEDs
(b)laser diodes
(c) incandescent bulbs
(d) none
Ans. B
20. ………………enables better light coupling into single mode fibres.
(a) surface emitting LED
(b) incandescent bulbs
(c)edge emitting LED
(d) none.
Ans. C
21. m The output of an LED……………………..with modulation frequency.

(a) Remains same
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) None
Ans. C
21. Microcontrollers are
a) ASIP
b) GPP
c) DSP
d) ADSP
Answer: A
22. The most common type of microcontroller

a)CISC
b) RISC
c) Instruction
d) ALL
Answer: B
23. An embedded system must have

a) Hard disk
b) Processor and memory
c) Operating system
d) Processor and input-output unit(s)
Answer: B
24. Count interval =

a) p × δT interval
b) PxT
c)PTxδ interval
d) PδxT interval
Answer: A
25. The ___________protocol control method requires the servant to assert an acknowledge, line to
indicate to the master the data is read in a data transfer.
a) Strobe b) Standard c) Handshake d) Fixed
Answer: A
26. HDLC
a) High-level Direct Link Control
b) High-level Data Link Control
c) High-link Data Link Control
d) High-level Data Line Control
Answer: A
27. The potential which exists in a p-n junction to cause drift of charge carriers is called
(a) contact potential
(b) diffusion potential
(c) ionisation potential
(d) threshold potential
Answer: A
28. Wave mechanics in electron theory is also known as

(a) Eienstein theory
(b) Quantum mechanics

(c) Bohr mechanics
(d) Classical theory
Answer: B
29. Fermi level in Intrinsic semiconductor lies

(a) close to conduction band
(b) In the middle
(c) close to valence band
(e) None of the these

Answer: C
30. A diode which is formed by using lightly doped GaAs or silicon witil metal is called
(a) Zener diode
(b) Schottky diode
(c) Varactor diode
(d) tunnel diode
Answer: B
31. Special types of diodes in which transition time and storage time are made small are called ...
(a) Snap diodes
(b) Rectifier diodes
(c) Storage diodes
(d) Memory' diodes
Answer: A
32. The Circuit which converts undirectional flow to D.C. is called

(a) Rectifier circuit
(b) Converter circuit
(c) filter circuit
(d) Eliminator
Answer: C
33. For ideal Rectifier and filter circuits, % regulations must be ...
(a) 1%
(b) 0.1 %
(c) 5%
(d) 0%
Answer: D
34. The value of current that flows through RL in a 'n' section filter circuit at no load is
(a) infinite
(b) 0.1 rnA
(c) 0
(d) few rnA
Answer: C
35. As reverse bias voltage is increased, for a diode, the base width at the junction
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains same
(d) none of these

Answer: B
36. The forward break over voltage is symbolically represented as, (For SCR)
(a) VBO
(b) VBOO
(c) VBR
(d) VFBO
Answer: D
37. Insulated Gate Field Effect Transistor (IGFET) is a ...

(a) Normal JFET device
(b) n-channel J FET device
(c) p-channel JFET device
(d) MOSFET device
Answer: D
38. The resistor which is connected in series with source resistance Rs to reduce distortion in
JFET amplifier circuits is called
(a) Swamping resistor
(b) swinging resistor
(c) bias resistor
(d) distortion control resistor
Answer: A
39. When the input is symmetrical, to operate the BJT in active region, the quiescent point is chosen
.
(a) at the top edge of the load line
(b) at the bottom edge of the load line
(c) at the centre of the load line

(d) can be chosen any where on the load line
Answer: C
40. AC load line is also known as ....

(a) dynamic load line
(b) variable load line
(c) quiescent load line
(d) active load line
Answer: A
1. When the port lines of a port in 8051 are to be used as input lines then the value that must
be written to the port address is
a) F0H
b) 0FH
c) FFH
d) 00H
Answer: c
2. Which of the following is bit-addressable register in 8051?

a) SBUF
b) PCON
c) TMOD
d) SCON
Answer: d
3. Among the four groups of register banks in 8051, the number of groups that can be
accessed at a time is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) all the four
Answer: a
4. The pulses at T0 or T1 pin of 8051are counted in
a) timer mode
b) counter mode
c) idle mode
d) power down mode
Answer: b
5. The serial port interrupt of 8051 is generated if

a) RI is set
b) RI and TI are set
c) either RI or TI is set
d) RI and TI are reset
Answer: c
6. The external interrupt that has the lowest priority among the following in 8051 is
a) TF0
b) TF1
c) IE1
d) IE0
Answer: c
7. Among the five interrupts generated by 8051, the lowest priority is given to the interrupt
a) IE0
b) TF1
c) TF0
d) RI
Answer: d
8. The address register of 8051 for storing the 16-bit addresses can only be
a) stack pointer
b) data pointer
c) instruction register
d) accumulator
Answer: b
9. All conditional jumps of 8051 are
a) absolute jumps
b) long jumps
c) short jumps
d) none
Answer: c
10. The absolute jump instruction of 8051 is intended mainly for a jump within a memory
space of
a) 2 bytes
b) 2 Kbytes
c) 2 Mbytes
d) none
Answer: b
11. The LJMP instruction of 8051 is very useful in programming in the external code
memory space of
a) 32 MB
b) 64 MB
c) 32 KB
d) 64 KB
Answer: d
12. The mnemonic used to perform a subtraction of source with an 8-bit data and jumps to
specified relative address if subtraction is non-zero in 8051 is
a) DJNZ
b) CJNE
c) JZ
d) JNC
Answer: b
13. The type of operand that is not allowed to use in boolean instructions of 8051 is
a) direct register operands
b) indirect register operands
c) immediate bit
d) none
Answer: c
14. In Boolean instructions of 8051, the flag that is the only allowed destination operand for
two operand instructions is
a) overflow flag
b) underflow flag
c) auxiliary flag
d) carry flag
Answer: d
15. After reset, the stack pointer(SP) is initialized to the address of

a) internal ROM
b) internal RAM
c) external ROM
d) external RAM
Answer: b
Bold ones are answers:
16. After reset, PC and DPTR register are initialized to address________.

a) 08H, 07H
b) 09H, 07H
c) 0H, 0H
d) 06H, 07H
Ans. C
17. How many bytes space does the instruction MOV A,#76H occupy?
a) one byte
b) two bytes
c) three bytes
d) one word
Ans. B
18. 8051 can support a maximum capacity of ROM memory.

a) 32 KB
b) 64 KB
c) 4 KB
d) 8 KB
Ans. B
19. The 8051 has _____________ parallel and ________ serial ports.
a) 8, 2
b) 4, 2
c) 4, 1
d) 8, 1
Ans. C
20. After the execution of the instruction DIV AB, quotient will be stored in
_________register and remainder in ______________register.
a) A register , B register
b) B register, A register
c) AB register, C register
d) B register, AC register
Ans. A
Questions Choices
1.h/2
2.
h/4
As per the uncertainty principle, x.p equal to 3.

4.
Zero
1.
H
2.
H+
Perturbation theory needs to have exact solution for
3.
He+
4.
He
1.
Orthogonality
2.
Quantization
What is the physical significance of Planck’s constant?
3.
Angular Momentum
4.
Normalization
1.
30 Å
2.
1200 Å
1 eV of energy is equivalent to a photon with a wavelength
about 3.
12000 Å
4.
300 Å
Determine the order of the C2V point group 1.
E, C3, 3v
Questions Choices
2.
E, C2, 2 v
3.
E, C2, i, h
4.
E, S4, 3C2, 2d
1.
D5h
2.
Identify the point group to which the staggered ferrocene C5h
belongs 3.
D5d
4.
C5d
1.
Radio-frequency
2.
Microwave
Both NMR and NQR spectra are observed in ---------- region.
3.
X-ray
4.
UV-Vis
1.
75
2.
45
The ESR spectrum of anthracene radical anion consists of
3.
60
4.
0
Which one of the following diatomic molecule does not give a1.
rotational spectrum? CO
2.
HCl
3.
Questions Choices
HF
4.
H2
1.
2
2.
A compound shows a 1H NMR peak at 240 Hz downfield 1
from the TMS peak in a spectrometer operating at 60 MHz.
The chemical shift (in ppm) is 3.
4
4.
3
1.
4 2c2 2eµ
2.
If force constant, k, of a diatomic simple harmonic oscillator 4 c eµ
2 2 2
(SHO) is equal to 3.
4c2eµ2
4.
162c2eµ2
1.
Langmuir
2.
Which of the following is a multilayer adsorption isotherm Freundlich
model? 3.
BET
4.
Gibb’s adsorption isotherm
1.
2.
Frank Condon principle is used for the interpretation of the Vibrational spectra
intensity of 3.
Raman spectra
4.
Microwave spectra
Questions Choices
1.
Mw/Mn
2.
Mn/Mw
Polydispersity index of polymer is
3.
Mn+Mw
4.
Mn-Mw
1.
Electrophoresis
2.
Tyndall Effect
Optical properties of colloids can be explained by
3.
Electro-Osmosis
4.
Brownian movement
1.
Potential energy of the products
2.
Heat of the reaction
In a chemical reaction, a catalyst changes the
3.
Potential energy of the reactants
4.
Activation energy
1.
Tetragonal
2.
A crystal has the lattice parameters a ≠ b ≠ c and α = β = γ = Monoclinic
90o, The crystal system is 3.
Orthorhombic
4.
Cubic
Neel temperature is associated with ---------- solids 1.
Diamagnetic
2.
Paramagnetic
Questions Choices
3.
Ferromagnetic
4.
Anti-ferromagnetic
1.
Reflection
2.
Bragg’s law in X-ray diffraction assumes ---------- of X-rays Transmission
from successive planes of atoms 3.
Absorption
4.
Rotation
1.
bond order is zero and it is
paramagnetic
2.
bond order is zero and it is
diamagnetic
According to MO theory for the atomic species C2
3.
paramagnetic
4.
diamagnetic
1.
10
The overall rate of the following series of reactions is
2.
AB k1 = 10 sec-1 102
BC k2 = 102 sec-1 3.
104
CD k3 = 104 sec-1
4.
107
The lanthanide contraction is due to 1.
2.
3.
Questions Choices
4.
1.
1.5
2.
2
The bond order of O2+ is
3.
2.5
4.
3.5
1.
1/16
2.
If an isotope has a half-life of 30 years, how much of an 1/32
original sample remains after 120 years? 3.
1/64
4.
1/8
1.
d-d transitions
2.
Electron transfer from Fe(H2O)6 to Fe(H2O) is likely
2+
6
3+ Inner sphere electron transfer
occur via 3.
SN1 mechanism
4.
1.
2.
MnO4 is colored due to 3.
d-d transitions
4.
d-d transitions and ligand to metal
charge transfer
Questions Choices
1.
1.73 BM
2.
2.83 BM
The spin-only magnetic moment of K3[Fe(CN)6] is
3.
4.90 BM
4.
5.92 BM
1.
[Fe(H2O)5NO]3+
2.
[Fe(H2O)5NO]2+
The complex formed in the brown ring test for nitrates is
3.
[Fe(H2O)4NO]2+
4.
[Fe(H2O)4NO]3+
1.
NH4OH
2.
NH3
The conjugate base of NH4+is
3.
OH-
4.
NH2
1.
3 and 6
2.
The total number of metal-metal bonds in Ru3(CO)12 and 4 and 5
Co4(CO)12 respectively, is 3.
0 and 4
4.
3 and 4
Ziegler-Natta catalysis is 1.
Alkene hydrogenation
2.
Alkene polymerization
Questions Choices
3.
Hydroformylation of alkenes
4.
Alkyene metathesis
1.
[PtCl2(NH3)2]2-
2.
Trans-[PtCl2(NH3)2]
The reaction of [PtCl4]2- with NH3 gives rise to
3.
[PtCl2 (NH3)2]
4.
Cis-[PtCl2(NH3)2]
1.
B5H9
2.
B12H122-
Which one of the following will show closo structure?
3.
B4H10
4.
B5H11
1.
CH4
2.
CH3
[Co(CO)4] is isolobal with
3.
CH
4.
CH2
1.
3
F2
2.
5
D0
The ground state term symbol of V3+ion is
3.
3
F4
4.
2
D5/2
Questions Choices
1.
Change in weight
2.
The property measured in derivative thermogravimetric Rate of change in weight
(DTG) analysis is 3.
Heat evolved or absorbed
4.
Change in temperature
1.
Borazine
2.
Phosphazene
Inorganic benzene is called
3.
Phosphazane
4.
Sulphur cluster
1.
d-d transition
2.
transition
The red colour of oxyhaemoglobin is mainly due to the
3.
transition
4.
Intraligand π- π* transition
The Lewis acidity of BF3 is less than BCl3 even though 1.
fluorine is more electronegative than chlorine. This is due to Stronger 2p (B) – 2p (F) σ-
bonding
2.
Stronger 2p (B) – 2p (F) π-
bonding
3.
Stronger 2p (B) – 3p (Cl) σ-
bonding
4.
Stronger 2p (B) – 3p (Cl) π-
Questions Choices
bonding
1.
I>II>III>IV
Arrange the following in increasing order of CO
stretching 2.
I. V(CO)6 II<I<III<IV
II. Cr(CO)6 3.
III. [Mn(CO)6]+ I<II<III<IV
IV. CO
4.
III<I<II<IV
1.
Li2
2.
Among the following diatomic molecules, the one that shows B2
EPR signal is 3.
C2
4.
N2
The correct IUPAC name of the spiro compound is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Formula of N,N-dimethylethanamide is 1.
i1.
2.
Questions Choices
3.
4.
1.
Which of the following compound is not aromatic?
Compound B
2.
Compound A
3.
Compound D
4.
Compound C
Determine the reactant A in the following reaction 1.
2.
Questions Choices
3.
4.
1.
Thermally allowed
2.
Thermally not allowed
3.
Photo chemically allowed
4.
Both thermally and photo
chemically allowed
Acetonitrile is a 1.
Polar protic solvent
2.
Polar aprotic solvent
3.
Non-polar solvent
4.
Questions Choices
Hydroxylic solvent
1.
Umpolung
2.
Dipole moment
The term “reversal of polarity” refers to
3.
Polarization
4.
Equilibrium reaction
1. True and True
Both ε and χ are dimensionless: The statement is ________
0 e
and ______ respectively

2. False and True
3. True and False
4. False and False
1.
Imaginary and even
2.
Imaginary and Odd
3.
Real and Even
4.
Real and Odd
1.
Information Rate
Which among the following is used to construct the binary 2.

Noiseless Channel
code that satisfies the prefix condition?
3.
4.
Kraft Inequality
Robinson annulation
2.
Dieckmann condensation
3.
Stobbe condensation
Questions Choices
4.
Aldol condensation
1.
2.
3.
Most stable free radical
4.
1.
[2+2] thermal cyclization
2.
[4+2] photo addition
Diels-Alder reaction is a
3.
4.
1.
4e
2.
6e
Pyridine has a delocalized -molecular orbital containing
3.
8e
4.
12e
Proteins are biopolymers. The monomer unit present in them 1.

are
Questions Choices
Carbohydrates
2.
Amino acids
3.
Fatty acids
4.
Alkenes
The expected position of the max in the following trienone is 1.

244 nm
2.
349 nm
3.
305 nm
4.
360 nm
1.
CH3COOH
Which of the following compound is expected to show a 2.
sharp singlet for one of its protons at 8 ppm in 1H NMR CH3CONHC6H5
spectrum, given that this signal remains unaffected on shaking 3.
the solution thoroughly with D2O? n-C6H13CCH
4.
n-C6H13CHO
Among the following compounds, the one that undergoes de- 1.
protonation most readily in the presence of base to form a
carbanion is
2.
3.
Questions Choices
4.
1.
Free radical
2.
Sigma complex
The electrophilic aromatic substitution proceeds through a
3.
Benzyne
4.
Carbene
1.
2.
3.
4.
The major product of the reaction is 1.
2.
Questions Choices
3.
4.

Wolff rearrangement
2.
Benzylic acid rearrangement
3.
Steven’s rearrangement
4.
Wagner-Meerwin rearrangement
1.
2.
Among the following, the most stable isomer for 3-

methoxycyclohexanol is
3.
4.
The size of nanoparticles is between---------nm 1.

Questions Choices
100 to 1000
2.
0.1 to 10
3.
1 to 100
4.
0.01 to 1
1.
Strong bonds like covalent bonds
2.
Magnetic properties
Supramolecular chemistry is the study of 3.
Hydrogen bonding
and interactions
4.
Electronic trasitions
1.
Diazepam
2.
Procaine
Which of the following is used as a local anesthetic agent?
3.
Mescaline
4.
Seconal
1.
CsCl
2.
LiF
Pixels in the high definition T.V. monitors are made of
3.
ZnS
4.
BaS
Cis-Platin is a well-known---------metal drug. 1.
Antituberculosis
2.
Questions Choices
Anticancer
3.
Antibacterial
4.
Antifungal
1.
Use of catalysts
2.
Recycling
Which of the following is/are not part of the Twelve
Principles in green chemistry? 3.
Accident prevention
4.
Use of less hazardous or no
solvents
The envelop detector is an 2. Synchronous detector
2. Schmitt trigger followed by
LPF
PAM signal can be demodulated by using a 3. Clipper circuit followed by a
LPF
4. Differentiator followed by a
LPF
Which technology has a longer handset battery life? 1. TDMA
2. FDMA/TDMA
3. CDMA
4. SDMA
In FHSS, spectrum of transmitted signal is spread 2. Sequentially
3. Instantaneously
4. Additively
1. 16,000 bps
The capacity of an analog communication channel with 4kHz 2. 8,000 bps
bandwidth and 15dB SNR is approximately 3. 20,000 bps
4. 10,000 bps
In a comparator with output bounding, what type of diode is 1. zener
used in the feedback loop? 2. junction
3. shottky
Questions Choices
4. varactor
1. 20dB
If bit energy to noise density ratio is 10dB and feedback shift 2. 30dB
length is 10, then the jamming margin is approximately 3. 32dB
4. 26dB
1. Asymmetric data subscriber
loop
2. .Asymmetric data subscriber
ADSL Stands for line
3. Asymmetric digital subscriber
loop
4. Asymmetric digital subscriber
line
The cellular technology that brings perfect real world wireless 1. 3G
is called WWWW : "World Wide Wireless Web" is 2. 4G
3. 1G
4. 2G
The Z-transform is a, 2. geometric series
4. finite series
1.7 A
A current of 3+j4 amperes is flowing through the circuit.The 2.1 A
magnitude of the current is _______ 3.5 A
4.1.33 A
1.
E
2.
If a signal f(t) has an energy E, the energy of the signal f(2t) is E/2
equal to 3.
2E
4.
4E
1.
. If the transfer function of a first-order system isG(s)=1/
10 seconds.
(1+2s),then the time constant
of the system is
2. 0.1second.
3. 2 seconds.
4. 0.5second.
which of the following systems are invertible? 1.
Questions Choices
y(n) = nx(n)
2.
y(n) = x(n)x(n-1)
3.
y(t) = dx(t)/dt
4.
y(n) = x(1-n)
1.
causal, linear and time variant
2.
The discrete time system described by y(n) = x(n^2) is
3.
non-causal, linear, time invariant
4.
non-causal, linear, time variant
1.
cycles of input
Rectifier output polarity depends upon: 2. diode installation
3.
capacitor polarity
1.
2.
3.
is causal
4.
is non-causal
Which of the following system is time invariant 1.
y(t) = x(2t)
2.
y(t) = x(t) + x(t-1)
3.
y(t) = x(t/2)
4.
Questions Choices
y(t) = x(-t)
1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
stable, causal
2.
non-causal, stable
3.
non stable, causal
4.
1. One
In CDMA, Reduction of co channel interference due to 2. Zero
processing gain allows frequency reuse factor of ________. 3. Infinity
4. Ten
1.
16 Mbps
Assuming that the channel is noiseless, if TV channels are 8
kHz wide with the bits/sample = 3Hz and signaling rate = 16 2.
24 Mbps
× 106 samples/second, then what would be the value of data
rate? 3.
48 Mbps
4.
64 Mbps
The impulse response of a linear time invariant system is 1.
given by h(n) = u(n+3) + u(n-2) -2u(n-7), where u(n) is unit stable, but not causal
step sequence. The above system is
2.
stable and causal
3.
4.
Questions Choices
1.
unstable, because it is FIR system
2.
stable, because it is an IIR system
unstable, because it does not obey
BIBO stability criterion
4.
stable, because it obeys BIBO
stability criterion
1.
N(N-1)
2.
The direct evaluation of DFT requires ______________ N^2
complex multiplications. 3.
N(N+1)
4.
N(N-1)/2
1.
Only sine terms
2.
If f(t) = f(-t) and f(t) satisfies the Dirichlet's conditions, then Only cosine terms
f(t) can be expanded in a Fourier series containing 3.
Cosine terms and constant term
4.
Sine terms and a constant term
1.
150 samples / sec
2.
The Nyquist sampling rate for the signal g(t) = 10 cos (50 pi t) 200 samples/ sec
cos^2 (150 pi t), where t is in seconds is 3.
300 samples / sec
4.
350 samples/ sec
Convolution of x(t+5) with impulse function \delta(t-7) is 1.
Questions Choices
x(t-12 )
2.
x(t+12)
equal to 3.
x(t-2)
4.
x(t+2)
1.
non-causal, stable
2.
3.
causal, unstable
4.
causal, stable
1.
convolution
2.
A good measure of similarity between two signals x1(t) and correlation
x2(t) is 3.
4.
fourier transform
1.
DC term
2.
The trigonometric fourier series of an even function of time Cosine term
does not have the 3.
Sine term
4.
Odd harmonic temrs
If the Fourier series coefficients of x(t) are c_n , then the 1.
Fourier series coefficients of x(-t) is given by c^*_n
2.
c_-n
3.
Questions Choices
c^*_-n
4.
c_n
1.
Only sine terms
2.
If the periodic signal has an even symmetry, then the Fourier
Only cosine terms
series contains,
3.
4.
1.
j Im {x_n}
2.
Re{c_n}
3.
Even {c_n}
4.
Odd {c_n}
1.
real and odd
2.
imaginary and odd
3.
real and even
4.
imaginary and even
1.
c_nd_n d_n
2.
If x(t) and y(t) are two periodic signals, with Fourier series Tc_ndndndndn d_n
coefficients c_n and d_n respectively, then the Fourier series
coefficients of z(t) = x(t)y(t) are 3.
c_n *d_n
4.
1/T c_ndndndndn d_n
Questions Choices
1.
X(f) is complex
2.
If X(f) represents the Fourier transform of a signal x(t), which X(f) is imaginary
is real and odd symmetric in time, then 3.
X(f) is real
4.
X(f) is real and non-negative
1.
2.
Continuous time non periodic signal has
3.
Aperiodic continuous spectra
4.
1.
Imaginary and odd
2.
Imaginary and even
3.
Real and odd
4.
Real and even
1.
Uniform
2.
Sine function
The amplitude spectrum of Gaussian pulse is 3.Gaussian function
4.
An impulse function
A signal x(t) has Fourier transform X(j omega). If x(t) is a real 1.
and even function of t, then X(j omega) is A real and even function of
omega
Questions Choices
2.
Imaginary and odd function of
omega
3.
An imaginary and even function
of Omega
4.
A real and odd function of Omega
1.
Real and even
2.
Imaginary and even
3.
Imaginary and odd
4.
Real and odd
1.
N log_2 N
2.
The number of complex multiplications required to calculate N/2 log_10 N
N point DFT using radix-2 DIT-FFT algorithm is 3.
N log_10 N
4.
N/2 log_2 N
1.
200
2.
The Nyquist sampling frequency in Hz of a signal given by 6 300
x 10^4 sinc(400\pit) x 10^6 sinc(100\pit) is 3.
500
4.
1000
Fourier transform of impulse function is 1.
1
2.
-1
Questions Choices
3.
2
4.
Can not be found
1.
2/(j omega)
2.
1/(j omega)
3.
-1/ (j omega)
4.
1
1. PORT12
____ PORT in 8051 is requiring external pull up resistor 2. PORT3
network 3. PORT0
4. PORT1
1. Friction
The transient response of a system is mainly due to: 2. Inertia forces
3. Internal forces
4. Stored energy
1. SSB-SC
Which modulation technique is not suitable for audio, video 2. VSB-SC
but is used for transmission of telephone signals? 3. AM
4. DSB-SC
1.linear. 2.time-invariant.
3.nonlinear. 4.passive.
1. 10
The acceptable VSWR level of the antenna is 2. 0.1
upto ...................... 3. 1
4. 2
radiating horn is perpendicular
to ground.
The radiation pattern we measure for a horn antenna is of E- 2. The magnetic field of the
plane type. At what condition radiating horn is in circular
we will say it is an E-plane type. direction
ground.
4. The magnetic field of the
radiating horn is parallel to ground
Questions Choices
1. local oscillator operates below
the signal frequency
2. mixer input must be tuned to
the signal frequency
In broadcast super heterodyne receiver, the 3. local oscillator frequency is
normally double the IF
4. RF amplifier normally works at
455KHz above the carrier
frequency
The largest frequency that will be returned to earth when 1. hop frequency
transmitted vertically under given ionosphere conditions is 2. Critical frequecny
called the_________. 3. LUF
4. MUF
1.to provide for setup times and
hold times
Why would a delay gate be needed for a digital circuit? 2.to provide for hold times 3.to
provide for setup times4.A delay
gate is never needed.
1. linear if b<0
The system characterized by the equation y(t)=ax(t)+b is 2. linear for any value of b
3. non-linear
4. linear if b>0
1. 750 KHz
A super heterodyne receiver with an IF of 450KHz is tuned to 2. 900 KHz
a signal at 1200KHz. The image frequency is 3. 2100 KHz
4. 1650 KHz
1. Skin effect
Generally, the gain of a transistor amplifier falls at high 2. Coupling capacitor at the output
frequencies due to the 3. Coupling capacitor at the input
4. Internal capacitance of the
device
1. broadside array
Yagi antenna is 2. circular array
3. planar array
4. end fire array
1. P = 1, P = 1, P = 0
1011101;11110111; 1001101 3. P = 0, P = 0, P = 0
4. P = 1, P = 1, P = 1
If the radiation from the antenna is expressed in terms of the 1. Voltage pattern
field 2. field pattern
strength(either E or H ) then the radiation pattern is called as 3. current pattern
Questions Choices
1.
Barrel distortion
A sinusoidal signal is passed through an amplifier and results
2.
in the following waveform. What form of distortion is
Crossover distortion
predominant?
3.
Clipping
4.
Harmonic distortion
1. 16,00
“A” register of 8051 is of ___ bit wide and it is loaded with 2. 16,0000
the default value of ___ after reset. 3. 8,07
4. 8,00
1.
less, faster
2.
Dynamic RAM consumes ________ Power and ________ more, faster
then the Static RAM 3.
less, slower
4.
more, slower
1. 20H through 2FH
3. 40H through 4FH 4. 10H
through 1FH
1.
3
2.
4
5
4.
6
.__________ and ________are the two 16 bit registers in 1.
8051 PC and ACC
2.
Questions Choices
PC and DPTR
3.
IE and PC
4.
ACC and B
1. Program code is stored in on-
chip RAM
2. DATA is stored in on-chip
. In 8051, what indicates when EA is connected to ground? RAM
external ROM
4. Program code is stored in on-
chip ROM
1.
1
2.
2
3
4.
4
1.
INT0
2.
INT1
3.
TIMER0
4.
RESET
What is the maximum size of the memory that can be 1.
interfaced with 8051? 16K
2.
32K
3.
64K
4.
Questions Choices
128K
1.
INT 0
2.
INT 1
What is the alternative function of P3.2 in 8051?
3.
COUNTER
4.
TIMER INTERRUPT
1.
MOV PC,#0022h
2.
MOV DPTR,#0022H
3.
MOVC A,@A+DPTR
4.
MOV A,R0
1.
TF0,RI
2.
TF0,TI
3.
TF0,IE0
4.
RI,TI
1.
R0
2.
ACCUMLATOR
3.
SBUF
4.
TF0
To interface LCD to 8051 we need 1.
3 PORTS
Questions Choices
2.
2 PORTS
3.
1 PORTS
4.
4 PORTS
1.
00H-77H
2.
40H-80H
What is the address range of SFR Register bank?
3.
80H-7FH
4.
80H-FFH
Point charges 30nC,-20nCand 10nC are located at (-1,0,2),
(0,0,0) and (1,5,-1), respectively. The total flux leaving a cube 1.20nC 2.10nC 3.30nC 4.-20nC
of side 6m centered at the origin is
1. less gain
The purpose of using more directors in Yagi Uda antenna is to 2. more gain
achieve 3. less bandwidth
4. more bandwidth
Bandwidth of broad band antennas is 1. infinity
2. 10:1 ratio
3. 0:1 ratio
4. 2:1 ratio
Suppose a uniform electric field exists in the room in which 1.Points of different potential.
you are working, such that the lines of force are horizontal 2.Points of the same potential
and at right angles to one wall. As you walk toward the wall (equipotential line)? 3.Points of
from which the lines of force emerge into the room, are you lower potential? 4.Points of
walking toward higher potential?
A collector characteristic curve is a graph showing ____ 1. emitter current (I ) versus
E
collector-emitter voltage (V ) with

CE
(V ) base bias voltage held

BB
constant
2. collector current (I ) versus
C

C

BB
constant
C

CC
Questions Choices
BB
constant
C
collector-emitter voltage (V )
CE
with (V ) base bias voltage held

BB
constant
1. Zero
What is PSRR value of an ideal op-amp? 2. Unity
3. Infinite
4. Unpredictable
2.parallel to the charge
The direction of electric field due to positive charge is
1. I – I
B C
Total emitter current is 2. I – I

E C
3. I + I
B C
4. I + I
C E
1. become zero
If the sheet of a bakelite is inserted between the plates of an 2. increase
air capacitor, the capacitance will 3. decrease
1.
32 bytes
2.
64 bytes
3.
128 bytes
4.
256 bytes
For Maximum gain amplifier design, what kind of matching 1. Conjugate matching
been proposed? 2. Complex matching
3. Resistive matching
The 8051 has ________ parallel I/O ports. 1.
2
2.
3
3.
Questions Choices
4
4.
5
1.
PSW.5=0 and PSW.4=1
2.
How are the bits of the register PSW affected if we PSW.2=0 and PSW.3=1
select Bank2 of 8051? 3.
PSW.3=1 and PSW.4=1
4.
PSW.3=0 and PSW.4=1
1.
8 bytes
2.
How many bytes of bit addressable memory is present 32 bytes
in 8051 based micro controllers? 3.
16 bytes
4.
128 bytes
1.
11010111
The contents of the accumulator after the following
operation 2.
11011010
MOV A,#0BH
ANL A,#2CH 3.
00001000
will be
4.
00101000
1.
ADD @R3, @A
2.
Which of the following statements will add the ADD @A, R3
accumulator and register 3? 3.
ADD R3, A
4.
ADD A, R3
Questions Choices
1.
MOV A, P27
2.
Which of the following commands will move the number MOV A, #27H
27H into the accumulator? 3.
MOV A, 27H
4.
MOV A, @27
1.
MOV A, 04H
2.
MOV A, L4
Which of the following commands will copy the contents
of location 4H to the accumulator? 3.
MOV L4, A
4.
MOV 04H, A
1.
DPTR
2.
When 8051 wakes up then 0x00 is loaded to which SP
register? 3.
PC
4.
PSW
1.
PSW
2.
When the micro controller executes some arithmetic SP
operations, then the flag bits of which register are
affected? 3.
DPTR
4.
PC
When any interrupt is enabled, then where does the 1.
pointer moves immediately after this interrupt has to the next instruction which is
occurred? to be executed
2.
Questions Choices
to the first instruction of ISR
3.
to the first location of the
memory called the interrupt
vector table
4.
1.
MOVX A, @DPTR
2.
Which of the following comes under indexed addressing MOVC @A+DPTR,A
mode? 3.
MOV A,R0
4.
MOV @R0,A
1.
a constant pulse is to be
maintained for a greater span
of time
2.
What is the disadvantage of a level triggered pulse? 3.
4.
another interrupt may be
caused, if the signal is still
low before the completion of
the last instruction
1.
MOV A,P0
2.
Which instruction is used to check the status of a single ADD A,#05H
bit? 3.
JNB PO.0, label
4.
CLR P0.05H
Which addressing mode is used in pushing or popping 1.
Questions Choices
immediate
2.
direct
any element on or from the stack? 3.
indirect
4.
register
1.
$
2.
Which operator is the most important while assigning #
any instruction as register indirect instruction? 3.
@
4.
&
1.
- 0.25 V
Determine the output voltage for this circuit with a 2.
sinusoidal input of 2.5 mV. - 0.125 V
3.
0.25 V
4.
0.125 V
1. 2000kHz
A MOD-12 and a MOD-10 counter are cascaded. Determine 2. 1500kHz
the output frequency if the input clock frequency is 60 MHz? 3. 500kHz
4. 1000kHz
The electric and magnetic fields (components) radiated from 1. radiation
an antenna form the _______________ field. 2. magnetic
3. electro-magnetic
4. induction
1.1O resistance 2.1O resistance in
A source of angular frequency 1 rad/sec has source impedance parallel with 1H inductance 3.1O
consisting of 1Ω resistance in series with 1H inductance. The resistance in parallel with 1F
load that will obtain the maximum power transfer is: capacitor 4.1O resistance in series
with 1F capacitor
if the differential mode voltage gain and the common mode 1. 25dB
voltage gain of the differential amplifier are 48dB and 2 dB 2. 23dB
Questions Choices
respectively, then its common mode rejection ratio is ___ 3. 46dB
4. 50dB
Which performance parameter of a regulator is defined as 1. Temperature stability factor
the change in regulated load voltage due to variation in 2. Line regulation
line voltage in a specified range at a constant load 3. Load regulation
current? 4. Ripple rejection
A digital-to-analog converter is an application of the 2. voltage-to-current converter
3. noninverting amplifier
4. scaling adder
tlow = 0.695 RBC
2. tlow = 0.695 (RA + RB)C
Thigh and Tlow for astable mode operation of IC555 are thigh = 0.695 RBC
3. thigh = 0.695 (RA + RB)C
tlow = 0.695 (RA + 2RB)C
4. thigh = 0.695(RA + RB)C
tlow = 0.695 RBC
1. integrator
2. comparator
In a ________, when the input voltage exceeds a specified 3. differentiator
reference voltage, the output changes state. 4. summing amplifier

3. select the highest value input.
In a flash A/D converter, the priority encoder is used to 4. select the first input.
1. 0 to FH
The 8-bit address bus allows access to an address range of: 2. 00 to FFH
3. 000 to FFFH
4. 0000 to FFFFH
1.
8
2.
16
The vast majority of registers in 8051 are _________ bits
3.
32
4.
64
SP of 8051 is of ___ wide and it is loaded with the default1.4 bit,00H
Questions Choices
2.8 bit,07H
value of ___ after reset
3.8 bit,00H
4.
32 bit,00H
1.
2.
3.
MOV A, @ R1 will copy the contents of memory
whose address is in R1 to
the accumulator
4.
copy the accumulator to the
contents of memory whose
address is in R1
1.
MOV TH0, #35H
2.
MOV TH0, 35H
Which of the following instructions will load the value 3.
35H into the high byte of timer 0? MOV T0, #35H
4.
MOV T0, 35H
1.
CY=0,AC=0,P=0
How is the status of the carry, auxiliary carry and parity 2.
flag affected if write instruction CY=1,AC=1,P=0
MOV A,#9C 3.
4.
CY=1,AC=1,P=1
Which register is used to make the pulse a level or a 1.
edge triggered pulse? TCON
2.
Questions Choices
IE
3.
IPR
4.
SCON
1.
PORT 0 and PORT 1
2.
Which of the ports act as the 16 bit address lines for PORT 1 and PORT 2
transferring data through it? 3.
PORT 0 and PORT 2
4.
PORT 1 and PORT 3
1. NOR
Which type of gate can be used to add two bits? 2. EX-NAND
3. EX-OR
4. EX-NOR
1. Asynchronous counters do not
have propagation delays, which
limits their use in high-frequency
applications.
2. low-frequency applications are
limited because of internal
One of the major drawbacks to the use of asynchronous propagation delays
counters is that: 3. Asynchronous counters do not
have major drawbacks and are
suitable for use in high- and low-
frequency counting applications
4. high-frequency applications
are limited because of internal
propagation delays
1. Hour
2. Distance
Information rate basically gives an idea about the generated 3. Second
information per _____ by source 4. Minute
If a noiseless channel bandlimited to 5 kHz is sampled every 1. 500 samples/sec

Questions Choices
2. 800 samples/sec
1msec, what will be the value of sampling frequency?
3. 1000 samples/sec
4. 250 samples/sec
1. Decibel
On which factor/s do/does the channel capacity depend/s in
the communication system? 3. Bandwidth and SNR
4. Bandwidth
1. 1
For a (6,4) block code where n = 6, k = 4 and d = 3, how

min
2. 2
many errors can be corrected by this code?
3. 0
4. 3
1. One
2. Two
In Repetition Code, how many information bit/s is/are present
in addition to n-1 parity bits? 3.
Four
4. Eight
Consider the assertions related to decoding process of cyclic 1. D,A,C,B
code. Which among the following is a correct sequence of 2.
steps necessary for the correction of errors? C,B,D,A
B. Addition of error pattern to received code word
C. Selection of error pattern corresponding to the syndrome 3. B,A,D,C
D. Preparation of table comprising error patterns and
syndromes 4. A,B,C,D
Symbols 1 and 0 are represented by pulse of equal positive 1. NRZ- Polar

and negative amplitudes is called as 2.
Questions Choices
RZ- Polar
3. NRZ- Unipolar
4. RZ- Unipolar
1. Bit error
2. interference
3.
If the spacing between received pulses deviated from its
assigned value a -------------- is introduced into the Data rate
regenerated pulse position. 4.
Jitter
3. Shannon Coding
Which one is channel coding technique? 4. Huffman coding
1. Turbo Code
Which coding technique/s exhibit/s the usability of fixed 2. Huffman
length codes? 3. Lempel Ziv
4. Convolution code
1. uniform
2. Non Uniform
The output is zero for zero input, and the idle channel noise is
correspondingly Zero 3. Mid-tread
4. Mid-riser
Which of the following combinations cannot be combined into K- 2. Diagonal corners
map groups? 3. Corners in the same row
Which one of the following is used to detect the unknown 1.
signal Coherent BPSK
2. DPSK
3.
QPSK
4.
Questions Choices
Coherent BFSK
1. twice
QPSK requires ----------------transmission bandwidth of the 2. 1/3
BPSK 3. 1/2
4. 1/4
2. Pe= ½ erfc (sqrt

Transmitted signal energy per symbol is twice the signal (Eb/2No)
energy per bit. Identify the system

1.
40 %
A carrier is amplitude modulation to depth of 40%. The

increase in power is
2. 20 %
3. 8 %
4.
16 %
1.
DSB-SC
Which of the following analog modulation scheme requires
the minimum transmitted power and minimum bandwidth? 2. AM
3. SSB
4.
VSB
1. FM
2.
AM
In FDM system used for telephone, which modulation scheme
is adopted? 3.
DSB-SC
4.
SSB
Questions Choices
1. 1
2.
0.75
In amplitude modulated system, the total power is 600W and
the power in carrier is 400W, then the modulation index is
3. c) 0.90
4.
0.5
1.
Increased by 20 kHz
2.
The modulating frequency in frequency modulation is
doubled
increased from 10 kHz to 20 kHz. The bandwidth is
3.
Halved
1. 35 kHz/V
2.
70 kHz/V
A sinusoidal 400 Hz modulating signal of 2V amplitude
3.
frequency modulates a carrier and produces 70 kHz frequency
140 kHz/V
deviation. The frequency sensitivity is given by
4.
72 kHz/V
1.
IF amplifier
Which one of the following blocks is not common in both AM 2.

and FM receiver? Mixer
3.
RF amplifier
4. Slope detector
The Nyquist sampling rate for a signal band limited 5 kHz is 1.
2.5 kHz
2. 20 kHz
3.
Questions Choices
5 kHz
4.
10 kHz
1.
White for all practical
frequencies
Johnson noise is
3.
Never white
4.
Always white
1. 101
2.
2
A system has a receiver noise resistance of 50 ohm. It is
connected to an antenna with an input resistance of 50 ohm.
3.
The noise figure of the system is
1
4.
50
1.
3 db
If the number of bits per sample in PCM system is increased
2.
from n to n + 1, then the improvement in signal to
10 db
quantization noise ratio will be
3.
6 db
4. 8db
Three analog signals, having bandwidths 1200 Hz, 600 Hz, 1.
and 600 Hz are sampled at their respective Nyquist rates, 57.6 Kbps
encoded with 12 bit words, and time division multiplexed.
The bit rate for the multiplexed signal is 2.
100 Kbps
3.
27.6 Kbps
Questions Choices
4. 10.2 Kbps
1.
FSK
The peak amplitude of one signal level is 0; the other is the 2. QPSK
same as the amplitude of the carrier frequency 3.
BPSK
4.
ASK
1.
10 Hz
13
2.
Thermal noise has a power spectral density which is quite 10 Hz
10
uniform upto frequencies in the order of 3.
10 Hz
11
4.
10 Hz12
1.
Lower power
2. High power
Which of the following is the main advantage of PCM system
3.
Lower Bandwidth
4.
Lower noise
What are the primary resources of an communication system 1.

Channel Bandwidth
2. noise
3.
power and Bandwidth
4.
Questions Choices
Transmitted Power
1.
QPSK
2. 32PSK
Which modulation technique transmits at higher data rate 3.
BPSK
4.
16-PSK
1.
1
2.
3. 4
4.
3
1.
Walsh code
2. randaom noise
3.
Which code is used to spread the signal across the places
Fast code
4.
Pseudo-noise code
Block calls held condition specified the held probability at a 1.

time period equal to an average holding time. Erlang C
2. Erlang B
a) Erlang B
b) Erlang C
c) Erlang D
d) D. Poisson
3.
Erlang D
Questions Choices
4. Poisson
1. 666
Number of channels for GSM
2. 248
3. 124
4. 333
1.
2.
It is the functional entity from which the operator monitors
Operation and Maintenance
and controls the mobile communication system.
System
3.
4. Operation and Support

System
1. fidelity
2.
The ________ of radio receiver amplify weak signal and selectivity
produce a desirable intelligence at the output speaker.
3. sensitivity 4.
reliability
1.
833
What is the number of channels of a cellular system with an
2.
allocated spectrum of 25 MHz and with a channel of 30 kHz
1000
bandwidth?
3. 666
4.
240
GSM uses what digital modulation technique? 1. GMSK

2.
GFSK
3.
QAM
Questions Choices
4.
BPSK

2.
air interface
The combination of the mobile cellular phone and the cell-site
radio equipment is known as
3.
forward link
4.
1.
TDMA
A multiple access technique used in GSM cellular system. 2.

FDMA
3.
CDMA
4. TACS
1.
Diversity
In a cellular system, ________ is used to measure the
spectrum efficiency. 2. Radio capacity
Frequency reuse
1.
935-960 MHz
The mobile-to-base station frequency assignment for GSM
2. 825-845 MHz
system is
3.
870-890 MHz
4.
890-915 MHz
The center frequency of a band-pass filter is always equal to 1.

the –3 dB frequency
Questions Choices
2. geometric average of the
critical frequencies
3.
4.
bandwidth
1. limiter
2.
comparator with a sine-wave
output
A zero-level detector is a
3.
peak detector
4.
comparator with a trip point
referenced to zero
Transmission of power to a load over a transmission line

1. 1:1
achieves optimum value when standing-wave ratio (SWR)
2. 2:1
becomes
3. 1:3
4. 1:2
The EM field and current are concentrated close to the surface 1. Ohm's effect
of the conductor. The phenomenon is called 2. Skin effect
3. Faraday's effect
1. Power/Unit area
The Poynting Vector has the dimensions of 2. Volts
3. Power
4. Volt/Unit length
An electric potential field is produced in air by point charges 1. 2.57mJ
1µc and 4µc located at (-2,1,5) and (1,3,1) respectively. The 2. 5.14mJ
energy stored in the field is 3. 10.28mJ
4. 12.5mJ
1. Gradient of V
2. Divergence of V
Laplacian of a scalar function V is 3. Gradient of the gradient of V
4. Divergence of the gradient of
V
Questions Choices
1. Is independent of the
attenuation constant.
2. Has logarithmic relationship
For an electromagnetic wave incident on a conducting with the attenuation constant
medium, the depth of penetration 3. Is directly proportional to the
4. Is inversely proportional to
the attenuation constant
2. surface integral and volume
integral
Stokes theorem relates 3. volume integral and contour
integral
4. line integral and volume
integral
1. J=0
For free space,
2. σ = 0
3. σ = infinity
4. μ =0r
In a binary PCM system, the output signal-to-quantizing-noise1. 7

ratio is to be held to a minimum of 40dB. Determine the 2. 5
number of required bits for the quantizer to satisfy the above 3. 4
requirement. 4. 8
An FM station is operating at 100 MHz. Maximum frequency 1. 10, 180kHz
deviation is 75 kHz. If the highest modulating frequency is 2. 10, 150kHz
limited to 15 kHz, find the modulation index and 3. 5, 180kHz
approximate bandwidth required by the system? 4. 5, 150kHz
In the envelope of an AM wave, given Vmax = 30 volts and 1. 0.25, 10V
Vmin = 10 volts. Determine the modulation index and 2. 0.25, 20V
message signal amplitude? 3. 0.5, 10V
4. 0.5, 20V
Radio channel used for transmission of information from the 1. Reverse Control Channel
mobile to the base station is called as 2. Reverse Voice Channel
____________________ 3. Forward Voice channel
1. Switching
The process of transferring a mobile station from one base 2. Channel Borrowing
station to another is__________ 3. Call Setup
4. Handoff
To which one of the following generations does CDMA 1. Third generation
belong? 2. Second generation
Questions Choices
3. Fourth generation
4. First generation
1. Co channel cell
The cell having the same number in the adjacent cluster using 2. Macro cell
the same set of RF channels are termed as 3. Selective Cell
4. Adjacent cell
1. Pico Cell
2. Macro Cell
The remote and sparsely populated areas will be covered by 3. Micro Cell
4.
pentagon cell
1. Power Signal
Real audio/video signal is a/an 2. Periodic Signal
3. Energy Signal
1.SDMA
The type of access used in GSM technology is 2. CDMA
3. OFDMA
4. FDMA/TDMA
Internal antenna for mobile handset is ........................... 2. Dish antenna
3. Horn antenna
4. Spiral antenna
1.Dynamic access
For real time voice transmission the suitable multiple access
type is 2. Fixed assignment based access
3. Random access
1. SDMA
In which of the following multiple access schemes, the 2. FDMA
frequency reuse concept is utilized? 3.TDMA
4. CDMA
Consider a repetition code where code words are formed by 1. 1
repeating each bit five times. What is the minimum Hamming 2. 4
distance for this code? 3. 5
4. 3
Consider a repetition code where code words are formed by 1. 4
repeating each bit five times. Suppose we wish to detect and 2. 3
correct errors in each received code word. What is the 3. 2
maximum number of bit errors that we can correct? 4. 1
Free space loss 1. does not consists of loss to due
to diffraction, reflection and
Questions Choices
niose etc.,
2. does consists of loss to due to
diffraction, reflection and niose
etc.,
3. reflection loss due to tall
buildings
1. 350
Suppose we sample a signal at frequency Fs. If we collect 2. 400
1500 samples in 5 seconds, what is Fs in Hz? 3. 300
4. 4500
1. voltage
Which is the higher gain provided by a C-E configuration? 2. Power
3. current
4. resistance
1. Good conductor
If wet soil has σ = 10 mho/m, ε = 15, μ = 1, f = 60 Hz, it is a 2. semiconductor
-2
r r
3. good dielectric
1. semi conductor
A dielectric material must be 2. insulator
3. resistor
4. good conductor
1.width of line is large 2.width of
Conductor loss in Microstrip line will be less if line small 3.height of substrate is
more 4.height of substrate is less
1. 2.26 x 10 F/m
-9
The electric susceptibility of a dielectric is 4, its permittivity

2. 4.42 x 10 F/m
-7
is
3. 5 F/m
4. 1.26 x 10 F/m
-3
The bit sequence 0010 is serially entered (right-most bit first) 1. 0000
into a 4-bit parallel out shift register that is initially clear. What 2. 0010
are the Q outputs after two clock pulses? 3. 1000
4. 1111
_________________ and _______________________ 1. ampere, Helmholtz
equations are necessary in a communication system to 2. Maxwell, faraday
calculate the ratio between the Rx power and TX power. 3. Nyquist, sampling
4. Friss, radar range
Using four cascaded counters with a total of 16 bits, how 1.25,536 2.65,536 3.50,000
many states must be deleted to achieve a modulus of 50,000 4.15,536
Synchronous construction reduces the delay time of a counter 1.a single gate 2.all flip-flops and
to the delay of gates after a 3 count 3.all flip-
Questions Choices
flops and gates 4.a single flip-flop
and a gate
1. 0.3 V
With a 12 V supply, a silicon diode, and a 370-ohm resistor in 2. 0.9 V
series, what voltage will be dropped across the diode? 3. 1.4 V
4. 0.7 V
Solving –11 + (–2) will yield which two's-complement 1.1111 0011 2.1111 1001 3.1110
answer? 1001 4.1110 1101
1. 90 degrees
With a half-wave rectified voltage across the load resistor, 2. 360 degrees
load current flows for what part of a cycle? 3. 180 degrees
4. 0 degrees
1. breakdown voltage
The voltage where current may start to flow in a reverse- 2. barrier potential
biased pn junction is called the _________ 3. forward voltage
4. biasing voltage
1. barrier potential
The area at the junction of p-type and n-type materials that 2. p region
has lost its majority carriers is called the _______ 3. depletion region
4. n region
When two counters are cascaded, the overall MOD number is 1.Reciprocal 2.Log 3.Sum
equal to the ________ of their individual MOD numbers 4.Product
1. integrator
A triangular-wave oscillator can consist of an op-amp 2. amplifier
comparator, followed by __________ 3. differentiator
4. multivibrator
1. 7
How many flip-flops are required to produce a divide-by-128 2. 1
device? 3. 4
4. 6
1. 50 Hz
If the ac supply is 50 Hz, what will be the ripple frequency 2. 100 Hz
out of the full-wave rectifier? 3. 60 Hz
4. 120 Hz
The wavelength of visible light extends from 1.
0.8 to 1.0 nm
2.
400 to 750 nm
3.
200 to 660 nm
4.
Questions Choices
700 to 1200 nm
1. high-pass
A ________ filter significantly attenuates all frequencies 2. band-stop
below fc and passes all frequencies above fc. 3. band-pass
4. low-pass
1. F=AC+AD
Use Boolean algebra to find the most simplified SOP 2.
expression for F = ABD + ABC +
CD
F = ABD + CD +ACD + ABC + ABCD.
3. F = CD + AD
4. F = BC + AB
1. Integrator
Another name for a unity gain amplifier is 2. Inverting Amplifier
3. Differentiator
4. Voltage follower
1. A-m
What is the unit of magnetic charge?
2. Ampere
3. A-m 2
4. Coulomb
1. 4
How many exclusive-NOR gates would be required for an 8- 2. 6
bit comparator circuit? 3. 8
4. 10
To operate properly, a transistor's base-emitter junction must 1. collector-emitter
be forward biased with reverse bias applied to which 2. collector-base
junction? 3. base-emitter
4. base-collector
1. the upper trigger point.
To reduce the effects of noise resulting in erratic switching of 2. hysteresis.
output states of a comparator, you can use 3. nonzero-level detection.
1. 4
For a 4-bit twisted ring counter, the maximum no of states possible 2. 2
are: 3. 8
4. 16
1. 16
For a 8-bit ring counter, the maximum no of states possible 2. 8
are : 3. 4
4. 2
A ripple counter's speed is limited by the propagation delay 1. each flip-flop
of: 2. all flip-flops and gates
3. the flip-flops only with gates
Questions Choices
2. input clock pulses are not used
to activate any of the counter
Synchronous counters eliminate the delay problems stages
encountered with asynchronous (ripple) counters because the:
d) input clock pulses are applied
only to the last stage .
only to the first and last stages.
1. a
The simplification of Boolean expression (a'bc')'+(ab'c)' is 2. bc
3. 0
4. 1
1. 450
2.
200
The voltage across R and L in a series RL circuit is found to
be 200 V and 150 V respectively. The rms value of the voltage
3.
across the series combination is __ V
250
4.
360
What is the major factor for determining whether a medium is 1. Attenuation Constant
free space, lossless dielectric, 2. Loss tangent
lossydielctriclossydielctriclossydielctriclossydielctriclossy 3. Complex permittivity
dielctric or good conductor? 4. Reflection Coefficient.
1. V CC
With a PNP circuit, the most positive voltage is probably 2. ground

______ 3. V C
4. V BE
1. fixed resistor
A transistor may be used as a switching device or as a ______ 2. variable resistor
3. tuning device
4. rectifier
In sky wave propagation, the shortest distance covered by the 1. Line of sight
single frequency untouched to the ground is called 2. skip distance
as_____________. 3. transmitted distance
Questions Choices
1. emitter voltage
When a silicon diode is forward biased, what is V for a C-E 2. voltage-divider bias
BE
configuration? 3. 0.4 V
4. 0.7 V
1. 1.05
What is the current gain for a common-base configuration 2. 16.80
where I = 4.2 mA and I = 4.0 mA?
E C
3. 0.95
4. 0.20
1.
2.
Which of the following is not the condition for existence of minima and maxima
Fourier transform 3.
discontinuous points
4.
1. 8 kHz.
2.
7.8 kHz.
A T-section low pass filter has series inductor 80 mH and
shunt capacitance 0.022μF. What is the cut-off frequency?
3.
7.58 kHz.
4.
7 kHz.
1. 10 s
-6
2. 15 Hours
The Relaxation time of mica (σ = 10 mho/m, ε =6) is
-15
r 3.
5x 10 s -10
4. 5 Hours
1. 15 N
The force between two charges is 120 N. If the distance 2. 30 N
between the charges is doubled, the force will be 3. 40 N
4. 60 N
1. 8.75
In a certain CS amplifier, V = 3.2 V and V = 280mV . The 2. 1
DS rms GS rms
voltage gain is 3. 3.2

4. 11.4
Given field A = 3x yz a + x z a + (x y – 2z) a , it can be said 1. Divergenceless
2
x
3
y
3
z
Questions Choices
2. Harmonic
that A is
3. Conservative
4. Solenoidal
1. the unity-gain cut-off frequency
fT
An increase in the base recombination of a BJT will increase 2. the common emitter dc current
gain β
3. the transconductance g m
4. the breakdown voltage BV CEO
The potential which exists in a p-n junction to cause drift of 2. diffusion potential
charge carriers is called ___ 3. ionisation potential
1. surface volume
Divergence theorem is applicable for a ____ that is bounded 2. line, surface
by a ________. 3. volume, surface
4. surface, line
1. 15a mA/m
x
Plane y = 0 carries a uniform current of 30a mA/m. At

z
(1,10,-2), the magnetic field intensity is ______ 2. 15a mA/m

y
3. -15a mA/m
y
4. -15a mA/m
x
1. sometimes curved
2. always straight
The lines of force due to charged particles are 3.not straight
4. always curved
Most of the electrons in the base of an NPN transistor flow 2. into the base supply
3. into the emitter
The electric field at a point situated at a distance d from
3. inversely proportional to H
straight charged conductor is
4.
proportional to H
The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding 1. Gauss's law
charges is equal to the amount of the charge enclosed". The 2. Maxwell's first law
above statement is associated with 3. Coulomb's square law
4. Maxwell's second law
Questions Choices
The phenomenon of an uncharged body getting charged 1. chemical effect
merely by the nearness of a charged body is known as 2. magnetic effect
3. pholoelectric effect
4. induction
1. Increases with decreasing band
gap
2. Increases with increase in
The diffusion potential across a PN junction doping concentrations
3. Decreases with increasing
doping concentration
4. Does not depend on doping
concentration
1.curl
Electric displacement is a______quantity. 2. vector
3. scalar
4. divergenceless
1. 3
The magnetic field intensity (in A/m ) at the centre of a 2. 4
circular coil of diameter 1 metre and carrying current of 2 A is 3. 2
4. 8
1. The edge of the depletion
region on N side
In a P N junction diode under reverse bias, the magnitude of 2. The centre of the depletion
+
electric field is maximum at region on the N side

3. The P N junction
+
4. The edge of the depletion

region on P side
2’s complement representation of a 16 bit number (one sign 1. 1
bit and 15 magnitude bits) is FFFF. Its magnitude in decimal 2. 65535
representation is 3. 32767
4. 0
1. infinity
In a dielectric-conductor boundary (interface), the tangential 2.
component of electric field is E t
3. zero
4. 2E t
1. 7865
No of ripple counter IC is 2. 7654
3. 7492
4. 7493
The intrinsic impedance of free space is 1. 75 ohm
2. 73 ohm
3. 120 ohm
Questions Choices
4. 377ohm
Which of the following is NOT associated with a PN 2. Depletion capacitance
junction? 3. Channel length modulation
1. Multiplexer
A combinational logic circuit which generates a particular 2. Decoder
binary word or number is 3. Date Selector
4. Data Distributor
1. 10010
Convert BCD 0001 0111 to binary. 2. 11000
3. 10001
4. 10101
Laplacian of a Scalar function F is 1. gradient of F
3. divergence of F
A silicon PN junction is forward biased with a constant 1. Increases by 60 mV
current at room temperature. When the temperature is 2. Decreases by 60 mV
increased by 10 C, the forward bias voltage across the PN
o
junction 4. Decreases by 25 mV
1. maximum
Electric Flux inside a conducting sphere is
2. zero
3. uniform
4. minimum
2. Forward bias constant current
A Zener diode when used in voltage stabilization circuits, is mode
biased in 3. Reverse breakdown region
4. Reverse bias region below the
breakdown voltage
1. Resistance and capacitance in
series
For small signal ac operation, a practical forward biased diode 2. Ideal diode and resistance in
can be modeled as parallel
3. Resistance
4. Resistance and ideal diode in
series
1. 6
counter 3. 3
4. 4
Questions Choices
The depth of penetration of a wave in a lossy dielectric 1. permeability
increase with increasing 2. conductivity
3. wavelength
4. permittivity
1. Filters
In which of the following are operational amplifiers (op-amps) 2. Instrumentation circuits
used? 3. Oscillators
4. All of the above
2. a balanced line
The parallel wire transmission line is an example of 3. lossy line
4.lossless
1. α=0, β≠0
2. α≠0, β≠0
For lossless line 3. α=0, β=0
4. α≠0, β=0
1. Base emitter junction is in

forward biased, and base collector
junction is reverse biased
2. Both the junctions are
A BJT is said to be operating in the saturation region, if forward biased
3. Base emitter junction is in
reverse biased, and base collector
junction is forward biased
4. Both the junctions are reverse
biased
1. (R + jωL)(G + jωC)
The characteristic impedances Z of a transmission line is
0
2. (R+ jωL) / (G +jω C)
2
given by, (where R, L, G, C are the unit length parameters)

3. [(R+ jωL)/ (G +jω C)] 1/2
4. (R + jωL)/(G + jωC)
1. (Z - 1)/ (Z +1 )
s s
The reflection coefficient over the normalized Z l

2. (Z + 1)/ (Z -1 )
l l
3. (Z - 1)/ (Z +1 )
l l
4.0
1. less than 1
In the left half of the Smith chart, the resistance and reactance 2. 2
values are
3. more than 1
4. Zero
Questions Choices
If a transistor is operating with both of its junctions forward 1. Reverse saturation mode
biased, but with the collector base forward bias greater than 2. Reverse active mode
the emitter base forward bias, then it is operating in the 3. Forward active mode
4. Forward saturation mode
A long transmission line is energized at then sending end and 1. Vs is greater than Vr
is kept open circuited at the receiving end. The magnitudes of 2. Vs is less than Vr
the sending end voltage Vs and of the receiving end voltage
Vr satisfy the following relationship: 3.0
4. Vs =Vr
1. 40 ohms
The surge impedance of a double-circuit power transmission 2. 800 ohms
line is 3. 400 ohms
4. 200 ohms
The current gain of a bipolar transistor drops at high 2. The Early Effect
frequencies because of 3. High current effects in the base
1. Temperature
2. Doppler effect
The velocity factor of a transmission line depends on 3. skin effect
4. Relative permittivity of
dielectric
1.parallel wire
Which of the following lines is non-radiating? 2. waveguide
3. Open two wire

4. Coaxial
1. It has better drive capability
In MOSFET devices, the N-channel type is better than the P- 2. It is TTL compatible
channel type in the following respects 3. It has better noise immunity
4. It is faster
1. Inductance
2. L and C in series
A quarter wave line open circuited at far end behaves as 3. Capacitance
1. Drain voltage
The effective channel length of a MOSFET in saturation 2. Body voltage
decreases with increase in 3. Source voltage
4. Gate voltage
Questions Choices
1. there will be only 1 or 2
2. the oscillations will continue
A line is excited by a 100 V dc source. If reflection indefinitely
coefficients at both ends are 1 each then 3. there will be a finite number of
4. there will be no oscillations on

line
1.
1.8 a mV/m ρ
An infinite length of uniform line charge has ρl = 10pC/m 2.

and it lies along the z axis. Determine the electric field E 180 a mV/m ρ
at (4, 3, 3)
3. 18 a mV/mρ
4. 280 a mV/m
ρ
1. unaffected
The bandwidth of an amplifier is _________ by a negative 2. attenuated
feedback 3. maintained
4. augmented
1.
45 V
A point charge, Q = 10nC is at the origin. The estimated
2. 50 V
potential difference at A (1,0,0) with respect to B (2,0,0) is
3.
30 V
4. -45 V
1. at the bottom edge of the load
line
When the input is symmetrical, to operate the BJT in active 2. can be chosen any where on the
region, the quiescent point is chosen load line
3. at the centre of the load line
1.
1 If the flux density is 10 Wb/ m and the area of the
2
1 Wb
coil is 2m , the flux is
2
2. 20 Wb
3.
10 Wb
Questions Choices
4. 40 Wb
1. 120 πΩ
The intrinsic impedance of the medium whose σ = 0, ε = 9,
r
μ = 1 is
r
2. 9Ω
3. 60 πΩ
4. 40 πΩ
AC load line is also known as ________ 2. quiescent load line
4. active load line
1. B1n X B2n=0
2.
Boundary conditions for normal component in magnetostatic B1n /B2n
field is
3. B1n=B2n
4.
B1n+B2n
1. Perpendicular to the lines and
attractive.
Two thin parallel wires are carrying current along the same 2. Parallel to the lines
direction. The force experienced by one due to other is 3. Perpendicular to the line and
repulsive
4. Zero
The electric flux density on a spherical surface r=b is the 1. It will be higher
same for a point charge Q located at the origin and for the 2. Not necessarily
charge Q uniformly distributed on surface r=a (a<b)< p="" 3. No
style="box-sizing: border-box;"></b)<> 4. yes
2. Each codeword contains 4
For a (8, 4 ,3) block code, which one of the following message bits
statements is incorrect? 3. We can detect and correct 1 bit
errors
1. 10 m
The wavelength of a wave with a propagation constant = 0.1π
2. 25 m
+ j 0.2π
3. 30 m
4. 20 m
The Poynting Vector physically denotes the power density 1. Not always true
leaving or entering a given volume in a time varying field.
2. True
Questions Choices
3. false
2. Magnetic flux lines are always
Which one of these statements is not characteristic of static
closed.
magnetic field:
3. It is solenoidal
1.
N-C
The unit of Electric Field is 2. N
3.
C/N
4. N/C
1. 3
2. 7
Given A = -6a + 3 a + 2 a , the projection of A along a is
x y z y
3. -12
4. -3
1. -360π a
Plane z = 10m carries charge 20nC/m . The electric Field
z
2
2. -10a V/m
intensity at the origin is
z
3. -18π a V/m z
4. -72π a V/m z
1. D=εE
Of the following,the incorrect relation is 2. B=μH
3. J=σE
4. B=μD
1. Concept of scalar electric
potential
2. Concept of vector magnetic
Which of the concepts is used to find the expression of related potential
E and H field due to a magnetic current element? 3. Concept of scalar magnetic
potential
4. Concept of vector electric
potential
1. 8
The minimum number of comparators required to build a 8- 2. 255
bit flash type ADC is 3. 256
4. 63
Questions Choices
If each character in a 45 character text message is encoded 1. 420
using an 8-bit ASCII code, how many bits would be required 2. 360
to encode the entire message? 3. 440
4. 480
1. The excess charge on a
conductor doesn't reside.
conductor resides on its outer
Under electrostatic conditions where does the excess charge surface
lies? 3. The excess charge on a
conductor resides on its inner
surface
conductor resides in its middle
surface
Consider a system that uses 8-bit ASCII codes to encode
letters. How long will it take to transmit the bit sequence 1. 384
encoding "Good Morning" (not including quotation marks) if 2. 484
we use a bit time of 4 samples per bit, and transmit samples at 3. 300
a rate of 1MHz? Represent the answer in micro seconds. 4. 458
1. Constant imag characteristic

impedance
A distortion less line has 2. vanishing attenuation constant
4.high G
1. 10
What is VSWR for short-circuited transmission lines 2. 5
3. 1
4. infinity
1. Left of the smith chart is open
circuit end
2. VSWR at centre of smith chart
Which statement is false for Admittance smith chart. is 2
3. Right of the smith chart is short
circuit end
4. Reflection coefficietn at centre
of smith chart is 1
For the transfer function given below find the gain at very low 1.
frequencies (assume DC).
100
2.
0
Questions Choices
3.
10
4.
1
Consider a repetition code where code words are formed by
repeating each bit five times. Suppose we receive the following
bitstream. 1. 01010110
2. 11010110
0000011110000111111011000111001111000001 3. 01010111
If we assume that we can both detect and correct errors, what 4. 01010100
was the original bit stream?
1. TM10 and TE10
Which mode is known as dominant mode for Rectangular 2. TM10
waveguide 3. TM11
4. TE10
1.
Microstrip line
3. Microstrip line and Stripline
Both
1. 1 to infinity
What is the theoretical range of VSWR 2. 0 to 1
4. -1 to 1
1. 0 to 1
What is the range of magnitude of reflection coefficient due to 2. 1 to infinity
passive load 3. 0.5 to 1
4. 0 to infinity
In a GSM system, eight channels co-exist in 200 kHz
bandwidth using TDMA. A GSM based cellular operator is 1. 40
allocated 5 MHz bandwidth. Assuming a frequency reuse 2. 100
factor of 1/5 (five-cell repeat pattern), the maximum of 3. 50
simultaneous channels that can exist in one cell is 4. 200
What is the highest frequency content of a triangle 1.

wave of 30-V peak-to-peak amplitude that can be 250 kHz, 6.37 V
exactly reproduced by an op amp whose slew rate 2.
is 10 V/µs? Also For a sine wave of the same 146 kHz, 5.45 V
frequency what is the maximum amplitude of output
signal that remain un-distorted? 3.
300 KHz, 3.54 V
Questions Choices
4.
167 KHz, 9.53 V

Which of the matching network is having higher bandwidth 2. Single stub shunt matching
for a given load. 3. Single stub series matching
1.
100 kHz
2.
A 741 op-amp has a gain bandwidth product of 1 MHz. A non inverting 300 kHz
amplifier using this op-amp and having a voltage gain of 40 dB will
exhibit a 3 dB bandwidth of how much? 3.
10 kHz
4.
500 kHz
An additive white Gaussian process X(t) is passed through an 1. 10 N 6

0
ideal bandpass filter of center frequency 100 MHz and 2. 2 x 10 N 6

0
bandwidth 2 MHz. Let X(t) have a power spectral density of 3. N 0
N /2 and the output of BPF is P(t). The variance of P(t) is

0
4. N /2
0
1.
High Pass Filter
The op- amp circuit shown below is a certain class of filter. Find the type of 2.
the filter Low Pass Filter
3.
Band Reject Filter
4.
Band Pass filter
Diversity technique is a method for improving which of the 1. All are Correct
following message signal by utilizing two or more 2. Reliability
communication channels with different characteristics? 3. Error detection capability
1.
25.53 mV
An amplifier using an op-amp with a slew rate of 1V/µ has a gain of 60 dB. If 2.
the amplifier has to faithfully amplify the sinusoidal signals from DC to 40 3.98 mV
KHz without introduced any slew rate induced distortion, then the input signal
must not exceed what value?
3.
34.4 mV
4.
32.89 mV
A rate 1/2 convolution code with d = 10 is used to encode a 1. 7 dB

frec
Questions Choices
data requeence occurring at a rate of 1 kbps. The modulation 2. 12 dB
is binary PSK. The DS spread spectrum sequence has a chip 3. 14 dB
rate of 10 MHz. The coding gain is 4. 24 dB
1. the lower the modulating
power required
One of the advantages of base modulation over collector 2. high power output per transistor
modulation of a transistor class C amplifier 3. better efficiency
4. better linearity
1. it is more noise immune than
other modulation system
2. compared with other system it
requires less transmitting power
Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because 3. its use avoids receiver
complexity
4. no other modulation system can
provide the necessary bandwidth
for high fidelity
In a CD player, the sampling rate is 44.1 kHz and the samples 1. 1.39 x 10 9
are quantized using a 16-bit/sample quantizer. The resulting 2. 4.23 x 10 9
number of bits for a piece of music with a duration of 50 3. 8.46 x 10 9
minutes is 4. 12.23 x 10 9
A receiver is operated at a temperature of 300 K. The 1. 1.8 µV

transistor used in the receiver has an average output resistance 2. 12.6 µV
of 1 kΩ. The Johnson noise voltage for a receiver with a 3. 4.3 µV
bandwidth of 200 kHz is 4. 0.8 µV
2. superimposing a low
Amplitude modulation is the process of frequency on a high frequency
3. superimposing a high frequency
on a low frequency
1. Impulse Noise
One of the following types of noise becomes a great 2. Shot Noise
importance at high frequencies 3. Transit Time Noise
4. Random Noise
1. Unchanged
The value of the resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. 2. Halved
The noise power generated is therefore 3. Quadrupled
4. Doubled
Indicate the noise whose source is in a category different from 1. Galactic Noise
that of the other three 2. Cosmic Noise
Questions Choices
3. Atmospheric Noise
4. Solar Noise
Which of the following is the most reliable measurement for 2. Shot Noise
comparing amplifier noise characteristics? 3. Signal to Noise ratio
4. Noise Factor
1. Increase by 50%
The modulation index of an AM is changed from 0 to 1. The 2. Unchanged
transmitted power is 3. Halved
4. Doubled
1. the carrier frequency cannot
disappear
2. the total number of side-bands
not depend on the modulation
index
In the spectrum of a frequency modulated wave 3. the carrier frequency disappears
when the modulation index is
large
4. the amplitude of any sideband
depends on the modulation
index
1.
4.5 kOhm
For the given circuit below for the cut off frequency of 3 kHz find the 2.
value of R2 10.61 kOhm
3.
3.4 kOhm
4.
1.9 kOhm
1.
1000 rad/sec
2.
2000 rad/sec
3.
200 rad/sec
4.
100 rad/sec
An amplifier for which design was done with A =100 and β=0.01 is 1.
manufactured using an amplifier with half the intended gain. Find the 55.25%
sensitivity of the closed loop to open loop gain in dB?
2.
70%
Questions Choices
3.
13%
4.
67%
1.
2.
ROC is right side of right most
Which of the following is not the property of Region of pole if x(t) is causal
convergence 3.
4.
ROC is left side of left most pole
if x(t) is anti causal
1. Frequency multiplications must
be used
Indicate the false statement regarding the Armstrong 2. AFC is not needed, as the
modulation system crystal oscillator is used
3. the system is basically phase
and not frequency modulation
1.
2.
x(t) - x(t-1)
3.
accumulating x(t)
4.
x(t) + x(t+1)
1. is too great to make the two
system compatible
2. is purely theoretical because
The difference between the phase and frequency modulation they are the same in practice
3. lies in the different definitions
of the modulation index
4. lies in the poorer audio response
of the phase modulation
The Fourier transform of the exponential signal e t is
jω
0 1. an impulse
2. a constant
Questions Choices
When the modulating frequency is doubled, the modulation 1. Frequency Modulation
index is halved, and the modulating voltage remains constant. 2.phase shift keying modulation 3.
The modulation system is Phase Modulation
The unit impulse response of a linear time invariant system is 1. 1-e
-at
the unit step function u(t). For t>0, the response of the system 2. a(1-e )
-at
to an excitation e u(t), a>0, will be

-at 3. ae
-at
4. (1-e )/a-at
1. inadequate selectivity at high

frequencies
Indicate the false statement. The super heterodyne receiver 2. insufficient gain and
replaced the TRF receiver because the latter suffered from sensitivity
3. gain variation over the
frequency coverage range
4. instability
1. is not rejected by the IF tuned
circuits
2. is due to insufficient adjacent
The image frequency of a super heterodyne receiver channel rejection
3. is created within the receiver
itself
4. is independent of the frequency
to which the receiver is tuned
1. to help the image frequency
rejection
The local oscillator of a broadcast receiver is tuned to a 3. to allow adequate frequency
frequency higher that the incoming frequency coverage without switching
4. because otherwise an
intermediate frequency could not
be produced
1. the local oscillator need to be
extremely stable
If the intermediate frequency is very high (indicate the false 2. image frequency rejection is
statement) very good
dy(t)/dt + 2ty(t) = t x(t) is for a
2
1. linear, time varying, dynamic
system
2. linear system
3. linear, time varying, static
Questions Choices
system
1. 1/n m
If a signal x(t) is differentiated ‘m’ times to produce an 2. 1/n m-1
impulse then its Fourier coefficients will be proportional to, 3. n m-1
4. nm
The signals x (t) and x (t) are both band limited to (-ω , +ω ) 1. (ω + ω )/2
1 2 1 1
1 2
and (-ω , +ω ) respectively. The Nyquist sampling rate for the 2. 2ω if ω < ω
2 2
2 1 2
signal x (t)x (t) will be

1 2
3. 2ω if ω > ω
1 1 2
4. 2(ω + ω ) 1 2
1.
overflow
Most significant bit of arithmetic addition is called
2. Carry
3. Output
4. Zero Bit
1. Digital counter
Which of the following circuit can be used as parallel to serial 2. Decoder
converter ? 3. Demultiplexer
4. Multiplexer
A band pass signal extends from 1KHz to 2 KHz. The 1. 2 KHz
minimum sampling frequency needed to retain all information 2. 1 KHz
in the sampled signal is 3. 4 KHz
4. 3 KHz
1. Cp = AB
The carry propagation can be expressed as 2. Cp = A + B
3. Cp = A^B
4. Cp = A+B'
1. 1000
A MOD-16 ripple counter is holding the count 1001 . What 2. 1010
2
will the count be after 31 clock pulses? 3. 1001

4. 1011
1. A > B = 1, A B = 0, A B = 1, A B = 0, A < B = 1, A = B = 1
1. 40 μs
With a 200 kHz clock frequency, eight bits can be serially 2. 400 μs
entered into a shift register in 3. 40 ms
4. 4 μs
A 4-bit up/down binary counter is in the DOWN mode and in the 1. 1101
1100 state. To what state does the counter go on the next clock 2. 1011
pulse? 3. 1111
Questions Choices
4. 0000
1. 4 cos(20t+3)+3 sin(10t)
Choose the function f(t), -∞<t<+∞, for which a Fourier 2. exp(-|t|)sin(25t)
series cannot be defined 3. 3 sin(25t)
4. 1
1.
AND-OR gates
Code conversion circuits mostly uses 2. AND gates
3. OR gates
4. XOR gates
1. G(f) is real
If G(f) represents the Fourier transform of a signal g(t) which 2. G(f) is complex
is real and odd symmetric in time, then 3. G(f) is imaginary
1. |z| > 1
The ROC of the sequence x(n) = u(-n) is, 2. |z| < 1
3. No ROC
4. -1 < |z| < 1
In a 2-terminal network containing at least one inductor and
1.purely resistive 2.purely
one capacitor, resonance condition exists only when the input
reactive 3.infinite 4.finite
impedance of the network is:
The Q-factor of a parallel resonance circuit consisting of an
inductance of value 1mH,capacitance of value 10^-5 F and a 1.1 2.10 3.20 4.100
resistance of 100 ohms is
1. unstable system
An LTI system with impulse response, h(n) = (-a) u(n) and –a 2. stable system
n
< -1 will be, 3. anticausal system

What is the ROC of the Z-transform of x(n) = -(0.5) u(-n-1) + 2. |z| > 0.8
n
(0.2) u(n) + (0.8) u(n)?

n n
3. |z| < 0.5
4. |z|> 0.5 and |z| < 0.8
1. 1
Fourier transform of unit impulse at origin is 2. 0
3. infinity
4. undefined
The property of Fourier Transform which states that the 1. Frequency Shifting
compression in time domain is equivalent to expansion in the 2. Scaling
frequency domain is 3. Time Scaling
4. Duality
The trigonometric Fourier series of an even function of time does 1. Sine term
Questions Choices
2. Cosine term
not contain 3. Odd harmonic term
4. DC term
1. Digital image
Continuous functions are sampled to form a 2. Fast Fourier series
4. Fourier series
Sum of many infinitely many periodic impulses is called 2. periodic impulse
3. impulse train
4. summation
1. accentuated
To reduce effect of aliasing, high frequencies are 2. attenuated
3. removed
4. reduced
1. antihermition
If ƒ(x,y) is imaginary, then its Fourier transform is 2. hermition
3. symmetry
Any function whose Fourier transform is zero for frequencies 2. Low pass function
outside finite interval is called 3. Band limited function
1. finite
Forward and inverse Fourier transforms exist for samples having 2. discrete
values 3. infinite
4. integers
1. contracted
Greater, values of continuous variables, spectrum of Fourier 2. discrete
transform will be 3. continuous
4. expanded
Impulse has property called 2. additive property
4. additive inverse
Sampled frequency less than nyquist rate is called 2. nyquist sampling
3. under sampling
4. over sampling
1. aliasing
Effect caused by under sampling is called 2. summation
3. sharpening
4. smoothing
Questions Choices
1. ringing effect
Most common example of temporal aliasing is 2. image sharpening
4. blurring
absolutely multipliable
Which among the following assertions represents a necessary 2. Discrete time signal should be
condition for the existence of Fourier Transform of discrete time absolutely differentiable
signal (DTFT)? 3. Discrete time signal should be
absolutely integrable
absolutely summable
1. Cosine waves
Which are the only waves that correspond/ support the 2. Triangular waves
measurement of phase angle in the line spectra? 3. Square waves
4. Sine waves
1. Possess an odd & even symmetry
respectively
Double-sided phase & amplitude spectra _____ 2. Both possess an odd symmetry
respectively
Which type/s of Fourier Series allow/s to represent the negative 1. Exponential Fourier Series
frequencies by plotting the double-sided spectrum for the analysis 2. Trigonometric Fourier Series
of periodic signals ? 3. All types specified
Which phenomenon occurs due to an increase in the channel 1. Expansion in frequency domain
bandwidth during the transmission of narrow pulses in order to 2. Compression in frequency domain
avoid any intervention of signal distortion? 3. Compression in time domain
Which among the below assertions is precise in accordance to
the effect of time scaling ?
A : Inverse relationship exists between the time and frequency
domain representation of signal
3. Both A & B are false
B : A signal must be necessarily limited in time as well as
frequency domains
What is the nature of Fourier representation of a discrete & 2. Continuous & aperiodic
aperiodic signal? 3. Discrete & periodic
What are the number of samples present in an impulse response 1. length
called as? 2. string
Questions Choices
3. array
4. element
A parallel plate capacitor of 5pf capacitance has a charge of 1. 1mJ
0.1µC on its plates. What is the energy stored in the 2. 1 nJ
Capacitor? 3. 1pJ
4. 1µJ
For a series R-C circuit excited by a d-c voltage of 10V, and
1.10(1-e^-1) V 2.10-e^-1 V
with time-constant t, s, the voltage across C at time t = t is
3.10(1-e) V 4.1-e^-1 V
given by
1.Vm/2 2.1.414 Vm 3.2Vm
The rms value of the sinusoidal wave is given by__
4.vm/1.414
The average power in the RL circuit is ______ the average 1.Equal to 2.Greater than 3.lesser
power in a pure resistive circuit than 4.greater or equal to
1.0 2.1 3.Between 0 and 1 4.>1
1.v2 leads v1 by -75 2.v1 leads v2
v1(t)=20 cos(wt+30),v2=30 sin(wt+45) by 75 3.v2 leads v1 by 15 4.v1
leads v2 by 15
When a circuit is in resonance,the impedance of the circuit
1.XC 2.2R 3.XL 4.R
is_____
2.voltage lags the current 3.current
In a pure inductive circuit, and voltage are in phase 4.no
voltage
1.current and voltage are in phase
2.voltage lags the current
In a pure capacitive circuit, 3.voltage leads the current 4.no
voltage
1. I = y V + y V and I = y V +
1 11 1 12 2 2 21 1
yV
22 2
The defining equations for analyzing a two-port network in 2. V = z I + z I and V = z I +

1 11 1 12 2 2 21 1
terms of its impedance (z) parameters are: zI

22 2
3. V = h I + h V and I = h I +
1 11 1 12 2 2 21 1
hV
22 2
4. V = t V − t I and I = t V − t I
1 11 2 12 2 1 21 2 22 2
The defining equations for analyzing a two-port network in 1. I = y V + y V and I = y V +

1 11 1 12 2 2 21 1
terms of its admittance (y) parameters are: yV

22 2
Questions Choices
2. V = z I + z I and V = z I +
1 11 1 12 2 2 21 1
zI
22 2
3. V = t V − t I and I = t V − t I
1 11 2 12 2 1 21 2 22 2
4. V = h I + h V and I = h I +
1 11 1 12 2 2 21 1
hV
22 2
1.
V = h I + h V and I = h I + h V
1 11 1 12 2 2 21 1 22 2
The defining equations for analyzing a two-port network in

terms of its transmission (t) parameters (also called the ABCD 2. V = z I + z I and V = z I +
1 11 1 12 2 2 21 1
parameters) are: zI
22 2
3. I = y V + y V and I = y V +
1 11 1 12 2 2 21 1
yV
22 2
4. V = t V − t I and I = t V −
1 11 2 12 2 1 21 2
tI
22 2
1. 5 V
A short circuit has a ________ drop across its terminals, and 2. 0 V
the current is limited only by the surrounding network. 3. Infinity
4. 1 V
3. initial movement of moving
Zero initial condition for a system means parts
4. system is at rest and no
energy is stored in any of its
components
1.
+90 degrees leading
What would be the power factor for an RLC circuit that 2.
acts inductively? one
3.
zero

What is the approximate phase angle in a series RLC 1.
circuit when V = 117 V, V = 14.5V, and V = 3.3 V?
C R L –45.0 degrees
2.
–90.0 degrees
Questions Choices
3.
-82.7 degrees
4. –172.7 degrees
1. The larger of the two
reactance is dominant
2.
Resistance is always dominant
Which statement best describes reactance in a series RLC
circuit? 3.
dominant
4.
Capacitive reactance is always
dominant
1. 1/10s
The impedance of a 10-F capacitor is: 2. 10/s
3. s/10
4. 10s
1. True
We can usually obtain the Thevenin equivalent in the time 2. False
domain. 3. Some times
1. R = R (1 + Q ) and X = X (1 +
p s
1
p s
Q)
−1
2. R = R (1 + Q ) and X = X (1 +
p s
3
p s
A series resonant circuit and a parallel resonant circuit are Q)

−3
equivalent if 3. R = R (1 + Q ) and X = X (1 +
p s
2
p s
Q) −2
4. R = R (1 - Q ) and X = X (1 -
p s
2
p s
Q)
−2
1.
5
A circuit which has ω0 = 10 rad / sec (ω = resonant
6
0
2. 1
frequency) C = 10 pF and Q = 100, must have a resistance 3.
of ___________ kΩ. 10
4.
100
When port 1 of a two-port circuit is short-circuited, I =
1 1.
Questions Choices
y = 16 21
2.
4I and V = 0.25I . Which of the following is true?
2 2 2 y = 16
12
3.
y =4 11
4. y = 0.25
22
1. B = 50
2.
A two-port is described by the following equations: V = 1
h = 0.5 12
50I + 10I V = 30I +20I then which of the following is

1 2, 2 1 2
not true? 3.
Z = 10 12
4.
y = −0.0143
12
1.
h =h 21 12
If a two-port is reciprocal, which of the following is not

true? 2. AD = BC + 1
3.
y =y 21 12
4.
z =z 21 12
1.
Economical
The circuits in homes are connected in parallel rather than 2. easy to do
series because it is 3. possible to get same current
4.
1. 0.8
2.
A current of 4 A flows in an AC circuit when 100 V DC is 0.6
applied to it whereas it takes 250 V AC to produce the
same current the power factor of the circuit is 3.
0.4
4.
1
Questions Choices
2.
4.
is at resonance
1.
5.08 A
A series circuit consists of R = 20 Ω, L = 20 mH, and AC
supply 60 V with f = 100 Hz. The current in R is 2. 10.16 A
3.
1.27 A
4.
2.54 A
1.
200 A.
If the percentage reactance of an element is 20 % and the
full load current is 50 A, the short circuit current will be 2.
300 A.
3.
250 A.
4. 350 A
1. 125 pF
2.
1000 pF.
For the resonance circuit ω0 = 105, Q = 50, R = 400 Ω the
value of C is
3.
250 pF.
4.
500 pF.
A practical DC current source provides 20 kW to a 50 Ω load 1. 22.5 kW
and 20 kW to a 200 Ω load. The maximum power that can 2.
draw from it is 30.3 kW
3.
Questions Choices
40 kW
4.
45 kW
1.
34.98 V
What is the Vs for a series RLC Circuit when I = 3 mA, VL = 2. 48.00 V

T
30V, VC = 18V, and R =1KΩ 3.

3.00 V
4.
12.37 V
1.
1.05 A
How much current will flow in a 100 Hz series RLC 2.
circuit if V = 20 V, R = 66 ohms and X = 47 ohms?
S T T
303 mA
3. 107 mA
4.
247 mA
1. same magnitude
Resistors may be represented in the frequency domain by an 2. opposite in magnitude
impedance having the ____________ 3. complex in magnitue
1. False
The voltage through a resistor with current i(t) in the s- 2. Sometimes
domain is sRI(s). 3. Incomplete Question
4. True
1.
Z12 = Z21
2.
A 2 port network using Z parameter representation is said
Z11 = Z22
to be reciprocal if
3.
Z12 = –Z21
4. Z11Z22 – Z12Z21 = 1
Inductors may be represented in the frequency domain by an 1. 1/sL
impedance as _______________ 2. -sL
Questions Choices
3. sL
4. -1/sL
1. Li(0 ) +
If the initial current is nonzero, then the impedance must be 2. −Li(0 ) +
placed in series with a voltage source 3. −Li(0 ) −
4. Li(0 ) −
1. 1
The impulse response of a LTI system is a unit step function, 2. 1/s2
then the corresponding transfer function is 3. 1/s
4. s
1. e-3t
The final value of x(t ) = [2+ e - 3t ]u(t ) is 2. 3
3. 2
4. 0
If the Nyquist plot of the loop transfer function G(s) H(s) of a
closed-loop system 1.less than zero 2.greater than
encloses the (-1, jo) point in the G(s) H(s) plane, the gain zero 3.Zero4.infinity
margin of the system is
A system with gain margin close to unity or a phase margin 1.highly stable 2.unstable
close to zero is 3.relatively stable4.oscillatory
1. 1
Final value of X(s) = 1/(s-2) is 2. 0
3. 2
4. Infinity
1.
s = - 0.05
2.
If the gain margin of a certain feedback system is given as 20
s = - 0.2
dB, the Nyquist plot will cross the negative real axis at the point
3.
s = - 0.1
4.
s = -0.01
In force-current analogy, electrical analogous 1.

quantity for displacement (x) is voltage
2.
inductance
3.
capacitance
4.
Questions Choices
flux
1.
infinite
The open loop transfer function of a unity 2.
feedback control system is given by G(s) = 0.707
k/s(s+1). If gain k is increased to infinity, then
3.
damping ratio will tend to become
unity
4.
zero
1.
4/3
2.
Consider a network function H(s) = 2(s+3)/ 1/2
((s+2)(s+4)). What is the steady state response
due to step input? 3.
1
4.
3/4
1.
0
The open loop transfer function for unity 2.
feedback system is given by 5(1+0.1s) / 2
(s(1+5s)(1+20s)) Find the steady state error for 3.
a step input of magnitude 10 is equal to infinite
4.
5
1.
1/(s² + s + 2)
The input-output relationship of a linear time 2.
invariant continuous time system is given by r(t) 1/(s² + 3*s + 2)
= d²c(t)/dt² + 3 dc(t)/dt + 2 c(t) Where r(t) and
c(t) are input and output respectively. What is 3.
the transfer function of the system equal to? 2/(s² + 3*s + 2)
4.
2/(s² + s + 2)
Number of roots in left hand half of s plane if 1.

characteristic equation is s - 4*s + s + 6 = 0 ? 1
3 2
Questions Choices
2.
2
3.
3
4.
0
1.
1.65 sec.
The second order system is
defined by 25 / ( s + 5s +
2
25) is given step input. The

time taken for the output
The second order system is defined by 25 / ( s + to settle with in 2 % of
2
5s + 25) is given step input. The time taken for input is

the output to settle with in 2 % of input is 2.
1.2 sec.
3.
2 sec.
4.
0.4 sec.
1.
1
2.
The dc gain of a system represented by the 2
transfer function 12 / {( s + 1 )( s + 3 )} is 3.
5
4.
10
1.
an over damped.
3.
4.
a unstable.
A unity feedback control system has an open 1.

Questions Choices
4
2.
loop transfer function G(s) = k/(s(s² + 7s + 12) 6.5
The gain k for which s = -1 + j1 will lie on the 3.
root locus of the system is 5
4.
10
1.60°
The characteristic equation of a control system is
give by s(s + 4)(s² + 2s + 1) + k(s + 1) =0. 2. 360°
Find the angle between the asymptotes?
3. 120°
4.180°
1.
45°
2.
The phase margin of a system having the loop 30°
transfer function G(s)H(s) = 2√3/s(s+1) is 3.
60°
4.
80°
1.
0.707
2.
The value of 'a' to give phase margin = 45° will 1.414
be G(s) = (as+1)/s² 3.
1.18
4.
0.9
A open loop transfer function is given as G(s) = 1.

(s+2)/(s+1)(s-1). Find the number of 1
encirclements about '-1+j0'? 2.
0
3.
2
Questions Choices
4.
3
1. Causal
The system function H(z) = (z -2z +z)/(z +0.25z+0.125) is,
3 2 2 2. Unstable but causal
4. Noncausal
1.opposite polarity signals are
applied at the inputs
2.
the gain is one
In differential-mode, ……………. 3.
the outputs are of different
amplitudes
4.
1. v(0 )/s
−
If the initial voltage is nonzero, then the impedance must be 2. -v(0 )/s
−
placed in series with a voltage source ______________ 3. -v(0 )/s

+
4. v(0 )/s
+
1.Real parts of zeros 2.Poles and

A network function can be completely specified by: zeros 3.Real parts of poles
4.Poles, zeros and a scale factor
In a double tuned circuit, consisting of two magnetically 1.a peak, always 2.a dip, always
coupled, identical high-Q tuned circuits, at the resonance 3.either a peak or a dip 4.neither a
frequency of either circuit, the amplitude response has peak nor a dip
1.200 V 2.157.23 V 3.314 V
The rms value of the a-c voltage v(t) = 200 sin 314 t is:
4.141.42 V
1.correct. 2.incorrect 3.the one to
In the solution of network differential equations, the constants
be followed for finding the natural
in the complementary function have to be evaluated from the
response 4.the one to be followed
initial conditions, and then the particular integral i is to be
for finding the natural and forced
added. This procedure is
responses
1.a stable function. 2.a non-
If a network function has zeros only in the left-half of the s- minimum phase function 3.a
plane, then it is said to be minimum phase function. 4.an
all-pass function.
A network N is to be connected to load of 500 ohms. If the
Thevenin’s equivalent voltage and Norton’s equivalent current
1.10mA 2.2.5mA 3.5mA 4.1mA
of N are 5Volts and 10mA respectively, the current through
the load will be
A unit impulse voltage is applied to one port network having 1.R and L in series 2.R and L in
Questions Choices
two linear components. If the current through the network is 0
parallel 3.R and C in parallel 4.R
for t<0 and decays exponentially for t>0 then the network
and C in series
consists of
Vr=10 cos (300 t),R=5 ohms; Ir=____ 1.2/_0 2.10/_0 3.5/_0 4.60
The condition for maximum power transfer to take place in a 1.ZL=-ZTH 2.ZL=ZTH*
ac circuit is ___ 3.ZL=ZTH 4.ZL=0
Zth is 50 +30 j;what should be the load resistance connected 1.50+30 j 2.50-30 j 3.-50-30j 4.-
for maximum power transfer to take place? 50+30j
1.
Causal
2.
The system function H(z) = (z3-2z2+z)/ Unstable but causal
(z2+0.25z+0.125) is,= 3.
Noncausal
4.
Cannot be defined
1.
u[n]
2.
u[n]-u[n-1]
δ[n] =
3.
u[n-1]
4.
u[-n]
Damped sinusoids are _____ decaying exponentials
decaying exponentials
For the circuit given below find out what type of feedback 1.
configuration it is. Also find out the feedback factor (assume that Series-Series, 0.25
and r=5 k and R2= 10 K)
2.
Series-Shunt, -0.25
3.
Shunt-Series, -0.5
Questions Choices
4.
Shunt-Shunt, 0.5
1.
a) 0.25
A feedback arrangement is shown in figure 2.
a) 0.225
β.
3.
a) 0.3
4.
a) 0.4
1.
a) 10
below. If Xo = 4.0 V, Xf = 0.9 V , Xs= 1.00 2.
1
V. Find the amount of feedback.
3.
100
4.
90
a) Consider the figure given below. The given 1.

amplifier is showing nonlinear behavior with A 90.9
=10 V/V for Vo <= 0.2 V , A= 10 V/V for 0.2 V <
4 3 2.
Vo < 1 V but it hard limits at Vo =1 V. The β of 91.9
feedback loop is 0.01. Find the closed loop gain 3.
when 0.2 V<="" 1="" v. <="" span="" style="box- 99
sizing: border-box;"> 4.
89.9
1. triangular waveform
The comparator using op-amp with input sine waveform gives 2. square form
3. cos waveform
4. sine waveform
Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves 1. Compression of the modulating
signal
2. Expansion of the modulating
signal
3. Amplification of lower
modulating signal
Questions Choices
4. Amplification of higher
modulating signal
1. d.c.
A capacitor circuit does not allow to 2. current
pass________component. 3. a.c.
4. voltage
1. 20V
2. 12V
If an op-amp comparator has a gain of 100,000, an input 3. 15V
difference of 0.2 mV above reference, and a supply of 12 V, 4. 10V
the output will be
1. Gain margin is negative and
phase margin is positive
2. Both gain margin and Phase

A Closed- loop system is unstable if margin are negative
3. Gain margin is positive and

phase margin is negative
4. Both gain and phase margin

are positive
1.
(-1,-2)
2.
Find the zero of the transfer function given a) (1,2)
3.
a) (2,-1)
4.
a) (1,4)
1. a triangle wave.
An op-amp integrator has a square-wave input. The output
2. a square wave.
should be 3. pure dc
4. a sine wave.
Specifications of butterworth low pass filter are 1.
given as fp = 30kHz, Amax = 1 dB, fs = 40 kHz, 6
Amin = 20 dB. What is the order of filter N? 2.
11
Questions Choices
3.
10
4.
14
1. base-collector
A log amplifier may use the ________ junction of a BJT in the 2. emitter-collector
feedback loop. 3. base-emitter
4. emitter-ground
Specifications of Butterworth low pass filter are
given as fp =30kHz, Amax = 1 dB, fs = 40 kHz, 1.13.1 dB 2.
Amin = 20 dB. What attenuation is provided at 35 14.2 dB
KHz ? 3.9.3 dB 4.
40 dB
1. Air conditioner
. Which one of the following is an example of open-loop
system?
2. Light switch

On which of the following factors does the 1. Frequency
sensitivity of a closed loop system to gain changes 2. Loop gain
and load disturbances depend ? 3. All of the above
4. Forward gain
1.
2
How many op-amps are required to implement this 2.
equation? 3
3.
4
4.
1
Calculate the output voltage if V1 = –0.2 V and V2 = 0 V. 1.
0V
2.
- 6.6 V
3.
Questions Choices
-4V
4.
2V
1.
0V
2.
Determine the output voltage when V1 = –V2 = 1 V. -2V
3.
1V
4.
2V
1.convolution of h1( t) and h2(t)
Two systems with impulse responses h1( t) and h2(t) are
2.sum of h1( t) and h2(t) 3.Product
connected in cascade.Then the overall impulse response of the
of h1( t) and h2(t) 4.subtraction of
cascaded system is given by
h1( t) and h2(t)
1.
2.
the outputs are connected together
In the common mode, …………… 3.
an identical signal appears on
both the inputs
4.
1.90 V/μs 2.
0.67 V/μs
The output of a particular Op-amp 3.
increases 8V in 12μs. The slew rate is ……. 1.5 V/μs
4.
0
The input stage of an Op-amp is usually a ………. 1.
2.
class B push pull amplifier
3.
CE amplifier
4.
Questions Choices
Swamped Amplifier
1.
1.273 kHz
2.
12.73 kHz
Calculate the cutoff frequency of a first-order low-pass
filter for R1 = 2.5 k and C1 = 0.05 F. 3.
127.3 kHz
4.
127.30 Hz
1. 1.0
A carrier is simultaneously modulated by two sine waves with 2. 0.35
modulation indices of 0.4 and 0.3. 3. 0.5
4. 0.7
1.linear for any value of b 2.linear
The system characterized by the equation y(t )= ax(t) + b is if b > 0 3.linear if b < 0 4.non-
linear
Assuming zero initial condition, the response y(t) of the
system given U(s)->1/s->Y(s) to a 1.u(t) 2.e-tu(t) 3.t^2/2*u(t) 4.tu(t)
Two sequences x1(n ) and x 2 (n) are related by x 2(n) = x1(- 1. same
n ). In the 2. reciprocal of each other
1. real
The Fourier Transform of a conjugate symmetric function is 2. conjugate symmetry
always 3. Imaginary
How many 3-to-8 line decoders with an enable input are 1. 7
needed to construct a 6-to-64 line decoder without using any 2. 8
other logic gates? 3. 9
4. 10
For a type one system, the steady – state error due to step
1.0.5 2.infinite 3.0.25 4.zero
input is equal to
If the modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 2. Increase by 100%
1, the transmitted power 3. Increase by 75%
4. Increase by 50%
An FM wave uses a 2 - 5V 1500Hz modulating frequency and 1. 2500Hz
has a modulation index of 10. The deviation is 2. 1250Hz
3. 1000Hz
Questions Choices
4. 5000Hz
Quantization bit rate for a an analog i/p signal with a 1. 58 kb/s
bandwidth of 3.4 kHz in a delta modulator with a signal to 2. 68 kb/s
quantization noise ratio of 25dB, will be 3. 78 kb/s
4. 48 kb/s
A TDM link has 20 signal channels and each channel is 1. 1180 kbps
sampled 8000 times/sec. Each sample is represented by seven 2. 1280 kbps
binary bits and contains an additional bit for synchronization, 3. 1280 Mbps
the total bit rate for the TDM link is 4. 1180 Mbps
The number of bits in a binary PCM system is increased from 1. 2^(n+1)/n
n to n+1. As a result, the signal to quantization noise ratio will 2. Which is independent of n
improve by a factor. 3. (n+1)/n
4. 2^2(n+1)/n
1. VSB and FM
In commercial TV transmission in India, picture and speech 2. VSB and VSB
signal are modulated respectively as 3. VSB and SSB
4. FM and VSB
In an SSB transmitter one is most likely to find 2. Class - B RF amplifier
3. Tuned modulator
For an FM wave, the maximum frequency deviation is 75kHz, 1. 36%
if the frequency sensitivity is 3 kHz/V and the modulating 2. 33%
signal has an amplitude of 9V then the percentage modulation 3. 100%
is 4. 277%
1. fs/N
A frequency multiplier using PLL has VCO output frequency 2. fs
f0 is given by 3. Nfs
4. 1/Nfs
A FM signal has a carrier swing of 100 kHz when the 1. 6.25
modulating signal has a frequency of 8 kHz. The modulation 2. 12.5
index is 3. 7.5
4. 15
1.both z and y parameters exist.
2.neither z nor y parameters exist.
For an ideal transformer, 3.z-parameters exist, but not the y-
parameters. 4.y-parameters exist,
but not the z-parameters.
The period of the output waveform of mono-stable 1. 1.5 ms
multivibrator using 555 Timer with R =7.5 kΩ and C = 0.1 2. 0.825 ms
A
µF when triggered by a negative pulse is 3. 0.75 ms

4. 0.525 ms
Questions Choices
1. 2n
If n is the +ve frequency power density , the power density of 2. n/2
white noise d(ω) is equal to 3. 1/n
4. n
For self-sustain oscillations, the conditions to be satisfied for 2. Avβ < 1, Phase Shift 90°
op-amp oscillators are 3. Avβ = 1, Phase Shift 0°
4. Avβ = 1 only
A communication channel with additive white Gaussian noise,1. 32kbps
has a bandwidth of 4 kHz and an SNR of 15, its channel 2. 16kbps
capacity is 3. 256kbps
4. 20kbps
A communication channel distributed by additive white 1. 16
Gaussian noise has a bandwidth of 4 kHz and SNR of 15. The 2. 1.6
highest transmission rate that such a channel can support (in 3. 3.2
k-bits/sec) is 4. 60
1. Switch
For V > ±4V , the function of differential amplifier will be

d T
2. Limiter
4. Linear Amplifier
Change in value of common mode input signal in differential 1. Change in voltage across
pair amplifier make collector
2. Slight change in collector
voltage
3. Emitterr voltage decreases to
zero
4. Collector voltage decreases to
zero
1. Upper side band frequency is
1001000
Which one of the following statements regarding the signal: 2. Lower side band frequency is
X(t) = 5sin(2π10 t)sin(2π10 t) is correct?
3 6
999000
3. X(t) is a DSB ? SC signal
4. All of these
A certain inverting amplifier has a closed-loop voltage gain of 25. 1.
The Op-amp has an open-loop voltage gain of 100,000. If an Op- remains at 25
amp with an open-loop voltage gain of 200,000 is substituted in the 2.
arrangement, the closed-loop gain ……..
drops to 12.5
3.
doubles
Questions Choices
4.
increases slightly
1. 57 to 59.7 kHz
A 60kHz carrier is amplitude modulated by the speech band 2. 60 to 59.7 kHz
of 300 to 3000 Hz. The range of upper side band will be 3. 60.3 to 63 kHz
4. 56.7 to 56.3 kHz
1. 25%
The Maximum power efficiency of an AM modulator is 2. 75%
3. 50%
4. 100%
1. Time Division Multiple Access
2. Code Division Multiple Access
Synchronization is an important aspect in 3. Space Division Multiple Access
4. Frequency Division Multiple
Access
gain in dBi is with reference to
1. isotropic
2. hertzian dipole
3. dipole
4. milliwatt power
For an AM signal the bandwidth is 20 kHz and the highest 1. 790kHz

frequency component present is 800kHz.The carrier 2. 710kHz
frequency used for this AM signal is. 3. 700kHz
4. 705kHz
1. Triangular input
In VCO IC 566, the value of charging & discharging is 2. Modulating input
dependent on the voltage applied at ______. 3. Square wave output
2. Antenna gain to transmission
Shannon's law relates losses
3. Information carrying capacity
to S/N ratio
1. Differential PCM
Which of the following pulse modulation is analog? 2. PWM
3. Delta
4. PCM
In phase modulation, frequency deviation is 1. Inversely proportional to the
Questions Choices
frequency
signal
2. Transmission of data of only
Time Division Multiplexing requires one measured
1. Monochromatic
3. White
4. Pure
1. a large number of comparators is
required to represent a reasonable
sized binary number
2. a long conversion time is
The primary disadvantage of the flash analog-to digital converter required
(ADC) is that: 3. a large number of output lines is
required to simultaneously decode
the input voltage
4. it requires the input voltage to
be applied to the inputs
simultaneously
1. 1.06 KW
1 kW carrier is modulated to a length of 60%. The total power 2. 1KW
in the modulated carrier is 3. 1.6 KW
4. 1.18 KW
1.

3.
Lower voltage gain.
4.
The admittance and impedance of the following kind of
network have the same properties:
On-off keying is the modulation scheme used for the majority 1. Binary phase shift keying
of optical-fiber communication systems. This scheme is an 2. Binary frequency shift keying
example of 3. Continuous-phase frequency
shift keying
Questions Choices
2. to provide high quality of
Speech is coded at low bit rates reproduction
3. to secure transmission over
channels having low capacity
4. to increase SNR
A PN sequence generator using feedback shift register of 1. 16
length,m=4. Chip rate is 10M chips per second. Determine the 2. 12
PN sequence length. 3. 20
4. 15
A network has 7 nodes and 5 independent loops. The number
1.13 2.12 3.11 4.10
of branches in the network is:
Which type of fiber optic cable is best for very high speed 2. multimode step-index
data? 3. single-mode graded-index
1. 90 degree
Antipodal signals differ in phase by 2. zero degree
3. 180 degree
4. 45 degree
1. QPSK
Which modulation scheme has the lowest probability of error? 2. Non-coherent FSK
3. DPSK
4. Coherent FSK
To analyze the effect of intersymbol interference, eye pattern 2. best sampling instant
is used. The width of the eye defines 3. margin over noise
4. sensitivity of system to timing
error
1. Reducing error propagation by
factor two
To combat intereference,duobinary signaling is used. 'Duo' 2. Doubling channel bandwidth
implies 3. Doubling transmission
capacity
1. Low bandwidth
Advantage of Manchester Coding 3. Most of power lies between DC
and bit rate
4. No DC component
In a pure inductive circuit with V=10 sin(1000 t) and L=0.05 1.-0.2 cos(1000 t) 2.0.2 cos(1000
H,the current in ampere is___ t) 3.-0.2 sin(1000 t)4.0.2 sin(1000
Questions Choices
t)
The average power in a resistive circuit is given by 1.0 2.VmIm 3.VmIm/1.414
__________ 4.VmIm/2
1.VmIm/2 2.VmIm/1.414
The average power in a pure inductive load is _____
3.VmIm 4.0
1.resistor 2.capacitor 3.inductor
4.voltage source
1.
Responsitivity
2.
Spectral response
3.
Transmit time
4.
Dispersion
1.
Ampere/watt
2.
Ampere/Volt
3.
Watt/Ampere
4.
Votl/Ampere
2.voltage lags the current 3.current
In a pure inductive circuit, and voltage are in phase 4.no
voltage
How many longitudinal modes can fall within a laser’s gain 1.
bandwidth? 2
2.
5
3.
9
4.
Questions Choices
No fixed limit, dependent on
bandwidth and mode
spacing
1.
PIN photodiode
2.
3.
4.
Photo transistor
1. 20 to 40nm 2.
30 to 50
nm
What is the spectral width of a standard LED? 3.
40 to 60nm
4.
10 to 50nm
1.
Slower
2.
The speed of light in plastic compared to the speed of light in . Faster
air is 3.
The same
4.
Differential coding produces an output in which the
information is contained in differences between successive 1. 1000110
bits such that the output changes state if the input bit is a 1 2. 1100100
otherwise the output remains the same. Assuming the initial 3. 1011101
condition for the output is 0, the differential coding for the 4. 1010101
input sequence 1100101 is
An example of temporal speech coder is 2. Subband coding
3. Differential PCM
In a PCM system, amplitude levels transmitted in 6 1. 40kHz
Questions Choices
2. 45kHz
bits.Sampling done at 10kHz.Bandwidth should be 3. 30kHz
4. 35kHz
If a sinusoidal modulating signal is uniformly quantized with 1. 4
a (SNR)q of 20dB, determine the number of bits required per 2. 2
sample 3. 3
4. 5
Consider a linear delta modulator system designed to 1. 75.5mV
accomdate a sinusoid of amplitude 1V, frequency 2. 60.5mV
800Hz.Sampling rate is 64kHz. Minimum value of step size 3. 70.5mV
to avoid overload is 4. 78.5mV
The output S/N ratio of a matched filter, fed at its input by a 1. 2AT/No
rectangular pulse of energy A and duration T is given as 2. AT
(assume N as noise power spectral density)
o
3. A/No
4. A/T
1. suitable signaling format for
transmission over channel
Source encoding of digital data is performed 2. for reliable transmission
through the channel
For a transmitted signal of unknown phase, which of the 2. Correlator
following receiver is used to get maximum SNR? 3. Matched Filter
1. OFDM
The most bandwidth efficient scheme is 2. TDM
3. CDM
4. FDM
An important impairment to digital signals in a 1. Fading
communication system is the irregularities in timing caused 2. Aliasing
by imperfections in clock extraction and waveform 3. Attenuation
regeneration. This effect is known as 4. Jitter
Arrange the following in chronological order
a)Alec Reeves invention of PCM 1. d a c b
b)Shannon's Mathematical theroy of Communication 2. d b a c
Why GMSK is preferred over MSK in Wireless 1. Constant Envelope property

Communication? 2. Time spread of frequency-
shaping pulse
Questions Choices
3. Better out-of band spectral
characteristics
4. Wider bandwidth
Adaptive equalization is used to combat the effect of 3. Channel noise and
Intersymbol interference
4. Phase distortion
Reducing the cellsize to increase capacity is called as 1. Top down approach
---------------. 2. Microcell Approach
1. In PCM transmitters, to allow
amplitude limiting in receivers
Companding is used 2. To overcome quantizing noise
3. To protect small signals in
PCM from quantizing distortion
1. Energy Spectral Density and
Fourier transform of a signal
2. Fourier transform of a signal
and its autocorrelation
Wiener-Khintchine relationship is between 3. Power Spectral Density and
Auto-correlation function of a
random process
4. Power Spectral Density and
Energy Spectral density of a
random process
1. 20ms
In a time multiplexed switching system, one speech sample 2. 125ms
appears every 3. 125microsec
4. 100ms
1. 200-400Hz
Typical human voice is centered around 2. 280-3000Hz
3. 400-600Hz
4. 1400-1800Hz
If BPSK modulation is used for transmission of data, the 1. 8-ary PSK
required minimum bandwidth is 9600Hz.To reduce the 2. Minimum Shift Keying
transmission bandwidth to 2400Hz, the modulation scheme 3. Quadrature Phase Shift Keying
adapted should be 4. 16-ary PSK
Process of converting plaintext into ciphertext 1. Encryption
2. Decryption
3. compression
Questions Choices
4. Authentication
The type of multiple access technique used in GSM is 1. FDMA
2. FDMA/TDMA
3. CDMA
4. SDMA
1. External Noise
Reason for call drop is 2. Handoff
Which is the type of antenna used in OFDM technique? 1. Smart Antenna
2. Micro Strip Antenna
3. Log Periodic
4. Yagi Uda
1. 56 kbps
Cable modem is capable of delivering up to 2. 30-40 mbps
3. 2 mbps
4. 256 kbps
1. TDD
In CDMA, the system uses ______for the Forward and 2. TDMA
Reverse links 3. FDD
4. FDD and TDD
1. two
Unlike GSM, in WCDMA there is ____________dedicated 2. one
transport channel, DCH 3. three
4. four
If a system requires 4 kHz of bandwidth to continuously send 1. 2 bits/s/Hz
8000 binary digits/sec, the bandwidth efficiency will be 2. 1 bits/s/Hz
_______ 3. 32 bits/s/Hz
4. 0.5 bits/s/Hz
Which of these Controls call processing and status 1. TFPA
management of the BTS, as the highest-level processor within 2. GPS-R
the BTS. 3. BSPA
4. TFBB
1. Order wire
Which of this Controls FSU power during call? 2. APC Channel
3. Traffic Channels
4. Access Channel
The closed loop power control also uses an outer loop power 1. Frame Error Rate (FER)
control. This method measures the __________________both 2. Bit Error Rate (BER)
by the mobile and the base station and then adjusts the power 3. Signal to Noise Ratio
according to whether it is acceptable. 4. Power ratio
Walsh codes are used only by the base station and in this 1. synchronous, asynchronous
Questions Choices
fashion, it is a __________CDMA on the forward link, 2. synchronous , synchronous
whereas on the return link it is ______________ CDMA, 3. asynchronous, asynchronous
1. FER
Sectorization Reduces Interference and adds a Gain to the 2. Sectorization removal
system which is called _______________ 3. Cell breathing
1. Frequency Reuse
The core concept used in Cellular technology is 2. FDM
3. Code reuse
4. TDM
The _________ is a database that contains information about 1. XME
the identity of mobile equipment that prevents calls from 2. HLR
stolen, unauthorized, or defective mobile stations. 3. EIR
4. AUC
The process of channel coding, Encryption, Multiplexing and 1. BSC
modulation for Trans direction and reverse for reception are to 2. MSC
be carried out by 3. MS
4. BTS
1.FM only
2.AM only
3.both AM and FM
4.neither AM or FM
Width of the main spectral lobe, where most of the signal2.Null to Null Bandwidth
power is contained.
2.Linear Filter Channel.

Signal travel through various paths and arrives at receivers at
different time multi path propagation. 3.Linear Time-Variant Filter
Channel.

Questions Choices
1. 2 V
2. –2 V
3. 1 V
4. 0 V
How many op-amps are required to implement this equation? 1. 4

2. 1
3. 2
4. 3
1. Integrator with larger time
constant
2.
a. Integrator with low time

A low pass filter circuit is basically constant
3. Differentiator with low time

constant
4. Differentiator with larger time
constant
1. V = ρzsinϕ +ρ
1
2
Which of the following potential expression does satisfy 2. V = x +y +5z -10

1
2 2 2
Laplace’s Equation: 3. V = x +y -2z +10

1
2 2 2
4. V = 2x +5
1
2
1. Volatile RAM
Stack is ___________Memory 2. Non Volatile ROM
3. Volatile ROM
4. Non Volatile RAM
1. Voltage shunt feedback
amplifier
2. Current shunt feedback
The inverting amplifier is a amplifier
3. Current series feedback
amplifier
4. Voltage series feedback
amplifier
Questions Choices
1. 85.6%
The maximum efficiency of full wave rectification is 2. 81.2%
3. 100%
4. 40.6%
1. ADM
2. DM
3.
DPCM
Step size can be made smaller for smaller signals and larger
for larger signals
4. PCM
FM > power AM; noise FM >
noise AM
FM < power AM; noise FM <
Which of the following is true about the AM and FM noise AM
systems? 3. BW of FM < BW of AM; power
FM > power AM; noise FM <
noise AM
4. BW of FM > BW of AM;
power FM < power AM; noise FM
< noise AM
1. Ring Modulator
Which of the following methods can be used for generating 2. Frequency Discrimination
SSB-SC signals? Method
3. Switching modulator
1. Both vary according to the
shape of the message signal
With respect to the envelopes of the AM and FM modulated 2. Envelope of AM is constant,
waves, which of the following is true? FM is variable
3. Both are of constant amplitude
4. Envelope of AM varies and
FM envelope is constant
Find the value of Quantization noise in Watts, in a Pulse code 1. 1/4
modulation system when a signal of 0-16 volts amplitude is 2. 1/12
quantized using 3-bit quantization. 3. 1/6
4. 1/3
The velocity of an EM wave 1. Inversely proportional to β
2. Directly proportional to α
Questions Choices
A uniform plane electromagnetic wave incident normally on a
plane surface of a dielectric material is reflected with a
1.10% 2.25% 3.75% 4.50%
VSWR of 3 .what is the percentage of incident power that is
reflected ?
2. a stable Q point
3. a Q point that is stable and
Voltage-divider bias provides easily varies with changes in the
transistor’s current gain
4. a Q point that easily varies with
changes in the transistor's current
gain
1. linear region
When transistors are used in digital circuits they usually 2. active region
operate in the ________ 3. breakdown region
1. filter circuit
The Circuit which converts undirectional flow to D.C. is 2. Eliminator
called _______ 3. Rectifier circuit
1. regulator
In a power supply diagram, which block indicates a pulsating 2. filter
dc output? 3. rectifier
4. transformer
1. a Johnson counter has an
inverted feedback path
2. a ring counter has an inverted
A comparison between ring and johnson counters indicates feedback path
that:
3. a Johnson counter has fewer
flip-flops but requires more
decoding circuitry
4. a ring counter has fewer flip-

flops but requires more decoding
circuitry
In a modulo-16 ripple counter using JK flipflip, if each 1. 5MHz
flipflop propagation delay is 50nsec, the maximum clock 2. 2.5MHz
frequency that can be used is equal to 3. 1.25MHz
4. 10MHz
The frequency of a continuous time signal x(t) changes on 1.
Questions Choices
α 1/2
2.
1/ α
transformation from x(t) to x(αt), α>0 by a factor 3.
α
4.
α 2
1. 3
counter? 3. 5
4. 4
1. one-half
The output frequency of a full-wave rectifier is ________ the 2. equal to
input frequency. 3. twice
4. one-quarter
The output frequency for a frequency division circuit that 1. 5 kHz
contains 12 flip-flops with an input clock frequency of 20.48 2. 15 kHz
MHz is 3. 30.24 kHz
4. 10.24 kHz
The normal operating region for a zener diode is the 2. reverse-breakdown region
1. Schottky
What type of diode is commonly used in electronic tuners in 2. LED
TVs? 3. Gunn
4. varactor
2. permit better adjacent-channel
One of the main functions of the RF amplifier in a super rejection
heterodyne receiver is to 3. increase the tuning range of the
receiver
4. improve the rejection of the
image frequency
What is the minimum number of gates required to implement
1. 5
the Boolean function (AB+C) if we have to use only 2-input
2. 4
NOR gates?
3. 2
4. 3
Identify the statement that is not true for ferromagnetic 1. They loss their nonlinearity
materials property above the Curie
Questions Choices
Temperature
2. They have fixed value of μ r
4. Energy loss is proportional to

the area of the hysteresis loop
1. down
If a transistor operates at the middle of the dc load line, a 2. nowhere
decrease in the current gain will move the Q point 3. off the load line
4. up
The ends of a load line drawn on a family of curves determine 2. saturation and cutoff
3. the power curve
1. V B
The Q point on a load line may be used to determine 2. Vcc

3. I
C
4. V C
1. 3
The figure shown below is a Mod-K counter, K = 2. 1
…………… 3. 2
4. 4
1. A permanent magnet
One of the following is not a source of Magnetostatics field: 3. A dc current in a wire
4. The electric field linearly
changing with time
1. 0
Depth of penetration in free space is 2. small
3. 1/α
4. Infinity
1. Parity gate or the equality
gate
The Ex-NOR is sometimes called the 2. inverted OR
3. equality gate
4. parity gate
1. 90°
Travel to length λg/2 over the line corresponds to rotation
over smith chart by
2. 180°
3. 270°
4. 360°
For a BJT, the common base current gain α = 0.98 and the 1. 0.98 mA
collector base junction reverse bias saturation current, I = 0.6 2. 0.99 mA
CO
µA. This BJT is connected in the common emitter mode and 3. 1.01 mA
Questions Choices
operated in the active region with a base current (I ) of 20 µA.
B
The collector current I for this mode of operation is

C
4. 1.0 mA
1. a decrease in the
Transconductance
2. an increase in the gate-source
In a MOSFET operating in the saturation region, the channel capacitance
length modulationeffect causes 3. a decrease in the unity-gain
cutoff frequency
4. a decrease in the output
resistance
1. Industrial noise is usually of the
impulse type
2. Thermal noise is independent of
Indicate the false statement the frequency at which it is
measured
3. Impulse noised voltage is
independent of the bandwidth
4. HF mixers are generally noisier
than HF amplifiers
The bit sequence 10011100 is serially entered (right-most bit 1. 11110000
first) into an 8-bit parallel out shift register that is initially clear. 2. 00001100
What are the Q outputs after four clock pulses? 3. 11000000
4. 10011100
1. Triangular pulse
The Fourier Transform of a rectangular pulse is 2. Another rectangular pulse
3. Sinc function
4. Impulse
1. ac component
Displacement of various sinusoids with respect to their origin is 2. dc component
3. phase
4. vector
1. big cluster size
Higher value of Q is achievable in 2. medium cluster size
A system with an input x(t) and output y(t) is described by the 1.
relation y(t) = tx(t). This system is Linear, time invariant
2.
Linear, time variant
3.
Questions Choices
4.
1.
2.
3.
Leads to aliasing
4.
1. |a| < 1
The signal a u[n] is a power signal if
n 2. |a| = 1
3. |a| = 0
4. |a| > 1
A network function contains only poles whose real-parts are 1.always stable 2.stable, if the jw-
zero or negative. The network is axis poles are simple 3.stable, if
the jw-axis poles are at most of
multiplicity 2 4.always unstable
1.a resistance, a capacitance and
an opamp. 2.a resistance, an
The minimum amount of hardware required to make a inductance and an opamp. 3.a
lowpass filter is resistance, a capacitance and an
inductance. 4.a resistance and a
capacitance.
1. BIBO stable
If all the poles of the system function H(Z) have magnitude 2. stable
smaller than 1, then the system will be, 3. marginally stable
4. unstable
For the circuit given below Find out what is the type of feedback? 1.Series-Series. 3.34 X 10^(3)
Also find out the feedback factor (assume that and r=5 k and R2= 2.Series-Shunt, 2.54 X 10^(3) 3.
10 K and R1=20 K) Shunt-Series, 2.45 X 10^(3)
4.

below. If Xo = 4.0 V, Xf = 0.9 V , Xs= 1.00 0.01 V
V. Find Xi. 2.
0.1 V
3.
Questions Choices
0.02 V
4.
0.001 V
1.
a) 30
) 40
A
3.
a) 50
4.
a) 60
A network contains linear resistors and ideal voltage
1.not changed 2.increases four
sources.If the value of all the resistors are doubledthen the
times 3.doubled4.halved
voltage across each resistor_______
1. BSS
_________ is a subscriber module that stores all the 2. MS
subscriber related information. 3. ME
4. SIM
_______________ is the constant change of the range of the 1. Cell loading factor
geographical area covered by a cellular telephone transmitter 2. Sectorization
based on the amount of traffic currently using that transmitter. 3. FER
4. Cell breathing
1.
Envelope detector
2.
The most suitable method for detecting a modulated signal Synchronous detector
(2.5 + 5 cos ω t) cos ω t is:
m c
3.
Ratio detector
4.
Both Envelop and Synchronous
detector
Rh(Ph3)3Cl reacts very fast with a gaseous mixture of H2 and 1.

C2H4 to give Z. The structure of Z is
2.
3.
Questions Choices
4.
1.
What is the stereochemical relationship between the following Enantiomers
molecules? 2.
Diastereomers
3.
Both are meso
4.
Same compound
1.Methane 2.
Carbon dioxide
Which one of the following is mainly responsible for 3.
depletion of ozone layers? Water
4.
Chlorofluorocarbon
1.
RAM, ROM, I/O devices, serial
2.
CPU, RAM, I/O devices, serial
A micro controller at-least should consist of:
3.
CPU,RAM, ROM, I/O devices,
serial and parallel ports and
timers
4.
CPU, ROM, I/O devices and
timers
What is the order decided by a processor or the CPU of a 1.
controller to execute an instruction? decode,fetch,execute
2.
execute,fetch,decode
3.
Questions Choices
4.
1.
because they are based on
VLSI technology
2.
Why micro controllers are not called general purpose devices? because they are not meant
to do a single work at a time
3.
4.
because they consume low
power
1.
00-2F
On power up, the 8051 uses which RAM locations for register 2.
R0- R7 00-07
3.
00-7F
4.
00-0F
1.
some immediate data
When we add two numbers the destination address must always 2.

be. any register
3.
accumulator
4.
memory
DAA command adds 6 to the nibble if: 1.
2.
either CY or AC is 1
3.
4.
Questions Choices
CY is 1
1.
2.
In 8 bit signed number operations, OV flag is set to 1 if:
3.
D3 bit
4.
a carry is generated from D7
or D6 bit
1.
OV
2.
In unsigned number addition, status of which bit is important? CY
3.
AC
4.
PSW
1.
some external crystal applied
to the micro-controller for
executing the timer
What is the clock source for the timers? 2.

from the crystal applied to
the micro-controller
3.
4.
through programming
Which of the following best describes how to construct a 1- 1.
line to 8-line de-multiplexer from a 3-line to 8-line decoder: Connect the
decoder input
select lines
CBA to D
2.connect the select lines of de-

Questions Choices
mux CBA as input D for decoder
and input of de-mux as enable
input for decoder 3. Connect the
decoder input data lines to D
i
4. Connect the decoder output to

Di
1.
USART
2.
UART
3.I2C 4.
PWM
1.11.0592 MHz 2.11.0952 MHz
For serial communication, standard frequency of the crystal
for 8051 would be 3.11.0295 MHz
4.11MHz
1.Timer 0 & Mode 1
2.Timer 1& Mode 0
In serial communication with 8051 Micro controller
________ timer &_____mode is used for baud rate generation 3.Timer 0& Mode 2
4.Timer 1& Mode 2
1.
forced response
2.
natural response
A pole of the transfer function generates the form of the
4.
2.
Low pass filter
3.
Rectangular Waveguide behaves as All pass filter
4.
High pass filter
Questions Choices
1. TE 20

2. TE 10
3. TE 21
4. TE 11
1.
momentum
2.
velocity
3.
displacement
4.
mass
1.
next interrupt of the interrupt
vector table
2.
next instruction of the
After RETI instruction is executed then the pointer will program after the IE
move to which location in the program? instruction
3.
next instruction after the RETI
in the memory
4.
1.
0xFF
2.
0x11
To initialize any port as an output port what value is to
be given to it? 3.
0x22
4.
A port is by default an output
port
Technique gives quick transient and stability response 1.
Root locus
2.
Questions Choices
Bode
3.
Nyquist
4.
Nichols
1. 24
How many memory chips of (128 x 8) are needed to provide a 2. 32
memory capacity of 4096 x 16? 3. 46
4. 64
A certain CE amplifier has a voltage gain of 100. If the 2. The circuit will become
emitter bypass capacitor is removed unstable
3. The voltage gain will decrease
1.has simple poles and zeros in the
left half of the s-plane 2.has no
zero or pole at the origin or
An L-C impedance or admittance function:
infinity. 3.has all poles on the
negative real axis of the s-plane.
4.is an odd rational function.
1.LPF
By cascading LPF and HPF active filter, the resulting circuit 2.HPF
is 3. BPF
4. narrow BSF
2. Implies feedback with positive
sign
Regenerative feedback: 3. Is used to increase the loop
gain of the feedback system
4. Has the transfer function with a
negative sign in the denominator
1. 8
2.
1
The constellation diagram of QPSK has
3.
2
4. 4
Switching technology used in 4G 1.circuit with packet switch
2. Digital with packet voice
Questions Choices
3. Circuit Switched
4. Packet Switched
1.-1
The reflection coefficient of a transmission line with a short- 2. 0.1∠0°

circuited load is
3. ∞
4. 0
The bandwidth of an amplifier is determined by 2. The input capacitances
1.No change
What effect does a clamper have on the peak-to-peak value of 2. It decreases
its input signal 3. It increases
4. zero
1. collector bias
In a C-E configuration, an emitter resistor is used for 2. stabilization
3. higher gain
4. ac signal bypass
1.base voltage
In a transistor, collector current is controlled by 2. base current
1. Acl<3
The closed loop gain of the wein bridge oscillator must be 2. 0
_______ 3. ACl=1
4. Acl=3
In BJT, the Q point on a dc load line in the saturation region 2. cutoff point
represents the 3. intermediate current gain
A ring oscillator consisting of 5 inverters is running at a 1. 200
frequency of 1MHz.The propagation delay of each inverter is 2. 400
………………nsec 3. 50
4. 100
1.input imepedance
The input impedance of a λ/2 transformer is 2. terminal admittance

3. characteristics impedance
A direct sequence spread binary phase-shift keying system 1. 12.6 dB
Questions Choices
uses a feedback shift register of Length 19 for the generation
of PN sequence. The system is required to have an average 2. 47.5 dB
probability of symbol error due to externally generated 3. 93.8 dB
interfering signals that does not exceed 10 . The Anti-jam
-5
4. 86.9 dB
margin is
A CDMA system is designed based on DS spread spectrum
with a processing gain of 1000 and BPSK modulation 1. 117
scheme. If user has equal power and the desired level of 2. 147
performance of an error probability of 10^-6, the number of 3. 216
user will be 4. 89
Design procedure of combinational circuit which gives output 1.One AND and one OR gate
high if the input is greater than 5 involves minimum 2.Two AND and one OR gate
of ................ gates 3.One AND and two OR gate
4.One AND gate
1. 8
How many minimum numbers of 3-line-to-8-line decoders 2. 2
are required for a 5-of-32 decoder? 3.5
4. 1
1. 1
How many basic binary subtraction operations are possible? 2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
1. 11110000
If an 8-bit ring counter has an initial state 10111110, what is the 2. 00000000
state after the fourth clock pulse 3. 00010111
4.00001011
1.
2 line to one line
n
Suppose only one multiplexer and one inverter are allowed to 2.

be used to implement any Boolean function of n variables. 2 line one line
n+1
What is the minimum size of the multiplexer needed?

n-1

n-2
If two system with impulse responses are h1(t) and h2(t) 1.

connected in parallel then the overall impulse response is h1(t) * h2(t)
2.
h1(t) + h2(t)
3.
Questions Choices
h1(t) - h2(t)
4.
h1(t)h2(t)
1.
100 VARS.
2.
For an AC circuit, if v(t) = 160 sin (ω t+ 10°) v and i(t) = 5
200 VARS.
sin (ωt - 20 °) A; then reactive power absorbed by the circuit
is 3. 400 VARS.
4.
300 VARS.
1.Cut-off Frequency
______________ is defined as the frequency at which the
magnitude of a circuit response function is reduced to 1/√2 2. Critical Frequency
times its maximum value 3.Power frequency
1.
1236 W.
A balanced 3 - Φ star connected load is fed from a 208 V,
3 - Φ supply. Each load has resistance of 35 Ω. The total 2.
power is 618 W.
3.
411.3 W.
4.309 W
1.
1∠ 90° Ω.
A balanced delta connected load has an impedance of 9∠ 2.

30° Ω per phase. What is the impedance per phase of its 3∠ 30° Ω.
equivalent star?
3.
28∠ 30° Ω.
4.
27∠ 90° Ω.
A circuit with resistor, inductor, and capacitor in series is 1.
resonant frequency of 50 Hz. If all the values are now
Questions Choices
f /20
2. Still f . 0
doubled, the new resonant frequency is 3.

f / 4.
0
4.
2f . 0
1.
47.1 Ω
2.
A reactance having an inductor of 0.15 H is connected in
1.5 Ω
series with 10 Ω resistances. What will be the inductive
reactance?
3.
10 Ω
4.
48.15 Ω
1.32 MHz
An RLC circuit has a resonance frequency of 160 kHz and 2.16 MHz
a Q-factor of 100. Its band width is 3.
1.6 kHz.
4.
0.625 kHz.
Input impedance of transmission line does not depends on 2. Frequency
4. Source impedance
1.
I = Irms / √2
2.
3.
4.
I = Irms * √2
If the autocorrelation function of a random process X(t) is1.
given byRX(τ)=exp(-2|tau|)u(tau) . Power spectral density1/(1 + 4π2f2)
of X(t) is
Questions Choices
2.
1/(1 + π2f2)
3.
1/(4 + π2f2)
4.
4/(4 + 4π2f2)
1. completely specified function
of time
A deterministic signal has 2. uncertainity
3. no uncertainity
1. zero input produces non-zero

output
A LTI system is said to be initially relaxed system only if ____ 3.Zero input produces infinite
output
4. zero input produces an output

equal to unity
1.
only sine terms
2.
If periodic signal has odd symmetry, then the Fourier series Only cosine terms
contains 3.
4.
1.both the input offset voltage and
the closed-loop gain
The output offset voltage is determined by ________. 2. input offset current
4. the input offset voltage and
input offset current
1. Miss penalty
The extra time needed to bring the data into memory in case 2. jitter
of a miss is called as 3. Propogation Time
4. Delay
Compensating networks are used in op-amp to 1.worsen the stability
2. decrease the gain
3. increase the BW
Questions Choices
In a ______ handoff, a mobile station can communicate with 1. Soft
two base stations at the same time 2.hard - medium 3. Hard
4. Medium
1. Grade of Service
______ denotes the traffic intensity the entire trunked radio 2. Load
system. 3. Traffic intensity
Ideal physical antenna length is ________ than its electrical 1.greater 2.very smaller 3.smaller
length. 4.equal
1. Mini waves
The frequency range of 1GHz to 30 GHz are referred as 2. Light waves
3. Sound waves
4. Microwaves
1.non-radiating
Spiral antenna is a 2. narraow band antenna
1. PIN photodiode
Which of the following is NOT a common light detector 2.Zener diode
3. Photodiode
2. feedback network with active
The gain of op-amp decreases to high frequencies because of device
1.fluctuating
As reverse bias voltage is increased, for a diode, the base 2. increases
width at the junction 3. decreases
4. remains same
Faraday's law is valid for both open and closed loops. The 2. Only open loop
Lenz's law is valid for 3. only closed loop.
4. neither open loop nor closed
loop
An amplifier whose open loop response is characterized by a dc gain of 1.
105 V/V and a 3 dB roll off at 20 KHz, is connected in a feedback loopA)
for 10 MHz
which the overall low frequency gain is 100V/V. what is the 3 dB roll-off
with feedback? 2.
A) 30 MHz
3.
Questions Choices
A) 20 MHz
4.
A) 40 MHz
1. To maintain the amplitude

spectrum
Why are the negative & positive phase shifts introduced for 2. To maintain the symmetry of the
positive & negative frequencies respectively in amplitude and phase phase spectrum
spectra? 3. To change the symmetry of the
phase spectrum
4. To change and maintain the
symmetry of the phase spectrum
1.90 2.180 3.45
when a phasor is multiplied by –j,it is rotated through
4.Both magnitude and direction
________in the counter clockwise direction
change
1.Trignometrical 2.Rectangular
For addition or subtraction of phasors,we use ______ form 3.Polar4.Trignometrical and polar

2. Linear and time invariant
RC low pass filter is a system
4. Linear system
1.
2.
a binary signal
3.
an analogue signal
4.
a digital signal
The work done in moving a unit positive charge from one 2. Potential difference
point to another in an electric field is known as 3. displacement
Consider the figure given below. The given 1.
amplifier is showing nonlinear behavior with Aa) 0.9 mV
=104 V/V for Vo <= 0.2 V , A= 103 V/V for 0.2 V < 2.
Vo < 1 V but it hard limits at Vo =1 V. The β ofa) 0.099 mV
feedback loop is 0.01. Find Vi when Vo=0.99 V. 3.
Questions Choices
a) 0.99 mV
4.
2.5 mV
1. 232 Hz
2. 262 Hz
3. 2.62 kHz
4. 131 Hz

4.o/p voltage is fixed and no
short circuit protection
1.
difference between two bias
currents
2.
The input offset current equals the ……….
3.
collector current divided by
current gain
4.
FSK is used mostly in 1. Telephony
Questions Choices
2. Radar communication
4. Telegraphy
1.
more
2.
semiconductors…………………..than that of indirect bandgap
semiconductors 3.
Equal
4.
Equal or more
1. Java
System of embedding links in a text to link to other text 2. HTML
3. Embedded linking
4. HTTP
DSLAM stands for 2. DSL asynchronous multiplexer
1. 890-915 MHz
The uplink frequency of P-GSM system is 2.890-915 GHz
3. 1710-1785MHz
4. 1850-1910MHz
1. By installing the
The technique adopted to increase the system capacity and Omnidirectional antenna
reduce co-chl interference is 2. Sectorisation
3. High power BTS
4.Low power BTS
1. equal to that of a half wave
rectifier
2.higher than half that for a half-
The ripple factor of a full-wave rectifier circuit compared to wave rectifier circuit
that of a half wave rectifier circuit without filter is 3. half of that for a half 'wave
rectifier
4. less than half that for a half-
wave rectifier circuit
1. clipper or limiter
What type of diode circuit is used to add or restore a dc level 2. clamper
to an electrical signal? 3. IC voltage regulator
4. Quantizer
A signal m(t) = 10cos(2π100t) undergoes frequency 1. 3.2 kHz
Questions Choices
modulates a carrier. The resulting FM signal is x(t) = 2. 10 KHz
20cos(2π106t + 15sin(2π100t)). The approximate bandwidth 3. 1 kHz
of the FM used be 4. 100kHz
1.no switching 2.
Both Circuit and Packet
3G wireless data network uses
Switched
3. Circuit Switched
4. Packet Switched
1. By increasing the number of
wires
2. By random access
4.By increasing the number of
wires or random access or
TDMA
the unit of average power is _____ 1.Watts 2.Volt ampere 3.Newton
4.Volt ampere Reactive
1.
is periodic
2.
is not periodic
3.
4.
1.
sin ((1 - α)/(1 + α)
-1
The transfer function of phase lead compensator 2.

is given by G(s) = (1 + TS)/(1 + αTS), where, T cos ((1 - α)/(1 + α)
-1
> 0, α < 0. What is the maximum phase shit 3.

provided by this compensator? tan ((1 - α)/(2√α)
-1
4.
sin ((1 - α)/(1 + α)
-1
and tan ((1 - α)/(2√α)

-1

____________ is the expansion of GPRS. 2. Genuine packet radio System
Duality Theorem / Property of Fourier Transform states that 1. Shape of signal in time domain &
_________ shape of spectrum can never be
Questions Choices
interchangeable
2. Shape of signal in frequency
domain & shape of spectrum can
never be interchangeable
shape of spectrum can be
interchangeable
4. Shape of signal in frequency
domain & shape of spectrum can be
interchangeable
1. It is the comparison between the
actual output of the converter and
its expected output.
2. It is the difference between the
input and output
What is the resolution of a digital-to-analog converter (DAC)? 3. It is its ability to resolve between
forward and reverse steps when
sequenced over its entire range.
4. It is the smallest analog output
change that can occur as a result
of an increment in the digital
input.
1.
An energy signal
2.
A power signal
3.
4.
1.
power signal
2.
energy signal
3.
4.
The time period of the signal x(t) = cos (2*pi*t) + sin (5*pi*t) 1.
is 2 sec
2.
Questions Choices
5 sec
3.
10 sec
4.
2.5 sec
1.
2.
3.
4.
aperiodic
1.
cost, sint
2.
sint, -cos t
3.
(u(t) - u(-t))/2, (u(t) + u(-t))/2
4.
cost,-jsint
1.1/Cos x
2.tan x
The power factor is given by _______ 3.sin x
4.Cos x
1.
1 ohm resistance
2.
1 ohm resistance in parallel with
1H inductance
A source of angular frequency 1 rad/sec has source impedance
consisting of 1 ohm resistance in series with 1 H inductance. 3.
The load that will obtain the maximum power transfer is: 1 ohm resistance in parallel with
1F capacitor
4.
1 ohm resistance in series with
1F capacitor
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Questions  Choices 
1. 8
2. 2
How many minimum numbers of 3-line-to-8-line decoders are required for a 5-of-32 decoder?
3.5
4. 1
gain in dBi is with reference to 1. isotropic
2. hertzian dipole
3. dipole
4. milliwatt power
1.
1 Wb
2. 20 Wb
64. If the flux density is 10 Wb/ m2 and the area of the coil is 2m2, the flux is
3.
10 Wb
4. 40 Wb
https://vtopbeta.vit.ac.in/vtop/executeApp/?gsid=6086597 1/4
1. 0.8
2.
A current (http://www.electrical4u.com/electric-current-and-theory-of-electricity/) of 4 A flows in an AC 0.6
circuit when 100 V DC is applied to it whereas it takes 250 V AC to produce the same current
(http://www.electrical4u.com/electric-current-and-theory-of-electricity/) the power factor
(http://www.electrical4u.com/electrical-power-factor/) of the circuit is 3.
0.4
4.
1
1. Hour
2. Distance
Information rate basically gives an idea about the generated information per _____ by source 3. Second
4. Minute
1. a Johnson counter
has an inverted
feedback path
2. a ring counter has

an inverted feedback
path
A comparison between ring and johnson counters indicates that:

3. a Johnson counter
has fewer flip-flops but
requires more
decoding circuitry
4. a ring counter has

fewer flip-flops but
requires more
decoding circuitry
1. 2000kHz
A MOD-12 and a MOD-10 counter are cascaded. Determine the output frequency if the input clock 2. 1500kHz
frequency is 60 MHz? 3. 500kHz
4. 1000kHz
1. each flip-flop
2. all flip-flops and

gates
A ripple counter's speed is limited by the propagation delay of:
3. the flip-flops only
with gates
1. 3.2 kHz
A signal m(t) = 10cos(2π100t) undergoes frequency modulates a carrier. The resulting FM signal is x(t) = 2. 10 KHz
20cos(2π106t + 15sin(2π100t)). The approximate bandwidth of the FM used be 3. 1 kHz
4. 100kHz
1.One AND and one

OR gate
2.Two AND and one

Design procedure of combinational circuit which gives output high if the input is greater than 5 involves
OR gate
minimum of ................ gates
3.One AND and two
OR gate
4.One AND gate
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1.
100 VARS.
2.
200 VARS.
For an AC circuit, if v(t) = 160 sin (ω t+ 10°) v and i(t) = 5 sin (ωt - 20 °) A; then
reactive power absorbed by the circuit is 3. 400 VARS.
4.
300 VARS.
1. 7
How many 3-to-8 line decoders with an enable input are needed to construct a 2. 8
6-to-64 line decoder without using any other logic gates? 3. 9
4. 10
1. 3
2. 6
How many flip-flops are required to make a MOD-29 binary counter?
3. 5
4. 4
1. 500 samples/sec
2. 800 samples/sec
If a noiseless channel bandlimited to 5 kHz is sampled every 1msec, what will be
the value of sampling frequency?
3. 1000 samples/sec
4. 250 samples/sec
1.
Connect the decoder input
select lines CBA to D
Which of the following best describes how to construct a 1-line to 8-line de-
multiplexer from a 3-line to 8-line decoder: 2.connect the select lines of de-mux CBA as
input D for decoder and input of de-mux as
enable input for decoder 3. Connect the decoder
input data lines to Di
4. Connect the decoder output to Di
1.
. If the transfer function of a first-order system isG(s)=1/(1+2s),then the time 10 seconds.
constant
of the system is 2. 0.1second.
3. 2 seconds.
4. 0.5second.
1. Program code is stored in on-chip RAM
2. DATA is stored in on-chip RAM

. In 8051, what indicates when EA is connected to ground?
3. Program code is stored in external ROM
4. Program code is stored in on-chip ROM
1. Air conditioner
. Which one of the following is an example of open-loop system?

2. Light switch
1. 1.06 KW
1 kW carrier is modulated to a length of 60%. The total power in the modulated 2. 1KW
carrier is 3. 1.6 KW
4. 1.18 KW
1. 1
2’s complement representation of a 16 bit number (one sign bit and 15 magnitude 2. 65535
bits) is FFFF. Its magnitude in decimal representation is 3. 32767
4. 0
Search:
1.no switching 2.
Both Circuit and Packet Switched
3G wireless data network uses
3. Circuit Switched
4. Packet Switched
1. Grade of Service
2. Load
______ denotes the traffic intensity the entire trunked radio system.
3. Traffic intensity
1. BSS
2. MS
_________ is a subscriber module that stores all the subscriber related information.
3. ME
4. SIM
2. Genuine packet radio System

____________ is the expansion of GPRS.
1.Cut-off Frequency
______________ is defined as the frequency at which the magnitude of a circuit 2. Critical Frequency
response function is reduced to 1/√2 times its maximum value 3.Power frequency
1. Cell loading factor

_______________ is the constant change of the range of the geographical area 2. Sectorization
covered by a cellular telephone transmitter based on the amount of traffic currently
using that transmitter. 3. FER
4. Cell breathing
1. ampere, Helmholtz
_________________ and _______________________ equations are necessary 2. Maxwell, faraday
in a communication system to calculate the ratio between the Rx power and TX
power. 3. Nyquist, sampling
4. Friss, radar range
1.
Z12 = Z21
2.
A 2 port network using Z parameter representation is said to be reciprocal if Z11 = Z22
3.
Z12 = –Z21
4. Z11Z22 – Z12Z21 = 1
1. 1101
A 4-bit up/down binary counter is in the DOWN mode and in the 1100 state. To what 2. 1011
state does the counter go on the next clock pulse? 3. 1111
4. 0000
1. 57 to 59.7 kHz
A 60kHz carrier is amplitude modulated by the speech band of 300 to 3000 Hz. The 2. 60 to 59.7 kHz
range of upper side band will be 3. 60.3 to 63 kHz
4. 56.7 to 56.3 kHz
Search:
1. high-pass
A ________ filter significantly attenuates all frequencies below fc and passes all 2. band-stop
frequencies above fc. 3. band-pass
4. low-pass
1.
1236 W.
A balanced 3 - Φ star connected load is fed from a 208 V, 3 - Φ supply. Each

load has resistance of 35 Ω. The total power is 2.
618 W.
3.
411.3 W.
4.309 W
1.
1∠ 90° Ω.
A balanced delta connected load has an impedance of 9∠ 30° Ω per phase. 2.

What is the impedance per phase of its equivalent star? 3∠ 30° Ω.
3.
28∠ 30° Ω.
4.
27∠ 90° Ω.
1. 2 KHz
A band pass signal extends from 1KHz to 2 KHz. The minimum sampling frequency 2. 1 KHz
needed to retain all information in the sampled signal is 3. 4 KHz
4. 3 KHz
1. Base emitter junction is in forward biased,

and base collector junction is reverse biased
2. Both the junctions are forward biased

A BJT is said to be operating in the saturation region, if
3. Base emitter junction is in reverse biased,
and base collector junction is forward biased
4. Both the junctions are reverse biased
1. d.c.
2. current
A capacitor circuit does not allow to pass________component.
3. a.c.
4. voltage
1.
40 %
A carrier is amplitude modulation to depth of 40%. The increase in power is

2. 20 %
3. 8 %
4.
16 %
1. 1.0
A carrier is simultaneously modulated by two sine waves with modulation indices of 2. 0.35
0.4 and 0.3. 3. 0.5
4. 0.7
1. 117
A CDMA system is designed based on DS spread spectrum with a processing gain 2. 147
of 1000 and BPSK modulation scheme. If user has equal power and the desired level
of performance of an error probability of 10^-6, the number of user will be 3. 216
4. 89
A certain CE amplifier has a voltage gain of 100. If the emitter bypass capacitor is 2. The circuit will become unstable
removed 3. The voltage gain will decrease
Search:
1.
remains at 25
A certain inverting amplifier has a closed-loop voltage gain of 25. The Op- 2.
amp has an open-loop voltage gain of 100,000. If an Op-amp with an open- drops to 12.5
loop voltage gain of 200,000 is substituted in the arrangement, the closed- 3.
loop gain …….. doubles
4.
increases slightly
1.
5
2. 1
A circuit which has ω0 = 106 rad / sec (ω0 = resonant frequency) C = 10 pF
and Q = 100, must have a resistance of ___________ kΩ. 3.
10
4.
100
1.
f0 / 2
2. Still f0.
A circuit with resistor, inductor, and capacitor in series is resonant frequency of
50 Hz. If all the values are now doubled, the new resonant frequency is 3.
f0 / 4.
4.
2f0.
1. Gain margin is negative and phase margin

is positive
2. Both gain margin and Phase margin are

A Closed- loop system is unstable if negative
3. Gain margin is positive and phase margin is

negative
4. Both gain and phase margin are positive
1. emitter current (IE) versus collector-emitter

voltage (VCE) with (VBB) base bias voltage held
constant
2. collector current (IC) versus collector-emitter

voltage (VC) with (VBB) base bias voltage held
constant
A collector characteristic curve is a graph showing ____
voltage (VCC) with (VBB) base bias voltage held
constant

voltage (VCE) with (VBB) base bias voltage held
constant
1. Multiplexer
2. Decoder
A combinational logic circuit which generates a particular binary word or number is
3. Date Selector
4. Data Distributor
1. 16
A communication channel distributed by additive white Gaussian noise has a 2. 1.6
bandwidth of 4 kHz and SNR of 15. The highest transmission rate that such a
channel can support (in k-bits/sec) is 3. 3.2
4. 60
1. 32kbps
A communication channel with additive white Gaussian noise, has a bandwidth of 2. 16kbps
4 kHz and an SNR of 15, its channel capacity is 3. 256kbps
4. 20kbps
1. completely specified function of time
2. uncertainity
A deterministic signal has
3. no uncertainity
1. semi conductor
2. insulator
A dielectric material must be
3. resistor
4. good conductor
Previous 1 … 4 5 6 … 77 Next
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2. voltage-to-current converter
A digital-to-analog converter is an application of the
3. noninverting amplifier
4. scaling adder
1. 12.6 dB
A direct sequence spread binary phase-shift keying system uses a feedback shift
register of Length 19 for the generation of PN sequence. The system is required to 2. 47.5 dB
have an average probability of symbol error due to externally generated interfering 3. 93.8 dB
signals that does not exceed 10 -5. The Anti-jam margin is
4. 86.9 dB
1. Constant imag characteristic impedance
2. vanishing attenuation constant

A distortion less line has
4.high G
1. 6.25
A FM signal has a carrier swing of 100 kHz when the modulating signal has a 2. 12.5
frequency of 8 kHz. The modulation index is 3. 7.5
4. 15
1. fs/N
2. fs
A frequency multiplier using PLL has VCO output frequency f0 is given by
3. Nfs
4. 1/Nfs
1. there will be only 1 or 2 oscillations on line
2. the oscillations will continue indefinitely
A line is excited by a 100 V dc source. If reflection coefficients at both ends are 1 3. there will be a finite number of oscillations
each then on line
4. there will be no oscillations on line
1. base-collector
2. emitter-collector
A log amplifier may use the ________ junction of a BJT in the feedback loop.
3. base-emitter
4. emitter-ground
1. Vs is greater than Vr
2. Vs is less than Vr
A long transmission line is energized at then sending end and is kept open circuited
at the receiving end. The magnitudes of the sending end voltage Vs and of the
receiving end voltage Vr satisfy the following relationship:
3.0
4. Vs =Vr
1. Integrator with larger time constant
2.
A low pass filter circuit is basically a. Integrator with low time constant
3. Differentiator with low time constant
4. Differentiator with larger time constant
1. zero input produces non-zero output

A LTI system is said to be initially relaxed system only if ____ 3.Zero input produces infinite output
4. zero input produces an output equal to

unity
Search:
1. 1000
A MOD-16 ripple counter is holding the count 10012. What will the count be after 31 2. 1010
clock pulses? 3. 1001
4. 1011
1.
TDMA
A multiple access technique used in GSM cellular system. 2.

FDMA
3.
CDMA
4. TACS
1. 1mJ
A parallel plate capacitor of 5pf capacitance has a charge of 0.1µC on its plates. What 2. 1 nJ
is the energy stored in the Capacitor? 3. 1pJ
4. 1µJ
1. 16
A PN sequence generator using feedback shift register of length,m=4. Chip rate is 2. 12

10M chips per second. Determine the PN sequence length. 3. 20
4. 15
1.
45 V
A point charge, Q = 10nC is at the origin. The estimated potential difference at A 2. 50 V

(1,0,0) with respect to B (2,0,0) is 3.
30 V
4. -45 V
1.
forced response
2.
A pole of the transfer function generates the form of the natural response
4.
1. 22.5 kW
2.
30.3 kW
A practical DC current source provides 20 kW to a 50 Ω load and 20 kW to a 200 Ω

load. The maximum power that can draw from it is
3.
40 kW
4.
45 kW
1. Inductance
2. L and C in series
A quarter wave line open circuited at far end behaves as 3. Capacitance
1. 7 dB
A rate 1/2 convolution code with dfrec = 10 is used to encode a data requeence 2. 12 dB
occurring at a rate of 1 kbps. The modulation is binary PSK. The DS spread spectrum
sequence has a chip rate of 10 MHz. The coding gain is 3. 14 dB
4. 24 dB
1.
47.1 Ω
2.
A reactance having an inductor (http://www.electrical4u.com/what-is-inductor-and- 1.5 Ω
inductance-theory-of-inductor/) of 0.15 H is connected in series with 10 Ω
resistances. What will be the inductive reactance?
3.
10 Ω
4.
48.15 Ω
Search:
1. 1.8 µV
A receiver is operated at a temperature of 300 K. The transistor used in the receiver 2. 12.6 µV
has an average output resistance of 1 kΩ. The Johnson noise voltage for a receiver
with a bandwidth of 200 kHz is 3. 4.3 µV
4. 0.8 µV
1. 200
A ring oscillator consisting of 5 inverters is running at a frequency of 1MHz.The 2. 400

propagation delay of each inverter is ………………nsec 3. 50
4. 100
1.
5.08 A
A series circuit consists of R = 20 Ω, L = 20 mH, and AC supply 60 V with f = 100

Hz. The current (http://www.electrical4u.com/electric-current-and-theory-of- 2. 10.16 A
electricity/) in R is
3.
1.27 A
4.
2.54 A
1. Rp = Rs(1 + Q1) and Xp = Xs(1 + Q−1)
2. Rp = Rs(1 + Q3) and Xp = Xs(1 + Q−3)

A series resonant circuit and a parallel resonant circuit are equivalent if
3. Rp = Rs(1 + Q2) and Xp = Xs(1 + Q−2)
4. Rp = Rs(1 - Q2) and Xp = Xs(1 - Q−2)
1. 5 V
A short circuit has a ________ drop across its terminals, and the current is limited 2. 0 V
only by the surrounding network. 3. Infinity
4. 1 V
A silicon PN junction is forward biased with a constant current at room temperature. 2. Decreases by 60 mV
When the temperature is increased by 10oC, the forward bias voltage across the PN
junction 3. Increases by 25 mV
4. Decreases by 25 mV
1. 35 kHz/V
2.
70 kHz/V
A sinusoidal 400 Hz modulating signal of 2V amplitude frequency modulates a carrier 3.

and produces 70 kHz frequency deviation. The frequency sensitivity is given by 140 kHz/V
4.
72 kHz/V
1. 750 KHz
A super heterodyne receiver with an IF of 450KHz is tuned to a signal at 1200KHz. 2. 900 KHz
The image frequency is 3. 2100 KHz
4. 1650 KHz
1. 101
2.
2
A system has a receiver noise resistance of 50 ohm. It is connected to an antenna
with an input resistance of 50 ohm. The noise figure of the system is 3.
1
4.
50
1. 8 kHz.
2.
7.8 kHz.
A T-section low pass filter has series inductor 80 mH and shunt capacitance
0.022μF. What is the cut-off frequency?
3.
7.58 kHz.
4.
7 kHz.
Search:
1. 1180 kbps
A TDM link has 20 signal channels and each channel is sampled 8000 times/sec. 2. 1280 kbps
Each sample is represented by seven binary bits and contains an additional bit for
synchronization, the total bit rate for the TDM link is 3. 1280 Mbps
4. 1180 Mbps
1. fixed resistor
2. variable resistor
A transistor may be used as a switching device or as a ______
3. tuning device
4. rectifier
1. integrator
A triangular-wave oscillator can consist of an op-amp comparator, followed by 2. amplifier

__________ 3. differentiator
4. multivibrator
1. B = 50
2.
h12 = 0.5
A two-port is described by the following equations: V1 = 50I1 + 10I2, V2 =
30I1+20I2 then which of the following is not true?
3.
Z12 = 10
4.
y12 = −0.0143
2. Forward bias constant current mode

A Zener diode when used in voltage stabilization circuits, is biased in 3. Reverse breakdown region
4. Reverse bias region below the breakdown

voltage
1. limiter
2.
comparator with a sine-wave output
A zero-level detector is a
3.
peak detector
4.
comparator with a trip point referenced to zero
2. quiescent load line

AC load line is also known as ________
4. active load line

Adaptive equalization is used to combat the effect of
3. Channel noise and Intersymbol interference
4. Phase distortion
1. Asymmetric data subscriber loop
ADSL Stands for 2. .Asymmetric data subscriber line
3. Asymmetric digital subscriber loop
4. Asymmetric digital subscriber line
1. Low bandwidth
Advantage of Manchester Coding
3. Most of power lies between DC and bit rate
4. No DC component
Search:
2. superimposing a low frequency on a high

frequency
Amplitude modulation is the process of
3. superimposing a high frequency on a low
frequency
1. it is more noise immune than other

modulation system
2. compared with other system it requires less

Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because transmitting power
3. its use avoids receiver complexity
4. no other modulation system can provide the

necessary bandwidth for high fidelity
1. 106 N0
An additive white Gaussian process X(t) is passed through an ideal bandpass filter 2. 2 x 106 N0
of center frequency 100 MHz and bandwidth 2 MHz. Let X(t) have a power spectral
density of N0/2 and the output of BPF is P(t). The variance of P(t) is 3. N0
4. N0/2
1. 2.57mJ
An electric potential field is produced in air by point charges 1µc and 4µc located at 2. 5.14mJ
(-2,1,5) and (1,3,1) respectively. The energy stored in the field is 3. 10.28mJ
4. 12.5mJ
2. Subband coding
An example of temporal speech coder is
3. Differential PCM
1. 10, 180kHz
An FM station is operating at 100 MHz. Maximum frequency deviation is 75 kHz. If 2. 10, 150kHz
the highest modulating frequency is limited to 15 kHz, find the modulation index
and approximate bandwidth required by the system? 3. 5, 180kHz
4. 5, 150kHz
1. 2500Hz
An FM wave uses a 2 - 5V 1500Hz modulating frequency and has a modulation 2. 1250Hz

index of 10. The deviation is 3. 1000Hz
4. 5000Hz
1. Fading
An important impairment to digital signals in a communication system is the 2. Aliasing
irregularities in timing caused by imperfections in clock extraction and waveform
regeneration. This effect is known as 3. Attenuation
4. Jitter
1. the unity-gain cut-off frequency fT
2. the common emitter dc current gain β

An increase in the base recombination of a BJT will increase
3. the transconductance gm
4. the breakdown voltage BVCEO
1.
1.8 aρmV/m
2.
An infinite length of uniform line charge has ρl = 10pC/m and it lies along the z 180 aρmV/m
axis. Determine the electric field E at (4, 3, 3)
3. 18 aρmV/m
4. 280 aρmV/m
Search:
1. unstable system
2. stable system
An LTI system with impulse response, h(n) = (-a)nu(n) and –a < -1 will be,
3. anticausal system
1. a triangle wave.
2. a square wave.
An op-amp integrator has a square-wave input. The output should be
3. pure dc
4. a sine wave.
1.32 MHz
An RLC circuit has a resonance frequency of 160 kHz and a Q-factor of 100. Its 2.16 MHz
band width is 3.
1.6 kHz.
4.
0.625 kHz.
1. Integrator
2. Inverting Amplifier
Another name for a unity gain amplifier is
3. Differentiator
4. Voltage follower
1. 90 degree
2. zero degree
Antipodal signals differ in phase by
3. 180 degree
4. 45 degree
Any function whose Fourier transform is zero for frequencies outside finite 2. Low pass function
interval is called 3. Band limited function
Arrange the following in chronological order 1. d a c b

a)Alec Reeves invention of PCM 2. d b a c
b)Shannon's Mathematical theroy of Communication
1.fluctuating
2. increases
As reverse bias voltage is increased, for a diode, the base width at the junction
3. decreases
4. remains same
1. infinity
Bandwidth of broad band antennas is
2. 10:1 ratio
3. 0:1 ratio
4. 2:1 ratio
1. 20H through 2FH
3. 40H through 4FH 4. 10H through 1FH
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1.
Erlang C
2. Erlang B
Block calls held condition specified the held probability at a time period equal to an a) Erlang B
average holding time. b) Erlang C
c) Erlang D
d) D. Poisson
3.
Erlang D
4. Poisson
1. True and True
Both ε0 and χe are dimensionless: The statement is ________ and ______

respectively 2. False and True
3. True and False
4. False and False
1. B1n X B2n=0
2.
B1n /B2n
Boundary conditions for normal component in magnetostatic field is
3. B1n=B2n
4.
B1n+B2n
1.LPF
2.HPF
By cascading LPF and HPF active filter, the resulting circuit is
3. BPF
4. narrow BSF
1. 56 kbps
2. 30-40 mbps
Cable modem is capable of delivering up to
3. 2 mbps
4. 256 kbps
Change in value of common mode input signal in differential pair amplifier make 1. Change in voltage across collector
2. Slight change in collector voltage
3. Emitterr voltage decreases to zero
4. Collector voltage decreases to zero
1. 4 cos(20t+3)+3 sin(10t)
2. exp(-|t|)sin(25t)
Choose the function f(t), -∞<t<+∞, for which a Fourier series cannot be deﬁned
3. 3 sin(25t)
4. 1
1.
AND-OR gates
2. AND gates
Code conversion circuits mostly uses
3. OR gates
4. XOR gates
1. In PCM transmitters, to allow amplitude

limiting in receivers
2. To overcome quantizing noise

Companding is used
3. To protect small signals in PCM from
quantizing distortion
1.worsen the stability
2. decrease the gain

Compensating networks are used in op-amp to
3. increase the BW
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1. 75.5mV
Consider a linear delta modulator system designed to accomdate a 2. 60.5mV
sinusoid of amplitude 1V, frequency 800Hz.Sampling rate is 64kHz.
Minimum value of step size to avoid overload is 3. 70.5mV
4. 78.5mV
Consider a repetition code where code words are formed by repeating 1. 01010110
each bit five times. Suppose we receive the following bitstream.
2. 11010110
0000011110000111111011000111001111000001
3. 01010111
If we assume that we can both detect and correct errors, what was the
original bit stream? 4. 01010100
1. 4
Consider a repetition code where code words are formed by repeating
each bit five times. Suppose we wish to detect and correct errors in each 2. 3
received code word. What is the maximum number of bit errors that we 3. 2
can correct?
4. 1
1. 1
Consider a repetition code where code words are formed by repeating 2. 4
each bit five times. What is the minimum Hamming distance for this
code? 3. 5
4. 3
Consider a system that uses 8-bit ASCII codes to encode letters. How 1. 384
long will it take to transmit the bit sequence encoding "Good Morning" 2. 484
(not including quotation marks) if we use a bit time of 4 samples per bit,
and transmit samples at a rate of 1MHz? Represent the answer in micro 3. 300
seconds. 4. 458
1. D,A,C,B
Consider the assertions related to decoding process of cyclic code. 2.

Which among the following is a correct sequence of steps necessary for C,B,D,A
the correction of errors?
B. Addition of error pattern to received code word 3. B,A,D,C
C. Selection of error pattern corresponding to the syndrome
D. Preparation of table comprising error patterns and syndromes 4. A,B,C,D
1. Digital image
2. Fast Fourier series

Continuous functions are sampled to form a
4. Fourier series
1. 10010
2. 11000
Convert BCD 0001 0111 to binary.
3. 10001
4. 10101
1. sinusoid signals multiplied by growing exponentials
2. sinusoid signals divided by decaying exponentials

Damped sinusoids are _____
3. sinusoid signals divided by growing exponentials
4. sinusoid signals multiplied by decaying exponentials
1. 0
2. small
Depth of penetration in free space is
3. 1/α
4. Infinity
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1. P = 1, P = 1, P = 0

1011101;11110111; 1001101 3. P = 0, P = 0, P = 0
4. P = 1, P = 1, P = 1
1. 2 V
2. –2 V
3. 1 V
4. 0 V
1. 1000110
Differential coding produces an output in which the information is contained in
differences between successive bits such that the output changes state if the input 2. 1100100
bit is a 1 otherwise the output remains the same. Assuming the initial condition for 3. 1011101
the output is 0, the differential coding for the input sequence 1100101 is
4. 1010101
1. ac component
2. dc component
Displacement of various sinusoids with respect to their origin is
3. phase
4. vector
1. surface volume
2. line, surface
Divergence theorem is applicable for a ____ that is bounded by a ________. 3. volume, surface
4. surface, line
1. All are Correct
Diversity technique is a method for improving which of the following message signal 2. Reliability
by utilizing two or more communication channels with different characteristics? 3. Error detection capability
1. Possess an odd & even symmetry

respectively
2. Both possess an odd symmetry

Double-sided phase & amplitude spectra _____

respectively
2. DSL asynchronous multiplexer

DSLAM stands for
1. Shape of signal in time domain & shape of

spectrum can never be interchangeable
2. Shape of signal in frequency domain &

shape of spectrum can never be
Duality Theorem / Property of Fourier Transform states that _________ interchangeable
3. Shape of signal in time domain & shape of

spectrum can be interchangeable
4. Shape of signal in frequency domain &

shape of spectrum can be interchangeable
1. linear, time varying, dynamic system
2. linear system
dy(t)/dt + 2ty(t) = t2 x(t) is for a
3. linear, time varying, static system
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1.
less, faster
2.
more, faster
Dynamic RAM consumes ________ Power and ________ then the Static RAM
3.
less, slower
4.
more, slower
1. aliasing
2. summation
Effect caused by under sampling is called
3. sharpening
4. smoothing
1.curl
2. vector
Electric displacement is a______quantity.
3. scalar
4. divergenceless
1. maximum
Electric Flux inside a conducting sphere is 2. zero
3. uniform
4. minimum
2. Only open loop

Faraday's law is valid for both open and closed loops. The Lenz's law is valid for
3. only closed loop.
4. neither open loop nor closed loop
1. 1
2. 0
Final value of X(s) = 1/(s-2) is
3. 2
4. Infinity
1. 1/4
Find the value of Quantization noise in Watts, in a Pulse code modulation system 2. 1/12
when a signal of 0-16 volts amplitude is quantized using 3-bit quantization. 3. 1/6
4. 1/3
1. 1
2. 2
For a (6,4) block code where n = 6, k = 4 and dmin = 3, how many errors can be
corrected by this code?
3. 0
4. 3
2. Each codeword contains 4 message bits

For a (8, 4 ,3) block code, which one of the following statements is incorrect?
3. We can detect and correct 1 bit errors
1. 4
2. 2
For a 4-bit twisted ring counter, the maximum no of states possible are:
3. 8
4. 16
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1. 16
2. 8
For a 8-bit ring counter, the maximum no of states possible are :
3. 4
4. 2
1. 0.98 mA
For a BJT, the common base current gain α = 0.98 and the collector base junction
reverse bias saturation current, ICO = 0.6 µA. This BJT is connected in the common 2. 0.99 mA
emitter mode and operated in the active region with a base current (IB) of 20 µA. The 3. 1.01 mA
collector current IC for this mode of operation is
4. 1.0 mA
For a transmitted signal of unknown phase, which of the following receiver is used to 2. Correlator
get maximum SNR? 3. Matched Filter
1. 790kHz
For an AM signal the bandwidth is 20 kHz and the highest frequency component 2. 710kHz
present is 800kHz.The carrier frequency used for this AM signal is. 3. 700kHz
4. 705kHz
1. Is independent of the attenuation constant.
2. Has logarithmic relationship with the

For an electromagnetic wave incident on a conducting medium, the depth of
penetration 3. Is directly proportional to the attenuation
constant
4. Is inversely proportional to the attenuation

constant
1. 36%
For an FM wave, the maximum frequency deviation is 75kHz, if the frequency 2. 33%
sensitivity is 3 kHz/V and the modulating signal has an amplitude of 9V then the
percentage modulation is 3. 100%
4. 277%
1. J=0
For free space,

2. σ = 0
3. σ = infinity
4. μr =0
1. α=0, β≠0
2. α≠0, β≠0
For lossless line 3. α=0, β=0
4. α≠0, β=0
1. Conjugate matching
For Maximum gain amplifier design, what kind of matching been
2. Complex matching
proposed?
3. Resistive matching
1.Dynamic access
2. Fixed assignment based access

For real time voice transmission the suitable multiple access type is
3. Random access
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2. Avβ < 1, Phase Shift 90°

For self-sustain oscillations, the conditions to be satisfied for op-amp oscillators are
3. Avβ = 1, Phase Shift 0°
4. Avβ = 1 only
1. Resistance and capacitance in series
2. Ideal diode and resistance in parallel

For small signal ac operation, a practical forward biased diode can be modeled as
3. Resistance
4. Resistance and ideal diode in series
1. 125 pF
2.
1000 pF.
For the resonance circuit ω0 = 105, Q = 50, R = 400 Ω the value of C is
3.
250 pF.
4.
500 pF.
1. Switch
2. Limiter
For Vd > ±4VT, the function of differential amplifier will be
4. Linear Amplifier
1. finite
2. discrete
Forward and inverse Fourier transforms exist for samples having values
3. infinite
4. integers
1. 1
2. 0
Fourier transform of unit impulse at origin is
3. infinity
4. undefined
1. does not consists of loss to due to

diffraction, reflection and niose etc.,
2. does consists of loss to due to diffraction,

Free space loss reflection and niose etc.,
3. reflection loss due to tall buildings
1. Telephony
2. Radar communication
FSK is used mostly in
4. Telegraphy
1. Skin effect
2. Coupling capacitor at the output

Generally, the gain of a transistor amplifier falls at high frequencies due to the
3. Coupling capacitor at the input
4. Internal capacitance of the device
1. 3
2. 7
Given A = -6ax + 3 ay + 2 az, the projection of A along ay is 3. -12
4. -3
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1. Divergenceless
2. Harmonic
Given field A = 3x2yz ax + x3z ay + (x3y – 2z) az , it can be said that A is
3. Conservative
4. Solenoidal
1. contracted
2. discrete
Greater, values of continuous variables, spectrum of Fourier transform will be
3. continuous
4. expanded
1. GMSK
2.
GFSK
GSM uses what digital modulation technique?
3.
QAM
4.
BPSK
1. big cluster size
2. medium cluster size

Higher value of Q is achievable in
1. 1
2. 2
How many basic binary subtraction operations are possible?
3. 3
4. 4
1.
1
2.
3. 4
4.
3
1. 4
2. 6
How many exclusive-NOR gates would be required for an 8-bit comparator circuit?
3. 8
4. 10
1. 6
2. 5
How many flip-flops are required to make a MOD-32 binary counter
3. 3
4. 4
1. 7
2. 1
How many flip-flops are required to produce a divide-by-128 device?
3. 4
4. 6
1. 24
How many memory chips of (128 x 8) are needed to provide a memory capacity of 2. 32
4096 x 16? 3. 46
4. 64
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1. 4
How many op-amps are required to implement this equation?
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3
1.
1.05 A
2.
How much current will flow in a 100 Hz series RLC circuit if VS = 20 V, RT = 66 303 mA
ohms and XT = 47 ohms?
3. 107 mA
4.
247 mA
1. They loss their nonlinearity property above

the Curie Temperature
2. They have fixed value of μr

Identify the statement that is not true for ferromagnetic materials
4. Energy loss is proportional to the area of the

hysteresis loop
1. 1/nm
If a signal x(t) is differentiated ‘m’ times to produce an impulse then its Fourier 2. 1/nm-1
coefficients will be proportional to, 3. nm-1
4. nm
1. 4
If a sinusoidal modulating signal is uniformly quantized with a (SNR)q of 20dB, 2. 2

determine the number of bits required per sample 3. 3
4. 5
1. 2 bits/s/Hz
If a system requires 4 kHz of bandwidth to continuously send 8000 binary 2. 1 bits/s/Hz

digits/sec, the bandwidth efficiency will be _______ 3. 32 bits/s/Hz
4. 0.5 bits/s/Hz
1. Reverse saturation mode

If a transistor is operating with both of its junctions forward biased, but with the 2. Reverse active mode
collector base forward bias greater than the emitter base forward bias, then it is
operating in the 3. Forward active mode
4. Forward saturation mode
1. down
If a transistor operates at the middle of the dc load line, a decrease in the current 2. nowhere
gain will move the Q point 3. off the load line
4. up
1.
h21 = h12
If a two-port is reciprocal, which of the following is not true? 2. AD = BC + 1
3.
y21 = y12
4.
z21 = z12
1. BIBO stable
If all the poles of the system function H(Z) have magnitude smaller than 1, then the 2. stable
system will be, 3. marginally stable
4. unstable
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1. 11110000
If an 8-bit ring counter has an initial state 10111110, what is the state after the fourth 2. 00000000
clock pulse 3. 00010111
4.00001011
1. 20dB
If bit energy to noise density ratio is 10dB and feedback shift length is 10, then the 2. 30dB
jamming margin is approximately 3. 32dB
4. 26dB
1. 8-ary PSK
If BPSK modulation is used for transmission of data, the required minimum 2. Minimum Shift Keying
bandwidth is 9600Hz.To reduce the transmission bandwidth to 2400Hz, the
modulation scheme adapted should be 3. Quadrature Phase Shift Keying
4. 16-ary PSK
1. 420
If each character in a 45 character text message is encoded using an 8-bit ASCII 2. 360
code, how many bits would be required to encode the entire message? 3. 440
4. 480
1. G(f) is real
If G(f) represents the Fourier transform of a signal g(t) which is real and odd 2. G(f) is complex
symmetric in time, then 3. G(f) is imaginary
1. 2n
If n is the +ve frequency power density , the power density of white noise d(ω) is 2. n/2
equal to 3. 1/n
4. n
1. 50 Hz
If the ac supply is 50 Hz, what will be the ripple frequency out of the full-wave 2. 100 Hz
rectifier? 3. 60 Hz
4. 120 Hz
1. 25dB
if the differential mode voltage gain and the common mode voltage gain of the 2. 23dB
differential amplifier are 48dB and 2 dB respectively, then its common mode
rejection ratio is ___ 3. 46dB
4. 50dB
1. Li(0+)
If the initial current is nonzero, then the impedance must be placed in series with a 2. −Li(0+)
voltage source 3. −Li(0−)
4. Li(0−)
1. v(0−)/s
If the initial voltage is nonzero, then the impedance must be placed in series with a 2. -v(0−)/s
voltage source ______________ 3. -v(0+)/s
4. v(0+)/s
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1. the local oscillator need to be extremely

stable
If the intermediate frequency is very high (indicate the false statement) 2. image frequency rejection is very good
If the modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 1, the transmitted 2. Increase by 100%
power 3. Increase by 75%
4. Increase by 50%
1.
3 db
If the number of bits per sample in PCM system is increased from n to n + 1, then 2.
the improvement in signal to quantization noise ratio will be 10 db
3.
6 db
4. 8db
1.
200 A.
If the percentage reactance of an element is 20 % and the full load current is 50

A, the short circuit current will be 2.
300 A.
3.
250 A.
4. 350 A
1. Voltage pattern
If the radiation from the antenna is expressed in terms of the field
2. field pattern
strength(either E or H ) then the radiation pattern is called as
3. current pattern
1. become zero
If the sheet of a bakelite is inserted between the plates of an air capacitor, the 2. increase
capacitance will 3. decrease
1. Bit error
2. interference
3.
If the spacing between received pulses deviated from its assigned value a ------------
Data rate
-- is introduced into the regenerated pulse position.
4.
Jitter
1. Good conductor
2. semiconductor
If wet soil has σ = 10-2 mho/m, εr = 15, μr = 1, f = 60 Hz, it is a
3. good dielectric
1. antihermition
2. hermition
If ƒ(x,y) is imaginary, then its Fourier transform is
3. symmetry
2. additive property
Impulse has property called
4. additive inverse
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1. Soft
In a ______ handoff, a mobile station can communicate with two base stations at
2.hard - medium 3. Hard
the same time
4. Medium
1. 7
In a binary PCM system, the output signal-to-quantizing-noise ratio is to be held to a 2. 5
minimum of 40dB. Determine the number of required bits for the quantizer to satisfy
the above requirement. 3. 4
4. 8
1. collector bias
2. stabilization
In a C-E configuration, an emitter resistor is used for
3. higher gain
4. ac signal bypass
1. 1.39 x 109
In a CD player, the sampling rate is 44.1 kHz and the samples are quantized using 2. 4.23 x 109
a 16-bit/sample quantizer. The resulting number of bits for a piece of music with a
duration of 50 minutes is 3. 8.46 x 109
4. 12.23 x 109
1.
Diversity
In a cellular system, ________ is used to measure the spectrum efficiency. 2. Radio capacity
Frequency reuse
1. 8.75
2. 1
In a certain CS amplifier, VDS = 3.2 Vrms and VGS = 280mVrms. The voltage gain is
3. 3.2
4. 11.4
1. zener
In a comparator with output bounding, what type of diode is used in the feedback 2. junction
loop? 3. shottky
4. varactor
1. infinity
In a dielectric-conductor boundary (interface), the tangential component of electric 2.

field is Et
3. zero
4. 2Et
1. 40
In a GSM system, eight channels co-exist in 200 kHz bandwidth using TDMA. A
GSM based cellular operator is allocated 5 MHz bandwidth. Assuming a frequency 2. 100
reuse factor of 1/5 (five-cell repeat pattern), the maximum of simultaneous channels 3. 50
that can exist in one cell is
4. 200
1. 5MHz
In a modulo-16 ripple counter using JK flipflip, if each flipflop propagation delay is 2. 2.5MHz
50nsec, the maximum clock frequency that can be used is equal to 3. 1.25MHz
4. 10MHz
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1. a decrease in the Transconductance
In a MOSFET operating in the saturation region, the channel length 2. an increase in the gate-source capacitance
modulationeffect causes 3. a decrease in the unity-gain cutoff frequency
4. a decrease in the output resistance
1. The edge of the depletion region on N side
2. The centre of the depletion region on the N

In a P+N junction diode under reverse bias, the magnitude of electric field is side
maximum at
3. The P+N junction
4. The edge of the depletion region on P side
1. 40kHz
In a PCM system, amplitude levels transmitted in 6 bits.Sampling done at 2. 45kHz

10kHz.Bandwidth should be 3. 30kHz
4. 35kHz
1. regulator
2. filter
In a power supply diagram, which block indicates a pulsating dc output?
3. rectifier
4. transformer
1.
I = Irms / √2
2.
3.
4.
I = Irms * √2
1. 20ms
2. 125ms
In a time multiplexed switching system, one speech sample appears every
3. 125microsec
4. 100ms
1.base voltage
2. base current
In a transistor, collector current is controlled by
1. 1
2.
0.75
In amplitude modulated system, the total power is 600W and the power in carrier is
400W, then the modulation index is
3. c) 0.90
4.
0.5
2. Class - B RF amplifier
In an SSB transmitter one is most likely to find
3. Tuned modulator
1. local oscillator operates below the signal

frequency
2. mixer input must be tuned to the signal

frequency
In broadcast super heterodyne receiver, the
3. local oscillator frequency is normally double
the IF
4. RF amplifier normally works at 455KHz

above the carrier frequency
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1. One
In CDMA, Reduction of co channel interference due to processing gain allows 2. Zero

frequency reuse factor of ________. 3. Infinity
4. Ten
1. TDD
2. TDMA
In CDMA, the system uses ______for the Forward and Reverse links
3. FDD
4. FDD and TDD
1. TE20

2. TE10
3. TE21
4. TE11
1. VSB and FM
In commercial TV transmission in India, picture and speech signal are modulated 2. VSB and VSB
respectively as 3. VSB and SSB
4. FM and VSB
1. FM
2.
AM
In FDM system used for telephone, which modulation scheme is adopted?
3.
DSB-SC
4.
SSB
2. Sequentially
In FHSS, spectrum of transmitted signal is spread
3. Instantaneously
4. Additively
1. It has better drive capability
In MOSFET devices, the N-channel type is better than the P-channel type in the 2. It is TTL compatible
following respects 3. It has better noise immunity
4. It is faster
1. Inversely proportional to the modulated

signal frequency
2. Inversely proportional to the square root of

In phase modulation, frequency deviation is the modulation frequency
3. Independent of the modulated signal
4. Directly proportional to the modulated signal

frequency
1. One
2. Two
In Repetition Code, how many information bit/s is/are present in addition to n-1
parity bits? 3.
Four
4. Eight
1. Line of sight
In sky wave propagation, the shortest distance covered by the single frequency 2. skip distance
untouched to the ground is called as_____________. 3. transmitted distance
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1. 0.25, 10V
In the envelope of an AM wave, given Vmax = 30 volts and Vmin = 10 volts. 2. 0.25, 20V
Determine the modulation index and message signal amplitude? 3. 0.5, 10V
4. 0.5, 20V
1. less than 1
2. 2
In the left half of the Smith chart, the resistance and reactance values are
3. more than 1
4. Zero
1. the carrier frequency cannot disappear
2. the total number of side-bands not depend

on the modulation index
In the spectrum of a frequency modulated wave 3. the carrier frequency disappears when the
modulation index is large
4. the amplitude of any sideband depends on

the modulation index
1. Triangular input
In VCO IC 566, the value of charging & discharging is dependent on the 2. Modulating input
voltage applied at ______. 3. Square wave output
1. Filters
2. Instrumentation circuits
In which of the following are operational amplifiers (op-amps) used?
3. Oscillators
4. All of the above
1. SDMA
In which of the following multiple access schemes, the frequency reuse concept is 2. FDMA
utilized? 3.TDMA
4. CDMA
1. Industrial noise is usually of the impulse

type
2. Thermal noise is independent of the

Indicate the false statement frequency at which it is measured
3. Impulse noised voltage is independent of

the bandwidth
4. HF mixers are generally noisier than HF

amplifiers
1. Frequency multiplications must be used
2. AFC is not needed, as the crystal oscillator

is used
Indicate the false statement regarding the Armstrong modulation system
3. the system is basically phase and not
frequency modulation
1. inadequate selectivity at high frequencies
2. insufficient gain and sensitivity

Indicate the false statement. The super heterodyne receiver replaced the TRF
receiver because the latter suffered from 3. gain variation over the frequency coverage
range
4. instability
1. Galactic Noise
Indicate the noise whose source is in a category different from that of the other 2. Cosmic Noise
three 3. Atmospheric Noise
4. Solar Noise
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1. 1/sL
Inductors may be represented in the frequency domain by an impedance as 2. -sL

_______________ 3. sL
4. -1/sL
2. Frequency
Input impedance of transmission line does not depends on
4. Source impedance
2. Dish antenna
Internal antenna for mobile handset is ...........................
3. Horn antenna
4. Spiral antenna
1.
It is the functional entity from which the operator monitors and controls the mobile 2.
communication system. Operation and Maintenance System
3.
4. Operation and Support System
1.
White for all practical frequencies
Johnson noise is 3.
Never white
4.
Always white
1. gradient of F
Laplacian of a Scalar function F is
3. divergence of F
1. Gradient of V
2. Divergence of V
Laplacian of a scalar function V is
3. Gradient of the gradient of V
4. Divergence of the gradient of V
1. Monochromatic
2. Coherent
Laser light is very bright because it is
3. White
4. Pure
1. ringing effect
2. image sharpening
Most common example of temporal aliasing is
4. blurring
2. into the base supply

Most of the electrons in the base of an NPN transistor flow
3. into the emitter
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1.
overflow
Most significant bit of arithmetic addition is called 2. Carry
3. Output
4. Zero Bit
1. 7865
2. 7654
No of ripple counter IC is
3. 7492
4. 7493
1. 666
Number of channels for GSM 2. 248
3. 124
4. 333
1. D=εE
2. B=μH
Of the following,the incorrect relation is
3. J=σE
4. B=μD
1. Decibel
On which factor/s do/does the channel capacity depend/s in the communication

system? 3. Bandwidth and SNR
4. Bandwidth
1. Frequency
On which of the following factors does the sensitivity of a closed loop system 2. Loop gain
to gain changes and load disturbances depend ? 3. All of the above
4. Forward gain
1. Binary phase shift keying
On-off keying is the modulation scheme used for the majority of optical-fiber 2. Binary frequency shift keying
communication systems. This scheme is an example of 3. Continuous-phase frequency shift keying
1. the lower the modulating power required
2. high power output per transistor

One of the advantages of base modulation over collector modulation of a transistor
3. better efficiency
class C amplifier
4. better linearity
1. A permanent magnet
One of the following is not a source of Magnetostatics field:
3. A dc current in a wire
4. The electric field linearly changing with time
1. Impulse Noise
2. Shot Noise
One of the following types of noise becomes a great importance at high frequencies
3. Transit Time Noise
4. Random Noise
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2. permit better adjacent-channel rejection

One of the main functions of the RF amplifier in a super heterodyne receiver is to 3. increase the tuning range of the receiver
4. improve the rejection of the image

frequency
1. Asynchronous counters do not have

propagation delays, which limits their use in
high-frequency applications.
2. low-frequency applications are limited

One of the major drawbacks to the use of asynchronous counters is that: 3. Asynchronous counters do not have major
drawbacks and are suitable for use in high-
and low-frequency counting applications
4. high-frequency applications are limited

2. Schmitt trigger followed by LPF

PAM signal can be demodulated by using a
3. Clipper circuit followed by a LPF
4. Differentiator followed by a LPF
1. 15ax mA/m
Plane y = 0 carries a uniform current of 30az mA/m. At (1,10,-2), the magnetic field
2. 15ay mA/m
intensity is ______
3. -15ay mA/m
4. -15ax mA/m
1. -360π az
2. -10az V/m
Plane z = 10m carries charge 20nC/m2. The electric Field intensity at the origin is
3. -18π az V/m
4. -72π az V/m
1. Compression of the modulating signal
2. Expansion of the modulating signal
Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves 3. Amplification of lower frequency

components of the modulating signal
4. Amplification of higher frequency

components of the modulating signal
1. Encryption
2. Decryption
Process of converting plaintext into ciphertext
3. compression
4. Authentication
1. twice
2. 1/3
QPSK requires ----------------transmission bandwidth of the BPSK
3. 1/2
4. 1/4
1. 58 kb/s
Quantization bit rate for a an analog i/p signal with a bandwidth of 3.4 kHz in a delta 2. 68 kb/s
modulator with a signal to quantization noise ratio of 25dB, will be 3. 78 kb/s
4. 48 kb/s
1. Reverse Control Channel
Radio channel used for transmission of information from the mobile to the base 2. Reverse Voice Channel
station is called as ____________________ 3. Forward Voice channel
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2. Linear and time invariant system

RC low pass filter is a
4. Linear system
1. Power Signal
2. Periodic Signal
Real audio/video signal is a/an
3. Energy Signal
1. External Noise
2. Handoff
Reason for call drop is
2.
Low pass filter
3.
Rectangular Waveguide behaves as
All pass filter
4.
High pass filter
1.
cycles of input
2. diode installation
Rectifier output polarity depends upon:
3.
capacitor polarity
1. Top down approach
Reducing the cellsize to increase capacity is called as ---------------. 2. Microcell Approach
1. 232 Hz
2. 262 Hz
3. 2.62 kHz
4. 131 Hz
2. Implies feedback with positive sign
Regenerative feedback: 3. Is used to increase the loop gain of the

feedback system
4. Has the transfer function with a negative

sign in the denominator
1. same magnitude
Resistors may be represented in the frequency domain by an impedance having the 2. opposite in magnitude
____________ 3. complex in magnitue
2. nyquist sampling
Sampled frequency less than nyquist rate is called
3. under sampling
4. over sampling
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1. FER
Sectorization Reduces Interference and adds a Gain to the system which is called 2. Sectorization removal
_______________ 3. Cell breathing
2. Antenna gain to transmission losses

Shannon's law relates
3. Information carrying capacity to S/N ratio
1. suitable signaling format for transmission

over channel
Source encoding of digital data is performed 2. for reliable transmission through the channel
2. to provide high quality of reproduction

Speech is coded at low bit rates 3. to secure transmission over channels having
low capacity
4. to increase SNR
1.non-radiating
2. narraow band antenna

Spiral antenna is a
1. Volatile RAM
2. Non Volatile ROM

Stack is ___________Memory
3. Volatile ROM
4. Non Volatile RAM
1. ADM
2. DM
3.
DPCM
Step size can be made smaller for smaller signals and larger for larger signals
4. PCM
2. surface integral and volume integral

Stokes theorem relates
3. volume integral and contour integral
4. line integral and volume integral
2. periodic impulse
Sum of many infinitely many periodic impulses is called
3. impulse train
4. summation
1.
2n line to one line
2.
Suppose only one multiplexer and one inverter are allowed to be used to
implement any Boolean function of n variables. What is the minimum size of the 2n+1 line one line
multiplexer needed?
3. 2n-1 line to one line
4. 2n-2 line to one line
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1. 350
Suppose we sample a signal at frequency Fs. If we collect 1500 samples in 5 2. 400

seconds, what is Fs in Hz? 3. 300
4. 4500
1.circuit with packet switch
2. Digital with packet voice

Switching technology used in 4G
3. Circuit Switched
4. Packet Switched
1. NRZ- Polar
2.
Symbols 1 and 0 are represented by pulse of equal positive and negative

amplitudes is called as
RZ- Polar
3. NRZ- Unipolar
4. RZ- Unipolar
1. Time Division Multiple Access
2. Code Division Multiple Access

Synchronization is an important aspect in
3. Space Division Multiple Access
4. Frequency Division Multiple Access

2. input clock pulses are not used to activate

any of the counter stages
Synchronous counters eliminate the delay problems encountered with

asynchronous (ripple) counters because the:
d) input clock pulses are applied

last stage .

first and last stages.
1. Java
2. HTML
System of embedding links in a text to link to other text
3. Embedded linking
4. HTTP
1. 0 to FH
2. 00 to FFH
The 8-bit address bus allows access to an address range of:
3. 000 to FFFH
4. 0000 to FFFFH
1. fidelity
2.
The ________ of radio receiver amplify weak signal and produce a desirable selectivity
intelligence at the output speaker.
3. sensitivity 4.
reliability
1. XME
The _________ is a database that contains information about the identity of mobile 2. HLR
equipment that prevents calls from stolen, unauthorized, or defective mobile
stations. 3. EIR
4. AUC
1. 10
2. 0.1
The acceptable VSWR level of the antenna is upto ......................
3. 1
4. 2
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1. barrier potential
The area at the junction of p-type and n-type materials that has lost its majority 2. p region
carriers is called the _______ 3. depletion region
4. n region
1. unaffected
2. attenuated
The bandwidth of an amplifier is _________ by a negative feedback
3. maintained
4. augmented
2. The input capacitances

The bandwidth of an amplifier is determined by
1. A > B = 1, A B = 0, A B = 1, A B = 0, A < B = 1, A = B = 1
1. 0000
The bit sequence 0010 is serially entered (right-most bit first) into a 4-bit parallel out 2. 0010
shift register that is initially clear. What are the Q outputs after two clock pulses? 3. 1000
4. 1111
1. 11110000
The bit sequence 10011100 is serially entered (right-most bit first) into an 8-bit 2. 00001100
parallel out shift register that is initially clear. What are the Q outputs after four clock
pulses? 3. 11000000
4. 10011100
1. 16,000 bps
The capacity of an analog communication channel with 4kHz bandwidth and 15dB 2. 8,000 bps
SNR is approximately 3. 20,000 bps
4. 10,000 bps
1. By increasing the number of wires
2. By random access
4.By increasing the number of wires or

random access or TDMA
1. Cp = AB
2. Cp = A + B
The carry propagation can be expressed as
3. Cp = A^B
4. Cp = A+B'
1. Co channel cell
The cell having the same number in the adjacent cluster using the same set of RF 2. Macro cell
channels are termed as 3. Selective Cell
4. Adjacent cell
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1. 3G
The cellular technology that brings perfect real world wireless is called WWWW :
"World Wide Wireless Web" is 2. 4G
3. 1G
4. 2G
1.
–3 dB frequency
2. geometric average of the critical

The center frequency of a band-pass filter is always equal to the frequencies
3.
4.
bandwidth
1. (R + jωL)(G + jωC)
2. (R+ jωL)2 / (G +jω C)

The characteristic impedances Z0 of a transmission line is given by, (where R, L, G,
C are the unit length parameters)
3. [(R+ jωL)/ (G +jω C)]1/2
4. (R + jωL)/(G + jωC)
1. filter circuit
2. Eliminator
The Circuit which converts undirectional flow to D.C. is called _______
3. Rectifier circuit
1.
Economical
2. easy to do
The circuits in homes are connected in parallel rather than series because it is
3. possible to get same current
4.
1. Acl<3
2. 0
The closed loop gain of the wein bridge oscillator must be _______
3. ACl=1
4. Acl=3
1. Frame Error Rate (FER)

The closed loop power control also uses an outer loop power control. This method 2. Bit Error Rate (BER)
measures the __________________both by the mobile and the base station and
then adjusts the power according to whether it is acceptable. 3. Signal to Noise Ratio
4. Power ratio
2.
The combination of the mobile cellular phone and the cell-site radio equipment is air interface
known as
3.
forward link
4.
1. triangular waveform
2. square form
The comparator using op-amp with input sine waveform gives
3. cos waveform
4. sine waveform
1. 8
2.
1
The constellation diagram of QPSK has
3.
2
4. 4
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1. Frequency Reuse
2. FDM
The core concept used in Cellular technology is
3. Code reuse
4. TDM
2. The Early Effect

The current gain of a bipolar transistor drops at high frequencies because of
3. High current effects in the base
1. I1 = y11V1 + y12V2 and I2 = y21V1 + y22V2
2. V1 = z11I1 + z12I2 and V2 = z21I1 + z22I2
The defining equations for analyzing a two-port network in terms of its admittance 3. V1 = t11V2 − t12I2 and I1 = t21V2 − t22I2
(y) parameters are: 4. V1 = h11I1 + h12V2 and I2 = h21I1 + h22V2
1. I1 = y11V1 + y12V2 and I2 = y21V1 + y22V2
The defining equations for analyzing a two-port network in terms of its impedance 2. V1 = z11I1 + z12I2 and V2 = z21I1 + z22I2
(z) parameters are: 3. V1 = h11I1 + h12V2 and I2 = h21I1 + h22V2
4. V1 = t11V2 − t12I2 and I1 = t21V2 − t22I2
1.
V1 = h11I1 + h12V2 and I2 = h21I1 + h22V2

The defining equations for analyzing a two-port network in terms of its transmission
(t) parameters (also called the ABCD parameters) are:
2. V1 = z11I1 + z12I2 and V2 = z21I1 + z22I2
3. I1 = y11V1 + y12V2 and I2 = y21V1 + y22V2
4. V1 = t11V2 − t12I2 and I1 = t21V2 − t22I2
1. permeability
The depth of penetration of a wave in a lossy dielectric increase with increasing 2. conductivity
3. wavelength
4. permittivity
1. is too great to make the two system

compatible
2. is purely theoretical because they are the

same in practice
The difference between the phase and frequency modulation
3. lies in the different definitions of the
modulation index
4. lies in the poorer audio response of the

phase modulation
1. Increases with decreasing band gap
2. Increases with increase in doping

concentrations
The diffusion potential across a PN junction
3. Decreases with increasing doping
concentration
4. Does not depend on doping concentration
2.parallel to the charge

The direction of electric field due to positive charge is
1. Drain voltage
2. Body voltage
The effective channel length of a MOSFET in saturation decreases with increase in
3. Source voltage
4. Gate voltage
Previous 1 … 33 34 35 … 77 Next
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1. radiation
The electric and magnetic fields (components) radiated from an antenna form the
2. magnetic
_______________ field.
3. electro-magnetic
4. induction
The electric field at a point situated at a distance d from straight charged conductor
is 3. inversely proportional to H
4.
proportional to H
1. It will be higher
The electric flux density on a spherical surface r=b is the same for a point charge Q 2. Not necessarily
located at the origin and for the charge Q uniformly distributed on surface r=a (a 3. No
4. yes
1. 2.26 x 10-9 F/m
2. 4.42 x 10-7 F/m

The electric susceptibility of a dielectric is 4, its permittivity is
3. 5 F/m
4. 1.26 x 10-3 F/m
1. Ohm's effect
The EM field and current are concentrated close to the surface of the conductor.
2. Skin effect
The phenomenon is called
3. Faraday's effect
2. saturation and cutoff

The ends of a load line drawn on a family of curves determine
3. the power curve
2. Synchronous detector
The envelop detector is an
1. Parity gate or the equality gate
2. inverted OR
The Ex-NOR is sometimes called the
3. equality gate
4. parity gate
1. Miss penalty
2. jitter
The extra time needed to bring the data into memory in case of a miss is called as
3. Propogation Time
4. Delay
The figure shown below is a Mod-K counter, K = ……………
1. 3
2. 1
3. 2
4. 4
Previous 1 … 34 35 36 … 77 Next
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1. e-3t
2. 3
The final value of x(t ) = [2+ e - 3t ]u(t ) is
3. 2
4. 0
1. 15 N
The force between two charges is 120 N. If the distance between the charges is 2. 30 N
doubled, the force will be 3. 40 N
4. 60 N
1. real
2. conjugate symmetry
The Fourier Transform of a conjugate symmetric function is always
3. Imaginary
1. Triangular pulse
2. Another rectangular pulse

The Fourier Transform of a rectangular pulse is
3. Sinc function
4. Impulse
1. an impulse
2. a constant
The Fourier transform of the exponential signal ejω0t is
1.
α1/2
2.
The frequency of a continuous time signal x(t) changes on transformation from x(t) 1/ α
to x(αt), α>0 by a factor 3.
α
4.
α2
1. Mini waves
2. Light waves
The frequency range of 1GHz to 30 GHz are referred as
3. Sound waves
4. Microwaves
2. feedback network with active device

The gain of op-amp decreases to high frequencies because of
1. is not rejected by the IF tuned circuits
2. is due to insufficient adjacent channel

rejection
The image frequency of a super heterodyne receiver
3. is created within the receiver itself
4. is independent of the frequency to which the

receiver is tuned
1. 1/10s
2. 10/s
The impedance of a 10-F capacitor is:
3. s/10
4. 10s
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1. 1
The impulse response of a LTI system is a unit step function, then the 2. 1/s2
corresponding transfer function is 3. 1/s
4. s
1.input imepedance
2. terminal admittance
The input impedance of a λ/2 transformer is 3. characteristics impedance
1. 75 ohm
2. 73 ohm
The intrinsic impedance of free space is
3. 120 ohm
4. 377ohm
1. 120 πΩ
The intrinsic impedance of the medium whose σ = 0, εr = 9, μr = 1 is

2. 9Ω
3. 60 πΩ
4. 40 πΩ
1. Voltage shunt feedback amplifier
2. Current shunt feedback amplifier

The inverting amplifier is a
3. Current series feedback amplifier
4. Voltage series feedback amplifier
1. hop frequency
The largest frequency that will be returned to earth when transmitted vertically 2. Critical frequecny
under given ionosphere conditions is called the_________. 3. LUF
4. MUF
1. sometimes curved
2. always straight
The lines of force due to charged particles are
3.not straight
4. always curved
1. to help the image frequency rejection

The local oscillator of a broadcast receiver is tuned to a frequency higher that the 3. to allow adequate frequency coverage
incoming frequency without switching
4. because otherwise an intermediate

frequency could not be produced
1. 3
The magnetic field intensity (in A/m ) at the centre of a circular coil of diameter 1 2. 4
metre and carrying current of 2 A is 3. 2
4. 8
1. 85.6%
2. 81.2%
The maximum efficiency of full wave rectification is
3. 100%
4. 40.6%
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1. 25%
2. 75%
The Maximum power efficiency of an AM modulator is
3. 50%
4. 100%
1. 8
2. 255
The minimum number of comparators required to build a 8-bit flash type ADC is
3. 256
4. 63
1.
935-960 MHz
The mobile-to-base station frequency assignment for GSM system is 2. 825-845 MHz
3.
870-890 MHz
4.
890-915 MHz
1.
Increased by 20 kHz
2.
The modulating frequency in frequency modulation is increased from 10 kHz to 20 doubled
kHz. The bandwidth is
3.
Halved
1. Increase by 50%
2. Unchanged
The modulation index of an AM is changed from 0 to 1. The transmitted power is
3. Halved
4. Doubled
1. OFDM
2. TDM
The most bandwidth efficient scheme is
3. CDM
4. FDM
2. reverse-breakdown region
The normal operating region for a zener diode is the
1. 2^(n+1)/n
The number of bits in a binary PCM system is increased from n to n+1. As a result, 2. Which is independent of n
the signal to quantization noise ratio will improve by a factor. 3. (n+1)/n
4. 2^2(n+1)/n
1.
2.5 kHz
2. 20 kHz
The Nyquist sampling rate for a signal band limited 5 kHz is
3.
5 kHz
4.
10 kHz
1. 5 kHz
The output frequency for a frequency division circuit that contains 12 flip-flops with 2. 15 kHz
an input clock frequency of 20.48 MHz is 3. 30.24 kHz
4. 10.24 kHz
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1. one-half
2. equal to
The output frequency of a full-wave rectifier is ________ the input frequency.
3. twice
4. one-quarter
1. uniform
2. Non Uniform
The output is zero for zero input, and the idle channel noise is correspondingly
3. Mid-tread
Zero
4. Mid-riser
1.both the input offset voltage and the closed-

loop gain
2. input offset current

The output offset voltage is determined by ________.
4. the input offset voltage and input offset

current
1. 2AT/No
The output S/N ratio of a matched filter, fed at its input by a rectangular pulse of 2. AT
energy A and duration T is given as (assume No as noise power spectral density) 3. A/No
4. A/T
2. a balanced line
The parallel wire transmission line is an example of 3. lossy line
4.lossless
1.
FSK
The peak amplitude of one signal level is 0; the other is the same as the amplitude 2. QPSK
of the carrier frequency 3.
BPSK
4.
ASK
1. 1.5 ms
The period of the output waveform of mono-stable multivibrator using 555 Timer 2. 0.825 ms
with RA=7.5 kΩ and C = 0.1 µF when triggered by a negative pulse is 3. 0.75 ms
4. 0.525 ms
1. chemical effect
The phenomenon of an uncharged body getting charged merely by the nearness
2. magnetic effect
of a charged body is known as
3. pholoelectric effect
4. induction
The potential which exists in a p-n junction to cause drift of charge carriers is 2. diffusion potential
called ___ 3. ionisation potential
1. Power/Unit area
2. Volts
The Poynting Vector has the dimensions of
3. Power
4. Volt/Unit length
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1. Not always true
The Poynting Vector physically denotes the power density leaving or entering a
given volume in a time varying field. 2. True
3. false
1. a large number of comparators is required

to represent a reasonable sized binary number
2. a long conversion time is required

The primary disadvantage of the flash analog-to digital converter (ADC) is that: 3. a large number of output lines is required to
simultaneously decode the input voltage
4. it requires the input voltage to be applied to

the inputs simultaneously
1. BSC
The process of channel coding, Encryption, Multiplexing and modulation for Trans 2. MSC
direction and reverse for reception are to be carried out by 3. MS
4. BTS
1. Switching
The process of transferring a mobile station from one base station to another 2. Channel Borrowing
is__________ 3. Call Setup
4. Handoff
1. Frequency Shifting
The property of Fourier Transform which states that the compression in time 2. Scaling
domain is equivalent to expansion in the frequency domain is 3. Time Scaling
4. Duality
1. less gain
2. more gain
The purpose of using more directors in Yagi Uda antenna is to achieve
3. less bandwidth
4. more bandwidth
1. VB
2. Vcc
The Q point on a load line may be used to determine
3. IC
4. VC
1. The electric field of the radiating horn is

perpendicular to ground.
The radiation pattern we measure for a horn antenna is of E-plane type. At what 2. The magnetic field of the radiating horn is
condition in circular direction
we will say it is an E-plane type. 3. The electric field of the radiating horn is
parallel to ground.
4. The magnetic field of the radiating horn is

parallel to ground
1.-1
2. 0.1∠0°
The reflection coefficient of a transmission line with a short-circuited load is
3. ∞
4. 0
1. (Zs - 1)/ (Zs +1 )
The reflection coefficient over the normalized Zl 2. (Zl + 1)/ (Zl -1 )
3. (Zl - 1)/ (Zl +1 )
4.0
Previous 1 … 39 40 41 … 77 Next
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1. 10-6 s
2. 15 Hours
The Relaxation time of mica (σ = 10-15 mho/m, εr =6) is 3.
5x 10-10 s
4. 5 Hours
1. Pico Cell
2. Macro Cell
The remote and sparsely populated areas will be covered by 3. Micro Cell
4.
pentagon cell
1. equal to that of a half wave rectifier
2.higher than half that for a half-wave rectifier

The ripple factor of a full-wave rectifier circuit compared to that of a half wave rectifier circuit
circuit without filter is 3. half of that for a half 'wave rectifier
4. less than half that for a half-wave rectifier

circuit
1. |z| > 1
2. |z| < 1
The ROC of the sequence x(n) = u(-n) is,
3. No ROC
4. -1 < |z| < 1
1. |a| < 1
2. |a| = 1
The signal an u[n] is a power signal if
3. |a| = 0
4. |a| > 1
1. (ω1+ ω2)/2
The signals x1(t) and x2(t) are both band limited to (-ω1, +ω1) and (-ω2, +ω2) 2. 2ω2 if ω1 < ω2
respectively. The Nyquist sampling rate for the signal x1(t)x2(t) will be 3. 2ω1 if ω1 > ω2
4. 2(ω1+ ω2)
1. a
2. bc
The simplification of Boolean expression (a'bc')'+(ab'c)' is
3. 0
4. 1
1. 40 ohms
2. 800 ohms
The surge impedance of a double-circuit power transmission line is 3. 400 ohms
4. 200 ohms
1. linear if b<0
2. linear for any value of b

The system characterized by the equation y(t)=ax(t)+b is
3. non-linear
4. linear if b>0
1. Causal
2. Unstable but causal

The system function H(z) = (z3-2z2+z)/(z2+0.25z+0.125) is,
4. Noncausal
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1. By installing the Omnidirectional antenna
The technique adopted to increase the system capacity and reduce co-chl 2. Sectorisation
interference is 3. High power BTS
4.Low power BTS

4.o/p voltage is fixed and no short circuit

protection
1. Gauss's law
The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding charges is equal to 2. Maxwell's first law
the amount of the charge enclosed". The above statement is associated with 3. Coulomb's square law
4. Maxwell's second law
1. Friction
2. Inertia forces
The transient response of a system is mainly due to:
3. Internal forces
4. Stored energy
1. Sine term
2. Cosine term
The trigonometric Fourier series of an even function of time does not contain
3. Odd harmonic term
4. DC term
1.SDMA
2. CDMA
The type of access used in GSM technology is
3. OFDMA
4. FDMA/TDMA
1. FDMA
The type of multiple access technique used in GSM is 2. FDMA/TDMA
3. CDMA
4. SDMA
1. 1-e-at
The unit impulse response of a linear time invariant system is the unit step function 2. a(1-e-at)
u(t). For t>0, the response of the system to an excitation e-at u(t), a>0, will be 3. ae-at
4. (1-e-at)/a
1.
N-C
2. N
The unit of Electric Field is
3.
C/N
4. N/C
1. 890-915 MHz
2.890-915 GHz
The uplink frequency of P-GSM system is
3. 1710-1785MHz
4. 1850-1910MHz
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1. Unchanged
The value of the resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise power 2. Halved
generated is therefore 3. Quadrupled
4. Doubled
1. Temperature
2. Doppler effect
The velocity factor of a transmission line depends on 3. skin effect
4. Relative permittivity of dielectric
1. Inversely proportional to β
2. Directly proportional to α
The velocity of an EM wave
1. 450
2.
200
The voltage across R and L in a series RL circuit is found to be 200 V and 150 V
respectively. The rms value of the voltage across the series combination is __ V 3.
250
4.
360
1. False
2. Sometimes
The voltage through a resistor with current i(t) in the s-domain is sRI(s).
4. True
1. breakdown voltage
The voltage where current may start to flow in a reverse-biased pn junction is 2. barrier potential
called the _________ 3. forward voltage
4. biasing voltage
1. 10 m
2. 25 m
The wavelength of a wave with a propagation constant = 0.1π + j 0.2π
3. 30 m
4. 20 m
1.
0.8 to 1.0 nm
2.
400 to 750 nm
The wavelength of visible light extends from
3.
200 to 660 nm
4.
700 to 1200 nm
The work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to another in an 2. Potential difference
electric field is known as 3. displacement
2. geometric series
The Z-transform is a,
4. finite series
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1.
1013 Hz
2.
Thermal noise has a power spectral density which is quite uniform upto frequencies 1010Hz
in the order of 3.
1011 Hz
4.
1012 Hz

tlow = 0.695 RBC
2. tlow = 0.695 (RA + RB)C

thigh = 0.695 RBC
Thigh and Tlow for astable mode operation of IC555 are
3. thigh = 0.695 (RA + RB)C
tlow = 0.695 (RA + 2RB)C
4. thigh = 0.695(RA + RB)C

tlow = 0.695 RBC
1.
57.6 Kbps
Three analog signals, having bandwidths 1200 Hz, 600 Hz, and 600 Hz are sampled 2.
at their respective Nyquist rates, encoded with 12 bit words, and time division 100 Kbps
multiplexed. The bit rate for the multiplexed signal is
3.
27.6 Kbps
4. 10.2 Kbps
2. Transmission of data of only one measured

Time Division Multiplexing requires
To analyze the effect of intersymbol interference, eye pattern is used. The width of 2. best sampling instant
the eye defines 3. margin over noise
4. sensitivity of system to timing error
1. Reducing error propagation by factor two
2. Doubling channel bandwidth

To combat intereference,duobinary signaling is used. 'Duo' implies
3. Doubling transmission capacity
1. collector-emitter
To operate properly, a transistor's base-emitter junction must be forward biased with 2. collector-base
reverse bias applied to which junction? 3. base-emitter
4. base-collector
1. accentuated
2. attenuated
To reduce effect of aliasing, high frequencies are
3. removed
4. reduced
1. the upper trigger point.
To reduce the effects of noise resulting in erratic switching of output states of a 2. hysteresis.
comparator, you can use 3. nonzero-level detection.
1. Third generation
2. Second generation
To which one of the following generations does CDMA belong?
3. Fourth generation
4. First generation
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1. IB – IC
2. IE – IC
Total emitter current is
3. IB + IC
4. IC + IE
1. 1:1
Transmission of power to a load over a transmission line achieves optimum
2. 2:1
value when standing-wave ratio (SWR) becomes
3. 1:3
4. 1:2

Transmitted signal energy per symbol is twice the signal energy per bit. Identify
the system
1. 90°
Travel to length λg/2 over the line corresponds to rotation over smith chart by
2. 180°
3. 270°
4. 360°
1. same
Two sequences x1(n ) and x 2 (n) are related by x 2(n) = x1(- n ). In the 2. reciprocal of each other
1. Perpendicular to the lines and attractive.
Two thin parallel wires are carrying current along the same direction. The force 2. Parallel to the lines
experienced by one due to other is 3. Perpendicular to the line and repulsive
4. Zero
1. 200-400Hz
2. 280-3000Hz
Typical human voice is centered around
3. 400-600Hz
4. 1400-1800Hz
1. The excess charge on a conductor doesn't

reside.
2. The excess charge on a conductor resides on

its outer surface
Under electrostatic conditions where does the excess charge lies?
3. The excess charge on a conductor resides on
its inner surface
4. The excess charge on a conductor resides in

its middle surface
1. two
Unlike GSM, in WCDMA there is ____________dedicated transport channel, 2. one

DCH 3. three
4. four
1. F=AC+AD
2.
Use Boolean algebra to find the most simplified SOP expression for
F = ABD + ABC + CD
F = ABD + CD +ACD + ABC + ABCD.
3. F = CD + AD
4. F = BC + AB
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2. a stable Q point
Voltage-divider bias provides 3. a Q point that is stable and easily varies

with changes in the transistor’s current gain
4. a Q point that easily varies with changes in

the transistor's current gain
1. synchronous, asynchronous
Walsh codes are used only by the base station and in this fashion, it is a 2. synchronous , synchronous
__________CDMA on the forward link, whereas on the return link it is
______________ CDMA, 3. asynchronous, asynchronous
1. True
2. False
We can usually obtain the Thevenin equivalent in the time domain.
3. Some times
1. length
2. string
What are the number of samples present in an impulse response called as?
3. array
4. element
1.
Channel Bandwidth
2. noise
What are the primary resources of an communication system
3.
power and Bandwidth
4.
Transmitted Power
1.No change
2. It decreases
What effect does a clamper have on the peak-to-peak value of its input signal
3. It increases
4. zero
1. Zero
2. Unity
What is PSRR value of an ideal op-amp?
3. Infinite
4. Unpredictable
1.
–45.0 degrees
2.
What is the approximate phase angle in a series RLC circuit when VC = 117 V, –90.0 degrees
VR = 14.5V, and VL = 3.3 V?
3.
-82.7 degrees
4. –172.7 degrees
1. 1.05
What is the current gain for a common-base configuration where IE = 4.2 mA and IC 2. 16.80
= 4.0 mA? 3. 0.95
4. 0.20
1. Attenuation Constant
What is the major factor for determining whether a medium is free space, lossless 2. Loss tangent
dielectric, lossy dielctric or good conductor? 3. Complex permittivity
4. Reflection Coefficient.
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1. 5
What is the minimum number of gates required to implement the Boolean function
2. 4
(AB+C) if we have to use only 2-input NOR gates?
3. 2
4. 3
2. Continuous & aperiodic

What is the nature of Fourier representation of a discrete & aperiodic signal?
3. Discrete & periodic
1.
833
What is the number of channels of a cellular system with an allocated spectrum of 2.

25 MHz and with a channel of 30 kHz bandwidth? 1000
3. 666
4.
240
1. 0 to 1
2. 1 to infinity
What is the range of magnitude of reflection coefficient due to passive load
3. 0.5 to 1
4. 0 to infinity
1. It is the comparison between the actual

output of the converter and its expected
output.
2. It is the difference between the input and

output
What is the resolution of a digital-to-analog converter (DAC)? 3. It is its ability to resolve between forward
and reverse steps when sequenced over its
entire range.
4. It is the smallest analog output change that

can occur as a result of an increment in the
digital input.
What is the ROC of the Z-transform of x(n) = -(0.5)n u(-n-1) + (0.2)n u(n) + (0.8)n 2. |z| > 0.8
u(n)? 3. |z| < 0.5
4. |z|> 0.5 and |z| < 0.8
1. 1 to infinity
2. 0 to 1
What is the theoretical range of VSWR
4. -1 to 1
1. A-m
What is the unit of magnetic charge? 2. Ampere
3. A-m2
4. Coulomb
1.
34.98 V
What is the Vs for a series RLC Circuit when IT = 3 mA, VL = 30V, VC = 18V, and R 2. 48.00 V
=1KΩ
3.
3.00 V
4.
12.37 V
1. 10
2. 5
What is VSWR for short-circuited transmission lines
3. 1
4. infinity
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1. clipper or limiter
2. clamper
What type of diode circuit is used to add or restore a dc level to an electrical signal?
3. IC voltage regulator
4. Quantizer
1. Schottky
2. LED
What type of diode is commonly used in electronic tuners in TVs?
3. Gunn
4. varactor
1.
+90 degrees leading
2.
What would be the power factor for an RLC circuit that acts inductively? one
3.
zero
1. emitter voltage
2. voltage-divider bias
When a silicon diode is forward biased, what is VBE for a C-E configuration?
3. 0.4 V
4. 0.7 V
1.

3.
Lower voltage gain.
4.
1.
y21 = 16
When port 1 of a two-port circuit is short-circuited, I1 = 4I2 and V2 = 0.25I2. 2.

Which of the following is true? y12 = 16
3.
y11 = 4
4. y22 = 0.25
1. at the bottom edge of the load line
When the input is symmetrical, to operate the BJT in active region, the quiescent 2. can be chosen any where on the load line
point is chosen 3. at the centre of the load line
1. Frequency Modulation
When the modulating frequency is doubled, the modulation index is halved, and the 2.phase shift keying modulation 3. Phase
modulating voltage remains constant. The modulation system is Modulation
1. linear region
2. active region
When transistors are used in digital circuits they usually operate in the ________
3. breakdown region
2.
4.
is at resonance
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Which among the below assertions is precise in accordance to the effect of time
scaling ?
A : Inverse relationship exists between the time and frequency domain
representation of signal 3. Both A & B are false

B : A signal must be necessarily limited in time as well as frequency domains
1. Discrete time signal should be absolutely

multipliable

Which among the following assertions represents a necessary condition for the differentiable
existence of Fourier Transform of discrete time signal (DTFT)? 3. Discrete time signal should be absolutely
integrable

summable
1. Cosine waves
Which are the only waves that correspond/ support the measurement of phase 2. Triangular waves
angle in the line spectra? 3. Square waves
4. Sine waves
1.
Walsh code
2. randaom noise
Which code is used to spread the signal across the places 3.

Fast code
4.
Pseudo-noise code
1. Turbo Code
2. Huffman
Which coding technique/s exhibit/s the usability of fixed length codes?
3. Lempel Ziv
4. Convolution code
1. voltage
2. Power
Which is the higher gain provided by a C-E configuration?
3. current
4. resistance
1. Smart Antenna
Which is the type of antenna used in OFDM technique? 2. Micro Strip Antenna
3. Log Periodic
4. Yagi Uda
1. TM10 and TE10
2. TM10
Which mode is known as dominant mode for Rectangular waveguide
3. TM11
4. TE10
1. QPSK
2. Non-coherent FSK
Which modulation scheme has the lowest probability of error?
3. DPSK
4. Coherent FSK
1. SSB-SC
Which modulation technique is not suitable for audio, video but is used for 2. VSB-SC
transmission of telephone signals? 3. AM
4. DSB-SC
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1.
QPSK
2. 32PSK
Which modulation technique transmits at higher data rate 3.
BPSK
4.
16-PSK
1. Concept of scalar electric potential
Which of the concepts is used to find the expression of related E and H field due to 2. Concept of vector magnetic potential
a magnetic current element? 3. Concept of scalar magnetic potential
4. Concept of vector electric potential
1.
DSB-SC
Which of the following analog modulation scheme requires the minimum transmitted
2. AM
power and minimum bandwidth?
3. SSB
4.
VSB
1. Digital counter
2. Decoder
Which of the following circuit can be used as parallel to serial converter ?
3. Demultiplexer
4. Multiplexer
2. Diagonal corners
Which of the following combinations cannot be combined into K-map groups?
3. Corners in the same row
1. PIN photodiode
2.Zener diode
Which of the following is NOT a common light detector
3. Photodiode
2. Depletion capacitance
Which of the following is NOT associated with a PN junction?
3. Channel length modulation
1.
Lower power
2. High power
Which of the following is the main advantage of PCM system
3.
Lower Bandwidth
4.
Lower noise
Which of the following is the most reliable measurement for comparing amplifier 2. Shot Noise
noise characteristics? 3. Signal to Noise ratio
4. Noise Factor
1. BW of FM < BW of AM; power FM > power

AM; noise FM > noise AM
2. BW of FM < BW of AM; power FM < power

AM; noise FM < noise AM
Which of the following is true about the AM and FM systems?
3. BW of FM < BW of AM; power FM > power
4. BW of FM > BW of AM; power FM < power

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1.parallel wire
2. waveguide
Which of the following lines is non-radiating?
3. Open two wire
4. Coaxial
1. Ring Modulator
2. Frequency Discrimination Method

Which of the following methods can be used for generating SSB-SC signals?
3. Switching modulator
1. V1 = ρzsinϕ +ρ2
2. V1 = x2+y2+5z2-10
Which of the following potential expression does satisfy Laplace’s Equation:
3. V1 = x2+y2-2z2 +10
4. V1 = 2x2+5
1. Differential PCM
2. PWM
Which of the following pulse modulation is analog?
3. Delta
4. PCM
2. Single stub shunt matching

Which of the matching network is having higher bandwidth for a given load.
3. Single stub series matching
1. TFPA
Which of these Controls call processing and status management of the BTS, as 2. GPS-R
the highest-level processor within the BTS. 3. BSPA
4. TFBB
1.
Microstrip line
3. Microstrip line and Stripline Both
1. Order wire
2. APC Channel
Which of this Controls FSU power during call?
3. Traffic Channels
4. Access Channel
3. Shannon Coding
Which one is channel coding technique? 4. Huffman coding
1.
IF amplifier
2.
Which one of the following blocks is not common in both AM and FM receiver? Mixer
3.
RF amplifier
4. Slope detector
Previous 1 … 50 51 52 … 77 Next
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1.
Coherent BPSK
2. DPSK
Which one of the following is used to detect the unknown signal 3.

QPSK
4.
Coherent BFSK
1. Upper side band frequency is 1001000
Which one of the following statements regarding the signal: 2. Lower side band frequency is 999000
X(t) = 5sin(2π103t)sin(2π106t) is correct? 3. X(t) is a DSB ? SC signal
4. All of these
2. Magnetic flux lines are always closed.
Which one of these statements is not characteristic of static magnetic field: 3. It is solenoidal
1. Temperature stability factor

Which performance parameter of a regulator is defined as the change in 2. Line regulation
regulated load voltage due to variation in line voltage in a specified range at a
constant load current? 3. Load regulation
4. Ripple rejection
1. Expansion in frequency domain

Which phenomenon occurs due to an increase in the channel bandwidth during 2. Compression in frequency domain
the transmission of narrow pulses in order to avoid any intervention of signal
distortion? 3. Compression in time domain
1. The larger of the two reactance is dominant
2.
Resistance is always dominant
Which statement best describes reactance in a series RLC circuit?

3.
dominant
4.
Capacitive reactance is always dominant
1. Left of the smith chart is open circuit end
2. VSWR at centre of smith chart is 2

Which statement is false for Admittance smith chart. 3. Right of the smith chart is short circuit end
4. Reflection coefficietn at centre of smith

chart is 1
1. TDMA
Which technology has a longer handset battery life? 2. FDMA/TDMA
3. CDMA
4. SDMA
2. multimode step-index
Which type of fiber optic cable is best for very high speed data?
3. single-mode graded-index
1. NOR
2. EX-NAND
Which type of gate can be used to add two bits?
3. EX-OR
4. EX-NOR
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1. Exponential Fourier Series
Which type/s of Fourier Series allow/s to represent the negative frequencies by 2. Trigonometric Fourier Series
plotting the double-sided spectrum for the analysis of periodic signals ? 3. All types specified
1. To maintain the amplitude spectrum
2. To maintain the symmetry of the phase

spectrum
Why are the negative & positive phase shifts introduced for positive & negative
frequencies respectively in amplitude and phase spectra? 3. To change the symmetry of the phase
spectrum
4. To change and maintain the symmetry of

the phase spectrum
1. Constant Envelope property
2. Time spread of frequency-shaping pulse

Why GMSK is preferred over MSK in Wireless Communication?
3. Better out-of band spectral characteristics
4. Wider bandwidth
1. Energy Spectral Density and Fourier

transform of a signal
2. Fourier transform of a signal and its

autocorrelation
Wiener-Khintchine relationship is between
3. Power Spectral Density and Auto-
correlation function of a random process
4. Power Spectral Density and Energy

Spectral density of a random process
1. 0.3 V
With a 12 V supply, a silicon diode, and a 370-ohm resistor in series, what voltage 2. 0.9 V
will be dropped across the diode? 3. 1.4 V
4. 0.7 V
1. 40 μs
With a 200 kHz clock frequency, eight bits can be serially entered into a shift 2. 400 μs
register in 3. 40 ms
4. 4 μs
1. 90 degrees
With a half-wave rectified voltage across the load resistor, load current flows for 2. 360 degrees
what part of a cycle? 3. 180 degrees
4. 0 degrees
1. VCC
2. ground
With a PNP circuit, the most positive voltage is probably ______
3. VC
4. VBE
1. Both vary according to the shape of the

message signal
With respect to the envelopes of the AM and FM modulated waves, which of the 2. Envelope of AM is constant, FM is variable
following is true? 3. Both are of constant amplitude
4. Envelope of AM varies and FM envelope is

constant
1. broadside array
2. circular array
Yagi antenna is
3. planar array
4. end fire array
Previous 1 … 52 53 54 … 77 Next
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Zero initial condition for a system means 3. initial movement of moving parts
4. system is at rest and no energy is stored in

any of its components
1. 16,00
“A” register of 8051 is of ___ bit wide and it is loaded with the default value of ___ 2. 16,0000
after reset. 3. 8,07
4. 8,00
1. 20V
2. 12V
If an op-amp comparator has a gain of 100,000, an input difference of 0.2 mV above 3. 15V
reference, and a supply of 12 V, the output will be
4. 10V
1. integrator
2. comparator
In a ________, when the input voltage exceeds a specified reference voltage, the 3. differentiator
output changes state.
4. summing amplifier
In a flash A/D converter, the priority encoder is used to 3. select the highest value input.
4. select the first input.
1.FM only
2.AM only
3.both AM and FM
4.neither AM or FM
1.
16 Mbps
Assuming that the channel is noiseless, if TV channels are 8 kHz wide with the 2.
bits/sample = 3Hz and signaling rate = 16 × 106 samples/second, then what would 24 Mbps
be the value of data rate?
3.
48 Mbps
4.
64 Mbps
1.
Information Rate
Which among the following is used to construct the binary code that satisfies the 2.
Noiseless Channel
prefix condition?
3.
4.
Kraft Inequality
1.
1/(1 + 4π2f2)
2.
If the autocorrelation function of a random process X(t) is given by
1/(1 + π2f2)
RX(τ)=exp(-2|tau|)u(tau) . Power spectral density of X(t) is
3.
1/(4 + π2f2)
4.
4/(4 + 4π2f2)
1.
Envelope detector
2.
The most suitable method for detecting a modulated signal (2.5 + 5 cos ωmt) cos ωct is: Synchronous detector
3.
Ratio detector
4.
Both Envelop and Synchronous detector
Previous 1 … 53 54 55 … 77 Next
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Signal travel through various paths and arrives at receivers at different 2.Linear Filter Channel.
time multi path propagation. 3.Linear Time-Variant Filter Channel.
1. PORT12
2. PORT3
____ PORT in 8051 is requiring external pull up resistor network
3. PORT0
4. PORT1
1.
because they are based on VLSI technology
2.
because they are not meant to do a single work at
1. Why micro controllers are not called general purpose devices? a time
3.
4.
because they consume low power
1.
2.
1. In 8 bit signed number operations, OV flag is set to 1 if: a carry is generated from D3 bit
3.
a carry is generated from D7 or D3 bit
4.
a carry is generated from D7 or D6 bit
1.
OV
2.
1. In unsigned number addition, status of which bit is important? CY
3.
AC
4.
PSW
1.
Ampere/watt
2.
Ampere/Volt
3.
Watt/Ampere
4.
Votl/Ampere
1. 20 to 40nm 2.
30 to 50 nm
3.
What is the spectral width of a standard LED? 40 to 60nm
4.
10 to 50nm
1.4 bit,00H
SP of 8051 is of ___ wide and it is loaded with the default value of ___ after 2.8 bit,07H
reset
3.8 bit,00H
4.
32 bit,00H

Width of the main spectral lobe, where most of the signal power is
contained. 2.Null to Null Bandwidth
1.
55.25%
2.
An amplifier for which design was done with A =100 and β=0.01 is manufactured 70%
using an amplifier with half the intended gain. Find the sensitivity of the closed loop
to open loop gain in dB? 3.
13%
4.
67%
Previous 1 … 54 55 56 … 77 Next
Search:
1.
2.
1. DAA command adds 6 to the nibble if: either CY or AC is 1
3.
4.
CY is 1
1.
some immediate data
2.
1. When we add two numbers the destination address must always be. any register
3.
accumulator
4.
memory
1.
RAM, ROM, I/O devices, serial and parallel
ports and timers
2.
CPU, RAM, I/O devices, serial and parallel ports
and timers
1. A micro controller at-least should consist of:
3.
CPU,RAM, ROM, I/O devices, serial and
parallel ports and timers
4.
CPU, ROM, I/O devices and timers
1.
00-2F
2.
1. On power up, the 8051 uses which RAM locations for register R0- R7 00-07
3.
00-7F
4.
00-0F
1.
some external crystal applied to the micro-
controller for executing the timer
2.
1. What is the clock source for the timers? from the crystal applied to the micro-controller
3.
4.
through programming
1.
decode,fetch,execute
2.
1. What is the order decided by a processor or the CPU of a controller to execute an execute,fetch,decode
instruction?
3.
4.
a) Consider the figure given below. The given amplifier is

showing nonlinear behavior with A =104 V/V for Vo <= 0.2 V ,
A= 103 V/V for 0.2 V < Vo < 1 V but it hard limits at Vo =1 V.
The β of feedback loop is 0.01. Find the closed loop gain 1.
90.9
when 0.2 V
2.
91.9
3.
99
4.
89.9
1.
25.53 mV
2.
An amplifier using an op-amp with a slew rate of 1V/µ has a gain of 60 dB. If the amplifier 3.98 mV
has to faithfully amplify the sinusoidal signals from DC to 40 KHz without introduced any
slew rate induced distortion, then the input signal must not exceed what value? 3.
34.4 mV
4.
32.89 mV
1.
1000 rad/sec
2.
A) 2000 rad/sec
3.
A) 200 rad/sec
4.
A) 100 rad/sec
The op- amp circuit shown below is a certain class of filter. Find the type of the filter
1.
A) High Pass Filter
2.
A) Low Pass Filter
3.
A) Band Reject Filter
4.
A) Band Pass filter
Previous 1 … 55 56 57 … 77 Next
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1.
100 kHz
2.
A 741 op-amp has a gain bandwidth product of 1 MHz. A non inverting amplifier using this op- 300 kHz
amp and having a voltage gain of 40 dB will exhibit a 3 dB bandwidth of how much? 3.
10 kHz
4.
500 kHz
For the given circuit below for the cut off frequency of 3 kHz find the value of R2
1.
4.5 kOhm
2.
10.61 kOhm
3.
3.4 kOhm
4.
1.9 kOhm
1.
100
For the transfer function given below find the gain at very low frequencies (assume DC).
2.
0
3.
10
4.
1
1.
more
2.
semiconductors…………………..than that of indirect bandgap semiconductors 3.
Equal
4.
Equal or more
1.
s = - 0.05
2.
If the gain margin of a certain feedback system is given as 20 dB, the Nyquist
s = - 0.2
plot will cross the negative real axis at the point
3.
s = - 0.1
4.
s = -0.01
1.
Reflection
2.
Bragg’s law in X-ray diffraction assumes ---------- of X-rays from successive Transmission
planes of atoms 3.
Absorption
4.
Rotation
1.
2.
Vibrational spectra
Frank Condon principle is used for the interpretation of the intensity of
3.
Raman spectra
4.
Microwave spectra
1.
Angular momentum
2.
One electron wave function for an electron in an atom is called Hamiltonian Operator
3.Atomic orbital
4.
Linear momentum
1.
Causal
2.
Unstable but causal
The system func on H(z) = (z3-2z2+z)/(z2+0.25z+0.125) is,=
3.
Noncausal
4.
Cannot be deﬁned
1.
PC and ACC
2.
PC and DPTR
.__________ and ________are the two 16 bit registers in 8051
3.
IE and PC
4.
ACC and B
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Search:
1.
R0
2.
ACCUMLATOR
3.
SBUF
4.
TF0
1.
TF0,RI
2.
TF0,TI
3.
TF0,IE0
4.
RI,TI
1.
2.
a binary signal
3.
an analogue signal
4.
a digital signal
A sinusoidal signal is passed through an amplifier and results in the following

waveform. What form of distortion is predominant?
1.
Barrel distortion
2.
Crossover distortion
3.
Clipping
4.
Harmonic distortion
1.
u[n]
2.
u[n]-u[n-1]
δ[n] =
3.
u[n-1]
4.
u[-n]
1.
2
2.
5
How many longitudinal modes can fall within a laser’s gain bandwidth? 3.
9
4.
No fixed limit, dependent on bandwidth
and mode spacing
1.
Slower
2.
. Faster
The speed of light in plastic compared to the speed of light in air is
3.
The same
4.
A current of 3+j4 amperes is flowing through the circuit.The magnitude of the

1.7 A 2.1 A 3.5 A 4.1.33 A
current is _______
A feedback arrangement is shown in figure below. If Xo = 4.0

V, Xf = 0.9 V , Xs= 1.00 V. Find A
1.
a) 30
2.
a) 40
3.
a) 50
4.
a) 60

V, Xf = 0.9 V , Xs= 1.00 V. Find β.
1.
a) 0.25
2.
a) 0.225
3.
a) 0.3
4.
a) 0.4
Previous 1 … 57 58 59 … 77 Next
Search:

V, Xf = 0.9 V , Xs= 1.00 V. Find Xi.
1.
0.01 V
2.
0.1 V
3.
0.02 V
4.
0.001 V

V, Xf = 0.9 V , Xs= 1.00 V. Find the amount of feedback.
1.
a) 10
2.
1
3.
100
4.
90
1.
convolution
2.
correlation
A good measure of similarity between two signals x1(t) and x2(t) is
3.
4.
fourier transform
A network contains linear resistors and ideal voltage sources.If the value of all the 1.not changed 2.increases four times
resistors are doubledthen the voltage across each resistor_______ 3.doubled 4.halved
1.Real parts of zeros 2.Poles and zeros

A network function can be completely specified by: 3.Real parts of poles 4.Poles, zeros and a
scale factor
A network function contains only poles whose real-parts are zero or negative. The
1.always stable 2.stable, if the jw-axis poles
network is
are simple 3.stable, if the jw-axis poles are at
most of multiplicity 2 4.always unstable
A network has 7 nodes and 5 independent loops. The number of branches in the
1.13 2.12 3.11 4.10
network is:
A network N is to be connected to load of 500 ohms. If the Thevenin’s equivalent

voltage and Norton’s equivalent current of N are 5Volts and 10mA respectively, the 1.10mA 2.2.5mA 3.5mA 4.1mA
current through the load will be
1.
1
2.
A open loop transfer function is given as G(s) = (s+2)/(s+1)(s- 0
1). Find the number of encirclements about '-1+j0'? 3.
2
4.
3
1.
An energy signal
2.
A power signal
3.
4.
Previous 1 … 58 59 60 … 77 Next
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1.
A real and even function of omega
2.
A signal x(t) has Fourier transform X(j omega). If x(t) is a real and even function of t, Imaginary and odd function of omega
then X(j omega) is 3.
An imaginary and even function of Omega
4.
A real and odd function of Omega
A source of angular frequency 1 rad/sec has source impedance consisting of 1Ω 1.1O resistance 2.1O resistance in parallel
resistance in series with 1H inductance. The load that will obtain the maximum with 1H inductance 3.1O resistance in parallel
power transfer is: with 1F capacitor 4.1O resistance in series
with 1F capacitor
1.
1 ohm resistance
2.
1 ohm resistance in parallel with 1H
A source of angular frequency 1 rad/sec has source impedance consisting of 1 ohm
inductance
resistance in series with 1 H inductance. The load that will obtain the maximum
power transfer is: 3.
1 ohm resistance in parallel with 1F capacitor
4.
1 ohm resistance in series with 1F capacitor
1.
Linear, time invariant
2.
A system with an input x(t) and output y(t) is described by the relation y(t) = tx(t). Linear, time variant
This system is 3.
4.
1.highly stable 2.unstable 3.relatively stable

A system with gain margin close to unity or a phase margin close to zero is
4.oscillatory
A uniform plane electromagnetic wave incident normally on a plane surface of a

dielectric material is reflected with a VSWR of 3 .what is the percentage of incident 1.10% 2.25% 3.75% 4.50%
power that is reflected ?
A unit impulse voltage is applied to one port network having two linear components.
1.R and L in series 2.R and L in parallel 3.R
If the current through the network is 0 for t<0 and decays exponentially for t>0 then
and C in parallel 4.R and C in series
the network consists of
1.
4
2.
A unity feedback control system has an open loop transfer 6.5
function G(s) = k/(s(s² + 7s + 12) The gain k for which s = -1
3.
+ j1 will lie on the root locus of the system is
5
4.
10
1.
next interrupt of the interrupt vector table
2.
next instruction of the program after the IE
After RETI instruction is executed then the pointer will move to which location in the instruction
program?
3.
next instruction after the RETI in the memory
4.
1.
A) 10 MHz
2.
An amplifier whose open loop response is characterized by a dc gain of 105 V/V and a 3A) 30 MHz
dB roll off at 20 KHz, is connected in a feedback loop for which the overall low frequency
gain is 100V/V. what is the 3 dB roll-off with feedback? 3.
A) 20 MHz
4.
A) 40 MHz
Previous 1 … 59 60 61 … 77 Next
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1.has simple poles and zeros in the left half of

the s-plane 2.has no zero or pole at the origin
An L-C impedance or admittance function: or infinity. 3.has all poles on the negative real
axis of the s-plane. 4.is an odd rational
function.
Assuming zero initial condition, the response y(t) of the system given U(s)->1/s-
>Y(s) to a 1.u(t) 2.e-tu(t) 3.t^2/2*u(t) 4.tu(t)
1.
Microwave
2.
Radiofrequency
Both NMR and NQR spectra are observed in ---------- region
3.
X-ray
4.
UV-Vis
1.
1.273 kHz
2.
Calculate the cutoff frequency of a first-order low-pass filter for R1 = 2.5 k and 12.73 kHz
C1 = 0.05 F. 3.
127.3 kHz
4.
127.30 Hz
Calculate the output voltage if V1 = –0.2 V and V2 = 0 V.

1.
0V
2.
- 6.6 V
3.
-4V
4.
2V
1.width of line is large 2.width of line small

Conductor loss in Microstrip line will be less if 3.height of substrate is more 4.height of
substrate is less
1.
4/3
2.
Consider a network function H(s) = 2(s+3)/((s+2)(s+4)). What 1/2
is the steady state response due to step input? 3.
1
4.
3/4
Consider the figure given below. The given amplifier is

showing nonlinear behavior with A =104 V/V for Vo <= 0.2 V ,
A= 103 V/V for 0.2 V < Vo < 1 V but it hard limits at Vo =1 V.
The β of feedback loop is 0.01. Find Vi when Vo=0.99 V. 1.
a) 0.9 mV
2.
a) 0.099 mV
3.
a) 0.99 mV
4.
2.5 mV
1.
2.
Continuous time non periodic signal has
3.
Aperiodic continuous spectra
4.
1.
x(t-12 )
2.
x(t+12)
Convolution of x(t+5) with impulse function \delta(t-7) is equal to
3.
x(t-2)
4.
x(t+2)
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Determine the output voltage for this circuit with a sinusoidal input of 2.5 mV.
1.
- 0.25 V
2.
- 0.125 V
3.
0.25 V
4.
0.125 V

1.
0V
2.
-2V
3.
1V
4.
2V
1.
Phosgene
2.
Methyl isocyanate
During Bhopal tragedy the gas released was
3.
Potassium isothiocyanate
4.
Ammonia
1.
d-d transitions
2.
Inner sphere electron transfer
Electron transfer from Fe(H2O)62+ to Fe(H2O)63+ is likely occur via
3.
SN1 mechanism
4.
1.
(-1,-2)
Find the zero of the transfer function given 2.
a) (1,2)
3.
a) (2,-1)
4.
a) (1,4)
1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
2.
3.
Leads to aliasing
4.
1.11.0592 MHz 2.11.0952 MHz

For serial communication, standard frequency of the crystal for 8051
3.11.0295 MHz
would be
4.11MHz

1.0 2.1 3.Between 0 and 1 4.>1
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For a series R-C circuit excited by a d-c voltage of 10V, and with time-constant t, s, 1.10(1-e^-1) V 2.10-e^-1 V 3.10(1-e) V 4.1-
the voltage across C at time t = t is given by e^-1 V
For a type one system, the steady – state error due to step input is equal to 1.0.5 2.infinite 3.0.25 4.zero
1.Trignometrical 2.Rectangular 3.Polar

For addition or subtraction of phasors,we use ______ form
4.Trignometrical and polar
1.both z and y parameters exist. 2.neither z nor

y parameters exist. 3.z-parameters exist, but
For an ideal transformer,
not the y-parameters. 4.y-parameters exist, but
not the z-parameters.
For the circuit given below Find out what is the type of feedback? Also find out the
feedback factor (assume that and r=5 k and R2= 10 K and R1=20 K)
1.Series-Series. 3.34 X 10^(3) 2.Series-Shunt, 2.54

X 10^(3) 3.
Shunt-Series, 2.45 X 10^(3)
4.
For the circuit given below find out what type of feedback configuration it is. Also find
out the feedback factor (assume that and r=5 k and R2= 10 K)
1.
A) Series-Series, 0.25
2.
A) Series-Shunt, -0.25
3.
Shunt-Series, -0.5
4.
A) Shunt-Shunt, 0.5
1.
1
2.
-1
Fourier transform of impulse function is
3.
2
4.
Can not be found
1.
2/(j omega)
2.
1/(j omega)
3.
-1/ (j omega)
4.
1
1.
PSW.5=0 and PSW.4=1
2.
PSW.2=0 and PSW.3=1
How are the bits of the register PSW affected if we select Bank2 of 8051?
3.
PSW.3=1 and PSW.4=1
4.
PSW.3=0 and PSW.4=1
1.
CY=0,AC=0,P=0
How is the status of the carry, auxiliary carry and parity flag affected if write 2.
instruction CY=1,AC=1,P=0
MOV A,#9C 3.
4.
CY=1,AC=1,P=1
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1.
8 bytes
2.
How many bytes of bit addressable memory is present in 8051 based micro 32 bytes
controllers? 3.
16 bytes
4.
128 bytes
1.
2
How many op-amps are required to implement this equation?
2.
3
3.
4
4.
1
Ideal physical antenna length is ________ than its electrical length. 1.greater 2.very smaller 3.smaller 4.equal
1.a stable function. 2.a non-minimum phase

If a network function has zeros only in the left-half of the s-plane, then it is said to be function 3.a minimum phase function. 4.an all-
pass function.
1.
E
2.
E/2
If a signal f(t) has an energy E, the energy of the signal f(2t) is equal to
3.
2E
4.
4E
1.
Only sine terms
2.
If f(t) = f(-t) and f(t) satisfies the Dirichlet's conditions, then f(t) can be expanded in a Only cosine terms
Fourier series containing 3.
Cosine terms and constant term
4.
Sine terms and a constant term
1.
only sine terms
2.
Only cosine terms
If periodic signal has odd symmetry, then the Fourier series contains
3.
4.
1.
c^*_n
2.
If the Fourier series coefficients of x(t) are c_n , then the Fourier series coefficients
c_-n
of x(-t) is given by
3.
c^*_-n
4.
c_n
If the Nyquist plot of the loop transfer function G(s) H(s) of a closed-loop system 1.less than zero 2.greater than zero 3.Zero
encloses the (-1, jo) point in the G(s) H(s) plane, the gain margin of the system is 4.infinity
1.
Only sine terms
2.
If the periodic signal has an even symmetry, then the Fourier series contains, Only cosine terms
3.
4.
Previous 1 … 63 64 65 … 77 Next
Search:
1.
h1(t) * h2(t)
2.
If two system with impulse responses are h1(t) and h2(t) connected in parallel then h1(t) + h2(t)
the overall impulse response is 3.
h1(t) - h2(t)
4.
h1(t)h2(t)
1.
X(f) is complex
2.
If X(f) represents the Fourier transform of a signal x(t), which is real and odd X(f) is imaginary
symmetric in time, then 3.
X(f) is real
4.
X(f) is real and non-negative
1.
c_n d_n
2.
If x(t) and y(t) are two periodic signals, with Fourier series coefficients c_n and d_n Tc_n d_n
respectively, then the Fourier series coefficients of z(t) = x(t)y(t) are 3.
c_n *d_n
4.
1/T c_n d_n
1.
real and odd
2.
imaginary and odd
3.
real and even
4.
imaginary and even
1.
Imaginary and even
2.
Imaginary and Odd
3.
Real and Even
4.
Real and Odd
1.
Imaginary and odd
2.
Imaginary and even
3.
Real and odd
4.
Real and even
1.Timer 0 & Mode 1
In serial communication with 8051 Micro controller ________ timer 2.Timer 1& Mode 0
&_____mode is used for baud rate generation 3.Timer 0& Mode 2
4.Timer 1& Mode 2
In a 2-terminal network containing at least one inductor and one capacitor, 1.purely resistive 2.purely reactive 3.infinite
resonance condition exists only when the input impedance of the network is: 4.finite
In a double tuned circuit, consisting of two magnetically coupled, identical high-Q

1.a peak, always 2.a dip, always 3.either a
tuned circuits, at the resonance frequency of either circuit, the amplitude response
peak or a dip 4.neither a peak nor a dip
has
1.current and voltage are in phase 2.voltage

In a pure capacitive circuit, lags the current 3.voltage leads the current
4.no relation between current and voltage
Previous 1 … 64 65 66 … 77 Next
Search:
In a pure inductive circuit with V=10 sin(1000 t) and L=0.05 H,the current in ampere 1.-0.2 cos(1000 t) 2.0.2 cos(1000 t) 3.-0.2
is___ sin(1000 t) 4.0.2 sin(1000 t)
1.voltage leads the current 2.voltage lags the

In a pure inductive circuit, current 3.current and voltage are in phase
1.voltage leads the current 2.voltage lags the

In a pure inductive circuit, current 3.current and voltage are in phase
2. cutoff point
In BJT, the Q point on a dc load line in the saturation region represents the
3. intermediate current gain
1.opposite polarity signals are applied at the

inputs 2.
the gain is one
In differential-mode, ……………. 3.
the outputs are of different amplitudes
4.
1.
voltage
2.
In force-current analogy, electrical analogous quantity for inductance
displacement (x) is
3.
capacitance
4.
flux
1.
2.
the outputs are connected together
In the common mode, ……………
3.
an identical signal appears on both the inputs
4.
1.correct. 2.incorrect 3.the one to be followed

In the solution of network differential equations, the constants in the complementary
for finding the natural response 4.the one to
function have to be evaluated from the initial conditions, and then the particular
be followed for finding the natural and forced
integral i is to be added. This procedure is
responses
1.
2.
MOV A, @ R1 will 3.
copy the contents of memory whose address
is in R1 to the accumulator
4.
copy the accumulator to the contents of
memory whose address is in R1
1.
1
2.
Number of roots in left hand half of s plane if characteristic 2
equation is s3 - 4*s2 + s + 6 = 0 ? 3.
3
4.
0
Previous 1 … 65 66 67 … 77 Next
Search:
1.
MOV PC,#0022h
2.
MOV DPTR,#0022H
3.
MOVC A,@A+DPTR
4.
MOV A,R0
1.
Responsitivity
2.
Spectral response
3.
Transmit time
4.
Dispersion
Point charges 30nC,-20nCand 10nC are located at (-1,0,2),(0,0,0) and (1,5,-1),

1.20nC 2.10nC 3.30nC 4.-20nC
respectively. The total flux leaving a cube of side 6m centered at the origin is
1.1111 0011 2.1111 1001 3.1110 1001 4.1110

Solving –11 + (–2) will yield which two's-complement answer?
1101
Specifications of Butterworth low pass filter are given 1.13.1dB 2.

as fp =30kHz, Amax = 1 dB, fs = 40 kHz, Amin = 20 dB. What 14.2 dB
attenuation is provided at 35 KHz ?
3.9.3dB 4.
40 dB
1.
6
2.
Specifications of butterworth low pass filter are given as fp = 11
30kHz, Amax = 1 dB, fs = 40 kHz, Amin = 20 dB. What is the
3.
order of filter N?
10
4.
14
1.linear. 2.time-invariant. 3.nonlinear.

4.passive.
Suppose a uniform electric field exists in the room in which you are working, such
1.Points of different potential. 2.Points of the
that the lines of force are horizontal and at right angles to one wall. As you walk
same potential (equipotential line)? 3.Points of
toward the wall from which the lines of force emerge into the room, are you walking
lower potential? 4.Points of higher potential?
toward
1.a single gate 2.all flip-flops and gates after a

Synchronous construction reduces the delay time of a counter to the delay of 3 count 3.all flip-flops and gates 4.a single flip-
flop and a gate
1.
Root locus
2.
Bode
Technique gives quick transient and stability response
3.
Nyquist
4.
Nichols
Previous 1 … 66 67 68 … 77 Next
Search:
1.
8
2.
16
The vast majority of registers in 8051 are _________ bits
3.
32
4.
64
1.
3
2.
4

5
4.
6
1.
1
2.
2

3
4.
4
1.
2
2.
3
The 8051 has ________ parallel I/O ports.
3.
4
4.
5
1.
USART
2.
UART
3.I2C 4.
PWM
The admittance and impedance of the following kind of network have the same
properties:
1.
Uniform
2.
Sine function
The amplitude spectrum of Gaussian pulse is
3.Gaussian function
4.
An impulse function
The average power in a pure inductive load is _____ 1.VmIm/2 2.VmIm/1.414 3.VmIm 4.0
The average power in a resistive circuit is given by __________ 1.0 2.VmIm 3.VmIm/1.414 4.VmIm/2
The average power in the RL circuit is ______ the average power in a pure resistive 1.Equal to 2.Greater than 3.lesser than
circuit 4.greater or equal to
Previous 1 … 67 68 69 … 77 Next
Search:
1.
momentum
2.
velocity
3.
displacement
4.
mass
The characteristic equation of a control system is give by s(s + 1.60°

4)(s² + 2s + 1) + k(s + 1) =0. Find the angle between the
2. 360°
asymptotes?
3. 120°
4.180°
1.
clampers
2.
Level Shifters
The clipper circuit is otherwise called as
3.
Limiters
4.
DC restorers
The condition for maximum power transfer to take place in a ac circuit is ___ 1.ZL=-ZTH 2.ZL=ZTH* 3.ZL=ZTH 4.ZL=0
1.
11010111
The contents of the accumulator after the following operation 2.

11011010
MOV A,#0BH
ANL A,#2CH 3.
will be 00001000
4.
00101000
1.
1
2.
The dc gain of a system represented by the transfer function 12 2
/ {( s + 1 )( s + 3 )} is 3.
5
4.
10
1.
N(N-1)
2.
N^2
The direct evaluation of DFT requires ______________ complex multiplications.
3.
N(N+1)
4.
N(N-1)/2
1.
causal, linear and time variant
2.
The discrete time system described by y(n) = x(n^2) is
3.
non-causal, linear, time invariant
4.
non-causal, linear, time variant
1.
j Im {x_n}
2.
Re{c_n}
3.
Even {c_n}
4.
Odd {c_n}
1.
Real and even
2.
Imaginary and even
3.
Imaginary and odd
4.
Real and odd
Previous 1 … 68 69 70 … 77 Next
Search:
1.
stable, but not causal
2.
The impulse response of a linear time invariant system is given by h(n) = u(n+3) + stable and causal
u(n-2) -2u(n-7), where u(n) is unit step sequence. The above system is 3.
4.
1.
difference between two bias currents
2.
The input offset current equals the ……….
3.
collector current divided by current gain
4.
1.
2.
class B push pull amplifier
The input stage of an Op-amp is usually a ……….
3.
CE amplifier
4.
Swamped Amplifier
1.
1/(s² + s + 2)
The input-output relationship of a linear time invariant 2.
continuous time system is given by r(t) = d²c(t)/dt² + 3 1/(s² + 3*s + 2)
dc(t)/dt + 2 c(t) Where r(t) and c(t) are input and output
3.
respectively. What is the transfer function of the system equal
to? 2/(s² + 3*s + 2)
4.
2/(s² + s + 2)
1.
32 bytes
2.
64 bytes
3.
128 bytes
4.
256 bytes
1.a resistance, a capacitance and an opamp.

2.a resistance, an inductance and an opamp.
The minimum amount of hardware required to make a lowpass filter is
3.a resistance, a capacitance and an
inductance. 4.a resistance and a capacitance.
1.
N log_2 N
2.
The number of complex multiplications required to calculate N point DFT using N/2 log_10 N
radix-2 DIT-FFT algorithm is 3.
N log_10 N
4.
N/2 log_2 N
1.
200
2.
The Nyquist sampling frequency in Hz of a signal given by 6 x 10^4 sinc(400\pit) x 300
10^6 sinc(100\pit) is 3.
500
4.
1000
1.
150 samples / sec
2.
The Nyquist sampling rate for the signal g(t) = 10 cos (50 pi t) cos^2 (150 pi t), 200 samples/ sec
where t is in seconds is 3.
300 samples / sec
4.
350 samples/ sec
1.
cost, sint
2.
sint, -cos t
3.
(u(t) - u(-t))/2, (u(t) + u(-t))/2
4.
cost,-jsint
Previous 1 … 69 70 71 … 77 Next
Search:
1.
0
2.
The open loop transfer function for unity feedback system is 2
given by 5(1+0.1s) / (s(1+5s)(1+20s)) Find the steady state
3.
error for a step input of magnitude 10 is equal to
infinite
4.
5
1.
infinite
2.
The open loop transfer function of a unity feedback control
0.707
system is given by G(s) = k/s(s+1). If gain k is increased to
infinity, then damping ratio will tend to become 3.
unity
4.
zero
1.90 V/μs 2.
0.67 V/μs
The output of a particular Op-amp increases 8V in 12μs. The slew rate is ……. 3.
1.5 V/μs
4.
0
1.
45°
2.
The phase margin of a system having the loop transfer function 30°
G(s)H(s) = 2√3/s(s+1) is 3.
60°
4.
80°
1.1/Cos x
2.tan x
The power factor is given by _______
3.sin x
4.Cos x
1.resistor 2.capacitor 3.inductor 4.voltage

source
The Q-factor of a parallel resonance circuit consisting of an inductance of value

1.1 2.10 3.20 4.100
1mH,capacitance of value 10^-5 F and a resistance of 100 ohms is
The rms value of the a-c voltage v(t) = 200 sin 314 t is: 1.200 V 2.157.23 V 3.314 V 4.141.42 V
Previous 1 … 70 71 72 … 77 Next
Search:
The rms value of the sinusoidal wave is given by__ 1.Vm/2 2.1.414 Vm 3.2Vm 4.vm/1.414
1. 1.65 sec
The second order system is defined
by 25 / ( s2 + 5s + 25) is given
step input. The time taken for the
output to settle with in 2 % of
The second order system is defined by 25 / ( s2 + 5s + 25) is input is
given step input. The time taken for the output to settle with in 2.
2 % of input is 1.2 sec.
3.
2 sec.
4.
0.4 sec.
1.
is periodic
2.
is not periodic
3.
4.
1.
power signal
2.
energy signal
3.
4.
1.
2.
3.
4.
aperiodic
1.linear for any value of b 2.linear if b > 0

The system characterized by the equation y(t )= ax(t) + b is
3.linear if b < 0 4.non-linear
1.
unstable, because it is FIR system
2.
stable, because it is an IIR system

unstable, because it does not obey BIBO
stability criterion
4.
stable, because it obeys BIBO stability
criterion
1.
non-causal, stable
2.
3.
causal, unstable
4.
causal, stable
1.
2.
3.
is causal
4.
is non-causal
1.
stable, causal
2.
non-causal, stable
3.
non stable, causal
4.
Previous 1 … 71 72 73 … 77 Next
Search:
1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
2 sec
2.
5 sec
The time period of the signal x(t) = cos (2*pi*t) + sin (5*pi*t) is
3.
10 sec
4.
2.5 sec
1.
an over damped.
3.
4.
a unstable.
1.
sin-1((1 - α)/(1 + α)
2.
The transfer function of phase lead compensator is given by cos-1((1 - α)/(1 + α)
G(s) = (1 + TS)/(1 + αTS), where, T > 0, α < 0. What is the 3.
maximum phase shit provided by this compensator? tan-1((1 - α)/(2√α)
4.
sin-1((1 - α)/(1 + α) and tan-
1((1 - α)/(2√α)
1.
DC term
2.
Cosine term
The trigonometric fourier series of an even function of time does not have the
3.
Sine term
4.
Odd harmonic temrs
the unit of average power is _____ 1.Watts 2.Volt ampere 3.Newton 4.Volt
ampere Reactive
1.
0.707
2.
The value of 'a' to give phase margin = 45° will be G(s) = 1.414
(as+1)/s² 3.
1.18
4.
0.9
1.
3 PORTS
2.
2 PORTS
To interface LCD to 8051 we need
3.
1 PORTS
4.
4 PORTS
1.
0xFF
2.
0x11
To initialize any port as an output port what value is to be given to it?
3.
0x22
4.
A port is by default an output port
1.convolution of h1( t) and h2(t) 2.sum of h1(

Two systems with impulse responses h1( t) and h2(t) are connected in
t) and h2(t) 3.Product of h1( t) and h2(t)
cascade.Then the overall impulse response of the cascaded system is given by
4.subtraction of h1( t) and h2(t)
Previous 1 … 72 73 74 … 77 Next
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Using four cascaded counters with a total of 16 bits, how many states must be
1.25,536 2.65,536 3.50,000 4.15,536
deleted to achieve a modulus of 50,000
1.v2 leads v1 by -75 2.v1 leads v2 by 75 3.v2

v1(t)=20 cos(wt+30),v2=30 sin(wt+45)
leads v1 by 15 4.v1 leads v2 by 15
Vr=10 cos (300 t),R=5 ohms; Ir=____ 1.2/_0 2.10/_0 3.5/_0 4.60
1.
00H-77H
2.
40H-80H
What is the address range of SFR Register bank?
3.
80H-7FH
4.
80H-FFH
1.
INT 0
2.
INT 1
What is the alternative function of P3.2 in 8051?
3.
COUNTER
4.
TIMER INTERRUPT
1.
a constant pulse is to be maintained for a
greater span of time
2.
What is the disadvantage of a level triggered pulse? 3.
4.
another interrupt may be caused, if the signal
is still low before the completion of the last
instruction
1.
250 kHz, 6.37 V
What is the highest frequency content of a triangle wave of 30-V 2.
peak-to-peak amplitude that can be exactly reproduced by an op 146 kHz, 5.45 V
amp whose slew rate is 10 V/µs? Also For a sine wave of the same
frequency what is the maximum amplitude of output signal that 3.
remain un-distorted? 300 KHz, 3.54 V
4.
167 KHz, 9.53 V
1.
16K
2.
32K
What is the maximum size of the memory that can be interfaced with 8051?
3.
64K
4.
128K
Previous 1 … 73 74 75 76 77 Next
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1.
DPTR
2.
SP
When 8051 wakes up then 0x00 is loaded to which register?
3.
PC
4.
PSW
When a circuit is in resonance,the impedance of the circuit is_____ 1.XC 2.2R 3.XL 4.R
when a phasor is multiplied by –j,it is rotated through ________in the counter 1.90 2.180 3.45
clockwise direction 4.Both magnitude and direction change
1.
to the next instruction which is to be executed
2.
to the first instruction of ISR
When any interrupt is enabled, then where does the pointer moves immediately
after this interrupt has occurred? 3.
to the first location of the memory called the
interrupt vector table
4.
1.
PSW
2.
When the micro controller executes some arithmetic operations, then the flag bits of SP
which register are affected? 3.
DPTR
4.
PC
When two counters are cascaded, the overall MOD number is equal to the
1.Reciprocal 2.Log 3.Sum 4.Product
________ of their individual MOD numbers
1.
immediate
2.
Which addressing mode is used in pushing or popping any element on or from the direct
stack? 3.
indirect
4.
register
1.
MOV A,P0
2.
ADD A,#05H
Which instruction is used to check the status of a single bit?
3.
JNB PO.0, label
4.
CLR P0.05H
1.
INT0
2.
INT1
3.
TIMER0
4.
RESET
1.
MOVX A, @DPTR
2.
MOVC @A+DPTR,A
Which of the following comes under indexed addressing mode?
3.
MOV A,R0
4.
MOV @R0,A
Previous 1 … 73 74 75 76 77 Next
Search:
1.
MOV A, 04H
2.
MOV A, L4
Which of the following commands will copy the contents of location 4H to the
accumulator? 3.
MOV L4, A
4.
MOV 04H, A
1.
MOV A, P27
2.
MOV A, #27H
Which of the following commands will move the number 27H into the accumulator?
3.
MOV A, 27H
4.
MOV A, @27
1.
MOV TH0, #35H
2.
MOV TH0, 35H
Which of the following instructions will load the value 35H into the high byte of
timer 0? 3.
MOV T0, #35H
4.
MOV T0, 35H
1.
2.
x(t) must have finite number of minima and
maxima
Which of the following is not the condition for existence of Fourier transform
3.
x(t) must have finite number of discontinuous
points
4.
1.
2.
ROC is right side of right most pole if x(t) is
causal
Which of the following is not the property of Region of convergence
3.
4.
ROC is left side of left most pole if x(t) is anti
causal
1.
PIN photodiode
2.
3.
4.
Photo transistor
1.
ADD @R3, @A
2.
ADD @A, R3
Which of the following statements will add the accumulator and register 3?
3.
ADD R3, A
4.
ADD A, R3
1.
y(t) = x(2t)
2.
y(t) = x(t) + x(t-1)
Which of the following system is time invariant
3.
y(t) = x(t/2)
4.
y(t) = x(-t)
1.
y(n) = nx(n)
2.
y(n) = x(n)x(n-1)
which of the following systems are invertible?
3.
y(t) = dx(t)/dt
4.
y(n) = x(1-n)
1.
PORT 0 and PORT 1
2.
PORT 1 and PORT 2
Which of the ports act as the 16 bit address lines for transferring data through it?
3.
PORT 0 and PORT 2
4.
PORT 1 and PORT 3
Previous 1 … 73 74 75 76 77 Next
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1.
$
2.
Which operator is the most important while assigning any instruction as register #
indirect instruction? 3.
@
4.
&
1.
TCON
2.
IE
Which register is used to make the pulse a level or a edge triggered pulse?
3.
IPR
4.
SCON
1.to provide for setup times and hold times

Why would a delay gate be needed for a digital circuit? 2.to provide for hold times 3.to provide for
setup times 4.A delay gate is never needed.
1.
2.
x(t) - x(t-1)
3.
accumulating x(t)
4.
x(t) + x(t+1)
Zth is 50 +30 j;what should be the load resistance connected for maximum power
1.50+30 j 2.50-30 j 3.-50-30j 4.-50+30j
transfer to take place?
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TMS peak in a spectrometer operating at 60 MHz. The chemical 2.

________ and ______ respectively

Most stable free radical 3.

Among the following compounds, the one that undergoes

The electrophilic aromatic substitution proceeds through a 1.

Among the following, the most stable isomer for 3-

Assuming that the channel is noiseless, if TV channels are 8 kHz 2.

voltage held constant

bias voltage held constant

bias voltage held constant

base bias voltage held

Total emitter current is 2. I – I

A MOD-12 and a MOD-10 counter are 1. 2000kHz

1. select the last input.

For a (6,4) block code where n = 6, k = 4 and 2. 2

Symbols 1 and 0 are represented by pulse of

Which one of the following is used to detect the 2. DPSK

4. Pe= erfc (sqrt (Eb/No)

A carrier is amplitude modulation to depth of

The Nyquist sampling rate for a signal band 2. 20 kHz

which is quite uniform upto frequencies in the

Which of the following is the main advantage of 2. High power

What are the primary resources of an 2. noise

Block calls held condition specified the held a) Erlang B

4. Operation and Support System

A multiple access technique used in GSM 2.

The center frequency of a band-pass filter is 2. geometric average of the critical

In a binary PCM system, the output signal-to-

An FM station is operating at 100 MHz.

In the envelope of an AM wave, given Vmax = 1. 0.25, 10V

1. does not consists of loss to due to

60 Hz, it is a 3. good dielectric

The electric susceptibility of a dielectric is 4, its 2. 4.42 x 10 F/m

The bit sequence 0010 is serially entered (right- 1. 0000

Using four cascaded counters with a total of 16

A ________ filter significantly attenuates all 1. high-pass

What is the major factor for determining whether 1. Attenuation Constant

With a PNP circuit, the most positive voltage is 2. ground

280mV . The voltage gain is

it can be said that A is 3. Conservative

4. the breakdown voltage BV CEO

Plane y = 0 carries a uniform current of

field intensity is ______ 3. -15a mA/m

magnitude of electric field is maximum at N side

4. The edge of the depletion region on P

transmission line is given by, (where R, L, G, C

The reflection coefficient over the normalized Z 2. (Z + 1)/ (Z -1 )

Which of the following lines is non-radiating? 2. waveguide

3. Open two wire

4. there will be no oscillations on line

ρl = 10pC/m and it lies along the z axis.

area of the coil is 2m , the flux is

1. The code rate is 0.5

4. It has no sinks or sources

Plane z = 10m carries charge 20nC/m . The 2

electric Field intensity at the origin is 3. -18π a V/m z

Consider a system that uses 8-bit ASCII codes to encode

1. Quarter wave matching

of N /2 and the output of BPF is P(t). The variance of P(t) is

A rate 1/2 convolution code with d = 10 is used to encode

samples are quantized using a 16-bit/sample quantizer. The 2. 4.23 x 10 9

__ and respectively