PRACTICE TEST 50 ( DS55) – GROUP 11 A

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 1: Drug abuse has became one of America's most serious social problems.
A. has became  B. one of  C. most serious  D. social problems
Question 2: To grow well, a tree must be well-suited to the area where it was planted.
A. To grow  B. a tree  C. well-suited  D. it was
Question 3: He enjoys listening to the works of classic composers while he is studying.
A. enjoys listening  B. the works  C. classic composers D. is studying
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 4: - Nam: If you like, I can check the deadline for our assignment. - Lan: ___________
A. Assignments are just a waste of time.  B. I am scared of deadlines.
C. Thanks, but that won't be necessary.  D. I don't really like this assignment.
Question 5: - Mike: "Can you help me carry this vacuum cleaner upstairs?” - Susan: "___________.”
A. Why not?  B. I think that, too. C. Yes, I'm afraid not. D. Not completely.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions. 
New Zealand is a small country of four million inhabitants, a long-haul flight from all the major tourist
generating markets of the world. Tourism currently makes up 9% of the country's gross domestic product and
is the country's largest export sector. Unlike other export sectors, which make products and then sell them
overseas, tourism brings its customers to New Zealand. The product is the country itself the people, the
places, and the experiences. In 1999, Tourism New Zealand launched a campaign to communicate a new
brand position to the world. The campaign focused on New Zealand's scenic beauty, exhilarating outdoor
activities and authentic Maori culture, and it made New Zealand one of the strongest national brands in the
world. 
A key feature of the campaign was the website www.newzealand.com, which provided potential visitors
to New Zealand with a single gateway to everything the destination had to offer. The heart of the website was
a database of tourism services operators, both those based in New Zealand and those based abroad which
offered tourism service to the country. Any tourism-related business could be listed by filling in a simple
form. This meant that even the smallest bed and breakfast address or specialist activity provider could gain a
web presence with access to an audience of long-haul visitors. In addition, because participating businesses
were able to update the details they gave on a regular basis, the information provided remained accurate. And
to maintain and improve standards, Tourism New Zealand organized a scheme whereby organizations
appearing on the website underwent an independent evaluation against a set of agreed national standards of
quality. As part of this, the effect of each business on the environment was considered. 
To communicate the New Zealand experience, the site also carried features relating to famous people and
places. One of the most popular was an interview with former New Zealand All Blacks rugby captain Tana
Umaga. Another feature that attracted a lot of attention was an interactive journey through a number of the
locations chosen for blockbuster films which had made use of New Zealand's stunning scenery as a backdrop.
As the site developed, additional features were added to help independent travelers devise their own
customized itineraries.
Question 6: According to paragraph 4, why did the website conduct an interview with Tana Umaga?
A. to advertise the New Zealand experience  B. to show off the beauty of New Zealand
C. to attract a lot of attention  D. to encourage tourists to visit New Zealand
Question 7: The word "it" in paragraph 1 refers to ___________.
A. campaign  B. tourism
C. website  D. New Zealand's scenic beauty
Question 8: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The tourism in New Zealand  B. The tourist attractions in New Zealand
C. The website of New Zealand  D. The website for New Zealand's tourism
Question 9: Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. New Zealand's products are not about its food, people, places and experiences.
B. New Zealand is a small country, with a population of fourteen million.
C. New Zealand cuisine has made New Zealand one of the world's biggest national brands.
D. Blockbuster films had used New Zealand's stunning scenery as a backdrop.
Question 10: The word "evaluation" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. comparison  B. assessment  C. score  D. result
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11: I chose to submit my application in writing, but I ___________ do it that way.
A. hadn't to  B. didn't have to  C. shouldn't have  D. mustn't have
Question 12: Before each game, the coach would give the team a _________ talk.
A. motivator  B. motivated  C. motivational  D. motivate
Question 13: Ben started to shiver with cold, _________ we decided to go home.
A. why at that point B. at that time  C. by this time  D. at which point
Question 14: The mayor's recommendation that ___________ was approved by the city council.
A. building a pool  B. would build a pool
C. a pool be built  D. they would build a pool
Question 15: I remember ___________ about the management course.
A. having informed B. informing  C. that I informed D. having been
informed
Question 16: Mocha is a tasty __________ of chocolate, coffee and milk.
A. congestion  B. brand  C. flavor  D. blend
Question 17: After it had been ___________ the air for only two months, the series was cancelled.
A. over  B. above  C. on  D. in
Question 18: I wish my daughter __________ while she was doing her homework.
A. wouldn't turn on music so loudly  B. hadn't turned on music so loudly
C. couldn't turn on music so loudly  D. didn't turn on music so loudly
Question 19: I was happy to ____________ her suggestions.
A. fall out  B. fall for  C. fall through  D. fall in with 
Question 20: My neighbor is driving me mad! It seems that _________ it is at night, _________ he plays his
music! 
A. the less/ the more loud  B. the later/the louder
C. the latter / the less noisy  D. the more late/ the more loudly
Question 21: Some people feel it's their moral ___________ to help the poor.
A. period  B. duty  C. arrangement  D. activity
Question 22: Scarcely had the eagle been released ____________ from view.
A. that it was disappearing  B. but it had disappeared
C. when it disappeared  D. than it has disappeared
Question 23: A new TV show has sparked __________ by showing the positive side of dropping out of
college.
A. argument  B. discussion  C. controversy  D. debate
Question 24: ___________ we leave at three o'clock, we should get to the airport on time.
A. Assuming  B. Assumed  C. To assume  D. Having assumed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25: His clothes were old and worn. They looked clean and of good quality.
A. His clothes looked clean and of good quality but they were old and worn.
B. No matter what good quality his clothes had, they looked old and worn.
C. His clothes, though old and worn, looked clean and of good quality.
D. He was fond of wearing such old and worn clothes because they were of good quality.
Question 26: They didn't have breakfast. That's why they are hungry now.
A. If they had breakfast, they wouldn't be hungry now.
B. If they had breakfast, they would have been hungry now.
C. If they had had breakfast, they wouldn't be hungry now
D. If they had had breakfast, they wouldn't have been hungry now
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
Question 27: Many species are threatened in the wild due to habitat destruction by man.
A. place of living  B. rituals  C. usual behaviour D. favourite activity
Question 28: She got the job in the teeth of considerable competition.
 A. owing to  B. regardless of C. as regards  D. in respect to
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions. 
There are two main hypotheses when it comes to explaining the emergence of modern humans. The "Out
of Africa" theory holds that homo sapiens burst onto the scene as a new species around 150,000 to 200,000
years ago in Africa and subsequently replaced archaic humans such as the Neanderthals. The other model,
known as multi-regional evolution or regional continuity, posits far more ancient and diverse roots for our
kind. Proponents of this view believe that homo sapiens arose in Africa some 2 million years ago and
evolved as a single species spreading across the Old World, with populations in different regions linked
through genetic and cultural exchange. 
Of these two models, Out of Africa, which was originally developed based on fossil evidence, and
supported by much genetic research, has been favored by the majority of evolution scholars. The vast
majority of these genetic studies have focused on DNA from living populations, and although some small
progress has been made in recovering DNA from Neanderthal that appears to support multi-regionalism, the
chance of recovering nuclear DNA from early human fossils is quite slim at present. Fossils thus remain very
much a part of the human origins debate. 
Another means of gathering theoretical evidence is through bones. Examinations of early modern human
skulls from Central Europe and Australia dated to between 20,000 and 30,000 years old have suggested that
both groups apparently exhibit traits seen in their Middle Eastern and African predecessors. But the early
modern specimens from Central Europe also display Neanderthal traits, and the early modern Australians
showed affinities to archaic Homo from Indonesia. Meanwhile, the debate among paleoanthropologists
continues, as supporters of the two hypotheses challenge the evidence and conclusions of each other.
Question 29: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT _________
A. DNA studies offer one of the best ways in future to provide clear evidence.
B. three methods of gathering evidence are mentioned in the passage.
C. the multi-regional model goes back further in history.
D. the Out of Africa model has had more support from scholars.
Question 30: It can be inferred from the passage that ___________
A. the debate will interest historians to take part in.
B. there is likely to be an end to the debate in the near future.
C. there is little likelihood that the debate will die down.
D. the debate is likely to be less important in future.
Question 31: According to the passage, which of the following information is NOT true?
A. The vast majority of genetic studies have focused on living populations.
B. Examinations of early modem human skulls all support the same conclusions.
C. Both hypotheses focus on Africa as a location for the new species.
D. Early modem Australian skulls have similarities to those from Indonesia.
Question 32: Which of the following statements is NOT true about the two hypotheses?
A. Both hypotheses cite Africa as an originating location.
B. Genetic studies have supported both hypotheses.
C. One hypothesis dates the emergence of homo sapiens much earlier than the other.
D. Both hypotheses regard Neanderthals to be the predecessors of modern humans.
Question 33: The passage primarily discusses which of the following ________
A. two hypotheses and some evidence on the human origins debate.
B. evidence that supports the "Out of Africa" theory.
C. that fossils remain very much a part of the human origins debate.
D. the difficulties in obtaining agreement among theorists on the human origins debate.
Question 34: In paragraph 3, the word “their” refers to __________
A. Central Europeans and Australians  B. traits
C. skulls  D. Middle Easterners and Africans
Question 35: The word "predecessors" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________
A. off-spring  B. ancestors  C. pioneers  D. juniors
Question 36: The word "Proponents" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. Historians  B. Inspectors  C. Advocates  D. Experts
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 37: A. theaters B. attends  C. shifts  D. authors
Question 38: A. evolve B. protection  C. operate  D. robot
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
option for each of the blanks. 
Many of us enjoy art, and a beautiful painting often evokes a positive response, such as admiration and
wonder. (39) ________ for some people, viewing a work of art can set in motion a series of disturbing
physical effects, such as rapid heart rate, dizziness and even fainting. 
In 1817, the author Stendhal had such an experience while visiting Florence, an Italian city (40)
________ by churches and museums famous for their art treasures. When Stendhal looked up at church
ceiling, he was so astonished by the beauty of the frescoes that his heart began to beat rapidly. His symptoms
(41) ________ and he almost fainted. Since then, some people visiting Florence – foreign tourists, by and
(42) ________ have experienced a reaction. The effects are usually mild and quickly disappear, but
sometimes they are substantial (43) ________ to require medical attention.
Question 39: A. Otherwise B. However  C. Therefore  D. Moreover
Question 40: A. determined B. communicated C. dominated  D. indicated
Question 41: A. intensified B. simplified  C. distorted  D. pursued
Question 42: A. wide B. large  C. huge  D. broad
Question 43: A. fully B. very much  C. incredibly  D. enough
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 44: I would go mad if I had to do a dead-end job.
A. monotonous  B. demanding  C. boring  D. fascinating
Question 45: During my time in Paris, I stayed in a cramped top-floor flat.
A. immense  B. full  C. spacious  D. huge
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 46: A. sector B. desert  C. willing  D. diverse
Question 47: A. ingredient B. optimistic  C. traditional  D. significant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 48: It is apparent that Nancy was at home last night.
A. I am not sure whether Nancy was at home last night or not.
B. No one knows whether Nancy was at home last night.
C. Nancy should have been at home last night.
D. Nancy must have been at home last night.
Question 49: It is not possible for me to sleep in a filthy place like this.
A. I have difficult in sleeping in a filthy place like this.
B. I can't possibly sleep in a filthy place like this.
C. I find it possible to have a good sleep in the quiet place.
D. I have difficulty to sleep in such a filthy place like this.
Question 50: "It's marvelous that you were accepted to university" Dad said to me.
A. Dad praised me for my flying colour in the university entrance exam.
B. Dad told to me that it was wonderful that I had been accepted to university.
C. Dad encouraged me to make efforts to be accepted to university.
D. Dad congratulated me on being accepted to university. 

PRACTICE TEST 51 ( DS58) – GROUP 11 A

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. 
Part of what makes summers so hot is also what causes thunderstorms. As heat from the sun beats down
on Earth, the heat evaporates some of the water in lakes and oceans. The evaporated water stays in the air.
This evaporated water makes the air feel heavy and humid. Humid air is what makes you feel hot and sticky
(1) _______ the summer. 
Warm humid air usually does not stay in one place. The wind can move it higher in the sky (2) _______ it
will cool off. When warm humid air cools, it forms clouds. As more water is moved from lakes and oceans to
the airs, the clouds get bigger and bigger. 
Since summer, the air near the ground is hotter than it is during other seasons of the year. When this hot
air mixes with cool air from (3) _______ area, there will be changes in the weather. Greater differences
between the (4) _______ of the hot and cold air will cause greater changes in the weather. Imagine putting an
ice (5) _______ in a warm drink. As soon as the ice hits the warm drink, it will crack and pop. But if you put
the ice cube in a cool drink, it will not crack or pop as much. When warmer and cooler clouds get close to
one another, there may be some popping and cracking as the weather changes. There may be more clouds
or storms. A thunderstorm may be on its way. 
(Adapted from Elfrieda H. Hiebert 2010) 
Question 1: A. for B. while C. on D. during
Question 2: A. where B. who C. which D. that
Question 3: A. another B. much C. others D. other
Question 4: A. climates B. temperatures C. latitudes D. atmospheres
Question 5: A. cubic B. cubicle C. cubical D. cube
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions. 
Question 6: Those two pictures hanging on the gallery wall_________ in France, and they are very well
known. 
A. were painted B. were paint C. were painting D. painted
Question 7: _______, she often wears in red and black. 
A. After I have met my beloved teacher B. Until I will meet my beloved teacher
C. By the time I meet my beloved teacher D. Whenever I meet my beloved teacher
Question 8: _______ you study for these exams, _______ you will do. 
A. The hardest / the best B. The more / the much 
C. The harder / the better D. The more hard / the more good
Question 9: He was pleased that things in his university were going on __________. 
A. satisfying B. satisfactorily C. satisfactory D. satisfied
Question 10: I’m taking an intensive 2 day _______ course in computing. I want to learn the basics
quickly before I start my new job. 
A. splash B. smash C. flash D. crash
Question 11: James could no longer bear the _______ surroundings of the decrepit old house.
A. domineering B. oppressive C. overbearing D. pressing
Question 12: My mother bought a ___________belt from a shop on Ba Dinh street.
A. nice brown leather B. brown nice leather C. nice leather brown D. leather brown nice
Question 13: I agreed that the shop treated you very badly. But just write a polite letter of complaint. It’s not
worth making a _______ about it. 
A. song and dance B. tooth and nail C. pins and needles D. length and breadth
Question 14: Those cars are very expensive, _______? 
A. are they B. are cars C. aren't they D. aren't cars
Question 15: She applied for training as a pilot, but they turned her down _______ her poor eyesight.
A. because of B. in spite of C. although D. because
Question 16: Many young people travel all over the world, and then do all kinds of jobs before
they _______. 
A. settle down B. put down C. go down D. touch down
Question 17: He came when I ________ the film “Man from the star”. 
A. was watching B. watched C. am watching D. has watched
Question 18: Would you kindly inform me who is responsible __________the travel arrangements?
A. to B. in C. for D. on
Question 19: If the work-force respected you, you wouldn't need to ______ your authority so often.
A. assert B. inflict C. affirm D. maintain
Question 20: ___________ the book, I wrote down some notes. 
A. Being read B. Read C. To read D. Having read
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
Question 21: Both universities speak highly of the programme of student exchange and hope to
cooperate more in the future. 
A. resolve a conflict over B. voice opinions on
C. find favor with D. express disapproval of
Question 22: Never punish your children by hitting them. This might teach them to become hitters.
A. accept B. give C. reward D. bring
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
Question 23: A living cell is a marvel of detailed and complex structure. 
A. wonder B. magnification C. invention D. swiftness
Question 24: When two people get married, it is with the assumption that their feelings for each other
are immutable and will never alter. 
A. constantly B. alterable C. everlasting D. unchangeable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions. 
Question 25: I don’t think Max broke your vase because he wasn’t here then. 
A. Max was likely to break your vase because he wasn’t here then. 
B. Max wouldn’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then. 
C. Max wasn’t able to break your vase because he wasn’t here then. 
D. Max can’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then. 
Question 26: Eating Korean food is new to me. 
A. I did not use to eating Korean food. B. I used to eat Korean food.
C. I have never eaten Korean food before. D. I no longer eat Korean food.
Question 27: “Would you like some more beer?” he asked. 
A. He asked me would I like some more beer. B. He offered me some more beer.
C. He asked me if I liked some more beer. D. He wanted to invite me for a glass of beer.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 28: A. final B. survival C. liberty D. reliable
Question 29: A. received B. concealed C. attached D. concerned
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions. 
Question 30: After John eats dinner, he wrote several letters and went to bed. 
A. eats B. letters C. went D. he wrote
Question 31: Their children learn primarily by directly experiencing the world around it.
A. primarily B. it C. experiencing D. world
Question 32: If you have some sufficient knowledge of English, you can make yourself understand almost
everywhere. 
A. almost B. of C. some D. understand
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions. 
It is estimated that by 2050 more than two-thirds of the world's population will live in cities, up
from about 54 percent today. While the many benefits of organized and efficient cities are well understood,
we need to recognize that this rapid, often unplanned urbanization brings risks of profound social instability,
risks to critical infrastructure, potential water crises and the potential for devastating spread of disease. These
risks can only be further exacerbated as this unprecedented transition from rural to urban areas continues. 
How effectively these risks can be addressed will increasingly be determined by how well cities
are governed. The increased concentration of people, physical assets, infrastructure and economic
activities mean that the risks materializing at the city level will have far greater potential to disrupt society
than ever before. 
Urbanization is by no means bad by itself. It brings important benefits for economic, cultural and
societal development. Well managed cities are both efficient and effective, enabling economies of scale and
network effects while reducing the impact on the climate of transportation. As such, an urban model can
make economic activity more environmentally-friendly. Further, the proximity and diversity of people can
spark innovation and create employment as exchanging ideas breeds new ideas. But these utopian concepts
are threatened by some of the factors driving rapid urbanization. For example, one of the main factors is rural
urban migration, driven by the prospect of greater employment opportunities and the hope of a better life
in cities. But rapidly increasing population density can create severe problems, especially if planning efforts
are not sufficient to cope with the influx of new inhabitants. The result may, in extreme cases, be
widespread poverty. Estimates suggest that 40% of the world's urban expansion is taking place in slums,
exacerbating socio-economic disparities and creating unsanitary conditions that facilitate the spread of
disease.
The Global Risks 2015 Report looks at four areas that face particularly daunting challenges in the face
of rapid and unplanned urbanization: infrastructure, health, climate change, and social instability. In each of
these areas we find new risks that can best be managed or, in some cases, transferred through the
mechanism of insurance. 
(Adapted from zurich.com) 
Question 33: The word “that" in paragraph 4 refers to __________. 
A. unsanitary conditions B. urban expansion 
C. socio-economic disparities D. disease 
Question 34: According to paragraph 3, what is one of the advantages of urbanization?
A. It makes water supply system both efficient and effective. 
B. It minimizes risks for economic, cultural and societal development. 
C. People may come up with new ideas for innovation. 
D. Weather and climate in the city will be much improved. 
Question 35: Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage? 
A. Rapidly increasing population density can help solve poverty. 
B. 54% of the world's population will live in cities by 2050. 
C. Risks cannot be addressed effectively no matter how well cities are governed. 
D. Urbanization brings important benefits for development as well. 
Question 36: The word "addressed" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. aimed at B. agreed on C. dealt with D. added to
Question 37: What can be inferred from the passage? 
A. Poverty may be a foregone conclusion of unplanned urbanization. 
B. The increasing number of people in cities can create more employment. 
C. Urbanization can solve the problem of environmental pollution in cities. 
D. Diseases are caused by people migrating to cities. 
Question 38: Which is the most suitable title for the passage? 
A. The Risks of Rapid Urbanization in Developing Countries 
B. The Global Risks 2015 Report on Developing Urban Areas 
C. Infrastructure and Economic Activities in Cities 
D. Rapid Urbanization Put Cities in Jeopardy 
Question 39: The word “spark” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. encourage B. design C. need D. start
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions. 
Question 40: The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.
B. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.
C. Not only did the basketball team lose the match but they blamed each other as well.
D. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.
Question 41: I did not see Susan off at the airport. I feel bad about it now. 
A. It suddenly dawns on me that I should have seen Susan off at the airport. 
B. I could have seen Susan off at the airport. 
C. If only I had seen Susan off at the airport. 
D. That I did not see Susan off at the airport escapes me now. 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions. 
During times of crisis, people find themselves faced with lifestyle changes. One of the earliest and
most noticeable changes seen during the Covid-19 lockdown was how we consume media-and especially
how we read. 
 People tend to find comfort in certain books, and reading habits and genre preferences can change
during periods of stress. This helps to explain why much genre fiction has roots in times of significant
social, political or economic upheaval. Gothic literature is, in part, a British Protestant response to the
French Revolution. 
Respondents generally reported that they were reading more than usual. This was largely due to
having more free time (due to being furloughed, or not having a commute or the usual social obligation or
leisure activities). This increased reading volume was complicated for those with caring responsibilities.
Many people with children reported that their reading time had increased generally because of their shared
reading with children, but had less time than normal for personal reading. Reading frequency was
further complicated by a quality vs. quantity snag. People spent more time reading and seeking escape, but
an inability to concentrate meant they made less progress than usual. In short, people spent more time
reading but the volume they read was less. 
Unsurprisingly, lockdown also made re-reading a physical necessity for some. Some respondents
noted how they were unable to visit the library or browse at the bookshop for new books. Others reported that
they simply wished to save money. On the other hand, the participants who reported re- reading less than
normal during the lockdown period wanted to use their newfound time to seek out new topics and genres. 
(Adapted from theconversation.com) 
Question 42: What does the passage mainly discuss? 
A. Different kinds of people B. Different types of books
C. Changing in reading habits D. Different types of reading
Question 43: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT true? 
A. Reading is unable to help people find comfort during stress time. 
B. Many great fiction books have been born in times of significant social upheaval.
C. Gothic literature was born during the French Revolution. 
D. Reading habits can change during periods of stress. 
Question 44: The word “commute” in paragraph 3 is closet in meaning to _______.
A. retirement B. a talk to other people C. unemployed person D. road to go to work
Question 45: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ________. 
A. reading habit and reading time B. progresses in reading 
C. reading time and ability to concentrate D. people spent time reading
Question 46: According to paragraph 4, which of the following is the reason why people re-read more during
lockdown? 
A. They love books so much. B. They want to save money.
C. They think it is necessary. D. They try to seek out new topics in books.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges. 
Question 47: Mai: “Don’t forget to send your parents my regards.” - Nga: “________”
A. Good idea, thanks B. It’s my pleasure C. Thanks, I will D. Never mind
Question 48: Mary: “Why are there generally so few women in top positions?” - Peter: “ ________ ”
A. I guess men tend to make better leaders. 
B. Women also want to climb to top positions. 
C. Top positions are the highest in the career ladder. 
D. Top positions are high to climb to. 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 49: A. popular B. beautiful C. favourite D. effective
Question 50: A. pressure B. cancel C. level D. respect