Rac 7272

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testNo=60&code=1052000&showTest=319&actForm=edit&set=30
Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60
10259_REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.
2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.
3) Use of calculator is allowed.
4) Each question carries 1 Mark.
5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.
6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.
7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.
8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.
9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.
10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.
Q.no 1. Cp of air is
A : Greater than Cv of air
B : Equal to Cv of air
C : Less than Cv of air
D : None
Q.no 2. Due to inter-cooling in multistage refrigeration, COP
A : Decreases
B : Increases
C : Remains same
D : None of the above
Q.no 3. A fan is required in an air conditioning duct to overcome____________.
A : dynamic pressure
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B : static pressure
C : total pressure
D : equivalent pressure
Q.no 4. In a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a
A : Expansion valve
B : Condenser
C : Compressor
D : Evaporator
Q.no 5. Mass flow ratio of NH₃ in comparison to Freon-12 for same refrigeration load and same
temperature limits is of the order of
A : 04791666666666666
B : 042361111111111106
C : 0.3756944444444445
D : 043750000000000004
Q.no 6. Sensible heat factor always lies between
A : 0.0 and 1.0
B : 1.0 and 2.0
C : 2.5 and 5.0
D : 10 and 100
Q.no 7. Which one acts as a primary, secondary as well as a tertiary refrigerant
A : Water
B : Ammonia
C : Freon-22
D : None
Q.no 8. In all water system which cooling are achieved by chilled water
A : sensible
B : latent
C : both sensible and latent
D : partly sensible and latent
Q.no 9. Using intercooling in multi-stage compression systems
A : Refrigeration effect can be increased
B : Work of compression in higher stage compressor can be reduced
C : Maximum cycle temperature can be increased
D : All of the above
Q.no 10. For an expansion device, which of the following is true?
A : It increases the pressure of refrigerant
B : It does not change the temperature of refrigerant
C : It decreases the pressure of refrigerant
D : It increases the temperature of refrigerant
Q.no 11. The use of a flash chamber in a multi-stage vapor compression refrigeration
A : increases the COP
B : decreases the COP
C : neither increases or decreases the COP
Q.no 12. The compressor in the vapour compression system is replaced by
A : An absorber
B : A generator
C : An absorber-generator
Q.no 13. Cooling water is required for following equipment in ammonia absorption plant
A : Condenser
B : Evaporator
C : Absorber
D : Condenser, absorber and separator (rectifier)
Q.no 14. The process generally used in winter airconditioning is known as _________
A : humidification
B : dehumidification
C : heating and humidification
D : cooling and dehumidification
Q.no 15. Which device is used for the expansion of refrigerant in vapour compression
refrigeration cycle?
A : Throttling valve
B : Capillary tube
C : Compressor
D : Either throttling valve or capillary tube
Q.no 16. What is the process carried out in generator of vapour absorption refrigeration cycle?
A : Weak solution of ammonia in water is heated
B : Strong solution of ammonia in water is heated
C : Only water is heated and heat is given to the ammonia to form its vapour
Q.no 17. Wet compression is ______.
A : More dangerous than the dry compression in vapour compression refrigeration system
B : Less dangerous than the dry compression in vapour compression refrigeration system
C : Equally preferable in vapour compression refrigeration system
D : Cannot say
Q.no 18. Supply of fresh air to the conditioned space either by natural or by mechanical means
for the purpose of maintaining acceptable indoor air quality
A : Infiltration
B : Metabolic rate
C : Ventilation
D : Air Change
Q.no 19. Secondary refrigerant is one which is
A : Cooled by the water
B : Cooled by the air
C : Cooled by the primary refrigerant
D : None
Q.no 20. Sling psychrometer is used to measure:
A : Only Dry bulb temperature
B : Only Wet bulb temperature
C : Dry and Wet bulb temperature
D : Relative humidity
Q.no 21. Bare tube evaporator is used in a
A : Cold storage plant
B : ice plant
C : milk Plant
D : Fridge
Q.no 22. Formation of froast on evaporator in refrigerator
A : Result in loss of heat due to poor heat transfer
B : Increases heat transfer rate
C : Is immaterial
D : Decreases compressor power
Q.no 23. Finned tube evaporators are used in a
A : Fridge
B : Window air conditioner
C : Water cooler
D : Heat pump
Q.no 24. The fiber glass duct may be used in _________ velocity application.
A : high
B : low
C : humid
D : dry
Q.no 25. Which compressor is used, when volume flow rate of refrigerant is very large?
A : Rotary compressor
B : Reciprocating compressor
C : Centrifugal compressor
D : Srew compressor
Q.no 26. The minimum temperature to which moist air can be cooled under ideal conditions in a
spray washer is _______
A : DPT of inlet air
B : WBT of inlet air
C : Water inlet temperature
D : Water outlet temperature
Q.no 27. In a duct fan compared to forward curved blades, backward curved blades are more
efficient. This statement is ________.
A : true
B : false
C : depends on types of fan
D : Can’t predict
Q.no 28. The boiling point of ammonia is
A : -10.5°C
B : -30°C
C : -33.3°C
D : -77.7°C
Q.no 29. In an air duct Compared to sudden enlargement, the dynamic pressure drop in sudden
contraction is ________.
A : more
B : less
C : remains same
D : Can’t predict
Q.no 30. In designing the duct equal friction method is ideal ____________________.
A : only for return duct
B : when the system is balanced
C : when the system is not balanced
D : for supply duct
Q.no 31. One ton refrigeration corresponds to
A : 50 kcal/ min
B : 50 kcal/ hr
C : 80 kcal/ min
D : 80 kcal/ hr
Q.no 32. In a domestic refrigerator if the compressor runs continuously, it shows that
A : The system is working perfectly all right
B : The refrigeration is to full capacity
C : The system is overloaded
D : Lack of oil
Q.no 33. During sensible cooling of air, the coil efficiency is given by _________ (where BPF is
By-pass factor)
A : 1 - BPF
B : 1 + BPF
C : 1/BPF
D : Square root of (1 - BPF)
Q.no 34. The fluids used in the Electrolux refrigerator are
A : Water and hydrogen
B : Ammonia and hydrogen
C : Ammonia, water and hydrogen
D : Water and Ammonia
Q.no 35. Stratified mixing flows are recommended for buildings with _____________.
A : irregular ceiling
B : plane ceiling
C : low ceiling
D : high ceilings
Q.no 36. Forced air cooled condenser in refrigeration unit has a
A : parallel flow
B : counter flow
C : cross flow
D : can not say
Q.no 37. If N is speed of fan, the power of fan is directly proportional to
A:N
B : Square of speed N
C : Third power of speed N
D : fourth power of speed N
Q.no 38. For rectangular duct the aspect ratio is equal to
A : sum of longer and shorter sides
B : difference of longer and shorter sides
C : product of longer and shorter sides
D : ratio of longer and shorter sides

Q.no 39. The metabolic rate depends mainly on __________
A : Age of human being
B : Activity level of human being
C : Gender of human being
D : Eye sight of human being
Q.no 40. Cascade systems are widely used for
A : Large refrigeration capacity systems
B : Applications requiring large temperature lifts
C : Applications requiring very high efficiencies
Q.no 41. Which type of compressor is used in domestic refrigerator?
A : Centrifugal
B : Axial
C : Miniature sealed unit
D : Piston type reciprocating
Q.no 42. Which of the following statement is false?
A : For a given flow rate, the pressure drop is less in rectangular duct compared to a circular duct.
B : For a given pressure drop, it requires less material in rectangular duct compared to a circular duct.
C : Rectangular ducts are easier to fabricate.
D : Rectangular ducts match better with building profile.
Q.no 43. In larger industrial and commercial reciprocating compression systems, the refrigerant
widely used is?
A : ammonia
B : carbon dioxide
C : sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
Q.no 44. Assuming the refrigerant vapour to behave as an ideal gas and with perfect intercooling,
the optimum intermediate pressure of a refrigeration system that operates between 4 bar and
16 bar is equal to:
A : 10 bar
B : 8 bar
C : 6 bar
D : 12 bar
Q.no 45. A condenser must ____ and then ____ the compressed refrigerant.
A : Superheat, evaporate
B : Desuperheat, evaporate
C : Superheat, condense
D : Desuperheat, condense
Q.no 46. In case of sensible cooling of air, if td1 is Dry bulb temperature of air entering the
cooling coil, td2 is Dry bulb temperature of air leaving the cooling coil, and td3 is Dry bulb
temperature of the cooling coil, then the by-pass factor is given by
A : (td1 - td3)/(td2 - td3)
B : (td2 - td3)/(td1 - td3)
C : (td3 - td1)/(td2 - td1)
D : (td3 - td2)/(td2 - td1)
Q.no 47. The atmospheric air at dry bulb temperature of 15 Deg. Centigrade enters a heating coil
maintained at 40 Deg. Centigrade. The air leaves the heating coil at 25 Deg. Centigrade. The by-
pass factor of the heating coil is
A : 0.376
B : 0.4
C : 0.6
D : 0.67
Q.no 48. Which of the following statement is FALSE?
A : As the by-pass factor (BPF) of the cooling coil increases, temperature difference between air at the
outlet of the coil and coil ADP decreases
B : The BPF of the coil increases as the velocity of air through the coil increases
C : The BPF of the coil increases as the fin pitch increases
D : The BPF of the coil decreases as the number of rows in the flow direction increase
Q.no 49. The C.O.P. of domestic refrigerator?
A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1
Q.no 50. In a refrigeration system having water cooled condenser, in a hot humid day
A : the head pressure will be lower
B : the head pressure will be higher
C : the head pressure of water cooled condenser is not affected by high humidity
D : the head pressure of water cooled condenser is not affected by DBT
Q.no 51. A high Archimedes number indicates a ________ buoyancy effect.
A : strong
B : weak
C : rising
D : reducing
Q.no 52. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
A : During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air decreases
B : During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air increases
C : During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air remains constant
D : During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air may increase, decrease or remain
constant depending upon the temperature of the wet surface
Q.no 53. Moisture in a refrigerant system is removed by.......
A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants
Q.no 54. On P-h diagram condensation and desuperheating is represented by horizontal line
because the process is
A : Take place at constant volume
B : Take place at constant enthalpy
C : Take place at constant entropy
D : Take place at constant pressure
Q.no 55. In a psychrometric process, the sensible heat added is 30 kW and the latent heat added
is 20 kW. The sensible heat factor for the process will be
A : 0.3
B : 0.6
C : 0.75
D : 1.5
Q.no 56. The suction pipe diameter of refrigerating unit compressor in comparison to delivery
side is
A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same
D : Depending on capacity
Q.no 57. Flooded evaporator needs at the outlet a
A : Flash chamber
B : Accumulator
C : Inter cooler
D : Float valve
A : Systems with reheat are used when the Room Sensible Heat Factor is low
B : Systems with reheat are used when the Room Sensible Heat Factor is high
C : When reheat coils are used, the required coil ADP can be increased
D : When reheat coils are used, the required supply airflow rate increases
Q.no 59. In ammonia-hydrogen refrigerator?
A : Ammonia is absorbed in hydrogen
B : Ammonia is absorbed in water
C : Ammonia is evaporets in hydrogen
D : Ammonia is evaporets in ammonia
Q.no 60. Hunting of the thermo-static expansion valve is
A : variation of the evaporator load with the degree of superheat
B : variation of the presure of the evaporator with variation of load
C : alternate overfeeeding and straving of the refrigerant flow to the evaporator
D : the hunting term is not used at all
Q.no 1. When water intercooling is used in a multistage compression, it
A : Reduces the work to be done in high pressure compressor
B : Reduces specific volume of refrigerant
C : Requires a compressor of less stroke volume
D : All of above
Q.no 2. An air handling unit conveys air between the plant and ____________.
A : conditioned space
B : condenser
C : evaporator
D : return line
Q.no 3. An expansion valve is fitted in the refrigeration unit
A : Before the compressor
B : Before the condenser

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Answer for Question No 1. is c
Answer for Question No 2. is b
Answer for Question No 5. is a
Answer for Question No 7. is d
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D : All of above
B : condenser
C : evaporator
D : return line

C : before the evaporator
D : inbetween compressor and condenser
Q.no 4. During sensible cooling of air, both dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures ____________
A : First Increases and then Decreases
B : Increases
C : Remains constant
D : Decreases
Q.no 5. The sensible heat factor for a sensible cooling process is
A:1
B:0
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
Q.no 6. The heat required to melt 1 tonne of ice in 12 hours is equivalent to
A : One tonne of refrigeration
B : Two tonne of refrigeration
C : Half tonne of refrigeration
D : Four tonne of refrigeration
Q.no 7. A system wih multiple evaporators at different temparatures with compound

compression will
A : Increase the power requirement
B : Reduce the power requirement
C : Niether increase nor reduce the power requirement
Q.no 8. During Humidification process ___________ remains constant
A : Dry bulb temperature
B : Wet bulb temperature
C : Specific humidity
Q.no 9. In winter air conditioning, the air is
A : heated
B : heated and dehumidified
C : heated and humidified
D : cooled and humidified
Q.no 10. For summer air conditioning system, the relative humidity should not be less than
A : 40%
B : 60%
C : 75%
D : 90%
Q.no 11. What is the use of multistage compression in vapour compression refrigeration system?
A : to increase volumetric efficiency of of compressor
B : to allow the system to operate between higher pressures
C : to reduce risk of damage to system
D : all of the above
Q.no 12. In summer air-conditioning, the air is
A : cooled
B : cooled and dehumidified
Q.no 13. During sensible cooling of air, Dew point temperature_______
A : Remains constant
B : Increases
C : Decreases
D : First Increases and then Decreases
Q.no 14. Identify the expansion device
A : compressor
B : capillary tube
C : Thermostatic expansion valve
D : both B and C
Q.no 15. In central air conditioning system
A : Entire equipment is placed in the air conditioned space
B : There is only one machine which performs the function of air conditioning
C : All the major equipment is located in one central space
D : Is used when small area is to be air conditioned
Q.no 16. The aspect ratio should not be greater than ______ in any case.
A:8
B : 10
C : 12
D : 16
Q.no 17. Reciprocating compressor is
A : a positive displacement machine
B : a negative displacement machine
C : a dynamic action machine
D : both positive and dynamic action machine
Q.no 18. High air velocity in ducts results in lower initial costs but higher ___________ costs.
A : AHU
B : condenser
C : material
D : operating
Q.no 19. In centrifugal compressor, the pressssure rise takes place in
A : impeller only
B : diffuser only
C : casing only
D : impeller and diffuser both
Q.no 20. Primary refrigerant is one which is sensibly
A : Heated in the evaporator
B : Cooled in the evaporator
C : Neither heated in evaporator nor cooled in condenser
D : None
Q.no 21. Compared to multi-evaporator and single compressor systems, multi-evaporator

systems with multiple compressors:
A : Yield higher COP
B : Yield Lower COP
C : Yield higher refrigeration effect
Q.no 22. In Mechanical Refrigeration System , the refrigerant has the maximum temperature.
A : In evaporator
B : Before expansion valve
C : Between compressor and condenser
D : Between condenser and evaporator
Q.no 23. The central air conditioning system has
A : same overall efficiency as compared to individual systems
B : higher overall efficiency as compared to individual systems
C : lower overall efficiency as compared to individual systems
D : may lower or higher overall efficiency as compared to individual systems
Q.no 24. In an actual enlargement, reduction in dynamic pressure is always__________ than

increase in static pressure
A : less
B : greater
C:0
D:1
Q.no 25. Condenser is air cooled when tons of refrigeration required is
A : less than 3 tons
B : less than 20
C : less than 50
D : more than 50
Q.no 26. It is desirable for a good refrigerant to have
A : High critical temperature
B : Low critical temperature
C : High freezing point
D : High melting point
Q.no 27. The working fluid in Bell Coleman cycle is
A : Freon-12
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Ammonia
D : Air
Q.no 28. Which flows are recommended in operation theatres due to better IAQ?
A : recirculation
B : Displacement
C : chocked
D : same
Q.no 29. When the air temperature reaches the point where relative humidity is 100% the air is
saturated because it cannot hold any more moisture. This temperature is called as ______
A : Freezing point
B : Dew point temperature
C : Wet bulb temperature
D : Dry bulb temperature
Q.no 30. Direct expansion coil evaporator is
A : flooded type
B : dry type
C : wet type
D : both dry and wet type
Q.no 31. When the lower temperature is fixed, COP of a refrigerating machine can be improved
by
A : operating the machine at higher speeds
B : operating the machine at lower speeds
C : raising the higher temperature
D : lowering the higher temperature
Q.no 32. During cooling and dehumidification process if h1 is Enthalpy of air entering the
cooling coil, h2 is Enthalpy of air leaving the cooling coil, and hA is Enthalpy of air at the end of
dehumidification process, then the sensible heat factor is given by the expression
A : (hA - h2)/(h1 - h2)
B : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h1)
C : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h2)
D : (hA - h1)/(h2 - h1)
Q.no 33. Which of the following refrigerant compressor is not classified as positive displacement
compressor
A : Reciprocating compressor
B : Centrifugal compressor
C : Rotary compressor
D : Screw compressor
Q.no 34. Absorption of the refrigerant by the absorbent in a vapour absorption refrigeration
system is accompanied by:
A : Absorption of heat
B : No thermal effects
C : Reduction in volume
D : Release of heat
Q.no 35. Which of the following refrigerant has lowest freezing temperature?
A : Carbon dioxide
B : Ammonia
C : Freon-12
D : Freon-22
Q.no 36. An air handling fan operating at a constant temperature, the power input to fan
increases by ______________ times when the fan speed becomes double.
A:4
B:6
C:8
D : 10
Q.no 37. Choose the correct statement
A : A refrigerant should have low latent heat
B : If operating temperature of system is low, then refrigerant with low boiling point should be used
C : Pre-cooling and sub-cooling bf refrigerant are same
D : Superheat and sensible heat of a refrigerant are same
Q.no 38. If D is diameter of impeller of fan, the power of fan is directly proportional to
A : Diameter D
B : Square of diameter D
C : third power of diameter D
D : fifth power of diameter D
Q.no 39. Efficiency of carnot engine is 80%. If the cycle direction is reversed , What will be the
value of COP of revised carnot cycle.
A:4
B : 0.5
C : 0.8
D : 0.25
Q.no 40. The year-round air conditioning system is
A : used either as a summer air conditioning system or as a winter air conditioning system
B : used during summer, the heaters are always switched-off
C : used during winter, the heating and dehumidification coils are switched off
D : used during summer, the heaters are always switched-on
Q.no 41. The index which corelates the combined effects of air temperature, relative humidity
and air velocity on the human body, is known as
A : Mean radiant temperature
B : Effective temperature
C : Dew point temperature
D : Saturation temperature
Q.no 42. The effective draft temperature increases as dry bulb temperature increases and air
velocity __________.
A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.
Q.no 43. In multi-stage systems
A : The refrigerant used should have high critical temperature and low freezing point
B : There is a possibility of migration of lubricating oil from one compressor to other
C : Operating pressures can be too high or too low
Q.no 44. In control cooling water system, chromates, phosphates and silicates are added to water
A : To prevent scale formation
B : To remove odour
C : To increase remove foreign particle
D : To inhibit corrosion
Q.no 45. For a backward curved blade, the fan total pressure (FTP)_________________ at a
particular flow rate.
A : remains same
B : reaches a maximum
C : increases
D : decreases
Q.no 46. The refrigerant R11 is suitable for
A : large reciprocating refrigerant compressors
B : large centrifugal refrigerant compressors
C : small rotary positive displacement refrigerant compressors
D : small reciprocating refrigerant compressors
Q.no 47. A light-troffer-diffuser-slot reduces the room __________ heat factor.
A : latent
B : sensible
C : total
D : reactive
Q.no 48. A 2 ton window air conditioner rejects
A : 210 kJ per minute at the condenser
B : 420 kJ per minute at the condenser
C : more than 420 kJ per minute at the condenser
D : less than 420 kJ per minute at the condenser
Q.no 49. A carnot refrigerator 70 kJ/min of work to produce one tonne of refrigeration at -40
degree celcius. The COP of this refrigerator is
A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
Q.no 50. State which of the following statements is TRUE?
A : If not done properly, the velocity method gives rise to large sized ducts
B : In equal friction method, dampering is not required
C : In static regain method, dampering is required
D : In a given duct system, the total pressure drop varies linearly with flow rate
Q.no 51. The refrigerator which does not require compressor is called.......
A : Vapour absorption refrigerator
B : Vapour compression refrigerator
C : Electrolux refrigerator
D : Carnot refrigerator
Q.no 52. A light-troffer-diffuser-slot ____________ the efficiency of the fluorescent lights
A : increases
B : decreases
C : do not change
D : have no relevance
Q.no 53. An air stream at a flow rate of 1 kg/s and a DBT of 30 deg.C. mixes adiabatically with
another air stream flowing with a mass flow rate of 2 kg/s and at a DBT of 15 deg.C. Assuming
no condensation to take place, the temperature of the mixture is approximately equal to:
A : 20 deg.C.
B : 25 deg.C.
C : 22.5 deg.C.
D : 30 deg.C.
Q.no 54. In order to cool and dehumidify a stream of moist air, it must be passed over the coil at
a temperature
A : Which lies between the dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures of the incoming stream
B : Which lies between the wet bulb and dew point temperatures of the incoming stream
C : Which is lower than the dew point temperature of the incoming stream
D : Equal to adiabatic saturation temperature of incoming stream
Q.no 55. the heat rejection ratio in condenser is defined as ratio of
A : heat absorbed at evaporator to heat rejected at condenser
B : heat rejected at condenser to heat absorbed at evaporator
C : heat rejected at condenser to workdone on the compressor
D : heat absorbd at evaporator to workdone on compressor
Q.no 56. State which of the following statement is TRUE?
A : Air velocities as high as 30 m/s are used in residential systems
B : The air conditioning duct should have high aspect ratio for good performance
C : At balanced condition, the total pressure drop is equal for all duct runs
D : The static regain factor is 0 for an ideal enlargement
Q.no 57. When the temperature of the surrounding is higher than the temperature of the body,
then the heat loss by convection from the body to the surrounding will be
A : Positive
B : Negative
C : Zero
D : may be zero or positive
Q.no 58. Which of the following statement is correct?
A : The wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures are equal at saturation condition
B : Relative humidity at saturation condition is 50%
C : Specific humidity increases during sensible cooling
D : Relative humidity remains constant during sensible heating
Q.no 59. The performance of an evaporative condenser largely depends on
C : Hot water temperature
D : Ambient temperature
Q.no 60. The vapour pressure of the refrigerant should be.....
A : Lower than atmospheric pressure
B : Higher than atmospheric pressure
C : Equal than atmospheric pressure
Q.no 1. The process generally used in summer airconditioning is known as _________
A : humidification
A : An absorber
B : A generator
Q.no 3. The fan total pressure is __________the pressure at suction and discharge.
A : sum of



A : humidification
A : An absorber
B : A generator
A : sum of
B : difference of
C : product of
D : ratio of
Q.no 4. The uncontrolled entry of untreated, outdoor air directly into the conditioned space is
called as
A : Ventilation
B : Infiltration
C : Metabolic rate
D : Air Change
Q.no 5. Why is turbine not used in place of the expansion valve?
A : Expansion work is less
B : Expansion work is more
C : Expansion work is zero
D : costly
Q.no 6. In a refrigeration system, the expansion device is connected between the
A : Compressor and condenser
B : Condenser and receiver
C : Receiver and evaporator
D : Evaporator and compressor
Q.no 7. In an air duct for an ideal enlargement the static regain factor is ___________.
A:1
B:0
C : greater than 1
D : remains same.
Q.no 8. In a lithium bromide absorption refrigeration system
A : Lithium bromide is used as a refrigerant and water as an absorbent
B : Water is used as a refrigerant and lithium bromide as an absorbent
C : Ammonia is used as a refrigerant and lithium bromide as an absorbent
Q.no 9. The reason for a person feeling more comfortable on a warm day if seated in front of an
electric fan is that the
A : metabolic heat production is reduced
B : body loses more heat by convection and evaporation
C : body loses more heat by radiation
D : body loses more heat by evaporation and radiation
Q.no 10. Cold air distribution systems may lead to ____________.
A : surface evaporation
B : surface heating
C : surface condensation
D : surface cleaning
Q.no 11. Which type of energy is required to expend in vapour absorption refrigeration system?
A : high-grade energy
B : Medium-grade energy
C : Low-grade energy
D : Any grade energy
Q.no 12. The vapour absorption refrigeration system is
A : More noisy than the vapour compression refrigeration system
B : It depends upon plant capacity
C : More silent than the vapour compression refrigeration system
D : Equally noisy as the vapour compression refrigeration system
Q.no 13. Spot cooling and heating systems provide better individual control. This statement is
______.
A : true
B : false
C : can not predict
A : Water
B : Ammonia
C : Freon-22
D : None
A : (-10.5°C)
B : (-30°C)
C : (-33.3°C)
D : (-77.7°C)
Q.no 16. Cascading refrigeration is applicable for
A : Cold storage
B : Comfort air conditioning
C : Low temperature applications
Q.no 17. The vapour compression refrigerator employs the following cycle
A : Rankine
B : Brayton
C : Carnot
D : Reversed Carnot
Q.no 18. What is flash gas fraction?
A : The mass fraction of liquid in liquid-vapour mixture of refrigerant at inlet to the evaporator
B : The mass fraction of vapour in liquid-vapour mixture of refrigerant at inlet to the evaporator
C : The mass of vapour actually compressed to the mass of vapour should have compressed ideally
Q.no 19. Dry evporator is one
A : in which the exit from evaporator is dry saturated refrigerant
B : in which the exit from evaporator is superheated refrigerant
C : in which the exit from evaporator has refrigerant with high dryness fraction
D : in which the inlet to the evaporator has refrigerant with some dryness fraction
Q.no 20. What is recommended for air conditioning duct of recording studios?
A : high air velocity
B : low air velocity
C : low pressure air
D : high pressure air
Q.no 21. In a vapour compression system, the compression of refrigerant follows the law
A : PVr = C
B : PV = C
C : PVn = C
Q.no 22. Formula for R134a refrigerant is
A : CH Cl F2
B : C2 Cl3 F3
C : C2 Cl2 F4
D : C2 H2 F4
Q.no 23. In a duct of uniform cross section dynamic pressure _____________.
A : increases along length of duct
B : decreases along length of duct
C : remains constant along length of duct

D : Can’t predict
Q.no 24. The following refrigerant is used for refrigeration purposes in passenger aircraft.
A : Freon-12
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Air
D : Sodium chloride
Q.no 25. The relative humidity can be expressed as ________
A : Pv/Ps
B : Ps/Pv
C : (Ps - Pv)
D : Ps/(Ps-Pv)
Q.no 26. Window, split and roof top air conditioner are
A : Central air conditioning system
B : Unitary air conditioning system
C : both central and unitary
D : air-water air conditioning system
Q.no 27. Which of the following refrigerant has the lowest boiling point?
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : Freon-12
Q.no 28. When velocity of air passing through rectangular and circular duct is same, then the
equivalent diameter (D) of circular duct for same pressure loss per unit length is given by
A : (a+b)/ab
B : 2ab/(a+b)
C : 2a/(a-b)
D : 2b/(a+b)
A:N
Q.no 30. In S.I. unit, one tonne of refrigeration is equal to
A : 10 kJ/min
B : 210 kJ/min
C : 50 kJ/min
D : non of the above
Q.no 31. What is the state of refrigerant at the inlet of the expansion valve?
A : Super heated vapor
B : Sub-cooled vapor
C : Sub-cooled liquid
D : hot liquid
Q.no 32. Under ideal conditions, which pressure through an air conditioning duct remains
constant?
B : static pressure
C : total pressure
Q.no 33. Sometimes refrigerant plants use cooling towers. The water cooled in these towers is
used
A : for defrosting evaporator coils
B : to cool compressor cylinder only
C : to cool the evaporator coils
D : to cool refrigerant in condenser
Q.no 34. During heating and humidification process if h1 is Enthalpy of air entering the heating
coil, h2 is Enthalpy of air leaving the heating coil, and hA is Enthalpy of air at the end of
humidification process, then the sensible heat factor is given by the expression
A : (hA - h2)/(h1 - h2)
B : (hA - h1)/(h2 - h1)
C : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h2)
D : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h1)
Q.no 35. The function of desuperheating coil in a condenser is
A : To remove heat from condenser
B : To improve performance of a condenser
C : To discharge the heat exchanged in condenser to the surroundings
D : To remove the heat of superheat of the refrigerant before it enters the condenser
Q.no 36. when sensible heat factor is unity then
A : Latent heat load is zero
B : Sensible heat load is zero
C : Latent heat load is greater than sensible heat load
D : Latent heat load is equal to sensible heat load
Q.no 37. A duct is said to be low velocity duct if the velocity of air in the duct is up to:
A : 600 m/min
B : 800 m/min
C : 1200 m/min
D : 1600 m/min
Q.no 38. Dew point temperature corresponds to the saturation temperature of vapour at its
_________
A : Barometric Pressure
B : Partial Pressure
C : Saturation Pressure
D : Atmospheric pressure
Q.no 39. At lower temperatures and pressures, the latent heat of vaporisation of a refrigerant
A : Decreases
B : Increases
C : Remains same
D : Depends on other factors
Q.no 40. Which of the following statement is wrong?
A : The performance of the vapour compression refrigerator varies considerably with both vaporising
and condensing temperatures.
B : In vapour compression cycle, the useful part of the heat transfer is at the condenser.
C : In ammonia-hydrogen (Electrolux) refrigerator, no compressor, pump or fan is required.
D : The effect of sub-cooling the liquid refrigerant is to decrease the coefficient of performance.
Q.no 41. The leaks in a refrigeration system using Freon are detected by
A : Halide torch which on detection produces greenish flame lighting
B : Sulphur sticks which on detection gives white smoke
C : Using reagents
D : Smelling
A : The purpose of an air distribution system is to maintain comfort conditions in the entire conditioned
space.
B : The purpose of an air distribution system is to maintain comfort conditions in the occupied zone of
the conditioned space.
C : For a given fan operating at a constant flow rate, the power input increases as the air temperature
increases
D : For a given fan operating at a constant static pressure rise, the flow rate reduces as the air
temperature increases
side is
A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same
Q.no 44. The by-pass factor for a cooling coil
A : Increases with increase in velocity of air passing through it
B : Decreases with increase in velocity of air passing through it
C : Remains unchanged with increase in velocity of air passing through it
D : May increase or decrease with increase in velocity of air passing through it depending upon
the condition of air entering
Q.no 45. The most suitable refrigerant of a commercial ice plant.......
A : Brine
B : NH3
C : Freon
D : Air
Q.no 46. In two-stage compression system with flash gas removal:
A : Refrigerant mass flow rates in both low and high stage compressors are equal
B : Refrigerant mass flow rates in high stage compressors is greater than that in low stagecompressor
C : Refrigerant mass flow rates in high stage compressors is smaller than that in low stagecompressor
D : Mass flow rates in low and high stage compressors are equal if the pressure ratios are equal
A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1
Q.no 52. Reciprocating compressor is used in refrigeration when pressure difference between
condenser and evaporator is
A : less than 1.5 bar
B : more than 1.5 bar
C : less than 3.5 bar
D : more than 3.5 bar
Q.no 53. In an air duct Use of turning vanes increase the ____________.
A : aspect ratio
B : total pressure
C : static pressure
D : dynamic pressure
Q.no 54. What is required for balancing the flow in each duct run.
A : dampers
B : splitters
C : reducers
D : enlargers
A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants
Q.no 56. Refrigeration system with liquid subcooler is used to:
A : Prevent the entry of liquid into compressor
B : Prevent flashing of refrigerant liquid ahead of low stage expansion device
C:
D:
A : 0.3
B : 0.6
C : 0.75
D : 1.5
Q.no 59. The ability of an evaporator to absorb heat does not depends on
A : Its size, surface condition and material
B : Kind of refrigerant used
C : Temperature difference between the evaporator and the surrounding air
D : Velocity of turbulence
Q.no 60. The refrigerant for a refrigerator should have ?
A : high sensible heat
B : high total heat
C : high latent heat
D : low latent heat
D : Cannot say
Q.no 2. Fan laws are applicable to?
A : all types of fans
B : backward curved
C : forward curved
D : geometrically and dynamically similar fans


B : high total heat
D : low latent heat
D : Cannot say
B : backward curved
C : forward curved
B : static pressure
C : total pressure
Q.no 4. Evaporator in a refrigeration plant is fitted
A : Before the condenser
B : After the condenser
C : After the compressor
D : After expansion valve and before compressor
Q.no 5. Which of duct profile is preferred in building air conditioning?
A : circular
B : rectangular
C : square
D : trapezoidal
Q.no 6. Air conditioning means control of
A : DBT, RH, Motion & purity of air
B : DBT & WBT only
C : Velocity and Purity of air only
D : RH only
Q.no 7. What is the purpose of analyser-rectifire in aqua-ammonia absorption system?
A : To absorb ammonia into the water
B : To remove water vapour out from ammonia after generator
C : To exchange heat between weak solution and strong solution
Q.no 8. During adiabatic saturation process on unsaturated air __________ remains constant.
A : Relative humidity
Q.no 9. The condition of refrigerant after passing through the condenser in a vapour
compression system is
A : Saturated liquid
B : Wet vapour
C : Dry saturated vapour
D : Superheated vapour
Q.no 10. Pressure of refrigerant in the evaporator should be
A : Equal to the atmospheric pressure
B : Less than the atmospheric pressure
C : Greater than the atmospheric pressure
D : None
Q.no 11. What is the result of superheating of vapour at the evaporator outlet?
A : no liquid droplets will travel to the compressor
B : the compressor discharge temperature increases
C : both 1 and 2.
D : none of the above
Q.no 12. A human body feels comfortable when the heat produced by the metabolism of human
body is equal to the
A : Heat dissipated to the surroundings
B : Heat stored in the human body
C : Sum of (A) and (B)
D : Difference of (A) and (B)
Q.no 13. What is used as an intercooler in multistage compression of vapour compression

refrigeration system?
A : water
B : air
C : refrigerant itself
Q.no 14. Freon group of refrigerants are
A : Inflammable
B : Toxic
C : Non-inflammable and toxic
D : Nontoxic and non-inflammable
Q.no 15. For a given flow rate, the total pressure drop of an air duct is less when the air filters
are ________.
A : chocked
B : older
C : new
D : perpendicular
Q.no 16. The evaporator in a refrigeration system is also known as
A : Heating coil
B : Cooling coil
C : Electric coil
D : Magnetic coil
Q.no 17. Which type blades are used in small capacity air handling systems?
A : backward curved
B : Airfoil
C : forward curved
D : rounded
Q.no 18. A condenser removes from the refrigerant
A : Sensible heat only
B : Latent heat only
C : Sensile heat and latent heat
D : Partly sensible heat and latent heat
Q.no 19. Most of the power in air handling units is consumed in running the__________.
A : condenser
B : evaporator
C : fans
D : compressor
Q.no 20. The wet bulb temperature during sensible heating of air
B : Increases
C : Decreases
Q.no 21. Which is the secondary refrigerant in an window air conditioner
A : Water
B : Brine solution
C : Air
D : None
Q.no 22. The purpose of installing a flash chamber in the refrigeration circuit is to
A : Improve overall heat transfer coefficient
B : Reduce pressure losses through the evaporator
C : Reduce the size of the evaporator by avoiding vapours going to the evaporator
Q.no 23. Which of the following connections is usually not provided in a hermetically sealed type
compressors?
A : Refrigerant inlet
B : Refrigerant outlet
C : Lubricating oil charging connection
D : Refrigerant charging connection
Q.no 24. The claude air liquidifaction system is….….efficient than the Linde Systn
A : More
B : Less
C : Equally
D : ___
Q.no 25. When the air filter in the air conditioning duct becomes dirty, the fan speed
_________________.
A : non need to change
B : need to change
C : has to be decreased
D : has to be increased
Q.no 26. The evaporator changes the low pressure liquid refrigerant from the expansion valve
into
A : High pressure liquid refrigerant
B : Low pressure liquid refrigerant
C : High pressure vapour refrigerant
D : Low pressure vapour refrigerant
Q.no 27. In cascade systems
A : Different refrigerants are used in individual cascade cycles
B : There is no mixing of refrigerants and no migration of lubricating oil
C : Operating pressures need not be too high or too low
Q.no 28. In a window air conditioner, the expansion device used is
A : Capillary tube
B : Thermostatic expansion valve
C : Automatic expansion valve
D : Float valve
Q.no 29. The colour of flame during halide torch test for refrigerant leaks will change to
A : Grey
B : Blue to bright green
C : Black
D : Pink or red
Q.no 30. In refrigeration system heat absorbed in comparison to heat rejected is
A : More
B : Less
C : Same
D : More for small capacity, high for low capacity
Q.no 31. For proper refrigeration in a cabinet, if the temperature and vapour pressure difference
between cabinet and atmosphere is high, then
A : Bigger cabinet should be used
B : Smaller cabinet should be used
C : Perfectly tight vapour seal should be used
D : Refrigerant with lower evaporation temperature should be used
Q.no 32. In a spray washing system, if the temperature of water is higher than the DBT of
entering air, then the air is
A : Heated and dehumidified
B : Heated and humidified
C : Cooled and humidified
D : Cooled and dehumidified
Q.no 33. In a pressure enthalpy chart, the space to the left of the saturated liquid line represents
A : Wet vapour region
B : Superheated vapour region
C : Sub-cooled liquid region
D : Dew point region
Q.no 34. The central air-conditioner system is generally used for a refrigerating load of
A : 25 tonns & 2500 cubic meter per minute
B : 5tonns & 1500 cubic meter per minute
C : 2500 cubic meter per minute
D : 20 tonns & 2500 cubic meter per minute
Q.no 35. Domestic refrigerator working on vapour compression cycle uses the following type of
expansion device:
A : Electrically operated throttling valve
B : Manually operated valve
C : Thermostatic valve
D : Capillary tube
Q.no 36. In domestic refrigerator, a capillary tube controlls the flow of refrigerant from the
A : exxpansion valve to evaporator
B : evaporator to thermostat
C : condenser to expansion valve
D : condenser to evaporator
Q.no 38. Which of the following compound is not a refrigerant?
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Carbon monoxide
D : Sulphur dioxide
Q.no 39. The relative humidity is defined as
A : The mass of water vapour present in one cubic meter

of dry air
B : The mass of water vapour present in 1 kg of dry air
C : The ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry air to the mass of water vapour in
the same mass of dry air when it is saturated at the same temperature and pressure
D : The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to the mass of water vapour
in the same volume of saturated air at the same temperature and pressure
Q.no 40. Compressor in a refrigeration system increases
A : Temperature and pressure
B : Temperature and volume
C : Pressure and volume
D : pressure only
A : Flash chamber
B : Accumulator
C : Inter cooler
D : Float valve
A : Positive
B : Negative
C : Zero
A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.
16 bar is equal to:
A : 10 bar
B : 8 bar
C : 6 bar
D : 12 bar
Q.no 46. The operating temperatures of a single stage vapour absorption refrigeration system
are: generator: 90 degree C; condenser and absorber: 40 degree C; evaporator: 0 degree C. The
system has a refrigeration capacity of 100 kW and the heat input to the system is 160 kW. The
pump work is negligible. What is the COP of the system and the total heat rejection rate from the
system.
A : 0.625 and 260 kW
B : 6.25 and 260 kW
C : 0.625 and 60 kW
D : 6.25 and 60 kW
A : remains same
C : increases
D : decreases
A : strong
B : weak
C : rising
D : reducing
A : 20 deg.C.
B : 25 deg.C.
C : 22.5 deg.C.
D : 30 deg.C.
Q.no 53. If the air conditioning duct is diverging, then the angle of divergence should be
as_________ as possible to reduce pressure loss
A : large
B : small
C : same
D : perpendicular
Q.no 56. The vapour going to condenser is ____ in temperature and ____ in ammonia.
A : Higher, richer
B : Higher, less
C : Lower, richer
D : Lower, less
A : latent
B : sensible
C : total
D : reactive
A : No liquid droplets will travel to the compressor
B : Compressor discharge temperature increases
C : Both a. and b.
Q.no 2. The bank of tubes at the back of domestic refrigerator is
A : Condenser tubes
B : Evaporator tubes


A : latent
B : sensible
C : total
D : reactive
C : Both a. and b.
A : Condenser tubes
C : Refrigerant cooling tubes
D : Capillary tubes
Q.no 3. Natural convection air cooled condensers are used for
A : domestic refrigerators
B : domestic air conditioners
C : both refrigerators and conditioners
D : ice plant
A : heated
A:1
B:0
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
A : An absorber
B : A generator

A : 0.0 and 1.0
B : 1.0 and 2.0
C : 2.5 and 5.0
D : 10 and 100
Q.no 9. In cascade refrigeration, number of refrigerants used is
A : ≤ One
B : ≥ Two
C : Zero
Q.no 10. For the same capacity of plant, the COP of the vapour absorption refrigeration system
is
A : Lower than the COP of the vapour compression refrigeration system
B : Higher than the COP of the vapour compression refrigeration system
C : Same as the COP of the vapour compression refrigeration system
D : Cannot say
Q.no 11. The alignment circle is marked on the psychrometric chart at
A : 20 degree centigrade DBT and 60 Percent Relative Humidity
B : 20 degree centigrade DBT and 50 Percent Relative Humidity
C : 26 degree centigrade DBT and 50 Percent Relative Humidity
D : 26 degree centigrade DBT and 60 Percent Relative Humidity
Q.no 12. In a 2 stage cascade refrigeration system, cooling effect occurs in the
A : one evaporator
B : Two evaporators
C : One evaporator and one condenser
Q.no 13. The humidity ratio or specific humidity is the mass of water vapour present in
A : One cubic meter wet air
B : One cubic meter of dry air
C : One kg of wet air
D : One kg of dry air
D : costly
Q.no 15. The air ducts are made of
A : galvanized iron
B : aluminium
C : fiber glass
D : any one of these
Q.no 17. The work input requirement for ammonia absorption refrigeration cycle is low, because
A : Ammonia has a high thermal conductivity
B : Ammonia has a high latent heat
C : Pumping process involves liquid
D : Pumping process involves vapour

Q.no 18. Which device is capable of regulating the flow of refrigerant according to the load on
the evaporator?
A : Exapansion valve
B : Condenser
C : Evaporator
D : Compressor
Q.no 19. A hermetic compressor is
A : A reciprocating compressor
B : A valveless compressor
C : A thermodynamically efficient comprossor
D : A factory sealed unit containing motor and compressor
Q.no 20. An air handling unit consists of supply and ____________.
B : condenser
C : evaporator
D : return air fans
Q.no 21. Which of the following refrigerant is highly toxic and flammable ?
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : Freon-13
B : less than 20
C : less than 50
D : more than 50
Q.no 23. The sensible heat gain is due to the __________ difference between the fresh air and the
air in space
A : Temperature
B : Specific humidity
D : Pressure
Q.no 24. Function of providing clearance volume in reciprocating refrigerant compressors is
A : to reduce the workdone per kg of refrigerant delivered
B : to increse the volumetric efficiency of compressor
C : to accommodate valves in the head of the compressor
D : to create turbulence in the air to be delivered
Q.no 25. In an air duct the static regain factor always ____________.
A : lies between 0 and 1.
B : more than 1
C : remains same.
D : remains 1.
Q.no 26. In air conditioning systems the primary function of _______ is to transmit processed air
from the air conditioning plant to the conditioned space and distribute it properly within the
conditioned space
A : Humidifier
B : Air Washer
C : Air Handling Unit (AHU)
D : Dehumidifier
Q.no 29. Expansion process in the expansion valve is
A : free expansion
B : Throttling
C : isotropic
D : isobaric
Q.no 30. The process of removing moisture from the air, without change in its dry bulb
temperature, is called as____________
A : Humidification
B : Dehumidification
C : Sensible Heating
D : Sensible Cooling
Q.no 31. If moisture is added to unsaturated air at constant DBT then partial pressure of vapour
_____________
B : Increases
D : Decreases
Q.no 32. In a vapour absorption refrigerator, heat is rejected in
A : Condenser only
B : Condenser and absorber
C : Generator only
D : Absorber only
Q.no 33. Use of flash tank for intercooling
A : Always improves system COP
B : Maximum compressor discharge temperature always increases
C : COP increases or decreases depends on the refrigerant used
D : Power input to the system always decreases
Q.no 34. Flooded evaporator is used in A.C. Units of capacity
B : more than 3 tons
C : less than 10 tons
D : more than 10 tons
D : Srew compressor
Q.no 36. In a given duct system, the total pressure drop varies in a ____________ manner with
flow rate.
A : linear
B : parabolic
C : exponential
D : logarithmic
Q.no 37. When is Thermostatic expansion valve used?
A : Increases flow at more cooling required
B : Flow of refrigerant stops
C : Less of refrigerant flow for more cooling required
D : less flow at less cooling required
B : ice plant
C : milk Plant
D : Fridge
Q.no 39. The liquid oxegen boils at
A : 20.1 K
B : 51.1 K
C : 70.4 K
D : 90.2 K
Q.no 40. In a duct layout, the total pressure drop is maximum in the ________ run.
A : end
B : index
C : middle
D : just before end
C:
D:
A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants
B : high total heat
D : low latent heat
A : 0.3
B : 0.6
C : 0.75
D : 1.5
A : dampers
B : splitters
C : reducers
D : enlargers
A : (td1 - td3)/(td2 - td3)
B : (td2 - td3)/(td1 - td3)
C : (td3 - td1)/(td2 - td1)
D : (td3 - td2)/(td2 - td1)
widely used is?
A : ammonia
B : carbon dioxide
C : sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
Q.no 55. Choose the wrong statement
A : Refrigerant leaves the condenser as a liquid
B : Temperature of medium being cooled must be below that of the evaporator
C : Froast on the evaporator reduces the heat transfer
D : Refrigerant is circulated in a refrigeration system to transfer heat
A : Centrifugal
B : Axial
A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1
Q.no 2. In air -water system
A : water is used as a medium to transfer heat from space
B : air is used as a medium to transfer heat from space
C : both air and water are used as a medium to transfer heat from space


A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1
D : water vapour and air is used as a medium to transfer heat from space
Q.no 3. In a duct of uniform cross section total pressure _____________.
D : Can’t predict
Q.no 4. In displacement flow system, supply air velocity is ___________.
A : high
B : low
C : moderate
D : constant
A : humidification
Q.no 6. Which is the primary refrigerant in central air conditioning plant
A : Air
B : Water
C : Freon-22
D : None
A : Rankine
B : Carnot
C : Reversed Rankine
D : Reversed Carnot
Q.no 8. Cascade refrigeration is applicable to
A : Air refrigeration
B : Vapor compression refrigeration
C : Vapor absorption refrigeration
Q.no 9. Thermostatic expansion valve is used to maintain
A : Constant degree of super heat
B : Constant degree of sub-cooling
C : Constant degree of super heat and sub-cooling
D : constant pressure
A : Expansion valve
B : Condenser
C : Compressor
D : Evaporator
Q.no 11. One tonne of refrigeration is approximately equal to
A : 3.5 kJ / min
B : 3.5 W
C : 211 kW
D : 211 kJ / min
A : 40%
B : 60%
C : 75%
D : 90%

Q.no 14. The freezing point of sulphur dioxide is
A : (-56.6°C)
B : (-75.2°C)
C : (-77.7°C)
D : 135.8°C
A : impeller only
B : diffuser only
C : casing only
Q.no 16. As the evaporator temperature lowers down, the required compression ratio
A : Becomes lower for a given condensation temperature
B : Becomes higher for a given condensation temperature
C : Becomes steady for a given condensation temperature
D : Cannot say
B : Capillary tube
C : Compressor
Q.no 18. In absorber of aqua-ammonia absorption refrigeration system
A : Strong solution is taken in and weak solution is given out
B : Weak solution is taken in and strong solution is given out
C : The ammonia vapour from strong solution is taken out and made it a weak solution
A:8
B : 10
C : 12
D : 16
A:N
Q.no 22. What is the driving force for evaporation to take place
A : Difference in partial pressure
B : Difference in pressure
C : Difference in Concentration
D : Difference in temperature
Q.no 23. Capillary tube is the expansion valve used in refrigeration and Air Conditioning units
of cooling capacity
C : more than 5 tons
Q.no 25. The ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry air to the mass of
water vapour in the same mass of dry air when it is saturated at the same temperature and
pressure, is called
A : Humidity ratio
B : Relative humidity
C : Absolute humidity
D : Degree of saturation
A : Diameter D
B : plane ceiling
C : low ceiling
D : high ceilings
Q.no 28. Which of the following is not an ozone friendly refrigerant?
A : Freon-12
B : Ammonia
C : Air
D : Carbon dioxide
Q.no 29. Evaporative air-cooler is used effectively when
A : dry bulb temperature is very close to the wet bulb temperature
B : dry bulb temperature is high and relative humidity is high
C : dry bulb temperature is low and relative humidity is high
D : dry bulb temperature is high and the relative humidity is low
A : CH Cl F2
B : C2 Cl3 F3
C : C2 Cl2 F4
D : C2 H2 F4
Q.no 31. The conditioned air supplied to the room must have the capacity to take up
A : Room sensible heat load only
B : Room latent heat load only
C : Both room sensible heat and latent heat loads
D : Outside air sensible heat load only
Q.no 32. The expression 0.622Pv/(Pb - Pv) is used for calculating
B : humidity ratio
C : DBT
D : WBT
A : more
B : less
C : remains same
D : Can’t predict
Q.no 35. The refrigerant widely used in domestic refrigerators is
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
A : Fridge
C : Water cooler
D : Heat pump
A : flooded type
B : dry type
C : wet type
Q.no 38. Thermostatic expansion valve is used used in refrigeration and Air Conditioning units
of cooling capacity
_________
Q.no 40. In displacement flow system, supply air temperature is ________ different from comfort
temperature
A : only slightly
B : very low
C : very humid
D : very dry
A : Positive
B : Negative
C : Zero
A : remains same
C : increases
D : decreases
C : Using reagents
D : Smelling
A : increases
B : decreases
C : do not change
A : Brine
B : NH3
C : Freon
D : Air
system.
A : 0.625 and 260 kW
B : 6.25 and 260 kW
C : 0.625 and 60 kW
D : 6.25 and 60 kW
A : Flash chamber
B : Accumulator
C : Inter cooler
D : Float valve
space.
increases
A : Higher, richer
B : Higher, less
C : Lower, richer
D : Lower, less
A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
A : 0.376
B : 0.4
C : 0.6
D : 0.67
Q.no 1. In evaporation process of vapour compression refrigeration system
A : Heat is rejected from refrigerant to surroundings
B : Only pressure change takes place
C : Heat is rejected from surroundings to refrigerant
D : No heat transfer take place
Q.no 2. How is the condensation process in vapour compression refrigeration cycle carried out?


A : 0.376
B : 0.4
C : 0.6
D : 0.67
A : At constant volume
B : At constant pressure
C : At constant enthalpy
D : At constant entropy
Q.no 3. Automatic expansion valve is used to maintain
A : constant temperature
B : constant pressure
C : constant volume
D : can not say
A : humidification
A : Rankine
B : Brayton
C : Carnot
D : Reversed Carnot
Q.no 6. During sensible cooling of air __________ decreases.
C : Relative humidity
D : Specific humidity

Q.no 8. A reversible engine has ideal thermal efficiency of 30%. When it is used as a refrigerating
machine with all other conditions unchanged, the coefficient of performance will be
A : 1.33
B : 2.33
C : 4.37
D : 3.45
Q.no 9. The horizontal lines on a psychrometric chart indicates
Q.no 10. Using a flash tank
A : Flash gas formed during expansion can be removed at an intermediate pressure
B : Temperature of refrigerant vapour at the inlet to higher stage compressor can be reduced
C : Pressure drop in evaporator can be reduced
A : Water
B : Air
C : Freon- 22
D : None
Q.no 12. The sensible heat factor for a sensible heating process is
A:0
B:1
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
Q.no 13. In cascade refrigeration, condenser of low temperature refrigeration is coupled with
A : Evaporator of high temperature
B : Evaporator of low temperature
C : Condenser of high temperature
Q.no 14. Latent heat is highest for
A : Refrigerant – 22
B : Ammonia
C : Water
D : None
Q.no 15. For winter air conditioning system, the relative humidity should not be more than
A : 40%
B : 60%
C : 75%
D : 90%

A : water
B : air
D : ice plant
Q.no 18. In an air conditioning duct to minimize noise and vibration, air should flow with a
________velocity
A : high
B : low
C : same
D : velocity is not important
Q.no 19. Multi-stage vapour compression refrigeration systems are used when
A : Required temperature lift increases
B : Required temperature lift decreases
C : Condensing temparature decreases
D : Required refrigeration capacity is large
C : both 1 and 2.
Q.no 21. Highest pressure encountered in a refrigeration system should be
A : Critical pressure of refrigerant
B : Much below critical pressure
C : Much above critical pressure
D : Near critical pressure
Q.no 22. The refrigerator which does not require a compressor is known as
Q.no 24. Thermo-static expansion valve operates on
A : the changes in the temperature of evaporator
B : the changes in pressure in the evaporator
C : the changes in the degree of superheat at exit from evaporator
D : changes in temperature of condnser
Q.no 25. The by-pass factor of a cooling coil decreases with
A : Decrease in fin spacing and increase in number of rows
B : Increase in fin spacing and increase in number of rows
C : Increase in fin spacing and decrease in number of rows
D : Decrease in fin spacing and decrease in number of rows
Q.no 26. When the dry bulb temperature is equal to dew point temperature, the relative humidity
of air-water mixture is
A:0
B:1
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
Q.no 27. The process of adding moisture to the air, without change in its dry bulb temperature, is
known as _________
A : Humidification
Q.no 28. Two carnot refrigerator are employed, one for ice making other for comfort cooling
A : The COP of refrigerator for ice making is higher than that of comfort cooling
B : The COP of refrigerator for ice making is lower than that of comfort cooling
C : The COP of refrigerator for ice making is same as that of comfort cooling
D : COP depends on refrigerant used
Q.no 29. Condenser in a real refrigeration system does
A : De-super heating and condensation
B : Sub-cooling and condensation only
C : De-super heating, condensation and sub-cooling
D : only condensation
D : hot liquid
Q.no 31. Which is the secondary refrigerant in an ice plant
A : Air
B : Water
C : Freon-24
D : None
B : more than 1
C : remains same.
D : remains 1.
Q.no 34. What is the condition of refrigerant at the exit of evaporator in aqua-ammonia
absorption system?
A : low pressure ammonia vapour
B : High pressure ammonia vapour
C : Low pressure strong vapour mixture of ammonia and water
D : High pressure strong vapour mixture of ammonia and water
into
Q.no 37. The ratio of boiling point of refrigerant to the boiling point of absorbent should be
A : Greater than one
B : Less than one
C : equal to one
D : cant say
A : Freon-12
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Air
D : Sodium chloride
B : less than 20
C : less than 50
D : more than 50
a temperature
A : large
B : small
C : same
D : perpendicular
A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1
B : high total heat
D : low latent heat
side is
A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same
A : Centrifugal
B : Axial
C:
D:
A : aspect ratio
B : total pressure
C : static pressure
A : 20 deg.C.
B : 25 deg.C.
C : 22.5 deg.C.
D : 30 deg.C.
Q.no 58. Ammonia is a.......
A : Non-toxic
B : Non-inflammable
C : Toxic and Non-inflammable
D : Highly toxic and inflammable
A : latent
B : sensible
C : total
D : reactive
Q.no 1. The short horizontal line on the pressure-enthalpy chart show
A : Constant pressure lines
B : Constant temperature lines
C : Constant specific volume lines
D : Constant entropy lines




A : Non-toxic
B : Non-inflammable
A : latent
B : sensible
C : total
D : reactive

A : one evaporator
B : Two evaporators
Q.no 4. Spot cooling and heating systems___________ the total cooling load.
A : alters
B : do not alters
C : reduce
D : increases
Q.no 5. The vertical lines on a psychrometric chart indicates
A : Cold storage
Q.no 7. During cooling and dehumidification, dry bulb temperature
B : Increases
C : Decreases
Q.no 8. The refrigerants used in cascade refrigeration
A : Mix with each other
B : Do not mix with each other
C : Mix when in the vapor state
A : (-10.5°C)
B : (-30°C)
C : (-33.3°C)
D : (-77.7°C)
Q.no 10. On psychrometric chart, sensible cooling process is represented by _____________
A : horizontal line
B : vertical line
C : inclined line
D : curveed line
B : condenser
C : evaporator
D : return air fans
Q.no 12. In all air system
Q.no 13. The curved lines on a psychrometric chart indicates
A : Condenser
B : Evaporator
C : Absorber
A : 04791666666666666
B : 042361111111111106
C : 0.3756944444444445
D : 043750000000000004
Q.no 16. The Dew point depression is the difference between
A : DBT and WBT
B : DBT and DPT
C : WBT and DPT
D : Partial pressure of air and vapour
Q.no 18. When food products or other hygroscopic material kept in different compartments are
to be maintained at the same temparature, then the evaporarator
A : At the same temparature with single compressor is used
B : At different temparature with single compressor is used
C : At different temparature with individual compressor is used
A : Condenser tubes
D : Capillary tubes
Q.no 20. A good air distribution system should yield high values of _____________.
A : both ADPI and SDEF
B : only ADPI
C : only SDEF
D : have no relevance to ADPI and SDEF
Q.no 21. Dynamic pressure drop in an elbow of rectangular cross-section ________ as the aspect
ratio increases.
A : increases
B : reduces
C : remains same
D : Can’t predict
C : Is immaterial
Q.no 23. The _____________ effects become stronger as the temperature difference between the
supply air and room air increases
A : static
B : buoyancy
C : forced circulation
D : velocity
_________
Q.no 25. The values of enthalpy at the beginning of compression, at the end of compression and
at the end of condensation are 185 kJ/kg, 210 kJ/kg and 85 kJ/kg respectively. What is the value
of the COP of the vapour compression refrigeration system?
A : 0.25
B : 2.5
C:4
D : 0.4
A : Fridge
C : Water cooler
D : Heat pump
Q.no 27. Rick up the incorrect statement
A : Lithium bromide used in vapour absorption cycle is non volatile
B : Lithium bromide plant can't operate below 0°C
C : A separator is used in lithium bromide plant to remove the unwanted water vapour by condensing
D : Concentration of solution coming out of lithium bromide generator is more in comparison to that
entering the generator
D : for supply duct
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
constant?
B : static pressure
C : total pressure
Q.no 32. The effective draft temperature depends on dry bulb temperature and ______________
of air.
A : wet bulb temperature
B : pressure
C : relative humidity
D : velocity
A : (hA - h2)/(h1 - h2)
B : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h1)
C : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h2)
D : (hA - h1)/(h2 - h1)
_________________.
B : need to change
A : parallel flow
B : counter flow
C : cross flow
D : can not say

A : less
B : greater
C:0
D:1
Q.no 37. In a duct of uniform cross section static pressure _____________.
D : Can’t predict
flow rate.
A : linear
B : parabolic
C : exponential
D : logarithmic
Q.no 39. If RSH is Room Sensible heat, and RLH is Room Latent heat then Room Sensible heat
factor is given by
A : RSH/(RSH + RLH)
B : (RSH + RLH)/RSH
C : (RLH - RLH)/RSH
D : RSH/(RSH - RLH)
Q.no 40. Refrigerant Freon 12 belongs to
A : methane family
B : ethane family
C : ketone family
D : aldehyde family
system.
A : 0.625 and 260 kW
B : 6.25 and 260 kW
C : 0.625 and 60 kW
D : 6.25 and 60 kW
A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.
C : Using reagents
D : Smelling
space.
increases
B : To remove odour
A : Flash chamber
B : Accumulator
C : Inter cooler
D : Float valve
16 bar is equal to:
A : 10 bar
B : 8 bar
C : 6 bar
D : 12 bar
A : remains same
C : increases
D : decreases
A : 0.3
B : 0.6
C : 0.75
D : 1.5
widely used is?
A : ammonia
B : carbon dioxide
C : sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
A : increases
B : decreases
C : do not change
A : 0.376
B : 0.4
C : 0.6
D : 0.67
A : Positive
B : Negative
C : Zero
A : (td1 - td3)/(td2 - td3)
B : (td2 - td3)/(td1 - td3)
C : (td3 - td1)/(td2 - td1)
D : (td3 - td2)/(td2 - td1)
Q.no 1. When the temperature lift of a single stage vapour compression refrigeration system
increases
A : Refrigeration effect increases
B : Work of compression increases
C : Compressor discharge temperature decreases
D : Volumetric efficiency of compressor increases
Q.no 2. The difference between dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature, is called
A : Dry bulb depression
B : Wet bulb depression
C : Dew point depression
Q.no 3. The COP of a refrigeration cycle with lowering of condenser temperature, keeping the
evaporator temperature constant, will
A : Increase
B : Decrease
C : May increase or decrease depending on the type of refrigerant used
D : Remain unaffected



C : (td3 - td1)/(td2 - td1)
D : (td3 - td2)/(td2 - td1)
increases
A : Increase
B : Decrease
B : surface heating
A : galvanized iron
B : aluminium
C : fiber glass
A:8
B : 10
C : 12
D : 16
________velocity
A : high
B : low
C : same
C : Both a. and b.
the evaporator?
B : Condenser
C : Evaporator
D : Compressor
A:1
B:0
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
C : both 1 and 2.
Q.no 18. Specific heats at constant pressure and at constant volume
A : Vapor Refrigerant – 22
B : Vapor Ammonia
C : Water vapors
D : None
A : Rankine
B : Brayton
C : Carnot
D : Reversed Carnot
Q.no 20. In a system with multiple evaporators at different temparatures with compound
compression and flash intercooler, the suction vapour to the high pressue stage is
A : Dry saturaged
B : Superheated
C : Saturated liquid
A:N
B : plane ceiling
C : low ceiling
D : high ceilings
A : Capillary tube
D : Float valve

of dry air
Q.no 25. In a vapour compression system, the compression of refrigerant follows the law
A : PVr = C
B : PV = C
C : PVn = C
B : ice plant
C : milk Plant
D : Fridge
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : Freon-12
known as _________
A : Humidification
A : 600 m/min
B : 800 m/min
C : 1200 m/min
D : 1600 m/min
Q.no 33. The solidification of liquid carbon dioxide is done by expanding it to a pressure…….that
of its triple point pressure.
A : Above
B : Below
C : Equal
D : None of above
of cooling capacity
A : More
B : Less
C : Equally
D : ___
D : pressure only

A : strong
B : weak
C : rising
D : reducing
B : high total heat
D : low latent heat
A : latent
B : sensible
C : total
D : reactive
A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
A : Brine
B : NH3
C : Freon
D : Air
A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1
A : Centrifugal
B : Axial
a temperature
A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants
A : dampers
B : splitters
C : reducers
D : enlargers
A : 20 deg.C.
B : 25 deg.C.
C : 22.5 deg.C.
D : 30 deg.C.


Q.no 2. Rating of a domestic refrigerator is of the order of
A : 0.1 ton
B : 5 tons
C : 10 tons
D : 40 tons
Q.no 3. The higher temperature in the vapour compression cycle occurs at
A : Expansion valve
B : Receiver
C : Compressor discharge
D : evaporator

compression will
B : condenser
C : evaporator
D : return line
D : Cannot say
Q.no 7. Refrigerant used should be such that its normal boiling point is
A : Greater than the temperature required
B : Less than the temperature required
C : Equal to the temperature required
D : None
D : ice plant
A : horizontal line
B : vertical line
C : inclined line
D : curveed line

Q.no 11. For a given flow rate, the total pressure drop of an air duct is less when the air filters are
________.
A : chocked
B : older
C : new
D : perpendicular
A : 40%
B : 60%
C : 75%
D : 90%
A : backward curved
B : Airfoil
C : forward curved
D : rounded
B : Increases
C : Decreases
A : Condenser
B : Evaporator
C : Absorber
A : ≤ One
B : ≥ Two
C : Zero
A : Heating coil
B : Cooling coil
C : Electric coil
D : Magnetic coil
called as
A : Ventilation
B : Infiltration
C : Metabolic rate
D : Air Change
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
A : Decreases
B : Increases
C : Remains same
A : Pv/Ps
B : Ps/Pv
C : (Ps - Pv)
D : Ps/(Ps-Pv)
B : more than 1
C : remains same.
D : remains 1.
expansion device:
D : Capillary tube
D : Can’t predict
A : 20.1 K
B : 51.1 K
C : 70.4 K
D : 90.2 K
Q.no 29. As relative humidity decreases, the dew point temperature will be __________ wet bulb
temperature.
A : Same as
B : Less than
C : Higher than
D : Twice the
by
A : more
B : less
C : remains same
D : Can’t predict
Q.no 32. The wet bulb depression is zero when relative humidity is
A : Zero Percent
B : Fifty Percent
C : Hundred Percent
D : Sixty Percent
A : high
B : low
C : humid
D : dry
A : methane family
B : ethane family
C : ketone family
D : aldehyde family
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Carbon monoxide
D : Sulphur dioxide
A : In evaporator
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : Freon-13
A : Humidification
A : aspect ratio
B : total pressure
C : static pressure
widely used is?
A : ammonia
B : carbon dioxide
C : sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
A : Positive
B : Negative
C : Zero
16 bar is equal to:
A : 10 bar
B : 8 bar
C : 6 bar
D : 12 bar
A : (td1 - td3)/(td2 - td3)
B : (td2 - td3)/(td1 - td3)
C : (td3 - td1)/(td2 - td1)
D : (td3 - td2)/(td2 - td1)
A : increases
B : decreases
C : do not change
A : 0.376
B : 0.4
C : 0.6
D : 0.67
A : Flash chamber
B : Accumulator
C : Inter cooler
D : Float valve
A : large
B : small
C : same
D : perpendicular
A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.
A : remains same
C : increases
D : decreases
side is
A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same
C : Using reagents
D : Smelling
space.
increases
Q.no 1. In hermeatic sealed compressor, the pressure is increased due to
A : rotation of lobs
B : reciprocating action of piston
C : increase in mass
D : backflow of air
A : sum of
B : difference of
C : product of
D : ratio of
A : high
B : low
C : moderate


D : backflow of air
A : sum of
B : difference of
C : product of
D : ratio of
A : high
B : low
C : moderate
D : constant
B : Increases
C : Decreases
A : circular
B : rectangular
C : square
D : trapezoidal
C : Both a. and b.
B : surface heating
A:1
B:0
C : greater than 1
D : remains same.
Q.no 13. To eliminate tobacco smoke, return air inlets should be located at a _________ height on
the wall
A : lower
B : higher
C : at corner
D : at center
D : Can’t predict
A : Cold storage
A : 40%
B : 60%
C : 75%
D : 90%
B : DBT & WBT only
D : RH only
Q.no 20. For a same pressure the saturation temperature of ammonia is

A : Higher than the saturation temperature of water
B : Lower than the saturation temperature of water
C : Same as the saturation temperature of water
D : Cannot say
A : Freon-12
B : Ammonia
C : Air
D : Carbon dioxide
B : plane ceiling
C : low ceiling
D : high ceilings
A : Freon-12
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Air
D : Sodium chloride
A : CH Cl F2
B : C2 Cl3 F3
C : C2 Cl2 F4
D : C2 H2 F4
A : 0.25
B : 2.5
C:4
D : 0.4
compressors?
ratio increases.
A : increases
B : reduces
C : remains same
D : Can’t predict
D : hot liquid
_________
into
Q.no 32. Which is the secondary refrigerant in central air conditioning plant
A : Air
B : Water
C : Freon-23
D : None
A : true
B : false
D : Can’t predict
A : Carbon dioxide
B : Ammonia
C : Freon-12
D : Freon-22
A : recirculation
B : Displacement
C : chocked
D : same
By-pass factor)
A : 1 - BPF
B : 1 + BPF
C : 1/BPF
air in space
A : Temperature
D : Pressure
A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
A : Non-toxic
B : Non-inflammable
B : To remove odour
system.
A : 0.625 and 260 kW
B : 6.25 and 260 kW
C : 0.625 and 60 kW
D : 6.25 and 60 kW
A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants
A : Higher, richer
B : Higher, less
C : Lower, richer
D : Lower, less
A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1
A : latent
B : sensible
C : total
D : reactive
A : Centrifugal
B : Axial
C:
D:

A : one evaporator
B : Two evaporators
A : (-56.6°C)
B : (-75.2°C)
C : (-77.7°C)
D : 135.8°C
A : 04791666666666666
B : 042361111111111106
C : 0.3756944444444445
D : 043750000000000004


A : one evaporator
B : Two evaporators
A : (-56.6°C)
B : (-75.2°C)
C : (-77.7°C)
D : 135.8°C
A : 04791666666666666
B : 042361111111111106
C : 0.3756944444444445
D : 043750000000000004
A : humidification
A : Condenser
B : Evaporator
C : Absorber
______.
A : true
B : false
C : can not predict

A : water
B : air
A : condenser
B : evaporator
C : fans
D : compressor
A : (-10.5°C)
B : (-30°C)
C : (-33.3°C)
D : (-77.7°C)
B : backward curved
C : forward curved
A : Water
B : Ammonia
C : Freon-22
D : None
D : Cannot say
B : Wet vapour
D : None
A : More
B : Less
C : Equally
D : ___
absorption system?
B : less than 20
C : less than 50
D : more than 50
A:N
A:4
B : 0.5
C : 0.8
D : 0.25
A : (hA - h2)/(h1 - h2)
B : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h1)
C : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h2)
D : (hA - h1)/(h2 - h1)
of cooling capacity
A : Condenser only
C : Generator only
D : Absorber only
pressure, is called
A : Humidity ratio
A : static
B : buoyancy
D : velocity
known as _________
A : Humidification
A : Freezing point
A : methane family
B : ethane family
C : ketone family
D : aldehyde family
B : Less than one
C : equal to one
D : cant say
flow rate.
A : linear
B : parabolic
C : exponential
D : logarithmic
A : Freon-12
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Ammonia
D : Air
A:4
B:6
C:8
D : 10
A : remains same
C : increases
D : decreases
A : 0.3
B : 0.6
C : 0.75
D : 1.5
side is
A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same
a temperature
A : 0.376
B : 0.4
C : 0.6
D : 0.67
A : dampers
B : splitters
C : reducers
D : enlargers
A : strong
B : weak
C : rising
D : reducing
B : high total heat
D : low latent heat
A : alters
B : do not alters
C : reduce
D : increases
Q.no 3. What is the main reason behind subcooling of liquid refrigerant at the condenser outlet
in vapour compression refrigeration system?
A : To increase the refrigerating effect
B : To reduce the mass of vapour formed during expansion process
C : To reduce vapour bubbles which obstruct the flow of liquid refrigerant


A : alters
B : do not alters
C : reduce
D : increases
Q.no 3. What is the main reason behind subcooling of liquid refrigerant at the condenser outlet
in vapour compression refrigeration system?
C : To reduce vapour bubbles which obstruct the flow of liquid refrigerant
Q.no 4. When food products or other hygroscopic material kept in different compartments are to
be maintained at the same temparature, then the evaporarator
A : An absorber
B : A generator
A : Water
B : Air
C : Freon- 22
D : None
B : condenser
C : evaporator
D : return air fans
A : sensible
B : latent
A : 40%
B : 60%
C : 75%
D : 90%
B : Vapor Ammonia
C : Water vapors
D : None
Q.no 14. The static regain method of designing ducts as compared to equal friction method
A : increases balancing problem
B : increases cost of sheet metal for ducts
C : decreases cost of sheet metal for ducts
D : is better
A : circular
B : rectangular
C : square
D : trapezoidal
A : Rankine
B : Carnot
D : Reversed Carnot
D : None

By-pass factor)
A : 1 - BPF
B : 1 + BPF
C : 1/BPF
A:0
B:1
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
Q.no 24. In refrigerators, the temperature difference between the evaporating refrigerant and the
medium being cooled should be
A : High, of the order of 25°
B : As low as possible (3 to 11°C)
C : Zero
D : Any value
A : Air
B : Water
C : Freon-24
D : None
compressor
A : 50 kcal/ min
B : 50 kcal/ hr
C : 80 kcal/ min
D : 80 kcal/ hr
A : (hA - h2)/(h1 - h2)
B : (hA - h1)/(h2 - h1)
C : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h2)
D : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h1)
_____________
B : Increases
D : Decreases
A : flooded type
B : dry type
C : wet type
conditioned space
A : Humidifier
B : Air Washer
D : Dehumidifier
A : Diameter D
A : more
B : less
C : remains same
D : Can’t predict
A : Grey
C : Black
D : Pink or red
of cooling capacity
A : -10.5°C
B : -30°C
C : -33.3°C
D : -77.7°C
A : increases
B : decreases
C : do not change
A : Centrifugal
B : Axial
C:
D:
C : Using reagents
D : Smelling
A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants
A : aspect ratio
B : total pressure
C : static pressure
A : 20 deg.C.
B : 25 deg.C.
C : 22.5 deg.C.
D : 30 deg.C.
widely used is?
A : ammonia
B : carbon dioxide
C : sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
A : Brine
B : NH3
C : Freon
D : Air
A : latent
B : sensible
C : total
D : reactive
A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1
A : large
B : small
C : same
D : perpendicular
A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.
A : Cold storage
______.
A : true
B : false
C : can not predict



D : perpendicular
A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.
A : Cold storage
______.
A : true
B : false
C : can not predict
A : Inflammable
B : Toxic
D : costly
Q.no 7. In actual air-conditioning applications for R-12 and R-22, and operating at a condenser
temperature of 40° C and an evaporator temperature of 5° C, the heat rejection factor is about
A:1
B : 1.25
C : 2.45
D : 5.12
B : surface heating
A : Increase
B : Decrease
B : DBT & WBT only
D : RH only
is
D : Cannot say
B : condenser
C : evaporator
D : return line
Q.no 14. In a refrigerator evaporator is located
A : On the bottom of refrigerator cabinet
B : Behind the refrigerator cabinet
C : Adjacent to compressor
D : Inside the refrigerator cabinet
A : galvanized iron
B : aluminium
C : fiber glass
A : Infiltration
B : Metabolic rate
C : Ventilation
D : Air Change
the wall
A : lower
B : higher
C : at corner
D : at center
Q.no 20. A reversible engine has ideal thermal efficiency of 30%. When it is used as a
refrigerating machine with all other conditions unchanged, the coefficient of performance will be
A : 1.33
B : 2.33
C : 4.37
D : 3.45
A : Pv/Ps
B : Ps/Pv
C : (Ps - Pv)
D : Ps/(Ps-Pv)
D : Lack of oil
into
A : static
B : buoyancy
D : velocity
D : hot liquid
A : Fridge
C : Water cooler
D : Heat pump
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Carbon monoxide
D : Sulphur dioxide
A : More
B : Less
C : Same
temperature
A : only slightly
B : very low
C : very humid
D : very dry
Q.no 33. In aqua ammonia absorption refrigeration system the refrigerant is
A : Water
B : Aqua
C : Ammonia
D : Air
B : more than 1
C : remains same.
D : remains 1.
A : 20.1 K
B : 51.1 K
C : 70.4 K
D : 90.2 K
A : Mercury
B : Brine solution
C : Freon-22
D : None
of cooling capacity
C : Is immaterial
A : Non-toxic
B : Non-inflammable
space.
increases
B : high total heat
D : low latent heat
A : Positive
B : Negative
C : Zero
A : Higher, richer
B : Higher, less
C : Lower, richer
D : Lower, less
system.
A : 0.625 and 260 kW
B : 6.25 and 260 kW
C : 0.625 and 60 kW
D : 6.25 and 60 kW
A : remains same
C : increases
D : decreases
A : Condenser tubes
D : Capillary tubes


A : remains same
C : increases
D : decreases
A : Condenser tubes
D : Capillary tubes
A : impeller only
B : diffuser only
C : casing only
increases
A : humidification
A : humidification
B : Increases
D : Decreases
A : alters
B : do not alters
C : reduce
D : increases
A : Heating coil
B : Cooling coil
C : Electric coil
D : Magnetic coil

B : static pressure
C : total pressure
D : Can’t predict
are ________.
A : chocked
B : older
C : new
D : perpendicular
B : Increases
C : Decreases
A : AHU
B : condenser
C : material
D : operating
D : backflow of air
A : DBT and WBT
B : DBT and DPT
C : WBT and DPT
D : pressure only

A : Condenser only
C : Generator only
D : Absorber only
A : (hA - h2)/(h1 - h2)
B : (hA - h1)/(h2 - h1)
C : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h2)
D : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h1)
D : for supply duct
B : ice plant
C : milk Plant
D : Fridge
A:4
B : 0.5
C : 0.8
D : 0.25
A : 0.25
B : 2.5
C:4
D : 0.4
D : Release of heat
B : plane ceiling
C : low ceiling
D : high ceilings
_________________.
B : need to change
A : CH Cl F2
B : C2 Cl3 F3
C : C2 Cl2 F4
D : C2 H2 F4
compressors?
A : parallel flow
B : counter flow
C : cross flow
D : can not say
A : Decreases
B : Increases
C : Remains same
A : large
B : small
C : same
D : perpendicular
A : Flash chamber
B : Accumulator
C : Inter cooler
D : Float valve
A : 0.376
B : 0.4
C : 0.6
D : 0.67
A : latent
B : sensible
C : total
D : reactive
widely used is?
A : ammonia
B : carbon dioxide
C : sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
a temperature
A : 0.3
B : 0.6
C : 0.75
D : 1.5
A : (td1 - td3)/(td2 - td3)
B : (td2 - td3)/(td1 - td3)
C : (td3 - td1)/(td2 - td1)
D : (td3 - td2)/(td2 - td1)
16 bar is equal to:
A : 10 bar
B : 8 bar
C : 6 bar
D : 12 bar
A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
A : Centrifugal
B : Axial
A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.
C:
D:
B : To remove odour
side is
A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same
A:1
B:0
C : greater than 1
D : remains same.


B : To remove odour
side is
A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same
A:1
B:0
C : greater than 1
D : remains same.
A : compressor
B : capillary tube
D : both B and C
A : Air
B : Water
C : Freon-22
D : None
A:0
B:1
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
Q.no 6. Supply of fresh air to the conditioned space either by natural or by mechanical means for
the purpose of maintaining acceptable indoor air quality
A : Infiltration
B : Metabolic rate
C : Ventilation
D : Air Change
C : Both a. and b.
D : costly
B : Ammonia
C : Water
D : None
A : 40%
B : 60%
C : 75%
D : 90%
B : Wet vapour
the wall
A : lower
B : higher
C : at corner
D : at center
the evaporator?
B : Condenser
C : Evaporator
D : Compressor
D : is better
A:1
B:0
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
called as
A : Ventilation
B : Infiltration
C : Metabolic rate
D : Air Change
A : In evaporator
A : Zero Percent
B : Fifty Percent
C : Hundred Percent
D : Sixty Percent
A : More
B : Less
C : Equally
D : ___
into
D : Srew compressor
Q.no 28. The refrigerant used in vapour absorption refrigerator is
A : Freon-12
B : Ammonia
C : CO2
D : Aqua-ammonia
factor is given by
A : RSH/(RSH + RLH)
B : (RSH + RLH)/RSH
C : (RLH - RLH)/RSH
D : RSH/(RSH - RLH)

A : less
B : greater
C:0
D:1
A : Air
B : Water
C : Freon-23
D : None
A : 20.1 K
B : 51.1 K
C : 70.4 K
D : 90.2 K
A : Freon-12
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Ammonia
D : Air
A : Freon-12
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Air
D : Sodium chloride
A : remains same
C : increases
D : decreases
A : Higher, richer
B : Higher, less
C : Lower, richer
D : Lower, less
A : dampers
B : splitters
C : reducers
D : enlargers
space.
increases
A : Brine
B : NH3
C : Freon
D : Air
A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants

A : increases
B : decreases
C : do not change
C : Using reagents
D : Smelling
A : ≤ One
B : ≥ Two
C : Zero


C : Using reagents
D : Smelling
A : ≤ One
B : ≥ Two
C : Zero
B : DBT & WBT only
D : RH only
Q.no 3. For the same capacity of plant, the COP of the vapour absorption refrigeration system is
D : Cannot say
B : condenser
C : evaporator
D : return air fans
D : Cannot say
A:8
B : 10
C : 12
D : 16
A : Water
B : Air
C : Freon- 22
D : None
B : Vapor Ammonia
C : Water vapors
D : None

compression will
A : cooled
B : cooled and dehumidified
A : Rankine
B : Brayton
C : Carnot
D : Reversed Carnot
A : 04791666666666666
B : 042361111111111106
C : 0.3756944444444445
D : 043750000000000004
B : only ADPI
C : only SDEF
D : ice plant
A : backward curved
B : Airfoil
C : forward curved
D : rounded

A:1
B : 1.25
C : 2.45
D : 5.12
A : 0.0 and 1.0
B : 1.0 and 2.0
C : 2.5 and 5.0
D : 10 and 100
pressure, is called
A : Humidity ratio
compressors?
A:0
B:1
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
A : Carbon dioxide
B : Ammonia
C : Freon-12
D : Freon-22
by
B : humidity ratio
C : DBT
D : WBT
air in space
A : Temperature
D : Pressure
C : Zero
D : Any value
compressor
A : free expansion
B : Throttling
C : isotropic
D : isobaric
A : 10 kJ/min
B : 210 kJ/min
C : 50 kJ/min
A : 600 m/min
B : 800 m/min
C : 1200 m/min
D : 1600 m/min
B : more than 1
C : remains same.
D : remains 1.
temperature.
A : Same as
B : Less than
C : Higher than
D : Twice the

B : Yield Lower COP
A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1
A : 0.376
B : 0.4
C : 0.6
D : 0.67
A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.
A : (td1 - td3)/(td2 - td3)
B : (td2 - td3)/(td1 - td3)
C : (td3 - td1)/(td2 - td1)
D : (td3 - td2)/(td2 - td1)
A : 0.3
B : 0.6
C : 0.75
D : 1.5
B : high total heat
D : low latent heat
A : Flash chamber
B : Accumulator
C : Inter cooler
D : Float valve
A : strong
B : weak
C : rising
D : reducing
B : To remove odour
A : Positive
B : Negative
C : Zero
A : Centrifugal
B : Axial
C:
D:
A : DBT and WBT
B : DBT and DPT
C : WBT and DPT


A : Centrifugal
B : Axial
C:
D:
A : DBT and WBT
B : DBT and DPT
C : WBT and DPT
A : sum of
B : difference of
C : product of
D : ratio of
D : All of above

A : Expansion valve
B : Receiver
D : evaporator
B : Increases
C : Decreases
A : compressor
B : capillary tube
D : both B and C
D : None
A : Cold storage
A : condenser
B : evaporator
C : fans
D : compressor
D : None
A : (-56.6°C)
B : (-75.2°C)
C : (-77.7°C)
D : 135.8°C

A : Expansion valve
B : Condenser
C : Compressor
D : Evaporator
______.
A : true
B : false
C : can not predict
A : An absorber
B : A generator
A : recirculation
B : Displacement
C : chocked
D : same
A : Fridge
C : Water cooler
D : Heat pump
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Carbon monoxide
D : Sulphur dioxide
of cooling capacity

of dry air
constant?
B : static pressure
C : total pressure
_____________
B : Increases
D : Decreases
A : More
B : Less
C : Equally
D : ___
A : flooded type
B : dry type
C : wet type
A : Above
B : Below
C : Equal
D : None of above
A : end
B : index
C : middle
D : just before end
A : high
B : low
C : humid
D : dry
A : Pv/Ps
B : Ps/Pv
C : (Ps - Pv)
D : Ps/(Ps-Pv)
A : Water
B : Brine solution
C : Air
D : None
of cooling capacity
A : -10.5°C
B : -30°C
C : -33.3°C
D : -77.7°C
A : Brine
B : NH3
C : Freon
D : Air
A : 20 deg.C.
B : 25 deg.C.
C : 22.5 deg.C.
D : 30 deg.C.
A : large
B : small
C : same
D : perpendicular
A : aspect ratio
B : total pressure
C : static pressure
system.
A : 0.625 and 260 kW
B : 6.25 and 260 kW
C : 0.625 and 60 kW
D : 6.25 and 60 kW
A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants
16 bar is equal to:
A : 10 bar
B : 8 bar
C : 6 bar
D : 12 bar
a temperature
C : Using reagents
D : Smelling
widely used is?
A : ammonia
B : carbon dioxide
C : sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
A : dampers
B : splitters
C : reducers
D : enlargers



C : Using reagents
D : Smelling
widely used is?
A : ammonia
B : carbon dioxide
C : sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
A : dampers
B : splitters
C : reducers
D : enlargers
C : both 1 and 2.
A : 3.5 kJ / min
B : 3.5 W
C : 211 kW
D : 211 kJ / min
A : 0.0 and 1.0
B : 1.0 and 2.0
C : 2.5 and 5.0

D : 10 and 100
B : static pressure
C : total pressure
A:1
B:0
C : greater than 1
D : remains same.
C : constant volume
D : can not say
A : sensible
B : latent
A:1
B:0
C : 0.5
D : 1.5

D : None
B : Increases
C : Decreases
D : Lack of oil
D : hot liquid
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : Freon-13
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
A:4
B : 0.5
C : 0.8
D : 0.25
B : Less than one
C : equal to one
D : cant say
expansion device:
D : Capillary tube
B : less than 20
C : less than 50
D : more than 50
of air.
B : pressure
D : velocity
flow rate.
A : linear
B : parabolic
C : exponential
D : logarithmic
By-pass factor)
A : 1 - BPF
B : 1 + BPF
C : 1/BPF
C : Zero
D : Any value
A : Mercury
B : Brine solution
C : Freon-22
D : None
side is
A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same
A : remains same
C : increases
D : decreases
A : 0.3
B : 0.6
C : 0.75
D : 1.5
A : latent
B : sensible
C : total
D : reactive
A : Flash chamber
B : Accumulator
C : Inter cooler
D : Float valve
B : To remove odour
A : Non-toxic
B : Non-inflammable
C:
D:
A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.
A : Positive
B : Negative
C : Zero
A : increases
B : decreases
C : do not change
A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1
A : Centrifugal
B : Axial
________velocity
A : high
B : low
C : same



A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1
A : Centrifugal
B : Axial
________velocity
A : high
B : low
C : same
A : Increase
B : Decrease
D : backflow of air
A : Rankine
B : Carnot
D : Reversed Carnot
D : None
A : heated
A : Condenser tubes
D : Capillary tubes
B : condenser
C : evaporator
D : return air fans
A:0
B:1
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
B : surface heating
A : 40%
B : 60%
C : 75%
D : 90%
A : Inflammable
B : Toxic
B : DBT & WBT only
D : RH only
conditioned space
A : Humidifier
B : Air Washer
D : Dehumidifier
of cooling capacity
C : Is immaterial
Q.no 26. Sometimes refrigerant plants use cooling towers. The water cooled in these towers is
used
D : Can’t predict
compressor
A : Freezing point
A : static
B : buoyancy
D : velocity
temperature.
A : Same as
B : Less than
C : Higher than
D : Twice the
A : true
B : false
D : Can’t predict
factor is given by
A : RSH/(RSH + RLH)
B : (RSH + RLH)/RSH
C : (RLH - RLH)/RSH
D : RSH/(RSH - RLH)
_________
A : More
B : Less
C : Same
A : dampers
B : splitters
C : reducers
D : enlargers
A : 20 deg.C.
B : 25 deg.C.
C : 22.5 deg.C.
D : 30 deg.C.
C : Using reagents
D : Smelling
space.
increases
A : Higher, richer
B : Higher, less
C : Lower, richer
D : Lower, less
16 bar is equal to:
A : 10 bar
B : 8 bar
C : 6 bar
D : 12 bar
A : strong
B : weak
C : rising
D : reducing
A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants


A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants
B : Increases
C : Decreases
A : horizontal line
B : vertical line
C : inclined line
D : curveed line
A : compressor
B : capillary tube
D : both B and C
Q.no 5. Supply of fresh air to the conditioned space either by natural or by mechanical means for
the purpose of maintaining acceptable indoor air quality
A : Infiltration
B : Metabolic rate
C : Ventilation
D : Air Change
D : Can’t predict
B : only ADPI
C : only SDEF
increases
D : Cannot say
A : alters
B : do not alters
C : reduce
D : increases
A : humidification
B : Capillary tube
C : Compressor
called as
A : Ventilation
B : Infiltration
C : Metabolic rate
D : Air Change
A : DBT and WBT
B : DBT and DPT
C : WBT and DPT
A : impeller only
B : diffuser only
C : casing only
A : one evaporator
B : Two evaporators
is
D : Cannot say
A : recirculation
B : Displacement
C : chocked
D : same
A:4
B : 0.5
C : 0.8
D : 0.25
A : CH Cl F2
B : C2 Cl3 F3
C : C2 Cl2 F4
D : C2 H2 F4
by
D : for supply duct
A : (a+b)/ab
B : 2ab/(a+b)
C : 2a/(a-b)
D : 2b/(a+b)
A : Zero Percent
B : Fifty Percent
C : Hundred Percent
D : Sixty Percent
pressure, is called
A : Humidity ratio
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : Freon-12
A : Water
B : Aqua
C : Ammonia
D : Air
temperature
A : only slightly
B : very low
C : very humid
D : very dry
constant?
B : static pressure
C : total pressure
A : Capillary tube
D : Float valve
expansion device:
D : Capillary tube
a temperature
A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1
widely used is?
A : ammonia
B : carbon dioxide
C : sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
A : increases
B : decreases
C : do not change
A : Flash chamber
B : Accumulator
C : Inter cooler
D : Float valve
A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
A : Brine
B : NH3
C : Freon
D : Air
A : latent
B : sensible
C : total
D : reactive
A : aspect ratio
B : total pressure
C : static pressure
A : remains same
C : increases
D : decreases
A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.


A : 04791666666666666
B : 042361111111111106
C : 0.3756944444444445
D : 043750000000000004
C : constant volume
D : can not say
D : ice plant

A : Dry saturaged
B : Superheated
A : galvanized iron
B : aluminium
C : fiber glass
A : Condenser
B : Evaporator
C : Absorber
D : None
D : is better
A : Heating coil
B : Cooling coil
C : Electric coil
D : Magnetic coil
A : 3.5 kJ / min
B : 3.5 W
C : 211 kW
D : 211 kJ / min
Q.no 16. When food products or other hygroscopic material kept in different compartments are
to be maintained at the same temparature, then the evaporarator
A : (-56.6°C)
B : (-75.2°C)
C : (-77.7°C)
D : 135.8°C
A : (-10.5°C)
B : (-30°C)
C : (-33.3°C)
D : (-77.7°C)

A:0
B:1
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
A : 10 kJ/min
B : 210 kJ/min
C : 50 kJ/min
B : less than 20
C : less than 50
D : more than 50
A : In evaporator
A : more
B : less
C : remains same
D : Can’t predict
D : Lack of oil
A : Fridge
C : Water cooler
D : Heat pump
A : Humidification
A : methane family
B : ethane family
C : ketone family
D : aldehyde family

D : pressure only
A : Air
B : Water
C : Freon-23
D : None
A : Mercury
B : Brine solution
C : Freon-22
D : None

system.
A : 0.625 and 260 kW
B : 6.25 and 260 kW
C : 0.625 and 60 kW
D : 6.25 and 60 kW
A : large
B : small
C : same
D : perpendicular
side is
A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same
A : 20 deg.C.
B : 25 deg.C.
C : 22.5 deg.C.
D : 30 deg.C.
B : high total heat
D : low latent heat
A : 0.376
B : 0.4
C : 0.6
D : 0.67
A : (td1 - td3)/(td2 - td3)
B : (td2 - td3)/(td1 - td3)
C : (td3 - td1)/(td2 - td1)
D : (td3 - td2)/(td2 - td1)
A : Non-toxic
B : Non-inflammable
space.
increases
A : Centrifugal
B : Axial
C : Using reagents
D : Smelling
B : To remove odour
A : strong
B : weak
C : rising
D : reducing
A : 40%
B : 60%
C : 75%
D : 90%
B : condenser
C : evaporator
D : return line
D : Cannot say
B : Wet vapour


C : rising
D : reducing
A : 40%
B : 60%
C : 75%
D : 90%
B : condenser
C : evaporator
D : return line
D : Cannot say
B : Wet vapour
D : None
Q.no 9. Which device is capable of regulating the flow of refrigerant according to the load on the
evaporator?
B : Condenser
C : Evaporator
D : Compressor
A : 0.0 and 1.0
B : 1.0 and 2.0
C : 2.5 and 5.0
D : 10 and 100
D : backflow of air
A : Increase
B : Decrease
D : None
D : None
B : condenser
C : evaporator
D : return air fans

A : high
B : low
C : humid
D : dry
A : 0.25
B : 2.5
C:4
D : 0.4
D : Srew compressor
factor is given by
A : RSH/(RSH + RLH)
B : (RSH + RLH)/RSH
C : (RLH - RLH)/RSH
D : RSH/(RSH - RLH)
A : flooded type
B : dry type
C : wet type
B : plane ceiling
C : low ceiling
D : high ceilings
A : parallel flow
B : counter flow
C : cross flow
D : can not say
A : Grey
C : Black
D : Pink or red
A:4
B:6
C:8
D : 10
A : (a+b)/ab
B : 2ab/(a+b)
C : 2a/(a-b)
D : 2b/(a+b)
A : Freon-12
B : Ammonia
C : Air
D : Carbon dioxide
temperature.
A : Same as
B : Less than
C : Higher than
D : Twice the
A : (hA - h2)/(h1 - h2)
B : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h1)
C : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h2)
D : (hA - h1)/(h2 - h1)
ratio increases.
A : increases
B : reduces
C : remains same
D : Can’t predict
air in space
A : Temperature
D : Pressure
known as _________
A : Humidification
A : Freon-12
B : Ammonia
C : CO2
D : Aqua-ammonia
A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1
widely used is?
A : ammonia
B : carbon dioxide
C : sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
A : dampers
B : splitters
C : reducers
D : enlargers
C:
D:
A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants
a temperature
A : 0.3
B : 0.6
C : 0.75
D : 1.5
A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
A : Brine
B : NH3
C : Freon
D : Air
A : remains same
C : increases
D : decreases
A : latent
B : sensible
C : total
D : reactive
A : Rankine
B : Carnot
D : Reversed Carnot
A : Air
B : Water
C : Freon-22
D : None
A : 0.1 ton
B : 5 tons
C : 10 tons
D : 40 tons
B : backward curved
C : forward curved



D : reactive
A : Rankine
B : Carnot
D : Reversed Carnot
A : Air
B : Water
C : Freon-22
D : None
A : 0.1 ton
B : 5 tons
C : 10 tons
D : 40 tons
B : backward curved
C : forward curved

A : humidification

compression will
A : horizontal line
B : vertical line
C : inclined line
D : curveed line
D : All of above
A : Heating coil
B : Cooling coil
C : Electric coil
D : Magnetic coil
A : one evaporator
B : Two evaporators
________velocity
A : high
B : low
C : same
A : Cold storage
A : high
B : low
C : moderate
D : constant
increases
A : Air
B : Water
C : Freon-24
D : None
A:0
B:1
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
A : more
B : less
C : remains same
D : Can’t predict
D : pressure only
of air.
B : pressure
D : velocity
flow rate.
A : linear
B : parabolic
C : exponential
D : logarithmic
absorption system?
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : Freon-13
A : Diameter D
_________________.
B : need to change
expansion device:
D : Capillary tube
A : 600 m/min
B : 800 m/min
C : 1200 m/min
D : 1600 m/min
A : increases
B : decreases
C : do not change
A : strong
B : weak
C : rising
D : reducing
B : high total heat
D : low latent heat
A : Non-toxic
B : Non-inflammable
A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.
A : Flash chamber
B : Accumulator
C : Inter cooler
D : Float valve
16 bar is equal to:
A : 10 bar
B : 8 bar
C : 6 bar
D : 12 bar
A : Water
B : Air
C : Freon- 22
D : None
B : condenser
C : evaporator
D : return line



16 bar is equal to:
A : 10 bar
B : 8 bar
C : 6 bar
D : 12 bar
A : Water
B : Air
C : Freon- 22
D : None
B : condenser
C : evaporator
D : return line
D : Can’t predict
A : An absorber
B : A generator
A : Rankine
B : Brayton
C : Carnot
D : Reversed Carnot


A : water
B : air
Q.no 12. A reversible engine has ideal thermal efficiency of 30%. When it is used as a
refrigerating machine with all other conditions unchanged, the coefficient of performance will be
A : 1.33
B : 2.33
C : 4.37
D : 3.45
A : sum of
B : difference of
C : product of
D : ratio of
B : Increases
D : Decreases
is
D : Cannot say
A : sensible
B : latent
A : condenser
B : evaporator
C : fans
D : compressor
A : end
B : index
C : middle
D : just before end
A : Above
B : Below
C : Equal
D : None of above
D : Lack of oil
B : humidity ratio
C : DBT
D : WBT
A : Freon-12
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Air
D : Sodium chloride
A : static
B : buoyancy
D : velocity
A : high
B : low
C : humid
D : dry
_____________
B : Increases
D : Decreases
A : More
B : Less
C : Same
C : Zero
D : Any value
D : hot liquid
A : true
B : false
D : Can’t predict
_________
A : Freezing point
widely used is?
A : ammonia
B : carbon dioxide
C : sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
side is
A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same
A : Higher, richer
B : Higher, less
C : Lower, richer
D : Lower, less
C : Using reagents
D : Smelling
C:
D:
A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1
space.
increases
A : Centrifugal
B : Axial
A : Positive
B : Negative
C : Zero
B : To remove odour
A : Brine
B : NH3
C : Freon
D : Air
A : 0.3
B : 0.6
C : 0.75
D : 1.5
A : aspect ratio
B : total pressure
C : static pressure
A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants
A : Rankine
B : Carnot
D : Reversed Carnot
B : Ammonia
C : Water
D : None
A : DBT and WBT



A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants
A : Rankine
B : Carnot
D : Reversed Carnot
B : Ammonia
C : Water
D : None
A : DBT and WBT

B : DBT and DPT
C : WBT and DPT
D : ice plant

A : Dry saturaged
B : Superheated
A:0
B:1
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
D : Cannot say
A : 40%
B : 60%
C : 75%
D : 90%
A : 04791666666666666
B : 042361111111111106
C : 0.3756944444444445
D : 043750000000000004
A : 0.0 and 1.0
B : 1.0 and 2.0
C : 2.5 and 5.0
D : 10 and 100
A : Decreases
B : Increases
C : Remains same
A : Increase
B : Decrease
the wall
A : lower
B : higher
C : at corner
D : at center
A:1
B:0
C : greater than 1
D : remains same.
A : (hA - h2)/(h1 - h2)
B : (hA - h1)/(h2 - h1)
C : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h2)
D : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h1)
D : for supply duct
A : More
B : Less
C : Equally
D : ___
A : Water
B : Aqua
C : Ammonia
D : Air
A : 20.1 K
B : 51.1 K
C : 70.4 K
D : 90.2 K
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : Freon-12

B : Yield Lower COP
A : Fridge
C : Water cooler
D : Heat pump
constant?
B : static pressure
C : total pressure
temperature.
A : Same as
B : Less than
C : Higher than
D : Twice the
B : more than 1
C : remains same.
D : remains 1.
D : Srew compressor
A : Freon-12
B : Ammonia
C : Air
D : Carbon dioxide
A : CH Cl F2
B : C2 Cl3 F3
C : C2 Cl2 F4
D : C2 H2 F4

B : Less than one
C : equal to one
D : cant say
A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
system.
A : 0.625 and 260 kW
B : 6.25 and 260 kW
C : 0.625 and 60 kW
D : 6.25 and 60 kW
A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.
16 bar is equal to:
A : 10 bar
B : 8 bar
C : 6 bar
D : 12 bar
A : 20 deg.C.
B : 25 deg.C.
C : 22.5 deg.C.
D : 30 deg.C.
a temperature
A : large
B : small
C : same
D : perpendicular
A : increases
B : decreases
C : do not change
A : 0.376
B : 0.4
C : 0.6
D : 0.67
A : Inflammable
B : Toxic
C : both 1 and 2.
A : 3.5 kJ / min


A : Inflammable
B : Toxic
C : both 1 and 2.
A : 3.5 kJ / min
B : 3.5 W
C : 211 kW
D : 211 kJ / min
D : is better
D : Cannot say
A : Expansion valve
B : Condenser
C : Compressor
D : Evaporator
C : constant volume
D : can not say
A : circular
B : rectangular
C : square
D : trapezoidal
A : Cold storage

A:8
B : 10
C : 12
D : 16
A : backward curved
B : Airfoil
C : forward curved
D : rounded
D : None
A : 0.25
B : 2.5
C:4
D : 0.4
A : Zero Percent
B : Fifty Percent
C : Hundred Percent
D : Sixty Percent
D : pressure only
compressors?
A : Mercury
B : Brine solution
C : Freon-22
D : None
A : 50 kcal/ min
B : 50 kcal/ hr
C : 80 kcal/ min
D : 80 kcal/ hr
B : ice plant
C : milk Plant
D : Fridge
B : less than 20
C : less than 50
D : more than 50
A : Humidification
A : 10 kJ/min
B : 210 kJ/min
C : 50 kJ/min
pressure, is called
A : Humidity ratio
into
D : Release of heat
conditioned space
A : Humidifier
B : Air Washer
D : Dehumidifier
C : Using reagents
D : Smelling
side is
A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same
A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1
A : dampers
B : splitters
C : reducers
D : enlargers
A : strong
B : weak
C : rising
D : reducing
space.
increases
A : Centrifugal
B : Axial
C:
D:
A : Flash chamber
B : Accumulator
C : Inter cooler
D : Float valve
A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants
A : Higher, richer
B : Higher, less
C : Lower, richer
D : Lower, less
C : Both a. and b.


A : Higher, richer
B : Higher, less
C : Lower, richer
D : Lower, less
C : Both a. and b.
D : None
D : None
A : 40%
B : 60%
C : 75%
D : 90%
Q.no 6. Which device is capable of regulating the flow of refrigerant according to the load on the
evaporator?
B : Condenser
C : Evaporator
D : Compressor
A : (-56.6°C)
B : (-75.2°C)
C : (-77.7°C)
D : 135.8°C
D : costly
is
D : Cannot say
B : Capillary tube
C : Compressor
B : Increases
C : Decreases
D : All of above
A:1
B : 1.25
C : 2.45
D : 5.12
A : heated
B : Vapor Ammonia
C : Water vapors
D : None
A : AHU
B : condenser
C : material
D : operating
A:N
A : Carbon dioxide
B : Ammonia
C : Freon-12
D : Freon-22
D : Srew compressor
By-pass factor)
A : 1 - BPF
B : 1 + BPF
C : 1/BPF
D : Can’t predict
A : More
B : Less
C : Equally
D : ___
of cooling capacity
A : Grey
C : Black
D : Pink or red
A : more
B : less
C : remains same
D : Can’t predict
A : high
B : low
C : humid
D : dry
A : 20.1 K
B : 51.1 K
C : 70.4 K
D : 90.2 K
A : (a+b)/ab
B : 2ab/(a+b)
C : 2a/(a-b)
D : 2b/(a+b)
by
widely used is?
A : ammonia
B : carbon dioxide
C : sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
B : To remove odour
B : high total heat
D : low latent heat
A : 0.3
B : 0.6
C : 0.75
D : 1.5
a temperature
16 bar is equal to:
A : 10 bar
B : 8 bar
C : 6 bar
D : 12 bar
A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.
A : Brine
B : NH3
C : Freon
D : Air
A : Positive
B : Negative
C : Zero
A : remains same
C : increases
D : decreases
A : increases
B : decreases
C : do not change
A : large
B : small
C : same
D : perpendicular
A : (td1 - td3)/(td2 - td3)
B : (td2 - td3)/(td1 - td3)
C : (td3 - td1)/(td2 - td1)
D : (td3 - td2)/(td2 - td1)


A : large
B : small
C : same
D : perpendicular
A : (td1 - td3)/(td2 - td3)
B : (td2 - td3)/(td1 - td3)
C : (td3 - td1)/(td2 - td1)
D : (td3 - td2)/(td2 - td1)
A:1
B:0
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
A : An absorber
B : A generator
A : 0.1 ton
B : 5 tons
C : 10 tons
D : 40 tons
B : Increases
C : Decreases

B : Increases
C : Decreases

B : backward curved
C : forward curved
B : condenser
C : evaporator
D : return air fans
A : Infiltration
B : Metabolic rate
C : Ventilation
D : Air Change
factor is given by
A : RSH/(RSH + RLH)
B : (RSH + RLH)/RSH
C : (RLH - RLH)/RSH
D : RSH/(RSH - RLH)

A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Carbon monoxide
D : Sulphur dioxide
C : Zero
D : Any value
A : Freon-12
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Air
D : Sodium chloride
D : for supply duct

A : less
B : greater
C:0
D:1

of dry air
D : hot liquid
B : plane ceiling
C : low ceiling
D : high ceilings
B : more than 1
C : remains same.
D : remains 1.
A : CH Cl F2
B : C2 Cl3 F3
C : C2 Cl2 F4
D : C2 H2 F4
A : methane family
B : ethane family
C : ketone family
D : aldehyde family
ratio increases.
A : increases
B : reduces
C : remains same
D : Can’t predict
A : Freon-12
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Ammonia
D : Air
B : ice plant
C : milk Plant
D : Fridge
A : 0.376
B : 0.4
C : 0.6
D : 0.67
A : latent
B : sensible
C : total
D : reactive
A : Non-toxic
B : Non-inflammable
A : Centrifugal
B : Axial
A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
A : aspect ratio
B : total pressure
C : static pressure
side is
A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same
A : 20 deg.C.
B : 25 deg.C.
C : 22.5 deg.C.
D : 30 deg.C.
system.
A : 0.625 and 260 kW
B : 6.25 and 260 kW
C : 0.625 and 60 kW
D : 6.25 and 60 kW
A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1
A : 0.0 and 1.0
B : 1.0 and 2.0
C : 2.5 and 5.0
D : 10 and 100



system.
A : 0.625 and 260 kW
B : 6.25 and 260 kW
C : 0.625 and 60 kW
D : 6.25 and 60 kW
A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1
A : 0.0 and 1.0
B : 1.0 and 2.0
C : 2.5 and 5.0
D : 10 and 100
B : DBT & WBT only
D : RH only
called as
A : Ventilation
B : Infiltration
C : Metabolic rate
D : Air Change
B : Ammonia
C : Water
D : None
D : None
are ________.
A : chocked
B : older
C : new
D : perpendicular
D : Can’t predict
D : None
________velocity
A : high
B : low
C : same
B : Vapor Ammonia
C : Water vapors
D : None
C : Both a. and b.
A : Water
B : Air
C : Freon- 22
D : None
A : heated
A : alters
B : do not alters
C : reduce
D : increases
A : one evaporator
B : Two evaporators
temperature.
A : Same as
B : Less than
C : Higher than
D : Twice the
A : Freon-12
B : Ammonia
C : Air
D : Carbon dioxide
A:4
B : 0.5
C : 0.8
D : 0.25
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : Freon-13
expansion device:
D : Capillary tube
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
A : 600 m/min
B : 800 m/min
C : 1200 m/min
D : 1600 m/min
A : Humidification
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : Freon-12
air in space
A : Temperature
D : Pressure
A : flooded type
B : dry type
C : wet type
B : Less than one
C : equal to one
D : cant say
A : Freon-12
B : Ammonia
C : CO2
D : Aqua-ammonia
into
A : Water
B : Aqua
C : Ammonia
D : Air
A : Carbon dioxide
B : Ammonia
C : Freon-12
D : Freon-22
A : free expansion
B : Throttling
C : isotropic
D : isobaric
A : Positive
B : Negative
C : Zero
A : Brine
B : NH3
C : Freon
D : Air
16 bar is equal to:
A : 10 bar
B : 8 bar
C : 6 bar
D : 12 bar
A : (td1 - td3)/(td2 - td3)
B : (td2 - td3)/(td1 - td3)
C : (td3 - td1)/(td2 - td1)
D : (td3 - td2)/(td2 - td1)
A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants
A : Flash chamber
B : Accumulator
C : Inter cooler
D : Float valve
A : Higher, richer
B : Higher, less
C : Lower, richer
D : Lower, less
a temperature
A : remains same
C : increases
D : decreases
A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.
A : large
B : small
C : same
D : perpendicular
A : strong
B : weak
C : rising
D : reducing


Seat No -
P10259_REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
Q.no 2. Most of the power in air handling units is consumed in running

the__________.
A : condenser
B : evaporator
C : fans
D : compressor
Q.no 3. Spot cooling and heating systems provide better individual control. This
statement is ______.
A : true
B : false
C : can not predict
Q.no 4. The difference between dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature,
is called
Q.no 6. The uncontrolled entry of untreated, outdoor air directly into the
conditioned space is called as
A : Ventilation
B : Infiltration
C : Metabolic rate
D : Air Change
A : More dangerous than the dry compression in vapour compression refrigeration

system
B : Less dangerous than the dry compression in vapour compression refrigeration

system
D : Cannot say
Q.no 8. Which device is used for the expansion of refrigerant in vapour

compression refrigeration cycle?
B : Capillary tube
C : Compressor
A : Expansion valve
B : Condenser
C : Compressor
D : Evaporator
Q.no 10. In cascade refrigeration, condenser of low temperature refrigeration is

coupled with
B : Increases
C : Decreases
A : sum of
B : difference of
C : product of
D : ratio of
Q.no 13. The use of a flash chamber in a multi-stage vapor compression

refrigeration
Q.no 14. Evaporator in a refrigeration plant is fitted
A : Condenser tubes
D : Capillary tubes
D : Specific humidity
Q.no 18. What is the process carried out in generator of vapour absorption

C : Constant specific volume lines
A : Condenser only
C : Generator only
D : Absorber only

C : Is immaterial
A : used either as a summer air conditioning system or as a winter air conditioning

system
C : used during winter, the heating and dehumidification coils are switched off
Q.no 27. As relative humidity decreases, the dew point temperature will be
__________ wet bulb temperature.
A : Same as
B : Less than
C : Higher than
D : Twice the
Q.no 28. Which compressor is used, when volume flow rate of refrigerant is very
large?
D : Srew compressor
Q.no 29. If D is diameter of impeller of fan, the power of fan is directly

proportional to
A : Diameter D
D : fifth power of diameter D
Q.no 30. In a given duct system, the total pressure drop varies in a ____________
manner with flow rate.
A : linear
B : parabolic
C : exponential
D : logarithmic
Q.no 31. The colour of flame during halide torch test for refrigerant leaks will
change to
A : Grey
C : Black
D : Pink or red
A : methane family
B : ethane family
C : ketone family
D : aldehyde family

Q.no 34. The fluids used in the Electrolux refrigerator are
D : pressure only
A:N
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
A : Carbon dioxide
B : Ammonia
C : Freon-12
D : Freon-22
Q.no 39. The process of adding moisture to the air, without change in its dry bulb
temperature, is known as _________
A : Humidification
B : Dehumidification
D : Can’t predict
Q.no 41. The index which corelates the combined effects of air temperature,
relative humidity and air velocity on the human body, is known as
Q.no 42. In two-stage compression system with flash gas removal:
A : Refrigerant mass flow rates in both low and high stage compressors are equal
B : Refrigerant mass flow rates in high stage compressors is greater than that in low
stagecompressor
C : Refrigerant mass flow rates in high stage compressors is smaller than that in low
stagecompressor
D : Mass flow rates in low and high stage compressors are equal if the pressure ratios
are equal
Q.no 43. If the air conditioning duct is diverging, then the angle of divergence
should be as_________ as possible to reduce pressure loss
A : large
B : small
C : same
D : perpendicular
B : Prevent flashing of refrigerant liquid ahead of low stage expansion device
C:
D:
Q.no 45. In a refrigeration system having water cooled condenser, in a hot humid
day
Q.no 46. The vapour going to condenser is ____ in temperature and ____ in
ammonia.
A : Higher, richer
B : Higher, less
C : Lower, richer
D : Lower, less
A : strong
B : weak
C : rising
D : reducing
D : In a given duct system, the total pressure drop varies linearly with flow rate
Q.no 50. The operating temperatures of a single stage vapour absorption

refrigeration system are: generator: 90 degree C; condenser and absorber: 40
degree C; evaporator: 0 degree C. The system has a refrigeration capacity of 100
kW and the heat input to the system is 160 kW. The pump work is negligible. What
is the COP of the system and the total heat rejection rate from the system.
A : 0.625 and 260 kW
B : 6.25 and 260 kW
C : 0.625 and 60 kW
D : 6.25 and 60 kW
A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1
Q.no 52. In control cooling water system, chromates, phosphates and silicates are
added to water
B : To remove odour
A : During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air decreases
B : During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air increases
C : During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air remains constant
D : During cooling and humidification process, the enthalpy of air may increase,
decrease or remain constant depending upon the temperature of the wet surface
A : As the by-pass factor (BPF) of the cooling coil increases, temperature difference
between air at the outlet of the coil and coil ADP decreases
C : The BPF of the coil increases as the fin pitch increases
D : The BPF of the coil decreases as the number of rows in the flow direction increase
Q.no 55. A carnot refrigerator 70 kJ/min of work to produce one tonne of

refrigeration at -40 degree celcius. The COP of this refrigerator is
A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
C : alternate overfeeeding and straving of the refrigerant flow to the evaporator
A : For a given flow rate, the pressure drop is less in rectangular duct compared to a
circular duct.
B : For a given pressure drop, it requires less material in rectangular duct compared to
a circular duct.
D : Rectangular ducts match better with building profile.
A : Flash chamber
B : Accumulator
C : Inter cooler
D : Float valve
D : When reheat coils are used, the required supply airflow rate increases
D : ice plant
D : backflow of air
A : one evaporator
B : Two evaporators

B : backward curved
C : forward curved
A : Cold storage
Q.no 6. As the evaporator temperature lowers down, the required compression

ratio
D : Cannot say
D : Cannot say
Q.no 8. To eliminate tobacco smoke, return air inlets should be located at a

_________ height on the wall
A : lower
B : higher
C : at corner
D : at center
B : DBT & WBT only
D : RH only
A : alters
B : do not alters
C : reduce
D : increases
Q.no 11. For winter air conditioning system, the relative humidity should not be
more than
A : 40%
B : 60%
C : 75%
D : 90%
Q.no 12. During sensible cooling of air, both dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures
____________
B : Increases
D : Decreases
A : galvanized iron
B : aluminium
C : fiber glass
A : cooled
B : cooled and dehumidified
C : heated and humidified
D : cooled and humidified
Q.no 15. In an air conditioning duct to minimize noise and vibration, air should
flow with a ________velocity
A : high
B : low
C : same
B : surface heating
B : condenser
C : evaporator
D : return air fans
D : None
A : Air
B : Water
C : Freon-22
D : None
D : Can’t predict

B : less than 20
C : less than 50
D : more than 50
Q.no 23. During cooling and dehumidification process if h1 is Enthalpy of air

entering the cooling coil, h2 is Enthalpy of air leaving the cooling coil, and hA is
Enthalpy of air at the end of dehumidification process, then the sensible heat
factor is given by the expression
A : (hA - h2)/(h1 - h2)
B : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h1)
C : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h2)
D : (hA - h1)/(h2 - h1)
Q.no 24. The ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry air to
the mass of water vapour in the same mass of dry air when it is saturated at the
same temperature and pressure, is called
A : Humidity ratio
Q.no 25. In an actual enlargement, reduction in dynamic pressure is

always__________ than increase in static pressure
A : less
B : greater
C:0
D:1

C : Applications requiring very high efficiencies
A : 50 kcal/ min
B : 50 kcal/ hr
C : 80 kcal/ min
D : 80 kcal/ hr
C : A separator is used in lithium bromide plant to remove the unwanted water vapour
by condensing
D : Concentration of solution coming out of lithium bromide generator is more in

comparison to that entering the generator
D : hot liquid

Q.no 31. Dew point temperature corresponds to the saturation temperature of

vapour at its _________
A : parallel flow
B : counter flow
C : cross flow
D : can not say
Q.no 33. When the lower temperature is fixed, COP of a refrigerating machine can
be improved by
A : end
B : index
C : middle
D : just before end

Q.no 35. At lower temperatures and pressures, the latent heat of vaporisation of a
refrigerant
A : Decreases
B : Increases
C : Remains same
A : Capillary tube
D : Float valve
Q.no 38. What is the condition of refrigerant at the exit of evaporator in aqua-
ammonia absorption system?
A : free expansion
B : Throttling
C : isotropic
D : isobaric
Q.no 40. In displacement flow system, supply air temperature is ________ different
from comfort temperature
A : only slightly
B : very low
C : very humid
D : very dry
Q.no 41. Assuming the refrigerant vapour to behave as an ideal gas and with
perfect intercooling,
the optimum intermediate pressure of a refrigeration system that operates
between 4 bar and
16 bar is equal to:
A : 10 bar
B : 8 bar
C : 6 bar
D : 12 bar
Q.no 42. In a psychrometric process, the sensible heat added is 30 kW and the
latent heat added is 20 kW. The sensible heat factor for the process will be
A : 0.3
B : 0.6
C : 0.75
D : 1.5
Q.no 43. On P-h diagram condensation and desuperheating is represented by

horizontal line because the process is

Q.no 44. A light-troffer-diffuser-slot ____________ the efficiency of the fluorescent

lights
A : increases
B : decreases
C : do not change
A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants
B : high total heat
D : low latent heat
A : aspect ratio
B : total pressure
C : static pressure
A : The purpose of an air distribution system is to maintain comfort conditions in the

entire conditioned space.
B : The purpose of an air distribution system is to maintain comfort conditions in the
occupied zone of the conditioned space.
C : For a given fan operating at a constant flow rate, the power input increases as the
air temperature increases
D : For a given fan operating at a constant static pressure rise, the flow rate reduces as
the air temperature increases
Q.no 53. When the temperature of the surrounding is higher than the
temperature of the body, then the heat loss by convection from the body to the
surrounding will be
A : Positive
B : Negative
C : Zero
A : Non-toxic
B : Non-inflammable
C : Toxic and Non-inflammable
D : Highly toxic and inflammable
Q.no 55. In order to cool and dehumidify a stream of moist air, it must be passed
over the coil at a temperature
A : Which lies between the dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures of the incoming
stream
B : Which lies between the wet bulb and dew point temperatures of the incoming
stream
Q.no 56. the heat rejection ratio in condenser is defined as ratio of

A : Halide torch which on detection produces greenish flame lighting
C : Using reagents
D : Smelling
Q.no 60. In case of sensible cooling of air, if td1 is Dry bulb temperature of air
entering the cooling coil, td2 is Dry bulb temperature of air leaving the cooling
coil, and td3 is Dry bulb temperature of the cooling coil, then the by-pass factor is
given by
A : (td1 - td3)/(td2 - td3)
B : (td2 - td3)/(td1 - td3)

C : (td3 - td1)/(td2 - td1)
D : (td3 - td2)/(td2 - td1)

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
Q.no 1. The reason for a person feeling more comfortable on a warm day if seated
in front of an electric fan is that the

Q.no 3. What is used as an intercooler in multistage compression of vapour

compression refrigeration system?
A : water
B : air
Q.no 4. When food products or other hygroscopic material kept in different

compartments are to be maintained at the same temparature, then the
evaporarator
A : Water
B : Ammonia
C : Freon-22
D : None
Q.no 6. Which device is capable of regulating the flow of refrigerant according to

the load on the evaporator?
B : Condenser
C : Evaporator
D : Compressor
B : Increases
C : Decreases
A : Rankine
B : Brayton
C : Carnot
D : Reversed Carnot
B : backward curved
C : forward curved
Q.no 11. When the temperature lift of a single stage vapour compression
refrigeration system increases

D : Volumetric efficiency of compressor increases
B : static pressure
C : total pressure
A : Decreases
B : Increases
C : Remains same

ratio
D : Cannot say
Q.no 17. The COP of a refrigeration cycle with lowering of condenser temperature,
keeping the evaporator temperature constant, will
A : Increase
B : Decrease
Q.no 18. During Humidification process ___________ remains constant
C : Specific humidity
C : constant volume
D : can not say

A : Carbon dioxide
B : Ammonia
C : Freon-12
D : Freon-22
A : 20.1 K
B : 51.1 K
C : 70.4 K
D : 90.2 K
B : humidity ratio
C : DBT
D : WBT
A : Humidity ratio
Q.no 26. Stratified mixing flows are recommended for buildings with _____________.
B : plane ceiling
C : low ceiling
D : high ceilings
Q.no 27. If RSH is Room Sensible heat, and RLH is Room Latent heat then Room
Sensible heat factor is given by
A : RSH/(RSH + RLH)
B : (RSH + RLH)/RSH
C : (RLH - RLH)/RSH
D : RSH/(RSH - RLH)
Q.no 28. Two carnot refrigerator are employed, one for ice making other for
comfort cooling

Q.no 30. The _____________ effects become stronger as the temperature difference
between the supply air and room air increases
A : static
B : buoyancy
D : velocity
Q.no 31. When the air temperature reaches the point where relative humidity is
100% the air is saturated because it cannot hold any more moisture. This
temperature is called as ______
A : Freezing point
Q.no 32. In a domestic refrigerator if the compressor runs continuously, it shows

that
D : Lack of oil
Q.no 33. The relative humidity is defined as

of dry air
C : The ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry air to the mass of
water vapour in the same mass of dry air when it is saturated at the same temperature
and pressure
D : The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to the mass
of water vapour in the same volume of saturated air at the same temperature and
pressure

proportional to
A : Diameter D
D : Can’t predict
Q.no 37. The sensible heat gain is due to the __________ difference between the
fresh air and the air in space
A : Temperature
B : Specific humidity
D : Pressure
Q.no 38. In domestic refrigerator, a capillary tube controlls the flow of refrigerant
from the
Q.no 39. The purpose of installing a flash chamber in the refrigeration circuit is to
A : Improve overall heat transfer coefficient
Q.no 40. Capillary tube is the expansion valve used in refrigeration and Air
Conditioning units of cooling capacity
Q.no 41. The suction pipe diameter of refrigerating unit compressor in

comparison to delivery side is
A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same
A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1
C : Using reagents
D : Smelling
stream
stream
Q.no 48. The effective draft temperature increases as dry bulb temperature
increases and air velocity __________.
A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.
circular duct.
a circular duct.
surrounding will be
A : Positive
B : Negative
C : Zero
Q.no 51. In larger industrial and commercial reciprocating compression systems,

the refrigerant widely used is?
A : ammonia
B : carbon dioxide
C : sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants
C : Specific humidity increases during sensible cooling

Q.no 55. For a backward curved blade, the fan total pressure (FTP)_________________
at a particular flow rate.
A : remains same
C : increases
D : decreases

A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
A : aspect ratio
B : total pressure
C : static pressure
day
C : Both a. and b.

D : None
A : impeller only
B : diffuser only
C : casing only
Q.no 6. What is flash gas fraction?
A : The mass fraction of liquid in liquid-vapour mixture of refrigerant at inlet to the

evaporator
B : The mass fraction of vapour in liquid-vapour mixture of refrigerant at inlet to the

evaporator
C : The mass of vapour actually compressed to the mass of vapour should have
compressed ideally

A : one evaporator
B : Two evaporators
D : None
Q.no 11. In actual air-conditioning applications for R-12 and R-22, and operating at
a condenser temperature of 40° C and an evaporator temperature of 5° C, the heat
rejection factor is about
A:1
B : 1.25
C : 2.45
D : 5.12

C : both 1 and 2.
A : Cold storage
Q.no 15. What is the purpose of analyser-rectifire in aqua-ammonia absorption

system?
A : 0.0 and 1.0
B : 1.0 and 2.0
C : 2.5 and 5.0
D : 10 and 100
A : Rankine
B : Carnot
D : Reversed Carnot
Q.no 19. High air velocity in ducts results in lower initial costs but higher
___________ costs.
A : AHU
B : condenser
C : material
D : operating
A : (-56.6°C)
B : (-75.2°C)
C : (-77.7°C)
D : 135.8°C

A : parallel flow
B : counter flow
C : cross flow
D : can not say
refrigerant
A : Decreases
B : Increases
C : Remains same
A : Capillary tube
D : Float valve
A : flooded type
B : dry type
C : wet type
Q.no 27. The minimum temperature to which moist air can be cooled under ideal
conditions in a spray washer is _______
Q.no 28. The central air-conditioner system is generally used for a refrigerating
load of
B : If operating temperature of system is low, then refrigerant with low boiling point
should be used
Q.no 30. The solidification of liquid carbon dioxide is done by expanding it to a

pressure…….that of its triple point pressure.
A : Above
B : Below
C : Equal
D : None of above
B : less than 20
C : less than 50
D : more than 50
Q.no 32. For proper refrigeration in a cabinet, if the temperature and vapour
pressure difference between cabinet and atmosphere is high, then
Q.no 33. Absorption of the refrigerant by the absorbent in a vapour absorption

refrigeration system is accompanied by:
D : Release of heat
A : Fridge
C : Water cooler
D : Heat pump
Q.no 35. When the dry bulb temperature is equal to dew point temperature, the
relative humidity of air-water mixture is
A:0
B:1
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
C : Is immaterial
D : pressure only
A : Air
B : Water
C : Freon-24
D : None
Q.no 39. In a duct fan compared to forward curved blades, backward curved
blades are more efficient. This statement is ________.
A : true
B : false
D : Can’t predict
added to water
B : To remove odour
A : 0.3
B : 0.6
C : 0.75
D : 1.5
D : May increase or decrease with increase in velocity of air passing through it

depending upon
A : latent
B : sensible
C : total
D : reactive
A : Brine
B : NH3
C : Freon
D : Air
Q.no 49. The atmospheric air at dry bulb temperature of 15 Deg. Centigrade
enters a heating coil maintained at 40 Deg. Centigrade. The air leaves the heating
coil at 25 Deg. Centigrade. The by-pass factor of the heating coil is
A : 0.376
B : 0.4
C : 0.6
D : 0.67
ammonia.
A : Higher, richer
B : Higher, less
C : Lower, richer
D : Lower, less

stagecompressor
stagecompressor
are equal

lights
A : increases
B : decreases
C : do not change

Q.no 57. An air stream at a flow rate of 1 kg/s and a DBT of 30 deg.C. mixes
adiabatically with another air stream flowing with a mass flow rate of 2 kg/s and
at a DBT of 15 deg.C. Assuming no condensation to take place, the temperature of
the mixture is approximately equal to:
A : 20 deg.C.
B : 25 deg.C.
C : 22.5 deg.C.
D : 30 deg.C.
Q.no 59. Reciprocating compressor is used in refrigeration when pressure

difference between condenser and evaporator is
given by
A : (td1 - td3)/(td2 - td3)

B : (td2 - td3)/(td1 - td3)
C : (td3 - td1)/(td2 - td1)
D : (td3 - td2)/(td2 - td1)

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
B : condenser
C : evaporator
D : return air fans

D : None
Q.no 3. In an air duct for an ideal enlargement the static regain factor is
___________.
A:1
B:0
C : greater than 1
D : remains same.

A : Increase
B : Decrease
D : None

A : galvanized iron
B : aluminium
C : fiber glass

system?
Q.no 9. Which type of energy is required to expend in vapour absorption

Q.no 10. During cooling and dehumidification, dry bulb temperature
B : Increases
C : Decreases
Q.no 11. How is the condensation process in vapour compression refrigeration

cycle carried out?
A : An absorber
B : A generator
B : Increases
C : Decreases
A : true
B : false
C : can not predict
Q.no 15. The process generally used in winter airconditioning is known as

_________
A : humidification
B : dehumidification
C : heating and humidification
D : cooling and dehumidification

C : constant volume
D : can not say
Q.no 17. Which of duct profile is preferred in building air conditioning?
A : circular
B : rectangular
C : square
D : trapezoidal
Q.no 18. In displacement flow system, supply air velocity is ___________.
A : high
B : low
C : moderate
D : constant
A:1
B:0
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
B : static pressure
C : total pressure
Q.no 22. In air conditioning systems the primary function of _______ is to transmit
processed air from the air conditioning plant to the conditioned space and
distribute it properly within the conditioned space
A : Humidifier
B : Air Washer
D : Dehumidifier

change to
A : Grey
C : Black
D : Pink or red
comfort cooling
Q.no 27. When the air filter in the air conditioning duct becomes dirty, the fan
speed _________________.
B : need to change
A : Fridge
C : Water cooler
D : Heat pump
A : Humidity ratio
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : Freon-12

D : pressure only
Q.no 34. Thermostatic expansion valve is used used in refrigeration and Air
Q.no 35. Which of the following connections is usually not provided in a

hermetically sealed type compressors?
B : more than 1
C : remains same.
D : remains 1.
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : R-12

B : less than 20
C : less than 50
D : more than 50
A : Increases flow at more cooling required
C : Less of refrigerant flow for more cooling required
D : less flow at less cooling required
surrounding will be
A : Positive
B : Negative
C : Zero

given by
A : (td1 - td3)/(td2 - td3)
B : (td2 - td3)/(td1 - td3)
C : (td3 - td1)/(td2 - td1)
D : (td3 - td2)/(td2 - td1)
A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants
A : latent
B : sensible
C : total
D : reactive
A : strong
B : weak
C : rising
D : reducing
ammonia.
A : Higher, richer
B : Higher, less
C : Lower, richer
D : Lower, less
A : Centrifugal
B : Axial
A : aspect ratio
B : total pressure
C : static pressure

A : remains same
C : increases
D : decreases
added to water
B : To remove odour
day

A : ammonia
B : carbon dioxide
C : sulphur dioxide
D : R-12

depending upon
C:
D:
A : Water
B : Air
C : Freon- 22
D : None
Q.no 5. For summer air conditioning system, the relative humidity should not be
less than
A : 40%
B : 60%
C : 75%
D : 90%

A : sum of
B : difference of
C : product of
D : ratio of
A : lower
B : higher
C : at corner
D : at center
A : alters
B : do not alters
C : reduce
D : increases
Q.no 13. In a system with multiple evaporators at different temparatures with

compound compression and flash intercooler, the suction vapour to the high
pressue stage is
A : Dry saturaged
B : Superheated
B : Capillary tube
C : Compressor
D : None
Q.no 16. The condition of refrigerant after passing through the condenser in a
vapour compression system is
B : Wet vapour

C : Both a. and b.
A : cooled
B : Condenser
C : Evaporator
D : Compressor
evaporarator
A : Air
B : Water
C : Freon-23
D : None
A:N
A : methane family
B : ethane family
C : ketone family
D : aldehyde family
Q.no 27. The following refrigerant is used for refrigeration purposes in passenger
aircraft.
A : Freon-12
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Air
D : Sodium chloride
A : Freezing point
A : Condenser only
C : Generator only
D : Absorber only
C : Is immaterial
A : CH Cl F2
B : C2 Cl3 F3
C : C2 Cl2 F4
D : C2 H2 F4
A : More
B : Less
C : Same
Q.no 34. Dynamic pressure drop in an elbow of rectangular cross-section ________

as the aspect ratio increases.
A : increases
B : reduces
C : remains same
D : Can’t predict
from the
A : The performance of the vapour compression refrigerator varies considerably with

both vaporising and condensing temperatures.
B : In vapour compression cycle, the useful part of the heat transfer is at the
condenser.
C : In ammonia-hydrogen (Electrolux) refrigerator, no compressor, pump or fan is

required.
D : The effect of sub-cooling the liquid refrigerant is to decrease the coefficient of

performance.
Q.no 37. Compared to multi-evaporator and single compressor systems, multi-

evaporator
B : Yield Lower COP
A : Same as
B : Less than
C : Higher than
D : Twice the
A : Above
B : Below
C : Equal
D : None of above
Q.no 40. In refrigerators, the temperature difference between the evaporating

refrigerant and the medium being cooled should be
C : Zero
D : Any value

A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6


A : Flash chamber
B : Accumulator
C : Inter cooler
D : Float valve
A : 0.376
B : 0.4
C : 0.6
D : 0.67

B : high total heat
D : low latent heat
stream
stream


A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same

lights
A : increases
B : decreases
C : do not change
A : large
B : small
C : same
D : perpendicular
A : 0.3
B : 0.6
C : 0.75
D : 1.5



A : 0.625 and 260 kW
B : 6.25 and 260 kW
C : 0.625 and 60 kW
D : 6.25 and 60 kW


Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
Q.no 1. In cascade refrigeration, condenser of low temperature refrigeration is

coupled with
A : Inflammable
B : Toxic
C : Non-inflammable and toxic
D : Nontoxic and non-inflammable

___________ costs.
A : AHU
B : condenser
C : material
D : operating
Q.no 6. For the same capacity of plant, the COP of the vapour absorption
refrigeration system is
D : Cannot say
A : one evaporator
B : Two evaporators
B : Increases
C : Decreases
___________.
A:1
B:0
C : greater than 1
D : remains same.
Q.no 10. Specific heats at constant pressure and at constant volume
B : Vapor Ammonia
C : Water vapors
D : None

Q.no 12. Supply of fresh air to the conditioned space either by natural or by
mechanical means for the purpose of maintaining acceptable indoor air quality
A : Infiltration
B : Metabolic rate
C : Ventilation
D : Air Change
A:1
B:0
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
A : high
B : low
C : moderate
D : constant
D : None
A:0
B:1
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
Q.no 17. A human body feels comfortable when the heat produced by the
metabolism of human body is equal to the
A : 3.5 kJ / min
B : 3.5 W
C : 211 kW
D : 211 kJ / min
B : Capillary tube
C : Compressor
D : pressure only
A : Pv/Ps
B : Ps/Pv
C : (Ps - Pv)
D : Ps/(Ps-Pv)

A : less
B : greater
C:0
D:1

comfort cooling
aircraft.
A : Freon-12
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Air
D : Sodium chloride
Q.no 27. During heating and humidification process if h1 is Enthalpy of air

entering the heating coil, h2 is Enthalpy of air leaving the heating coil, and hA is
Enthalpy of air at the end of humidification process, then the sensible heat factor
is given by the expression
A : (hA - h2)/(h1 - h2)
B : (hA - h1)/(h2 - h1)
C : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h2)
D : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h1)
refrigerant
A : Decreases
B : Increases
C : Remains same

B : humidity ratio
C : DBT
D : WBT
A : Zero Percent
B : Fifty Percent
C : Hundred Percent
D : Sixty Percent
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : Freon-12
A : 50 kcal/ min
B : 50 kcal/ hr
C : 80 kcal/ min
D : 80 kcal/ hr

A : (hA - h2)/(h1 - h2)

B : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h1)
C : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h2)
D : (hA - h1)/(h2 - h1)

D : Release of heat

evaporator
B : Yield Lower COP
from the

B : plane ceiling
C : low ceiling
D : high ceilings
A : Decrease in fin spacing and increase in number of rows
B : Increase in fin spacing and increase in number of rows
C : Increase in fin spacing and decrease in number of rows
D : Decrease in fin spacing and decrease in number of rows

C:
D:
added to water
B : To remove odour
A : strong
B : weak
C : rising
D : reducing
ammonia.
A : Higher, richer
B : Higher, less
C : Lower, richer
D : Lower, less


A : ammonia
B : carbon dioxide
C : sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
A : 0.3
B : 0.6
C : 0.75
D : 1.5
B : high total heat
D : low latent heat
Q.no 53. What is required for balancing the flow in each duct run.
A : dampers
B : splitters
C : reducers
D : enlargers
surrounding will be
A : Positive
B : Negative
C : Zero
A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1
stream
stream
A : aspect ratio
B : total pressure
C : static pressure
A:1
B : 1.25
C : 2.45
D : 5.12
A:8
B : 10
C : 12
D : 16
B : Wet vapour
A : ≤ One
B : ≥ Two
C : Zero
C : constant volume
D : can not say
A : impeller only
B : diffuser only
C : casing only
Q.no 8. A reversible engine has ideal thermal efficiency of 30%. When it is used as
a refrigerating machine with all other conditions unchanged, the coefficient of
performance will be
A : 1.33
B : 2.33
C : 4.37
D : 3.45
A : sensible
B : latent
more than
A : 40%
B : 60%
C : 75%
D : 90%
A : cooled

Q.no 13. The work input requirement for ammonia absorption refrigeration cycle
is low, because
Q.no 16. The reason for a person feeling more comfortable on a warm day if
seated in front of an electric fan is that the
ratio

D : Cannot say
Q.no 18. A system wih multiple evaporators at different temparatures with

compound compression will
A : Rankine
B : Brayton
C : Carnot
D : Reversed Carnot
D : None
A : parallel flow
B : counter flow
C : cross flow
D : can not say

A : Condenser only
C : Generator only
D : Absorber only
A : More
B : Less
C : Same
Q.no 25. The effective draft temperature depends on dry bulb temperature and
______________ of air.
B : pressure
D : velocity
A : free expansion
B : Throttling
C : isotropic
D : isobaric

A : static
B : buoyancy
D : velocity
Q.no 33. Efficiency of carnot engine is 80%. If the cycle direction is reversed ,
What will be the value of COP of revised carnot cycle.
A:4
B : 0.5
C : 0.8
D : 0.25
should be used
Q.no 35. The process of removing moisture from the air, without change in its dry
bulb temperature, is called as____________
A : Humidification
A : Freon-12
B : Ammonia
C : Air
D : Carbon dioxide
B : ice plant
C : milk Plant
D : Fridge
A : 20.1 K
B : 51.1 K
C : 70.4 K
D : 90.2 K
A : 20 deg.C.
B : 25 deg.C.
C : 22.5 deg.C.
D : 30 deg.C.
A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.

A : latent
B : sensible
C : total
D : reactive

A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same
given by
A : (td1 - td3)/(td2 - td3)
B : (td2 - td3)/(td1 - td3)
C : (td3 - td1)/(td2 - td1)
D : (td3 - td2)/(td2 - td1)
C : Using reagents
D : Smelling
between 4 bar and
16 bar is equal to:
A : 10 bar
B : 8 bar
C : 6 bar
D : 12 bar
A : large
B : small
C : same
D : perpendicular


A : Non-toxic
A : 0.376
B : 0.4
C : 0.6
D : 0.67

A : Flash chamber
B : Accumulator
C : Inter cooler
D : Float valve
A : remains same
C : increases
D : decreases

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
D : Can’t predict
A : 3.5 kJ / min
B : 3.5 W
C : 211 kW
D : 211 kJ / min
Q.no 3. Using a flash tank
B : Temperature of refrigerant vapour at the inlet to higher stage compressor can be

reduced
A : humidification
D : None
A:1
B : 1.25
C : 2.45
D : 5.12

A : circular
B : rectangular
C : square
D : trapezoidal
A : An absorber
B : A generator
A : compressor
B : capillary tube
D : both B and C
Q.no 13. A reversible engine has ideal thermal efficiency of 30%. When it is used
as a refrigerating machine with all other conditions unchanged, the coefficient of
performance will be
A : 1.33
B : 2.33
C : 4.37
D : 3.45
D : None
A : Decreases
B : Increases
C : Remains same
A : lower
B : higher
C : at corner
D : at center
A : Expansion valve
B : Receiver
D : evaporator
Q.no 21. The evaporator changes the low pressure liquid refrigerant from the
expansion valve into
Q.no 22. A duct is said to be low velocity duct if the velocity of air in the duct is up
to:
A : 600 m/min
B : 800 m/min
C : 1200 m/min
D : 1600 m/min
B : ice plant
C : milk Plant
D : Fridge
A : Water
B : Aqua
C : Ammonia
D : Air

A : Above
B : Below
C : Equal
D : None of above
Q.no 26. Which flows are recommended in operation theatres due to better IAQ?
A : recirculation
B : Displacement
C : chocked
D : same
______________ of air.
B : pressure
D : velocity

A : (hA - h2)/(h1 - h2)
B : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h1)
C : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h2)
D : (hA - h1)/(h2 - h1)

C : Is immaterial
Q.no 31. Under ideal conditions, which pressure through an air conditioning duct
remains constant?
B : static pressure
C : total pressure
Q.no 32. The fiber glass duct may be used in _________ velocity application.
A : high
B : low
C : humid
D : dry
A : only slightly
B : very low
C : very humid
D : very dry
Q.no 35. If moisture is added to unsaturated air at constant DBT then partial
pressure of vapour _____________
B : Increases
D : Decreases
A : Condenser only
C : Generator only
D : Absorber only
A : end
B : index
C : middle
D : just before end
A : flooded type
B : dry type
C : wet type
be improved by
A : Centrifugal
B : Axial
added to water
B : To remove odour
A : large
B : small
C : same
D : perpendicular
A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.
A : Non-toxic

A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same
surrounding will be
A : Positive
B : Negative
C : Zero
A : remains same
C : increases
D : decreases

depending upon
A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants
A : 0.376
B : 0.4
C : 0.6
D : 0.67

A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6

lights
A : increases
B : decreases
C : do not change
C : Using reagents
D : Smelling
C : both 1 and 2.
C : A thermodynamically efficient comprossor



pressue stage is
A : Dry saturaged
B : Superheated

B : Increases
C : Decreases
C : constant volume
D : can not say
B : Increases
C : Decreases

system
system
D : Cannot say
A:8
B : 10
C : 12
D : 16

system?
more than
A : 40%
B : 60%
C : 75%
D : 90%

D : ice plant
A : sensible
B : latent
A : Ventilation
B : Infiltration
C : Metabolic rate
D : Air Change
Q.no 21. Domestic refrigerator working on vapour compression cycle uses the
following type of expansion device:
D : Capillary tube
A : 50 kcal/ min
B : 50 kcal/ hr
C : 80 kcal/ min
D : 80 kcal/ hr
A : Carbon dioxide
B : Ammonia
C : Freon-12
D : Freon-22
Q.no 25. The ratio of boiling point of refrigerant to the boiling point of absorbent
should be
B : Less than one
C : equal to one
D : cant say
A : static
B : buoyancy
D : velocity
A : 20.1 K
B : 51.1 K
C : 70.4 K
D : 90.2 K
Q.no 28. Use of flash tank for intercooling

A : less
B : greater
C:0
D:1
A : More
B : Less
C : Same

Q.no 31. When velocity of air passing through rectangular and circular duct is
same, then the equivalent diameter (D) of circular duct for same pressure loss
per unit length is given by
A : (a+b)/ab
B : 2ab/(a+b)
C : 2a/(a-b)
D : 2b/(a+b)
Q.no 32. The working fluid in Bell Coleman cycle is
A : Freon-12
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Ammonia
D : Air
Q.no 33. Which of the following refrigerant compressor is not classified as

positive displacement compressor
A:0
B:1
C : 0.5
D : 1.5

C : Applications requiring very high efficiencies
load of
speed _________________.
B : need to change

A : increases
B : reduces
C : remains same
D : Can’t predict

change to
A : Grey
C : Black
D : Pink or red
A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1


A : strong
B : weak
C : rising
D : reducing
A : 20 deg.C.
B : 25 deg.C.
C : 22.5 deg.C.
D : 30 deg.C.
A : dampers
B : splitters
C : reducers
D : enlargers

A : ammonia
B : carbon dioxide
C : sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
between 4 bar and
16 bar is equal to:
A : 10 bar
B : 8 bar
C : 6 bar
D : 12 bar
A : Flash chamber
B : Accumulator
C : Inter cooler
D : Float valve
A : 0.3
B : 0.6
C : 0.75
D : 1.5

C:
D:
ammonia.
A : Higher, richer
B : Higher, less
C : Lower, richer
D : Lower, less
B : high total heat
D : low latent heat


Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

evaporarator
A : Water
B : Air
C : Freon- 22
D : None

system?
Q.no 5. The work input requirement for ammonia absorption refrigeration cycle
is low, because


Q.no 7. An expansion valve is fitted in the refrigeration unit

A : water
B : air

A : Increase
B : Decrease
A : Condenser tubes
D : Capillary tubes
B : condenser
C : evaporator
D : return line
A : Inflammable
B : Toxic
___________.
A:1
B:0
C : greater than 1
D : remains same.
more than
A : 40%
B : 60%
C : 75%
D : 90%


system

system
D : Cannot say
A : alters
B : do not alters
C : reduce
D : increases
D : Cannot say
B : static pressure
C : total pressure
B : Capillary tube
C : Compressor
remains constant?
B : static pressure
C : total pressure
speed _________________.
B : need to change
A : 50 kcal/ min
B : 50 kcal/ hr
C : 80 kcal/ min
D : 80 kcal/ hr

A : CH Cl F2
B : C2 Cl3 F3
C : C2 Cl2 F4
D : C2 H2 F4
A : More
B : Less
C : Same
be improved by

A : parallel flow
B : counter flow
C : cross flow
D : can not say
B : less than 20
C : less than 50
D : more than 50
change to
A : Grey
C : Black
D : Pink or red
A : Zero Percent
B : Fifty Percent
C : Hundred Percent
D : Sixty Percent
D : Capillary tube
A : end
B : index
C : middle
D : just before end
A : Humidification
to:
A : 600 m/min
B : 800 m/min
C : 1200 m/min
D : 1600 m/min
D : pressure only
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Carbon monoxide
D : Sulphur dioxide
A : remains same
C : increases
D : decreases


A : dampers
B : splitters
C : reducers
D : enlargers


depending upon

A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6

A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.
stream
stream
ammonia.
A : Higher, richer
B : Higher, less
C : Lower, richer
D : Lower, less
surrounding will be
A : Positive
B : Negative
C : Zero
A : latent
B : sensible
C : total
D : reactive




A : cooled

evaporator

evaporator
compressed ideally
Q.no 3. Mass flow ratio of NH₃ in comparison to Freon-12 for same refrigeration
load and same temperature limits is of the order of
A : 04791666666666666
B : 042361111111111106
C : 0.3756944444444445
D : 043750000000000004
A : impeller only
B : diffuser only
C : casing only


pressue stage is
A : Dry saturaged
B : Superheated

A : 3.5 kJ / min
B : 3.5 W
C : 211 kW
D : 211 kJ / min
____________
B : Increases
D : Decreases
A : backward curved
B : Airfoil
C : forward curved
D : rounded
A : Air
B : Water
C : Freon-22
D : None

A : (-10.5°C)
B : (-30°C)
C : (-33.3°C)
D : (-77.7°C)
A : heated
B : heated and dehumidified
A : high
B : low
C : same
D : Can’t predict
A : Freon-12
B : Ammonia
C : CO2
D : Aqua-ammonia
A : Mercury
B : Brine solution
C : Freon-22
D : None
A : -10.5°C
B : -30°C
C : -33.3°C
D : -77.7°C
A : 10 kJ/min
B : 210 kJ/min
C : 50 kJ/min
A : Humidifier
B : Air Washer
D : Dehumidifier
A:0
B:1
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
A : true
B : false
D : Can’t predict

D : for supply duct
comfort cooling
A : Humidification
C : A separator is used in lithium bromide plant to remove the unwanted water vapour
by condensing
D : Concentration of solution coming out of lithium bromide generator is more in

comparison to that entering the generator
Q.no 37. Sometimes refrigerant plants use cooling towers. The water cooled in
these towers is used
A : Humidity ratio
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : R-12

between 4 bar and
16 bar is equal to:
A : 10 bar
B : 8 bar
C : 6 bar
D : 12 bar
A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants
A : aspect ratio
B : total pressure
C : static pressure
stagecompressor
stagecompressor
are equal
A : 0.376
B : 0.4
C : 0.6
D : 0.67
A : strong
B : weak
C : rising
D : reducing
A : Non-toxic
A : Brine
B : NH3
C : Freon
D : Air

A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same

C:
D:

lights
A : increases
B : decreases
C : do not change

A : 20 deg.C.
B : 25 deg.C.
C : 22.5 deg.C.
D : 30 deg.C.
B : high total heat
D : low latent heat

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
D : None

Q.no 4. For a given flow rate, the total pressure drop of an air duct is less when
the air filters are ________.
A : chocked
B : older
C : new
D : perpendicular
A : Rankine
B : Carnot
D : Reversed Carnot
Q.no 6. What is the main reason behind subcooling of liquid refrigerant at the
condenser outlet in vapour compression refrigeration system?
C : To reduce vapour bubbles which obstruct the flow of liquid refrigerant

A : Air
B : Water
C : Freon-22
D : None

system?
B : Vapor Ammonia
C : Water vapors
D : None
A : sensible
B : latent

A : Condenser tubes
D : Capillary tubes
A : Infiltration
B : Metabolic rate
C : Ventilation
D : Air Change
A : one evaporator
B : Two evaporators
A:1
B:0
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
A : Expansion valve
B : Receiver
D : evaporator
B : Ammonia
C : Water
D : None
A : An absorber
B : A generator
D : Capillary tube
C : Is immaterial
B : less than 20
C : less than 50
D : more than 50
Q.no 25. In an air duct Compared to sudden enlargement, the dynamic pressure
drop in sudden contraction is ________.
A : more
B : less
C : remains same
D : Can’t predict
to:
A : 600 m/min
B : 800 m/min
C : 1200 m/min
D : 1600 m/min
A : true
B : false
D : Can’t predict
A : linear
B : parabolic
C : exponential
D : logarithmic
from the
should be used
Q.no 31. The claude air liquidifaction system is….….efficient than the Linde Systn
A : More
B : Less
C : Equally
D : ___
A : Freon-12
B : Ammonia
C : Air
D : Carbon dioxide
A : Humidifier
B : Air Washer
D : Dehumidifier
comfort cooling
A:N
Q.no 36. In a spray washing system, if the temperature of water is higher than the
DBT of entering air, then the air is
A : Heated and dehumidified
B : Heated and humidified
C : Cooled and humidified
D : Cooled and dehumidified
load of
A : Mercury
B : Brine solution
C : Freon-22
D : None
D : hot liquid
A : Humidification
circular duct.
a circular duct.
A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants
ammonia.
A : Higher, richer
B : Higher, less
C : Lower, richer
D : Lower, less

A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same


A : 20 deg.C.
B : 25 deg.C.
C : 22.5 deg.C.
D : 30 deg.C.

A : 0.625 and 260 kW
B : 6.25 and 260 kW
C : 0.625 and 60 kW
D : 6.25 and 60 kW
stagecompressor
stagecompressor
are equal
lights
A : increases
B : decreases
C : do not change
A : Non-toxic
A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.
A : Brine
B : NH3
C : Freon
D : Air
Q.no 1. Cooling water is required for following equipment in ammonia absorption

plant
A : Condenser
B : Evaporator
C : Absorber
D : Condenser, absorber and separator (rectifier)
A : Water
B : Air
C : Freon- 22
D : None

A : Cold storage
more than
A : 40%
B : 60%
C : 75%
D : 90%
A : 04791666666666666
B : 042361111111111106
C : 0.3756944444444445
D : 043750000000000004
A : circular
B : rectangular
C : square
D : trapezoidal
D : Cannot say
C : both 1 and 2.
B : only ADPI
C : only SDEF
Q.no 17. During adiabatic saturation process on unsaturated air __________

remains constant.
B : backward curved
C : forward curved
A : cooled

that
D : Lack of oil
A : Water
B : Aqua
C : Ammonia
D : Air
A:0
B:1
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
A : same overall efficiency as compared to individual systems
B : higher overall efficiency as compared to individual systems
C : lower overall efficiency as compared to individual systems
D : may lower or higher overall efficiency as compared to individual systems
B : humidity ratio
C : DBT
D : WBT

A : less
B : greater
C:0
D:1

speed _________________.
B : need to change

B : plane ceiling
C : low ceiling
D : high ceilings
A : Air
B : Water
C : Freon-23
D : None
______________ of air.
B : pressure
D : velocity
remains constant?
B : static pressure
C : total pressure
B : ice plant
C : milk Plant
D : Fridge

evaporator
B : Yield Lower COP
be improved by


depending upon
A : strong
B : weak
C : rising
D : reducing


A : ammonia
B : carbon dioxide
C : sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
between 4 bar and
16 bar is equal to:
A : 10 bar
B : 8 bar
C : 6 bar
D : 12 bar


A : 0.376
B : 0.4
C : 0.6
D : 0.67
A : Centrifugal
B : Axial
day
B : high total heat
D : low latent heat

A : 0.3
B : 0.6
C : 0.75
D : 1.5
C : Using reagents
D : Smelling
added to water
B : To remove odour
given by
A : (td1 - td3)/(td2 - td3)
B : (td2 - td3)/(td1 - td3)
C : (td3 - td1)/(td2 - td1)
D : (td3 - td2)/(td2 - td1)
A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A : Condenser tubes
D : Capillary tubes

D : Cannot say
A : Water
B : Ammonia
C : Freon-22
D : None
A : An absorber
B : A generator
B : Increases
C : Decreases
is called
A : Air
B : Water
C : Freon-22
D : None
A : (-10.5°C)
B : (-30°C)
C : (-33.3°C)
D : (-77.7°C)
A : sensible
B : latent
A : Water
B : Air
C : Freon- 22
D : None
C : constant volume
D : can not say
performance will be
A : 1.33
B : 2.33
C : 4.37
D : 3.45
B : Vapor Ammonia
C : Water vapors
D : None
A : cooled
evaporarator

A:0
B:1
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
A:4
B : 0.5
C : 0.8
D : 0.25
A : Fridge
C : Water cooler
D : Heat pump
Q.no 24. During sensible cooling of air, the coil efficiency is given by _________
(where BPF is By-pass factor)
A : 1 - BPF
B : 1 + BPF
C : 1/BPF

A : Condenser only
C : Generator only
D : Absorber only
A : 10 kJ/min
B : 210 kJ/min
C : 50 kJ/min
A : Mercury
B : Brine solution
C : Freon-22
D : None
A : Pv/Ps
B : Ps/Pv
C : (Ps - Pv)
D : Ps/(Ps-Pv)

C : Is immaterial
Q.no 31. The values of enthalpy at the beginning of compression, at the end of
compression and at the end of condensation are 185 kJ/kg, 210 kJ/kg and 85 kJ/kg
respectively. What is the value of the COP of the vapour compression
A : 0.25
B : 2.5
C:4
D : 0.4
large?
D : Srew compressor
should be used

A : Water
B : Aqua
C : Ammonia
D : Air
D : pressure only



A : increases
B : reduces
C : remains same
D : Can’t predict
A : Centrifugal
B : Axial


lights
A : increases
B : decreases
C : do not change
ammonia.
A : Higher, richer
B : Higher, less
C : Lower, richer
D : Lower, less

day
A : 0.3
B : 0.6
C : 0.75
D : 1.5
A : 20 deg.C.
B : 25 deg.C.
C : 22.5 deg.C.
D : 30 deg.C.
between 4 bar and
16 bar is equal to:
A : 10 bar
B : 8 bar
C : 6 bar
D : 12 bar

depending upon

stagecompressor
stagecompressor
are equal
given by
A : (td1 - td3)/(td2 - td3)
B : (td2 - td3)/(td1 - td3)
C : (td3 - td1)/(td2 - td1)
D : (td3 - td2)/(td2 - td1)
A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.
A : remains same
C : increases
D : decreases
B : static pressure
C : total pressure
A : sum of
B : difference of
C : product of
D : ratio of

D : Cannot say

B : Wet vapour

B : Condenser
C : Evaporator
D : Compressor
Q.no 7. The reason for a person feeling more comfortable on a warm day if seated
in front of an electric fan is that the

A : compressor
B : capillary tube
D : both B and C
B : Ammonia
C : Water
D : None
Q.no 10. On psychrometric chart, sensible cooling process is represented by

_____________
A : horizontal line
B : vertical line
C : inclined line
D : curveed line

evaporator

evaporator
compressed ideally

cycle carried out?
A : backward curved
B : Airfoil
C : forward curved
D : rounded
Q.no 14. The static regain method of designing ducts as compared to equal friction
method
D : is better
B : Increases
C : Decreases
A : (-56.6°C)
B : (-75.2°C)
C : (-77.7°C)
D : 135.8°C
B : DBT & WBT only
D : RH only
more than
A : 40%
B : 60%
C : 75%
D : 90%
D : None
A : (a+b)/ab
B : 2ab/(a+b)
C : 2a/(a-b)
D : 2b/(a+b)
______________ of air.
B : pressure
D : velocity
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
A : Freezing point
load of


system
B : ice plant
C : milk Plant
D : Fridge

A : (hA - h2)/(h1 - h2)
B : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h1)
C : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h2)
D : (hA - h1)/(h2 - h1)
A : 50 kcal/ min
B : 50 kcal/ hr
C : 80 kcal/ min
D : 80 kcal/ hr

A : (hA - h2)/(h1 - h2)
B : (hA - h1)/(h2 - h1)
C : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h2)
D : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h1)
A : Water
B : Brine solution
C : Air
D : None

A : less
B : greater
C:0
D:1

D : Capillary tube
B : Increases
D : Decreases
speed _________________.
B : need to change
A : Humidifier
B : Air Washer
D : Dehumidifier
D : for supply duct

A : ammonia
B : carbon dioxide
C : sulphur dioxide
D : R-12


A : strong
B : weak
C : rising
D : reducing
added to water
B : To remove odour
A : aspect ratio
B : total pressure
C : static pressure
A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants
circular duct.
a circular duct.

A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same
A : Brine
B : NH3
C : Freon
D : Air
A : latent
B : sensible
C : total
D : reactive
A : dampers
B : splitters
C : reducers
D : enlargers


A : Expansion valve
B : Receiver
D : evaporator
A : Expansion valve
B : Condenser
C : Compressor
D : Evaporator

B : Wet vapour

D : None
A : heated

refrigeration


system

system
D : Cannot say
A : Rankine
B : Carnot
D : Reversed Carnot
A : ≤ One
B : ≥ Two
C : Zero

A : DBT and WBT
B : DBT and DPT
C : WBT and DPT

A : chocked
B : older
C : new
D : perpendicular

Q.no 21. In a vapour compression system, the compression of refrigerant follows

the law
A : PVr = C
B : PV = C
C : PVn = C
D : hot liquid
A : Mercury
B : Brine solution
C : Freon-22
D : None

system

A : (hA - h2)/(h1 - h2)
B : (hA - h1)/(h2 - h1)
C : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h2)
D : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h1)
load of
Q.no 27. The conditioned air supplied to the room must have the capacity to take
up
A : free expansion
B : Throttling
C : isotropic
D : isobaric
A : Temperature
D : Pressure
D : pressure only
comfort cooling
A : Freon-12
B : Ammonia
C : CO2
D : Aqua-ammonia
A : More
B : Less
C : Same
A:0
B:1
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
A : 50 kcal/ min
B : 50 kcal/ hr
C : 80 kcal/ min
D : 80 kcal/ hr
A : Humidification


C : Using reagents
D : Smelling
between 4 bar and
16 bar is equal to:
A : 10 bar
B : 8 bar
C : 6 bar
D : 12 bar
B : high total heat
D : low latent heat

stream
stream

A : 0.625 and 260 kW
B : 6.25 and 260 kW
C : 0.625 and 60 kW
D : 6.25 and 60 kW
A : aspect ratio
B : total pressure
C : static pressure

A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
C:
D:
given by
A : (td1 - td3)/(td2 - td3)
B : (td2 - td3)/(td1 - td3)
C : (td3 - td1)/(td2 - td1)
D : (td3 - td2)/(td2 - td1)


depending upon
A : 20 deg.C.
B : 25 deg.C.
C : 22.5 deg.C.
D : 30 deg.C.
A : Non-toxic


A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same
A : Flash chamber
B : Accumulator
C : Inter cooler
D : Float valve
B : surface heating

evaporator

evaporator
compressed ideally
is called

B : Reduces specific volume of refrigerant
D : All of above
D : None
A : 3.5 kJ / min
B : 3.5 W
C : 211 kW
D : 211 kJ / min
A : Inflammable
B : Toxic

___________.
A:1
B:0
C : greater than 1
D : remains same.
C : both 1 and 2.
Q.no 14. The process generally used in summer airconditioning is known as

_________
A : humidification
B : only ADPI
C : only SDEF
ratio
D : Cannot say

remains constant.
B : Condenser
C : Evaporator
D : Compressor
B : condenser
C : evaporator
D : return air fans
C : constant volume
D : can not say
A : Water
B : Aqua
C : Ammonia
D : Air
A : Humidification
aircraft.
A : Freon-12
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Air
D : Sodium chloride
______________ of air.
B : pressure
D : velocity
B : ice plant
C : milk Plant
D : Fridge
A : Humidity ratio
Q.no 27. In a pressure enthalpy chart, the space to the left of the saturated liquid
line represents
A : Freezing point
A : More
B : Less
C : Equally
D : ___

A : Above
B : Below
C : Equal
D : None of above
A : same overall efficiency as compared to individual systems
B : higher overall efficiency as compared to individual systems
C : lower overall efficiency as compared to individual systems
D : may lower or higher overall efficiency as compared to individual systems
B : less than 20
C : less than 50
D : more than 50
from the
Q.no 35. Function of providing clearance volume in reciprocating refrigerant

compressors is
B : to increse the volumetric efficiency of compressor
A : Same as
B : Less than
C : Higher than
D : Twice the
A : Air
B : Water
C : Freon-24
D : None
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : Freon-12
circular duct.
a circular duct.
A : 0.3
B : 0.6
C : 0.75
D : 1.5

lights
A : increases
B : decreases
C : do not change
A : remains same
C : increases
D : decreases
surrounding will be
A : Positive
B : Negative
C : Zero
A : Centrifugal
B : Axial

A : latent
B : sensible
C : total
D : reactive
day


A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants

A : strong
B : weak
C : rising
D : reducing
stagecompressor
stagecompressor
are equal
Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A : Rankine
B : Brayton
C : Carnot
D : Reversed Carnot

A:1
B : 1.25
C : 2.45
D : 5.12
D : None

A : Infiltration
B : Metabolic rate
C : Ventilation
D : Air Change
A:1
B:0
C : 0.5
D : 1.5

D : None
A : Ventilation
B : Infiltration
C : Metabolic rate
D : Air Change
B : DBT & WBT only
D : RH only
A : Inflammable
B : Toxic

A : An absorber
B : A generator
B : Wet vapour
A:0
B:1
C : 0.5
D : 1.5

A : water
B : air
C : constant volume
D : can not say
more than
A : 40%
B : 60%
C : 75%
D : 90%
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : Freon-12

A : (hA - h2)/(h1 - h2)
B : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h1)
C : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h2)
D : (hA - h1)/(h2 - h1)
D : hot liquid
A : Temperature
D : Pressure
Q.no 27. Which of the following refrigerant is highly toxic and flammable ?
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : Freon-13
should be
B : Less than one
C : equal to one
D : cant say
B : more than 1
C : remains same.
D : remains 1.

D : Release of heat
D : pressure only

proportional to
A : Diameter D

A : More
B : Less
C : Same
A : high
B : low
C : humid
D : dry
A : Air
B : Water
C : Freon-23
D : None

A : less
B : greater
C:0
D:1
A : free expansion
B : Throttling
C : isotropic
D : isobaric

system

lights
A : increases
B : decreases
C : do not change
A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1
A : Non-toxic
surrounding will be
A : Positive
B : Negative
C : Zero
given by
A : (td1 - td3)/(td2 - td3)
B : (td2 - td3)/(td1 - td3)
C : (td3 - td1)/(td2 - td1)
D : (td3 - td2)/(td2 - td1)
A : dampers
B : splitters
C : reducers
D : enlargers
A : 20 deg.C.
B : 25 deg.C.
C : 22.5 deg.C.
D : 30 deg.C.
A : Brine
B : NH3
C : Freon
D : Air
ammonia.
A : Higher, richer
B : Higher, less
C : Lower, richer
D : Lower, less

A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
stream
stream

A : 0.625 and 260 kW
B : 6.25 and 260 kW
C : 0.625 and 60 kW
D : 6.25 and 60 kW

A : high
B : low
C : moderate
D : constant
A : one evaporator
B : Two evaporators

_____________
A : horizontal line
B : vertical line
C : inclined line
D : curveed line
A : ≤ One
B : ≥ Two
C : Zero

B : Capillary tube
C : Compressor
D : None
C : Both a. and b.
A : compressor
B : capillary tube
D : both B and C
A : Decreases
B : Increases
C : Remains same
____________
B : Increases
D : Decreases
Q.no 13. What is the use of multistage compression in vapour compression

A : to increase volumetric efficiency of of compressor
D : Cannot say

A : Expansion valve
B : Receiver
D : evaporator

remains constant.
method
D : is better
A : 50 kcal/ min
B : 50 kcal/ hr
C : 80 kcal/ min
D : 80 kcal/ hr

A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
be improved by
A : Carbon dioxide
B : Ammonia
C : Freon-12
D : Freon-22
A : CH Cl F2
B : C2 Cl3 F3
C : C2 Cl2 F4
D : C2 H2 F4
A : Freon-12
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Ammonia
D : Air
speed _________________.
B : need to change
A : more
B : less
C : remains same
D : Can’t predict
A : recirculation
B : Displacement
C : chocked
D : same
A : parallel flow
B : counter flow
C : cross flow
D : can not say
A : -10.5°C
B : -30°C
C : -33.3°C
D : -77.7°C
A : static
B : buoyancy
D : velocity
A : Same as
B : Less than
C : Higher than
D : Twice the
Q.no 37. An air handling fan operating at a constant temperature, the power input
to fan increases by ______________ times when the fan speed becomes double.
A:4
B:6
C:8
D : 10
A : Mercury
B : Brine solution
C : Freon-22
D : None
A : Freon-12
B : Ammonia
C : CO2
D : Aqua-ammonia

A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.
B : high total heat
D : low latent heat
A : Flash chamber
B : Accumulator
C : Inter cooler
D : Float valve

A : strong
B : weak
C : rising
D : reducing
A : large
B : small
C : same
D : perpendicular
A : aspect ratio
B : total pressure
C : static pressure

day
A : Centrifugal
B : Axial

depending upon

A : remains same
C : increases
D : decreases
between 4 bar and
16 bar is equal to:
A : 10 bar
B : 8 bar
C : 6 bar
D : 12 bar

A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same
Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

D : Can’t predict

A : Ventilation
B : Infiltration
C : Metabolic rate
D : Air Change
D : None

A : high
B : low
C : moderate
D : constant
D : ice plant
B : condenser
C : evaporator
D : return air fans
A : Heating coil
B : Cooling coil
C : Electric coil
D : Magnetic coil
method

D : is better
D : None
A : Inflammable
B : Toxic
A : Cold storage
C : constant volume
D : can not say

system

system
D : Cannot say

A : free expansion
B : Throttling
C : isotropic
D : isobaric
A : Freezing point
A : Mercury
B : Brine solution
C : Freon-22
D : None
D : for supply duct
A : parallel flow
B : counter flow
C : cross flow
D : can not say
B : ice plant
C : milk Plant
D : Fridge
line represents

A : Humidity ratio
comfort cooling
A : -10.5°C
B : -30°C
C : -33.3°C
D : -77.7°C
to:
A : 600 m/min
B : 800 m/min
C : 1200 m/min
D : 1600 m/min
A : static
B : buoyancy
D : velocity
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : Freon-12
A : end
B : index
C : middle
D : just before end

condenser.

required.

performance.
A : aspect ratio
B : total pressure
C : static pressure

A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
A : Flash chamber
B : Accumulator
C : Inter cooler
D : Float valve

lights
A : increases
B : decreases
C : do not change
A : 20 deg.C.
B : 25 deg.C.
C : 22.5 deg.C.
D : 30 deg.C.
day
A : Centrifugal
B : Axial
A : dampers
B : splitters
C : reducers
D : enlargers

A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same
A : strong
B : weak
C : rising
D : reducing
A : 0.376
B : 0.4
C : 0.6
D : 0.67

A : 0.625 and 260 kW
B : 6.25 and 260 kW
C : 0.625 and 60 kW
D : 6.25 and 60 kW

A : galvanized iron
B : aluminium
C : fiber glass

refrigeration

system?
B : only ADPI
C : only SDEF
A : Rankine
B : Brayton
C : Carnot
D : Reversed Carnot
more than
A : 40%
B : 60%
C : 75%
D : 90%
A : DBT and WBT

B : DBT and DPT
C : WBT and DPT

A : water
B : air
A : (-56.6°C)
B : (-75.2°C)
C : (-77.7°C)
D : 135.8°C
A : Water
B : Ammonia
C : Freon-22
D : None
the__________.
A : condenser
B : evaporator
C : fans
D : compressor

_________
A : humidification
A : compressor
B : capillary tube
D : both B and C
B : backward curved
C : forward curved
A : chocked
B : older
C : new
D : perpendicular

D : None
A : alters
B : do not alters
C : reduce
D : increases
A:0
B:1
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
should be used

Q.no 22. In Mechanical Refrigeration System , the refrigerant has the maximum
temperature.
A : In evaporator
D : Can’t predict
A : Freon-12
B : Ammonia
C : CO2
D : Aqua-ammonia

system
Q.no 27. If RSH is Room Sensible heat, and RLH is Room Latent heat then Room
Sensible heat factor is given by
A : RSH/(RSH + RLH)
B : (RSH + RLH)/RSH
C : (RLH - RLH)/RSH
D : RSH/(RSH - RLH)
Q.no 29. The relative humidity is defined as

of dry air
C : The ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry air to the mass of
water vapour in the same mass of dry air when it is saturated at the same temperature
and pressure
D : The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to the mass
of water vapour in the same volume of saturated air at the same temperature and
pressure
load of
large?
D : Srew compressor
A : Carbon dioxide
B : Ammonia
C : Freon-12
D : Freon-22

A : increases
B : reduces
C : remains same
D : Can’t predict
D : pressure only
A : Fridge
C : Water cooler
D : Heat pump
A : Condenser only
C : Generator only
D : Absorber only
A : Same as
B : Less than
C : Higher than
D : Twice the
A : Freon-12
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Ammonia
D : Air
A : 0.3
B : 0.6
C : 0.75
D : 1.5

A : ammonia
B : carbon dioxide
C : sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
circular duct.
a circular duct.
A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.
ammonia.
A : Higher, richer
B : Higher, less
C : Lower, richer
D : Lower, less
given by
A : (td1 - td3)/(td2 - td3)
B : (td2 - td3)/(td1 - td3)
C : (td3 - td1)/(td2 - td1)

D : (td3 - td2)/(td2 - td1)
stream
stream
A : Brine
B : NH3
C : Freon
D : Air

depending upon
A : large
B : small
C : same
D : perpendicular

C : Using reagents
D : Smelling
Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B


B : Increases
C : Decreases
A : ≤ One
B : ≥ Two
C : Zero
D : costly

D : All of above
A : Expansion valve
B : Condenser
C : Compressor
D : Evaporator
A : Water
B : Air
C : Freon- 22
D : None
B : Condenser
C : Evaporator
D : Compressor

D : Cannot say
B : Wet vapour

_____________
A : horizontal line
B : vertical line
C : inclined line
D : curveed line
___________ costs.
A : AHU
B : condenser
C : material
D : operating
is called
Q.no 20. The process generally used in summer airconditioning is known as

_________
A : humidification
A : 20.1 K
B : 51.1 K
C : 70.4 K
D : 90.2 K
A : flooded type
B : dry type
C : wet type
D : hot liquid
A:0
B:1
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
A : Humidification

evaporator
B : Yield Lower COP
A : high
B : low
C : humid
D : dry
A : only slightly
B : very low
C : very humid
D : very dry
comfort cooling
A : end
B : index
C : middle
D : just before end

A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : Freon-12
line represents
Q.no 40. Function of providing clearance volume in reciprocating refrigerant

compressors is
B : to increse the volumetric efficiency of compressor
A : Flash chamber
B : Accumulator
C : Inter cooler
D : Float valve

A : remains same
C : increases
D : decreases
C : Using reagents
D : Smelling
A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.
A : strong
B : weak
C : rising
D : reducing
C:
D:



A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6

lights
A : increases
B : decreases
C : do not change
A : Non-toxic

A : aspect ratio
B : total pressure
C : static pressure
A : Brine
B : NH3
C : Freon
D : Air
A : dampers
B : splitters
C : reducers
D : enlargers

method
D : is better
___________.
A:1
B:0
C : greater than 1
D : remains same.

cycle carried out?
A : Water
B : Ammonia
C : Freon-22
D : None
A : Increase
B : Decrease
A:1
B : 1.25
C : 2.45
D : 5.12
A : 04791666666666666
B : 042361111111111106
C : 0.3756944444444445
D : 043750000000000004
A : sensible
B : latent
D : None
A : galvanized iron
B : aluminium
C : fiber glass
A : Rankine
B : Carnot
D : Reversed Carnot
Q.no 17. The humidity ratio or specific humidity is the mass of water vapour
present in

evaporator

evaporator
compressed ideally
A : high
B : low
C : moderate
D : constant
A:1
B:0
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : Freon-13
A : 50 kcal/ min
B : 50 kcal/ hr
C : 80 kcal/ min
D : 80 kcal/ hr

A : (hA - h2)/(h1 - h2)
B : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h1)
C : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h2)
D : (hA - h1)/(h2 - h1)
up
A : 1 - BPF
B : 1 + BPF
C : 1/BPF

A : Same as
B : Less than
C : Higher than
D : Twice the

condenser.

required.

performance.
A : (a+b)/ab
B : 2ab/(a+b)
C : 2a/(a-b)
D : 2b/(a+b)

A : parallel flow
B : counter flow
C : cross flow
D : can not say
Q.no 32. An air handling fan operating at a constant temperature, the power input
to fan increases by ______________ times when the fan speed becomes double.
A:4
B:6
C:8
D : 10
A : Fridge
C : Water cooler
D : Heat pump
Q.no 35. The values of enthalpy at the beginning of compression, at the end of
compression and at the end of condensation are 185 kJ/kg, 210 kJ/kg and 85 kJ/kg
respectively. What is the value of the COP of the vapour compression
A : 0.25
B : 2.5
C:4
D : 0.4
B : plane ceiling
C : low ceiling
D : high ceilings
A : Carbon dioxide
B : Ammonia
C : Freon-12
D : Freon-22

that
D : Lack of oil

______________ of air.
B : pressure
D : velocity

A : 0.625 and 260 kW
B : 6.25 and 260 kW
C : 0.625 and 60 kW
D : 6.25 and 60 kW
A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants

A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same
circular duct.
a circular duct.
given by
A : (td1 - td3)/(td2 - td3)
B : (td2 - td3)/(td1 - td3)
C : (td3 - td1)/(td2 - td1)
D : (td3 - td2)/(td2 - td1)
A : 0.376
B : 0.4
C : 0.6
D : 0.67


depending upon
stagecompressor
stagecompressor
are equal
A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1


between 4 bar and
16 bar is equal to:
A : 10 bar
B : 8 bar
C : 6 bar
D : 12 bar
stream
stream
surrounding will be
A : Positive
B : Negative
C : Zero
A : Centrifugal
B : Axial

A : latent
B : sensible
C : total
D : reactive

A : 0.3
B : 0.6
C : 0.75
D : 1.5
Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
C : constant volume
D : can not say
A : Rankine
B : Brayton
C : Carnot
D : Reversed Carnot
A : sum of
B : difference of
C : product of
D : ratio of
A : (-56.6°C)
B : (-75.2°C)
C : (-77.7°C)
D : 135.8°C
A : Water
B : Ammonia
C : Freon-22
D : None

the__________.
A : condenser
B : evaporator
C : fans
D : compressor

cycle carried out?

D : ice plant
A : Expansion valve
B : Condenser
C : Compressor
D : Evaporator
A : cooled
A : ≤ One
B : ≥ Two
C : Zero


_________
A : humidification
A : galvanized iron
B : aluminium
C : fiber glass
aircraft.
A : Freon-12
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Air
D : Sodium chloride

system

D : hot liquid
B : more than 1
C : remains same.
D : remains 1.
A : 1 - BPF
B : 1 + BPF
C : 1/BPF
A : CH Cl F2
B : C2 Cl3 F3
C : C2 Cl2 F4
D : C2 H2 F4
A : Capillary tube
D : Float valve

A : (hA - h2)/(h1 - h2)
B : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h1)
C : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h2)
D : (hA - h1)/(h2 - h1)
A : Water
B : Brine solution
C : Air
D : None
should be
B : Less than one
C : equal to one
D : cant say
A : Same as
B : Less than
C : Higher than
D : Twice the

A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
A : linear
B : parabolic
C : exponential
D : logarithmic

lights
A : increases
B : decreases
C : do not change

circular duct.
a circular duct.
between 4 bar and
16 bar is equal to:
A : 10 bar
B : 8 bar
C : 6 bar
D : 12 bar
stagecompressor
stagecompressor
are equal
surrounding will be
A : Positive
B : Negative
C : Zero
A : 20 deg.C.
B : 25 deg.C.
C : 22.5 deg.C.
D : 30 deg.C.

A : ammonia
B : carbon dioxide
C : sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
A : 0.376
B : 0.4
C : 0.6
D : 0.67
A : latent
B : sensible
C : total
D : reactive
ammonia.
A : Higher, richer
B : Higher, less
C : Lower, richer
D : Lower, less
A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1

depending upon
added to water
B : To remove odour

A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same


D : None

A : Infiltration
B : Metabolic rate
C : Ventilation
D : Air Change
D : Can’t predict

A : lower
B : higher
C : at corner
D : at center
D : None
performance will be
A : 1.33
B : 2.33
C : 4.37
D : 3.45

A : Cold storage
D : Cannot say


_____________
A : horizontal line
B : vertical line
C : inclined line
D : curveed line
B : Increases
C : Decreases
A : compressor
B : capillary tube
D : both B and C
B : less than 20
C : less than 50
D : more than 50
A : Water
B : Aqua
C : Ammonia
D : Air
A : Fridge
C : Water cooler
D : Heat pump
A : Zero Percent
B : Fifty Percent
C : Hundred Percent
D : Sixty Percent
change to
A : Grey
C : Black
D : Pink or red

A : less
B : greater
C:0
D:1
A : More
B : Less
C : Equally
D : ___
A : Temperature
D : Pressure
be improved by
A : (a+b)/ab
B : 2ab/(a+b)
C : 2a/(a-b)
D : 2b/(a+b)
B : plane ceiling
C : low ceiling
D : high ceilings

A : -10.5°C
B : -30°C
C : -33.3°C
D : -77.7°C
B : humidity ratio
C : DBT
D : WBT
large?
D : Srew compressor
A : Freon-12
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Ammonia
D : Air

D : Can’t predict
A : Carbon dioxide
B : Ammonia
C : Freon-12
D : Freon-22
A : 0.3
B : 0.6
C : 0.75
D : 1.5
given by
A : (td1 - td3)/(td2 - td3)
B : (td2 - td3)/(td1 - td3)
C : (td3 - td1)/(td2 - td1)
D : (td3 - td2)/(td2 - td1)

A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
A : large
B : small
C : same
D : perpendicular
A : remains same
C : increases
D : decreases

A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants

A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.
A : strong
B : weak
C : rising
D : reducing

A : 0.625 and 260 kW
B : 6.25 and 260 kW
C : 0.625 and 60 kW
D : 6.25 and 60 kW
A : aspect ratio
B : total pressure
C : static pressure
C : Using reagents
D : Smelling
A : Centrifugal
B : Axial
stream
stream

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

A : 0.1 ton
B : 5 tons
C : 10 tons
D : 40 tons
A : (-10.5°C)
B : (-30°C)
C : (-33.3°C)
D : (-77.7°C)

B : Capillary tube
C : Compressor

A : humidification
Q.no 9. Cooling water is required for following equipment in ammonia absorption

plant
A : Condenser
B : Evaporator
C : Absorber
D : Condenser, absorber and separator (rectifier)

system

system
D : Cannot say

D : Cannot say
B : Ammonia
C : Water
D : None
B : static pressure
C : total pressure
B : backward curved
C : forward curved
A:1
B:0
C : 0.5
D : 1.5
D : Cannot say
A : DBT and WBT
B : DBT and DPT
C : WBT and DPT
B : Condenser
C : Evaporator
D : Compressor

remains constant.

A : Condenser only
C : Generator only
D : Absorber only

the law
A : PVr = C
B : PV = C
C : PVn = C

A : Freon-12
B : Ammonia
C : CO2
D : Aqua-ammonia
A : Air
B : Water
C : Freon-23
D : None
A : linear
B : parabolic
C : exponential
D : logarithmic
A : Humidifier
B : Air Washer
D : Dehumidifier
A : Mercury
B : Brine solution
C : Freon-22
D : None
A : Humidification

A : More
B : Less
C : Equally
D : ___
A : Air
B : Water
C : Freon-24
D : None
A : -10.5°C
B : -30°C
C : -33.3°C
D : -77.7°C
D : for supply duct
between 4 bar and
16 bar is equal to:
A : 10 bar
B : 8 bar
C : 6 bar
D : 12 bar

A : dampers
B : splitters
C : reducers
D : enlargers

A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same
C : Using reagents
D : Smelling
A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.
lights
A : increases
B : decreases
C : do not change

A : Flash chamber
B : Accumulator
C : Inter cooler
D : Float valve

day


A : strong
B : weak
C : rising
D : reducing

A : 0.625 and 260 kW
B : 6.25 and 260 kW
C : 0.625 and 60 kW
D : 6.25 and 60 kW
ammonia.
A : Higher, richer
B : Higher, less
C : Lower, richer
D : Lower, less

A : ammonia
B : carbon dioxide
C : sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
A : Expansion valve
B : Condenser
C : Compressor
D : Evaporator
A : 04791666666666666
B : 042361111111111106
C : 0.3756944444444445
D : 043750000000000004
___________ costs.
A : AHU
B : condenser
C : material
D : operating
B : condenser
C : evaporator
D : return line
D : None
less than
A : 40%
B : 60%
C : 75%
D : 90%
____________
B : Increases
D : Decreases
A : Expansion valve
B : Receiver
D : evaporator
the__________.
A : condenser
B : evaporator
C : fans
D : compressor

A : circular
B : rectangular
C : square
D : trapezoidal
A : ≤ One
B : ≥ Two
C : Zero
ratio
D : Cannot say

A : one evaporator
B : Two evaporators
B : Increases
C : Decreases
A : high
B : low
C : same
up

large?
D : Srew compressor
A : flooded type
B : dry type
C : wet type
B : Increases
D : Decreases
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : Freon-12

A : CH Cl F2
B : C2 Cl3 F3
C : C2 Cl2 F4
D : C2 H2 F4

that
D : Lack of oil
load of


A : more
B : less
C : remains same
D : Can’t predict

A : (hA - h2)/(h1 - h2)
B : (hA - h1)/(h2 - h1)
C : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h2)
D : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h1)
A : 1 - BPF
B : 1 + BPF
C : 1/BPF

A : Fridge
C : Water cooler
D : Heat pump
A : Ammonia
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Sulphur dioxide
D : Freon-13
A : Water
B : Aqua
C : Ammonia
D : Air
A : 50 kcal/ min
B : 50 kcal/ hr
C : 80 kcal/ min
D : 80 kcal/ hr


A : (hA - h2)/(h1 - h2)
B : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h1)
C : (h1 - h2)/(hA - h2)
D : (hA - h1)/(h2 - h1)

C:
D:
circular duct.
a circular duct.
A : Non-toxic

added to water
B : To remove odour
stagecompressor
stagecompressor
are equal
A : large
B : small
C : same
D : perpendicular
given by
A : (td1 - td3)/(td2 - td3)
B : (td2 - td3)/(td1 - td3)
C : (td3 - td1)/(td2 - td1)
D : (td3 - td2)/(td2 - td1)
A : Centrifugal
B : Axial
A : remains same
C : increases
D : decreases

A : 0.376
B : 0.4
C : 0.6
D : 0.67
surrounding will be
A : Positive
B : Negative
C : Zero

Seat No -

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A : humidification

cycle carried out?

A : lower
B : higher
C : at corner
D : at center
A : true
B : false
C : can not predict
less than
A : 40%
B : 60%
C : 75%
D : 90%
A : heated

Q.no 7. The humidity ratio or specific humidity is the mass of water vapour
present in
A : alters
B : do not alters
C : reduce
D : increases


A : compressor
B : capillary tube
D : both B and C
B : Increases
C : Decreases
is called
D : None
B : Ammonia
C : Water
D : None
A : Condenser tubes
D : Capillary tubes
D : All of above
B : Increases
C : Decreases
A : only slightly
B : very low
C : very humid
D : very dry
line represents
A : parallel flow
B : counter flow
C : cross flow
D : can not say
A : Pv/Ps
B : Ps/Pv
C : (Ps - Pv)
D : Ps/(Ps-Pv)
aircraft.
A : Freon-12
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Air
D : Sodium chloride
A : Water
B : Brine solution
C : Air
D : None
D : hot liquid

A : Freon-12
B : Carbon dioxide
C : Ammonia
D : Air
A : Humidifier
B : Air Washer
D : Dehumidifier

A : recirculation
B : Displacement
C : chocked
D : same

D : Release of heat

A : less
B : greater
C:0
D:1
D : Can’t predict
A : Non-toxic
A : dampers
B : splitters
C : reducers
D : enlargers
A : 0.376
B : 0.4
C : 0.6
D : 0.67
between 4 bar and
16 bar is equal to:
A : 10 bar
B : 8 bar
C : 6 bar
D : 12 bar
A : Centrifugal
B : Axial

A : strong
B : weak
C : rising
D : reducing

A : aspect ratio
B : total pressure
C : static pressure
B : high total heat

D : low latent heat

A:3
B:4
C:5
D:6
A : 0.3
B : 0.6
C : 0.75
D : 1.5

depending upon

A : ammonia
B : carbon dioxide
C : sulphur dioxide
D : R-12
A : Heating coil
B : Cooling coil
C : Electric coil
D : Magnetic coil



A : Air
B : Water
C : Freon-22
D : None
D : Cannot say
A : one evaporator
B : Two evaporators
B : surface heating
A:1
B : 1.25
C : 2.45
D : 5.12
A : galvanized iron
B : aluminium
C : fiber glass
A : Increase
B : Decrease
B : condenser
C : evaporator
D : return line
B : condenser
C : evaporator
D : return air fans
A : 10 kJ/min
B : 210 kJ/min
C : 50 kJ/min


the law
A : PVr = C
B : PV = C
C : PVn = C

that
D : Lack of oil
A : Carbon dioxide
B : Ammonia
C : Freon-12
D : Freon-22

load of
B : ice plant
C : milk Plant
D : Fridge
A : More
B : Less
C : Same

system
speed _________________.
B : need to change
D : pressure only


______________ of air.
B : pressure
D : velocity
A:4
B : 0.5
C : 0.8
D : 0.25
A : Humidification
A : Freezing point
A : increases
B : decreases
C : varies
D : remains same.

A : Bigger
B : Smaller
C : Same
A : latent
B : sensible
C : total
D : reactive
day
given by
A : (td1 - td3)/(td2 - td3)
B : (td2 - td3)/(td1 - td3)
C : (td3 - td1)/(td2 - td1)
D : (td3 - td2)/(td2 - td1)
added to water
B : To remove odour
stagecompressor
stagecompressor
are equal
A : Driers
B : Filter-driers
C : Dessicants
C : Using reagents
D : Smelling
A : 20 deg.C.
B : 25 deg.C.
C : 22.5 deg.C.
D : 30 deg.C.
A : Is less than 1
B : Is more than 1
C : Is equal to 1
stream
stream
A : Brine
B : NH3
C : Freon
D : Air



A : Flash chamber
B : Accumulator
C : Inter cooler
D : Float valve

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12/21/2020 https://sppu.wheebox.com/WAC-3/allqusdownloadhtml.ils?

10259_REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

A : Greater than Cv of air

C : Less than Cv of air

Q.no 2. Due to inter-cooling in multistage refrigeration, COP

D : None of the above

Q.no 3. A fan is required in an air conditioning duct to overcome____________.

Q.no 4. In a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a

Q.no 6. Sensible heat factor always lies between

A : 0.0 and 1.0

B : 1.0 and 2.0

C : 2.5 and 5.0

Q.no 7. Which one acts as a primary, secondary as well as a tertiary refrigerant

C : both sensible and latent

D : partly sensible and latent

Q.no 9. Using intercooling in multi-stage compression systems

A : Refrigeration effect can be increased

B : Work of compression in higher stage compressor can be reduced

C : Maximum cycle temperature can be increased

D : All of the above

Q.no 10. For an expansion device, which of the following is true?

A : It increases the pressure of refrigerant

B : It does not change the temperature of refrigerant

C : It decreases the pressure of refrigerant

D : It increases the temperature of refrigerant

A : increases the COP

B : decreases the COP

C : neither increases or decreases the COP

D : None of the above

Q.no 12. The compressor in the vapour compression system is replaced by

D : None of the above

D : Condenser, absorber and separator (rectifier)

C : heating and humidification

D : cooling and dehumidification

D : Either throttling valve or capillary tube

A : Weak solution of ammonia in water is heated

B : Strong solution of ammonia in water is heated

D : None of the above

Q.no 17. Wet compression is ______.

C : Equally preferable in vapour compression refrigeration system

Q.no 19. Secondary refrigerant is one which is

A : Cooled by the water

B : Cooled by the air

C : Cooled by the primary refrigerant

Q.no 20. Sling psychrometer is used to measure:

A : Only Dry bulb temperature

B : Only Wet bulb temperature

C : Dry and Wet bulb temperature

Q.no 21. Bare tube evaporator is used in a

A : Cold storage plant

Q.no 22. Formation of froast on evaporator in refrigerator

A : Result in loss of heat due to poor heat transfer

B : Increases heat transfer rate

D : Decreases compressor power