PRACTICE MCQ’S LEGAL ETHICS AND COURT CRAFT LLB501

 
1.     The term Advocate -on- Record is defined u/order----- of Supreme court Rules
2013
a.     Order I Rule 2(1) (a)
b.     Order I Rule 2(1) (b)
c.     Order I Rule 2(1) (q)
d.     Order i Rule 2(1) (g)
 
2.     The Supreme Court derives the authority to frame it’s own rules for its practice
and procedure
a.     Article 124 of the Constitution of India
b.     Article 145 of the Constitution of India
c.     Article 141 of the Constitution of India
d.     Article 124 of the Constitution of India
 
3.     Which of the following statement is not true:
a.     A senior Advocate can not file a vakalatnama or act in any court or
tribunal in India
b.     A senior Advocate cannot appear without an AOR in court
c.     A senior Advocate cannot appear without a junior in other courts or
Tribunal in India
d.     A senior Advocate can accept instructions to draw pleadings or affidavit
from a client
 
4.     To be qualified as an AOR:
a.     An advocate’s name should be borne on the roll of any State Bar Council
for a period of not less than four years
b.     An advocate’s name should be borne on the roll of any State Bar Council
for a period of not less than five years
c.     He should have undergone training from one year with an AOR approved
by the court
d.     Pass such test as may be held by the court to be qualified as an AOR
i.               a, c, & d
ii.              b, c,& d
iii.            c & d
iv.            a,b,c & d
 
5.     which of the following statement is true:
a.     An AOR must have an office in Delhi within 16 KMS from the court
house
b.     Must have a registered clerk
c.     Paid registration fees of rupees 250/-
d.     All of the above
 
 
 
 6.     Misconduct or conduct on becoming of an AOR may not include:
a.     Mere name lending by an AOR without any further participation in the
proceedings of the case
b.     Absence of the AOR from the court without any justifiable cause when the
case is taken up for the hearing
c.     Failure to submit appearance slip duly signed by the AOR of actual
appearances in the court
d.     Ceasing to have an office within 16 kms of the court house
 
7.     As per Order V Rule1 (5) the power which can be exercised by the registrar under
Supreme Court Rules 2013 are:
a.     Applications for leave to take documents out of the custody of court
b.     Application for separate trials for cause of action
c.     Rejection of a plaint
d.     Application for particulars
 
8.     The single judge sitting in the chamber has the power in the following matters as
per Order 5 Rule 2 (1):
a.     Application for discovery and inspection
b.     Application for payment into court
c.     Application by AOR for leave to withdraw/change/discharge of AOR
d.     All of the above.
 
9.     Any person aggrieved by the order of Registrar under Supreme Court rules may
appeal against it before
a.     Court
b.     Single judge sitting on bench
c.     Judge in chamber
d.     Division Bench
 
10.  Any person aggrieved by the order of Registrar under Supreme Court rules may
appeal against it within
a.     15 days
b.     30 days
c.     60 days
d.     One month
 
11.  Every cause appeal or other proceeding arising out of a case in which death
sentence has been confirmed or awarded by the High Court shall be heard by a bench
consisting of
a.     Not less than two judges
b.     Not less than three judges
c.     By a division bench
d.     Full bench
 
12.  An appellant whose appeal has been dismissed for default of appearance may
present a petition praying that the appeal may be restored within
a.     30 days
b.     60 days
c.     15 days
 d.     One month
13.  The petition of appeal with a certificate of fitness from High Court shall be
presented within:
a.     30 days
b.     60 days
c.     15 days
d.     One month
 
14.  As per Order XIX the petition for appeal with a certificate of fitness from High
Court shall be accompanied by a certified copy of:
a.     Judgment or decree or order appealed from
b.     Certificate granted by High Court
c.     The order granting the said certificate
d.     All of the above
 
15.  Where certificate of fitness to appeal is refused by the High Court, a petition for
SLP to appeal can be filed within ------ days from the order of refusal:
a.     30 days
b.     60 days
c.     15 days
d.     One month
 
16.  In any other case a petition for SLP to appeal can be filed within ------ days from
the order of refusal:
a.     30 days
b.     60 days
c.     90 days
d.     One month
 
17.  Special Leave Petitions can be filed under Article:
a.     226
b.     132
c.     136
d.     32
 
18.  Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is contained under Article:
a.     141
b.     142
c.     143
d.     134
 
19.  The supreme Court of India was established on:
a.     26th January 1949
b.     26th January 1950
c.     26th November 1949
d.     15th August 1947
 
20.  Supreme Court Rules Defines:
a.     Advocate
b.     Advocate On Record
 c.     Junior Advocate
d.     All of the above
 
21.  Seven lamps of advocacy is attributable to:
a.     Justice Abbot Parry
b.     Justice Heward
c.     Justice Bhagwati
d.     Justice Krishna Iyer
 
22.  The Limitation Act and Code of Civil Procedure are to be read together because
both the statues are relating to procedure and they are:
a.     Pari materia
b.     Modus operandi
c.     Colorable legislation
d.     Doctrine of Acquiescence
 
23.  The Registration Act 1908 came into force on:
a.     18th Dec 1908
b.     1st Jan 1909
c.     31st Dec 1909
d.     16th Jan 1909
 
24.  Which of the following does not require mandatory registration under The
Registration Act 1908:
a.     Lease of immovable property from year to year
b.     Lease for a term exceeding one year
c.     Lease reserving a yearly rent
d.     Lease for a term of ten months
 
25.  Which of the following require mandatory registration under The Registration
Act 1908:
a.     Any composition deed
b.     Any grant of immovable property by government
c.     Any instrument of partition made by a revenue officer
d.     A document of partition dividing the property among coparceners
 
26.  Which of the following does require mandatory registration under The
Registration Act 1908:
a.     Wills
b.     Instrument of Gift of immovable property
c.     Any instrument acknowledging the receipt or payment of any
consideration on account of creation, declaration, assignment, limitation, or
extinction of any such right, title or interest
d.     All the above
 
27.  The period for the registration of a document from date of execution u/s 23 is:
a.     One month
b.     One year
c.     Four months
d.     Eight months
  
28.  A document can be registered beyond the prescribed period under sec 25 on
account of:
a.     Sufficient cause
b.     Bonafide mistake
c.     Urgent necessity or unavoidable accident
d.     All of the above
 
29.  Who can present a document for registration
a.     Person who executes the document
b.     Representative or assign of such a person
c.     By the agent of such person duly authorized by power of attorney
d.     All of the above
 
30.   A registered document always operates from time of registration.
a.     False
b.     True
 
31.  Non Testamentary Registered document will not take effect against any oral
agreement:
a.     Where the agreement is accompanied by delivery of possession and the
same constitutes a valid transfer
b.     Where the agreement is followed by delivery of possession and the same
constitutes a valid transfer
c.     All of the above
 
32.  Which of the following statement is true
a.     Registration is of the document and not the transaction
b.     If this document is preserved and recorded by a government office, it is
called registration
c.     The object of registration is to give notice to the world that such document
has been executed and exist
d.     Registration requires stamp duty
                                 I.         a, b,
                               II.         a, b, & c
                             III.         a, b, c, & d
                             IV.         a & c
 
33.  the limitation Act 1963, came into force on:
a.     5th Oct 1963
b.     11th Nov 1963
c.     1st Jan 1964
d.     21st Jan 1963
 
34.  The term period of limitation and prescribed period are defined in:
a.     Sec 2(e)
b.     Sec 2(i)
c.     Sec 2(j)
d.     Sec 2(l)
 
35.  The parties to a suit with their mutual consent can:
a.     Extend the limitation Period
b.     Waive the limitation Period
c.     Both (a) & (b) are correct
d.     Both (a) & (b) are incorrect
 
36.  In which of the following cases The Limitation Act 1963, has application:
a.     A departmental proceeding
b.     Proceeding before a quasi judicial tribunal
c.     Proceeding before executive authority
d.     Action against government
 
37.  Limitation period for suits not specifically provided under the schedule is:
a.     2 years
b.     3years
c.     10 years
d.     5 years
 
38.  For the purpose of Sec 19 where mortgaged land is in the possession of the
mortgagee:
a.     Receipt of rent shall be deemed to be a payment
b.     Produce of such land shall be deemed to be a payment
c.     Both (a) & (b)
d.     Only (a)
 
39.  Which of the following is not an essential requisite of a valid acknowledgement:
a.     It must be made before the expiration of the limitation period
b.     It need not be in writing and can be oral
c.     It must be signed by the person making the acknowledgement or by a
person duly authorized by him
d.     It must be made by the party against whom the claim is made
 
40.  Sec 5 is applicable to:
a.     Appeals
b.     Applications
c.     Suits
d.     Application under order XXI of CPC
                                                            I.         a,b
                                                          II.         a, b, c,
                                                        III.         a, b, c, d
                                                        IV.         a, b, d
 
41.  which section provides for exclusion of time of proceeding bonafide in a court
without jurisdiction
a.     Sec 14
b.     Sec 16
c.     Sec 21
d.     Sec 22
 
42.  What is secured by Law of Limitation:
 a.     Private Justice
b.     Interest of state
c.     Public order
d.     All of the above
 
43.  In which case held that plea of adverse possession can be used as a sword as well
as a shield
a.     State of Haryana v Chandramani & others 1996 SC
b.     Estate officer HUDA & Others v Gopichand 2019 SC
c.     Ajay Gupta v Rajendra Singh Yadav 2016 SC
d.     Rajendra Kaur Grewal v Manjit Kaur 2019 SC
 
44. A Senior Advocate took brief from his client and also accepted fees for the same but did
not file suit for the matter and blamed his junior advocate for this negligence. Will the Senior
advocate be liable for professional misconduct?
a.     Yes, as per Rule 12.
b.     No, he is not liable.
c.     Yes, under rules 12, 15, 24.
d.     No, Junior Advocate will be liable.
 
45. The Bar Council of India Rules are made under the following Section/s:
a.     Section 49 (1) (C) of the Advocates Act, 1961.
b.     Section 49 of the Advocates Act, 1961.
c.     Section 7 of the Advocates Act, 1961.
d.     Section 49 and Section 7 of the Advocates Act, 1961.
 
46. “An Advocate shall always behave in a dignified manner keeping in mind that he is the
officer of the courts”. Where is it mentioned?
a.     Rule 7.
b.     Rule 1.
c.     Preamble.
d.     Not Mentioned Specifically.
 
47. Which Case laid Emphasis on Duty towards Courts, Rule 6 of the Bar Council of India
Rules?
a.     R.D. SAXENA v. BALRAM PRASAD SHARMA.
b.     MATHEWS J. NEDUMPARA AND ARS. V. SHRI FALI S. NARIMAN AND
ORS.
c.     RAJENDRA NAGRATH v. L. VOHRA AIR 2009 MP 131.
d.     P.D. GUPTA v. RAM MURTI.
 
48. Section 126 of the Evidence Act talks about Protected Communication between the Client
and the Attorney. Which of the following Bar Council of India Rules Talks about it:
a.     Rule 11.
 b.     Rule 17.
c.     Rule 14.
d.     None.
 
49. “No Advocate shall Stipulate for a fee contingent on the results of litigation or agree to
share the proceeds thereof”. In which rule it is stated?
a.     Rule 12.
b.     Rule 18.
c.     Rule 20.
d.     Rule 30.
 
50. Duty towards Opponent in Section III of the Bar Council Rules of India are enshrined
under:
a.     Rules 34-35.
b.     Rules 33-35A.
c.     Rules 34-35A.
d.     Rules 34-36.
 
51. As per Rule 39 of the Bar Council of India Rules, an advocate shall not enter in any case
in which there is already a vakalatnama or memo of appearance filed by an advocate except
with the Consent. In absence of consent the Advocate has to:
a.     Seek Permission from the already engaged Advocate.
b.     Seek permission from both the already engaged advocate and the client.
c.     Seek permission from the client.
d.     Seek permission from the Court. 
 
52.  The Advocates do not have a Right to lien on the files of the client has been established
in which case law?
a.     HARISH CHAND SINGH v. S.N. TRIPATHI.
b.     PRAHLAD SARAN GUPTA v. BAR COUNCIL OF INDIA.
c.     R.D. SAXENA v. BALRAM PRASAD SHARMA.
d.     V.C. RANGADURAI v. D. GOPALAN.
 
53. “As per the Ethical standards of practice a lawyer cannot refuse a brief if he is not
otherwise engaged”. Which rule and case establish this rule?
a.     Rule 13, SMT. POONAM v. SUMIT TANWAR.
b.     Rule 21, STATE OF ORISSA v. NALINIKANTA MUDULI.
c.     Rule 11, A.S. MOHAMMED RAFI v. STATE OF T.N. AND ORS.
d.     Rule 33, RAJENDRA NAGRATH v. L. VOHRA.
 
54. Which Rule says that Suppression of material capable of establishing the innocence of the
accused shall be avoided?
a.     Rule 16.
b.     Rule 17.
 c.     Rule 23.
d.     Rule 26.
 
55. Rule 30 of the Bar Council of India Rules says that:
a.     Copy of Accounts to be given to client on demand and no charges should be asked
for.
b.     Copy of Accounts to be given to client on demand and charges can be asked for.
c.     Copy of Accounts Shall not be given to client.
d.     Copy of Accounts Shall be given if courts order so.

56. An Advocate can adjust the fee payable to him by his client against his personal liability
to the Client.
a. Yes.
b. Only if it does not arise in the course of employment as a lawyer.
c. No.
d. Maybe.
57. “A” an Advocate is a Director in a “Company B”. The Company files for Bankruptcy.
Can “A” Appear in the court on behalf of “Company B”?
a. Yes, as per Rule 5.
b. No, as per Rule 9.
c. Yes, as per rule 6
d. No, as per Rule 2.

58. As per Rule 32 an Advocate Shall not lend money to his client for the purpose of any
action or legal proceedings in which he is engaged by such client.
a. True.
b. False.
c. May be.
d. Rule 33 says so.

59. Section 17 of the Registration Act provides for?

a. Documents which are not at all registrable.
b. Documents which are compulsorily registrable.
c. Documents of which registration is optional
d. Both (A) & (C).

60. Section 17 (2) of the Registration Act carves out an exception to

a. Section 17 (1)(a)
b. Section 17 (1)(b)
c. Section 17 (1)(d)
 d. All of the above

61. The documents of which registration is optional have been dealt in which section?
a. Section 16
b. Section 17
c. Section 18
d. Section 19

62. The time for presentation of document for registration has been provided in which
section?
a. Section 22
b. Section 23
c. Section 24
d. Section 25

63. Delay in presentation of a document for registration can be condoned upto

a. 2 months
b. 4 months
c. 6 months
d. 1 year

64. Registration of a document presented after the expiry of total period prescribed in Part-IV
of the Act is?
a. Valid
b. Invalid
c. Voidable
d. Void

65. Where there are persons/ several persons executing a document at different times, such
documents can be presented for registration within 4 months from
a. First execution only
b. Each execution
c. Last execution only
d. Any of the above

66. Will can be presented for registration within

a. 2 months of its execution
 b. 4 months of its execution
c. At any time
d. 6 month of its execution

67. An unregistered document required to be registered u/s 17

a. Shall not affect any immovable property comprised therein
b. Not received as evidence of any transaction affecting such property
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. Either (a) or (b)

68. An unregistered document may be received as evidence of contract in a

a. Suit for possession
b. Suit for injunction
c. Suit for specific performance
d. All of the above

69. Section 3 of the limitation act applies to

a. Suits
b. Appeals
c. Applications
d. All of the above

70. Section 5 of the limitation act applies to

a. suits
b. execution of a decree
c. both (a) & (b)
d. none of the above

71. In matters of condonation of delay under section 5, limitation act the government has to
be accorded
a. treatment similar to a private citizen and no latitude is permissible.
b. Treatment stricter than a private citizen as the government is supposed to act in a
more responsible manner.
c. Treatment similar to a private citizen however certain amount of latitude is not
impermissible.
d. Either a or b

72. The delay under Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 can be condoned on
 a. An oral application
b. A verbal application
c. A written application
d. Either a or b or c

73. Section 6 of the limitation act does not apply to

a. Minor
b. Insolvent
c. Insane
d. idiot

74. Time which has begun to run can be stopped in case of

a. minority
b. insanity
c. idiocy
d. none of the above

75. Under section 25 of the easement rights are acquired by continuous & uninterrupted user
a. 12 years
b. 20 years
c. 15 years
d. 3 years

76. Section 27 of the limitation act does not apply to cases for recovery of possession
a. Where no limitation period has been prescribed
b. Where the limitation period has been prescribed
c. Both a & b
d. Neither a nor b

77. Acknowledgement after the period of limitation

a. Is of no effect
b. Gives rise to an independent & enforceable contract
c. Both a & b
d. Neither a nor b

78. Condonation of delay under section 5 of the limitation act

a. can be claimed as a matter of right
b. is a matter of discretion of the court
c. sufficient cause for the delay has to be shown
 d. both b & c

79. Which of the following in Delhi High Court rules talks about Jurisdiction of a Single
Judge?
a. Chapter II Rule 1
b. Chapter II Rule 2
c. Chapter II Rule 3
d. Chapter II Rule 4

80. What powers regarding following matters may be exercised by the registrar as per
Chapter II Rule 3 of the Delhi High court Rules?
a. Admission of plaints and applications and issue of summons and notices.
b. Application for attachment of property of absconding witness.
c. Application under Section 52 of the Code.
d. All of the above

81. Which rule of the Supreme Court rules states that an advocate on record should have a
registered clerk
a. Order IV, rule 1
b. Order IV, rule 2
c. Order IV, rule 4
d. Order IV, rule 5

82. Which Section of the Advocate’s Act talks about the powers of the State Bar Council
a. Section 11
b. Section 10
c. Section 6
d. Section 7

83. Which section of the Advocate’s act lists the functions of the Bar council of India?
a. Section 6
b. Section 2
c. Section 5
d. Section 7

84. To visit and inspect universities in accordance with the directions given is the function of
a. Bar Council of India
b. State Bar Council
 c. Both of them
d. Neither of them

85. Under which section of the Advocate’s Act the disciplinary committee shall be instituted
a. Section 9
b. Section 10
c. Section 12
d. Section 16

86. Bar Council of India has power to make rules under which section of the Advocates Act
in regard to Chapter II
a. Section 8
b. Section 10
c. Section 13
d. Section 15

87.Section 6 of the Limitation Act, 1961 can be availed by:

(a) plaintiff(s)
(b) defendant(s)
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above

88. Legal disabilities are:

(a) minority
(b) insanity
(c) idiocy
(d) all the above.

89. Section 6 of Limitation Act does not apply to:

(a)insolvent
(b)minor
(c)insane
(d)idiot.

90. Time which has begun to run can be stopped in case of:

(a)minority
(b)insanity
( c)idiocy
(d)none of the above.

91.  Section 6 of Limitation Act does apply in cases of :

(a)Illness
(b)poverty
(c)insolvency
(d)none of the above.

92. Time taken in proceedings to set aside the sale, in suit for possession by a purchaser in
execution, is liable to be excluded:

(a) under section 15(4)

(b) under section 15(2)
(c) under section 15(3)
(d) under section 15(1).

93. Section 15 (3)applies to:

(a)suits
(b) execution applications
(c) both suits & execution applications
(d) neither suits nor execution proceedings.

94. Section 15 (1) does not apply to:

(a)suits
(b) appeal
(c) execution application
(d) none of the above.

95.Period during which proceedings stand stayed by an injunction or order is excluded:

(a)under section 14
(b) under section 15
(c) under section 13
(d) under section 16

96. Under section 25, the easement rights over the property belonging to the Government are
acquired by continuous & uninterrupted user
(a) for 12 years minimum
(b) for 20 years minimum
(c)for 30 years minimum
(d) for 60 years minimum

97.  Which of the following is correct:

(a)limitation bars the judicial remedy

(b) limitation extinguishes the right
(c) limitation is a substantive law
(d) limitation bars the extrajudicial remedies.

98. Section 27 of Limitation Act:

(a)bars the remedy

(b) extinguishes the right
(c)both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)

99. Under section 3, Limitation Act, 1963 cross suit by way of counter-claim shall be deemed
to have been instituted

(a)on the same date on which as the suit is which counter claim is pleaded
(b) on the day on which the counter claim is made in the court
(c) either (a) or (b) whichever is beneficial to the defendant
(d) either (a) or (b) whichever is beneficial to the plaintiff.

100.  Under section 3, Limitation Act, 1963 cross suit by way of set-off shall be deemed to
have been instituted

(a)on the same day as the suit in which setoff is pleaded has been filed
(b) on the day on which the set-off is pleaded
(c) either (a) or (b) whichever is beneficial to the defendant
(d) either (a) or (b) whichever is beneficial to the plaintiff.

101. The provisions of section 3, Limitation Act are

(a)mandatory
(b) directory
(c) discretionary
(d) optional.

102. Under section 3, Limitation Act, 1963 the court is required to consider the question
of limitation
(a)only when objection to limitation is raised by the defendant
(b) only when the defendant does not confess judgment
(c) only when the defendant does not admit his liability
(d)suo motu even when the defendant has not taken any objection of limitation or has
confessed judgment or has admitted this liability in the written statement.

103. Condonation of delay under Limitation Act, 1963 is dealt under which provision?

(a) Sec 4
(b) Sec 5
(c) Sec 6
(d) Sec 7

104. Section 17 of the Registration Act provides for

(a) documents which are not at all registrable
(b) documents which are compulsorily registrable
(c) documents the registration of which is optional
(d) both (a) & (c).

105. Section 17(l)(d) of the Registration Act applies to

(a) a lease for any term exceeding one year
(b) a lease from year to year
(c) a lease reserving a yearly rent
(d) all the above.

106. The documents registration of which is optional have been dealt in

(a) section 16
(b) section 17
(c) section 18
(d) section 19.

107. Section 23 provides the time for presentation of document for registration, before the
proper officer, of
(a) four months from the date of execution
(b) two months from the date of execution
(c) three months from the date of execution
(d) six months from the date of execution.

108.  Delay in presentation of a document for registration can be condoned upto:

(a) two months
(b) four months
(c) six months
(d) one month.

109. Which section of the Registration Act provides for condonation of delay in presentation
of document for registration
(a) section 23A
(b) section 24
(c) section 25
(d) section 26.

110. Under section 25 of the Registration Act, who has the power to condone the delay in
presentation of document
(a) Registrar only
(b) Sub-registrar only
(c) both Registrar & Sub-registrar
(d) either Registrar or Sub-registrar.

111. A document executed out of India can be registered if presented within

(a) two months of its arrival in India
(b) four months of its arrival in India
(c) one month of its arrival in India
(d) six months of its arrival in India

112. The doctrine of ‘relation back’ in the Registration Act is contained in

(a) section 42
(b) section 47
(c) section 48
(d) section 50.

113. By virtue of section 49, an unregistered authority to adopt

(a) confers power to adopt
(b) does not confer the power to adopt
(c) neither (a) nor (b)
(d) either (a) or (b).

114. The Indian Registration Act, 1908 came into force on

(a) 30-9-1908
(b) 31-12-1908
(c) 01-01-1909
(d) 01-04-1909
115. By virtue of which Article the Supreme Court if India has been vested with the original
jurisdiction?

(a) Art 130

(b) Art 131
(c) Art 132
(d) Art 133

116. “An Advocate shall always behave in a dignified manner keeping in mind that he is the
officer of the courts”. Where is it mentioned?

a. Rule 7.
b. Rule 1.
c. Preamble.
d. Not Mentioned Specifically.

117. Section 126 of the Evidence Act talks about Protected Communication between the
Client and the Attorney. Which of the following Bar Council of India Rules Talks about it:

a. Rule 11.
b. Rule 17.
c. Rule 14.
d. None.

118. Duty towards Opponent in Section III of the Bar Council Rules of India are enshrined
under:

a. Rules 34-35.
b. Rules 33-35A.
c. Rules 34-35A.
d. Rules 34-36.

119. The Advocates do not have a Right to lien on the files of the client has been established
in which case law?

a. HARISH CHAND SINGH v. S.N. TRIPATHI.

b. PRAHLAD SARAN GUPTA v. BAR COUNCIL OF INDIA.
c. R.D. SAXENA v. BALRAM PRASAD SHARMA.
d. V.C. RANGADURAI v. D. GOPALAN.
120. “A” an Advocate is a Director in a “Company B”. The Company files for Bankruptcy.
Can “A”appear in the court on behalf of “Company B”?

a. Yes, as per Rule 5.

b. No, as per Rule 9.
c. Yes, as per rule 6
d. No, as per Rule 2.

121. Which is the body which looks into the complaints regarding professional misconduct of
the advocates under Advocates Act, 1961?

a. Disciplinary Committee
b. Legal Aid Committee
c. Election Committee
d. All of the above

122.What is the term of office of members of state bar Council?

a. 5 years
b. 2 years
c. 6 years
d. No fixed term

123.Under which section of the Advocates Act, 1961 the classification of advocates into
senior advocates and other advocates is made?

a. Sec 15
b. Sec 16
c. Sec 17
d. Sec 18

124. Which section of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 empowers High Court to frame rules
to regulate its procedure?

a. Sec 129
b. Sec 101
c. Sec 128
d. Sec 100

125. Which Article of the Constitution of India empowers Supreme Court to entertain
Election dispute of President and Vice-President?

(a) Article 70
 (b) Article 71
(c) Article 72
(d) Article 73

126. Which Article of the Constitution of India empowers Supreme Court to entertain Review
Petition?

(a) Article 130

(b) Article 131
(c) Article 136
(d) Article 137

127. Under Supreme Court Rules, 2013 Review Petition can be filed within how many days
from date of judgment or order?

(a) 30 days
(b)20 days
(c)40 days
(d) 60 days

128. Which order of the Supreme Court Rules, 2013 deals with Writ Jurisdiction

(a) ORDER XXXVIII

(b) ORDER XXVII
(c) ORDER XXXVII
(d) ORDER XXXV

129. In which case the designation of Advocates as Senior Advocates was challenged?

(a) Indira Jaisingh v Supreme Court of India through Secretary General & Ors.
(b) Darshan Singh v Gurdev Singh
(c) Ex Captain Harish Uppal v UOI
(d)R.K. Anand v Registrar, Delhi High Court

 130. Period of limitation stands extended, by virtue of section 6 read with section 8 of
Limitation Act for a maximum period of

1. 1 year
2. 3 years
3. 6 years
 4. 12 years.
131. Can a plea of limitation be
1. waived by a party
2. ignored by the court
3. waived by both the parties by consent
4. none of the above.

132. Section 15 excludes from computation of limitation

1. period of notice
2. time taken in granting previous consent
3. time taken in grant of sanction
4. all the above.

133. Which of the following is not required for a valid acknowledgment

1. in writing
2. made before the expiration of period of limitation
3. signed by the person concerned
4. in the handwriting of the person concerned.

134. A suit against the obstruction in the enjoyment of easementary rights acquired under section
25 must be filed

1. within 2 years of such obstruction

2. within 1 year of such obstruction
3. within 3 years of such obstruction
4. within 12 years of such obstruction

135. Which is not correct of law of limitation

1. limitation act bars the judicial remedies

2. limitation  act is an adjective law
3. limitation  act extinguishes the right
4. limitation act is a procedural law.

136. Law of limitation has to be strictly construed. In view of the same section 5 of Limitation
Act has to be construed
1. strictly
2. liberally
3. harmoniously
4. ejusdem-generis.

137. Easementary rights under section 25 can be acquired by

1. tenant
 2. a co-owner
3. both a tenant and a co-owner
4. neither a tenant nor a co-owner.

138.
Which is true of acknowledgments
1. extends the period of limitation
2. confers an independent right on a person
3. confers a title on the person
4. all the above.


139. Which section of the Registration Act provides for condonation of delay in presentation of
document for registration?
a) Section 23
b) Section 22
c) Section 27
d) None of the above


140. A non-testamentary document is one

(a) which is intended to take effect or be operative immediately on its execution
(b) which is final
(c) which is irrevocable
d)all the above.

141. The words ‘purport or operate’ in section 17(l)(b), refers to

(a) the ultimate consequences of the instrument
(b) immediate intention of the instrument
(c) collateral effects of the instrument
(d) all the above.

142. Which of the following documents has the effect of a definite change of legal relation to a

property
(a) a document executed by the parties within an hour of the alleged completed oral
partition which starts with the recitals of details in the past tense but concludes in the
present tense and describes itself as a partition deed
(b) A document as a result of which immovable property standing in the names of the
parties in certain shares, is to stand in their names but in different shares
(c) A document recitals of which declare the existence of a given state of affairs
(d) both (a) & (b)

143. The lease covered under Section 17(l)(d) is

(a) not compulsorily registrable
(b) registration of such a lease is optional
(c) compulsorily registrable
(d) either (a) or (b).

144. An authority to adopt a son is

(a) not compulsorily registrable
 (b) compulsorily registrable
(c) registration is optional
(d) both (a) & (c).

145. A document relating to land can be presented for registration in the office of a Sub-registrar

within whose sub-district

(a) the whole of the property to which the document relates is situate
(b) some portion of the property is situated
(c) the whole or some portion of the property is situated
(d) no part of the property is situated.

146. A document other than the one relating to land, can be presented for registration in the

office of Sub-registrar within whose sub- district

(a) the document was executed

(b) the document was delivered to the person in whose favour the same stands executed
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) either (a) or (b).

147. Registrar can accept the documents for registration at the residence of the person
(a) ordinarily
(b) under special circumstances only
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) either (a) or (b).

148. A document, registered without being presented by a proper person under section 23 A
(a) can not be re-registered
(b) can be re-registered if presented by a proper person
(c) can be re-registered even if represented again by not a proper person
(d) none of the above.

149. The presentation of document for re- registration by the proper person should be
(a) within one year of becoming aware of the invalidity of registration
(b) within four months of becoming aware of the invalidity of registration
(c) within three years of becoming aware of the invalidity of registration
(d) within one month of becoming aware of the invalidity of registration.

150. On re-registration, the registration shall be effective

(a) from the date of original registration
(b) from the date of presentation for re- registration
(c) from the date of re-registration
(d) from the date which the Registrar fixes.

151. The ‘rule of precedence’ amongst the various registered documents relating to the same

property is contained in
(a) section 42
(b) section 46
(c) section 47
(d) section 48.

152. The object of section 47 is

(a) to decide which of the two or more registered instruments in respect of the same property
is to have effect
(b) to decide which of the two-a registered document and dual agreement, in respect of the
same property is to have effect
(c) to decide which of the two – a registered instrument and an
unregistered instrument – in respect of the same property is to have effect (d) all the above.

153. ‘X’ executed a sale deed in favour of ‘Y’ on 1-1-2002. Subsequently on 10-1-2002, ‘X’

executed a sale deed in respect of the same property in favour of ‘Z’. Thereafter the sale deed

in favour of ‘Z’ executed on 10-1-2002 was registered on 20-1-2002. Whereas the sale deed

in favour of ‘Y was registered on 30-1-2002. In the said case, by virtue of section 47:

(a) the sale deed executed in favour of ‘Y’ on 1-1-2002 & registered on 30.1.2002 shall have
precedence & confer title on ‘Y’
(b) the sale deed executed in favour of ‘Z’ on 10-1-2002 & registered on 20-1-2002 shall
have precedence & confer title on ‘Z’
(c) both the sale deeds shall be void
(d) the sale deeds in favour of ‘Y’ & ‘Z’ shall remain valid to the extent of 50% of the
property.

154. Section 48 of the Registration Act

(a) protects oral agreement accompanied with delivery of possession against the rule of
priority
(b) protects oral agreement unaccompanied with delivery of possession against the rule of
priority
(c) neither (a) nor (b)
(d) both (a) and (b).

155. Under section 50 of the Registration Act

(a) a registered document relating to a property stands on the same footing as an unregistered
document relating to the same property
(b) a registered document relating to a property takes precedence over the unregistered
document relating to the same property
(c) an unregistered document relating to a property taken precedence over the registered
document over the same property
(d) none of the above