Sample Paper 1

Time Allowed : 90 Minutes] [Max. Marks : 35

General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
4. Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. There is no negative marking.

SECTION A
Section – A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted
20 questions would be evaluated.
1. Transcription in bacteria is catalysed by
(a) RNA – dependent RNA polymerase (b) DNA – dependent RNA polymerase
(c) RNA – dependent DNA polymerase (d) DNA – dependent DNA polymerase
2. In Pisum (garden pea) the axial (A) flower position is dominant over terminal (a) flower position.
When two pea plants were crossed and the next generation is raised, there were 180 plants with
axial flowers and 62 plants with terminal flowers. The genotypes of the two parent plants must be
(a) AA × aa (b) AA × Aa (c) Aa × Aa (d) Aa × aa
3. Z

X
Y

The gamete cells that would be present in the X of a newborn female baby will be
(a) oogonia (b) primary oocyte (c) ootid (d) secondary oocyte
4. No genetic variation can occur in the progeny, in case of
(a) cleistogamy (b) autogamy (c) geitonogamy (d) All of these
5. A dicotyledonous plant bears flowers but never produces fruits and seeds. The most probable cause
for the above situation is
(a) plant is dioecious and bears only pistillate flowers.
(b) plant is dioecious and bears both pistillate and staminate flowers.
(c) plant is monoecious.
(d) plant is dioecious and bears only staminate flowers.

Sample Papers 113

 6. If one of the parents is a sickle-cell anaemia patient and the other is a carrier, the probability of a
sickle-cell anaemia child being born to them, is
(a) 25% (b) 50%
(c) 75% (d) 100%
7. In plants pleiotropy is exhibited in
(a) size of starch grains and seed shape in pea
(b) flower colour and seed colour in sweat pea
(c) height of stem and flower colour in garden pea
(d) all of these
8. All genes located on the same chromosome:
(a) form different groups depending upon their relative distance
(b) form one linkage group
(c) will not from any linkage groups
(d) form interactive groups that affect the phenotype
9. Which of the following statements is wrong?
(a) Sickle-cell anaemia is an example of point mutation.
(b) ABO blood grouping is an example of polygenic inheritance.
(c) In pea, the gene controlling the size of starch grains shows pleiotropy as well as incomplete
dominance.
(d) In sickle-cell anaemia, the sixth amino acid in the b-globin chain, glutamic acid is replaced by
valine.
10. Which of the following statements about Down’s syndrome is incorrect?
(a) It is a chromosomal disorder.
(b) It is due to non-disjunction of 21st chromosomes during oogenesis.
(c) It is caused by allelic abnormality.
(d) It occurs both in females and males equally.
11. Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) is safe upto __________ weeks of pregnancy.
(a) Eight (b) Twelve
(c) Eighteen (d) Twenty four
12. The haploid cells in a typical angiosperm embryo sac, ready for fertilisation, are
(a) antipodal cells, central cell and female gamete
(b) antipodal cells, central cell and synergids
(c) synergids, antipodal cells and female gamete
(d) central cell, synergids and female gamete
13. Name the scientists, who rediscovered Mendel’s results. Mention the year in which they did it.
(a) Darwin, Tschermak and de Vries in 1900
(b) Tschermak, de Vries and Correns in 1869
(c) de Vries, Correns and Sutton, in 1902
(d) Correns, de Vries and Tschermak, in 1900

114 Together with®  EAD Biology—12

 14. Which of the following statements regarding sex determination is incorrect?
(a) In fowls, the females are heterogametic (ZW) and the males are homogametic (ZZ)
(b) In grasshoppers, the males are heterogametic (XY) and the females are homogametic (XX)
(c) In Drosophila, the males are heterogametic (XY) and the females are homogametic (XX)
(d) In honey bees, the females are diploid (2n = 32 chromosomes) and the males are haploid
(n = 16 chromosomes)
15. The inheritance pattern of a gene over generations among humans is studied by pedigree analysis.
Character studied in the pedigree analysis is equivalent to:
(a) Quantitative trait. (b) Mendelian trait.
(c) Polygenic trait. (d) Maternal trait.
16. Which of the following sets of RNAs is transcribed by RNA polymerase I?
(a) tRNA, 5S rRNA, Sn RNA (b) 28S rRNA, 18S rRNA, 5.8S rRNA
(c) hn RNA, Sn RNA (d) Sn RNA, 28S rRNA, 18S rRNA
17. Which of the following statements is correct with reference to test tube baby programme?
(a) Fertilisation of the ovum and the growth of foetus are carried out on a large test tube.
(b) Fertilisation occurs in vivo and the development of foetus occurs in the uterus of a surrogate
mother.
(c) Fertilisation of the ovum occurs in vitro (outside the body) and the embryo is implanted in the
uterus of the mother for further development.
(d) Fertilisation occurs in vivo in the body of the mother and the development of zygote/embryo
occurs in a large test tube.
18. A normal couple has three children, two daughters, who are carriers of haemophilia and a son, who
is normal. Arrive at the probable genotypes of the father and mother
(a) Father XY, Mother XXh (b) Father XhY, Mother XXh
(c) Father XhY, Mother XX (d) Father XY, Mother XhXh
19. Identify whether each of the following statements is true (T) or false (F) and select the correct
option:
A. If a double-stranded DNA contains 20% cytosine, it will have 20% guanine in it. [True/False]
B. The process of translation of mRNA begins, when the mRNA encounters the large subunit of
ribosome.[True/False]
C. Termination/Stop codons do not have any tRNAs.[True/False]
D. VNTR belongs to a class of satellite DNA, called micro-satellite. [True/False]
(a) A – T, B – F, C – T, D – F (b) A – T, B – F, C – T, D – T
(c) A – F, B – T, C – T, D – F (d) A – F, B – F, C – T, D – T
20. Which of the following is not applicable to RNA?
(a) Complementary base pairing (b) 5’ phosphoryl end and 3’ hydroxyl end
(c) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases (d) Chargaff’s rule
21. Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogens can be used as a contraceptive in the form of
(a) oral pills (b) injections (c) implants (d) all of these

Sample Papers 115

 22. Who amongst the following scientists had no contribution in the development of the double helix
model for the structure of DNA?
(a) Rosalind Franklin (b) Maurice Wilkins (c) Erwin Chargaff (d) Meselson and Stahl
23. Which of the following is a wrongly matched pair?
(a) Repressor – The protein coded by the regulatory gene of the operon
(b) Operon – Promoter, structural genes, operator
(c) Translation – Polymerisation of amino acids in the order dictated by mRNA
(d) Transcription – Attachment of an amino acid to a specific tRNA.
24. Match the Column I with Column II and select the correct option.
Column I Column II
A. Avery, Mac Leod and Mc Carty 1. Semiconservative replication of DNA.
B. Hershey and Chase 2. Elucidation of lac operon.
C. Frederick Griffith 3. Biochemical characterisation of the
transforming principle.
D. Meselson and Stahl 4. DNA, not protein is the genetic material.
5. Transformation experiments with
Streptococcus pneumoniae.
(a) A – 4, B – 5, C – 2, D – 1 (b) A – 3, B – 4, C – 5, D – 1
(c) A – 5, B – 4, C – 2, D – 1 (d) A – 5, B – 1, C – 4, D – 2

SECTION B
Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sr. No. 25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The
first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated.
Question No. 25 to 28 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions
selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is False but R is true.
25. Assertion: Polygenic inheritance is also called quantitative inheritance.

Reason: Quantitative traits are often controlled by three or more genes.
26. Assertion: Ovulation is the process of rupture of Graafian follicle and release of ovum from it.

Reason: The fimbriae help in collecting the ovum into the fallopian tube.
27. Assertion: The diameter of the double-stranded DNA is 2 nm and it remains the same throughout
its entire length.

Reason: A purine of one strand always pairs with a pyrimidine of the complementary strand.
28. Assertion: Zygote intra-fallopian transfer refers to the transfer of zygote or embryo with upto
8-blastomeres formed in vitro into the fallopian tube.

Reason: Zygote formed by in vivo fertilisation could also be used for transfer to assist those women
who cannot conceive.

116 Together with®  EAD Biology—12

 29. Identify the wrong statement.
(a) BAC and YAC are vectors used in Human Genome Project.
(b) DNA fingerprinting involves identification of similarities in the repetitive DNA of two individuals.
(c) BAC and YAC are the vectors used in Human Genome Project.
(d) Less than 2% of the human genome codes for proteins.
30. Select the incorrect statement.
(a) All pollen grains remain viable for long periods (several months) because the outer layer is
made of sporopollenin.
(b) Pollen grains are well-preserved as fossils, due to the presence of sporopollenin in the exine.
(c) The apertures in the exine, are called germ pores.
(d) No enzyme that can degrade sporopollenin is known.
31. Which of the following is not a part of the transcription unit?
(a) Promoter (b) Structural genes (c) Inducer (d) Terminator
32. Which of the following statements is true about gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)?
(a) It is secreted by hypothalamus.
(b) Its level increases during puberty.
(c) At puberty, it stimulates the pituitary to secrete follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinising
hormone.
(d) All of these
33. A colourblind boy has a normal brother and a colourblind sister. Which of the following is true
about his parents?
(a) Father is normal and mother is colourblind.
(b) Father is normal and mother is a carrier.
(c) Father is colourblind and mother is a carrier.
(d) Both father and mother are colourblind.
34. If the endosperm cells of an angiosperm contain 48 chromosomes each, what will be the number of
chromosomes in its zygote?
(a) 24 (b) 32 (c) 48 (d) 64
35. Study the diagram of a polynucleotide strand given below:
5′ phosphate
H Z
H
H 3′ hydroxyl
P C H
P C
P C
H P C
Y H OH
H
H
A T
G C
X

The linkages Y and Z represent respectively

(a) Y – hydrogen bond, Z – ester bond
(b) Y – glycosidic bond, Z – phosphoester bond
(c) Y – phosphoester bond, Z – phosphodiester bond
(d) Y – phosphodiester bond, Z – phosphoester bond

Sample Papers 117

 36. Select the statement which is not correct?
(a) In case of polygenic inheritance, a number of intermediate phenotypes appear between the two
extreme traits.
(b) In human beings, height and skin colour are polygenic traits.
(c) A polygenic character is controlled by multiple alleles.
(d) All of these.
37. From a cross AABb × aaBb, the genotypes AaBB : AaBb : Aabb will be obtained in the ratio
(a) 1 : 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 2 : 1 (c) 2 : 1 : 1 (d) 2 : 1 : 2
38. There are three layers in the wall of the uterus. The proper sequence of the wall layers from outer
to inner side, is
(a) perimetrium → myometrium → endometrium
(b) perimetrium → endometrium → myometrium
(c) myometrium → perimetrium → endometrium
(d) endometrium → myometrium → perimetrium
39. The follicular stage at which the secondary oocyte secretes a non-cellular layer, the zona pellucida,
is
(a) primary follicle (b) secondary follicle (c) tertiary follicle (d) Graafian follicle
40. The wall layer that is not involved in the dehiscence of the anther, is
(a) tapetum (b) middle layers (c) epidermis (d) endothecium
41. The remnant of nucellus persistant in some seeds like A, is called B.
(a) A. Black pepper, B. Perisperm (b) A. Beet, B. Endosperm
(c) A. Castor, B. Perisferm (d) A. Black pepper, B. Endosperm
42. In the dioecious aquatic plant shown, identify the characteristics of the male flowers that reach the
female flowers for pollination:
Male flower Pistillate flower

Water
level

Staminate
flowers

118 Together with®  EAD Biology—12

 Size of the flower Colour of flower Characteristic feature of pollen grain
(a) small brightly coloured Light weight and non-sticky
(b) large colourless large and sticky
(c) small white small, covered with mucilage
(d) large colourless non-sticky
43. During parturition, a pregnant woman is having prolonged labour pains and child birth has to be
fastened. It is advisable to administer a hormone that can
(a) increase the metabolic rate. (b) release glucose in the blood.
(c) stimulate the ovary. (d) activate smooth muscles.
44. In a fertilized ovule, n, 2n and 3n conditions occur respectively in
(a) antipodal, zygote and endosperm (b) zygote, nucellus and endosperm
(c) endosperm, nucellus and zygote (d) antipodals, synergids and integuments
45. Self-pollination is fully assured, if
(a) the flower is bisexual
(b) the style is longer than the filament
(c) the flower is cleistogamous
(d) the time of pistil and anther maturity is different
46. The ovary in the female reproductive system, is called the primary sex organ, because
(a) it produces the female gametes for reproduction.
(b) it secretes the female sex hormones.
(c) it nourishes the embryo.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
47. The cell division in secondary oocyte is suspended at
(a) Anaphase II (b) Metaphase II (c) Prophase II (d) Telophase II
48. A dithecous anther of an angiospermic plant species has 200 pollen mother cells in each of its
microsporangia. How many male gametophytes can this anther produce?
(a) 400 (b) 800 (c) 1600 (d) 3200

SECTION C
Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q.No. 49 to 54). Besides this,
6 more questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section.
The first attempted 10 questions would be evaluated.
I. While proposing the double-helical structure for DNA, Watson and Crick had immediately proposed
a scheme for replication of DNA. The scheme was termed as semiconservative replication, which
suggested that the two strands would separate and act as template for the synthesis of new
complementary strands. After the completion of replication, each of the new DNA molecules would
have one parental strand and one newly-synthesised strand.
49. The scientists who proved the semiconservative replication of DNA for the first time were
(a) Hershey and Chase (b) Meselson and Stahl
(c) Griffith and Taylor (d) Avery, Mac Leod and Mc Carty

Sample Papers 119

 50. The heavy isotope used by the scientists in their experiment was
(a) 15N (b) 13N (c) 14C (d) 13C
51. Heavy DNA can be separated from the normal DNA by
(a) gel electrophoresis (b) chromatography
(c) density gradient centrifugation (d) All of these
52. The experiment to prove semiconservative replication of DNA was conducted on
(a) Streptococcus pneumoniae (b) Escherichia coli
(c) bacteriophages (d) Vicia faba
53. The experiment showed that
(a) equal quantities of light and hybrid DNA can be obtained after two generations.
(b) the generation time was 40 minutes.
(c) equal quantities of light and heavy DNA can be obtained after every generation/replication.
(d) All of the above
54. Similar experiments to prove semi-conservative replication of DNA in the chromosomes was performed
by A on B.
(a) A. Taylor et al, B. Vicia faba
(b) A. Hershey and Chase, B. Bacteriophage
(c) A. Taylor et al, B. Streptococcus
(d) A. F. Griffith, B. Streptococcus
55. During the follicular/proliferative phase of menstrual cycle in a human female, the proliferation of
endometrium occurs under the influence of
(a) progesterone (b) estrogen
(c) follicle-stimulating hormone (d) luteinising hormone
56. Blood
(E) (B)

vessels
(A)

(C)
(D)

In the diagrammatic sectional view of a human ovary given above, identify the following with their
corresponding labels.
(i) Corpus luteum
(ii) Antrum
(iii) Graafian follicle
Select the correct option
(a) (i) – (d), (ii) – (b), (iii) – (a) (b) (i) – (d), (ii) – (b), (iii) – (b)
(c) (i) – (a), (ii) – (b), (iii) – (c) (d) (i) – (d), (ii) – (a), (iii) – (e)

120 Together with®  EAD Biology—12

 57.
A

E
D
C

Identify from the labels, the parts belonging to the external genitalia of a human female.
(a) A. Cervix, B. Vagina, C. Clitoris
(b) C. Labium majora, D. Labium minora, E. Clitoris
(c) B. Vagina, C. Labium majora, D. Labium minora
(d) A. Cervix, C. Labium majora, D. Labium minora
58.

Observe the diagram of a portion of the human male reproductive system. Identify the parts labelled
A, B, C and D and select the option with correct combinations.
(a) A. Ureter, B. Seminal vesicle, C. Prostate, D. Bulbourethral gland
(b) A. Urethra, B. Urinary bladder, C. Seminal vesicle, D. Prostate
(c) A. Vas deferens, B. Seminal vesicle, C. Prostate, D. Bulbourethral gland
(d) A. Vas deferens, B. Urinary bladder, C. Prostate, D. Bulbourethral gland.
59.

A B

Which of the following statements is incorrect about the stages in the human embryo development
shown in the above diagram?
(a) A is a morula and B is a blastocyst.
(b) A is a solid ball of cells (blastomeres) and B is a hollow structure.
(c) The morula gets implanted in the uterus and transforms into the blastocyst (B)
(d) The outer layer of blastocyst is called trophoblast, which forms the foetal part of placenta.

Sample Papers 121

 60. A

J D
K E
L F
G

The diagram of human female reproductive system is given above.

Identify from the labels, (X) the primary sex organ and (Y) the different parts of the fallopian tube.
(a) X – F, Y – A, B, C and D
(b) X – F, Y – J, K and L
(c) X – E, Y – J, K and L
(d) X – E, Y – A, B, C and D

Answers

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (d)

6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (b)
16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (b)
25. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
26. (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
27. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
28. (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
29. (b) 30. (a) 31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (c)
34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (a)
39. (d) 40. (a) 41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (d)
44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (d)
49. (b) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (a)
54. (a) 55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (c)
59. (c) 60. (d)

122 Together with®  EAD Biology—12