Molecular Basis

CHAPTER 06 > Molecular Basis of Inheritance 131

of Inheritance
Mastering NCERT
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

TOPIC 1 ~ The DNA

1 DNA is a 10 Which of the following are all nucleotides?
(a) long polymer of deoxyribonucleotides (a) Adenosine, cytidilic acid, cytosine AIIMS 2019
(b) short polymer of deoxyribonucleotides (b) Adenylic acid, cytidilic acid, guanylic acid
(c) monomer polymer of deoxyribonucleotides (c) Cytidine, adenine, adenylic acid
(d) long polymer of ribonucleotides (d) Uracil, thymidine, thymidylic acid
2 The length of DNA usually depends on 11 A polymer or a polynucleotide chain has at one end a
(a) position of nucleotides free ........A....... at 5′ end of sugar, similarly at the
(b) number of nucleotides other end of the polymer the sugar has a free .....B.....
(c) Both (a) and (b) of 3′ group.
(d) None of the above (a) A – Phosphate moiety, B – OH
(b) A – OH, B – Phosphate moiety
3 Find the incorrect match.
(c) A – COOH, B – Phosphate moiety
(a) A bacteriophage (φ × 174) –5386 nucleotides
(d) A – Phosphate moiety, B–COOH
(b) Bacteriophage lamda – 48502 base pairs
(c) E. coli – 4.6 × 106 bp 12 Backbone of DNA is formed by
(d) Haploid content of human DNA – 3.3 × 10 bp 6 (a) sugar
(b) phosphates
4 Purines found both in DNA and RNA are NEET 2019 (c) Both (a) and (b)
(a) adenine and guanine (b) guanine and cytosine (d) nitrogenous bases (purine and pyrimidine)
(c) cytosine and thymine (d) adenine and thymine
13 Thymine is also called
5 Nitrogenous bases are linked to sugar by (a) 2 methyl uracil (b) 3 methyl uracil
(a) hydrogen bond (b) phosphodiester bond (c) 4 methyl uracil (d) 5 methyl uracil
(c) N-glycosidic bond (d) O-glycosidic bond
14 Choose the incorrect option.
6 Nucleoside is formed when the nitrogenous bases are (a) Friedrich Miescher in 1869 identified DNA as an acidic
linked to substance and named it nuclein
(a) sugar (b) phosphate (b) Erwin Chargaff said, the ratio between A and T and G
(c) proteins (d) fats and C of dsDNA are constant and equals one
7 What is the difference between adenosine and (c) The two strands of dsDNA are complementary to each
deoxyadenosine? other
(a) Only sugar (b) Only purine (d) None of the above
(c) Only phosphate (d) All of these 15 X-ray data diffraction of DNA was produced by
8 When a phosphate group is linked to ...A... group of (a) Watson and Crick (b) Wilkins and Franklin
nucleoside through ...B... bond, a corresponding ...C... (c) Bateson and Punnett (d) Both (a) and (b)
is formed. 16 In DNA 20% bases are adenine. What percentage of
Choose the correct option for A, B and C. bases are pyrimidines? JIPMER 2019
(a) A–5′ OH, B–phosphodiester bond, C–nucleotide (a) 30% (b) 60% (c) 50% (d) 20%
(b) A–3′ OH, B–phosphodiester bond, C–nucleotide 17 In sea urchin DNA, which is double-stranded 17% of
(c) A–2′ OH, B–phosphodiester bond, C–nucleotide the bases were shown to be cytosine. The percentages
(d) A–5′ OH, B–phosphodiester bond, C–nucleoside of the other three bases expected to be present in this
9 Choose the correct option. DNA are CBSE-AIPMT 2015
(a) Pyrimidines include adenine and guanine (a) G/34%, A/24.5%, T/24.5%
(b) Pyrimidines include cytosine, uracil and thymine (b) G/17%, A/16.5%, T/32.5%
(c) Purines include adenine and thymine (c) G/17%, A/33%, T/33%
(d) Purines include guanine and cytosine (d) G/8.5%, A/50%, T/24.5%
18 In the given diagram of chemical structure of DNA, (a) A–0.34 Å, B–20 Å, C–3.4 Å, D–Phosphate backbone,
identify the type of bonding shown by A, B and C. E–Major groove, F–Minor groove
(b) A–3.4 Å, B–20 Å, C–34 Å, D–Sugar backbone,
H O E–Major groove, F–Minor groove
H (c) A–34 Å, B–20 Å, C–3.4 Å, D–Sugar phosphate
HO—P== O
N N backbone, E–Major groove, F–Minor groove
H 3C 7 O
3′ (d) A–34 Å, B–20 Å, C–0.34 Å, D–Major groove,
H 5 8
HO 5 6 6
9
O CH2 E–Minor groove, F–Sugar phosphate bone
2
4 1 NH N1 4 N 5′
3′ 3 3 2 20 Which of the following is not the correct salient
2 3
4 1 N N
5′
5′ O Adenine 3′ feature of double-helix structure of DNA?
H 2C O Thymine H (a) Two polynucleotide chains have backbone of sugar
B Deoxyribose
and phosphate and bases project inside
O A O (b) Two chains have antiparallel polarity, i.e. one is
H C 5′→ 3′ and other is 3′→ 5′
O== P—OH HO—P== O
N H O N (c) Adenine forms three hydrogen bonds with thymine
1 O
O and guanine forms two hydrogen bonds with cytosine
H 8
5 6 6 5
9
O CH2 (d) The plane of one base pair stacks over the other in
5′
3′ 4 1N H N1 4 N
3
double helix in addition to H-bond to confer extra
2 2 3
N statbility to helical structure
3′
H2C O H N Guanine 21 The diagram shows an important concept in the
5′ O H HO 3′
Cytosine
O
O H Deoxyribose genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks A to
O== P—OH
C. NEET 2013
H Proposed by C
O
A B
(a) A–N-glycosidic bonding, B–Phosphodiester bonding, DNA mRNA Protein
C–Hydrogen bonding
(b) A–N-glycosidic bonding, B–Phosphodiester bonding,
C–Covalent bonding (a) A–transcription, B–replication, C–James Watson
(c) A–N-glycosidic bonding, B–Phosphodiester bonding, (b) A–translation, B–transcription, C–Erwin Chargaff
C–Coordinate bonding (c) A–transcription, B–translation, C–Francis Crick
(d) A–N-glycosidic bonding, B–Hydrogen bonding, (d) A–translation, B–extension, C–Rosalind Franklin
C–Phosphodiester bonding
22 In some viruses, the flow of information is in
19 Given the diagram showing Watson and Crick model of reverse direction, i.e. from RNA to DNA. Can you
DNA structure. Identify the parameters of A, B and C. suggest a simple name to the process?
B (a) Transcription (b) Transception
(c) Reverse transcription (d) Translation
Guanine G C Cytosine
23 The length of DNA in a human cell is about
Thymine T A Adenine
(a) 2.3 m (b) 2.4 m (c) 2.2 m (d) 2.0 m
C G
24 Find out the number of base pairs in E. coli DNA if
its DNA is 1.36 mm long.
T A
A (a) 4 × 106 bp (b) 3 × 106 bp
G C
(c) 2 × 106 bp (d) 7 × 106 bp
T A
A 25 In prokaryotes (such as E. coli) ...A... nucleus is not
F
G
E D present, the DNA is not scattered throughout the
cell. DNA is ...B... charged and holded by the ...C...
G C
charged proteins. This structure in prokaryotes is
C G
C
called ...D... .
T A
Choose the correct option for A, B, C and D.
(a) A–undefined, B–negatively, C–positively, D–nucleoid
Hydrogen bonds
(b) A–undefined, B–negatively, C–positively, D–nucleus
(c) A–defined, B–negatively, C–positively, D–nucleoid
5′ 3′ (d) A–defined, B–positively, C–negatively, D–nucleoid
26 Positively charged basic proteins that are found in 31 In the given diagram, identify A, B and C.
eukaryotes are called
(a) histones (b) protamine A B
(c) arginine (d) lysine
27 Choose the incorrect pair.
(a) Basic amino residues in histones — Lysine and arginine C
(b) Unit of 8 molecules in histones — Histone octamer
(c) Negative charged DNA wrapped around positive
charged DNA — Nucleosome
(d) Thread-like, colourless unit of structure — Chromatin Core of histone molecules
in nucleus
28 Linker-DNA is attached to JIPMER 2018
(a) A–DNA, B–H1 histone, C–Histone octamer
(b) A–RNA, B–H1 histone, C–Histone octamer
(a) H1 (b) H2A (c) H2B (d) H3 (c) A–DNA, B–H1 histone, C–Histone tetramer
29 The packaging of chromatin at higher level requires (d) A–RNA, B–H1 histone, C–Histone tetramer
an additional set of proteins that are collectively 32 Lightly stained part of chromatin which remains
referred to as loosely packed and is transcriptionally active named as
(a) histone proteins (b) non-histone proteins (a) euchromatin
(c) basic proteins (d) acidic packaging proteins (b) heterochromatin
30 The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome (c) chromatosome
indicates NEET 2017 (d) chromonemata
(a) transcription is occurring 33 Part of chromatin which is densely packed, stain
(b) DNA replication is occurring darkly and is transcriptionally inactive is called
(c) the DNA is condensed into chromatin fibre (a) euchromatin (b) chromatosome
(d) the DNA double helix is exposed (c) heterochromatin (d) chromosome

TOPIC 2 ~ The Search for Genetic Material and RNA World

34 Experimental organism of Frederick Griffith was 37 Which scientist experimentally proved that DNA is
(a) Variola virus (b) Tuberculosis bacteria the sole genetic material in bacteriophage?
(c) Actinomycetes (d) Streptococcus pneumoniae NEET (Odisha) 2019, 17
35 What was unique in Griffith’s experiments? (a) Beadle and Tatum (b) Meselson and Stahl
(a) DNA was found to be the genetic material (c) Hershey and Chase (d) Jacob and Monod
(b) RNA was found to be the genetic material 38 Isotopes used by Hershey and Chase were
32
(c) Something from dead organisms could change the (a) P and 35S (b) 35
P and 32S
34
living cells (c) P and 31S (d) 30
P and 32S
(d) Viruses can live in bacteria 39 Bacteriophage nucleic acids were labelled as
36 In Griffith experiment, what would be the effect of (in Hershey and Chase experiment)
32
following conditions on mice? (a) P labelled phosphate (b) 3 H labelled H2O
35
Form of Pneumococcus Injected Effect on Mice (c) S labelled sulphate (d) 14 C labelled CO2
I. Live R-strain A 40 Bacteriophage protein coat was labelled by growing
II. Live S-strain B E. coli on
III. Heat-killed S-strain C (a) radioactive sulphur-35
IV. Heat-killed S-strain + live R-strain D (b) radioactive sulphur-32
(c) radioactive sulphur-30
Choose the correct option for effect on mice. (d) radioactive phosphorus-32
(a) A–Survived, B–Died, C–Died, D–Survived
41 Hershey and Chase concluded that viral infecting
(b) A–Survived, B–Died, C–Survived, D–Died
agent in their experiment was
(c) A–Died, B–Survived, C–Survived, D–Died
(a) Protein (b) DNA
(d) A–Died, B–Survived, C–Died, D–Died (c) RNA (d) Both (b) and (c)
 35
42 Hershey and Chase used S and 32P to prove that 47 Viruses having RNA genome and having shorter
DNA is the genetic material. Their experiments proved lifespan, mutate and evolve faster because
that DNA is genetic material because (a) RNA is unstable and mutates at faster rate
(a) progeny viruses retained 32P but not 35S (b) RNA is stable and mutates at faster rate
(b) retention of 32P in progeny viruses indicated that (c) RNA is stable and mutates at slower rate
DNA was passed on (d) RNA is unstable and mutates at slower rate
(c) loss of 35S in progeny viruses indicated that proteins 48 DNA is dependent on ...A... for synthesis of proteins.
were not passed on
DNA and RNA both can function as genetic
(d) All of the above
material. But ...B... being more stable, preferred for
43 RNA is the genetic material in the storage of genetic information. For the
(a) All bacteria transmission of genetic information, ...C... is better.
(b) Tobacco Mosaic Viruses (TMV) Choose the correct option for A, B and C.
(c) QB bacteriophage (a) A–DNA, B–RNA, C–RNA
(d) Both (b) and (c) (b) A–RNA, B–DNA, C–RNA
44 A molecule that can act as a genetic material must (c) A–RNA, B–RNA, C–DNA
fulfill the traits given below, except NEET 2016 (d) A–DNA, B–RNA, C–DNA
(a) it should be able to express itself in the form of 49 The first genetic material was
‘Mendelian characters’ (a) RNA
(b) it should be able to generate its replica (b) DNA
(c) it should be unstable structurally and chemically (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) it should provide the scope for slow changes that are
(d) None of the above
required for evolution
50 Which one of the following is not applicable to RNA?
45 Which group present in RNA nucleotide is very
(a) Complementary base pairing CBSE-AIPMT 2015
reactive and makes RNA liable and easily degradable
than DNA? (b) 5′ phosphoryl and 3′ hydroxyl ends
(a) 3–OH′ group at every nucleotide (c) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases
(b) 2–OH′ group on ribose sugar (d) Chargaff’s rule
(c) 3–OH′ group on ribose sugar 51 Which one of the following option is correct?
(d) 4–OH′ group on ribose sugar (a) DNA has evolved from RNA with chemical
46 Stability of DNA is due to modifications
(a) deoxyribose sugar (b) DNA being complementary double-stranded resists
(b) presence of thymine in place of uracil changes by a process of repair
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) RNA being a catalyst is reactive and unstable
(d) None of the above (d) All of the above

TOPIC 3 ~ Replicaton
52 DNA replication is semiconservative. It was shown 55 Heavy DNA can be differentiated from normal DNA
first in by which centrifugation technique?
(a) fungi (b) E. coli (c) Vicia faba (d) algae (a) AgCl density gradient (b) CaSO4 density gradient
53 Who experimentally proved the semiconservative (c) CsCl density gradient (d) KCl density gradient
mode of DNA replication? 56 In Meselson and Stahl’s experiment (1958), DNA
(a) Mathew Meselson extracted from the culture one generation after the
(b) Franklin Stahl transfer from 15 N to 14 N medium had a hybrid
(c) Both (a) and (b) (or intermediate) density. Why?
(d) Watson and Crick (a) Because the generation time of E. coli (culture) was
about 20 minutes
54 Name the heavy isotope used by Meselson and Stahl (b) Because it would take 20 minutes for RNA replication
for proving the semiconservative mode of DNA. (c) Because it would take 20 minutes for replication of
15 14 DNA to RNA (transcription)
(a) NH4 Cl (b) NH3 Cl 2
13 (d) Because it would take 20 minutes for translation RNA
(c) NH2 Cl 3 (d) All of these
to protein
57 Given diagram depicts the experiment of Meselson 63 Replication occurs within the small opening of DNA
and Stahl. Identify the type of isotopic DNA formed helix referred to as
after 40 minutes (A, B, C and D). (a) replication fork (b) duplication fork
(c) DNA fork (d) RNA fork
Generation-I
15N-DNA 14N-DNA 64 DNA-dependent DNA polymerases catalyses
15N-DNA polymerisation in which direction?
(a) 3′ → 5′ (b) 5′ → 2′
20 min 40 min (c) 5′ → 3′ (d) 2′ → 5′
65 On which strand of DNA, replication is continuous?
Generation-II
(a) 5′ → 3′ polarity strand
A-DNA (b) 3′ → 5′ polarity strand
B-DNA (c) 3′ → 2′ polarity strand
C-DNA (d) 3′ → 4′ polarity strand

D-DNA 66 Identify A, B and C strands.

5′ 3′
(a) A–14 N-DNA, B–15 N-DNA, C–14 N-DNA, D–15 N-DNA
(b) A–14 N-DNA, B–15 N-DNA, C–14 N-DNA, D–14 N-DNA C
(c) A–14 N-DNA, B–14 N-DNA, C–15 N-DNA, D–15 N-DNA
5′
(d) A–14 N-DNA, B–15 N-DNA, C–15 N-DNA, D–15 N-DNA A
3′
B
58 Similar experiments like Meselson and Stahl was Newly
synthesised 5′
performed by Taylor in 1958. The experimental 3′5′
strands 3′
organism of Taylor was
(a) Vicia faba (b) Fungi (a) A–Continuous strand, B–Discontinuous strand,
(c) E. coli (d) Protista C–Template strand
59 Radioisotope used by Taylor in his experiment was (b) A–Leading strand, B–Lagging strand, C–Parental strand
(c) A– 5′−3′ strand, B– 3′−5′ strand, C–Parental strand
(a) iron (b) titanium
(d) All of the above
(c) thymidine (d) copper
60 DNA polymerase is 67 During DNA replication, supercoiling is relaxed by
JIPMER 2019
(a) DNA dependent
(a) primase (b) polymerase
(b) DNA independent (c) DNA topoisomerase (d) SSBPs
(c) RNA dependent
68 During DNA replication, okazaki fragments are used
(d) RNA independent
to elongate NEET 2017
61 DNA polymerisation rate of DNA polymerase is (a) The leading strand towards replication fork
(a) 1000 bp/s (b) 2000 bp/s (b) The lagging strand towards replication fork
(c) 3000 bp/s (d) 5000 bp/s (c) The leading strand away from replication fork
(d) The lagging strand away from the replication fork
62 For long DNA molecules, the two strands of DNA
cannot be separated in its entire length due to the 69 Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate serve dual
requirement of purposes. The purposes are
(a) enzymes (a) act as substrate and decrease reaction rate
(b) high energy (b) provide energy for polymerisation and act as substrate
(c) decrease reaction rate and provide energy for
(c) RNA
polymerisation
(d) phosphate and nucleotide (d) Synthesise RNA primer and decrease reaction rate
136 Master The NCERT > BIOLOGY (Vol-II )

TOPIC 4~ Transcription
70 Which one of the following is wrongly matched? Codes
CBSE-AIPMT 2014 A B C D E
(a) Transcription – Writing information from DNA to (a) 5 1 4 2 3
t RNA (b) 5 1 4 3 2
(b) Translation–Using information in mRNA to make (c) 5 4 1 2 3
proteins (d) 5 4 1 3 2
(c) Repressor protein – Binds to operator to stop enzyme
synthesis 77 If the coding strand has the sequence
(d) Operon – Structural genes, operator and promoter 5 ′–ATCGATCG–3′ then find out the sequence of
non-coding strand.
71 Why both the strands of DNA are not copied during
(a) 3′ − TAGCTAGC − 5 ′
transcription?
(b) 5′− TACGTACG − 3 ′
(a) Because RNA molecule with different sequences will
be formed (c) 5′− UAGGUACG − 3 ′
(b) Because RNA molecule with same sequences will be (d) 5′− UACFUACG − 3 ′
formed
(c) Because RNA molecule with identical sequences will 78 AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
be formed strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding
(d) Because DNA molecule with different sequences will sequence of the transcribed mRNA? NEET 2018
be formed (a) ACCUAUGCGAU (b) UGGTUTCGCAT
72 If both the strands copied during transcription, then (c) AGGUAUCGCAU (d) UCCAUAGCGUA
what will happen? 79 Which of the following mRNA can be transcripted?
(a) The segment of DNA would be coding for two different JIPMER 2018
proteins (a) AUG.UGA.UUU (b) UAA.UAV.UGG
(b) Two RNA will be produced simultaneously (c) UAG.UGA.UUV (d) UGA.UUV.UGG
complementary to each other
(c) There will be formation of double helical RNA
80 What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by the
(d) All of the above
following stretch of DNA?
73 What will happen if the double-stranded RNA is 3'–ATGCATGCATGCATG–5' Template strand
produced during transcription? 5'–TACGTACGTACGTAC–3' Coding strand
(a) This would prevent RNA from being translated into (a) 3' – AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG–5' NEET (Odisha) 2019
protein (b) 5' – UACGUACGUACGUAC–3'
(b) This would not prevent RNA from being translated into (c) 3' – UACGUACGUACGUAC–5'
protein (d) 5'– AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG–3'
(c) There will be the continuous synthesis of RNA
81 Promoter and terminator flanks the
(d) Double-stranded RNA will have lower stability. It will
(a) house-keeping gene (b) structural gene
be degraded very fastly
(c) recon (d) transcription unit
74 Which strand of DNA works as template strand?
(a) 5′ – 3′ polarity strand (b) 3′ – 5′ polarity strand 82 Choose the incorrect pair.
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (a) Promoter — Binding site for RNA polymerase
75 The strand which do not code for anything is called (b) Terminator — Define the end of transcription process
(a) coding strand (b) non-coding strand (c) Cistron — Segment of RNA coding for a
(c) template strand (d) antisense strand polypeptide
76 In given diagram find out (d) Regulatory — Do not code for any RNA or protein
Transcription start site genes

5 1 83 Identify the correct pair of mRNA type and its

4 2
3′ 5′ function.
5′ 3′
(a) Messenger RNA — Provides the template
3 (b) Transfer RNA — Brings amino acids and reads genetic
A. Promoter site B. Structural gene code
C. Terminator site D. Template strand (c) Ribosomal RNA — Plays catalytic role during translation
E. Coding strand (d) All of the above
84 Which of the following RNAs should be most 92 In splicing, the sequences which are kept and those
abundant in animals cell? NEET 2017 which are removed, respectively, are
(a) rRNA (b) tRNA (c) mRNA (d) miRNA (a) exons and introns (b) introns and exons
85 DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses (c) exons and cistrons (d) introns and cistrons
transcription on one strand of the DNA which is 93 Spliceosomes are not found in cells of NEET 2017
called the NEET 2016 (a) plants (b) fungi (c) animals (d) bacteria
(a) template strand (b) coding strand 94 Name the nucleotide added to 5′ end of hnRNA in
(c) alpha strand (d) anti-strand capping.
86 In bacteria, which enzyme catalyses the transcription (a) Ethyl cytosine triphosphate
of all types of RNA (mRNA, tRNA and rRNA)? (b) Ethyl guanosine triphosphate
(a) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase (c) Methyl guanosine triphosphate
(b) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase (d) Methyl cytosine triphosphate
(c) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase 95 Which is present at 5′ end of eukaryotic mRNA?
(d) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase JIPMER 2018
87 In prokaryotes, which process of transcription is (a) Poly-A tail (b) Modified C at 5′
catalysed by RNA polymerase only? (c) 7 mG (d) Poly-C
(a) Initiation (b) Elongation 96 What happens in the tailing process of transcription?
(c) Termination (d) Aminoacylation (a) Adenylate residues added at 5′ end of RNA
88 What initiation and termination factors are involved (b) Adenylate residues added at 3′ end of RNA
in transcription in eukaryotes? NEET (Odisha) 2019
(c) Guanylate residues added at 5′ end of RNA
(d) Guanylate residues added at 3′ end of RNA
(a) σ and ρ, respectively (b) α and β, respectively
(c) β and γ, respectively (d) α and σ, respectively 97 Fully processed hnRNA to undergo translation is
called
89 (a) mRNA (b) rRNA (c) tRNA (d) sRNA
3′ 3′
(A)
5′ 5′ 98 The following diagram refers to the process of
Promoter σ DNA helix
RNA polymerase Sigma factor
transcription in eukaryotes. Identify A, B, C and D.

3′ 5′ 5′ 5′
(B) 3′ 3′
5′ 3′
RNA A
ρ 3′ mRNA
RNA Polymerase B
Rho factor Capping
Cap Polyadenylation
3′ 5′ or tailing
(C) mG RNA splicing
5′ 3′ ppp C
Terminator 5′ m 3′
RNA σ
Gppp D
Identify A, B and C. AIIMS 2019 5′
(a) A–Elongation, B–Termination, C–Initiation mG 3′
ppp m
(b) A–Initiation, B–Termination, C–Elongation 5′ Gppp
(c) A–Initiation, B–Elongation, C–Termination 5′
Messenger RNA (mRNA)
(d) A–Termination, B–Elongation, C–Initiation
(a) A–RNA polymerase-II, B–Exon, C– Intron, D–Poly-A
90 In bacteria, transcription and translation takes place in tail
the same compartment. Why? (b) A–RNA polymerase-III, B–Intron, C– Exon, D–Poly-A
(a) No separation of cytosol and nucleus tail
(b) mRNA does not require any processing to become (c) A–RNA polymerase-II, B–Intron, C– Exon, D–Poly-A
active tail
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) A–RNA polymerase-III, B–Intron, C– Exon, D–Poly-G
(d) Due to the presence of nucleus tail
91 In the process of transcription in eukaryotes, the RNA 99 Choose the correct option.
polymerase-I transcribes NEET (Odisha) 2019 (a) Splicing represent the dominance of RNA world
(a) mRNA with additional processing, capping and tailing (b) The presence of introns is reminiscent of antiquity
(b) tRNA, 5 srRNA and snRNAs (c) Split gene arrangements represent an ancient feature of
(c) rRNAs-28 S, 18 S and 5.8 S the genome
(d) precursor of mRNA, hnRNA (d) All of the above
138 Master The NCERT > BIOLOGY (Vol-II)

TOPIC 5 ~ Genetic Code

100 Genetic code 112 From the following, identify the correct combination
(a) is a relationship between sequence of DNA or mRNA to of salient features of genetic code.
polypeptide NEET (Odisha) 2019
(b) triplet base on mRNA (a) Universal, non-ambiguous, overlapping
(c) determines the sequence of amino acid in polypeptide (b) Degenerate, overlapping, commaless
(d) All of the above (c) Universal, ambiguous, degenerate
101 In order to code for all the 20 amino acids, the code (d) Degenerate, non-overlapping, non-ambiguous
should be made up of three nucleotides. 113 Degeneracy refers to
This statement was suggested by (a) one amino acid has more than one code triplet
(a) Har Gobind Khorana (b) George Gamow (b) one amino acid has only one code triplet
(c) Marshall Nirenberg (d) Servo Ochoa (c) codons which specify the same amino acids differ only
in the third base of the triplet
102 Who developed the technique of synthesising RNA
(d) Both (a) and (c)
molecules with well-defined combination of bases
(homopolymers and copolymers) to develop genetic 114 Which of the following features of genetic code does
code? allow bacteria to produce human insulin by
(a) Crick et. al (b) Har Gobind Khorana recombinant DNA technology? NEET 2019
(c) Matthaei (d) Nirenberg (a) Genetic code is redundant
103 Who used cell free system for protein synthesis? (b) Genetic code is nearly universal
(a) Marshall Nirenberg (b) Ochoa (c) Genetic code is specific
(c) Khorana (d) Gamow (d) Genetic code is not ambiguous

104 Polynucleotide phosphorylase enzymes are also called 115 The relationship between genes and DNA are best
(a) Crick et. al enzymes (b) Servo Ochoa enzymes understood by
(c) James Watson enzymes (d) Mendel enzymes (a) mutation
(b) recombination
105 How many codons codes for amino acids? (c) enzymatic synthesis of amino acid
(a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 61 (d) 60 (d) enzymatic synthesis of codons
106 The genetic codes of arginine are AIIMS 2019 116 Sickle-cell anaemia is a classical example of point
(a) CGU, CGC, CGA (b) CAU, CAC, CAA mutation in which valine amino acid comes in
(c) AGU, AGC, AAC (d) GAU, GAC, GAA place of
107 Codons of glycine are AIIMS 2018 (a) glutamate (b) tryptophane (c) alanine (d) guanine
(a) CCU, CCC, CCA, CCG 117 Under which of the following conditions will there be
(b) CGU, CGC, CGA, CGG no change in the reading frame of following mRNA?
(c) GGU, GGC, GGA, GGG 5′–AACAGCGGUGCUAUU–3 ′ NEET 2019
(d) ACU, ACC, ACA, ACG (a) Deletion of G from 5th position
108 The codon AUG codes for (in eukaryotes) (b) Insertion of A and G at 4th and 5th positions,
(a) methionine (b) histidine respectively
(c) tryptophan (d) alanine (c) Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th positions
109 Which of the following is not a stop condon? (d) Insertion of G at 5th position
JIPMER 2019 118 If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a
(a) UAA (b) UAC (c) UAG (d) UGA protein with 333 amino acids and the base at position
110 The one aspect, which is not a salient feature of 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA
genetic code is, its being becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be
(a) degenerate (b) ambiguous
altered? NEET 2017
(a) 1 (b) 11
(c) universal (d) specific
(c) 33 (d) 333
111 Codons are non-ambiguous, which means that one
119 Which mutation of the genetic bases gives the proof
codon codes for
that codon is triplet and reads in a contagious
(a) more than one amino acid
manner?
(b) two amino acids
(a) Frameshift mutation (b) Point mutation
(c) Only one amino acid
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Inversion mutation
(d) non-sense amino acid
120 The presence of an adapter molecule that would on (a) A–Variable arm, B–D-loop, C–T-loop, D–Anticodon
one hand read the code and on other hand would bind arm, E–Codon, F–Variable arm
to specific amino acids was postulated by (b) A–Amino acid arm, B–T-loop, C–Variable arm,
D–Anticodon arm, E–Codon, F–D- loop
(a) Francis Crick (b) James Watson
(c) A–Amino acid arm, B–T-loop, C–Anticodon loop,
(c) Rosalind Franklin (d) Griffith
D–Anticodon, E–Codon, F–D-loop
121 Before the genetic code was postulated, the tRNA (d) A–Amino acid arm, B–T-loop, C–Anticodon loop,
was called D–Anticodon, E–Codon, F–Variable arm
(a) rRNA (ribosomal RNA) 123 Choose the incorrect option for tRNA molecule.
(b) mRNA (messenger RNA) (a) It has an anticodon loop that has bases complementary
(c) sRNA (soluble RNA) to the code
(d) sRNA (sedimentary RNA) (b) It has an amino acid acceptor end to which it binds to
122 Study the given figure and identify A to F. amino acids
(c) tRNA are not specific for each amino acid
Tyr (d) tRNA looks like a clover leaf
A
124 tRNA is a compact molecule which looks like
F (a) M-shaped (b) P-shaped (c) L-shaped (d) K-shaped

B
125 RNA binds to mRNA through JIPMER 2019
(a) anticodon loop
(b) T ψ C loop
(c) amino acid binding loop
(d) D-loop
C
A U G D 126 Removal of RNA polymerase-III from nucleoplasm
U A C E mRNA will affect the synthesis of CBSE-AIPMT 2012
3¢ (a) tRNA (b) hnRNA (c) mRNA (d) rRNA

TOPIC 6 ~ Translation
127 The process of polymerisation of amino acids to form Choose the correct option.
a polypeptide is (a) IV, VI and VII (b) I, II and III
(a) transcription (b) replication (c) II, III, IV and V (d) All of these
(c) translation (d) polymerisation 132 Which among the following process occur(s) during
128 Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA charging or aminoacylation of tRNA?
to form multiple copies of a polypeptide (a) Activation of amino acids in the presence of ATP
simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed (b) Linking of amino acids to their cognate tRNA
as NEET 2018, 16 (c) Both (a) and (b)
(a) plastidome (b) polyhedral bodies (d) None of the above
(c) polysome (d) nucleosome 133 The cellular factory responsible for the synthesis of
129 In the protein synthesis, tRNA carrying the amino proteins is
acid enters from which site of the ribosome? (a) mitochondria
(a) A-site (b) P-site (b) endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Anticodon site (d) R-site (c) Golgi body
(d) ribosome
130 The order and sequences of amino acids are defined
by the sequences of the bases in 134 Which of the following rRNAs act as structural RNA
(a) rRNA (b) mRNA (c) tRNA (d) All of these as well as ribozyme in bacteria? NEET 2016
(a) 5 srRNA (b) 18 srRNA
131 Which of the following enzymes are required in (c) 23 srRNA (d) 5.8 srRNA
protein synthesis?
135 UTRs present on mRNA refer to
I. Ligase II. Permease
(a) Untranscribed regions at both 5′ end and 3′ end
III. Endonuclease IV. Ribozyme (b) Untranslated regions at 5′ end
V. RNA polymerase VI. Peptidyl transferase (c) Untranslated regions at both 5′ end and 3′ end
VII. Amino acid activating enzyme (d) Untranslated regions at 3′ end
136 For initiation, the ribosomes binds to the ...A... at the 140 Study the diagram given below of translation and
start codon and ...B... is recognised by the ...C... . choose the correct option for labels A, B, C, D and E.
Choose the correct option for A, B and C. P-site
(a) A–mRNA, B–AUG, C–initiator tRNA Gly
(Peptidyl tRNA site) A-site
Leu Tyr
(b) A–mRNA, B–AUG, C–tRNA (Amino acyl tRNA site)
Growing Ser
(c) A–rRNA, B–AUG, C–tRNA polypeptide chain Leu Transferase enzyme
(d) A–rRNA B–AUG, C–initiator mRNA Gly forming peptide bond
Asn
137 Choose the incorrect pair. A B
Ser

U
(a) Untranslated — Required for efficient

U
E Val

A
regions translation process

A
Amino acid
(b) Release factor — Kind to stop codon for tRNA complex
tRNA tRNA
terminating translation
CGU CAA Large ribosomal
(c) Translational — Sequence of RNA with start
subunit
unit codon only
C U C U UGGGU C CGC A G U U A AU U U C A U C
(d) Elongation phase — Ribosome moves from codons
C D
to codons along mRNA mRNA Ribosome Small ribosomal subunit

138 For the given DNA sequence

A B C D E
3′–TACATGGGTCCG–5′.
(a) Charged/ Uncharged tRNA 5′ end 3′ end Glycine
Choose the correct sequential code of tRNA Aminoacylated
anticodon. tRNA
I. UAC II. AUG (b) Uncharged Charged/Aminoacy- 5′ end 3′ end Alanine
III. GGC IV. CCA tRNA lated tRNA
(a) I, II, III and IV (b) II, III, IV and I (c) Uncharged Charged/Aminoacy- 3′ end 5′ end Glycine
(c) I, III, II and IV (d) II, I, IV and III tRNA lated tRNA
139 RNA molecule Anti-codon pairing (d) Uncharged Charged/Aminoacy- 5′ end 3′ end Lysine
tRNA lated tRNA
I UCA
II AUG 141 Termination of protein synthesis or translation
III AUU requires
IV AUC (a) Both stop signal and starting codon
Which of the following tRNA molecules does not (b) Both starting codon and release factor
exist? (c) Both release factor and stop codon
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III and IV (d) IV and I (d) GUG and AUG codon

TOPIC 7 ~ Regulation of Gene Expression

142 The regulation of gene expression in eukaryotes can be proteins, which affects its ability to recognise the start
exerted at sites.
I. transcriptional level. Complete the statement filling the correct options in
II. processing level. given blanks.
(a) A–RNA replication, B–DNA polymerase, C–accessory
III. transport of mRNA (from nucleus to cytoplasm).
(b) A–transcriptional initiation, B–RNA polymerase,
IV. translational level. C–accessory
Choose the correct combination to complete the (c) A–translational initiation, B–RNA polymerase,
statement. C–accessory
(a) I and II (b) II and III (d) A–DNA replication, B–RNA polymerase, C–accessory
(c) III and IV (d) All of these 144 Positively regulatory proteins are called
143 In prokaryotes, control of the rate of ...A... is the (a) activator
pre-dominant site for the control of gene expression. (b) repressors
In a transcription unit, the activity of ...B... at a given (c) necessary proteins
promoter is in turn regulated by interaction with ...C... (d) accessory proteins
145 The accessibility of the promoter regions of (a) A–Regulatory gene, B–Promoter, C–Operator,
prokaryotic DNA is (in many cases) regulated by the D–Structural gene
interaction of proteins with the sequences termed as (b) A–Regulatory gene, B–Promoter, C–Structural gene,
D–Operator
(a) regulator (b) promoter
(c) A–Regulatory gene, B–Structural gene, C–Pormoter,
(c) operator (d) structural genes
D–Operator
146 An operon is considered to regulate a (d) A–Regulatory gene, B–Structural gene, C–Operator
(a) translational unit (b) genetic unit gene, D–Promoter gene
(c) protein unit (d) enzymatic unit 153 Lactose is a substrate for
147 1st operon model was (a) galactosidase
(a) trp operon (b) lac operon (b) α-galactosidase
(c) his operon (d) val operon (c) β-galactosidase
148 Select the correct match. NEET 2018 (d) γ-galactosidase
(a) Matthew Meselson and F Stahl : Pisum sativum 154 Lactose is transported into cells through
(b) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase : TMV (a) β-galactosidase
(c) Alec Jeffreys : Streptococcus (b) permease
pneumoniae (c) transacetylase
(d) Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod : Lac operon (d) transferase
149 Number of regulatory and structural genes present in 155 The given diagram of the lac operon showing an
lac operon are operon of inducible enzymes. Identify components
(a) one and two (b) one and three and enzymes (A, B, C, D and E).
(c) one and one (d) three and one
i p o z y a
150 Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E. coli
that involves the lac i gene products is mRNA Transcription
CBSE-AIPMT 2015 lac mRNA
(a) positive and inducible because it can be induced by D Translation
lactose Enzymes
(b) negative and inducible because its repressor protein A B C
E
prevents transcription
(c) negative and repressible because its repressor protein (a) A–Galactosidase, B–Permease, C–Transacetylase,
prevents transcription D–Repressor protein, E–Inducer (lactose)
(d) feedback inhibition because excess of β-galactosidase (b) A–Galactosidase, B–Permease, C–Transacetylase,
can switch off transcription D–Inducer (lactose), E–Repressor protein
151 Which enzyme(s) will be produced in a cell in which (c) A–Galactosidase, B–Transacetylase, C–Permease,
D–Repressor protein, E–Inducer (lactose)
there is a non-sense mutation in the lac y-gene?
(d) A–Permease, B–Transacetylase, C–-Galactosidase,
(a) β-galactosidase NEET 2013
D–Repressor protein, E–Inducer (lactose)
(b) Lactose permease
(c) Transacetylase 156 To, which of the following, repressor protein is
(d) Lactose permease and transacetylase attached? JIPMER 2018
(a) Operator (b) Inducer
152 Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram of a lac
(c) Promoter (d) Structural gene
operon.
157 Why glucose and galactose cannot act as an inducer
A B C
for lac operon?
i p o z y a (a) Because they cannot bind with the repressor
Repressor
(b) Because they can bind with the repressor
mRNA RNA
polymerase operator D (c) Because they can bind with the operator
compound (d) Because they can bind with the regulator
Repressor
142 Master The NCERT > BIOLOGY (Vol-II)

TOPIC 8 ~ Human Genome Project

158 Which of the following option is true for Human 165 To make chromosomal studies easier, chromosomes
Genome Project (HGP)? are classified into certain groups. So, the chromosome
(a) It was launched in the year 1990 and was called mega number 21, 22 and Y are listed in JIPMER 2019
project (a) A (b) D (c) E (d) G
(b) Total estimated cost of the project would be 9 billion
166 Exact number of nucleotides contained in human
US dollars
genome, revealed by human genome project are
(c) It aims to identify all 20000-25000 genes in human
DNA (a) 3164.7 million bp (b) 3163.7 million bp
(d) All of the above (c) 3162.7 million bp (d) 3160.7 million bp

159 Human genome project was co-ordinated by 167 Average gene consists of ...A... bases, but their size
(a) Europian Department of Energy vary greatly, with the largest known human gene
being ...B... with ...C... bases.
(b) US Department of Energy
Complete the statement filling the correct option in
(c) National Institute of Health
the given blanks.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
(a) A–3000 bases, B–dystrophin, C–2.4 million
160 Identify the incorrect option regarding human genome (b) A–2000 bases, B–dystrophin, C–2.4 million
project. (c) A–1000 bases, B–dystrophin, C–2.0 million
(a) It was completed in 2003 (d) A–3000 bases, B–dystrophin, C–2.0 million
(b) It aims to determine the sequence of 3 billion chemical
168 Percentage of similarity between the nucleotides of
base pairs and store it in data bases
two individuals is
(c) It associated ethical legal and social issues arising from
the project (a) 98% (b) 99% (c) 99.9% (d) 99.8%
(d) It is not associated with non-human organisms DNA 169 Total percentage of genes, which codes for proteins is
sequences (a) 2% (b) 3% (c) 4% (d) 5%
161 Gene library or DNA library has the collection of 170 Repetitive DNA make up very large portion of human
(a) DNA and RNA AIIMS 2019 genome and are important for studying
(b) Any one type of gene of organism (a) chromosome structure (b) chromosome dynamics
(c) cDNA (c) evolution (d) All of these
(d) All possible genes are organisms
171 Choose the incorrect option.
162 Which among the following are non-human model (a) HGP is closely associated with bioinformatics
whose genome are sequenced? (b) HGP will help in developing new ways to diagnose,
(a) Caenorhabditis elegans (b) Drosophila treat and some day prevent disorders affecting humans
(c) Plants (rice and Arabidopsis) (d) All of these (c) Fragment sequenced during HGP are done by method
163 Identify the incorrect pair. developed by Frederick Sanger
(a) Expressed sequence tags — Genes that are express as (d) Repetitive DNA sequences are stretches of DNA
RNA repeated 2-3 times in a DNA sequence
(b) Sequence annotation — Sequencing genome with 172 SNP–Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms is
coding sequences (a) location on RNA where the single base differs
(c) Automated DNA sequences — Work on the principle (b) location on proteins where the single base differs
developed by Frederick (c) location on genome where the single base of DNA
Sanger differs
(d) None of the above (d) location on genome where many bases of DNA differs
164 How genetic and physical maps were generated in 173 SNPs can be used for
HGP? (a) finding chromosome locations for disease associated
(a) By using DNase sequences
(b) By using RNase (b) tracing human history
(c) By using restriction endonuclease (c) evolution
(d) By using automated DNA sequences (d) All of the above
CHAPTER 06 > Molecular Basis of Inheritance 143

TOPIC 9 ~ DNA Fingerprinting

174 DNA fingerprinting involves identifying the 181 VNTR varies in size from
differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence (a) 0.1-20 kb (b) 0.2-10 kb
called (c) 0.3-30 kb (d) 0.4-15 kb
(a) non-repetitive DNA
(b) coding DNA 182 The sensitivity of DNA fingerprinting can be
(c) non-coding DNA increased by
(d) repetitive DNA (a) using intron sequences
(b) using exon sequences
175 The bulk of DNA (other than repetitive) forms the (c) using polymerase chain reactions
major peaks during density gradient centrifugation. (d) All of the above
The other small peaks are referred to as
(a) satellite DNA (b) non-satellite DNA 183 Southern blotting technique involves the transfer of
(c) exonic DNA (d) intronic DNA DNA from
(a) gel to membrane
176 Satellite DNA is important because it (b) membrane to gel
CBSE-AIPMT 2015 (c) solution to gel
(a) codes for proteins needed in cell cycle (d) gel to solution
(b) shows high degree of polymorphism in population and
also the same degree of polymorphism in an individual, 184 Steps in DNA fingerprinting are
which is heritable from parents to children Isolation of DNA
(c) does not code for proteins and is same in all members of ↓
the population
(d) codes for enzymes needed for DNA replication Digestion of DNA by (A)
↓
177 Basis of DNA fingerprinting
(a) high degree of polymorphism in sequences Separation of DNA by (B)
(b) low degree of polymorphism in sequences ↓
(c) intermediate degree of polymorphism in sequences Transfering of DNA to (C)
(d) sequences show no polymorphism ↓
178 The technique of DNA fingerprinting was initially DNA hybridisation using (D)
developed by ↓
(a) Lalji Singh (b) Alec Jeffreys Detecting of hybridised DNA by (E)
(c) Frederick Sanger (d) Jacob and Monod
Complete the accompanying A, B, C, D and E in the
179 Alec Jeffreys used a satellite DNA as probe that flowchart are
shows very high degree of polymorphism. It was (a) A–Restriction endonuclease, B–Electrophoresis,
called as C–Nitrocellulose or nylon, D–Labelled VNTR probe,
(a) Short Number of Tandem Repeats (SNTRs) E–Autoradiography
(b) Large Number of Tandem Repeats (LNTRs) (b) A–Electrophoresis, B–Restriction endonuclease,
(c) Variable Number of Tandem Repeats (VNTRs) C–Nitrocellulose or nylon, D–Labelled VNTR probe,
(d) All of the above E–Autoradiography
180 VNTR belongs to the class of satellite DNA referred (c) A–Restriction endonuclease, B–Electrophoresis,
to as C–Labelled VNTR probe, D–Nitrocellulose or nylon,
(a) microsatellite DNA E–Autoradiography
(b) minisatellite DNA (d) A–Restriction endonuclease, B–Electrophoresis,
(c) megasatellite DNA C–Nitrocellulose or nylon, D–Autoradiography,
E–Labelled VNTR probe
(d) repetitive DNA
258 Which one of the following is true with respect to AUG? 263 Control of gene expression takes place at the level of
(a) It codes for methionine only (a) DNA-replication (b) transcription
(b) It is also an initiation codon (c) translation (d) None of these
(c) It codes for methionine in both prokaryotes and 264 In E. coli, the lac operon gets switched on when
eukaryotes (a) lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
(d) All of the above (b) repressor binds to operator
259 With regard to mature mRNA in eukaryotes (c) RNA polymerase binds to the operator
(a) exons and introns do not appear in the mature RNA (d) lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase
(b) exons appear, but introns do not appear in the mature 265 Regulatory proteins are the accessory proteins that
RNA interact with RNA polymerase and affect its role in
(c) introns appear, but exons do not appear in the mature transcription. Which of the following statements is
RNA
correct about regulatory protein?
(d) Both exons and introns appear in the mature RNA (a) They only increase expression
260 To initiate translation, the mRNA first binds to (b) They only decrease expression
(a) the smaller ribosomal subunit (c) They interact with RNA polymerase, but do not
(b) the larger ribosomal subunit affect the expression
(c) the whole ribosome (d) They can act both as activators and as repressors
(d) No such specificity exists
266 Which was the last human chromosome to be
261 If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5'–AUG–3', completely sequenced?
the sequence of tRNA pairing with it must be (a) Chromosome 1 (b) Chromosome 11
(a) 5′ – UAC – 3′ (b) 5′ – CAU – 3′ (c) Chromosome 21 (d) Chromosome-X
(c) 5′ – AUG – 3′ (d) 5′ – GUA – 3′
267 The human chromosome with the highest and least
262 The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its number of genes in them are respectively
(a) 5′-end (b) 3′-end (a) chromosome 21 and Y (b) chromosome 1 and X
(c) Anticodon site (d) DHU loop (c) chromosome 1 and Y (d) chromosome X and Y

Answers
> Mastering NCERT with MCQs
1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (d) 4 (a) 5 (c) 6 (a) 7 (a) 8 (a) 9 (b) 10 (b) 11 (a) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14 (d) 15 (b)
16 (c) 17 (c) 18 (d) 19 (c) 20 (c) 21 (c) 22 (c) 23 (c) 24 (a) 25 (c) 26 (a) 27 (d) 28 (a) 29 (b) 30 (c)
31 (a) 32 (a) 33 (c) 34 (d) 35 (c) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (a) 39 (a) 40 (a) 41 (b) 42 (d) 43 (d) 44 (c) 45 (b)
46 (b) 47 (a) 48 (b) 49 (a) 50 (d) 51 (d) 52 (b) 53 (c) 54 (a) 55 (c) 56 (a) 57 (b) 58 (a) 59 (c) 60 (a)
61 (b) 62 (b) 63 (a) 64 (c) 65 (b) 66 (a) 67 (c) 68 (d) 69 (b) 70 (a) 71 (a) 72 (d) 73 (a) 74 (b) 75 (a)
76 (c) 77 (a) 78 (c) 79 (a) 80 (b) 81 (b) 82 (c) 83 (d) 84 (a) 85 (a) 86 (a) 87 (b) 88 (*) 89 (c) 90 (c)
91 (c) 92 (a) 93 (d) 94 (c) 95 (c) 96 (b) 97 (a) 98 (c) 99 (d) 100 (d) 101 (b) 102 (b) 103 (a) 104 (b) 105 (c)
106 (a) 107 (c) 108 (a) 109 (b) 110 (b) 111 (c) 112 (d) 113 (d) 114 (b) 115 (a) 116 (a) 117 (c) 118 (c) 119 (a) 120 (a)
121 (c) 122 (c) 123 (c) 124 (c) 125 (a) 126 (a) 127 (c) 128 (c) 129 (a) 130 (b) 131 (a) 132 (c) 133 (d) 134 (c) 135 (c)
136 (a) 137 (c) 138 (d) 139 (c) 140 (b) 141 (c) 142 (d) 143 (b) 144 (a) 145 (c) 146 (b) 147 (b) 148 (d) 149 (b) 150 (b)
151 (a) 152 (a) 153 (c) 154 (b) 155 (a) 156 (a) 157 (a) 158 (d) 159 (d) 160 (d) 161 (c) 162 (d) 163 (b) 164 (c) 165 (d)
166 (a) 167 (a) 168 (c) 169 (a) 170 (d) 171 (d) 172 (c) 173 (d) 174 (d) 175 (a) 176 (b) 177 (a) 178 (b) 179 (c) 180 (b)
181 (a) 182 (c) 183 (a) 184 (a)
 Biotechnology and
its Applications
CHAPTER 12 > Biotechnology and its Applications 287

Mastering NCERT
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

TOPIC 1 ~ Biotechnological Applications in Agriculture

1 Biotechnology mainly deals with 9 Golden rice is a genetically modified crop plant with
(a) industrial scale production of biopharmaceutical the incorporated gene is meant for biosynthesis of
(b) biological use of genetically modified microbes, fungi, CBSE-AIPMT 2015
plants and animals (a) vitamin-B (b) vitamin-C
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) omega-3 (d) vitamin-A
(d) None of the above
10 Consumption of which one of the following foods can
2 The application of biotechnology includes all except prevent the kind of blindness associated with
(a) waste treatment vitamin-A deficiency? CBSE-AIPMT 2012
(b) energy production (a) Flavr Savr tomato (b) Canolla
(c) genetically modified crops (c) Golden rice (d) Bt brinjal
(d) conventional hybridisation 11 Which toxin is produced by Bacillus thuringiensis?
3 Applications like bioremediation, processed food, (a) Bt toxin (b) An acid
therapeutics and diagnostics are related to (c) t-toxin (d) None of these
(a) biochemistry (b) microbiology 12 The bacterium, Bacillus thuringiensis is widely used
(c) biotechnology (d) medical science in contemporary biology as an alternative of
4 Which of the following is/are the critical research (a) insecticides
area(s) of biotechnology? (b) agent for the production of dairy products
(a) Providing best catalyst (c) source of industrial enzyme
(b) Creating optimal conditions for catalyst function (d) indicator of water pollution
(c) Developing downstreaming processing technique 13 Which bacterium was the first to be used as
(d) All of the above biopesticide on the commercial scale in the world?
5 Which of the following is for increasing food (a) Bacillus thuringiensis
production? (b) Escherichia coli
(a) Agrochemical based agriculture (c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(b) Organic agriculture (d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(c) Genetically engineered crop-based agriculture 14 GM crops are designed to develop natural resistance
(d) All of the above from insects and pests. Which of the following crops
6 Organic agriculture is a technique of raising crops for are modified using Bacillus thuringiensis?
(a) increased food production (a) Corn and cotton
(b) reduction in required labour (b) Tomato and rice
(c) increasing the use of agrochemicals (c) Patato and soybean
(d) None of the above (d) All of the above
7 Use of genetically modified crops in crop field may 15 Which of the following Bt crops is being grown in
(a) reduce the harmful effects of fertilisers India by the farmers? NEET 2013
(b) maximise yield (a) Maize (b) Cotton
(c) be environment friendly (c) Brinjal (d) Soybean
(d) All of the above
16 Insect resistant transgenic cotton has been produced
8 Plants, bacteria, fungi and animals whose genes have by inserting a piece of DNA from
been altered by manipulation are called (a) an insect
(a) genetically modified organisms
(b) a bacterium
(b) hybrid organisms
(c) a wild relative of cotton
(c) pest resistant organisms
(d) a virus
(d) insect resistant organisms
17 Some strains of Bacillus thuringiensis produce 27 cry IIAb and cry IAb produce toxins that control
proteins that kill insects like AIIMS 2018
(a) lepidopterans (b) coleopterans (a) cotton bollworms and corn borer, respectively
(c) dipterans (d) All of these (b) corn borer and cotton bollworms, respectively
18 Bt toxin is (c) tobacco budworms and nematodes, respectively
(a) intracellular crystalline protein (d) nematodes and tobacco budworms, respectively
(b) extracellular crystalline protein 28 Which of the following nematodes infects the root of
(c) intracellular monosaccharide the tobacco plants which reduces the production of
(d) extracellular polysaccharide tobacco?
19 Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which (a) Wuchereria
contain a (b) Ascaris
(a) toxic insecticidal protein (c) Meloidegyne incognita
(b) non-toxic insecticidal protein (d) Enterobius
(c) simple protein 29 A novel strategy was adopted to prevent Meloidogyne
(d) simple lipids incognita infection in tobacco plants that was based
20 Bt toxin protein crystals present in bacterium Bacillus on the process of
thuringiensis, do not kill the bacteria because (a) DNA interference (b) RNA interference
(a) bacteria are resistant to the toxin (c) RNA initiation (d) DNA initiation
(b) bacteria enclose toxins in a special sac 30 In which of the following plants, resistance against a
(c) toxins occur as inactive protoxins in bacteria nematode was introduced by implying RNAi?
(d) None of the above (a) Tomato (b) Bt cotton
21 Bt toxin kills insects by (c) Tobacco (d) Golden rice
(a) inhibiting protein synthesis 31 RNAi stands for
(b) generating excessive heat (a) RNA interference (b) RNA interferon
(c) creating pores in the midgut epithelial cells, leading to (c) RNA inactivation (d) RNA initiation
cell swelling and lysis
32 RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a
(d) obstructing a biosynthetic pathway
method of
22 The Bt toxin protein (a) insect resistant (b) cellular defence
(a) increases the protein content (c) translation (d) None of these
(b) causes death of the insect ingesting it
33 Silencing of an unwanted gene could be achieved by
(c) stops egg laying of adult
the use of
(d) generating excessive heat
(a) RNAi (b) DNA polymerase
23 The choice of genes of Bacillus thuringiensis which is (c) Restriction enzymes (d) None of these
to be incorporated into crop depends upon
34 ‘Silencing of mRNA molecule’ in order to control the
(a) crop (b) targeted pest
production of a harmful protein has been used in the
(c) toxin (d) Both (a) and (b)
protection of plants from
24 The crops having cry genes need (a) bettles (b) armyworm
(a) no insecticide (c) budworm (d) nematodes
(b) small amount of insecticide
35 Transposons are also known as
(c) large amount of insecticide
(a) silenced genes
(d) None of the above
(b) mobile genetic elements
25 cry IIAb and cry IAc produce toxins that control (c) pleiotropic genes
(a) cotton bollworms and corn borer, respectively (d) Both (a) and (b)
(b) corn borer only
36 Tobacco plant resistant to a nematode have been
(c) cotton bollworms only
developed by the introduction of DNA, which is
(d) nematodes and tobacco budworms, respectively
produced (in the host cells) as
26 Bt corn has been made resistant to corn borer by the (a) an antifeedant
introduction of gene (b) both sense and antisense RNAs
(a) cry IAc (b) cry IIAb (c) a particular hormone
(c) cry IAb (d) cry IIAc (d) toxic protein
CHAPTER 12 > Biotechnology and its Applications 289

TOPIC 2 ~ Biotechnological Applications in Medicine

37 The first human hormone produced by recombinant 42 Which step was proved to be the main challenge in
DNA technology is CBSE-AIPMT 2014 the production of human insulin by recombinant DNA
(a) insulin technology?
(b) oestrogen (a) Splitting A and B–peptide chain
(c) thyroxin (b) Addition of C-peptide to proinsulin
(d) progesterone (c) Getting insulin assembled into mature form
38 What is the demerit of using bovine insulin (from (d) Removal of C-peptide from active insulin
cow) and porcine insulin (from pig) in diabetic 43 In 1983, which of the following companies prepared
patients? human insulin?
(a) It leads to hypercalcemia (a) Genetech (b) Eli Lilly
(b) It is expensive (c) GEAC (d) None of these
(c) It may cause allergic reactions
44 Second generation vaccines are prepared by
(d) It may lead to mutations in human genome
recombinant DNA technology. Which of the
39 The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked following is/are examples of such vaccines?
together by NEET 2016 (a) Herpes virus vaccine
(a) phosphodiester bonds (b) Hepatitis-B virus vaccine
(b) covalent bonds (c) Solk’s polio vaccine
(c) disulphide bridges (d) Both (a) and (b)
(d) hydrogen bonds
45 Treatment of a genetic disorder by manipulating
40 Select the correct set of the names labelled A, B, C genes is called
and D in the given diagram. (a) gene therapy
(b) rDNA technology
(c) bone marrow transplantation
A (d) enzyme replacement therapy
s 46 For the first time, gene therapy was tried on a 4 year
s
s s old girl in 1990 to treat which of the following
enzyme deficiency?
B (a) Cytosine Deaminase (CDA)
s s
s s (b) Adenosine Deaminase (ADA)
s s (c) Tyrosine oxidase
C (d) Glutamate trihydrogenase
D
47 Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a 4 year
old girl with Adenosine Deaminase (ADA)
(a) A–A-peptide, B–B-peptide, C–Proinsulin, D–Free deficiency? NEET 2016
C-peptide
(a) Gene therapy
(b) A–Proinsulin, B–A-peptide, C–B-peptide, D–Free
(b) Chemotherapy
C-peptide
(c) Immunotherapy
(c) A–Free C-peptide, B–A-peptide, C–B-peptide,
(d) Radiation therapy
D–Proinsulin
(d) A–A-peptide, B–B-peptide, C–Free C-peptide, 48 A patient has a defective gene for the enzyme
D–Proinsulin Adenosine Deaminase (ADA). He/She lacks
41 Which polypeptide chain is removed during the
functional cells and therefore, fails to fight the
maturation of proinsulin into insulin? infecting pathogens. The cells are
(a) A-chain ( 21 amino acids) (a) B-lymphocytes
(b) B-chain ( 30 amino acids) (b) Phagocytes
(c) C-chain ( 33 amino acids) (c) T-lymphocytes
(d) A and B-chains (d) Both (a) and (c)
49 Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency can be 54 PCR is used to
cured by …A… and …B… but it is not fully curative. (a) detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients
Here, A and B can be (b) detect mutations in the genes of suspected cancer
(a) A–gene therapy, B–radiation therapy patients
(b) A–bone marrow transplantation, B–enzyme (c) diagnose many genetic disorders
replacement therapy (d) All of the above
(c) A–organ transplantation, B–hormone replacement 55 A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a
therapy
radioactive molecule is called
(d) A–radiation therapy, B–enzyme replacement therapy
(a) plasmid
50 Which of the following is commonly used as a vector (b) vector
for introducing a DNA fragment in human (c) probe
lymphocytes? NEET 2018
(d) selectable marker
(a) λ-phage (b) Ti plasmid (c) Retrovirus (d) pBR322
56 In which of the following methods, a probe is allowed
51 What might be an advantage of beginning gene
therapy prior to birth? to hybridise to its complementary DNA in the clone
(a) This would give the body plenty of time of cells?
(b) The body would not reject it as it has not yet recognised (a) Gene therapy
‘self’ (b) Autoradiography
(c) The cells being extremely young are more receptive of (c) Polymerase chain reaction
gene therapy (d) Enzyme-Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay (ELISA)
(d) There probably is not any advantage
57 Technique used to detect mutated genes is called
52 Using conventional method for diagnosis is not very (a) gel electrophoresis
relevent because (b) polymerase chain reaction
(a) not reliable (b) early detection is not possible (c) gene therapy
(c) results are incorrect (d) All of these (d) autoradiography
53 Which one of the following molecular diagnostic 58 Which of the following techniques is based on the
techniques is used to detect the presence of a principle of antigen-antibody interaction?
pathogen in its early stage of infection? (a) PCR
(a) Angiography (b) ELISA
(b) Radiography
(c) Recombinant DNA technology
(c) Enzyme replacement technique
(d) Gene therapy
(d) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

TOPIC 3 ~ Transgenic Animals

59 Animals whose DNA is manipulated to possess and 62 Transgenic animals can be used to
express an extra (foreign) gene are known as (a) study normal physiology
(a) transgenic animals (b) study vaccine safety
(b) hybrid animals (c) to produce biological products
(c) transversion animals (d) All of the above
(d) All of the above 63 Transgenic animals that serve as model to study many
60 Transgenic animals are those which have foreign human diseases such as …… .
(a) DNA in all of their cells (a) Alzheimer’s disease (b) cancer
(b) Proteins in all of their cells (c) night blindness (d) Both (a) and (b)
(c) RNA in all of their cells 64 Which of the following transgenic human protein
(d) RNA in some of their cells products developed via rDNA technology and used to
61 Of all the existing transgenic animals, 95% are treat emphysema?
(a) pigs (b) cows (a) α-1 antitrypsin (b) α-1 globulin
(c) mice (d) rats (c) Cry IAb protein (d) Cry IIAc protein
65 Which gene was introduced in the first transgenic cow? 68 Which of the following transgenic animals are used in
(a) Human α-lactalbumin testing safety of polio vaccine before they are used on
(b) α-1-antitrypsin human?
(c) β-1-antitrypsin (a) Transgenic cow
(d) cry IAc (b) Transgenic monkey
66 When was the first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced? (c) Transgenic mice
(a) 1995 (b) 1997 (c) 1985 (d) 1987 (d) Transgenic sheep

67 The first transgenic cow, Rosie produced 69 What is the term used for animals that made to carry
(a) human protein enriched milk (2.4 g/L) genes, which make them more sensitive to the toxic
(b) human protein enriched milk (2.8 g/L) substances than other normal animals?
(c) human calcium enriched milk (2.4 g/L) (a) Transgenic (b) Transversion
(d) human calcium enriched milk (2.8 g/L) (c) Transition (d) Transformant

TOPIC 4 ~ Ethical Issues

70 In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the 75 Which Indian plants have either been patented or
safety of introducing genetically modified organisms attempts have been made to patent them by Western
for public use is NEET 2018, CBSE-AIPMT 2015 nations for their use?
(a) Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM) (a) Basmati rice (b) Turmeric
(b) Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) (c) Neem (d) All of these
(c) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) 76 Which of the following option is related to bioethics?
(d) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) (a) Process of discovery and commercialisation of new
71 A monopoly granted to a person who has either products
invented a new and useful article, made improvement (b) Use of bioresources without proper authorisation
in an existing article or invented a new process of (c) Both (a) and (b)
making an article is called (d) Standards used to regulate human activities in relation
(a) bioethics to the biological world
(b) patent 77 Exploitation of bioresources of a nation by
(c) biopiracy multinational companies without authorisation from
(d) genetic recombination the concerned country is referred to as
72 Biopatent means NEET (Odisha) 2019, NEET 2018
(a) right to use an invention (a) bioweapon (b) biopiracy
(b) right to use biological resources (c) bioethics (d) biowar
(c) right to use applications are processes 78 Biopiracy is related to which of the following?
(d) All of the above (a) Traditional knowledge exploitation
73 Basmati is unique for its aroma and flavour, whose (b) Biomolecules and regarding bioresources exploitation
A… documented varieties are cultivated in B… . (c) Stealing of bioresources
Here, A and B refer to (d) All of the above
(a) A–27, B–America (b) A–30, B–America 79 Which step has been taken by Indian Parliament to
(c) A–27, B–India (d) A–30, B–India meet and fulfil the requirements of patent terms and
74 A new variety of rice was patented by a foreign other emergency provisions in this regard?
company, though such varieties have been present in (a) Biopiracy act
India for a long time. This is related to NEET 2018 (b) Indian Patents Bill
(a) Lerma Rojo (b) Sharbati Sonora (c) Biowar act
(c) Co-667 (d) Basmati (d) Bioethics act
 Answers
‡ Mastering NCERT with MCQs

1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (d) 6 (d) 7 (d) 8 (a) 9 (d) 10 (c) 11 (a) 12 (a) 13 (a) 14 (d) 15 (b)
16 (b) 17 (d) 18 (a) 19 (a) 20 (c) 21 (c) 22 (b) 23 (d) 24 (a) 25 (c) 26 (c) 27 (a) 28 (c) 29 (b) 30 (c)
31 (a) 32 (b) 33 (a) 34 (d) 35 (b) 36 (b) 37 (a) 38 (c) 39 (c) 40 (b) 41 (c) 42 (c) 43 (b) 44 (d) 45 (a)
46 (b) 47 (a) 48 (d) 49 (b) 50 (c) 51 (b) 52 (b) 53 (d) 54 (d) 55 (c) 56 (b) 57 (d) 58 (b) 59 (a) 60 (a)
61 (c) 62 (d) 63 (d) 64 (a) 65 (a) 66 (b) 67 (a) 68 (c) 69 (a) 70 (d) 71 (b) 72 (d) 73 (c) 74 (d) 75 (d)
76 (d) 77 (b) 78 (d) 79 (b)