Name ................................................

REVISION TEST EXAM

Batch.................... Roll No. ...............
Batch : LT-22 - Revision Test (CBSE)
29-11-2021

22P
TP BIOLOGY
Time: 90 min Mark: 360

1. Number of cells in the female gametophyte not involved in double fertilization

A) Seven B) Five C) Three D) Two
2. In angiosperms, meiosis takes place in the following phase of life cycle
A) Sporogenesis B) Gametogenesis
C) Embryogenesis D) Endosperm development
3. A typical angiosperm with dithecous anther in flowers, possess 20 flowers; what will be the total number of
microsporangium in that plant [flowers possess tetradynamous androecium)
A) 40 B) 80 C) 120 D) 480
4. Ovules of angiosperm can be better defined as
A) Integumented megasporangium B) Integumented microsporangium
C) Embryosa D) Pollensac
5. An operon is a
A) Group of genes B) Group of codons
C) Group of genes and codons in m-RNA D) Group of genes, codons and anticodons of t-RNA
6. Which among the following enzyme is, commonly called as Kornberg enzyme’
A) RNA polymerase B) DNA polymerase C) Peptidyl transferase D) Reverse transcriptase
7. Match the special features of non-genetic RNAs given in column I with that of RNAs given is column II

Column I Column II
A) Most stable RNA 1) rRNA
B) Smallest RNA 2) m-RNA
C) Least abundant RNA 3) t-RNA
D) Most abundant RNA
E) Least stable RNA

A) A-1; B-1; C-1; D-2; E-3 B) A-1; B-3; C-2; D-1; E-2
C) A-2; B-3; C-2; D-1; E-1 D) A-3; B-2; C-1; D-2; E-1
8. Which among the following nitrogen base is commonly called as 6-aminopyrine
A) Adenine B) Guanine C) Thymine D) Uracil
9. Which one of the following codons codes for the same information as UGG
A) UGC B) UAG C) UUU D) None of these
10. Nucleosome is a portion of chromosome containing
A) Histones only B) Both DNA and histones
C) DNA only D) Both DNA and RNA
11. Which among the following ribosomal subunit is having peptidyl transferase activity
A) 30s B) 40s C) 50s D) A and B
21P
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12. The mose common embryosac in angiospermic

A) Monosporic, 2 mitotic, 8 nucleated B) Monosporic, 2 meiotic, 8 nucleated
C) Monosporic, 3 mitotic, 8 nucleated D) Monosporic, 3 meiotic, 8 nucleated
13. If a DNA is having the length of 13.6 nm; how many base pairs we are expecting in that DNA
A) 20 B) 40 C) 80 D) 160
14. Which among the following sentence is wrong about the experimental material of C.J. Mendel
A) It is a plant belongs to Fabaceae
B) Its common name is sweet pea and it possess 14 pairs of chromosome
C) It has a short generation time
D) It is naturally self-pollinated and we can impose artificial cross-pollination also
15. In the monohybrid genotypic ratio, 1:2:1, the numerical ‘2’ stands for
A) Homozygous dominant B) Homozygous recessive
C) Heterozygous dominant D) Dominant phenotype
16. Consider the following statements and indentify the correct option
Statement A: Law of segregation is based on the fact that the alleles do not show any blending and that
both the characters are recovered as such in the F2 generation, though one of these is not seen at the F1
stage.
Statement B: Law of segregation is also named as law of purity of zygote
A) Statement A and B are correct B) Statement A and B are wrong
C) Statement A is correct, B is wrong D) Statement A is wrong, B is correct
17. Reason for the appearance of only one parental form in the heterozygous condition is well explained
through the following law
A) Law of dominance B) Law of segregation
C) Law of purity of gamete D) Law of independent assortment
18. Match the name of characters given in Column I with that of the phenomena behind it given in Column II

Column I Column II
A) Flower colour of garden pea 1) Polygenic inheritance
B) Phenylketonuria 2) Complete dominance
C) Flower colour of mirabilis 3) Pleiotropy
D) Human skin colour 4) Incomplete dominance

A) A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4 B) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1

C) A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1 D) A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4
19. How many among the following statements are true
i) F1 always resembles any one parent with respect to Mendelism
ii) Monohybrid F1 can produce only one type of gamete
iii) F2 are formed from F1 through cross-pollination
iv) Ratios are the numerical summerisation of genotype and phenotype in the F1
v) F1 is formed through the artificial cross-pollination
A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1
21P
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20. If the blood group of one parent is A group and their offspring is of ‘O’ group; the possible group of second
parent is
A) A or O B) B or O C) A, B or O D) O group only
21. Additive or cumulative effect of dominant alleles of gene is reported in the following phenomena
A) Pleiotropy B) Polygenic inheritance
C) Co-dominance D) Multiple allelism
22. ABO blood group system in human being obeys the following phenomena
1) Complete dominance 2) Multiple allelism 3) Co-dominance 4) Incomplete dominance
A) 1,2 and 4 B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1,2 and 3 D) 1 and 3 only
23. Chromosome theory of inheritance is proposed by
A) T.H. Morgan and Henking B) Sutton and Boveri
C) C.J. Mendel and Bateson D) Alfred Sturtevant
24. Physical association of many genes on the same chromosome is named as linkage by
A) T.H. Morgan B) Alfred Sturtevant
C) Henking D) Waltor Sutton
25. Henking proposed chromosomal basis of sex determination on the basis of observation made in the organism
A) Birds B) Reptiles C) Insects D) Honey bee
26. Match the type of sex-determination given in Column-I with that of the examples given in column -II

Column-I Column-II
A) xx-yy type 1) Birds
B) xx-xo type 2) Humans
C) zw-zz type 3) Grass hopper
4) Reptiles
5) Cockroaches
6) Drosophila

A) A-1,3; B-2,4; C-5,6 B) A-2,6; B-3,5; C-1,4

C) A-5,6; B-3,4; C-1,2 D) A-2,5; B-1,4; C-3,6
27. Mutation due to the replacement of nitrogen bases in few nucleotides, so that length of DNA remains
unaffected is
A) Point mutation B) Frame-shift mutation
C) Deletion D) Duplication
28. Carrier male is not possible in the case of following disorder
A) Phenylketonuria B) Sickle-cell anaemia
C) Thalassemia D) Haemophilia
29. Phenyl ketonuria is a Mendelian disorder due to the defect in
A) Amino acid metabolism B) Lipid metabolism
C) Nucleic acid metabolism D) Sugar metabolism
21P
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Passage
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions.
The typical ovule is attached to the parent chymatous cushion placenta by means of funicle. The body of
the ovule fuses with funicle in the region called hilum. Funicle has vascular strand for the supplyof nourishment
to the ovule. Thus, hilum represents the junction between ovule and funicle. Each ovule has one or two
protective envelops called integuments. Integuments encircle the ovule except at the tip where a small
opening called the micropyle is organised. Opposite the micropylar end, is chalaza, representing the basal
part of the ovule. Enclosed within the integuments is a mass of parenchymatous cells called the nucellus.
Cells of the nucellus have abundant reserve food materials. Inside the nucellus is the development of
embryo sac or female gametophyte. An ovule generally has a single embryo sac formed from a megaspore.
30. In the flowering plants archesporium gives rise to:
A) Wall of sporangium B) Tapetum and sporogenous cells
C) Anther D) Connective
31. Integument of ovule gets transformed into:
A) Seed B) Seed coat
C) Fruit wall D) None
32. In 82% of angiosperm families nature ovule is:
A) Anatropous B) Amphitropous
C) Orthotropous D) All the above
33. Match the following ovular structure with post fertilization structure and select the correct alternative:
A) Ovule 1) Endosperm
B) Funiculus 2) Aril
C) Nucellus 3) Seed
D) Polar nuclei 4) Perisperm
A) 2,3,4,1 B) 2,3,1,4 C) 3,2,4,1 D) 3,2,1,4
34. Micropyle in flowering plants occurs in:
1) Seed 2) Ovule 3) Ovary 4) Stigma
A) 1,2 and 3 are correct B) 1 and 2 are correct C) 2 and 4 are correct D) 1 and 3 are correct
Assertion-Reason Type
In the following questions a statement of Assertion followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given.
Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
A) Assertion and reason are true correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion
B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion
C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement
D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement
35. Assertion: Synergids absorb nourishment from the nucellus
Reason: These also act as shock absorber during the penetration of pollen tube
Passage
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions.
Though the genotypic ratios can be calculated using mathematical probability, but simply looking at the
phenotype of a dominant trait, it is not possible to know the genotypic composition. That is, for example,
whether a tall plant from F1 or F2 has TT or Tt composition, cannot be predicted. Therefore, to determine
the genotype of a tall plant at F2, Mendel crossed the tall plant from F1 with a dwarf plant i.e., recessive
parent. This he called a test cross. In a typical test cross an organism like Pea plants showing a dominant
phenotype and whose genotype is to be determined is crossed with the recessive parent instead of self-
crossing or selfing. The progenies of such a cross can easily be analysed to predict the genotype ofthe test
organism.
21P
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36. What ratio did you get during test cross of a Pea plant?
A) 1:2:1 B) 1:1 C) 3:1 D) 2:1
37. With the help of Punnett square, try to find out the nature of offsprings of a test cross?
A) 25% hybrid tall and 25% dwarf
B) 75% hybrid tall and 25% dwarf
C) 50% hybrid tall and 50% dwarf
D) 15% hybrid tall and 85% dwarf
38. Using the genotypes of test cross, can you give a general definition for a test cross?
A) TT × tt B) Tt × tt C) Tt × Tt D) tt × tt
39. Test cross is a cross between
A) F1 tall plant and F1 dwarf plant B) F1 tall plant and F1 recessive parent
C) F1 tall plant and F1 dominant parent D) F1 dwarf plant and F1 dominant parent
40. Significance of the test cross in the genetics is to determine
A) Genotype of a hybrid Pea plant B) Genotype of a tall Pea plant
C) Genotype of a dwarf Pea plant D) Phenotype of a hybrid Pea plant
Assertion-Reason Type
In the following questions a statement of Assertion followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given.
Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
A) Assertion and reason are true correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion
B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion
C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement
D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement
41. Assertion: Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as alleles
Reason: Mendel proposed that something was being stably passed down, unchanged from parents to
offsprings through gametes
42. Assertion : Number of linkage groups in Pisum sativum is 7.
Reason: Number of linkage groups in an organism is equal to its haploid number of chromosomes
Assertion-Reason Type
In the following questions a statement of Assertion followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given.
Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
A) Assertion and reason are true correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion
B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion
C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement
D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement
43. Assertion: A typic nucleosome contains 200 hp of DNA helix
Reason: Nucleosome contains H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 bistone proteins
44. Assertion: Transcription unit in eukaryotes is monocistronic type
Reason: Transcription unit in prokaryotes is polycistronic type
45. Mendel conducted hybridisation experiment during the period
A) 1822 - 1856 B) 1856 - 1863 C) 1865 - 1884 D) 1884 - 1900
21P
TP/[C1] 6 N/Biology

46. Spermiogenesis is a process in which

A) Androgens transform diploid spermatids into haploid spermatozoa
B) Some factors are secreted by the sertoli cells which transform diploid spermatids into haploid spermatozoa
C) LH acts at the Leydig cells and stimulates synthesis and secretion of androgens which transform diploid
spermatid into haploid spermatozoa
D) FSH acts on the sertoli cells and stimulates secretion of some factors which transform haploid spermatids
into haploid spermatozoa
47. If the deferens of a man is surgically removed or tied up through a small incision on the scrotum
A) Spermatogenesis will not occur
B) Blocks gamete transport and these by prevent conception
C) Semen will be without gametes
D) Both B and C
48. In reproduction of a test tube baby :
A) Foetus is grown in a test tube
B) Fertilisation is done outside body
C) Fertilisation is done outside the body in almost similar conditions as that in the body, followed by
embryo transfer.
D) Both fertilisation and development inside the body
49. Placenta is formed from
A) Maternal and foetal portions both B) Maternal part only
C) Embryonic part only D) Uterine part only
50. In human beings, maturation of sperm take place at a temperature
A) Higher than the normal internal body temperature
B) Lower than the normal internal body temperature
C) Equal to that of normal internal body temperature
D) No matter how much body temperature it affects
51. Find out the mismatch

Increases gradually
during the follicular
phase and stimulate
A) Gonadotropins follicular development
as well as secretion of
estrogens by the
growing follicle
Attain a peak level in
B) LH and FSH the middle
of menstrual cycle

Act on the sertoli cells

and helps
C) FSH
in the process of
spermiogenesis

Act at the Leydig cells

D) LH and stimulates
the process of oogenesis
21P
TP/[C1] 7 N/Biology

52. In parturition process, which of the following do not happen?

A) Parturition is induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism
B) Foetal ejection reflex triggers release of oxytocin from the foetal pituitary
C) The stimulatory reflex between the uterine contraction and oxytocin secretion continues resulting in
stronger and stronger contractions
D) Soon after the infant is delivered, the placenta is also expelled out of the uterus
53. After menarche, what is the form of the ovum coming out of a female’s ovary?
A) Oogonia B) Primary oocyte
C) Secondary oocyte D) First polar body
54. The layer of cells immediately surrounding the ovum but outside the zona pellucida is called
A) Membrane granulosa B) Plasma membrane
C) Germinal epithelium D) Corona radiata
55. If both ovaries are removed from human female, then which hormone are decreased in blood
A) Prolactin and oxytocin B) Estrogen and progesterone
C) FSH and LH D) Prolactin and Estrogen
56. Which one of the following statements with regard to embryonic development in humans is correct?
A) The mitotic division starts as the zygote moves through the isthmus of the oviduct called cleavage
towards the uterus
B) The morula continues to divide and transfer into zygote as it moves further into the uterus
C) The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranges into an outer layer called ectoderm
D) An inner group of cells attached to trophoblast called endoderm
57. During oogenesis, which one of the following stage exactly start cell division and enter into prophase I of the
meiotic division and get temporarly arrested?
A) Primary oocyte within the graafian follicle B) Primary oocyte within the primary follicle
C) Secondary oocyte at the time of ovulation D) Secondary oocyte prior to ovulation
58. Parturition is induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism involving hormones like :
A) Cortisol B) Oxytocin C) Estrogen D) All of these
59. Which among the following related to an ideal contraceptive is correct?
A) It shouldnot be use friendly
B) It should in no way interfere with the sexual drive, desire and/the sexual act of the user
C) It should be irreversible with no side effect.
D) Easily available and ineffective
60. The structure which provides vascular connection between foetus and uterus is:
A) Placenta B) Blastocyst C) Morula D) Gastrula
61. Name the hormones involved in regulation of spermatogenesis
A) Androgens and Oxytocin
B) Growth hormone and Prolactin
C) Androgens and Estrogens
D) Follicle stimulating hormone and Luteinising hormones
21P
TP/[C1] 8 N/Biology

62. Which one of the following statement with regard to the contraceptive methods is correct
A) Surgical methods of contraception prevent the flow of gamete during intercourse
B) Oral pills are very popular contraceptive among the rural women
C) Diaphragm, Cervical caps and vault are intra uterine devices
D) In periodic abstinence, the couples abstain from coitus from day 1 to 7 of the menstrual cycle
63. 16 blastomeres stage of human embryo is:
A) Two times the size of fertilised ovum B) Four times the size of fertilised ovum
C) Same size as fertilised ovum D) Smaller than fertilised ovum
64. In which part of the female accessory ducts, fimbriae is associated?
A) Ampulla of fallopian tube B) Infundibulum of fallopian tube
C) Isthmus of fallopian tube D) Ampullary-isthmic junction of fallopian tube
65. Identify the mismatched pair:

A) Medical termination
Induced abortion
of pregnancy
B) Reproductive
Veneral diseases
Tract Infections
Test tube baby
C) In-vivo fertilisation
programme

D) Reproductive child
RCH
Health Programme

66. According to 2011 census report population growth rate is India was:
A) less than 2 per cent i.e 20/1000/year B) More than 2 per cent i.e 20/1000/ year
C) less than 1.7 per cent i.e 17/1000/year D) More than 1.7 per cent i.e 17/1000/year
67. Which one of the following is not a male accessory duct?
A) Vas deferens B) Epididymis C) Rete testis D) Urethral Meatus
68. In secondary follicle, each primary oocyte is surrounded by:
A) Granulosa cells only
B) More layers of granulosa cells and a new theca
C) Zona pellucida
D) Only a few granulosa cells
69. Genetic constitution of primary oocyte-found in the secondary follicle is?
A) 22 + X B) 22 + Y C) 44 + XX D) 44 + XY
70. Medical termination of pregnancy, which is legalised in India, should be generally performed only in which
case?
A) To get rid of unwanted pregnancy due to rapes, casual relationship etc
B) In cases when the continuation of pregnancy could be harmful or even fatal to either the mother, or the
foetus or both
C) There is a substantial risk that of the child were born, it would suffer from such physical or mental
abnormalities as to be seriously handicapped
D) All of the above
21P
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71. ‘Gamete intra fallopian transfer is a technique practiced under:

A) Assisted reproductive technologies B) Medical termination of pregnancy
C) Reproductive child health programme D) Contraceptive methods
72. After which cell division second polar bodies are formed in fallopian tube:
A) Meiosis I B) Meiosis II C) Mitosis D) Amitosis
73. What is the function of contraceptive pills, implants and injections?
A) Inhibit ovulation
B) Inhibit implantation
C) Alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/retard entry of sperm
D) All of these
74. Find out the mismatch which never represent one and the same thing?

A) Infundibulum Funnel shaped

B) Fimbriae Finger like projections
C) Womb Inverted peas shaped
D) Labia minora Unpaired fold of tissue

75. Which one of the following is a common feature of spermatogenesis and oogenesis?
A) First meiotic division of germ cells reduce the chromosome number
B) Spermatogenesis and oogenesis are regulated by the endocrine system
C) Second meiotic division of germ cells reduce the chromosome number
D) Both A and B
76. How many eggs are released by a human ovary in a month?
A) An ovary releases 60, 000-80,000 eggs every month
B) An ovary releases an egg every month
C) An ovary releases an egg every week
D) An ovary releases two eggs every week
77. Which of the following contraceptive methods contain progesterone alone or in combination with estrogen
A) Pills, Vaults and Diaphragm
B) Non-medicated IUD, Cu- releasing IUD and vault
C) Lactational amenorrhoea, cervical caps and implants
D) Contraceptive pills, Injections or implants
78. Choose the correct statement from the following
A) Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete formation
B) Oral pills are very popular contraceptive among he Urban women
C) All sexually transmitted diseases are completely curable
D) In ET techniques embryos are always transferred into the uterus
79. Each testis has how many testicular lobules?
A) About 1 to 3 B) About 150
C) About 200 - 300 million D) About 250
21P
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80. During implantation:

A) The morula becomes embedded in the endometrium of the uterus
B) The blastocyst becomes embedded in the endometrium of the uterus
C) The zygote becomes embedded in the endometrium of the uterus
D) The inner cell mass becomes embedded is the endometrium of the uterus
81. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are
A) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin B) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
C) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens D) hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids
82. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within
A) 72 hrs of coitus B) 72 hrs of ovulation
C) 72 hrs of menstruation D) 72 hrs of implantation
83. If in a population, natality is balanced by mortality, then there will be
A) decrease in population growth B) increase in population growth
C) zero population growth D) over population
84. In India which of the following contraceptive methods is most widely accepted?
A) Tubectomy and vasectomy B) Oral contraceptive pills
C) Intra uterine contraceptive methods D) Vault
85. Starting from the maximum, arrange the secretions of the following male accessory sex glands in the correct
sequence.
i) Prostate gland ii) Seminal vesicle iii) Bulbourethral glands
A) i > ii > iii B) iii > ii > i C) ii > i > iii D) ii > iii > i
Assertion - Reason Type (29- 32)
In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding
statement of Reason (R) just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer.
1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3) If assertion is true but reason is false
4) If assertion is false but reason is true
86. Assertion : Blood analysis of a 25 year lady shows excess presence of hCG
Reason : The lady is pregnant, because hCG production takesplace only during pregnancy
87. Assertion : Periodic abstinence is a method in which couples are supposed to avoid coitus from day 10th to
17th of menstrual cycle
Reason : This method is also called ‘safe period’ method because chances of fertilisation are very less
during this period.
Read the following passage and answer the questions
Each testicular lobule contains one to three highly coiled seminiferous tubules in which sperms are pro-
duced. Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by two types of cells called male germ
cells(spermatogonia) and Sertoli cells . The male germ cells undergo meiotic divisions finally leading to
sperm formation, while Sertoli cells provide nutrition to the germ cells. The regions outside the seminiferous
tubules called interstitial spaces, contain small blood vessels and interstitial cells or Leydig cells. Leydig
cells synthesise and secrete testicular hormones called androgens. Other immunologically competent cells
are also present.
21P
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88. Seminiferous tubules lined by two types of cells. They are..............

A) Male germ cells and Leydig cells B) Sertoli cells and Leydig cells
C) Male germ cells and Sertoli cells D) Sertoli cells and oogonia
89. Which cells in testis synthesise and secrete androgens
A) Interstitial cells B) Leydig cells C) Sertoli cells D) Both A and B
90. .......provide nutrition to the male germ cells
A) Leydig cell B) Spermatogonia C) Interstitial cells D) Sertoli cells
Name ................................................
REVISION TEST EXAM
Batch.................... Roll No. ...............
Batch : LT-22 - Revision Test (CBSE)
29-11-2021

22P
TP BIOLOGY

1. B 21. B 41. B 61. D 81. C

2. A 22. C 42. A 62. A 82. A
3. D 23. B 43. C 63. C 83. C
4. A 24. A 44. A 64. B 84. C
5. A 25. C 45 B 65. C 85. C
6. B 26. B 46. D 66. A 86. A
7. B 27. A 47. D 67. D 87. C
8. A 28. D 48. C 68. B 88. C
9. D 29. A 49. A 69. C 89. D
10. B 30. B 50. B 70. D 90. D
11. C 31. B 51. D 71. A
12. C 32. A 52. B 72. B
13. B 33. C 53. C 73. D
14. B 34. B 54. D 74. D
15. C 35. B 55. B 75. D
16. C 36. B 56. A 76. B
17. A 37. C 57. B 77. D
18. C 38. B 58. D 78. B
19. C 39. B 59. B 79. D
20. C 40. B 60. A 80. B