CHAPTER - 6 DPP

Molecular Basis of Inheritence

1. Monomer of nucleic acids are – D) Pentose sugar + nitrogenous base
A) Peptides + sulphate group
B) Nucleosides 6. Which of these is a purine –
C) Ribonucleosides A) Cytosine
D) None of these B) Adenine
2. DNA and RNA are types of – C) Thiamine
A) Nucleotides D) More than one is correct
B) Nucleosides 7. Which of these is a pyrimidine –
C) Nucleic acids A) Adenine
D) Nucleamides B) Thiamine
C) Guanine
Paragraph 6.1 D) None of these
The DNA 8. Which of these is a correct
3. Length of DNA is usually defined as- combination for a DNA nucleotides
A) Number of nucleotides present in A) Oxy ribose + Phosphate + Uracil
it B) Oxy ribose + Phosphate + Thymine
B) Number of pair of nucleotides C) Deoxy ribose + Phosphate + Uracil
present in it D) Deoxy ribose + Phosphate +
C) Number of base pairs present in it Thymine
D) All of these 9. All the given nucleotides exists, except
4. Match the length of DNA with the –
correct organisms – A) Deoxy uridine
A B B) Thymine
I Φ × 174 1 4.6 × 106 bp C) Both A & B
(base pairs) D) None of these
II Bacteriophage 2 3.3× 109 bp 10. Nitrogenous base is linked to which
γ carbon of pentose sugar
III E. coli 3 48502 bp A) 1’C
IV Human DNA 4 5386 B) 2’C
(haploid) nucleotides C) 3’C
D) 5’C
I II III IV 11. Nitrogenous base is linked to pentose
A) 4 3 1 2 sugar by which bond –
B) 3 4 2 1 A) N – Glycosidic bond
C) 4 3 2 1 B) Phosphoester bond
D) 3 4 1 2 C) Phosphodiester bond
D) Peptide bond
12. Phosphate group is linked to which
Paragraph 6.1.1
carbon of pentose sugar
Structure of polynucleotides chain A) 1’C
5. A nucleotides contains – B) 2’C
A) Hexose sugar + nitrogenous base + C) 3’C
phosphate group D) 5’C
B) Pentose sugar + nitrogenous base
+ phosphate group
C) Hexose sugar + nitrogenous base +
sulphate group
 CHAPTER - 6 DPP

13. Identify the free ends of given 19. The proposition of base pairing
polynucleotides chain – between the two stands of
polynucleotide chain in double Helix
model of DNA was based on
observation of –
A) Maurice Wilkins
B) Rosalind Franklin
I II
C) Erwin Chargaff
A 3’ phosphate 5’ hydroxyl
D) Both A & B
B 5’ hydroxyl 3’ phosphate
20. The two chains of double Helix DNA
C 5’ phosphate 3’ hydroxyl
have –
D 3’ hydroxyl 5’ phosphate
A) Parallel polarity
B) Anti-parallel polarity
14. Backbone of polynucleotide chain is
C) No polarity
formed due to –
D) Depends on organism
A) Sugar and N-base
21. The bases in two stands of DNA are
B) Sugar and phosphate
paired through
C) Phosphate and N – Base
A) Hydrogen bond
D) All of these
B) Peptide bond
15. Which is correct about thymine &
C) Glycosidic bond
uracil –
D) Sulfide bond
A) Uracil id 5-methyl thymine
22. Which of the following is true about
B) Thymine is 5-methyl uracil
base pairing in DNA –
C) Uracil is 5-ethyl thymine
A) Adenine forms two hydrogen bond
D) Thymine in 5-ethyl uracil
with Guanine
16. DNA is –
B) Adenine forms three hydrogen
A) Acidic and positively charged
bond with Guanine
B) Basic and positively charged
C) Adenine forms two hydrogen bond
C) Acidic and negatively charged
with Thymine
D) Basic and negatively charged
D) Adenine forms three hydrogen
17. Name of DNA as ‘Nuclein’ was given
bond with Thymine
by –
23. Which of the following is true about
A) Francis crick
base pairing in DNA –
B) Erwin Chargaff
A) Guanine forms two H-bond with
C) Friedrich Meischer
Cytosine
D) Rosalind Franklin
B) Guanine forms three H-bond with
18. Double Helix for structure of DNA
Cytosine
model was proposed by –
C) Guanine forms two H-bond with
A) Wilkins and Franklin based on
Adenine
their X-ray diffraction date
D) Guanine forms three H-bond with
B) Watson and Crick based on their
Adenine
X-ray diffraction date
24. Uniform distance between two stands
C) Chargaff based on their X-ray
of Helix is due to –
diffraction date
A) Double and triple bond formed
D) None of these
between base pairs
B) Sugar – phosphate backbone
C) Purine – pyrimidine base pairing
D) None of these
 CHAPTER - 6 DPP

25. How many of the following statements 30. Assertion : In E. coli, DNA is scattered
about Double – helix structure of DNA throughout the cell
is correct – Reason : In E. coli, there is no defined
i) Two chains are coiled in right – nucleus
handed fashion A) Both Assertion & Reason are
ii) Pitch of helix is 3.6 nm correct & Reason is correct
iii) There are roughly 10 bp in explanation for Assertion
each turn B) Both Assertion & Reason are
iv) Plane of one base pair stacks correct but Reason is not correct
over the other explanation for Assertion
A) 1 C) Assertion is correct and Reason is
B) 2 incorrect
C) 3 D) Reason is correct and Assertion is
D) 4 incorrect
26. Pitch of helix in double helix DNA is – 31. Histones are –
A) 3.6 nm A) Positive and acidic in eukaryotes
B) 3.4 nm B) Positive and acidic in prokaryotes
C) 3.2 nm C) Positive and basic in eukaryotes
D) 3.8 nm D) Positive and basic in prokaryotes
27. Central dogma in molecular biology 32. Assertion – Histones are positively
was proposed by – charged
A) Crick Reason – Histones are rich in basic
B) Watson amino acid residues lysine and
C) F. Meischar arginine
D) Chragaff A) Assertion & Reason are correct
28. Identify correct labels – and Reason is correct explanation
for Assertion
B) Assertion & Reason are correct
and Reason is not the correct
explanation for Assertion
(i) (ii) (iii) C) Assertion is correct and Reason is
A Replication Translation Transcription
wrong
B Replication Transcription Translation
D) Both Assertion and Reason are
C Transcription Replication Translation
wrong
D Translation Replication Transcription
33. Histones are organized into –
A) Hexamer
Paragraph 6.1.2 B) Octamer
Packaging of DNA Helix C) Tetramer
29. If length of E. coli DNA is 1.36 mm, D) Dimer
calculate number of base pair in E. 34. A typical nucleosome contain _____ bp
coli? Given – distance between of DNA has
consecutive base pairs is 0.34 × 10-9 A) 200
m. B) 400
A) 4 × 106 C) 600
B) 4 × 109 D) 800
C) 4 × 10-6 35. Repeating unit of chromatin –
D) 4 × 1012 A) Are nucleosomes
B) Are seen as ‘beads-on-string’
under electron microscope
C) Are packed to form fibres
 CHAPTER - 6 DPP

D) All of these A) At all times in cell

B) Only during cell division – formed
at prophase
C) Only during cell division – formed
at metaphase
D) Only during cell division – formed
at Interphase

39. In a typical nucleus, euchromatin &

36. The figure show – hetero chromatin are present. Choose
the correct set of characters for
heterochromatin –
i) Loosely packed
ii) Densely packed
iii) Light stain
iv) Dark stain
v) Inactive chromatin
vi) Active chromatin
A) i, iii, v
B) ii, iv, vi
A) Beads-on-string C) i, iii, vi
B) A nucleosome D) ii, iv, v
C) Chromatin 40. Choose correct set of characters for
D) More than one option is correct euchromatin
37. Identify the correct label for given i) Loosely packed
figure ii) Densely packed
iii) Light stain
iv) Dark stain
v) Inactive chromatin
vi) Active chromatin
A) i, iii, v
B) ii, iv, vi
C) i, iii, vi
D) ii, iv, v

6.2 The Search for Genetic

Material
(i) (ii) (iii) Transforming Principle
A H2 DNA Histone
41. Griffith's experiments were conducted
histone octamer in-
B H1 Histone DNA A) 1928
histone octamer B) 1958
C H2 Histon DNA C) 1978
histone octamer D) 1968
D H1 DNA Histone 42. The experiment of Griffith was
histone octamer performed in-
A) Diplococcus pneumoniae, bacteria
38. Chromosomes are connected B) Haemophilus influenzas, fungi
chromatin fibres present – C) Streptococcus pneumoniae, fungi
 CHAPTER - 6 DPP

D) None of these D) None

43. Match the given columns- 49. Avery, Macleod & McCarty discovered
I II III that-
(i) R- (a) Smoot (1) Mucou A) DNA caused transformation
strai h s coat B) RNA caused transformation
n
C) Protein caused transformation
(ii) S- (b Rough (2) No
strai ) colonie mucou D) Lipid caused transformation
n s s coat 50. Which enzyme inhibited the
A) (i)-(a)-(1) transformation-
B) (i)-(b)-(1) A) Protease
C) (ii)-(a)-(1) B) RNase
D) (ii)-(a)-(2) C) DNase
44. Which strain of the microbe used D) All
Griffith is virulent-
A) S-strain 6.2.1 The Genetic Material is
B) R-strain DNA
C) Both
51. Unequivocal proof that DNA is genetic
D) None
material came from experiments of-
45. Griffith observed that the mice died
A) Avery, Macleod & McCarty
surprisingly the following combination
B) Hershey and Chase
of strains was used, which was
C) de Vries, Correns and Tschermak
unusual-
D) Sutton and Boveri
A) S-strain heat killed
52. The scientists of Q-11 worked with-
B) Heat killed S-strain
A) a virus
C) Heat killed R-strain + Live S-strain
B) a bacteria
D) Heat killed S-strain + Live R-strain
C) a fungi
46. In Griffith experiment
D) a nematode
A) R-strain transformed to S-strain
53. In the experiment performed for
and became virulent
proving DNA as genetic material, the
B) R-strain transformed to S-strain
bacteriophages were grown on
and lost virulence
medium containing-
C) S-strain transformed to R-strain
A) radioactive sulfur
and became virulent
B) radioactive nitrogen
D) S-strain transformed to R-strain
C) radioactive phosphorous
and lost virulence
D) More than one option
47. Griffith claimed that-
54. The bacteriophages growing in
A) Some protein was transferred
presence of radioactive phosphorous
among bacteria
__(i)__ contained radioactive __(ii)__.
B) Some DNA was transferred among
bacteria (i) (ii)
A) P32 DNA
C) Some carbohydrates was
B) P35 Protein
transferred among bacteria
C) P32 Protein
D) None of these
D) P35 DNA
Biochemical Characterization of 55. Bacteriophages grown on radioactive
Sulphur __(i)__ contained radioactive
Transforming Principle __(ii)__.
48. Prior to work of Avery, Macleod and (i) (ii)
McCarty, genetic material was A) S32 DNA
thought to be- B) S32 Protein
A) Protein C) S35 DNA
B) DNA D) S35 Protein
56. The bacteria involved in Hershey &
C) RNA
chase experiment of 1952 was-
 CHAPTER - 6 DPP

A) Bacteriophage R - Heat can kill the bacteria and

B) E. coli completely destroy the properties of
C) S. pneumoniae genetic material
D) C. butyliwm A) Both A and R are true and R is
57. Bacteria infected with virus that correct explanation for A
showed radioactivity had- B) Both A and R are true but R is not
A) radioactive DNA (S32) correct explanation for R
B) radioactive DNA (S35) C) A is true but R is false
C) radioactive DNA (P32) D) Both A and R are false
D) radioactive DNA (P35) 62. Which is more structurally and
58. chemically stable?
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) Protein
D) All
63. RNA viruses show-
A) Less mutation
B) Faster evolution
C) Slower evolution
D) More than one option is correct
64. DNA is preferred by nature over RNA
for-
A) Storage of genetic information
B) Transmission of genetic
information
C) Expression of genetic information
D) More than one
Identify the correct label.
1 2 3 6.3 RNA World
A) Blending Infection Centrifuga
65. Choose incorrect statement RNA-
tion
B) Infection Blending Centrifuga A) was first genetic material
tion B) acts as catalyst too
C) Centrifug Infection Blending C) is more stable than DNA
ation D) has protein synthesizing
D) Blending Centrifuga Infection mechanism built around it
tion
6.2.2 Properties of Genetic 6.4 Replication
Material (DNA vs RNA) 66. Scheme for replication of DNA was
59. RNA is genetic material in- proposed by-
A) TMV A) Watson & Crick
B) QB Bacteriophage B) Meselson & Stahl
C) Both A and B C) Taylor
D) None of these D) Hershey & Chase
60. Properties of genetic material include- 67. The replication of DNA is-
A) Stable A) Conservative
B) Mutable B) Non-conservative
C) Replicable C) Semi-conservative
D) All of these D) All of these depending on organism
61. A - Stability as a property of genetic 68.
material was very evident in Griffith's
transforming principle.
 CHAPTER - 6 DPP

D) 14NH4Cl – 14N
is normal isotope of
nitrogen
72. The heavy DNA molecule containing
heavy isotope of N is distinguished
from normal DNA by-
A) UV rays
B) Ethidium bromide solution
C) Centrifugation is CsCl density
gradient
D) PCR technique
73. In Meselson & Stahl experiment, first
they-
A) grew bacteria on heavy isotope of
N medium followed by normal one
B) grew bacteria on normal isotope of
N medium followed by heavy one
C) grew bacteria on radioactive N
followed by Keavy one
D) grew bacteria on heavy isotope of
N followed by radioactive one
The figure shows- 74.
A) Conservative DNA replication
model
B) Semi-conservative DNA replication
model
C) Non-conservative DNA replication
model
D) Can't say

6.4.1 The Experimental Proof Identify the correct label

69. The DNA replication model (i) (i) (iii)
experimental proof was first shown in- A) Light Heavy Hybrid
A) Human cells B) Heavy Hybrid Light
B) E. coli C) Light Hybrid Light
C) Plant cell D) Heavy Hybrid Heavy
D) Vicia faba 75. In Meselson & Stahl expt a bacteria
70. Meselson and stahl performed after dividing in 20 minutes had a
experiment for proving DNA hybrid DNA. What will be the ratio of
replication scheme in- Hybrid to Light after 80 minutes?
A) 1952 A) 2 : 14
B) 1953 B) 14 : 2
C) 1958 C) 16 : 2
D) 1961 D) 2 : 16
71. The bacteria were grown in medium 76. Similar experiment on Vicia faba was
containing- conducted by ____ to detect
A) 15NH4Cl – 15N is heavy isotope of distribution of newly synthesized DNA
nitrogen in chromosomes.
B) 14NH4Cl – 14N is heavy isotope of A) Taylor et at
nitrogen B) Stahl et at
C) 15NH4Cl – 15N is normal isotope of C) Gamow et at
nitrogen D) Nirenberg et at
77. Experiment on Vicia faba involved use
of-
 CHAPTER - 6 DPP

A) Radioactive uridine B) continuous, discontinuous

B) Radioactive thymidine C) discontinuous, continuous
C) Radioactive adenosine D) discontinuous, discontinuous
D) Radioactive cytidine 84. DNA ligase act on-
A) 5' → 3' template strand
6.4.2 The Machinery and the B) 3' → 5' template strand
Enzymes C) Both A and B
D) Ligate RNA with vector of 3' → 5'
78. The main enzyme of replication is- polarity
A) RNA dependent RNA polymerase 85. The replication is eukaryotes take
B) RNA dependent DNA polymerase place in-
C) DNA dependent DNA polymerase A) M-phase
D) DNA dependent RNA polymerase B) G1 phase
79. Choose correct statement with regard C) S-phase
with efficiency of DNA polymerase. D) G2 phase
A) 4.6 × 106 bp of E. coli replicate 86. Polyploidy resulted by-
within 46 minutes A) A failure in cell division after DNA
B) The average rate of polymerization replication
of DNA polymerase has to be B) A failure in DNA replication after
approximately 2000 bp/minute cell division
C) The polymerization accuracy is C) A failure in cell division before
very high and very fast DNA replication
D) All of these D) A and C both
80. What is function of 87.
deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate-
A) It act as substrate
B) Provide energy for polymerization
C) A and B both
D) It is product formed after
polymerization
81. Assertion : The two strands of DNA
cannot be separated in their length.
Reason : Separation required very
high energy.
A) Both Assertion & Reason are
correct and reason is correct
explanation of assertion
B) Both Assertion & Reason are
correct and reason is not correct Correct label of A, B, C, D is-
explanation of assertion (i) A = Template parental strand
C) Assertion is correct, Reason is (ii) B = Newly synthesized strand
false (iii) D = Continuous strand
D) Assertion & Reason are false (iv) C = Discontinuous strand
82. Polymerization by DNA polymerase is A) i, ii only
in- B) iii, iv only
A) 3' → 5' direction only C) i, ii, iii, iv
B) 5' → 3' direction only D) None of these
C) A and B both
D) Random 6.5 Transcription
83. The template of replication fork with 88. Transcription is-
polarity 5' → 3' is ____ while 3' → 5' is A) The process of copying genetic
____. information from both strand of
A) continuous, continuous DNA into RNA
 CHAPTER - 6 DPP

B) The process of copying genetic 3' – AGCATGCA – 5'

information from one strand of A) 5' – TACGTACGT – 3'
DNA into RNA B) 5' – UACGUACGU – 3'
C) The process of copying genetic C) 3' – UACGUACGU – 5'
information from RNA into DNA D) 3' – TACGTACGT – 5'
D) A and B both 96. Label A, B, C, D, E of given diagram.
89. In transcription, adenosine bind wih Transcription
A) Thymine A start site E
B) Uracil 3` B C 5`
C) Cytosine
D) A and B both
90. Why both the strand of DNA are not
copied during transcription- 5` 3`
D
A) If both strands act a template, they
would code for RNA molecules with a b c d e
same sequence A) Prom Stru Tem Codi Termi
oter ctur plate ng nator
B) RNA formed by transcription of al stra stran
both strand, when code for gene nd d
protein, the sequence of amino
acid in protein are same B Termi Stru Codi Temp Prom
C) The two RNA molecules if ) nator ctur ng late oter
al stra stran
produced simultaneously would be
gene nd d
complementary to each other C Prom Tem Codi Struc Termi
D) All of these ) oter plat ng tural nator
91. Translation of RNA would be e stra gene
prevented if- stra nd
A) RNA is single strand nd
B) RNA is double-stranded D) None of these
C) RNA is produced by both strand of 97. Promoter is located-
DNA (i) 3' end
D) B and C both (ii) 5' end
(iii) upstream of structural gene
6.5.1 Transcription Unit (iv) downstream of structural gene
A) i, iii
92. Transcription unit primarily consist B) ii, iii
of- C) i, iv
A) 1 region D) ii, iv
B) 2 regions 98. Terminator is locator-
C) 3 regions (i) 3' end
D) None of these (ii) 5' end
93. Transcription primarily required- (iii) upstream of structural gene
A) RNA dependent RNA polymerase (iv) downstream of structural gene
B) DNA dependent RNA polymerase A) i, iii
C) DNA dependent DNA polymerase B) ii, iii
D) RNA dependents DNA polymerase C) i, iv
94. Template strand of transcription unit D) ii, iv
is/are-
A) 5' → 3' strand of DNA 6.5.2 Transcription unit and the
B) 3' → 5' strand of DNA gene
C) Site of catalysis of enzyme required
for transcription 99. A gene is defined as-
D) B and C both A) Functional unit of inheritance
95. What is coding strand of given B) Non-functional region of DNA that
template strand haven't any information
 CHAPTER - 6 DPP

C) A and B both 106. How many polymerase required

D) None of these is bacteria for transcription of all type
100. Cistron is- of RNA?
A) Segment of DNA coding for a A) One
polypeptide B) Two
B) Segment of RNA coding for a C) Three
polypeptide D) Five
C) Segment of DNA that are non- 107. Choose incorrect step about
coding sequence transcription.
D) Segment of RNA have not any A) RNA polymerase binds to promoter
coding sequence and initiate transcription.
101. Choose the correct statement. B) Nucleotide triphosphate act as
A) Monocistronic eukaryotic substrate and polymerization in a
structural gene have interrupted template.
coding sequence. C) A short stretch of RNA remains
B) Polycistronic prokaryotic bound to enzyme.
structural gene have interrupted D) Last step is termination.
coding sequence. 108. Initiation factor and
C) Monocistronic prokaryotic termination factor are-
structural gene have interrupted A) Sigma and Rho factor respectively.
coding sequence. B) Rho and Sigma factor respectively.
D) A and B both C) Rho and Rho factor respectively.
102. Exons are- D) Sigma and Sigma factor
A) Coding sequence respectively.
B) Non-coding sequence 109. Translation & transcription in
C) Expressed sequence eukaryote occur in
D) A and C both A) Cytoplasm & nucleus respectively
103. Intron- B) Nucleus & cytoplasm respectively
A) appear is mature or processed C) Cytosol
RNA D) Nucleus
B) do not appear in mature or 110. Which of following can be
processed RNA coupled in bacteria?
C) appear is prokaryotes A) Replication & transcription
D) B and C both B) Transcription & translation
C) Replication & translation
6.5.3 Types of RNA & Process of D) None of these
Transcription 111. Transcription of 18 s rRNA is
done by ____ in eukaryote.
104. Which of following play role is A) RNA pol. I
protein synthesis of prokaryote? B) RNA pol. II
A) r-RNA C) RNA pol. III
B) t-RNA D) All of these
C) m-RNA 112. Choose incorrect statement.
D) All of these A) 5.8 s r-RNA and 5 s-RNA
105. The function of some RNA are transcribes by same RNA
given below choose the incorrect one. polymerase in eukaryote.
A) mRNA provide template strand B) hnRNA & mRNA transcribe by
B) mRNA provide non-template same RNA polymerase in
strand eukaryote.
C) tRNA bring amino acid C) tRNA & snRNA transcribes by
D) rRNA play structural & catalytic same RNA polymerase in
role eukaryote.
D) None of these
 CHAPTER - 6 DPP

113. Splicing is required to- 120. Sickle cell anaemia is classical

A) remove intron in eukaryote example of-
B) remove exon in eukaryote A) point mutation
C) remove exon in prokaryote B) frameshift mutation
D) remove intron in prokaryote C) deletion mutation
114. Capping is- D) addition mutation
A) Addition of methyl guanosine 121. In sickle cell anaemia, there are
triphosphate at 5' end changes in gene for-
B) addition of adenylate residue at 3' A) alpha globin chain
end B) beta globin chain
C) addition of methyl guanosine C) gamma globin chain
triphosphate at 3' end D) delta globin chain
D) addition of adenylate residue at 5' 122. In sickle cell anaemia,
end resultant effect of mutation is change
115. The fully processed hnRNA is- of amino acid residue-
A) tRNA A) Valine to alanine
B) mRNA B) Valine to glutamic acid
C) rRNA C) Alanine to valine
D) None of these D) Glutamic acid to valine
123. The following is an example of-
6.6 Genetic Code BIG RED CAP ⇒ BIG REM DCA P
A) Deletion mutation
116. George Gamow argued-
B) Point mutation
A) There are only 5 bases and if they
C) Addition mutation
have code for 20 amino acid the
D) More than one option
code should constitute a
124. RAM HAS CAP ⇒ RAM HAS
combination of bases
BIG CAP
B) There are only 4 bases and if they
The given example shows-
have code for 20 amino acid the
A) Addition mutation
code should constitute a
B) Deletion mutation
combination of bases
C) Substitution mutation
C) Genetic code is triplet
D) More than one option
D) B and C
117. Which of following have 6.6.2 tRNA – the Adapter
maximum codon in genetic code-
A) Leu Molecule
B) Met 125. tRNA has-
C) Cal A) Codon loop
D) Phe B) Anticodon loop
118. Which of following is/are C) Both
showing dual function- D) Neither
A) UUU 126. The presence of adapter
B) AUG molecule to read the code on DNA and
C) UGA bind to amino acids was postulated
D) GUA by-
119. Least number of codon is for- A) James Watson
A) Met B) Francis Crick
B) Phe C) Friedrich Meisher
C) Gls D) Both A and B
D) Gly 127. tRNA was also called-
A) s RNA (soluble RNA)
6.6.1 Mutations and Genetic
B) s RNA (single RNA)
Code C) s RNA (smart RNA)
 CHAPTER - 6 DPP

D) s RNA (simple RNA) 133. The order and sequence of

128. The amino acid acceptor end of amino acid during translation are
tRNA is- defined by-
A) 5' A) The sequences of bases in r-RNA
B) 3' B) The sequences of bases in t-RNA
C) Can be any of these C) The sequences of bases in m-RNA
D) Free end D) All of these
129. For initiation translation, 134. Which of following bond is
A) Only tRNA carries initiator amino formed during translation?
acid to the site. A) Glycosidic bond
B) Specific rRNA carries initiator B) Phosphodiester bond
amino acid to the site. C) Peptide bond
C) Any rRNA carries initiator amino D) All of these
acid to the site. 135. First phase of translation does
D) Specific tRNA carries initiator not involve-
amino acid to the site. A) Charging of RNA
130. For stop codon- B) Amino acids are activated in
A) There are specific tRNAs with presence of ATP
amino acids. C) Activated amino acid are linked to
B) There are specific tRNAs which do their cognate tRNA
not bind to any amino acids. D) None of these
C) There are no tRNA. 136. Initiation or first phase of
D) There are tRNAs which may or translation is-
may not bind to amino acids. A) Amino acylation of tRNA
131. B) Amino acylation of mRNA
C) Both A and B
D) Deamino acylation of mRNA
137. The cellular factory responsible
for synthesizing protein is-
A) Ribosome
B) Lysosome
C) Peroxisome
D) None of these
The given figure shows- 138. In inactive state, protein factory
A) Secondary structure of tRNA – of cell exist in
Clover-leaf A) Two state
B) Primary structure of tRNA – clover- B) 4 state in prokaryote
leaf C) 6 state in eukaryote
C) Secondary structure of tRNA – D) B and C both
inverted-L 139. Which of following is sign as
D) Primary structure of tRNA – beginning of translation?
inverted-L A) When the large subunit of protein
factory of cell encounters an
6.7 Translation mRNA.
132. Translation refers to process of- B) When the small subunit of protein
A) Making RNA from DNA factory of cell encounters an
B) Making DNA from RNA mRNA.
C) Polymerization of nucleotide to C) When the small subunit of protein
form a DNA factory of cell encounter a tRNA.
D) Polymerization of amino acid to D) When the large subunit of protein
form a polypeptide factory of cell encounters a tRNA.
 CHAPTER - 6
140. The bond formation (peptide)
between charged tRNA is
accomplished due to-
A) Presence of ATP and catalyst
B) Two such charged tRNA are
brought close by two site in large
subunit of ribosome
C) Two charged tRNA are brought
close by two site in small subunit
of ribosome & presence of ATP
along with catalyst
D) A and B both
141. The ribosome act as catalyst during
bond formation (peptide) as in-
A) 28 s rRNA in bacteria
B) 23 s rRNA in bacteria
C) 23 s rRNA in eukaryote
D) 28 s tRNA in bacteria
142. Choose the correct statement-
A) A translational unit in mRNA is
sequence of RNA that is flanked
by start codon and stop codon
and codes for polypeptide.
B) A translational unit is sequence
of DNA that is flanked by start
codon & codes for polypeptide.
C) A transcriptional unit in tRNA is
the sequence of RNA that is
flanked by start codon and stop
codon and codes for polypeptide.
D) A transcriptional unit in rRNA is
the sequence of RNA that is
flanked by start codon (AUG) and
stop codon and codes for
polypeptide.
143. UTR is/are-
(i) Untranslated region of mRNA
(ii) It present at both 5' end (start
codon) and 3' end (before stop
codon)
(iii) They are required for efficient
translation process
(iv) It present at both 3' end
(before start codon) and 3'
end (after stop codon)
A) i, ii, iii are correct
B) i, ii, iii and iv are correct
C) i, iii, iv are correct
D) i, iii are correct
144. Initiator tRNA binds with
A) AUG codon of mRNA
B) at initiation of protein synthesis
C) ATG codon of dsDNA
DPP
D) A and B both
145. Choose the correct about elongation
of translation-
A) Complexes composed of an
amino acid linked to tRNA,
sequentially bind to appropriate
codon in mRNA by forming
complementary base pairs with
the tRNA anticodon
B) The ribosome moves from codon
to codon along the mRNA in (3' →
5').
C) Complexes composed of an
amino acid linked to tRNA,
sequentially bind to appropriate
anticodon in mRNA by forming
complementary base pair with
tRNA codon.
D) A and B both
146. Termination of translation complex
is done when-
A) Release factor binds with stop
codon (AUG)
B) Release factor binds with UGA
like codon
C) Complete translation of DNA
including UTR occurs in
eukaryotes
D) B and C both
6.8 Regulation of Gene
Expression
147. Gene regulation is eukaryote exerted
at-
A) Formation of primary transcript
B) Transport of mRNA from nucleus
to cytoplasm
C) A and B both
D) Regulation of splicing of tRNA
148. 𝛽-glactosidase is used to catalyze
the hydrosis of
A) Lactose into galactose and
glucose
B) Lactose into fructose & glucose
C) Lactose into fructose & fructose
D) None of these
149. E.coli do not have lactose around
them to utilized for energy source,
they would-
A) No longer require the synthesis
of enzyme 𝛼-galactosidase
 CHAPTER - 6 DPP

B) Synthesized enzyme 𝛽- A) Monocistronic structural gene is

galactosidase regulated by a common promoter
C) Die due to lack of carbon source & regulators genes.
and energy source B) Polycistronic structural gene is
D) None of these regulated by a common promoter
150. In prokaryote, predominant site for & regulatory genes.
control of gene expression is- C) Consist of one regulatory gene,
A) Control of rate of transcriptional monocistronic structural gene
initiation having five gene along with
B) Control of rate of translational promotor & operator.
C) Control of rate of transcriptional D) A and C both
elongation 156. Regulatory gene of lac-operon is-
D) B and C both A) p-gene
151. Given below are statement. Choose B) i-gene
the incorrect statement. C) o-gene
A) The development and D) z-gene
differentiation of embryo into 157. i in i-gene stand for-
adult organisms are result of A) inducer
coordinated regulation of B) inhibitor
expression of several sets of C) A and B both
genes. D) Inactive repressor
B) Regulatory proteins act positively 158. Match Column-I & Column-II.
in activator. Column-I Column-II
C) In a transcriptional unit the (Gene) (Product)
activity of RNA polymerase at a (a) Z-gene (i) Repressor
given promoter is in turn mRNA
regulated by interaction with (b) a-gene (ii) 𝛽-gal
accessory protein. (c) Y-gene (iii) Permease
D) None of these (d) i-gene (iv) Transacetylase
152. Operator- a b c d
A) Region adjacent to sequence by A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
which repressor mRNA formed B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
B) Bind with repressor protein C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
C) Bind with inducer D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
D) A and B both 159. The monomeric product of lactose is
153. Each operon has- chiefly hydrolyzed by-
A) Same operator and same A) i-gene
repressor B) z-gene
B) Same operator but specific C) a-gene
repressor D) y-gene
C) Specific operator but same 160. Lac in lac-operon is for
repressor A) Monosaccharide
D) Specific operator and specific B) Disaccharide
repressor C) Polysaccharide
D) Insect
6.8.1 The Lac operon 161. In absence of preferred carbon
source, if lactose is provided in
154. Lac operon was studied first by- growth medium of bacteria, the
A) Francois Jacob lactose is transported into cell
B) Jacque Monod through by action of product formed
C) Geneticist and Biochemist by-
D) None of these A) i-gene
155. Lac operon is/are- B) z-gene
 CHAPTER - 6 DPP

C) a-gene 169. If cost of sequencing required is

D) y-gene US $ 3 per bp, then total cost of
162. Allolactose is- sequencing human genome as per 8-3
A) Inducer of lac-operon will be:
B) Inductive repressor A) US $ 18 billion
C) Form of lactose that bind with B) US $ 9 billion
product of repressor mRNA and C) US $ 18 million
inhibit transcription of structural D) US $ 9 million
gene
D) All of these Goals of HGP
163. Lac operon is-
170. There were approx. ____ genes
A) Negative regulation operon
in human DNA, as per the goals of
B) Positive regulation operon
HGP
C) A and B both
A) 20,000 – 25,000
D) None of these
B) 40,000 – 45,000
164. Inducer of lac-operon is-
C) 10,000 – 15,000
A) Glucose
D) 50,000 – 60,000
B) Galactose
171. HGP was a ____ year project
C) Lactose
A) 15
D) Fructose
B) 12
165.
C) 13
D) 14
172. HGP was coordination by-
A) US department of engineering &
national institute of health
B) US department of engineering and
national institute of biotechnology
C) US department of energy and
national institute of biotechnology
A) The given diagram is in presence D) US department energy and
of lactose National Institute of Health
B) The given diagram is in absence 173. The ____ of U.K was a major
of lactose partner of HGP
C) The given diagram is of gene off A) Wellcome trust
D) D and H is same process B) Health trust
6.9 Human Genome Project (HGP) C) Social trust
166. HGP was launched in- D) Welcome trust
A) 1980 174. Project was completed in-
B) 1970 A) 2005
C) 1990 B) 2004
D) 2000 C) 2003
167. HGP was called a- D) 2002
A) Minor project 175. Additional contributes to HGP
B) Hexagonal project was-
C) Mega project A) Japan
D) None of these B) China
168. Human genome has approx. C) Germany
______ bp. D) All of these
A) 3 × 109 176. Caenorhabditis elegans is a-
B) 3 × 106 A) Fungi
C) 6 × 109 B) Nematode
D) 6 × 106 C) Bacteria
D) Virus
 CHAPTER - 6 DPP

177. Caenorhabditis elegans is- worked on principle of a method

A) Free living , non-pathogenic developed by-
B) Parasitic , pathogenic A) Erwin Chargaff
C) Free living , pathogenic B) Marshal Nirenberg
D) Parasitic , non-pathogenic C) Frederick Sanger
178. Methods / approaches of HGP D) George Gamow
include- 186. Method for determination of
A) Excess sequence tags amines acid sequence in protein was
B) Expressed sequence tags developed by-
C) Exercise sequence tags A) Erwin Chargaff
D) Exerted sequence tags B) Marshal Nirenberg
179. Sequence annotations refer to- C) Frederick Sanger
A) Identifying all genes expressed as D) George Gamow
RNA and then sequencing then 187. The last of the 24 human
B) Sequencing the whole set of chromosomes to be sequenced was-
genome and then assigning A) Chromosome 1
different regions with functions B) Chromosome X
C) Identifying and sequencing the C) Chromosome 22
genome simultaneously D) Chromosome Y
D) More than one option is correct
180. For sequencing, the DNA is- 6.9.1 Salient Features of Human
A) Partially extracted from cell Genome
B) Totally isolated from cell
C) Not needed to isolated from cell 188. According to HGP, human
D) None of these genome contains-
181. The DNA for sequencing is A) ~ 3000 million bp
converted to fragments of small size. B) ~ 6000 million bp
The fragments are made- C) ~ 9000 million bp
A) On a pre – decided basis D) ~ 1000 million bp
B) On a pre – defined basis 189. Dystrophin was found to be-
C) Randomly A) Largest known human gene with
D) Depending upon organism 2.4 million bases
182. The step in DNA sequencing B) Smallest known human gene with
after fragmentation of DNA is- 2.4 million bases
A) Cloning in host using vectors C) Largest known human gene with
B) Cloning in vectors using host 4.8 million bases
C) Amplification of DNA fragments D) Smallest known human gene with
D) More than one option 4.8 million bases
183. Commonly used hosts for DNA 190. Which chromosome was found
cloning include- to have most genes-
A) Bacteria A) Chr 22
B) BAC B) Chr 1
C) YAC C) Chr 5
D) Both A and C D) Chr Y
184. BAC stands for- 191. Which chromosome was found
A) Bacterial artificial colour to have fewest genes-
B) Binominal artificial A) Chr X
characterization B) Chr Y
C) Bacterial artificial chromosome C) Chr 1
D) Bacterial articular chromosome D) Chr 5
185. Fragments were sequenced
6.10 DNA Finger printing
using automated DNA sequence that
 CHAPTER - 6 DPP

192. The DNA sequence in which 198. VNTR belongs to-

small stretch of DNA is repeated many A) Micro-satellite
times is called- B) Macro-satellite
A) SNP C) Mini-satellite
B) Repetitive DNA D) All of these
C) Polymorphic DNA 199.
D) More than one option
193. Satellite DNA classified into
different categories like micro -
satellite , mini - satellite , etc based
on-
A) Length of segment
B) Number of repetitive
C) Base composition
D) All of these
194. Polymorphism arises due to-
A) Mutation – inheritable
B) Stability of genetic material
C) Mutation - non-heritable
D) All of these
195. DNA polymorphism is observed
more in-
A) non-coding DNA sequence as its
In the given figure if ‘C’ is the DNA
mutation affects reproduction
collected from crime site and ‘A’ & ‘B’
B) coding DNA sequence as its
are samples from suspects, than who
mutation affects reproduction
is the criminal?
C) non-coding DNA sequence as it
A) B
mutation may not affect
B) A
reproduction ability
C) Both A and B
D) Coding DNA sequence as its
D) None of these
mutation may not affect
reproduction ability
196. Technique of DNA
fingerprinting was initially developed
by-
A) James Watson
B) Jansley
C) Alec Jeffreys
D) Maheshwari
197. VNTR stands for-
A) Various number of Tendon
Repeats
B) Variable Number of Tendon
Repeats
C) Various Number of Tandem
Repeats
D) Variable Number of Tandem
Repeats
 CHAPTER - 6 DPP

Answer Key
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans D C D A B B B D D A
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans A D C B B C C D C B
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans A C B C C B A B A D
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans C A B A D D D C D C
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans A D C A D A D A A C
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans B A D A D B C B C D
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans C A B A C A C B B C
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans A C A C A A B C C C
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans A B C A C A C B B C
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans D C B D A B C A A
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans C D B D B A B A A B
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans A A A A B B A B A A
Q 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans B D D A B B A B D C
Q 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans A D C C D A A A B D
B 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans B A D D A B C A D A
Q 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans D B D C B B B D B B
D 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Ans D A C C A C C A B A
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans C D A C D B A B B B
Q 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Ans C D A C C C A A A B
Q 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199
Ans B B D A C C D C A