H MACQUARIE

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FORMAL EXAMINATION PERIOD: SESSION 2, NOVEMBER 2017

Unit Code: COGS101

Unit Name: Delusions and Disorders of the Mind and Brain

Duration of Exam
(including reading time if applicable):
2 hours (plus 10 minutes reading time)
Section A: 50 Multiple Choice Questions
Total No. of Questions:
Section B: 3 Essay Questions (2 essay questions to be answered)
Total No. of Pages
(including this cover sheet):
10

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS TO STUDENTS:

• Students are required to follow directions given by the Final Examination Supervisor and must refrain from communicating in any way with another student once they have entered
the final examination venue.
• Students may not write or mark the exam materials in any way during reading time.
• Students may only access authorised materials during this examination. A list of authorised material is available on this cover sheet.
• All watches must be removed and placed at the top of the exam desk and must remain there for the duration of the exam. All alarms, notifications and alerts must be switched off.
• Students are not permitted to leave the exam room during the first hour (excluding reading time) and during the last 15 minutes of the examination.
• If it is alleged you have breached these rules at any time during the examination, the matter may be reported to a University Discipline Committee for determination.

EXAMINATION INSTRUCTIONS:

Answer BOTH sections.

Section A: Multiple-choice Questions.

Section A has 50 multiple-choice questions. Please choose only one answer for each question.
Use the Multiple Choice Answer Sheet and mark your answers there.

Total for Section A: 20 marks

Section B: Essay Questions.

Section B has 3 essay questions but please answer only 2 essay questions.
Write down your answers in the Exam Booklet.

Total for Section B: 20 marks

Exam total: 40 marks

AIDS AND MATERIALS PERMITTED/NOT PERMITTED:

Dictionaries: No dictionaries permitted
Calculators: No calculators permitted
Other: Closed book - No notes or textbooks permitted
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Section A. Multiple-choice questions (50%). Please choose one correct answer for
each question.

1 Which of the following statements about developmental dyslexia is true?

They are children who:
a perform at the bottom 10-15% of the distribution in reading tests due to poor visual
processes
b perform at the bottom 10-15% of the distribution in reading tests despite normal
learning opportunities
c have attention deficits, particularly when it comes to learning to read
d have high IQ and perform at the bottom 10-15% of the distribution in reading tests
e have general learning deficits, affecting all aspects of learning

2 According theories of reading development, children go through three phases.

Which of the following is the correct chronological order:
a orthographic phase, alphabetic phase, logographic phase
b logographic phase, alphabetic phase, orthographic phase
c alphabetic phase, logographic phase, orthographic phase
d alphabetic phase, orthographic phase, logographic phase
e logographic phase, orthographic phase, alphabetic phase

3 Which option is true for a child with hyperlexia?

a they might have trouble reading made-up words such as thirfint
b they might read the word pirates as parties
c they might read the word dad as bad,
d they might be able to read the word yacht but struggle to say what it means
e they might read come as ‘coam’ (same pronunciation as ‘comb’)

4 Which of the following processes are NOT important for reading a made up word
such as smope?
a Letter recognition
b Letter-sound rules
c Speech sound output
d Spoken word store
e All of the mentioned options are important

5 If a child reads cloud as could, smile as slime and shows no other notable reading problems,
what type of dyslexia is the child likely to have?
a Phonological dyslexia
b Surface dyslexia
c Hyperlexia
d Letter-identification dyslexia
e Letter-position dyslexia

6 When a person with aphasia tried naming a picture of a supermarket, which would be
examples of a phonological error?
a telephone
b superpar
c groceries
d blaggon
e I don't know
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7 People with aphasia are people who:

a Have difficulty understanding language due to hearing impairments
b Have lower intelligence
c Have difficulty speaking clearly because of muscle weakness
d Have trouble hearing and speaking
e Have difficulty understanding and/or producing language due to brain damage

8 Treatment for aphasia can be effective:

a Only in the first 6 months after brain injury
b Only with people with aphasia under the age of 75
c Only if they show improvement in the first week
d Only with people with mild or moderate aphasia
e Indefinitely

9 Given a picture of a kettle, one person with aphasia says "saucepan", and another says
"Kapel". What are these two errors called?
a visual and phonological
b visual and unrelated
c semantic and circumlocution
d semantic and phonological
e phonological and semantic

10 If someone with aphasia has difficulty understanding it can be harder:

a When they are tired
b In a crowded place
c If people talk quickly
d If people talk quickly and/or it is a crowded place
e When they are tired and/or if people talk quickly and/or in crowded places

11 What is the placebo effect?

a An improvement resulting from the belief that people should be treated
b An improvement resulting from the belief in being in the right place at the time
c An improvement resulting from the belief that you are getting worse from a treatment
d An improvement resulting from the belief that you are not getting a treatment
e An improvement resulting from the belief in a treatment

12 Why is specific language impairment (SLI) sometimes called a “hidden disability”?

a people who haveSLI never go out
b people who haveSLI pretend they do not have a problem with learning language
c people who haveSLI refuse to talk about it
d people who haveSLI are poor at learning many things, so their poor language is unnoticed
e people who haveSLI can be misperceived as unintelligent, rude, or lazy

13 What is meant by a “proximal” treatment of specific language impairment?

a a substitute program that trains cognitive processes related to language
b a program that trains cognitive processes that immediately underpin language
c a program that trains cognitive processes that relate to intelligence
d a program that trains cognitive processes that approximately relate to language
e a program that trains a distant root cause of a language problem
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14 What types of studies cannot be included in a systematic review of a treatment?
a Studies that do not find a significant effect
b Studies done by people who did not develop the treatment
c Studies that do not include a control group
d Studies that do not test lots of subjects
e Studies that do not systematically examine multiple treatments

15 To demonstrate Theory of Mind an individual must show understanding of:

a Thought bubbles
b Emotions
c Mental states other than their own
d Preferences and ideas
e All of the mentioned options

16 In which one of these scenarios is a character using Theory of Mind?

a Bobby wants to go to the pub. He thinks his friend Jack will be there but Jack went to
a different pub.
b Jerry and Lisa are watching the football highlights. Lisa knows the score but Jerry doesn't
so Lisa kept quiet to not give anything away.
c Anne and Sally are both looking for marbles. They find one in a box and another in a basket.
d Dan is running late. He thinks he's going to miss the train but he catches it just in time.
e Deborah thinks that Gary likes red wine so buys him a bottle for his birthday.

17 According to DSM-5, to be diagnosed with autism a person must have:

a social communication difficulties as well as repetitive behaviours or restricted interests
b social difficulties and language impairment
c theory of mind impairment
d social and communication difficulties as well as a special skill
(although each person’s special skill is different)
e no interest in people

18 Which of the following statements is false?

a Autism was first described by Leo Kanner
b All people with autism have social difficulties
c Epilepsy is common in autism
d All people with autism have reading difficulties
e Some people with autism have special skills

19 In synaesthesia:
a stimulation in one sensory modality results in a single experience
b all the senses are confused
c stimulation in one sensory modality is not able to be separated from other senses
d sensory information from one modality interferes with the other modality
e stimulation in one sensory modality results in an additional experience

20 Synaesthetic experiences tend to be:

a Highly consistent over time and involuntary
b Highly consistent over time and voluntary
c Inconsistent over time and involuntary
d Inconsistent over time and voluntary
e None of the mentioned options
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21 The synaesthetic congruency effect:

a Is that colour naming times on congruent trials are longer than on incongruent trials
b Is that colour naming is unaffected by the letter identity
c Is a direct subjective measure of synaesthesia
d Is an indirect subjective measure of synaesthesia
e Is that colour naming times are longer on incongruent than congruent trials

22 Synaesthetic experiences tend to be:

a Highly consistent over time and involuntary
b Highly consistent over time and voluntary
c Inconsistent over time and involuntary
d Inconsistent over time and voluntary
e More consistent and involuntary in young adults

23 A disorder that is characterised by a difficulty in recognising faces is called:

a Simultanagnosia
b Topographical Agnosia
c Optic Aphasia
d Prosopagnosia
e Apperceptive Agnosia

24 What are the two forms of Prosopagnosia?

a Apperceptive and associative
b Dorsal and ventral
c Category specific and amusia
d Optic and associative
e Developmental and acquired

25 An individual with Dorsal Simultanagnosia would be unable to:

a Recognise multiple objects in a scene
b Name a single object
c Recognize elements of objects
d Grasp an object
e See colour

26 What are the three stages in the three stage model of object perception?
a Local Features, Global Features, Object perception
b Local Features, Shape Representation, Object Representation
c Primary, Secondary, Tertiary
d Local Features, Form Completion, Object Representation
e Local Features, Depth Representation, Object Perception

27 Oliver Sacks called his patient Jimmie "The Lost Mariner" because:
a He cannot find his way in his environment due to topographical amnesia
b He is lost in time due to his retrograde amnesia
c He is lost in time due to his anterograde amnesia
d He continually loses his train of thought
e He has lost his sense of spirituality
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28 Typical cases of amnesia involve:
a predominantly retrograde loss with some anterograde loss
b graded anterograde and retrograde loss
c focal retrograde loss
d predominantly anterograde loss with some retrograde loss
e more or less equal anterograde and retrograde components

29 The medial temporal lobe’s role in memory formation:

a Explains retrieval failures
b Can be described in terms of linking co-occurring experiences
c Is independent of the role of the hippocampus
d Becomes apparent in the later stages of Alzheimer's disease
e Became apparent following herpes simplex encephalitis in the case of Henry Molaison (HM)

30 Which of the following is true about retrograde amnesia

a It is the most common type of amnesia
b People with retrograde amnesia usually can remember autobiographical memories
c People with retrograde amnesia forget things that happened earlier in time
d People with retrograde amnesia are unable to form new memories
e It affects declarative memory

31 De Clerambault syndrome is the belief, in the absence of any evidence, that

a Other people are inserting thoughts into your mind
b Some person of great fame or high social status is in love with you
c Your thoughts can be read by other people
d People you know are intending to persecute you
e You are a very important and powerful person

32 In Cotard delusion, the delusional idea first occurs because:

a The patient has impaired ability to see faces
b The patient has mirror agnosia
c The patient’s autonomic nervous system has become completely unresponsive to all stimuli
d The patient’s autonomic nervous system no longer responds to familiar faces
e The patient’s autonomic nervous system now responds to all faces, even unfamiliar ones

33 The delusion that other people can control movements of your limbs against your will is called:
a Capgras delusion
b Persecutory delusion
c Fregoli delusion
d Somatoparaphrenia
e Alien control delusion

34 According to the two-factor theory of delusion, the second factor:

a is responsible for the content of the delusional belief
b is different in each different kind of delusion
c is the same in every different kind of delusion
d is due to damage to the left hemisphere of the brain
e is a general difficulty in the ability to reason
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35 If you suffered a form of brain damage that prevented your autonomic nervous system from
working any more, that might make you believe that:
a other people are out to get you
b other people could control the movement of your body, against your will
c you have special powers or abilities
d people you know are disguising themselves and following you around in the street
e you are dead

36 Which of the following is true about schizophrenia?

a Subtypes tend to be stable across time
b Two people with schizophrenia may present with very different symptom profiles
c The clinical presentation of schizophrenia is very homogenous
d ‘Syndrome’ and ‘Subtype’ mean the same thing
e The presence of auditory hallucinations is sufficient for a diagnosis of schizophrenia

37 Greg believes that there is a witch who puts thoughts into his head that he needs to act on.
For example, he tells you that this morning he bought a soft drink from a convenience store
because the witch made him do it. This is an example of:
a Grandiose delusion
b Delusion of thought broadcast
c Persecutory delusion
d Delusion of control
e Delusion of reference

38 Poor social functioning is common in schizophrenia. Which of the following is true of the
relationship between schizophrenia and social functioning?
a poor social functioning is entirely due to deficits in basic cognition
b the majority of people with schizophrenia can still easily fulfill major social roles such as
parenting, and marriage
c patients and carers report poor social function as a low priority for treatment
d poor social functioning persists even when positive symptoms respond to medication
e social cognitive deficits in schizophrenia do not contribute to social functioning difficulties

39 Persecutory delusions have been interpreted in light of social cognitive deficits in

schizophrenia. What was the interpretation suggested in the lecture? Persecutory delusions
may be the result of:
a an under-active theory of mind
b a biased over-active theory of mind
c a bias to attribute positive outcomes to other people
d an under-active emotion recognition system
e an over-active emotion recognition system

40 One approach to studying schizophrenia is the cognitive neuropsychiatric approach. This

means explaining symptoms in terms of:
a Damage to neural pathways
b Interpersonal dynamics
c Impaired information processing
d Childhood trauma
e Altered neurotransmitter profiles
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41 Hypnotised subjects typically describe their hypnotic responses as being surprisingly:
a Easy and real
b Difficult and effortful
c Confusing and tiring
d Amusing and irritating
e None of the above

42 Hypnosis is ideal for modelling delusions because:

a Delusional patients can be treated with hypnosis
b Both are believed with conviction
c Both are resistant to counter-evidence
d a and b
e b and c

43 Hypnosis research that explores the nature of hypnosis itself is known as:
a Hypnotisability research
b Intrinsic research
c Magnetism research
d Instrumental research
e None of the mentioned options

44 Hypnotisability scores:
a Are normally distributed in the population
b Increase with age
c Vary according to geographical location
d Correlate positively with extroversion
e Indicate that 70% of the population is low hypnotisable

45 What type of hypnotic suggestion is one that suggests there is a mosquito buzzing around
someone’s head:
a a cognitive-delusory suggestion
b an amnesia suggestion
c a challenge suggestion
d an ideomotor suggestion
e an anosmia suggestion

46 Which of the following clinical conditions is not likely to involve an alteration to the
sense of agency:
a Insomnia
b Schizophrenia
c Depression
d Addiction
e Obsessive compulsive disorder

47 According to the comparator model, what leads to a feeling of agency:

a Mismatches between motor predictions and sensory feedback
b Matches between motor predictions and sensory feedback
c Two matching sets of motor signals
d An overactive comparator module
e Attenuation of sensory signals for self generated actions
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48 When someone has a sense of agency for a self-generated action:
a The sensory consequences of that action are exagerated
b The sensory consequences of that action are attenuated
c The sensory consequences of that action are reversed
d There are no sensory conseuqenes of that action
e None of the mentioned options

49 Typically a strong Rubber Hand Illusion can be induced when presenting:

a Asynchronous touch
b Artificial hands in incongruent orientations compared to the hidden hand
c Non-body objects (hands that do not like body-like)
d All of the mentioned options
e None of the mentioned options

50 What type of body self-perception models include this idea: "The processing of
incoming multisensory signals is combined with stored information about what the
body is typically like”
a Bottom-up models
b Top-down models
c All of the mentioned options
d None of the mentioned options
e Medium models
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Section B. Essay Questions (50%): Choose only 2 out of 3 essay questions to

answer.

1. Tom has aphasia following a stroke. His speech pathologist is trying to work out what
would be the most appropriate treatment. She notices that he has trouble saying the
words he wants to use to communicate and often produces words related in meaning
to the target (e.g., he says 'bike' for 'car'). Discuss the possible reasons for Tom
making these errors based on the cognitive model of spoken word production, and
discuss the tasks the speech pathologist might use to investigate the cause of the
errors.

2. Bill has developmental dyslexia. His speech pathologist is trying to work out what would
be the most appropriate treatment. She asked Bill to read a list of words and noticed that
he has trouble reading some of the words but not others. Bill read ‘quay’ as ‘/kway/’ ,
‘ready’ as ‘/reedy/’, ‘island’ as ‘/izland/’; he can read made up words such as ‘smope’,
and ‘norf’ correctly, and he can also read words like ‘dog’, ‘animal’, ‘tool’, ‘cat’. Bill’s
speech pathologist also noted that Bill can keep up a good conversation with her and did
not seem to have any difficulties in understanding her.
Account for the deficit Bill has in the context of the dual route model. Suggest what
component(s) of the dual route model is (are) likely to be impaired and what tests you
can do to localize the impairment. Based on the impairment, what other types of reading
patterns would this child show? Finally, what kind of treatment would you suggest to help
Bill.

3. Based on what you have learned about schizophrenia, discuss what social cognition is,
how it can be measured, and how deficits in social cognition may contribute to the
development and maintenance of delusional beliefs in schizophrenia.