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10th-NTSE Open

Test Series - Stage-I-


 Lakshya
 Marks : 200
Test-2
SUBJECT : MAT, MATHS, PHY, CHE, BIO, SST
Objective 10th-NTSE OTS- Stage-I-Test-2 (20-1-2022)  Time (mm:ss) : 210:00

 
 

Mental Aptitude  100 

1. In a certain code, INACTIVE is written as VITCANIE. How is COMPUTER written in the same code? 1

  (a) PMOCRETU

  (b) ETUPMOCR

  (c) UTEPMOCR

  (d) MOCPETUR

2. If GROUND is coded as RHUPDO then how will STADIUMS be coded as ? 1

  (a) USEZVHTL

  (b) SSEBUJTN

  (c) TTDBUJSN

  (d) TSDAUISM

3. If CAPRICON is coded as RQBCOQEJ then how will POSTINGS be coded as ? 1

  (a) TTPPTIPJ

  (b) PPTTIISS

  (c) PTPTIPSI

  (d) TPTPISIP

4. If 7×5 = VIII, 5×6 = III, 5×3 = VI, then 9×4= ? 1

  (a) IX

  (b) II

  (c) VIII

  (d) XXII

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5. If in a certain code language ‘PRIYA’ is written as ‘BALVU’ then how will ‘NIGHT’ be written in that language? 1

  (a) UJJMS

  (b) UJJSM

  (c) UJJMT

  (d) UMJJS

6. If ‘THRASH’ is coded as ‘UGSZTG’, then how will ‘HEAD’ be coded? 1

  (a) IECD

  (b) GDZC

  (c) IDBC

  (d) GDBC

7. If in a certain code, GLAMOUR is written as IJCNMWP and MISRULE is written as OGUSSNC, then how will 1
TOPICAL be written in that code?

  (a) VMRJECN

  (b) VMRHACJ

  (c) VMRJACJ

  (d) VNRJABJ

8. In a certain code, BELIEF is written as AFKKDI. How is SELDOM written in that code? 1

  (a) RDKCNL

  (b) RFKENM

  (c) RFKFNP

  (d) TFKENP

9. If PUNJAB = QTOIBA, then CHANDIGARH = ? 1

  (a) DGEMEHTHZTG

  (b) DGBMEHHZSG

  (c) EGBEMHFZTI

  (d) BIZDCJEBQI

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10. If sky is blue, blue is water, water is white, white is milk, milk is cow, cow is grass, grass is green, then what is the 1
colour of milk ?

  (a) Milk

  (b) Cow

  (c) Grass

  (d) Green

11. If ‘black’ means ‘pink’, ‘pink’ means ‘blue’, ‘blue’ means ‘white’, ‘white’ means ‘yellow’, ‘yellow’ means ‘red’ and ‘red’ 1
means ‘brown’, then what is the colour of clear sky?

  (a) Brown

  (b) Red

  (c) Blue

  (d) Pink

12. If ‘dust’ is called ‘air’, ‘air’ is called ‘fire’, ‘fire’ is called ‘water’, ‘water’ is called ‘colour’, ‘colour’ is called ‘rain’ and 1
‘rain’ is called ‘dust’, then where do fish live ?

  (a) Fire

  (b) Water

  (c) Colour

  (d) Dust

13. If bark is called night, night is called light, light is called sun, sun is called moon, moon is called stars, stars is 1
called sky, then when do we see then stars ?

  (a) moon

  (b) sun

  (c) bark

  (d) light

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14. Direction: Below shown are certains words and their codes on basis of these find the codes of the given words 1
in each question.

Words Codes

They good are 468

We not bad 107

I am good 938

They am we 094

You not good 728

Q. What is the code for ’They good’ ?

  (a) 04

  (b) 02

  (c) 48

  (d) 49

15. Direction: Below shown are certains words and their codes on basis of these find the codes of the given words 1
in each question.

Words Codes

They good are 468

We not bad 107

I am good 938

They am we 094

You not good 728

Q. What is the code for ’not bad’ ?

  (a) 31

  (b) 71

  (c) 39

  (d) 48

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16. If GO = 32, SHE = 49, then SOME will be equal to 1

  (a) 56

  (b) 58

  (c) 62

  (d) 64

17. Direction : Some words are given in Column I. These words are written in a code language in Column II. The 1
code equivalents of the words given in Column I and Column II are not necessarily in the corresponding order.
Choose the correct code for the words from the given alternatives.

Column I Column II

A. what was it 1. lee ra de

B. you go 2. mo nil

C. you like it 3. nil pom ra

D. she was sick 4. lok lee to

Q.Which word will be code for word 'she'?

  (a) lok

  (b) to

  (c) lok or to

  (d) None of these

18. Direction: Some words are given in Column I. These words are written in a code language in Column II. The code 1
equivalents of the words given in Column I and Column II are not necessarily in the corresponding order. Choose
the correct code for the words from the given alternatives.

Column I Column II

A. what was it 1. lee ra de

B. you go 2. mo nil

C. you like it 3. nil pom ra

D. she was sick 4. lok lee to

Q.Which word will be code for 'you was sick?

  (a) nil lok to

  (b) nil lok to

  (c) nil pom mo

  (d) None of these

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19. Direction : Below shown are certains words and their codes on basis of these find the codes of the given words 1
in each question.

Words Codes

They good are 468

We not bad 107

I am good 938

They am we 094

You not good 728

Q.What is code for ’I bad’ ?

  (a) 31

  (b) 39

  (c) 87

  (d) 23

20. Direction: Below shown are certains words and their codes on basis of these find the codes of the given words 1
in each question.

Words Codes

They good are 468

We not bad 107

I am good 938

They am we 094

You not good 728

Q.What is the code for ’You are we’ ?

  (a) 260

  (b) 276

  (c) 063

  (d) 207

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21. If “ka bi pu ya” means “you are very industrious”, “ya lo ka wo” means “they seem very industrious”, “la pu le” 1
means “you can see”, “sun pun yun ya” means “how industrious the is”, then which word could mean
“industrious”?

  (a) ka

  (b) wo

  (c) ya

  (d) pun

22. If “mink yang pe” means “fruits are ripe”, “pe lao may mink” means “oranges are not ripe”, “may pe nue mink” 1
means “mangoes are not ripe”, then which word could mean “mangoes”?

  (a) may

  (b) pe

  (c) nue

  (d) mink

23. If banana is called apple, apple is called grapes, grapes are called mango, mango is called coconut and coconut is 1
called guava, which is the king of fruits?

  (a) Mango

  (b) Guava

  (c) Coconut

  (d) Apple

24. If train is called bus, bus is called tractor, tractor is called car, car is called scooter scooter is called bicycle and 1
bicycle is called aeroplane than which is used to plough a field?

  (a) Train

  (b) Bus

  (c) Car

  (d) Tractor

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25. In a certain code language, the sentences written in Column I are coded as sentences written in Column II, but 1
the sequence written in Column II, but the sequence of words is different. Decode the sentences and find which
word in coded language mean sweet?

Column I Column II

Drink fruit juice tee see pee

juice is sweet see kee lee

He is intelligent Lee ree mee

  (a) pee

  (b) see

  (c) tee

  (d) kee

26. If Neha says – “Amrita’s father Raj is the only son of my father-in-law Mahesh”, then how is Bindu, who is the 1
sister of Amrita related to Mahesh?

  (a) Daughter-in-law

  (b) Grand-daughter

  (c) Sister

  (d) Wife

27. Introducing Ramesh, Geeta said, “He is the son of daughter of the father of my uncle”. How is Ramesh related to 1
Geeta?

  (a) Brother

  (b) Nephew

  (c) Uncle

  (d) Son-in-law

28. Pointing to a person, Rohit said to Neha, “His mother is the only daughter of your father.” How is Neha related to 1
that person?

  (a) Aunt

  (b) Mother

  (c) Daughter

  (d) Wife

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29. Pointing to a woman in a photograph, a man said, “the son of her sister’s father is the maternal uncle of my son”. 1
How is the sister of that woman is related to the son of that man?

  (a) Mother

  (b) Mother’s sister

  (c) Mother or Mother’s sister

  (d) Aunt

30. Pointing to a gentleman, Deepak said, “His only brother is the father of my daughter’s father”. How is that 1
gentleman related to Deepak ?

  (a) Father

  (b) Grandfather

  (c) Brother-in-law

  (d) Uncle

31. The son of M is the father of N and grandfather (Mother’s father) of R. S is the daughter of N and sister of B. On 1
the basis of this information, how is M related to B?

  (a) Grandfather

  (b) Grand mother

  (c) Grandmother’s mother

  (d) Data inadequate

32. S is the husband of P.Q is the only grandson of E, who is wife of D and mother-in-law of P. How is Q related to P? 1

  (a) Cousin

  (b) Son-in-law

  (c) son

  (d) Nephew

33. If ‘A + B’ means that A is the mother of B, ‘A ÷ B’ means that A is the brother of B, A × B means that A is the son 1
of B, A - B means that A is the sister of B, Which of the following means that C is the sister of D?

  (a) C - P ÷ D

  (b) P + D ÷ C

  (c) D × P - C

  (d) D - C

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34. Directions: Read the following information to answer the questions that follow:
1
(i) A × B means A is the brother of B

(ii) A + B means A is the mother of B

(iii) A ÷ B means A is the son of B

(iv) A - B means A is the husband of B.

Q. Which of the following would mean M is the father of N?

  (a) M ÷ N + O

  (b) M × O – N

  (c) M + O ÷ N

  (d) M - O + N

35. Direction: Next four questions are based upon the information given below. Study the information carefully and 1
then choose the correct alternative to answer the questions.

In a family there are six members A, B, C, D, E and F. A and B are a married couple, A being the male member. D
is the only son of C who is the brother of A. E is the sister of D. B is the daughter in law of F whose husband has
died.

Q. How is F related to A?

  (a) Mother

  (b) Sister-in-law

  (c) Sister

  (d) Mother-in-law

36. Direction : Next four questions are based upon the information given below. Study the information carefully 1
and then choose the correct alternative to answer the questions.

In a family there are six members A, B, C, D, E and F. A and B are a married couple, A being the male member. D
is the only son of C who is the brother of A. E is the sister of D. B is the daughter in law of F whose husband has
died.

Q. How is E related to C?

  (a) Sister

  (b) Daughter

  (c) Cousin

  (d) Aunt

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37. Direction : Next four questions are based upon the information given below. Study the information carefully 1
and then choose the correct alternative to answer the questions.

In a family there are six members A, B, C, D, E and F. A and B are a married couple, A being the male member. D
is the only son of C who is the brother of A. E is the sister of D. B is the daughter in law of F whose husband has
died.

Q. How many male members are there in the family?

  (a) Two

  (b) Three

  (c) Four

  (d) Five

38. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
1
Ashok Mehta has three children, Usha, Ramchander and Sunil, Sunil married Rita, The eldest daughter of Mr. and
Mrs. Mathur. The Mathur’s married their youngest daughter to the eldest son of Mr.and Mrs. Saxena and they
had two children named Sanjay and Sunita. The Mathur have two more children, Rakesh and Bindu, both elder
to Shani. Sonu and Surinder are sons of Sunil and Rita. Lata is the daughter of Sanjay.

Q. What is the surname of Sanjay ?

  (a) Saxena

  (b) Mathur

  (c) Sanjay

  (d) Mehta

39. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
1
Ashok Mehta has three children, Usha, Ramchander and Sunil, Sunil married Rita, The eldest daughter of Mr. and
Mrs. Mathur. The Mathur’s married their youngest daughter to the eldest son of Mr.and Mrs. Saxena and they
had two children named Sanjay and Sunita. The Mathur have two more children, Rakesh and Bindu, both elder
to Shani. Sonu and Surinder are sons of Sunil and Rita. Lata is the daughter of Sanjay.

Q. How is Sonu related to the father of Rita?

  (a) Grandson

  (b) Son-in-law

  (c) Son

  (d) Cousin

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40. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
1
Ashok Mehta has three children, Usha, Ramchander and Sunil, Sunil married Rita, The eldest daughter of Mr. and
Mrs. Mathur. The Mathur’s married their youngest daughter to the eldest son of Mr.and Mrs. Saxena and they
had two children named Sanjay and Sunita. The Mathur have two more children, Rakesh and Bindu, both elder
to Shani. Sonu and Surinder are sons of Sunil and Rita. Lata is the daughter of Sanjay.

Q. How is Mrs. Mathur related to Sunil ?

  (a) Aunt

  (b) Mother-in-law

  (c) Mother

  (d) Sister-in-law

41. Directions : Choose the best alternative as the answer. 1


Q. A hill always has

  (a) Trees

  (b) Animals

  (c) Water

  (d) Height

42. A pen always has 1

  (a) Tube

  (b) Cap

  (c) Holder

  (d) Nib

43. A race always has 1

  (a) Referee

  (b) Spectators

  (c) Rivals

  (d) Prize

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44. Directions : In each of the following questions, you are given a fig. (X) followed by four alternative figures (a), (b), 1
(c) and (d) such that fig. (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains fig. (X) as
its part.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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45. Directions : In each of the following questions, you are given a fig. (X) followed by four alternative figures (a), (b), 1
(c) and (d) such that fig. (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains fig. (X) as
its part.

Q.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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46. Directions : In each of the following questions, you are given a fig. (X) followed by four alternative figures (a), (b), 1
(c) and (d) such that fig. (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains fig. (X) as
its part.

Q.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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47. Directions : In each of the following questions, you are given a fig. (X) followed by four alternative figures (a), (b), 1
(c) and (d) such that fig. (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains fig. (X) as
its part.

Q.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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48. Directions : In each of the following questions, you are given a fig. (X) followed by four alternative figures (a), (b), 1
(c) and (d) such that fig. (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains fig. (X) as
its part.

Q.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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49. Directions : In each of the following questions, you are given a fig. (X) followed by four alternative figures (a), (b), 1
(c) and (d) such that fig. (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains fig. (X) as
its part.

Q.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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50. Directions : In each of the following questions, you are given a fig. (X) followed by four alternative figures (a), (b), 1
(c) and (d) such that fig. (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains fig. (X) as
its part.

Q.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

51. In a certain code language, RUSTICATE is written as QTTUIDBSD. How would STATISTIC be written in that code ? 1

  (a) RSBUJTUHB

  (b) RSBUITUHB

  (c) RSBUIRSJD

  (d) TUBUITUMB

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52. In a certain language, SIGHT is written as FVTUG. How is REVEAL written in the same language? 1

  (a) YNRIRE

  (b) DQHQMX

  (c) FSJSOZ

  (d) ERIRNY

53. In a certain code, BELIEF is written as AFKKDI. How is SELDOM written in that code? 1

  (a) RDKCNL

  (b) RFKENM

  (c) RFKFNP

  (d) TFKENP

54. If TRUTH is coded as SUQSTVSUGI, then the code for FALSE will be 1

  (a) EGZBKMRDE

  (b) EGZKMRTDF

  (c) EGZBKMRTDF

  (d) FGZBKNRTDF

55. If MADRAS can be written as ARSARS, how can ARKONAM be written in that code? 1

  (a) ROAAKNM

  (b) ROAKANM

  (c) ROAKNNM

  (d) ROAKNAM

56. In a certain code, CONVENTIONAL is written as NOCNEVOITLAN. How is ENTHRONEMENT written in that code ? 1

  (a) TNEROHEMNTNE

  (b) TNEROHEMNNTE

  (c) TNEORHMENTNE

  (d) NTEROHEMNNTE

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57. In a certain code language, COMPUTRONE is written as PMOCTUENOR. How is ADVANTAGES written in that 1
code?

  (a) SEGATNAVAD

  (b) AVDATNSEGA

  (c) AVDATASEGN

  (d) NAVDASEGAT

58. In a certain code, BREAKTHROUGH is written as EAOUHRBRGHKT. How is DISTRIBUTION written in that code ? 1

  (a) TISTBUONDIRI

  (b) STTIBUONRIDI

  (c) STTIBUDIONRI

  (d) RISTTIBUDION

59. In a certain code language, CREATIVE is written as BDSBFUJS. How is TRIANGLE written in that code ? 1

  (a) BHSSFKHM

  (b) BHSSMHHF

  (c) BSHSFHKM

  (d) BSSHFMKH

60. If DIAMOND is coded as VQYMKLV, how is FEMALE coded ? 1

  (a) TUMYNU

  (b) UVNZOV

  (c) UVNYNV

  (d) TVNYNV

61. If CONCEPT is written as unmulqr and FRIEND is written as ysglmt, then how is PREDICT written in that code ? 1

  (a) usygmnl

  (b) slmgtur

  (c) qsltgur

  (d) qgmnltr

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62. If DEER = 12215 and HIGH = 5645, how will you code HEEL ? 1

  (a) 2328

  (b) 3449

  (c) 4337

  (d) 5229

63. Directions: In a certain coding system,


1
‘816321’ means ‘the brown dog frightened the cat

‘64851’ means ‘the frightened cat ran away;

‘7621’ means ‘the cat was brown’;

‘341’ means ‘the dog ran’.

Q.What is the code for ‘the dog was frightened’ ?

  (a) 5438

  (b) 8263

  (c) 8731

  (d) None of these

64. Directions : In a certain coding system,


1
‘816321’ means ‘the brown dog frightened the cat

‘64851’ means ‘the frightened cat ran away;

‘7621’ means ‘the cat was brown’;

‘341’ means ‘the dog ran’.

Q.What is the code for ‘away’ ?

  (a) 1

  (b) 5

  (c) 6

  (d) 7

65. In a certain code language, ‘po hi top ma’ means ‘Usha is playing cards’, ‘kop ja ki ma’ means ‘Asha is playing 1
tennis’, ‘ki top sop ho’ means ‘they are playing football’ and ‘po sur kop’ means ‘cards and tennis’. Which word in
that language means ‘Asha’?

  (a) ja

  (b) ma

  (c) kop

  (d) top

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66. Direction: According to a certain code,


1
(a) ‘min fin bin gin’ means ‘Trains are always late’;

(b) ‘gin din cin hin’ means ‘Drivers were always punished’;

(c) ‘bin cin vin rin’ means ‘Drivers stopped all trains’; and

(d) ‘din kin fin vin’ means ‘All passengers were late’.

Q.‘Drivers were late’ would be written as

  (a) min cin din

  (b) cin din fin

  (c) fin din gin

  (d) gin hin min

67. Direction : According to a certain code,


1
(a) ‘min fin bin gin’ means ‘Trains are always late’;

(b) ‘gin din cin hin’ means ‘Drivers were always punished’;

(c) ‘bin cin vin rin’ means ‘Drivers stopped all trains’; and

(d) ‘din kin fin vin’ means ‘All passengers were late’.

Q.Which word is represented by ‘vin’?

  (a) all

  (b) late

  (c) trains

  (d) drivers

68. ‘kin min hin’ would mean : 1

  (a) Always late train

  (b) Passengers are punished

  (c) All passenger trains

  (d) Passengers are late

69. Pointing towards a person in the photograph, Anjali said, “He is the only son of the father of my sister’s brother.” 1
How is that person related to Anjali ?

  (a) Mother

  (b) Father

  (c) Maternal uncle

  (d) None of these

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70. Pointing to a man, a woman said, “His mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the woman related to 1
the mother?

  (a) Mother

  (b) Daughter

  (c) Sister

  (d) none of these

71. Pointing to a man on the stage, Rashi said, “He is the brother of the daughter of the wife of my husband.” How is 1
the man on the stage related to Rashi ?

  (a) Son

  (b) Husband

  (c) Cousin

  (d) Nephew

72. X introduces Y saying, “He is the husband of the granddaughter of the father of my father. How is Y related to X ? 1

  (a) Brother

  (b) Son

  (c) Brother-in-law

  (d) Nephew

73. Pointing to a photograph, a lady tells Pramod, “I am the only daughter of this lady and her son is your maternal 1
uncle.” How is the speaker related to Pramod’s father?

  (a) Sister-in-law

  (b) Wife

  (c) Either (1) or (2)

  (d) Neither (1) nor (2)

74. A family has a man, his wife, their 4 sons and their wives. The family of every son also has 3 sons and one 1
daughter. Find out the total number of male members in the whole family.

  (a) 1

  (b) 4

  (c) 12

  (d) 17

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75. If (i) M is brother of N; (ii) B is brother of N; and (iii) M is brother of D, then which of the following statements is 1
definitely true ?

  (a) N is brother of B.

  (b) N is brother of D.

  (c) M is brother of B.

  (d) D is brother of M

76. A is the brother of B. B is the brother of C. D is the father of A. Based on these three statements, which of the 1
following statements cannot be definitely true ?

  (a) B is the brother of A.

  (b) B is the son of D.

  (c) A is the brother of C.

  (d) C is the brother of A.

77. Examine the following relationships among members of a family of six persons — A, B, C, D, E and F.
1
1. The number of males equals that of females.

2. A and E are sons of F.

3. D is the mother of two, one boy and one girl.

4. B is the son of A.

5. There is one married couple in the family at present.

Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above ?

  (a) A, B and C are all females.

  (b) A is the husband of D.

  (c) D is the grand daughter of F.

  (d) E and F are children of D.

78. Directions: Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow:
1
I. A, B, C, D, E and F are six members of a family.

II. One couple has parents and their children in the family.

III. A is the son of C and E is the daughter of A.

IV. D is the daughter of F who is the mother of E.

Q.Which of the following pairs is the parents of the children?

  (a) BC

  (b) CF

  (c) BF

  (d) None of these

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79. Direction: Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow:
1
I. A, B, C, D, E and F are six members of a family.

II. One couple has parents and their children in the family.

III. A is the son of C and E is the daughter of A.

IV. D is the daughter of F who is the mother of E.

Q.Which of the following pairs is the parents of the couple?

  (a) AB

  (b) BC

  (c) AF

  (d) CF

80. Direction: Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow:
1
I. A, B, C, D, E and F are six members of a family.

II. One couple has parents and their children in the family.

III. A is the son of C and E is the daughter of A.

IV. D is the daughter of F who is the mother of E.

Q.What relationship do D and E bear to each other ?

  (a) Sister and Brother

  (b) Mother and son

  (c) Grandmother and Grand daughter

  (d) Sister

81. ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is the mother of Q’; ‘P × Q means P is the father of Q’ and ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is the daughter of Q’. 1
Now if M – N × T + Z, then which of the following is not true ?

  (a) T is N’s daughter.

  (b) N is wife of Z.

  (c) M is mother-in-law of Z.

  (d) T is granddaughter of M.

82. If ‘A $ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’, ‘A & B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’, ‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’, then 1
which of the following means ‘M is the grandmother of N’ ?

  (a) M & T $ N @ R

  (b) M & T $ R @ N

  (c) M & R $ T @ N

  (d) M & R @ T @ N

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83. If ‘A $ B’ means ‘A is brother of B’, ‘A @ B’ means ‘A is wife of B’, ‘A # B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’ and ‘A £ B’ 1
means ‘A is father of B’, then which of the following expressions indicates the relationship ‘K is father-in-law of H’
?

  (a) H @ J $ L # P £ K

  (b) H @ J $ P £ L # K

  (c) H @ J $ L # K £ P

  (d) H @ P $ J £ L # K

84. Atmosphere always has 1

  (a) Oxygen

  (b) Air

  (c) Germs

  (d) Moisture

85. A car always has 1

  (a) Driver

  (b) Bonnet

  (c) Dicky

  (d) Wheels

86. A tree always has which of the following? 1

  (a) Branches

  (b) Leaves

  (c) Fruits

  (d) Roots

87. A bulb always has 1

  (a) Filament

  (b) Light

  (c) Glass

  (d) Current

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88. An oasis always has 1

  (a) Travellers

  (b) Water

  (c) Sand

  (d) Camels

89. Direction : In each of the following questions, you are given a fig. (X) followed by four alternative figures (a), 1
(b), (c) and (d) such that fig. (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains fig.
(X)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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90. Direction : In each of the following questions, you are given a fig. (X) followed by four alternative figures (a), 1
(b), (c) and (d) such that fig. (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains fig.
(X)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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91. Direction : In each of the following questions, you are given a fig. (X) followed by four alternative figures (a), 1
(b), (c) and (d) such that fig. (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains fig.
(X)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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92. Direction : In each of the following questions, you are given a fig. (X) followed by four alternative figures (a), 1
(b), (c) and (d) such that fig. (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains fig.
(X)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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93. Direction : In each of the following questions, you are given a fig. (X) followed by four alternative figures (a), 1
(b), (c) and (d) such that fig. (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains fig.
(X)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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94. Direction : In each of the following questions, you are given a fig. (X) followed by four alternative figures (a), 1
(b), (c) and (d) such that fig. (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains fig.
(X)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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95. Direction : In each of the following questions, you are given a fig. (X) followed by four alternative figures (a), 1
(b), (c) and (d) such that fig. (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains fig.
(X)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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96. Direction : In each of the following questions, you are given a fig. (X) followed by four alternative figures (a), 1
(b), (c) and (d) such that fig. (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains fig.
(X)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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97. Direction : In each of the following questions, you are given a fig. (X) followed by four alternative figures (a), 1
(b), (c) and (d) such that fig. (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains fig.
(X)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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98. Direction : In each of the following questions, you are given a fig. (X) followed by four alternative figures (a), 1
(b), (c) and (d) such that fig. (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains fig.
(X)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

99. A train always has 1

  (a) Rails

  (b) Driver

  (c) Guard

  (d) Engine

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100. A song always has 1

  (a) Word

  (b) Chorus

  (c) Musician

  (d) Tymbal

Mathematics  20 

101. A can do a piece of work in 10 days and B can do it in 20 days. They start the work together. But, after 5 days, A 1
leave off. B will do the remaining work in

  (a) 5 days

  (b) 6 days

  (c) 8 days

  (d) 10 days.

102. A can do a piece of work in 14 days which B alone can do in 21 days. They begin together but 3 days before the 1
completion of the work, A leaves off. the total number of days for the work to be completed is

  (a) 6
3
days
5

  (b) 8
1
days
2

  (c) 12
9
days
10

  (d) 13
1
days
2

103. The rates of working of A and B are in the ratio 3 : 4. The number of days taken by them to finish the work are 1
in the ratio :

  (a) 3 : 4

  (b) 9 : 16

  (c) 4 : 3

  (d) None of these

104. Two men undertake to do a piece of work for Rs 4000. One alone can do it in 6 days, the other in 8 days, with 1
the help of a boy, they finish it in 3 days. The boy’s share is :

  (a) Rs 400

  (b) Rs 500

  (c) Rs 600

  (d) Rs 800

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105. 2 men and 3 women can finish a piece of work in 10 days, while 4 men can do it in 10 days. In how many days 1
will 3 men and 3 women finish it ?

  (a) 6 days

  (b) 5
2
days
3

  (c) 8 days

  (d) 8
1
days
3

106. Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 6 minutes and 7 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are opened 1
alternatively for 1 minute each. In what time will they fill the cistern?

  (a) 5 minutes

  (b) 5
2
minutes
3

  (c) 6
3
minutes
7

  (d) 1
1
minutes
4

107. A tank can be filled by a tap in 20 minutes and by another tap in 60 minutes. Both the taps are kept open for 10 1
minutes and then the first tap is shut off. After this, the tank will be completely filled in

  (a) 10 minutes

  (b) 12 minutes

  (c) 15 minutes

  (d) 20 minutes

108. Find the maximum or minimum value of the quadratic expression, x2 - 3x + 5 whichever exists. 1

  (a) The minimum value is 9

10

  (b) The minimum value is 11

  (c) The maximum value is 9

10

  (d) The maximum value is 11

109. The sum of a number and its square is greater than 6, then the number belongs to __________ 1

  (a)  (−∞,  2) ∪ (3, ∞)

  (b)  (−∞, −3) ∪ (2, ∞)

  (c) (2, 3)

  (d) [2, 3]

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110. If 3.22x+1 - 5.2x+2 + 16 = 0 and x is an integer, find the value of x. 1

  (a) 1

  (b) 2

  (c) 3

  (d) 4

111. If the roots of the equation 2x2 + 7x + 4 = 0 are in the ratio p : q, then find the value of √ p +√ q . 1
q p

  (a) 7

2√2

  (b) 7√2

  (c) 7√2

16

  (d) None of these

112. The difference of the roots of 2y2 - ky + 16 = 0 is 1


. Find k. 1
3

  (a) ±
32

  (b) ±
34

  (c) ±
38

  (d) ±
40

113. What should be multiplied to (2x2 + 3x - 4) to get 4x4 - 9x2 + 24x - 16 ? 1

  (a) 2x2 - 3x - 4

  (b) 2x2 + 24x - 16

  (c) 2x2 + 3x + 4

  (d) 2x2 - 3x + 4

114. If f(x) = (x + 2)7 (x + 4)p, g(x) = (x + 2)q × (x + 4)9 and the LCM of f(x) and g(x) is (x + 2)q (x + 4)9, then find the 1
maximum value of p - q.

  (a) 4

  (b) 3

  (c) 2

  (d) Cannot be determined

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115. The condition for the sum and the product of the roots of the quadratic equation
1
ax2 - bx + c = 0 to be equal, is

  (a) b + c = 0

  (b) b - c = 0

  (c) a + c = 0

  (d) a + b + c = 0

116. √√5 +2+√√5 −2


−−−−−−
1
If N = −√3−2√2 then the value of N is:
√√5 +2

  (a) 2√2−1

  (b) 2

  (c) 3

  (d) √5−√2

117. Two non negative real numbers ‘x’ and ‘y’ are such that 2x + y = 5. the sum of the maximum and minimum 1
values of (x + y) is :

  (a) 2

  (b) 5

  (c) 8

  (d) None of these

118. The graph of y = ax2 + bx + c is given in figure then identify the signs of a, b and c:
1

  (a) a<0,  b>0,  c<0

  (b) a<0,  b<0,  c>0

  (c) a<0,  b>0,  c>0

  (d) a<0,  b<0,  c<0

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119. α, β, γ are zeros of cubic polynomial x3 - 12x2 + 44x + c. If α, β, γ are in A.P., find the value of c. 1

  (a) -48

  (b) 48

  (c) -24

  (d) 24

120. The sum of real values of y satisfying the equations x2 + x2y2 + x2y4 = 525 and x + xy + xy2 = 35 is: 1

  (a) 15

  (b) 10

  (c) 5

  (d) 3

Physics  13 

121. Given question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in 1
Column - I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column-II.

Column I Column II

(p)
(A) α- decay 235 1 141 92 1
U+ n → Ba+ K r+3 ( n) +Q
92 0 56 36 0

(B) β-decay (q) 3


1
2
H+ H
1

4
2
H e+Q+ n
1
0

(C) Nuclear Fission (r ) 230


88
TH →
226
88
4
Ra+ H e+Q
2

(D) Nuclear Fusion (s) 137 Cs →


137
Ba+e
− ¯¯¯¯
+V +Q
55 56

  (a) A→ s; B → r; C → q; D → p;

  (b) A→ r; B → s; C → P; D → q;

  (c) A→ q; B → r; C → s; D → p;

  (d) A → p; B → r; C → q; D → s;

122. In a nuclear power plant, uranium atoms 1

  (a) combine and give off heat energy

  (b) split and give off heat energy

  (c) burn and give off heat energy

  (d) split and give off electrons


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123. The energy of a thermal neutron is about 1

  (a) 0.025 eV

  (b) 0.25 eV

  (c) 0.0025 eV

  (d) 0.00025 eV

124. Solar, biomass, geothermal, wind, and hydropower energy are all renewable sources of energy. They are called 1
renewable because they-

  (a) are clean and free to use

  (b) can be converted directly into heat and electricity

  (c) can be replenished by nature in a short period of time

  (d) do not produce air pollution

125. U-235 content in natural uranium is 1

  (a) 99.2 percent

  (b) 100 percent

  (c) 0.006 percent

  (d) 0.714 percent

126. Nuclear power plants are functioning at 1

  (a) Tarapur

  (b) Kalpakkan

  (c) Kota

  (d) All of these

127. A circular coil A of radius r carries current I. Another circular coil B of radius 2r carries current of I. The magnetic 1
fields at the centres of the circular coils are in the ratio of

  (a) 3 : 1

  (b) 4 : 1

  (c) 1 : 1

  (d) 2 : 1

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128. Three rings each having equal radius R are placed mutually perpendicular to each other and each having centre 1
at the origin of coordinate axes system .If current I is flowing through each ring then the magnitude of the
magnetic field at the common centre is

  (a) √3 μ I
0

2R

  (b) (√3 −1)μ I


0

2R

  (c) (√3 −√2 )μ I


0

2R

  (d) (√2 −1)μ I


0

2R

129. A coil of 50 turns and 10 cm diameter has resistance of 10 ohm. What must be potential difference across the 1
coil so as to nullify the earth’s magnetic field B = 0.314 G at the centre of the coil.

  (a) 0.5 volt

  (b) 1.0 volt

  (c) 1.5 volt

  (d) 2.5 volt

130. A charge +q is moving upwards vertically. It enters a magnetic field directed to the north. The force on the 1
charged will be towards

  (a) North

  (b) South

  (c) West

  (d) East

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131. A magnetic field 1

  (a) always exerts a force on a charged particle

  (b) never exerts a force on a charged particle

  (c) exerts a force, if the charged particle is moving across the magnetic field lines

  (d) exerts a force, if the charged particle is moving along the magnetic field lines

132. If a charged particle is describing a circle of radius r in a magnetic field with a time period T, then 1

  (a) T
2

3
r

  (b) T
2
∝ r

  (c) T ∝ r
2

  (d) T ∝ r
0

133. A current of 10 ampere is flowing in a wire of length 1.5 metre. A force of 15 newtons acts on it when it is placed 1
in a uniform magnetic field of 2 tesla. The angle between the magnetic field and the direction of the current is

  (a) 300

  (b) 450

  (c) 600

  (d) 900

Chemistry  13 

134. Which metal is sometimes found in native state ? 1

  (a) Al

  (b) Cu

  (c) Fe

  (d) Mg

135. The chemical formula for cryolite is 1

  (a) Al2O3

  (b) Na3AlF6

  (c) Al(OH)3

  (d) NaAlO2

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136. Magnalium is an alloy of : 1

  (a) Al and Cu

  (b) Mg and Al

  (c) Zn and Al

  (d) Cu and Zn

137. The atomic numbers of four elements A, B, C and D are 6, 8, 10 and 12 respectively. The two elements which 1
can react to form ionic bonds (or ionic compound) are :

  (a) A and B

  (b) B and C

  (c) A and C

  (d) B and D

138. Which of the following statements is not correct? 1

  (a) metals are solid at room temperature.

  (b) metals are good conductors of heat and electricity.

  (c) metals from acidic oxides.

  (d) metals possess lustre when freshly prepared

139. Copper sulphate solution can be safely kept in a container made of 1

  (a) aluminium

  (b) lead

  (c) silver

  (d) zinc

140. Aluminium reacts with caustic soda to form 1

  (a) Sodium meta aluminate

  (b) Alumining hydroxide

  (c) Aluminium oxide

  (d) Sodium tetra aluminate

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141. Match column I with Column II. 1

Column I Column II

A. German silver 1. Tin

B. Solder 2. Nickel

C. Bleaching powder 3. Sodium

D. Hypo 4. Chlorine

 
A B C D
(a)
2 1 4 3

 
A B C D
(b)
1 4 3 2

 
A B C D
(c)
4 3 2 1

 
A B C D
(d)
3 2 1 4

142. Metals are refined by using different methods. Which of the following metals are refined by electrolytic refining 1
?

(i) Au

(ii) Cu

(iii) Na

(iv) K

  (a) (i) and (ii)

  (b) (i) and (iii)

  (c) (ii) and (iii)

  (d) (iii) and (iv)

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143. Silver jewellery turns dull after some time due to the formation of 1

  (a) Ag2SO4

  (b) Ag2CO3

  (c) AgCl

  (d) Ag2S

144. Which of the following has the highest melting point ? 1

  (a) cane sugar

  (b) sodium chloride

  (c) calcium oxide

  (d) Magnesium chloride

145. Chemical method used in concentration of ore is known as 1

  (a) bleaching

  (b) leaching

  (c) roasting

  (d) calcination

146. Heating of concentrated ore in the absence of air is known as 1

  (a) roasting

  (b) calcination

  (c) reduction

  (d) None of these

Biology  14 

147. Three of the following statements regarding cell organelles are correct, while one is wrong. Which one is wrong? 1

  (a) Lysosomes are double membraned vesicles budded off from Golgi apparatus and contain digestive enzymes

  (b) ER consists of a network of membranous tubules and helps in transport, synthesis and secretion

  Leucoplasts are bounded by two membranes, lack pigment but contain their own DNA and protein synthesising
(c)
machinery

  (d) Spherosomes are single membrane bound and are associated with synthesis and storage of lipids

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148. The plasma membrane consists mainly of 1

  (a) phospholipids embedded in protein bilayer

  (b) protein embedded in a phospholipid bilayer

  (c) proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose molecules

  (d) protein embedded in carbohydrate bilayer

149. Which of the following are not non-membranous and found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? 1

  (a) Lysosome

  (b) Microbodies

  (c) Ribosomes

  (d) Vacuoles

150. Comparing small and Large cells, which statement is correct? 1

  (a) Small cells have a small surface area per volume ratio

  (b) Exchange rate of nutrients is fast with large cells

  (c) Small cells have a large surface area per volume ratio

  (d) Exchange rate of nutrients is slow with small cells

151. Which of the following is not correctly matched? 1

  (a) Amyloplast – Store fats

  (b) Elaioplasts – Store oils

  (c) Aleuroplasts – Store proteins

  (d) Chloroplasts – Contain photosynthetic pigments

152. A plant tissue, when stained, showed the presence of hemicellulose and pectin in cell wall of its cells. The tissue 1
represents

  (a) Collenchyma

  (b) Sclerenchyma

  (c) Xylem

  (d) Meristem

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153. Companion cells are absent in phloem of 1

  (a) angiosperms and bryophytes

  (b) pteridophytes and gymnosperms

  (c) angiosperms and gymnosperms

  (d) bryophytes and angisoperms

154. Match the following columns. 1

Column A Column B

A. Stomata 1. Light colour

B. Mesophyll cell 2. Pore surrounded by guard cells

C. Lenticles 3. Dark colour

D. Spring wood 4. Photosynthesis

5. Exchange of gases

 
A B C D
(a)
4 1 5 2

 
A B C D
(b)
2 1 3 5

 
A B C D
(c)
2 4 5 1

 
A B C D
(d)
1 2 3 4

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155. Match the following columns. 1

Column A Column B

A. Squamous epithlium 1. Below the skin

B. Hyaline cartilage 2. Bowman’s capsule

C. Adipose tissue 3. Walls of stomach

D. Smooth muscles 4. Trachea

5. Duct of glands

 
A B C D
(a)
5 1 4 2

 
A B C D
(b)
5 4 1 3

 
A B C D
(c)
2 1 4 3

 
A B C D
(d)
2 4 1 3

156. The type of epithelial cells, which line the inner surface of Fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small bronchi is 1
known as

  (a) squamous epithelium

  (b) columnar epithelium

  (c) cilliated epithelium

  (d) cubical epithelium

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157. Match the following columns. 1

Column A Column B

A. Cartilage 1. Neurilemma

B. Bone 2. Sarcolemma

C. Muscle fibre 3. Perichondrium

D. Neuron 4. Periosteum

5. Pericardium

 
A B C D
(a)
3 4 2 1

 
A B C D
(b)
3 5 2 1

 
A B C D
(c)
3 4 2 5

 
A B C D
(d)
3 4 1 2

158. Skeletal muscles show resemblance with visceral muscles in one aspect. it is in 1

  (a) shape of muscle fibres

  (b) number of nuclei in muscle fibres

  (c) presence of actin and myosin filaments

  (d) presence of light and dark bands

159. The connective tissue that connects the skin to the underlying structures is 1

  (a) areolar tissue

  (b) serous membrane

  (c) reticular tissue

  (d) dense connective tissue

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160. The main difference in white and yellow fibres is of 1

  (a) protein

  (b) colour of the fibres

  (c) Both (a) and (b)

  (d) None of these

SST  40 

161. Which of the following is not the problem created as a result of indiscriminate utilisation of natural resources? 1

  (a) Depletion of resources for meeting the greed of few individuals.

  (b) A judicious, rational and equitable distribution of resources for achieving sustainable existence.

  (c) Accumulation of resources in few hands

  (d) Global ecological crises, environmental pollution and land degradation.

162. Where do we find Laterite soil? 1

  (a) Madhya Pradesh

  (b) Gujarat

  (c) Tamil Nadu

  (d) None of these

163. Bangur soil has highest concentration of 1

  (a) sand

  (b) water

  (c) industrial effluents

  (d) kankar

164. Which soil is also called the regur soil? 1

  (a) Red soil

  (b) Laterite soil

  (c) Black soil

  (d) Alluvial soil

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165. The land area of the country must be covered with forests is 1

  (a) 35 percent

  (b) 33 percent

  (c) 23 percent

  (d) 20 percent

166. The resource that can be used again and again after due processing are called 1

  (a) Abiotic resources

  (b) Natural resources

  (c) Cyclical resources

  (d) Human-made resources

167. Where was Indira Point located? 1

  (a) In Lakshadweep Islands

  (b) In Andaman Islands

  (c) In Nicobar Islands

  (d) In Maldives

168. What influences the duration of the day and night as one moves from south to north? 1

  (a) Longitudinal extent

  (b) Latitudinal extent

  (c) Tropic of Cancer

  (d) Tropic of Capricorn

169. Where are Maldives Islands situated ? 1

  (a) To the south of the Lakshadweep Islands

  (b) To the north of the Lakshadweep Islands

  (c) To the north of the Andaman and Nicohar Islands

  (d) To the south of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands

170. Innermost shell of the earth’s crust is called 1

  (a) Crust

  (b) Mantle

  (c) Core

  (d) Lithosphore

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171. An earth quake is measured with a machine called ____ 1

  (a) seismograph

  (b) Raine Gauge

  (c) Altmeter

  (d) Horst

172. Which of these is a type of volcano ? 1

  (a) Active

  (b) Dormant

  (c) Extinct

  (d) All of these

173. Which of these is a type of earth quake waves? 1

  (a) Longitudinal waves

  (b) Transverse waves

  (c) Surface waves

  (d) all of these

174. This layer exteneds from 80 km to 400 km. 1

  (a) Ionosphere

  (b) Mesosphere

  (c) Stratosphere

  (d) Exosphere

175. Which is one of the benefits of power sharing? 1

  (a) It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups

  (b) It ensures political stability in the long run

  (c) All political parties get their expected share

  (d) All of these

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176. The tension between Dutch speaking and French-speaking people in Belgium was more acute in Brussels as 1
..........

  (a) The Dutch-speaking people constituted majority in the country, but a minority in the capital.

  (b) The Dutch-speaking people constituted a minority in the country, but a majority in the capital.

  (c) The Sinhalese were in majority and Tamils were in minority.

  (d) the Sinhalese were in minority and Tamils were in majority.

177. Both Sri Lanka and Belgium dealt the question of power sharing differently ........ 1

  In Sri Lanka the leaders decided to give equal powers to all whereas Belgium decided to follow the principle of
(a)
majoritarianism.

  In Belgium the leaders decided to respect the feelings and interests of different communities and regions
(b)
whereas the Sri Lankan government followed the principle of majoritarianism.

  In Sri Lanka the leaders decided to form a Communist government whereas in Belgium the leaders decided to
(c)
follow the principle of capitalism.

  (d) In Belgium the leaders encouraged the Civil War whereas in Sri Lanka the leaders were ready to negotiate.

178. Under vertical division of power sharing, power is divided ......... 1

  (a) among governments at different levels.

  (b) among different organs of the government.

  (c) among different social groups

  (d) among different political parties.

179. When did Allende’s government was overthrown by the military? 1

  (a) 11 September, 1973

  (b) 11 September, 1975

  (c) 21 September, 1978

  (d) 11 August, 1983

180. Community government in Belgium is a good example of power sharing among the ....... 1

  (a) Different organs of government

  (b) Government at different levels

  (c) Different social groups

  (d) Political parties

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181. When was universal adult franchise granted in India? 1

  (a) 1950

  (b) 1947

  (c) 1944

  (d) 1942

182. Who was the leader of the military coup in Chile? 1

  (a) General Alberto Bachelet

  (b) General Augusto Pinochet

  (c) Michelle Bachelet

  (d) Lech Walesa

183. What is peculiar with ZANU – PF? 1

  (a) It has never won any election

  (b) It has always won elections

  (c) It is a one-man party

  (d) It is the biggest political party in the world

184. Which of the following is in favour of democracy? 1

  (a) Leaders keep changing

  (b) Delays are often made in taking decisions.

  (c) The dignity of citizens is enhanced

  (d) Political competition is very prominent

185. The Indian democracy functions on the basis of 1

  (a) one man and unlimited votes

  (b) one man one vote

  (c) only elite adults can vote

  (d) only educated people can vote

186. The first UPA alliance came to the power in 1

  (a) 1996

  (b) 1999

  (c) 2004

  (d) 2006

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187. In which one of the following events, we see the clear expression of nationalism? 1

  (a) Glorious Revolution

  (b) The French Revolution of 1789

  (c) The American Revolution

  (d) The Russian Revolution

188. Choose the country where the French armies did not march into by the 1790s. 1

  (a) Holland

  (b) Belgium

  (c) Switzerland

  (d) England

189. The Habsburg Empire ruled over which area? 1

  (a) Denmark

  (b) Sweden

  (c) Belgium-Holland

  (d) Austria Hungary

190. What is meant by the Ottoman Empire? 1

  (a) The empire established by the Czar

  (b) The empire established by Hitler

  (c) The empire established by Turkey

  (d) The empire established by Italy

191. What do the saints, angles and Christ symbolise in the Utopian vision? 1

  (a) Equality among people

  (b) Fraternity among nations

  (c) Freedom of nations

  (d) Resentment against nations

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192. When were the ‘Conservatives Regimes’ set up? 1

  (a) 1830

  (b) 1820

  (c) 1815

  (d) 1832

193. When did Napoleon invade Italy? 1

  (a) 1821

  (b) 1905

  (c) 1797

  (d) 1796

194. What was taille known as ? 1

  (a) Indirect tax

  (b) Direct tax

  (c) Agricultural produce

  (d) Extreme poverty

195. Who was the author of Two Treatises of Government ? 1

  (a) Jean Jacques Rousseau

  (b) Montesquien

  (c) Mirabean

  (d) John Locke

196. When was Bastille destroyed? 1

  (a) 14 July 1789

  (b) 14 July 1798

  (c) 2 July 1789

  (d) 5 August 1879

197. What was the main objective of the Constitution of 1791? 1

  (a) To dethrone the king

  (b) To limit the powers of the clergy and the nobility

  (c) To limit the powers of the king

  (d) To make the king more powerful

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198. What was ‘Sceptre’? 1

  (a) Symbol of strength

  (b) Symbol of eternity

  (c) Symbol of deep knowledge

  (d) Symbol of royal power

199. By whom was phrygian cap worn and on what occasion? 1

  (a) By a man on becoming a slave

  (b) By a slave on becoming free

  (c) By a slave on becoming victorious

  (d) By a soldier on accepting defeat

200. When was France declared a republic? 1

  (a) On 21 September 1792

  (b) On 21 May 1792

  (c) On 21 September 1793

  (d) On 5 August 1793

All The Best

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