\MPAS 606: Genetics PRACTICE Exam 1 Spring 2020 ______/208

Name: _________________________________

1. Which of the following is FALSE?

a. Mendel’s cornerstone experiments were done with garden peas.
b. Mendel’s second postulate stated that progeny tend to look like their parents
c. Based on his experiments, Mendel suggested that members of different gene pairs segregate into
gametes independent of one another.
d. Mendel suggested discontinuous variation at a time when the prevailing idea about inheritance was
continuous variation, and this is one reason his research was ignored for decades.

2. Watson and Crick came up with their model of the double helix relying partly on the experiments of
_______ (who died before awarded the Nobel Prize).
a. Rosalind Franklin
b. Mendel
c. Thomas Hunt Morgan
d. Painter

3. Alkaptonuria is caused by an error in _______ metabolism.

a. tryptophan
b. alanine
c. glutamate
d. tyrosine

4. Multifactorial disorders:
a. have both a genetic and an environmental component.
b. are often polygenic/quantitative.
c. are, for example, type II diabetes and coronary artery disease.
d. are described by all of the above.

5. Up to _______ of newborns have at least one major congenital abnormality.

a. 1%
b. 2%
c. 3%
d. 4%

6. What percentage of human cancers are thought to have a strong hereditary component?
a. 2%
b. 5-10%
c. 15%
d. 18-20%

7. What type of covalent bond is formed when two nucleotides are linked?
a. phosphodiester
b. ether
c. peptide
d. glycosidic
8. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the DNA double helix?
a. the two polymer chains are antiparallel
b. there is a major groove and a minor groove
c. nitrogenous bases of opposite chains pair by ionic bonding
d. the nitrogenous bases are inside the helix, lying perpendicular to the axis.

9. In which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?

a. G1
b. S
c. G2
d. prophase

10. At the end of our chromosomes are repeated short sequences that are shortened with every round
of replication. These sequences are called ______.
a. LINES
b. SINES
c. Telomeres
d. Microsatellites

11. What type of mutation causes sickle cell anemia?

a. point mutation in beta hemoglobin gene
b. frameshift mutation in alpha hemoglobin gene
c. frameshift mutation in beta hemoglobin gene
d. point mutation in alpha hemoglobin gene

12. Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

a. Satellites…….alphoid family
b. Microsatellites….short tandem repeats
c. LINES….telomeres
d. SINES….Alu sequences

13. Which type of RNA is NOT involved in protein synthesis?

a. siRNA
b. rRNA
c. tRNA
d. mRNA

14. Nucleotides are linked via ______ bonds, whereas _______ bonds link amino acids.
a. phosphodiester……glycosidic
b. glycosidic…..peptide
c. peptide…..sulfide
d. phosphodiester…..peptide

15. In eukaryotic cells, what modification occurs at the 3’ end of mRNAs?

a. “G” cap
b. poly G tail
c. poly A tail
d. splicing

16. Histone proteins are:

a. positively charged and acidic
b. positively charged and basic
c. negatively charged and acidic
d. negatively charged and basic

17. Consider the genetic code. How many codons code for an amino acid?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 64
d. 61

18. How many stop codons are there?

a. 3
b. 4
c. 64
d. 1

19. Which of the following is the “start” codon in the genetic code?
a. AGG
b. UAG
c. AUG
d. UAA

20. Mitochondrial DNA is inherited from the maternal parent.

a. True
b. False

21. Acetylation of histone “tails” is linked to gene activation.

a. True
b. False

22. A human karyotype shows a deletion of the tip of the p arm of one chromosome 5. What syndrome
does this demonstrate?
a. Klinefelter syndrome
b. Cri-du-chat syndrome
c. Wolf-Hirshhorn syndrome
d. Charcot-Marie-Tooth syndrome

23. Look at the depiction of a cell in mitosis below. What phase of mitosis does this represent?
a. prophase
b. metaphase
c. anaphase
d. telophase

24. In what phase of meiosis does “crossing over” occur?

a. prophase I
b. prophase II
c. anaphase I
d. anaphase II

25. Regarding oogenesis in humans, which of the following is FALSE?

a. meiosis I begins in the embryonic ovary, and oocytes arrest in prophase I
b. at the end of meiosis I, unequal division of the cytoplasm results in one polar body and one secondary
oocyte.
c. once puberty begins, every month an oocyte completes meiosis I and II and awaits fertilization.
d. a second polar body arises after meiosis II.

26. A person whose karyotype is 45, XO has _______ syndrome.

a. Patau
b. Edwards
c. Klinefelter
d. Turner

27. Trisomy 13 is another name for _______ syndrome.

a. Patau
b. Edwards
c. Klinefelter
d. Turner

28. Studies of miscarriages suggest that about ____% of chromosomally abnormal embryos/fetuses are
miscarried.
a. 50
b. 60
c. 75
d. 90

29. A chromosomal inversion that INCLUDES the centromere is termed a/n _________ inversion.
a. Pericentric
b. Paracentric
c. Acrocentric
d. Telocentric

30. In humans, how many types of monosomy can result in a live birth?
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four

31. Although the most frequent form of Down syndrome is caused by a random error (non-disjunction of
chromosome 21), Down syndrome occasionally runs in families. The cause of this form of familial Down
syndrome is ________.
a. an inversion involving chromosome 21
b. a chromosomal aberration involving chromosome 1
c. too many X chromosomes
d. an unbalanced translocation event between chromosome 21 and chromosome 14

-----------------------End of quiz questions-----------------------

32. Mendel proposed that traits are controlled by “unit factors”. We know that these “unit factors” are
_______.
a. amino acids
b. genes
c. gametes
d. chromosomes

33. Mendel’s dihybrid cross resulted in a particular ratio in F2. We know that this ratio is:
a. 1:1:1:1
b. 3:1
c. 1:3
d. 9:3:3:1

34. Which of the following does not accurately represent Mendel’s postulates?
a. Law of uniformity: observed genetic “blending” rather than dominant vs recessive traits
b. Law of independent assortment: gene pairs separate into gametes independently
c. Law of segregation: alleles of a particular gene (in the diploid organism) separate randomly into
gametes
d. Law of independent assortment: members of different gene pairs segregate into gametes
independent of one another.

35. Walter Flemming is best known for:

a. chromosomal theory of inheritance-Sutton and Boveri
b. discovery of chromosome Y-Painter
c. studies with Drosophila-Morgan
d. discovery of chromosomes

36. Tjio and Levan are best known for:

a. discovery of chromosome Y-Painter
b. studies with Drosophila-Morgan
c. demonstration of 46 chromosomes in humans
d. discovery of chromosomes-Walter Flemming

37. Humans and flies have many similar genes. These are also called:
a. paralogs
b. homologs
c. HOX genes
d. SINES

38. There are _____ bases per complete turn in DNA.

a. 12
b. 11
c. 10.4
d. 11.8

39. ______ is a purine and ______ is a pyrimidine.

a. cytosine……thymine
b. cytosine……adenine
c. adenine…….cytosine
d. thymine……cytosine

40. Archibald Garrod was known for:

a. Red/green colorblindness, hemophilia-John Dalton
b. Alkaptonuria, genetic component in metabolic disorders
c. X-ray diffraction of DNA-Rosalind Franklin
d. “transforming” factor of smooth and rough strains of bacteria in mice-Griffith

41. Which of the following is not controlled by a single gene change?

a. eye color
b. Cystic fibrosis
c. Huntington disease
d. Sickle cell anemia

42. This is an example of an acquired somatic genetic disease:

a. Sickle cell anemia
b. Huntington disease
c. Chronic myelogenous leukemia-Most cancers are not inherited, but acquired through mutations
d. Influenza

43. In a colony of honeybees, there are 300 who get sick with Chalkbrood monthly. At any given time,
there are a total of 900 honeybees with Chalkbrood. The total colony size is consistently 90,000
honeybees. Which of the following is true?
a. Incidence: 1 in 300 monthly.-Incidence=300/90,000=1 in 300. Prevalence=900/90,000= 1 in 100
b. Prevalence: 1 in 10,000
c. Prevalence: 300 honeybees
d. Incidence: 1 in 10,000 monthly
e. None of these are true.

44. Genetic mistakes can cause miscarriages. What percent of first-trimester losses are caused by
chromosomal abnormality?
a. 3%
b. 1%
c. 40-50%-from the second to last slide from Mendelian Genetics presentation.
d. 60-70%

45. Which of the following is FALSE?

a. Uracil lacks a methyl group compared to thymine.
b. Thymine lacks a methyl group compared to uracil.
c. Adenine and guanine are purines.
d. Cytosine and thymine and pyrimidines.

46. Nucleotides can only be added to the ___ of the 5-carbon sugar.
a. 3’ H
b. 3’ OH
c. 5’ H
d. 5’ OH

47. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. Helicases open up the DNA
b. DNA polymerases begin synthesis without RNA-They need a primer to begin.
c. Topoisomerases remove tension in the DNA as it is opened
d. Ligases link together all the new DNA “pieces”

48. Which of the following is FALSE about Telomeres?

a. Telomere shortening are considered a marker of cellular aging.
b. Many repeats of a sequence such as 5’-TTAGGG-3’.
c. Found within our chromosomes.-They are found at the end of our chromosomes.-2nd powerpoint
d. Some telomere is lost with every round of replication.

49. Telomerase is:

a. an enzyme active in most somatic cells of eukaryotes
b. an enzyme that shortens (breaks down) telomeres
c. only active in malignant cells and stem cells
d. a protein that opens up DNA so that a single strand region is available to the copying enzymes

50. Which of the following is true?

a. Heterochromatin is bound with acetyl groups
b. Heterochromatin is active in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell
c. Euchromatin is not bound with acetyl groups
d. Euchromatin is active in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell

51. Approximately ____% of our DNA codes for proteins.

a. 10
b. 20-30.5
c. 8
d. 1.5-2

52. Exons are expressed in mRNA. Introns are not expressed in mRNA.
a. True
b. False
53. These are responsible for the head-to-tail organization of the body.
a. Acrocentric chromosomes
b. HOX genes
c. Pseudogenes
d. HLA genes

54. Which of the following are FALSE?

a. Sickle cell is a point mutation.
b. Sickle cell is a change from glutamic acid to valine.
c. Sickle cell gene is on chromosome 14.- It is located on gene 11. I think of the 1s stacking up to deform
the cell into a sickle shape
d. Sickle cell world-wide distribution typically follows malaria distribution.
e. Sickle cell is inherited in a recessive autosomal fashion.

55. These are currently used in DNA fingerprinting.

a. microsatellites- “…are used in DNA fingerprinting because # of repeats varies among individuals.”
b. minisatellites-“Were the basis of DNA fingerprinting at first”
c. satellites
d. LINES

56. Which of the following is FALSE?

a. Alu sequences are examples of SINES
b. L1, associated with colon cancer, is an example of a SINE-it’s an example of a LINE, not a SINE.
c. LINEs are typically around 6,000 bp
d. SINEs are typically under 500 bp

57. The “alphoid family” in humans is an example of (a) _______.

a. satellite-“In humans, most recognized satellite is the alphoid family.”
b. minisatellite
c. SINES
d. LINES

58. According to the Mayo Clinic, this is one of the first signs of sickle cell in infants:
a. Anemia
b. Frequent infections
c. Swollen hands and feet-These are all signs, but this is the first sign per the slides.
d. Delayed growth and vision problems

59. Select one of the following that best represents the degeneracy of codons.
a. UUU codes for Phenylalanine in humans and bacteria. -Universal
b. CCU only codes for Proline.-Unambiguous (I did not say here that proline is only coded by CCU)
c. Codons are read by the ribosome without any skipping or shimmying.
d. AAU and AAC both code for Asparagine.

60. Which phrase best represents the concept of codons being unambiguous?
a. UUU codes for Phenylalanine in humans and bacteria.
b. CCU only codes for Proline.
c. Codons are read by the ribosome without any skipping or shimmying.
d. AAU and AAC both code for Asparagine.

61. Which of the following is FALSE?

a. RNA polymerase II synthesizes messenger RNA.
b. RNA polymerase II links ribonucleotides together on the DNA template.
c. RNA polymerase II requires a primer.-This is RNA Polymerase, not DNA Polymerase.
d. RNA polymerase II creates phosphodiester bonds.

62. In eukaryotic cells, what modification occurs at the 5’ end of mRNAs?

a. “G” cap
b. poly G tail
c. poly A tail-This occurs at the 3’OH end.
d. splicing

63. In RNA “processing”, the exons are removed and the introns are spliced together.
a. True
b. False-Introns are removed and exons are spliced together.

64. Which gene is linked to Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)?

a. X-linked dystrophin gene
b. X-linked deuteranopia gene-Colorblindness
c. Y-linked dystrophin gene
d. Y-linked deuteranopia gene

65. What is the largest human gene?

a. Insulin gene (INS)
b. Testis determining factor (TDF)-Shortest human gene.
c. Dystrophin gene (DMD)
d. Beta-globin gene (HBB)

66. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. Alternative splicing is how one gene can make many different proteins.
b. Insulin is one of only a few genes in which the polypeptide is NOT cleaved into pieces.
c. After a polypeptide is synthesized, a sort of cellular “zip code” is added to direct it to a specific cellular
location.
d. After a polypeptide is synthesized, it can be methylated, phosphorylated or glycosylated.

67. Which of the following is FALSE?

a. Some polypeptides are expressed in all human cells.
b. Some cells express a unique subset of genes appropriate for the cell/tissue type.
c. Chromatin must be remodeled before any genes can be expressed.
d. Acetylation must take place to package up the chromatin after expression.

68. What must bind to the promoter before RNA polymerase II binds?
a. TATA box
b. CAAT box
c. GC box
d. Transcription factors
69. Which of the following is FALSE?
a. Enhancers (in DNA) are bound by activators.
b. Silencers are bound by repressors.
c. Enhancers must be close to the gene they affect.
d. Enhancers and silencers may have a strong impact on transcription rates.

70. What portion of our genes likely undergoes alternative splicing?

a. 1/8
b. 2/3
c. 11/12
d. 1/12

71. Myotonic dystrophy:

a. is an autosomal recessive disease.
b. can be caused by too many CTG repeats in the DMPK gene.
c. is the inability to tighten muscles.-Too much tightening
d. can be caused by too few CCTG repeats in the ZNF9 gene.-Too many.

72. Which of the following is FALSE?

a. Bats can be a carrier of coronaviruses.
b. The coronavirus is enveloped with a single strand RNA genome.
c. Coronaviruses are one of the causes of common colds in humans.
d. COVID-19 has a higher mortality rate than MERS-CoV and SARS-CoV.

73. Which of the following accurately describes this picture?

a. Left-acrocentric, right-metacentric
b. Left-metacentric, right-acrocentric
c. Left-telocentric, right-submetacentric
d. Left-acrocentric, right-telocentric

74. As humans, discounting disorders, we all have at least

___ autosomes in our cells as pairs called homologous
chromosomes.
a. 23
b. 22-Men have 22, women have 23, so as humans, we
have at least 22 pairs.
c. 13
d. 11

75. Which of the following is FALSE?

a. Our somatic cells generally contain a diploid number of chromosomes.
b. Homologous pairs of chromosomes contain the same alleles.-They contain the same genes, not what
is in the genes! (alleles=what’s in the genes)
c. Females have 23 homologous chromosomes, whereas males only have 22 homologous chromosomes.
d. SRY, which encodes for TDF is located on the Y chromosome.
76. Pick the one below that matches the following: 47, XY, +21
a. Turner syndrome
b. Female with down syndrome
c. Patau syndrome
d. Male with down syndrome

77. Pick the one below that matches the following: 46, XX, 5p-
a. Turner syndrome
b. Cri-du-chat syndrome
c. Patau syndrome
d. Male with down syndrome

78. Pick the condition associated with the CFTR gene.

a. Cystic fibrosis
b. Citrovorum factor disorder
c. Calcaneofibular cardiac failure
d. Cardiac fibrillation disorder

79. Pick the one below that matches the following: 45, XO
a. Turner syndrome-The only tolerated(meaning able to survive to/after birth) monosomy in humans.
b. Klinefelter syndrome-47, XXY
c. Patau syndrome-chromosome 13
d. Female with down syndrome-47, XX, +21

80. Pick the one below that matches the following: 47, XXY
a. Turner syndrome-45, XO
b. Klinefelter syndrome
c. Patau syndrome
d. Male with down syndrome

81. Which of the following is classified as living? (pick all that apply)
a. Giant Virus
b. Bacteria
c. Fungi
d. Archae Bacteria
e. Prions

82. Which of the following is FALSE?

a. Viral GI and respiratory infections kill millions of children annually.
b. Viruses can be beneficial.
c. Some viruses raise your cancer risk.
d. Viruses are responsible for 80% of human cancer burden.

83. The virus obtains its ____ from the host cell membrane as it buds off.
a. capsid
b. genetic material
c. envelope
d. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
84. Which of the following is associated with EBV?
a. Ebolavirus
b. Splenomegaly-Epstein Barr Virus, AKA mononucleosis
c. Latency in the myeloid cells of the bone marrow.-CMV (this aspect causes a life-long infection with
sporadic reactivation)
d. Hearing loss.-CMV

85. In about ___% of cases, the baby contracts neonatal herpes simplex in the birth canal.
a. 6
b. 20
c. 60
d. 90

86. Mortality rate of neonatal herpes simplex with untreated disseminated disease is ___%.
a. 50
b. 65
c. 85
d. 100

87. This virus is dormant in memory B cells:

a. EBV-I think of this one as EBV (Info on this in the 3rd to last slide of herpesvirus ppt.)
b. HSV-1
c. HSV-2
d. CMV

88. This virus causes more long-term medical conditions in children than fetal alcohol syndrome in the
U.S. (select the best answer).
a. EBV
b. HIV
c. HSV-1
d. CMV-See graph in herpesvirus ppt under CMV section.

89. By means of what receptor does the influenza virus attach to the host cell?
a. Salicylic acid
b. Sialic acid- The other good answer here would be hemagglutinin.
c. Neuraminidase
d. CD4 receptors-HIV does this.

90. How many main types of influenza viruses are there?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

91. How many main types of influenza viruses cause seasonal epidemics in humans?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

91. By what mechanism does oseltamivir work?

a. Nucleoside transcriptase inhibitor
b. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
c. Inhibit neuraminidase
d. Inhibit hemagglutinin

92. How many main groups of HIV are there?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

93. Pick the one below that matches the following: 47, +18
a. Turner syndrome
b. Klinefelter syndrome
c. Patau syndrome
d. Edward’s Syndrome

94. This condition happens in 1 out of every 1000 females and results in adults taller than average.
a. Turner syndrome
b. Triple X syndrome-small birthweight, but taller than average females who can reproduce as normal.
Many do not know they have this.
c. Klinefelter syndrome
d. Marfan’s syndrome

95. If you get an extra chromosome set from a male parent, what is the result?
a. Small placenta
b. Swollen placenta
c. Two placentae
d. Twins

96. A Robertsonian translocation typically involves:

a. Two telocentric chromosomes
b. Two acrocentric chromosomes-p arms are broken off and this makes a new large chromosome.
c. Two metacentric chromosomes
d. One acrocentric chromosome and one telocentric chromosome

97. This syndrome causes a “Greek warrior helmet” appearance with poorly formed ears:
a. Marfan’s syndrome
b. Klinefelter syndrome
c. Triple X syndrome
d. Wolf-Hirschhorn syndrome

98. This syndrome typically causes seizures in childhood and intellectual disability:
a. Klinefelter syndrome
b. Triple X syndrome
c. Ring chromosome 20 syndrome
d. Wolf-Hirschhorn syndrome

99. Which of the following is NOT an example of a point mutation?

a. Missense
b. Nonsense
c. Silent
d. Frameshift

100. Huntington’s disease is an example of:

a. expansion of trinucleotide repeats.
b. deletion of trinucleotide repeats.
c. a point mutation.
d. a silent mutation.

101. If function is completely lost, this is called a “____” mutation.

a. insufficiency
b. null
c. meta
d. RAS

102. The average annual radiation dose in the U.S. is ____ millirems.
a. 530
b. 420
c. 970
d. 620

103. This condition has a lack of nucleotide excision repair (NER).

a. Marfan’s syndrome
b. Xeroderma pigmentosum
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Huntington’s disease

104. Did you actually make it this far in the practice test? 1
a. No, I skipped ahead to look at the answers the night before the test.
b. No, I like starting backwards.
c. Yes, I enjoy test taking
d. Yes. I did. Now I am done.
e. I love genetics and would actually like more to study! Please send it to me at ______@gmail.com.
1
If unanswered, then E is selected by default for question 104.