SET A

Total points88/100
 
Funda, Community Health Nursing 1,
The respondent's email (s.sanchez.camille@cmu.edu.ph) was recorded on submission of this
form.

SURNAME *

SANCHEZ

FIRST NAME *

CAMILLE

 
1. Using the principles of standard precautions, the nurse would wear gloves in what
nursing interventions?
1/1

A. Providing a back massage

B. Feeding a client
C. Providing hair care
D. Providing oral hygiene
 
 
2. The nurse is preparing to take vital sign in an alert client admitted to the hospital
with dehydration secondary to vomiting and diarrhea. What is the best method used to
assess the client’s temperature?
1/1

A. Oral
B. Axillary
 
C. Radial
D. Heat sensitive tape

 
3. A nurse obtained a client’s pulse and found the rate to be above normal. The nurse
document this findings as:
1/1

A. Tachypnea
B. Hyper pyrexia
C. Arrythmia
D. Tachycardia
 
 
4. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to use a wide base support
when assisting a client to get up in a chair?
1/1

A. Bend at the waist and place arms under the client’s arms and lift
B. Face the client, bend knees and place hands on client’s forearm and lift
 
C. Spread his or her feet apart
D. Tighten his or her pelvic muscles

 
5. A client had oral surgery following a motor vehicle accident. The nurse assessing
the client finds the skin flushed and warm. Which of the following would be the best
method to take the client’s body temperature?
1/1

A. Oral
B. Axillary
 
C. Arterial line
D. Rectal

 
6. A client who is unconscious needs frequent mouth care. When performing a mouth
care, the best position of a client is:
1/1

A. Fowler’s position
B. Side lying
 
C. Supine
D. Trendelenburg

 
7. A client is hospitalized for the first time, which of the following actions ensure the
safety of the client?
1/1

A. Keep unnecessary furniture out of the way

B. Keep the lights on at all time
C. Keep side rails up at all time
 
D. Keep all equipment out of view

 
8. A walk-in client enters into the clinic with a chief complaint of abdominal pain and
diarrhea. The nurse takes the client’s vital sign hereafter. What phrase of nursing
process is being implemented here by the nurse?
1/1

A. Assessment
 
B. Diagnosis
C. Planning
D. Implementation

 
9. It is best describe as a systematic, rational method of planning and providing
nursing care for individual, families, group and community
1/1

A. Assessment
B. Nursing Process
 
C. Diagnosis
D. Implementation

 
10. Exchange of gases takes place in which of the following organ?
1/1

A. Kidney
B. Lungs
 
C. Liver
D. Heart

 
11. The Chamber of the heart that receives oxygenated blood from the lungs is the?
1/1

A. Left atrium
 
B. Right atrium
C. Left ventricle
D. Right ventricle

 
12. A muscular enlarge pouch or sac that lies slightly to the left which is used for
temporary storage of food
1/1

A. Gallbladder
B. Urinary bladder
C. Stomach
 
D. Lungs

 
13. The ability of the body to defend itself against scientific invading agent such as
bacteria, toxin, viruses and foreign body
1/1

A. Hormones
B. Secretion
C. Immunity
 
D. Glands

 
14. Hormones secreted by Islets of Langerhans
1/1
A. Progesterone
B. Testosterone
C. Insulin
 
D. Hemoglobin

 
15. It is a transparent membrane that focuses the light that enters the eyes to the
retina.
1/1

A. Lens
B. Sclera
C. Cornea
 
D. Pupils

 
16. Which of the following is included in Orem’s theory?
1/1

A. Maintenance of a sufficient intake of air

 
B. Self perception
C. Love and belonging
D. Physiologic needs

 
17. Which of the following cluster of data belong to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
1/1

A. Love and belonging

B. Physiologic needs
C. Self actualization
D. All of the above
 
 
18. This is characterized by severe symptoms relatively of short duration.
1/1

A. Chronic Illness
B. Acute Illness
 
C. Pain
D. Syndrome

 
19. Which of the following is the nurse’s role in the health promotion
1/1

A. Health risk appraisal

B. Teach client to be effective health consumer
 
C. Worksite wellness
D. None of the above

 
20. It is describe as a collection of people who share some attributes of their lives.
1/1

A. Family
B. Illness
C. Community
 
D. Nursing

 
21. Five teaspoon is equivalent to how many milliliters (ml)?
1/1

A. 30 ml
B. 25 ml
 
C. 12 ml
D. 22 ml

 
22. 1800 ml is equal to how many liters?
1/1

A. 1.8
 
B. 18000
C. 180
D. 2800

 
23. Which of the following is the abbreviation of drops?
0/1

A. Gtt.
 
B. Gtts.
C. Dp.
D. Dr.

Correct answer
B. Gtts.

 
24. The abbreviation for micro drop is?
1/1

A. µgtt
 
B. gtt
C. mdr
D. mgts

 
25. Which of the following is the meaning of PRN?
1/1

A. When advice
B. Immediately
C. When necessary
 
D. Now

 
26. Which of the following is the appropriate meaning of CBR?
1/1

A. Cardiac Board Room

B. Complete Bathroom
C. Complete Bed Rest
 
D. Complete Board Room

 
27. 1 tsp is equals to how many drops?
1/1

A. 15
B. 60
 
C. 10
D. 30

 
28. 20 cc is equal to how many ml?
1/1

A. 2
B. 20
 
C. 2000
D. 20000

 
29. 1 cup is equals to how many ounces?
1/1

A. 8
 
B. 80
C. 800
D. 8000

 
30. The nurse must verify the client’s identity before administration of medication.
Which of the following is the safest way to identify the client?
1/1

A. Ask the client his name

 
B. Check the client’s identification band
C. State the client’s name aloud and have the client repeat it
D. Check the room number

 
31. The nurse prepares to administer buccal medication. The medicine should be
placed?
1/1

A. On the client’s skin

B. Between the client’s cheeks and gums
 
C. Under the client’s tongue
D. On the client’s conjunctiva

 
32. The nurse administers cleansing enema. The common position for this procedure
is?
1/1

A. Sims left lateral

 
B. Dorsal Recumbent
C. Supine
D. Prone

 
33. A client complains of difficulty of swallowing, when the nurse try to administer
capsule medication. Which of the following measures the nurse should do?
1/1

A. Dissolve the capsule in a glass of water

B. Break the capsule and give the content with an applesauce
C. Check the availability of a liquid preparation
 
D. Crash the capsule and place it under the tongue

 
34. Which of the following is the appropriate route of administration for insulin?
1/1

A. Intramuscular
B. Intradermal
C. Subcutaneous
 
D. Intravenous

 
35. The nurse is ordered to administer ampicillin capsule TIP p.o. The nurse shoud
give the medication?
1/1

A. Three times a day orally

 
B. Three times a day after meals
C. Two time a day by mouth
D. Two times a day before meals

COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING 1: Situation 1: The Department of Health is

strengthening its programs regarding maternal and child health nursing. As a newly
appointed community health nurse in town, you are oriented and well versed on these.
Option 1

 
36. With regards to the Women’s Health and Safe Motherhood Project, the following
strategies are included to prevent maternal mortality, except one:
1/1

Establishment of BEmoNC and CEmoNC networks

b. TBA facilitated home deliveries
 
c. Improved Family Planning counseling
d. Emphasis on Facility-based deliveries.

 
37. The following qualifications reflect possible delivery in the Rural Health Unit,
except for one:
1/1

. Cephalic presentation
b. Adequate pelvis
c. History of caesarian section delivery
 
d. Less than five pregnancies

 
38. You are assigned to provide baby care to the newly delivered healthy baby. What
procedure are you going to do first?
1/1

a. Examine the newborn and check for defects, deformities and birth injuries.
b. Provide warmth to the newborn and have a quick check for breathing
 
c. Clamp and cut the cord after cord pulsations have stopped.
d. Facilitate the bonding between the mother and the newborn through early skin–to–skin contact.

 
39. The basis for the improvement in strategies in maternal and neonatal care is on
Millennium Development Goals, which are:
1/1

a. MDGs 1 & 2
b. MDGs 2 & 4
c. MDGs 3 & 5
d. MDGs 4 & 5
 
 
40. The following are the intermediate results that can lower the risk for dying from
pregnancy and childbirth with the integration of the MNCHN services in the
community:
1/1

. Every delivery is facility-based and managed by skilled birth attendants

b. Every pregnancy is adequately managed during pre and postpartum courses
c. Every pregnancy is wanted, planned, and supported
d. Only answers A & C.
 

Situation II: You have observed that there are reports of dengue hemorrhagic fever in
the barangay. You are to perform a community awareness lecture about the said
disease.
Option 1

 
41. Which is the best preventive measure for dengue hemorrhagic fever?
1/1

Frequent fogging in the vicinity to kill mosquitoes

b. Use of mosquito nets and mosquito coils
c. Use of mosquito repellent lotions
d. Cleaning of surroundings and proper disposal of coconut shells, tires, and containers
 
 
42. What are the signs and symptoms of DHF assessed as Grade II?
0/1

. Herman’s signs, bone, and joint pains, fever with a headache, and abdominal pain
b. Hypotension, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, fever, and rapid weak pulse
 
c. Herman’s signs, fever with a headache, epistaxis, and melena
d. Narrowing pulse pressure, restlessness, and cold clammy perspiration

Correct answer
c. Herman’s signs, fever with a headache, epistaxis, and melena

 
43. For planning and implementation during the course of DHF, the following are the
necessary nursing considerations:
1/1

Educate client to avoid dark-colored foods and the use of hard-bristled toothbrush, razor, and
other sharp objects
b. Monitoring the intake and output of client
c. Encouraging client to increase fluid intake
d. All of the above
 
 
44. What diagnostic procedure will confirm that the client is having DHF?
1/1

a. Blood smear
 
b. Urine and Stool examinations
c. Cerebrospinal fluid examination
d. Sputum examination

 
45. Dengue hemorrhagic fever can be fatal. The following manifestations are present
in DHF, except for one.
1/1

a. Thrombocytosis
 
b. Prolonged bleeding time
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. Positive Rumpel Leade test

Situation III: IMCI or the Integrated Management for Childhood Illnesses is an

important tool for public health nurses for managing cases of children seeking health
care.
Option 1

 
46. What should you look for in assessing the child’s condition?
0/1

. Does the child vomit everything?

 
b. Is the child able to breastfeed or drink?
c. Is the child lethargic or unconscious?
d. Is the child having some breathing difficulties?

Correct answer
c. Is the child lethargic or unconscious?

 
47. If the child is having fever for 9 days every day and has a stiff neck but without
runny nose, what color health management will it suggest?
1/1

Green
b. Yellow
c. Pink
 
d. Violet

 
48. In a child reported to having diarrhea, assessment is an essential guide for
knowing if the child is experiencing dehydration. What body part should you assess?
0/1

a. Buttocks
b. Abdomen
c. Eyelids
 
d. Arms

Correct answer
b. Abdomen

 
49. Child Isabel is already 12 weeks old. What immunizations should Isabel have
received?
0/1
a. BCG, OPV-0, DPT+HIB-1, Hepatitis B1, and OPV-1
b. BCG, OPV-0, DPT+HIB-1, Hepatitis B1, DPT+HIB-2, Hepatitis B2, OPV-1 and OPV-2
c. BCG, OPV-0, DPT+HIB-1, Hepatitis B1, OPV-1, and Measles
d. BCG, OPV-0, DPT+HIB-1, and OPV-1
 
Correct answer
b. BCG, OPV-0, DPT+HIB-1, Hepatitis B1, DPT+HIB-2, Hepatitis B2, OPV-1 and OPV-2

 
50. In preparing sugar water for the treatment of low blood sugar in a child, includes
the following proportion:
0/1

a. 200 ml of clean water plus 2 level tbsp. of sugar

b. 400 ml of clean water plus 4 level tsp of sugar
 
c. 200 ml of clean water plus 4 level tsp of sugar
d. 200 ml of clean water plus 4 level tbsp of sugar

Correct answer
c. 200 ml of clean water plus 4 level tsp of sugar

Situation IV: The Aquino Health Agenda (AHA) is focusing on the achievement of
Universal Health Care for All Filipinos.
Option 1

 
51. The AHA strategic thrusts are the keys for ensuring that all Filipinos especially the
poor will receive the benefits of the health reform. These involve:
1/1

. Attainment of Millennium Development Goals 2 and 3.

b. Financial risk protection through expansion in National Health Insurance Program enrolment
and benefit
c. Improved service delivery for health care needs through upgraded quality health care facilities
d. B & C only
 
 
52. Last April 2011, the Department of Health together with the LGUs conducted a
nationwide campaign on:
1/1

. Reproductive Health Bill

b. Disaster and Preparedness
c. Measles-Rubella
 
d. Isang Milyong Sepilyo

 
53. Which is incorrect regarding the training and deployment of unemployed nurses as
“RNHeals” to the rural area?
0/1

To supply the needs of poor Filipino people in far-flung areas

b. To contribute to the eradication of poverty and hunger
 
c. To assist in the promotion of gender and equality
d. To address the proliferation of “volunteer nurses”

Correct answer
To supply the needs of poor Filipino people in far-flung areas

 
54. According to the AHA, the following instruments are vital in implementing the three
strategic thrusts. Which one refers to the access to professional health providers
capable in the provision of their health needs at the appropriate level of care?
0/1

a. Service Delivery
b. Governance for Health
c. Human Resources for Health
 
d. Health Information

Correct answer
a. Service Delivery

 
55. Encouragement of community integration and self-reliance enhancement in the
community is valued, too in this health agenda. Which of these statements indicate the
correct meaning of community health team?
0/1

a. It is a group of people composed of NGOs and private organizations

 
b. It is led by the midwife in the priority population areas
c. The rural health physician is the one who directly tracks the eligible population
d. None of the above

Correct answer
c. The rural health physician is the one who directly tracks the eligible population

Communicable Diseases
Option 1

 
56. It refers to the description of disease occurrence which is constantly present in a
given area.
1/1

Pandemic
b. Sporadic
c. Endemic
 
d. Epidemic

 
57. Ernie came to the RHU because he was bitten by their dog. What nursing
consideration is your priority?
1/1

. Administration of Anti- rabies vaccine

b. Provision of dim, quiet and non-stimulating room for the client
c. Assessment of the wound for classification, severity, and other signs and symptoms
 
d. Provision of isolation precautions

 
58. You are about to provide health teachings about pulmonary tuberculosis in your
area of assignment. What diagnostic procedure is usually done early in the morning to
confirm PTB?
1/1

a. Chest X-ray
b. Sputum Examination
 
c. Bronchoscopy
d. All of the above

 
59. Scarlet fever is a febrile contagious condition. Which laboratory procedure is not
included in confirming scarlet fever?
1/1

a. ASO titer
b. Sputum Examination
 
c. Throat culture
d. Differential count of white blood cells

 
60. What skin manifestation can be observed to a child having the 3- day measle?
0/1

a. Generalized flushing of the skin

b. Rashes that appears on the chest spreading gradually upward and downward
 
c. Macupapular rashes on the cheeks (slightly elevated)
d. Rose-red papules on the face

Correct answer
d. Rose-red papules on the face

 
61. In immunizing school entrants with BCG, you are not obliged to secure parental
consent. This is because of which legal document?
1/1

A. P.D. 996
 
B. R.A. 7846
C. Presidential Proclamation No. 6
D. Presidential Proclamation No. 46

 
62. Which immunization produces a permanent scar?
1/1

A. DPT
B. BCG
 
C. Measles vaccination
D. Hepatitis B vaccination

 
63. A 4-week old baby was brought to the health center for his first immunization.
Which can be given to him?
1/1

A. DPT1
B. OPV1
C. Infant BCG
 
D. Hepatitis B vaccine 1

 
64. You will not give DPT 2 if the mother says that the infant had
1/1

A. Seizures a day after DPT 1.

 
B. Fever for 3 days after DPT 1.
C. Abscess formation after DPT 1.
D. Local tenderness for 3 days after DPT 1.

 
65. A 2-month old infant was brought to the health center for immunization. During
assessment, the infant’s temperature registered at 38.1°C. Which is the best course of
action that you will take?
1/1

A. Go on with the infant’s immunizations.

 
B. Give Paracetamol and wait for his fever to subside.
C. Refer the infant to the physician for further assessment.
D. Advise the infant’s mother to bring him back for immunization when he is well.

 
66. A pregnant woman had just received her 4th dose of tetanus toxoid. Subsequently,
her baby will have protection against tetanus for how long?
1/1

A. 1 year
 
B. 3 years
C. 10 years
D. Lifetime

 
67. A 4-month old infant was brought to the health center because of cough. Her
respiratory rate is 42/minute. Using the Integrated Management of Child Illness (IMCI)
guidelines of assessment, her breathing is considered
1/1

A. Fast
B. Slow
C. Normal
 
D. Insignificant

 
68. Which of the following signs will indicate that a young child is suffering from severe
pneumonia?
1/1

A. Dyspnea
B. Wheezing
C. Fast breathing
D. Chest indrawing
 
 
69. Using IMCI guidelines, you classify a child as having severe pneumonia. What is
the best management for the child?
1/1

A. Prescribe an antibiotic.
B. Refer him urgently to the hospital.
 
C. Instruct the mother to increase fluid intake.
D. Instruct the mother to continue breastfeeding.

 
70. A 5-month old infant was brought by his mother to the health center because of
diarrhea occurring 4 to 5 times a day. His skin goes back slowly after a skin pinch and
his eyes are sunken. Using the IMCI guidelines, you will classify this infant in which
category?
1/1

A. No signs of dehydration
B. Some dehydration
 
C. Severe dehydration
D. The data is insufficient.

 
71. Based on assessment, you classified a 3-month old infant with the chief complaint
of diarrhea in the category of SOME DEHYDRATION. Based on IMCI management
guidelines, which of the following will you do?
1/1

A. Bring the infant to the nearest facility where IV fluids can be given.
B. Supervise the mother in giving 200 to 400 ml. of Oresol in 4 hours.
 
C. Give the infant’s mother instructions on home management.
D. Keep the infant in your health center for close observation.

 
72. A mother is using Oresol in the management of diarrhea of her 3-year old child.
She asked you what to do if her child vomits. You will tell her to
1/1

A. Bring the child to the nearest hospital for further assessment.

B. Bring the child to the health center for intravenous fluid therapy.
C. Bring the child to the health center for assessment by the physician.
D. Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving Oresol more slowly.
 
 
73. A 1 ½ year old child was classified as having 3rd degree protein energy
malnutrition, kwashiorkor. Which of the following signs will be most apparent in this
child?
1/1

A. Voracious appetite
B. Wasting
C. Apathy
D. Edema
 
 
74. Assessment of a 2-year old child revealed “baggy pants”. Using the IMCI
guidelines, how will you manage this child?
1/1

A. Refer the child urgently to a hospital for confinement.

 
B. Coordinate with the social worker to enroll the child in a feeding program.
C. Make a teaching plan for the mother, focusing on menu planning for her child.
D. Assess and treat the child for health problems like infections and intestinal parasitism.

 
75. During the physical examination of a young child, what is the earliest sign of
xerophthalmia that you may observe?
1/1

A. Keratomalacia
B. Corneal opacity
C. Night blindness
D. Conjunctival xerosis
 

MATERNAL & CHILD NURSING

 
76. When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to occur, which of the
following is the most useful criterion?
1/1
A. Sperm count
B. Sperm motility
 
C. Sperm maturity
D. Semen volume

 
77. A couple who wants to conceive but has been unsuccessful during the last 2 years
has undergone many diagnostic procedures. When discussing the situation with the
nurse, one partner states, “We know several friends in our age group and all of them
have their own child already. Why can’t we have one?”. Which of the following would
be the most pertinent nursing diagnosis for this couple?
1/1

A. Fear related to the unknown

B. Pain related to numerous procedures.
C. Ineffective family coping related to infertility.
D. Self-esteem disturbance related to infertility.
 
 
78. Which of the following urinary symptoms does the pregnant woman most
frequently experience during the first trimester?
1/1

A. Dysuria
B. Frequency
 
C. Incontinence
D. Burning

 
79. Heartburn and flatulence, common in the second trimester, are most likely the
result of which of the following?
0/1

A. Increased plasma HCG levels

B. Decreased intestinal motility
 
C. Decreased gastric acidity
D. Elevated estrogen levels

Correct answer
C. Decreased gastric acidity

 
80. On which of the following areas would the nurse expect to observe chloasma?
1/1

A. Breast, areola, and nipples

B. Chest, neck, arms, and legs
C. Abdomen, breast, and thighs
D. Cheeks, forehead, and nose
 
 
81. A pregnant client states that she “waddles” when she walks. The nurse’s
explanation is based on which of the following as the cause?
1/1

A. The large size of the newborn

B. Pressure on the pelvic muscles
C. Relaxation of the pelvic joints
 
D. Excessive weight gain

 
82. Which of the following represents the average amount of weight gained during
pregnancy?
1/1

A. 12 to 22 lb
B. 15 to 25 lb
C. 24 to 30 lb
 
D. 25 to 40 lb

 
83. When talking with a pregnant client who is experiencing aching swollen, leg veins,
the nurse would explain that this is most probably the result of which of the following?
1/1

A. Thrombophlebitis
B. Pregnancy-induced hypertension
C. Pressure on blood vessels from the enlarging uterus
 
D. The force of gravity pulling down on the uterus

 
84. Cervical softening and uterine souffle are classified as which of the following?
1/1

A. Diagnostic signs
B. Presumptive signs
C. Probable signs
 
D. Positive signs

 
85. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a presumptive sign of
pregnancy?
1/1

A. Hegar sign
B. Nausea and vomiting
 
C. Skin pigmentation changes
D. Positive serum pregnancy test

 
86. Which of the following common emotional reactions to pregnancy would the nurse
expect to occur during the first trimester?
1/1

A. Introversion, egocentrism, narcissism

B. Awkwardness, clumsiness, and unattractiveness
C. Anxiety, passivity, extroversion
D. Ambivalence, fear, fantasies
 
 
87. During which of the following would the focus of classes be mainly on physiologic
changes, fetal development, sexuality, during pregnancy, and nutrition?
1/1

A. Pre pregnant period

B. First trimester
 
C. Second trimester
D. Third trimester

 
88. Which of the following would be disadvantage of breast feeding?
1/1

A. Involution occurs more rapidly

B. The incidence of allergies increases due to maternal antibodies
C. The father may resent the infant’s demands on the mother’s body
 
D. There is a greater chance for error during preparation

 
89. Which of the following would cause a false-positive result on a pregnancy test?
1/1

A. The test was performed less than 10 days after an abortion

 
B. The test was performed too early or too late in the pregnancy
C. The urine sample was stored too long at room temperature
D. A spontaneous abortion or a missed abortion is impending

 
90. FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as which of the following?
1/1

A. 5 weeks gestation
B. 10 weeks gestation
C. 15 weeks gestation
D. 20 weeks gestation
 
 
91. A client LMP began July 5. Her EDD should be which of the following?
1/1

A. January 2
B. March 28
C. April 12
 
D. October 12
 
92. Which of the following fundal heights indicates less than 12 weeks’ gestation when
the date of the LMP is unknown?
1/1

A. Uterus in the pelvis

 
B. Uterus at the xiphoid
C. Uterus in the abdomen
D. Uterus at the umbilicus

 
93. Which of the following danger signs should be reported promptly during the
antepartum period?
1/1

A. Constipation
B. Breast tenderness
C. Nasal stuffiness
D. Leaking amniotic fluid
 
 
94. Which of the following prenatal laboratory test values would the nurse consider as
significant?
1/1

A. Hematocrit 33.5%
B. Rubella titer less than 1:8
 
C. White blood cells 8,000/mm3
D. One hour glucose challenge test 110 g/dL

 
95. Which of the following characteristics of contractions would the nurse expect to
find in a client experiencing true labor?
1/1

A. Occurring at irregular intervals

B. Starting mainly in the abdomen
C. Gradually increasing intervals
D. Increasing intensity with walking
 
 
96. During which of the following stages of labor would the nurse assess “crowning”?
1/1

A. First stage
B. Second stage
 
C. Third stage
D. Fourth stage

 
97. Barbiturates are usually not given for pain relief during active labor for which of the
following reasons?
0/1

A. The neonatal effects include hypotonia, hypothermia, generalized drowsiness, and reluctance
to feed for the first few days.
B. These drugs readily cross the placental barrier, causing depressive effects in the newborn 2 to
3 hours after intramuscular injection.
 
C. They rapidly transfer across the placenta, and lack of an antagonist make them generally
inappropriate during labor.
D. Adverse reactions may include maternal hypotension, allergic or toxic reaction or partial or
total respiratory failure

Correct answer
C. They rapidly transfer across the placenta, and lack of an antagonist make them generally
inappropriate during labor.

 
98. Which of the following nursing interventions would the nurse perform during the
third stage of labor?
1/1

A. Obtain a urine specimen and other laboratory tests.

B. Assess uterine contractions every 30 minutes.
C. Coach for effective client pushing
D. Promote parent-newborn interaction.
 
 
99. Which of the following actions demonstrates the nurse’s understanding about the
newborn’s thermoregulatory ability?
1/1

A. Placing the newborn under a radiant warmer.

 
B. Suctioning with a bulb syringe
C. Obtaining an Apgar score
D. Inspecting the newborn’s umbilical cord

 
100. Immediately before expulsion, which of the following cardinal movements occur?
1/1

A. Descent
B. Flexion
C. Extension
D. External rotation
 
This form was created inside of Central Mindanao University.

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