PHARMACOLOGY 11.

Theophylline enhances the effectiveness of

Midterm Examinations corticosteroids because of:
AY 2015 – 2016, First Semester RECRUITMENT OF HISTONE DEACETYL
ACETYLASE

12. Which of the following anti-asthma drug is devoid of

anti inflammatory activity
LONG ACTING BETA 2 AGONISTS
(This is the reason why they are not available alone/ as a
single therapy.)

13. What is the effect of long term corticosteroid use in mild

asthma?
IT IMPROVES PULMONARY FUNCTION
(In another textbook, reduction of signs and symptoms
and reduction of frequency of exacerbation.)

14. The most effective route to avoid systemic effects of

corticosteroids in the management of chronic stable
1. A non-selective sympathomimetic agent is associated asthma is:
with increased mortality due to arrhythmia INHALATION
ISOPROTERENOL
15. The dose of inhaled beta 2 agonists in nebulizer is
2. Omalizumab controls inflammation through: higher than metered dose inhaler bec:
INHIBITION OF IGE BINDING TO MAST CELLS PARTICLE SIZE

3. Theophylline reduces inflammation through: 16. Adverse effects seen in long term use of beta 2
REDUCTION IN CELL MIGRATION AND ACTIVATION agonists is :
TACHYPHYLAXIS
4. Bronchodilation by Beta 2 agonists given though (Where do we find rebound? Antimuscarinic)
inhalation is maximal at:
15-30 MINUTES 17. The ability of theophylline to improve ventilator
performance in response to dyspnea is due to:
5. the duration of action of beta 2 agonists given through INCREASED SKELETAL MUSCLE STRENGTH
inhalation is at: (This is the reason why it is recommended in COPD)
3-4 HOURS
18. VQ mismatch occurring during inhalation of beta 2
6. the dose of terbutaline given through sudcutaneous agonists in acute attack of asthma is corrected by:
route is: SUPPLEMENTAL O2
0.25MG
19. The problem of oral candidiasis due to inhaled
7. Improvement in theophylline preparation is due to corticosteroid use can be reduced by:
alteration in: GARGLE OF WATER AFTER INHALATION
PHYSICAL STATE
(The microcrystalline form facilitates rapid and complete 20. The adverse effect of throat irritation, cough, and
absorption.) mouth dryness due to cromolyn is prevented by?
INHALATION OF B2 AGONIST
8. The age group with the slowest clearance of (Cromolyn can cause wheezing, chest tightness and
theophylline deposition (?) on the site of inhalation which causes
NEONATE irritation. Probably, cromolyn causes bronchospasm so
use of inhaled B2 agonist is recommended.)
9. The occurrence of anxiety due to Theophylline toxicity
occurs at 21. The only leukotriene antagonist used by the FDA in
15-20MG PER LITER children above 6 years?
MONTELUKAST
10. The mechanism responsible for the long duration of
action of salmeterol 22. A 40-year old female with acute exacerbation of
DISSOLUTION OF DRUG IN THE SMOOTH MUSCLE asthma was given medication, however the patient
developed muscle tremor after taking the drug. Which of
the following could have caused the patient’s symptoms?
SALBUTAMOL
23. A 50-year old male with chronic stable asthma
experienced dry mouth after inhalation of asthma
medication. Which of the following is responsible for this
adverse effect?
IPRATROPIUM BROMIDE
24. A 65-year old diabetic patient was admitted due to
asthma. The BP is 130/80 mmHg, HR is 85 bpm, RR is 20
cpm, FBS is 100 mg/dl. Which of the following drugs is
most likely responsible for the blood sugar elevation?
HYDROCORTISONE
25. A 20-year old female with asthma sought consult due
to 3 months cough and dyspnea. She has daytime
symptoms 3x a week, with limitation of activity due to
asthma (What is the level of control? Partly controlled).
What reliever medication is recommended for this patient?
SABA
26. What controller medication is recommended for this
patient without any previous history of controller use?
INHALED CORTICOSTEROIDS
27. When should a patient come for follow-up after starting
controller treatment?
3 MONTHS
28. When should a patient come for follow-up after an
exacerbation?
7 DAYS
29. When do we consider stepping down on a controller
therapy after a well-controlled asthma condition?
3 MONTHS
30. Which of the following non-pharmacologic strategies
have consistently provided high quality evidence of
reducing the risk and symptoms of patient with asthma?
PHYSICAL ACTIVITY
(Other answers which were not part of the choices:
smoking cessation, removal of occupational exposure &
discontinuation of NSAID or aspirin use in patients with
allergy to aspirin)
31. Which of the following conditions can lead to
subtherapeutic level of INH?
MALABSORPTION
32. A prodrug activated by mycobacterial catalase
peroxidase?
INH
33. The addition of this drug allowed the reduction in the
total duration of treatment?
PYRAZINAMIDE
34. The typical dose of INH, given once daily in adults is?
5 MG/KG/DAY
35. Which condition would require discontinuation of INH?
JAUNDICE
(Patient is already having hepatotoxicity)
36. The most common serious adverse effect of
ethambutol is?
RETROBULBAR NEURITIS
37. At what pH level is pyrazinamide active?
5.5
38. This drug does not enter the macrophage and is only
active against extracellular tubercle bacilli?
STREPTOMYCIN
39. Which of the following 2nd line anti-TB drugs causes
depression and psychotic reaction?
CYCLOSERINE
40. Which of the following anti-TB drug is associated with
flu-like symptoms?
RIFAMPICIN
41. Which of the following 1st line anti-TB drugs is not
associated with hepatotoxicity?
ETHAMBUTOL
42. Ethambutol is contraindicated in children because of:
INABILITY TO DISTINGUISH RED-GREEN COLOR
DISCOLORATION
(They might be having optic neuritis already.)
43. Which of the following first-line anti-TB drug is not
recommended in patients with acute renal failure?
STREPTOMYCIN
44. Which of the following anti-TB drug is excreted
primarily in the feces?
RIFAMPICIN
45. Which of the following anti-TB drug is least likely
associated with hypersensitivity reaction?
ISONIAZID
46. Which anti-TB drug is not safe for pregnant women?
STREPTOMYCIN
(Causes ototoxicity)
47. Which of the following vitamin should be given to an
infant of a breastfeeding mother who is taking anti-TB
medication?
VITAMIN B6
48. Which of the following will interact with oral
contraceptive pills in female patients taking anti-TB drugs?
RIFAMPICIN
49. DISCARDED
50. Which of the following scenario is depicted by the
definition of treatment after failure?
A 50 YEAR OLD PATIENT ON ANTI-TB THERAPY BUT
STILL AFB (+) ON THE 5TH MONTH OF TREATMENT.
51. Which of the following scenario is depicted by the
definition of relapse?
A 35 YEAR OLD PATIENT WHO WAS PREVIOUSLY
DIAGNOSED WITH TB DECLARED CURED AND
COMES BACK AGAIN SMEAR POSITIVE.
52. Which of the following statements refer to cure?
COMPLETION OF TREATMENT WITH SPUTUM
CONVERSION
53. Which of the following patient will most likely have a
diagnosis of TB, hence, must be referred to a DOTS center
for further evaluation and management?
A 60-YEAR OLD DIABETIC WITH WEIGHT LOSS, 2
WEEKS COUGH, AND ON-AND-OFF FEVER
54. A 26 year old patient who developed relapse was
started on anti-TB therapy. After a few days of medication,
she complained of tinnitus and ataxia. Which of the
following should be discontinued?
STREPTOMYCIN
55. A 30 year old male patient sought consult to OPD due
to cough and fever. Sputum AFB smear was positive on
three occasions. What medication should be given to the
patient?
2HRZE, 4HR (CATEGORY A)
56. A 35 year old female was diagnosed with smear
positive TB on two occasions. She was started on anti-TB
drugs, however, after a few days, she developed
arthralgia. PE is unremarkable. Laboratory tests show: Uric
acid: 5 mg/dL (N: 2.5 – 5.6 mg/dL). Which of the following
drug is responsible for this condition?
PYRAZINAMIDE
57. What is the recommended intervention for this
condition?
NSAIDS
58. A 35 year old male alcoholic beverage drinker was
diagnosed with PTB. He is AFB positive on 3
determinations and chest x-ray consistent with PTB. He
was started on anti-TB drugs, however, after a few days,
he noticed burning sensation on his hands and feet.
Neurological tests were unremarkable. What is the
recommended dose for pyridoxine?
50 MG/DAY
59. Suitability of therapeutic intervention pertains to
information regarding:
DOSAGE FORM
60. Efficacy pertains to information regarding:
MECHANISM OF ACTION
61. Safety pertains to information regarding:
INTERACTION
62. Which of the following interventions is proven to
promote rational drug use among private physicians?
CLINICAL PRACTICE GUIDELINES
63. A strategy by the DOH to engage all health care
providers in the management of TB:
PRIVATE-PUBLIC MIX DOTS
64. A 40-year female with asthma sought consult due to
early morning awakening because of cough. After waking
up, she cannot go back to sleep leading to daytime
somnolence and light-headedness. She has been
suffering from this condition for 4 weeks without relief from
her asthma medication. What is the therapeutic objective?
A. Relief of Cough
B. Induce Sleep
C. CONTROL ASTHMA
65. A 35-year old male with 2 weeks cough and fever was
diagnosed with TB. The patient is depressed because of
his condition. He refuses to come out of the house
therefore a healthcare worker delivers his medications at
home. The AFB smear is positive on three determinations.
What is the therapeutic objective?
A. Control of Fever
B. Suppression of Cough
C. TREATMENT OF TB DISEASE
D. Management of Depression
66. Which of the non-selective COX inhibitors has the
least potential for upper GI bleeding?
IBUPROFEN
67. Which of the following is associated with occurrence of
renal toxicity with chronic use?
KETOROLAC
68. Which of the following has the least anti-inflammatory
activity?
KETOROLAC
69. Which of the following has the highest risk of cardiac
events like stroke?
CELECOXIB
70. Which of the following NSAIDs is associated with
abnormal liver function tests than any other NSAID?
DICLOFENAC