MAGNET BRAINS TEST PAPER - 2

TERM I
CLASS X
SOCIAL SCIENCE - CODE 087

TIME-90 MINUTES MM-40M

General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains four sections.
2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
4. Section C has 12 questions (Case based). Attempt any 10
questions.
5. Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the
questions.
6. All questions carry equal marks.
7. There is no negative marking.

SECTION – A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 questions)

1. What did 'Das Volk' stand for?

a. Democracy
b. Factory worker
c. Slum dwellers
d. Common people
2. When an abstract idea, for instance, greed, envy, freedom,
liberty is expressed through a person or a thing, it is known as
________.
a. National Image
b. Marianne
c. Germania
d. Allegory

3. What were the consequences of the July revolution of 1830 ?

a. A constitutional monarchy with Louis Philippe at its

head was installed in France
b. Uprising in Brussels took place which led to Belgium
breaking away from the United Kingdom of Britain.
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

4 Which one of the following was not a part of the concept of

nation state?
a. Clearly defined boundary
b. National identity based on culture and history
c. Sovereignty
d. Freedom from monarchy

5. Which of the following did the European conservatives not

believe
a. Traditional institution of state policy
b. Strengthened monarchy
c. A return to a society of pre-revolutionary days
d. None of the above
6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the agriculture in
India from the following options:
a. Rabi crops are sown - October to December
b. Gram - paddy crops
c. Aus, Aman and Boro - Government schemes
d. Kisan Credit Card - Increased the production

7. The right of inheritance had already led to fragmentation of

land holdings necessitating _______________.

a. Nationalisation of land
b. Consolidation of holdings
c. Division of land
d. Mechanisation of equipments

8. Identify the resource; “The resources which have potential to

satisfy human needs but human beings do not have
appropriate technology and technical know-how.”
a. Stock
b. Reserves
c. Potential resources
d. Developed resources

9. Land that is left uncultivated for more than five agricultural

years is called:
a. Pasture land
b. Culturable waste land
c. Barren land
d. Current fallow
10. The ocean resources beyond 200 nautical miles are classified
under which zone?
a. Exclusive economic zone
b. Export processing zone
c. Special economic zone
d. None of these

11. Which of the following is NOT an element of the Belgian model

of power-sharing?
a. Some laws can only be passed with a majority from
each linguistic group.
b. The central government has an equal number of Dutch
and French ministers.
c. State governments of the two linguistic regions enjoy
some powers of the central government.
d. Territories based on language were abolished and
people were encouraged to live amongst each other.

12. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a. In a democracy, all important decisions are taken by
the majority community.
b. In a democracy, people rule themselves through the
institution of self-government.
c. Political power is distributed in a democracy.
d. In a democratic country, respect is given to various
diverse groups.
13. Which of the following was not one of the initial demands of
the Sri Lankan Tamils?
a. Recognition of Tamil as an official language
b. Regional autonomy
c. Equality of opportunity in securing jobs and education
d. Creation of an independent Tamil Eelam

14. The Constitution of India originally provided for:

a. A two-tier system of government
b. A single-tier system of government
c. A three-tier system of government
d. Four-tier system of government

15. Which one of the following countries has the federal form of
government?
a. Egypt
b. Sri Lanka
c. Australia
d. England

16. 'The Parliament cannot change the sharing of power between

the union government and the state governments on its own.
Any change to it has to be first passed by both the Houses of
Parliament with at least two-thirds majority.'

Question : Which feature of federalism does the above

statement adhere to?
 a. Different tiers of the government have their own
jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation
and administration.
b. Changes in the fundamental provisions of the
constitution require the consent of both the levels of
government.
c. The union government has the final power to settle any
dispute between the different levels of government.
d. The jurisdictions of the tiers of government are specified
in the constitution.

17. Which of the following could be considered as the

advantages of Federalism and Decentralisation?
a. It prevents government overreach and takeovers.
b. It allows different localities to adapt their policies to the
needs and wishes of the local population.
c. It prevents the state from being able to carry out its
basic functions.
d. It reduces the state government autonomy.

18. Which of the following explains the rising importance of the

tertiary sector in our country?
a. Greater demand for services
b. Decreasing importance of other sectors
c. Increased formalisation of the service sector
d. Global pressure to develop the tertiary sector
19. UNDP can be expanded as -
a. United nations development programme
b. United nations diversity playground
c. United nations democratic programme
d. None of these

20. More income means _________.

a. Average out of needs of people
b. More of all economical things that human beings need
c. No effect on the common man
d. More satisfaction

21. The ________ helps in maintaining the nutritional levels of

poor people by providing food at lower cost.
a. BMI body mass index
b. PDS public distribution system
c. GNI gross national income
d. HDI human development index

22. Which one of the following statements refers to sustainable

development?
a. Overall development of various resources.
b. Development should take place without damaging the
environment.
c. Economic development of people.
d. Development without damaging the environment and
considering the requirements of future generation.
23. A retirement saving scheme introduced by the government
a. Gratuity
b. Provident Fund
c. Enterprises
d. Subsidy

24. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act

of 2005 aims to secure the right to work. Which type of work is
given priority under this programme ?
a. Work which increases the productivity of the land.
b. Work which gives priority to women empowerment.
c. Work which will give unemployment allowances to the
people.
d. Only B and C

SECTION – B
(Attempt any 18 out of 22 questions)

25. Which idea is best expressed in the image given below?

a. Romanticism
b. Nationalism
c. Revolution
d. Conservatism
 NOTE: Following question is for Visually impaired candidates
in lieu of Q25.
The Treaty which recognized Greece as an independent
nation:
a. Treaty of Vienna 1815
b. Treaty of Constantinople 1832
c. Treaty of Warsaw 1814
d. Treaty of Leipzig 1813

26. Most conservative regimes set up in 1815 imposed censorship

laws. Which of the following did they want to control through
such laws?
i. What was written about them
ii. The increasing demand for modernising the army
iii. The spread of ideas of liberty and freedom reflected in
the newspapers
iv. The spread of the idea that modernisation could
strengthen traditional institutions
Options :
a. (ii) and (iii)
b. (ii) and (iv)
c. (i) and (iii)
d. (iii) and (iv)

27. What was the new name of the Estates General?

a. Federal Assembly
b. States Assembly
c. National Assembly
d. Peoples Assembly
28. Select the characteristics of Marianne ?
a. The red cap, the tricolour and the cockade
b. The sword, the broken chain and the Oak leaves
c. The red cap, the broken chain and the sword
d. All of these

29. Identify the soil with the help of the following features:
● They are generally sandy in texture and saline in
nature.
● The bottom layer of kankar restricts the infiltration of
water.
● After proper irrigation these soils become fit to
cultivate.
Options :
a. Yellow soil
b. Arid soil
c. Black soil
d. Laterite soil

30. Which one of the following is responsible for sheet erosion?

Underground water
a. Wind
b. Glacier
c. Water
d. Deforestation
31. Choose the correct statement/s with respect to residuary
subjects from the given points
i. Only the state government has the power to legislate on
these subjects.
ii. Only the Union government has the power to legislate
on these subjects.
iii. These subjects came up after the Constitution came
into effect.
iv. It includes subjects of national importance.
Options:
a. (i) and (ii)
b. (ii) and (iii)
c. (i), (iii) and (iv)
d. (i) and (iv)

32. Which of the following is incorrect regarding a federal

government?
a. Federalism is a system of government in which the
power is divided between a central authority and
various constituent units of the country.
b. The Federation has only two levels of government.
c. One is the government for the entire country that is
usually responsible for a few subjects of common
national interest.
d. The others are governments at the level of provinces or
states that look after much of the day-to-day
administering of their state.
33. Two Statements are given in the question below as Assertion
(A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the
appropriate option
Assertion (A): The rise of regional parties was also the
beginning of the era of COALITION GOVERNMENTS .

Reason (R): Regional parties coming to power made it

difficult for the national parties to secure a clear majority.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true, but R not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true

34. Match the following.

Column A Column B

I. Ethnic 1. A belief that says that the

majority community rules a
country.
II. Civil war 2. Calculation of gains and losses.

III. Prudential 3. Conflicts between opposing

groups.

IV. Majoritarian 4. Based on shared culture.

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

a. I-4, II-1, III-2, IV-3
b. I-2, II-4, III-3, IV-1
c. I-4, II-3, III-2, IV-1
d. I-1, II-3, III-4, IV-2
35. How did the Panchayati Raj Institutions get political
legitimacy?
a. By getting constitutional status
b. By debating on political matters
c. By being a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy
d. By getting grants from the central and state
governments

36. Identify the institution -

1. It resolves disputes between the states and state and
centre.
2. It interprets the constitution.
3. It acts like an empire and decides neutrally.
Options :
a. Media
b. Executive
c. Umpire
d. Judiciary

37. Which of the following options helps the local-government to

deepen democracy in India?
i. Constitutional status for local-self government.
ii. It inculcates the habit of democratic participation.
iii. Parliamentary bills for the local-self government.
Options:
a. Only (i)
b. Only (ii)
c. Only (iii)
d. Both (i) and (ii)
38. Consider the following statements on the practice of
federalism in India. Identify those which hold true for
decentralisation after 1992.
A. Local governments did not have any power or resources
of their own.
B. It became constitutionally mandatory to hold regular
elections to local government bodies.
C. The state governments are required to share some
powers and revenue with local government bodies.
D. No seats are reserved in the elected bodies for
scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and other backward
classes.
Options :
a. A, B and C

b. A and C

c. B and C

d. B and D

39. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion

(A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the
appropriate option.

Assertion (A): Service sector has the largest share in GDP

among all three sectors but have a considerably less number
of employees.
Reason (R): Service sector is underdeveloped
Options:
a. Both A und R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of
c. A is true but R false.
d. A is false but R is true.
40. Which of the following statements best explains the graph?

a. The production in all the three sectors has decreased

and it has decreased the most in the primary sector.
b. The production in all the three sectors has increased
and it has increased the most in the primary sector.
c. The production in all the three sectors has increased
and it has increased the most in the tertiary sector.
d. The production in all the three sectors has increased
and all the three sectors have similar growth.

41. What Jawaharlal Nehru thought of as temples of the

independent India, i.e. the dams, have already displaced 11
million Indians. What is this an example of?
a. Conflicting developmental goals
b. Development of public facilities
c. Sustainable development
d. Human development
42. Select two non-material benefits which increase the welfare
of the population.
a. House and Car
b. Medical insurance and health infrastructure
c. Freedom and opportunity
d. Dignity and high income

43. Which of the following is an example of the dependency of

the primary sector on the tertiary sector?
a. Weavers made less money because the shops did not
want to sell hand loom products.
b. The bank employees could not reach on time due to a
transportation strike.
c. Diary and poultry producers suffered a loss when the
shops went on strike.
d. Farmers suffered a loss when there was not enough
water to grow cotton.

44. In which type of unemployment more people are employed

than required?
a. Seasonal unemployment
b. Disguised unemployment
c. Educated unemployment
d. All of the above
45. In the question given below, there are two statements marked
as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and
choose the correct option.

Assertion(A): Resource planning is a complex process.

Reason(R): Resource planning helps in effective and judicious
use of resources.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true,but R is not correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true

46. Identify the sector -

I. Sector is categorised based on ownership of activities.
II. Main driving force of this sector is profit.
Options :
a. Tertiary sector
b. Public sector
c. Private sector
d. Unorganised sector
 SECTION – C
(This section consists of two cases. There are a total of 12
questions in this section.
Attempt any 10 questions from this section)

Read the passage given below and answer the questions 47 -

52 based on it.

Nationalism, aligned with imperialism, led Europe to disaster

in 1914. But meanwhile, many countries in the world that had
been colonized by the European powers in the nineteenth. The
century began to oppose imperial domination. The
anti-imperial movements that developed everywhere were
nationalist, in the sense that they all struggled to form
independent nation- states, and were inspired by a sense of
collective national unity, forged in confrontation with
imperialism. European ideas of nationalism were nowhere
replicated, for people everywhere developed their own
specific variety of nationalism. But the idea that societies
should be organized into 'nation-states' came to be accepted
as natural and universal.

47. Which of the following aligns with the Romantic idea of

creating nationalist sentiments among the people?
a. Popularising the local folk tales, songs, and plays
b. Emphasizing the importance of territorial expansion
c. Glorifying the developments in science and technology
d. Creating employment opportunities by setting up
factories
48. Which of the following statements about 20th-century
European powers is definitely true?
a. They were involved in the Greek War of Independence.
b. They were actively working for the unification of
Germany.
c. They were all working together to end the French
revolution.
d. They were fighting against each other in the First World
War.

49. Why did the anti-imperialist movements emerge?

a. To oppose colonization
b. To resist European culture
c. To defeat the imperial powers in local elections
d. To protest against trade with European nations

50. What led to the collapse of Europe in 1914?

a. Massive civil unrest due to poverty
b. An attack from the colonized countries around the world
c. The internal struggle amongst nations to expand their
territory
d. Ongoing rebellions against existing monarchs in
multiple territories

51. In the question given below, there are two statements marked
as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and
choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): The Balkan area became an area of intense
conflict.

Reason (R): The Balkan states were fiercely jealous of each

other and each hoped to gain more territory at the expense of
the others.
 Options :
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true,but R is not correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true

52. ‘European ideas of nationalism were nowhere replicated, for

people everywhere developed their own specific variety of
nationalism.’ Choose the option which correctly explains the
given statement :
a. The ideas of European nationalism were rejected
b. Nationalism developed in different countries depending
on the different situations prevalent there.
c. Everyone is copying the ideas of European nationalism.
d. None of the above.

Read the source given below and answer the questions that
follow by choosing the most appropriate below:

Resource planning is a complex process which involves:

(i) identification and inventor of resources across the regions

of the country. This involves surveying, mapping and
qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of
the resources. (ii) evolving a planning structure endowed
with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up for
implementing resource development plans. (i) Matching the
resource development plans with overall national
development plans. India has made concerted efforts for
achieving the goals of resource planning right from the First
Five Year Plan launched after Independence. The availability
of resources is a necessary condition for the development of
any region, but mere availability of resources in the absence
of corresponding changes in technology and institutions may
hinder development. There are many regions in our country
that are rich in resources but these are included in
economically backward regions. On the contrary there are
some regions which have a poor resource base but they are
economically developed. The history of colonisation reveals
that rich resources in colonies were the main attractions for
the foreign invaders. It was primarily the higher level of
technological development of the colonising countries that
helped them to exploit resources of other regions and
establish their supremacy over the colonies. Therefore,
resources can contribute to development only when they are
accompanied by appropriate technological development and
institutional changes.

India has experienced all this in different phases of

colonisation. Therefore, in India, development in general, and
resource development in particular do not only involve the
availability of resources, but also the technology, quality of
human resources and the historical experiences of the
people.
53. From which Five Year Plan has India made concerted efforts
for achieving the goals of resource planning?
a. First Five Year Plan
b. Fifth Five Year Plan
c. Annual Plans
d. Tenth Five Year Plan

54. Resource planning is essential for.

a. Ecological balance
b. Sustainable economy
c. Exploitation
d. None of these

55. What was the main attraction of foreign invaders to India?

a. Architecture
b. Resource
c. Irrigation method
d. Spices

56. Which of the following is essential for sustainable existence

of all forms of life?
a. Resource planning
b. Resource management
c. Resource extraction
d. Resource generation

57. Why do we need resource planning?

a. Because of enormous diversity in the availability of
resources
b. Because we need to think of future generations
c. We need to consider materials in the environment
which have the potential to satisfy human needs
d. The need to collect materials and resources and then
using them accordingly
58. What does resource planning in India involve?
a. Defining the number of resources
b. Surveying, mapping and qualitative and quantitative
estimation and measurement of the resources
c. Taking government permission
d. Matching the resource development plans with overall
national development plans

SECTION – D
(Attempt both the Map based questions)

On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with

the help of specified information.
59. In the given map a crop growing region/area has been
marked as 'A'. Identify the crop and choose the correct
option.
a. Tea
b. Coffee
c. Rubber
d. Sugarcane

60. In the given map a crop growing region/area has been

marked 'B'. Identify the soil and choose the correct option.
a. Arid/Desert soil
b. Laterite soil
c. Black soil
d. Red soil

Note- The following questions are for the Visually Impaired

Candidates in lieu of questions 59 and 60.

59. Which of the following dam is located in Uttarakhand?

a. Salal
b. Bhakra Nangal
c. Tehri
d. Rana Pratap Sagar

60. Which one of the following is a principal cereal crop?

a. Rice
b. Wheat
c. Jowar
d. Bajra