PART–A

Instructions: Part-A consists of 50 questions. Questions No. 1 -10 (English), Questions No. 11-25 (General
Knowledge and Numerical Ability) and Questions No. 26-50 (Research Methodology)
1. Find the suitable antonym of TACITURN
(A) Judge (B) Silent
(C) Talkative (D) Immense
2. Correct the given sentence: You need not come unless you want to.
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(A) You come unless you don’t want to
(B) You don’t need to come unless you want to
(C) You come only when you want to
(D) You needn't come until you don't want to
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3. Change the speech of the given sentence:
The little girl said to her mother, "Did the sun rise in the East?"
(A) The little girl asked her mother if the sun rose in the East.
(B) The little girl said to her mother if the sun rises in the East.
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(C) The little girl said to her mother that the sun rose in the East.
(D) The little girl asked her mother if the sun is in the East.
E
4. One indifferent to art and literature is:
(A) Critic (B) Aromatic
(C) Scholar (D) Philistine
5. Give the synonym of GOAD
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(A) Save
(B) Irritate
(C) Soothe
(D) Worship
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6. What does phrase “To play second fiddle” mean:
(A) To reduce importance of one's senior
(B) To be happy, cheerful and healthy
(C) To support the role and view of another person
(D) To do back seat driving
7. Complete the given sentence
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"Sujata is late in the office." "She rarely comes in time ____ ?"
(A) does she (B) doesn't she
(C) don't she (D) won't she
8. Select the pair which has the same relationship
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CORPOREAL: SPIRITUAL
(A) Foreigner : Immigrant
(B) Mesa : Plateau
(C) Moron : Savant
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(D) Pedagogue : Teacher
9. Choose the word wrongly spelt
(A) Tedious (B) Teatotaller
(C) Teaser (D) Teething
10. Select the correct plural form of FICTION
(A) Fictionia (B) Fictions
(C) Fictionese (D) Fiction

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11. A father deposits a total sum of Rs. 50,000 at 5% simple interest per annum in the names of his two
sons in such a way that at the age of 18 years both of them get equal amount. If their present ages be
12 years and 14 years respectively, what is the present sum in the name of the younger son?
(A) Rs. 23,350
(B) Rs. 24,000
(C) Rs. 22,000
(D) Rs. 23,800
12. 5, 11, 17, 25, 33, 43, ?
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(A) 51 (B) 52
(C) 49 (D) 53
13. There are eight mango trees in a straight line. The distance between each mango tree with other is 3
metres. What is the distance between first tree and eighth tree?
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(A) 30 m (B) 21 m
(C) 24 m (D) 27 m
14. The compound interest on Rs. 30,000 at 7% per annum is Rs. 4347. The period (in years) is
(A) 21/2 (B) 3
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(C) 2 (D) 4
E
15. The L.C.M. of two numbers is 48. The numbers are in the ratio 2 : 3. Then sum of the number is
(A) 32 (B) 40
(C) 28 (D) 64
16. The earth's atmosphere is divided into layers based on the vertical profile of
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(A) Air temperature
(B) Air density
(C) Air pressure
(D) Wind speed
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17. Who was the Nawab of Bengal during "Battle of Plassey"?
(A) Mir Jafar
(B) Mir Qasim
(C) Sirajudduala
(D) Subhash Chandra Bose
18. The element common to all acids is
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(A) Hydrogen (B) Carbon
(C) Sulphur (D) Oxygen
19. Who wrote the play Mudrarakshasa?
(A) Kalidasa
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(B) Bhanabatta
(C) Vishakhadatta
(D) Tunbhadra
20. The first Backward Class Commission was appointed in the year
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(A) 1953 (B) 1952
(C) 1951 (D) 1954
21. 'OS' computer abbreviation usually means?
(A) Open Software
(B) Operating System
(C) Order of Significance
(D) Optical Sensor

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22. The Chambal Valley Project is a joint venture of:
(A) Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan and Gujarat
(C) Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat
(D) Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh
23. Entomology is the science that studies
(A) The origin and history of technical and scientific terms
(B) Behavior of human beings
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(C) Insects
(D) The formation of rocks
24. Plants growing on sand are called as
(A) Lithophytes
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(B) Psammophytes
(C) Chasmophytes
(D) Oxylophytes
25. What Enrico Fermi invented?
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(A) Cyclotron (B) Nuclear reactor
(C) X ray machine (D) Betatron
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26. Research is
(A) Collection of information on a specific subject
(B) Writing a report on a known subject
(C) A scientific and systematic approach involving articulation of problem, formulate hypothesis,
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collect and analyse data and reach to some conclusions about the concerned problem
(D) None of the above
27. Fundamental research is
(A) Generalizations and formulation of a theory and involves gathering knowledge for knowledge’s
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sake
(B) Finding a solution to the problem being faced by the society
(C) Research to identify the parameters affecting a particular institution
(D) An evaluation research involving applied social research that attempts to evaluate the
effectiveness of social programmes
28. Positivism in research refers to
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(A) Making inferences from common sense
(B) Making inferences from common belief
(C) Making inferences from humanistic focus
(D) Scientific focus
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29. A research where a set of variables are controlled and manipulated while the other set of variables are
being measured is called as
(A) Experimental research
(B) Qualitative research
(C) Applied research
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(D) None of the above
30. In research, moving from specific observations to broader generalizations and theories can be
achieved by
(A) Deducting reasoning
(B) Inductive reasoning
(C) Observations
(D) Experience

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31. Motivation research is a type of
(A) Applied research
(B) Qualitative research
(C) Quantitative research
(D) Basic research
32. Which of the following ways of data collection does not belong to survey?
(A) Personal interviews
(B) Telephonic interviews
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(C) Mailing of questionnaires
(D) Quantitative measurements
33. In an experimental research, the independent variable is
(A) A variable which never affects the behaviour of sample
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(B) A variable which is measured as an effect of another variable
(C) A unique variable that describes the complete behaviour of sample
(D) A factor that is controlled or manipulated by the researcher
34. Rating something as “helpful” and “not helpful” is an example of
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(A) Quantitative variable
(B) Qualitative variable
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(C) Continuous variable
(D) Discontinuous variable
35. Researcher expectancy and related bias is not controlled by
(A) The double blind technique
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(B) Blind technique
(C) Partial blind technique
(D) Deception technique
36. The most effective way to equalize the impact of potentially confounding variables and ensure the
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internal validity of the study is through
(A) Inquiry
(B) Double blind technique
(C) Random assignments
(D) None of the above
37. A good measurement must satisfy
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(A) Test of validity (B) Test of reliability
(C) Test of practicality (D) all the above
38. Temperature measured in °K (degree Kelvin) is
(A) Ratio scale (B) Nominal scale
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(C) Interval scale (D) Ordinal scale
39. The analysis involving measurable and non-measurable variables for the purpose of simultaneously
predicting a set of dependent variables from their joint covariance with a set of independent variables
is
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(A) Multiple regression analysis
(B) Multiple discriminant analysis
(C) Canonical analysis
(D) Multivariate analysis of variance
40. Which of the following is used for organizing and manipulating the data for the purpose of analysis
(A) MS Power Point (B) Google Scholar
(C) MS Excel (D) LaTex

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41. An original research article in a journal must have
(A) Selective references
(B) Exhaustive references
(C) No references
(D) Quotations
42. TIFR stands for
(A) Tata institute of fundamental research
(B) Tata institute of future research
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(C) Tata institute of foundation of research activities
(D) The Institute for Research
43. As per UGC regulations on prevention of plagiarism, the percentage similarities for which there is no
penalty is
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(A) 5 % (B) 10 %
(C) 15 % (D) 20 %
44. Research misconduct does not include
(A) Fabrication of data
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(B) Honest error and difference of opinion
(C) Falsification of data
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(D) Plagiarism
45. While writing an article to publish in a specific journal, the bibliography style will depend on
(A) The convenience of researcher
(B) The style followed by the journal
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(C) The topic of research article
(D) The place where research work is carried out
46. Experiments involving animals is acceptable if
(A) Suffering is maximum in all experiments
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(B) Human benefits are gained which could not be obtained by using other methods
(C) Human benefits are gained which otherwise could only be gained by other expensive methods
(D) The animals are abundantly available
47. Literature review helps in
(A) Knowing the state-of-the-art in a specific subject
(B) Avoiding incidental plagiarism
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(C) Sharpen the research focus
(D) All the above
48. All the equations, figures and tables in a thesis are included in
(A) Bibliography (B) Appendix
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(C) The text (D) Last chapter
49. Conferences will help in
(A) Presenting new research outcome
(B) Group discussions
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(C) Bring researchers from all allied subject on a common platform
(D) All the above
50. Experimental studies involving imitation of the operations of an experimental process is called as
(A) Imaginary experiments
(B) Simulations
(C) Hypothetical experiments
(D) Experimental research

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 PART–B

51. The short run Average Cost curve is __ shaped

(A) V (B) U
(C) L (D) Any of the above.
52. Under perfect competition, price is determined by the interaction of total demand and______
(A) Total supply (B) Total cost
(C) Total utility (D) Total production
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53. National Income doesn’t include:
(A) Interest on unproductive national debt
(B) Income for government expenditure
(C) The payments by the household to firm for the purchase of goods and services
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(D) Undistributed profit
54. Globalisation is the term used to describe process of removal of restriction on
(A) Foreign Trade (B) Investment
(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of the above
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55. The Internal Rate of Return (IRR) criterion for project acceptance, under theoretically infinite funds is:
accept all projects which have
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(A) IRR equal to the cost of capital
(B) IRR greater than the cost of capital
(C) IRR less than the cost of capital
(D) None of the above
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56. ______ is a relatively permanent change in behaviour that occurs as a result of experience
(A) Behaviour modification
(B) Learning
(C) Motivation
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(D) Skills
57. Organization behaviour is not a /an
(A) A separate field of study
(B) Applied science
(C) Normative science
(D) Pessimistic approach
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58. Teams occur when a number of people have ______ and recognize that their personal success is
dependent on the success of others.
(A) A common goal
(B) A shared work Environment
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(C) The same Manager
(D) Similar Jobs
59. Parties to industrial relations are______.
(A) ILO, Government, Association of employers.
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(B) ILO, Government, IMF
(C) ILO, Board of Directors, Association of employers
(D) Government, Board of Directors, Association of employers.
60. What is the minimum number of trade union members requires in registering themselves as a union?
(A) 7
(B) 10
(C) 5
(D) 15

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61. Which of the following is the meaning of ‘Cooling off’ period in industrial relations?
(A) Workers to have bath after long hours of work with cold water.
(B) Not to be annoyed at the place of work.
(C) To have a proper spirit of implementing agreements.
(D) The period from serving the notice of strike and the date of resorting to a strike in order to think
coolly whether the workers should go on a strike or not.
62. The traditional view of conflict argues that conflict _____.
(A) Cannot be avoided
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(B) Indicates a malfunctioning within the group
(C) Is good for a group
(D) Improves productivity
63. Quality Circle is basically an idea based on______.
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(A) American Synthesis on Japanese Idea
(B) Japanese Synthesis of American Idea
(C) German Synthesis on Japanese Idea
(D) American Synthesis on German Idea
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64. OD can also be called as a process______.
(A) For performance appraisal
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(B) For change of people
(C) For teaching people how to solve the problem
(D) All of the above
65. What is linked with performance appraisal______?
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(A) Job Design (B) Development
(C) Job analysis (D) None of the above
66. Financial management process deals with______.
(A) Investments (B) Financing decisions
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(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
67. For given change in interest rates, percentage change in present value of bond is classified as ____.
(A) Price sensitivity (B) Yield sensitivity
(C) Maturity sensitivity (D) Premium sensitivity
68. If the CAPM is used to estimate the cost of equity capital, the expected excess market return is equal
to the______.
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(A) Return on the stock minus the risk-free rate.

(B) Difference between the return on the market and the risk-free rate.
(C) Beta times the market risk premium.
(D) Market rate of return.
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69. Which one of the following is an argument in favor of a low dividend policy?
(A) The tax on capital gains is deferred until the gain is realized.
(B) Few, if any, positive net present value projects are available to the firm.
(C) A preponderance of stockholders has minimal taxable income.
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(D) Corporate tax rates exceed personal tax rate.
70. In the long run, a successful acquisition is one that______.
(A) Enables the acquirer to make an all-equity purchase, thereby avoiding additional financial
leverage.
(B) Enables the acquirer to diversify its asset base.
(C) Increases the market price of the acquirer's stock over what it would have been without the
acquisition.
(D) Increases financial leverage.

[8] RP-QP–38
71. Segmentation on basis of values and attitudes and behavioral patterns is an example of ______.
(A) Geographic location
(B) Cultural factors
(C) Economic factors
(D) Political and legal factors
72. Group of online social communities such as virtual worlds, social networking sites and blogs where
people exchange opinions is classified as______.
(A) inbound social networks
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(B) outbound social networks
(C) offline social networks
(D) online social networks
73. In the service system, customers may specify their needs and expectations to the service provider.
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Such specifications are called______.
(A) feedback
(B) feed-forward
(C) how and why specifications
(D) none of the above
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74. Brand assets contain______.

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(A) Name of brand
(B) Reputation, relevance, and loyalty
(C) Less quality complaints
(D) All of given options
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75. Customer Relationship Management is about______.
(A) Acquiring the right customer (B) Instituting the best processes
(C) Motivating employees (D) All of the above
76. Objective of Work Study is to improve ______.
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(A) Cycle time (B) Productivity
(C) Production (D) All of the above
77. What is the location of lower control limit in the X bar-R control chart______?
(A) 3 standard deviations below central line
(B) 2 standard deviations below central line
(C) 1 standard deviations below central line
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(D) Any of the above
78. Pick up the correct statement from the following______ .
(A) Programme Evaluation and Review Technique, is event oriented
(B) Programme Evaluation and Review Technique is not event oriented
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(C) Critical Path Method is event oriented
(D) Critical Path method is event oriented.
79. In the simplex method for solving of LPP number of variables can be ______.
(A) Not more than three (B) At least two
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(C) At least three (D) None of them
80. One disadvantage of using North-West Corner Rule to find initial solution to the transportation problem
is that______.
(A) it is complicated to use
(B) it does not take into account cost of transportation
(C) it leads to degenerate initial solution
(D) all of the above

[9] RP-QP–38
81. Number of products manufactured in a factory in a day are 3500 and probability that some pieces are
defected is 0.55 then mean of binomial probability distribution is_____.
(A) 1925 (B) 6364
(C) 63.64 (D) 3500
82. If the value of any regression coefficient is zero, then two variables are______.
(A) Qualitative (B) Correlation
(C) Dependent (D) Independent
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83. Cluster sampling, stratified sampling and systematic sampling are types of______.
(A) Direct sampling
(B) Indirect sampling
(C) Random sampling
(D) Non random sampling
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84. In a two-tail test for the population mean, if the null hypothesis is rejected when the alternative is true,
then______.
(A) A Type I error is committed
(B) A Type II error is committed
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(C) A correct decision is made
(D) A one-tail test should be used instead of a two-tail test
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85. Management information systems (MIS)______.
(A) Create and share documents that support day-today office activities
(B) Process business transactions (e.g., time cards, payments, orders, etc.)
(C) Capture and reproduce the knowledge of an expert problem solver
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(D) Use the transaction data to produce information needed by managers to run the business
86. It refers to formal and informal rules, regulations and procedures that complement the company
structure______.
(A) Strategy
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(B) Systems
(C) Environment
(D) All of the above
87. Techniques used in environmental appraisal are______.
(A) Single-variable extrapolation/multivariable interaction analysis
(B) Structured/ unstructured expert/inexpert opinion
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(C) Dynamic modes and mapping
(D) All of the above
88. Which of the following is true of geocentric firms?
(A) It acts like a federation of semi-autonomous organizations.
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(B) There is a belief in cultural diversity.
(C) Top management is dominated by home-country nationals.
(D) All of the above.
89. At present how many members are in the WTO?
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(A) 160 (B) 164
(C) 207 (D) 195
90. The main advantage of employing a differentiation strategy in international markets lies in that______.
(A) Consumers in foreign markets pays less for the same product.
(B) The focus is taken away from price.
(C) It enables brand stretching and extension.
(D) Imitators cannot reduce margins.

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91. ______ is one method of stimulating, and then capitalizing on, individuals in an organization who think
that something can be done differently and better.
(A) Strategic Orientation (B) Capitalization
(C) Intrapreneurship (D) Management
92. The ______ plan shows whether the business is economically feasible or not.
(A) Financial (B) Business
(C) Economic (D) Marketing
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93. Entrepreneurship can best be described as______.
(A) A process that requires setting up a business
(B) Taking a significant risk in a business context
(C) Having a strong vision
(D) A process involving innovation, new products or services, and value creation
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94. ______ implies that women entrepreneurs are now economically independent and take decisions
independently.
(A) Better utilization of resources (B) Improved quality life
(C) Economic development (D) Employment generation
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95. Financial feasibility analysis can be done by comparing ______ with the estimated sales figure.
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(A) Cash flow statement
(B) Balance sheet
(C) Break-even point
(D) Profit and loss statement
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96. The goal of corporate governance and business ethics education is to______.
(A) Teach students their professional accountability and to uphold their personal integrity to society.
(B) Change the way in which ethics is taught to students.
(C) Create more ethics standards by which corporate professionals must operate.
(D) Increase the workload for accounting students
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97. An independent director is one who______.

(A) Did not attend a school supported by the company.
(B) Does not have outside relationships with other directors.
(C) Does not have any other relationships with the company other than his or her Directorship.
(D) All of the above
98. Which statement is/are true______?
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(A) Ethics is not synonymous to religious morality or moral theology

(B) Ethics is the principle that guide the human behaviour
(C) The terms 'ethics' and 'morality' are not synonymous terms
(D) All of the above
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99. Unethical behaviour is often triggered by______.
(A) Pressure from higher management to achieve goals
(B) An organizational atmosphere that condones such behaviour
(C) Both (A) & (B)
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(D) A system of checks and balances
100. Carroll's model of social responsibility includes the social responsibilities categories of ______,
______, and ______ plus those at the discretion of the firm.
(A) Consumerism; discrimination; environment
(B) Ethical responsibilities; discrimination; legal responsibilities
(C) Ethical responsibilities; legal responsibilities; economic responsibilities
(D) Occupational safety; legal responsibilities; econ

[ 11 ] RP-QP–38