CPT-19

XII-IC-NEET (Date: 11-10-2021)

Time: 3 hours Maximum marks: 720

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose
Important Instructions:
1. There are four sections in this paper, consisting Physics, Chemistry, Botany & Zoology.
2. For each correct answer 4 marks awarded and for each incorrect answer, one mark will be deducted.
3. Mark only one correct answer out of four alternatives.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking.
5. Use of Calculator is not allowed.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7. Use of white fluid or any other material which damage the answer sheet, is not permissible on the
Answer Sheet.
CPT-19- XII IC NEET SYLLABUS (11-10-2021)
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BOTANY ZOOLOGY
Molecular Basis of
Inheritance
Genetic code - Salient
Alternating Current
features
LC Oscillations,
Molecular Basis of
Transformers. Ethers: preparation and Human Health & Disease
Inheritance
Electromagnetic Waves reactions Allergies, Auto immunity, Immune
t-RNA - The adapter
Introduction, Displacement Phenol - 50% system of the body,
molecule, Translation -
currents, Lymphoid organs: Primary and
Protein synthesis, - 50%
Electromagnetic waves, Carbonyl compound: method Secondary,
Electromagnetic of AIDS–Cause, Detection,
Molecular Basis of
spectrum. - 50% preparation from Alkene, Symptoms, Prevention - 50%
Inheritance
alkyne, alcohol
Regulation of gene
Ray Optics & Optical and Grignards reacgent, Human Health & Disease Cancer–
expression, Operon
Instruments Carbonyl compound: Causes, detection
concept.
Introduction, Reflection of reactivity towards & diagnosis, Treatment,Alcohol and
Molecular Basis of
light spherical nucleophilic substitution, Tobacco Opioids, Cannabinoids,
Inheritance
mirrors, addition of Sedatives, Hallucinogens,
Human genome project -
Ray Optics & Optical NaHCO3, HCN and Stimulants - 30%
Goals,
Instruments Nitrogen nucleophiles - 30%
Methodologies, Salient
Refraction, Total internal
features,
reflection - 30% 20% cumulative S.no. 4 to 20% cumulative S.no. 4 to 22 (As
Applications and Future
22 (As per revised Schedule) per revised Schedule)
challenges, DNA
20% cumulative S.no. 4 to 22
fingerprinting. - 30%
(As per revised Schedule)
20% cumulative S.no. 4 to
22 (As per revised Schedule)
CPT-19/ XII-IC-NEET / 11-10-2021
PHYSICS

1. Two resistances are joined in parallel whose resultant is ( 6 / 5)  . One of the resistance wire is broken
and the effective resistance is 2  , the resistance of the wire that got broken was:
(1) 3 / 5  (2) 6 /15  (3) 2  (4) 3 

2. An object is initially at a distance of 100 cm from a plane mirror. If the mirror approaches the object at
a speed of 5 cm/s, then after 6 s the distance between the object and its image will be
(1) 60 cm (2) 140 cm (3) 170 cm (4) 150 cm

3. The potential difference across the terminals of a battery is 10V when there is a current of 3A in the
battery from the negative to the positive terminals. When the current is 2A in the reverse direction, the
potential difference becomes 15V. The internal resistance of the battery is
(1) 2.5 (2) 5.0  (3) 2.83  (4) 1 

4. A point object O is placed between two plan mirrors as shown is fig. The distance of the first three
images formed by mirror M 2 from it are
M1 M2

2mm
O

10mm
(1)2 mm, 8 mm, 18 mm (2) 2 mm, 18 mm, 28 mm
(3) 2 mm, 18 mm, 22 mm (4) 2 mm, 18 mm, 58 mm

5. If an object moves towards a plane mirror with a speed v at an angle  to the perpendicular to the plane
of the mirror, find the relative velocity between the object and the image

(1) v (2) 2v (3) 2v cos  (4) 2v sin 

6. 125 cm of potentiometer wire balances the emf of a cell and 100 cm of the wire is required for balance
if the poles of the cell are joined by a 2 resistor. The internal resistance of the cell is
(1) 0.25  (2) 0.5  (3) 0.75  (4) 1.25 

7. Two equal charges q are placed at a distance of 2a and a third charge − 2q is placed at the midpoint.
The potential energy of the system is
q2 6q 2 7q 2 9q 2
(1) (2) (3) − (4)
40a 2 8 0 a 80a 8 0 a

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 CPT-19/ XII-IC-NEET / 11-10-2021
8. A point object is moving on the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 24 cm towards the
mirror. When it is at a distance of 60 cm from the mirror, its velocity is 9 cm/sec. What is the velocity
of the image at that instant?
(1)5 cm/sec towards the mirror (2) 4 cm/sec towards the mirror
(3) 4 cm/sec away from the mirror (4) 9 cm/sec away from the mirror

9. A convex mirror of focal length 10 cm forms an image which is half of the size of the object. The
distance of the object from the mirror is
(1)10 cm (2) 20 cm (3) 5 cm (4) 15 cm

10. A concave mirror is used to focus the image of a flower on a nearby well 120 cm from the flower. If a
lateral magnification of 16 is desired, the distance of the flower from the mirror should be
(1)8 cm (2) 12 cm (3) 80 cm (4) 120 cm

11. A parallel plate capacitor with air as medium between the plates has a capacitance of 10 F . The area
of capacitor is divided into two equal halves and filled with two medium as shown in the fig. having
dielectric constant k1 =2 and k2 = 4. The capacitance of the system will now be

(1) 10 F (2) 20 F (3) 30 F (4) 40 F

12. Radius of curvature of convex mirror is 40 cm and the size of object is twice as that of image, then the
image distance is
(1)10 cm (2) 20 cm (3) 40 cm (4) 30 cm

13. If an object is placed 10 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm, the image will be
(1)Diminished, upright, virtual (2) Enlarged, upright, virtual
(3) Diminished, inverted, real (4) Enlarged, upright, real

14. A circular current loop of magnetic moment M is in an arbitrary orientation in an external magnetic
field B. The work done to rotate the loop by 90° about an axis perpendicular to its plane is
3 MB
(1) MB (2) MB (3) (4) zero
2 2
15. The axial field (BA) of a bar magnet for r> > l is
0 2m  0 2m  0 2m  0 2m
(1) − (2) (3) (4) − .
4 r 3 4 r 3 4 l 3 4 l 3

16. A straight long wire carries a current of 35 A. Its magnitude of magnetic field at a distance of 0.20 m
from the wire is
(1) 3.5  10–5 T (2) 3.5  105 T (3) 3.5 T (4) 7 T

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CPT-19/ XII-IC-NEET / 11-10-2021
17. Velocity of light in air is 3  10 8 m / s and refractive index of water is 1.33. The time taken by light to
travel a distance of 500 m in water is
(1) 1.25s (2) 2.22s (3) 12.5s (4) 22.6s

18. A ray of light is incident on the surface of separation of a medium with the velocity of light at an angle
45 o and is refracted in the medium at an angle 30 o . What will be the velocity of light in the medium?
(1) 1.96  10 8 m / s (2) 2.12  10 8 m / s (3) 3.18  10 8 m / s (4) 3.33  10 8 m / s

19. Refractive index of glass is 3/2 and refractive index of water is 4/3. If the speed of light in glass is
2.00  10 8 m / s , the speed in water will be
(1) 2.67  10 8 m / s (2) 2.25  10 8 m / s (3) 1.78  10 8 m / s (4) 1.50  10 8 m / s

20. Which of the following is a correct relation?

(1) a r =a w  r w (2) a r  r w = w a (3) a r  r a = 0 (4) a r /w r = aw

21. The bottom of a container filled with liquid appear slightly raised because of
(A) Refraction (B)Interference
(C) Diffraction (D) Reflection

22. Electromagnetic radiation of frequency n, wavelength , travelling with velocity v in air, enters a glass
slab of refractive index . The frequency, wavelength and velocity of light in the glass slab will be
respectively
(1) n ,  , v (2) n,  , v (3) n, , v (4) n ,  , v
       

23. The magnetic flux linked with a coil, in webers, is given by the equations  = 3t2 + 4t + 9. Then the
magnitude of induced e.m.f. at t = 2 second will be
(1)2 volt (2)4 volt (3) 8 volt (4)16 volt

24. To an observer on the earth the stars appear to twinkle. This can be ascribed to
(1)The fact that stars do not emit light continuously
(2)requent absorption of star light by their own atmosphere
(3)Frequent absorption of star light by the earth's atmosphere
(4)The refractive index fluctuations on the earth's atmosphere

25. An electric lamp is connected to 220 V, 50 Hz supply. Then the peak value of voltage is
(1)210 V (2)211 V (3)311 V (4)320 V

26. The voltage of domestic ac is 220 volt. What does this represent
(1)Mean voltage (2)Peak voltage
(3)Root mean voltage (4)Root mean square voltage

 
27. If a current i given by i0 sin   t −  flows in an ac circuit across which an ac potential of E = E0 sin  t
 2
has been applied, then the power consumption P in the circuit will be
(1) P = E0 i0 (2) P = 2 E0i0
2
E0 i0
(3) P = (4) P = 0
2

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28. What will be the phase difference between virtual voltage and virtual current, when the current in the
circuit is wattless
(1) 90 o (2) 45 o
(3) 180 o
(4) 60 o

29. An alternating current is given by the equation i = i1 cos t + i2 sin t. The r.m.s. current is given by
1 1
(1) (i1 + i2 ) (2) (i1 + i2 ) 2
2 2
1 1 2 2 1/2
(3) (i12 + i22 )1 / 2 (4) (i1 + i2 )
2 2

30. In general in an alternating current circuit

(1) Average value of current is zero
(2) Average value of square of current is zero
(3) Average power dissipation is zero
(4) Phase difference between voltage and current is zero

31. A generator produces a voltage that is given by V = 240 sin 120 t, where t is in seconds. The frequency and
r.m.s. voltage are
(1) 60 Hz and 240 V (2) 19 Hz and 120 V
(3) 19 Hz and 170 V (4) 754 Hz and 70 V

32. The ratio of the mean value over half cycle to the r.m.s. value of an ac is
(1) 2 :  (2) 2 2 :
(3) 2 : (4) 2 :1

33. An ac voltage e = 240 sin 2  50  t has a peak-to-peak value of

(1) 240 V (2) 240 2 V
(3) 480 V (4) 240 / 2 V

34. The time required for a 50 Hz alternating current to increase from zero to 70.7% of its peak value is
(1) 2.5 ms (2) 10 ms
(3) 20 ms (4) 14.14 ms

35. An ac circuit draws 5A at 160 V and the power consumption is 600 W. Then the power factor is
(1) 1 (2) 0.75 (3) 0.50 (4) Zero

36. In an LCR series ac circuit, the voltage across each of the components, L, C and R is 50 V. The voltage
across the LC combination will be
(1) 100 V (2) 50 2 V
(3) 50 V (4) 0 V (zero)

37. In a LCR circuit capacitance is changed from C to 2C. For the resonant frequency to remain unchanged,
the inductance should be changed from L to
(1) L/2 (2) 2 L
(3) 4 L (4) L/4

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CPT-19/ XII-IC-NEET / 11-10-2021
38. A conducting bar pulled with a constant speed v on a smooth conducting rail. The region has a steady
magnetic field of induction B as shown in the figure. If the speed of the bar is doubled then the rate of
heat dissipation will

(1) Remain constant (2) Become quarter of the initial value

(3) Become four fold (4) Get doubled

39. The core of a transformer is laminated so that

(1) The ratio of voltage in the secondary to that in the primary may be increased
(2) Energy losses due to eddy currents may be minimized
(3) The weight of the transformer may be reduced
(4) Rusting of the core may be prevented

40. In a primary coil 5A current is flowing on 220 volts. In the secondary coil 2200 V voltage produces. Then
ratio of number of turns in secondary coil and primary coil will be
(1) 1 : 10 (2) 10 : 1 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 11 : 1

41. In a transformer, number of turns in the primary are 140 and that in the secondary are 280. If current in
primary 4 A then that in the secondary is
(1) 4 A (2) 2 A (3) 6 A (4) 10 A

42. The primary winding of a transformer has 500 turns and its secondary has 5000 turns. If primary is
connected to ac supply of 20 V and 50 Hz, then secondary will have an output of
(1) 2 V and 5 Hz (2) 2 V and 50 Hz (3) 200 V and 50 Hz (4) 200 V and 500 Hz

43. In a transformer, the coefficient of mutual inductance between the primary and the secondary coil is 0.2
henry. When the current changes by 5 ampere/second in the primary, the induced e.m.f. in the secondary
will be
(1) 5 V (2) 1 V (3) 25 V (4) 10 V

44. A loss free transformer has 500 turns on its primary winding and 2500 in secondary. The metres of the
secondary indicate 200 volts at 8 amperes under these conditions. The voltage and current in the primary
is
(1) 100 V, 16 A (2) 40 V, 40 A (3) 160 V, 10 A (4) 80 V, 20 A

45. A current of 5000 A is flowing at 220 V in the primary coil of a transformer. The voltage across the
secondary is 11000 V and 10% power is lost. What is the current through the secondary
(1) 9 A (2) 90 A (3) 900 A (4) 9000 A

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 CPT-19/ XII-IC-NEET / 11-10-2021
CHEMISTRY

46. When ethyl iodide is treated with dry silver oxide, it forms -
(1) Ag (2) C2 H5OC2 H5 (3) C2 H5OH (4) COOH–COOH

47. The reaction of CH3OC2 H5 with H gives -

(1) CH 3 I (2) C2 H5OH (3) CH3I + C2 H5OH (4) C2 H5I + CH3OH

48. Ether is obtained as major product from ethyl alcohol in presence of H2SO4 at:
(1) 113 K (2) 443 K (3) 413 K (4) 213 K

49. Anisole on reaction with chloromethane in presence of anhydrous AlCl3 gives:

(1) o-methyl anisol and p-methoxy anisole
(2) p-methyl anisole and p-methoxy anisole
(3) o-methyl anisol and p-methyl anisole
(4) o-methoxy acetophenone and p-methoxy acetophenone

50. Anisole is obtained by the reaction of phenol with -

(1) NaOH + CHCl3 (2) NaOH + CH3I (3) NaOH + C2 H5 I (4) NaOH + CO2

51. Zn
OH –ZnO
The above process is not a.................
(1) Deoxygenation
(2) Reduction
(3) O.N. of carbon attached to —OH group changes from + 1 to – 1.
(4) Dehydroxylation

52. Acetaldehyde reacts with CH3MgBr followed by acidic hydrolysis to form -

(1) CH3CH 2OH (2) CH3CHOHCH3 (3) CH3CH2CH2OH (4) None of these

53. Action of nitrous acid on ethyl amine gives -

(1) C2 H 6 (2) C2 H5OH (3) NH3 (4) Nitromethane

54. The williamson ether synthesis follows the following mechanism -

(1) Nucleophilic substitution (2) Nuclephilic addition
(3) Electrophilic addition (4) Electrophilic substitution

55. Which of the following reactions of alkanols does not involve C–O bond breaking -
(1) CH3CH2OH + SOCl2 (2) CH3CH ( OH ) CH3 + PBr3
(3) CH3CH2OH + CH3COOH (4) ROH + HX

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
56. In the reaction : Me3C − O − CH 2 CH 3 + HI ⎯⎯ →
(1 Mole)
(1) Me3C − OH + CH 3CH 2 I (2) Me3C − I + CH 3CH 2 OH
(3) Me3C − I + CH 3CH 2 I (4) Me3C − OH + CH 3CH 2 OH

57. The correct order of reactivity towards electrophilic substitution is -

(1) Phenol > Benzene > Chlorobenzene > Benzoic acid
(2) Benzoic acid > Chlorobenzene > Benzene > Phenol
(3) Phenol > Chlorobenzene > Benzene > Benzoic acid
(4) Benzoic acid > Phenol > Benzene > Chlorobenzene
C H O – Na + ( excess )
58. OH + C2H5I ⎯⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯⎯→
2 5

C 2 H 5OH ( anhydrous)

(1) OC2H5 (2) I

(3) C6 H5OC6 H5 (4) C2 H5OC2 H5

59. On acid catalysed hydration, 2-phenyl propene gives -

(1) 3-phenyl-2-propanol (2) 2-phenyl-1-propanol
(3) 1-phenyl-3-propanol (4) 2-phenyl-2-propanol

HBr
60. In the reaction OCH3 the products are -

(1) Br OCH3 and H2 (2) Br and CH3 Br

(3) Br and CH3OH (4) OH and CH3Br

alc./KOH HBr/peroxide CH ONa

61. CH3 CHCH3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ A ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ B ⎯⎯⎯⎯
3 → C In the above reaction sequence, the final
|
Br
product is:
(1) diethyl ether (2) 1-methoxypropane
(3) isopropyl alcohol (4) propylene glycol

62. When phenol is treated with excess bromine water, it gives -

(1) m-bromophenol (2) o-and p-bromophenol
(3) 2, 4-dibromophenol (4) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol

63. Phenol is less acidic than -

(1) Acetic acid (2) p-methoxyphenol
(3) Propanol (4) Ethanol

64. Hydrogen bonding is maximum in -

(1) Ethanol (2) Diethyl ether
(3) Ethyl chloride (4) Triethyl amine

65. In CH3CH 2OH , the bond that undergoes heterolytic cleavage most readily is-
(1) C — C (2) C — O
(3) C — H (4) O — H

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66. Phenol reacts with bromine in carbon disulphide at low temperature is give -
(1) m-bromophenol (2) o- and p-bromophenol
(3) p-bromophenol (4) 2, 4, 6 tribromophenol

67. Assertion : p-nitrophenol is a stronger acid than o-nitrophenol.

Reason : Intramolecular hydrogen bonding make the o-isomer weaker than the p-isomer.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong, reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is wrong and reason is correct, reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(4) Both assertion and reason are wrong and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

ONa
68. + CO2 ⎯390
⎯⎯ K
→ X ⎯HCl
⎯⎯→
OH
; The product X in the reaction is -
COOH
ONa COONa
(1) (2)
OCOONa OH
(3) (4)
COONa

69. The reaction products of


C6 H5OCH 3 + HI ⎯⎯ → are -
(1) C6 H5OH + CH3I (2) C6 H5 I + CH3OH
(3) C6 H5CH3 + HOI (4) C6 H6 + CH3OI

70. Which of the following statement is correct in case of aliphatic aldehydes and ketones–
(1) Aldehydes are formed by oxidation of primary alcohols and ketones by that of secondary alcohols
(2) Aldehydes are obtained by oxidation of secondary alcohols and ketones by that of primary alcohols
(3) Aldehydes and ketones cannot be represented by the same general formula
(4) Aldehydes and ketones cannot be oxidised further

71. Which gives a ketone on treating with a Grignard’s reagent–

(1) Formaldehyde (2) Ethyl alcohol
(3) Methyl cyanide (4) Methyl iodide

72. On strongly heating anhydrous calcium acetate, which of the following compound is formed ?
(1) Acetone (2) Ether
(3) Acetic anhydride (4) Carbon monoxide

73. In the Stephen’s reaction -

(1) An alkyl Cyanide is reducted with LiAlH 4
(2) An alkyl Cyanide is reduced with SnCl2 and HCl
(3) An alkyl isocyanide is reduced with sodium and alcohol
(4) An alkanoyl chloride is reduced in the presence of Pd / BaSO4

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74. Which is most soluble in water–

(1) Methanal (2) Propanal
(3) Propanone (4) Butanone

75. Which of the following is more reactive towards nucleophillic reagents -

(1) HCHO (2) CH3COCH3
(3) CH3CHO (4) None of the above

76. Select the true statement–

(1) Carbonyl compounds undergo nucleophillic addition reaction
(2) Carbonyl compounds undergo nucleophillic substitution reaction
(3) All carbonyl compounds give iodoform reaction
(4) Carbonyl compounds are non polar.

77. Carbonyl compounds react with which of the following reagent to form a colourless crystalline solid–
(1) PCl5 (2) HCN
(3) NH 2OH (4) NaHSO3

78. The hydrolysis of benzal chloride gives–

(1) Benzyl alcohol (2) Benzoic acid
(3) Benzaldehyde (4) Benzophenone

HI
79. A + B ® CH3 - O - C(CH 3 )3 ¾ ¾® X + Y. Correct statement among the following is
(1) A and B are CH3 ONa and (CH3 )3 CBr (2) X and Y are CH3 I and (CH3 )3 COH
(3) X and Y are CH3OH and (CH3 )3 I (4) A and B are CH3 OH and (CH3 )3 COH

80. Toluene on treatment with CrO2 Cl2 gives –

(1) Chlorotoluene (2) Benzyl chloride
(3) Benzaldehyde (4) Benzoic acid

81. The product of the reaction between acetone and ethylene glycol is –
CH3 O–CH2
(1) C (2) CH 3 − CH − CH 2
CH3 O–CH2 | |
OH OH
CH3–CH–CH–CH2
(3) (4) None of these
O

82. IUPAC name of methyl isopropyl ether is

(1) 2-methoxy propane (2) 3-methoxy propane
(3) Ethoxy ethane (4) Methoxy ethane

83. Lyophilic sols are –

(1) Irreversible sols (2) They are prepared from inorganic compound
(3) coagulated by adding electrolytes (4) self-stabilizing

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84. In P4 O 6 the number of oxygen atoms bonded to each P atom is–
(1) 1.5 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

85. Arrange the group 15 hydrides in the increasing order of H – N – H bonds angle–
(1) SbH3  AsH3  PH3  NH3 (2) NH3  PH3  AsH3  SbH3
(3) NH3  SbH3  AsH3  PH3 (4) NH3  PH3  SbH3  AsH3

86. Substance used in Holme’s signal is–

(1) NH3 (2) PH 3 (3) PH 5 (4) P2 O5

87. The molal elevation constant is the ratio of the elevation in B.P. to
(1) Molarity (2) Molality
(3) Mole fraction of solute (4) Mole fraction of solvent

88. The freezing point of a 0.05 molal solution of a non electrolyte in water is ( K f = 1.86 K molality −1 )
(1) −1.86o C (2) −0.93o C (3) −0.093o C (4) 0.093o C

89. The units of rate of reaction and rate constant are identical for a
(1) fraction-order reaction (2) zero-order reaction
(3) first-order reaction (4) second-order reaction
−3 −1
90. For the reaction 4NH3 + 5O2 → 4NO + 6H2O, the rate of reaction with respect to NH3 is 2 10 Ms .
Then the rate of the reaction with respect to oxygen in Ms –1
−3 −3 −3 −3
(1) 2 10 (2)  10 (3) 10 (4) 10

BOTANY

91. Select the correct statements

I. Translation refers to the process of polymerisation of amino acids to form a polypeptide.
II. The order and sequence of amino acids are defined by the sequence of bases in the mRNA.
III. The amino acids are joined by a bond which is known as peptide bond.
(1) I, II (2) I, III (3) II, III (4) I, II, III

92. Choose the incorrect statement(s)

I. Formation of a peptide bond requires energy.
II. Amino acids are activated in the presence of GTP and linked to their cognate tRNA
a process commonly called as charging of tRNA
III. Charging of t-RNA is also known as aminoacylation of tRNA.
IV. If two such charged tRNAs are brought close enough, the formation of peptide
bond occurs between them.
(1) I, II (2) I, III (3) II (4) I

93. Choose the incorrect statement

I. In the lac operon lactose is inducer
II. The promoter gene produces inactive repressor
III. Repressor gets attached to the operator gene
IV. Lactose converts the inactive repressor into active repressor
(1) II and IV (2) I and II (3) I and III (4) II and III

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94. Choose the incorrect statement

(1) Human Genome Project was a 13 year project
(2) The automatic DNA sequencer used in the project work was based upon the
principle of a method developed by Frederick Sanger
(3) Both expressed sequence tags and sequence annotation were used for the
sequencing of the human DNA
(4) Amplification of each piece of DNA fragment was done using PCR technique

95. The Human Genome contains

(1) 3164.7 million nucleotide (2) 3164.7 million bp
(3) 3164.7 billion nucleotide (4) 3164.7 billion bp

96. The size of the VNTR varies from

(1) 0.1 to 1 KB (2) 0.1 to 10 KB
(3) 0.1 to 20 KB (4) 0.1 to 100 KB

97. Sensitivity of the technique of DNA fingerprinting is increased by the use of

(1) PCR (2) BAC (3) YAC (4) all of these

98. UUU codes for

(1) Phenylalanine (2) Methionine
(3) Glutamic acid (4) Valine

99. A. RNA was the first genetic material.

R. RNA functioned as a catalyst as well.
Choose the correct answer
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false

100. Who proposed that the genetic code is made of three nucleotides
(1) Nirenberg (2) Har Gobind Khorana
(3) George Gamow (4) Levene and Fisher

101. The following is not a termination codon

(1) UAA (2) GUA (3) UGA (4) UAG

102. RNA Pol I does not transcribe the following type of r-RNA
(1) 18S (2) 28S. (3) 5.8 S. (4) 5S

103. t-RNA is called an adaptor molecule because

(1) It can read the genetic code and at the same time can bind to the corresponding amino acid
(2) It gives the adaptive features to the different organisms to survive in a (particular environment )
(3) Its anticodon is complementary to the codon on the template strand of DNA
(4) 1 and 3

104. Degeneracy of genetic code means

(1) There are many amino acids coded by the same codon
(2) There are many codons coding for the same amino acid

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(3) Some codons code for many amino acids and some amino acids are coded by many codons
(4) Codons code for different amino acids in different organisms

105. Match the following

I. capping a. Polyadenylate
II. tailing b. Methyl guanosine triphosphate
III. hnRNA. c. Dominance of RNA world in the ancient days
IV. Splicing d. Presence of introns and exons
(1) I a II b III c IV d (2) I b II a III c IV d
(3) I a II b III d IV c (4) I b II a III d IV c

106 DHU arm of the t-RNA

(1) binds to amino acyl t-RNA synthetase enzyme
(2) binds with ribosome
(3) binds with amino acid
(4) both 1 and 2

107. Select the correct statement(s)-

I. The pitch of the DNA helix is 3.4 nm
II. Cytosine forms two hydrogen bonds with guanine
III. In our commonly found DNA the angle between the two base pairs is 360.
(1) I and II (2) II and III (3) I and III (4) I, II and III

108. A typical nucleosome contains. . . . . . nucleotides of DNA

(1) 100 (2) 200 (3) 300 (4) 400

109. Choose the correct statement about the experiment on Transforming Principle
(1) S strain is converted into R strain of bacteria Salmonella typhi
(2) R strain is converted into S strain of bacteria Salmonella typhi
(3) S strain is converted to R strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae
(4) R strain is converted to S strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae

110. Mendel found that the reciprocal crosses yielded identical results. From that, he concluded that
(1) There is independent assortment of trait
(2) Sex plays a role in deciding the dominance of a trait
(3) There is no dominance of any trait
(4) Sex has no influence on the dominance of traits

111. In incomplete dominance, the ratio which does not deviate from the Mendelian monohybrid cross is
(1) Genotypic ratio (2) Phenotypic ratio
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Either (1) or (2)

112. AUG stands for

(1)Alanine (2)Methionine
(3)N-formyl methionine (4)Glycine

113. In a transcription unit, the promoter is located towards

(1)5’end of the structural gene
(2)3’end of the structural gene
(3)5’end of the template strand
(4)3’end of the coding strand

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114. Human Genome Project led to the development of
(1)Biotechnology (2)Bioinformatics
(3)Biosystematics (4)Bioengineering

115. In eukaryotes, RNA II facilitates transcription of

(1)rRNA (2)mRNA
(3)hnRNA (4)tRNA

116. The process of RNA splicing shows the dominance of

(1)RNA world (2)DNA world
(3)Microbial world (4)Protein world

117. The gene sequence that codes for proteins are

(1)Exons (2)Introns
(3)Intervening sequences (4)Control regions

118. The primary control of gene expression takes place at the level of
(1)Translation (2)Replication
(3)Transcription (4)None

119. Spliceosomes are absent in the cells of

(1)Plants (2)Animals
(3)Bacteria (4)Fungi

120. The amino acid coded by 3 codons is

(1)Proline (2)Isoleucine
(3)Tryptophan (4)Serine

121. Which enzyme is not produced during lactose catabolism by E.coli?

(1)𝜷-galactosidase (2)Lactose Permease
(3)Thiogalactoside transacetylase (4)Lactose dehydrogenase

122. The anticodon of initiation codon for protein synthesis is

(1)UUU (2)AUG
(3)UAC (4)CAU

123. The energy source for the elongation process is

(1)Creatine-PO4 (2)GTP
(3)ATP (4)All of the above

124. Which step does not occur in translation?

(1)Replication (2)Termination
(3)Elongation (4)Initiation

125. In lac-operon, which protein is not regulated by the repressor?

(1)Galactosidase (2)Lactose Permease
(3)Tryptophan (4)Transacetylase

126. The proofreading enzyme in DNA replication is

(1)Primase (2)DNA Polymerase I

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(3)Ligase (4)DNA Polymerase II

127. Non-sense codons participate in

(1)Releasing t-RNA from polynucleotide chain
(2)Formation of unspecified amino acids
(3)Terminating message of gene-controlled protein synthesis
(4)Conversion of sense DNA into non-sense DNA

128. The enzyme involved in transcription

(1)DNA Polymerase I (2)DNA Polymerase III
(3)RNA Polymerase (4)DNA Polymerase II

129. The primer in DNA replication is

(1)Small ribonucleotide polymer
(2)Helix destabilizing protein
(3)Small deoxyribonucleotide polymer
(4)Enzyme joining nucleotides of new strands

130. Cystic fibrosis is

(1)Sex-linked recessive disorder (2)Autosomal dominant disorder
(3)Autosomal recessive disorder (4)Sex-linked dominant disorder

131. How many phenotypes can occur in the human blood group ABO with alleles IA IB i?
(1)2 (2)3
(3)4 (3)1

132. By which of the following methods, a pattern of inheritance can be traced in a family?
(1) Pedigree analysis (2) Chromosomal analysis
(3) Nuclear analysis (4) Cytoplasm analysis

133. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to aneuploidy?

(1) Arises due to the non-disjunction of homologous pair of chromosomes
(2) Arises due to the non-disjunction of non-homologous chromosomes
(3) One gamete comes to have an extra chromosome
(4) Another gamete becomes deficient in one chromosome

134. The two nuclei at the end of the pollen tube are called
(1)Tube nucleus and a generative nucleus (2)Sperm and ovum
(3)Generative nucleus and stigma (4)Tube nucleus and sperm

135. A dioecious flowering plant prevents

(1)Geitonogamy and xenogamy (2)Autogamy and xenogamy
(3)Autogamy and geitonogamy (4)Cleistogamy and xenogamy

ZOOLOGY

136. Which of the statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?
(1) Mutations inhibit production of telomerase
(2) Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle

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(3) Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor
(4) Mutations inactive the cell control

137. Which is not example of secondary lymphoid organ?

(1) Appendix (2) Thymus gland
(3) Tonsils (4) Peyer’s patches of small intestine

138. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS?
(1) When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells
(2) When HIV damages large number of helper T-lymphocytes
(3) When viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase
(4) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person

139. The gases used in the spark-discharge apparatus were

(1) H2, CH4 and NH3 (2) CO, NH3 and CH4
(3) O2, CO2 and NH3 (4) NH3, CH4 and O2

140. Which of the following is the method for dating recent fossils?
(1) Radioactive carbon method (2) Potassium-Argon method
(3) Lead-Argon method (4) Uranium-Lead method

141. Infective stage of Plasmodium for human beings is

(1) Merozoites (2) Ookinetes (3) Sporocyst (4) Sporozoites

142. The common cold is caused by

(1) Rhino viruses(2) Streptococcus pneumonia (3) Salmonella typhi (4) Plasmodium vivax

143. The antibody which can cross placental barrier is

(1) IgA (2) IgE (3) IgM (4) IgG

144. After entering T-cell, HIV first forms

(1) m RNA (2) ss DNA (3) ds DNA (4) ds RNA

145. Damage due to thymus in a child would lead to

(1) Loss of cell mediated immunity (2) Loss of antibody mediated immunity
(3) A reduction is stem cell production (4) Reduction in haemoglobin content of blood

146. AIDS was first reported in U.S.A. in

(1) 1981 (2) 1971 (3) 1984 (4) 1986

147. The diagrammatic representation of operation of natural selection on different traits is shown. Identify
A, B and C.

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A B C
(1) Disruption Stabilization Directional
change
(2) Directional Stabilization Disruption
change
(3) Stabilization Directional Disruption
change
(4) Disruption Directional Stabilization
change

148. Mucus, tears, saliva contains--------------enzyme that act as bactericidal

(1) Lysozymes (2) Hyaluronidase (3) Acrosin (4) Ribozyme

149. 1st line of defense includes _____________.

(1) Physical barrier (2) physiological barrier (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) cytokine barrier

150. Opioid bind to specific receptors present in the

(1) Gastrointestinal tract and CNS (B) CNS only (3) Bone only (4) None of these

151. Which one depresses brain activity?

(1) Sedatives and tranquillizers (2) Opiate narcotics (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Hallucinogens

152. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake of:

(1) Tobacco (chewing) (2) Cocaine (3) Opium (4) Alcohol

153. Alcohol effect mental and motor functions because

(1) It causes degeneration of contractile fibres of muscles
(2) It crosses blood-brain barrier
(3) It is quickly absorbed in gut
(4) It raises blood pressure

154. Observe the following statements and identify the correct one
(1) Penis is the male external genitalia and useful for insemination
(2) Each testis has about 250 compartments called seminiferous tubules
(3) The nutritive cells found in the seminiferous tubules are sertoli cells

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A B C
(1) T F T
(2) F T F
(3) T T F
(4) T T T

155. The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is

(1) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from Sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous
tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from
Sertoli cell into the cavity of seminiferous tubules

156. (p + q ) 2 = p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 , represents an equation which can be best applied in

(1) Population genetics (2) Mendelian genetics
(3) Biometrics (4) Molecular genetics

157. Which is hallucinogenic drug?

(1) Morphine (2) Lysergic acid diethylamide (3) Opium (4) Caffeine

158. Sympatric speciation is caused by

(1) Genetic isolation (2) Interbreeding (3) Geographical isolation (4) Reproductive isolation

159. A living connecting link which provides evidences from organic evolution
(1) Archaeopteryx between reptiles and mammals
(2) Lung fish between Pisces and reptiles
(3) Duckbill platypus between reptiles and mammals
(4) Sphenodon between reptiles and birds

160. Who did an experiment to prove that “The organic compounds were the basic of life?”
(1) Darwin (2) Stanley Miller and Urey (3) Louis Pasteur (4) Fox

161. The test-tube Baby Programme employs which one of the following techniques?
(1) Intra uterine insemination (IUI) (2) GIFT
(3) Z IFT (4) Artificial Insemination (AI)

162. Which one of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India, at present?
(1)IUDs’ (2) Cervical caps (3) Tubectomy (4) Diaphragms

163. The drug that functions as depressant of CNS is

(1) Amphetamines (2) Caffeine (3) Opium (4) Cocaine

164. Which is involved in allergic reaction?

(1) IgA and mast cells (2) IgG and basophils (3) IgE and mast cells (4) IgG and mast cells

165. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Benign tumors show the property of metastasis (2) Heroin accelerates body functions
(3) Malignant tumor exhibits metastasis (4) Patients who have undergone surgery are given
cannabinoids

166. The complexes formed during immune complex mediated hypersensitivity are removed by:

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(1) Eosinophils and T-cells (2) Monocytes and B-cells
(3) Eosinophils and monocytes (4) Eosinophils and basophils

167. Drug called 'Heroin' is synthesized by

(A) Methylation of morphine (B) Acetylation of morphine
(C) Glycosylation of morphine (D) nitration of morphine

168. Match the column:

Column-I Column-II

a. Glioma 1. Cancer of pigment cells of skin

b. Lymphoma 2. Cancer of glands
c. Melanoma 3. Cancer of lymphatic tissue
d. Adenoma 4. Cancer of glial cells of central nervous
system
(A) a − 4, b − 3, c − 1, d − 2 (B) a − 1, b − 2, c − 3, d − 4
(C) a − 1, b − 4, c − 3, d − 2 (D) a − 2, b − 1, c − 4, d − 3

169. Which is not an autoimmune disease?

(1) Graves' disease (2) Pernicious anaemia (3) Rheumatoid arthritis (4) Insomnia

170. AIDS virus has

(1) Single stranded DNA (2) Double stranded RNA (3) Double stranded DNA (4) Single stranded RNA

171. Choose the correct option for the chemical structure shown:

(1) It is a depressant and shows down body function (2) It is obtained from Atropa belladona
(3) It is obtained from Cannabis sativa (4) It has hallucinating properties

172. Identify the wrong statements?

(a) The tumor of hematopoietic cells is called leukemia
(b) Cancer arising from the epithelial tissues of internal organs and glands is referred as melanoma
(c) Sarcoma is a type of cancer where bone and cartilages are involved
(d) Only benign tumors are called as true cancer or neoplasm
(1) a and b (2) b and d (3) b and c (4) a and c only

173. Sum total of genes in a population is

(1) Genotype (2) Karyotype (3) Genetic constitution (4) Gene pool

174. What tissues, organs, or body systems can be affected by autoimmune diseases?
(1) Skin (2) Joints (3) Thyroid (4) All of the these

175. Assertion: Vaccine against AIDS has not been made inspite of repeated attempts.

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Reason: HIV has the ability to get mutated to form several subtypes.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both the statements are false

176. Which is not an opiate?

(1) Morphine (2) Amphetamine (3) Pethidine (4) Heroin

177. The idea of mutation was brought forth by

(1) Hugo de Vries, who worked on evening primrose
(2) Gregor Mendel, who worked in Pisum sativum
(3) Hardy Weinberg, who worked on allele frequencies in a population
(4) Charles Darwin, who observed a wide variety of organisms during sea voyage

178. Cocaine is a crystalline alkaloid extracted from the leaves of ……………. plant
(1) Cinchona (2) Cannabis sativa (3) Erytroxylum coca (4) Cactus

179. Damage due to thymus in a child would lead to

(1) Loss of cell mediated immunity
(2) Loss of antibody mediated immunity
(3) A reduction is stem cell production
(4) Reduction in haemoglobin content of blood

180. Which of the genes when activated in a normal human body can causes cancer?
(1) Cellular-oncogene (2) c-oncogene (3) Proto-oncogene (4) All of these

Paper Setter Surat Branch

PHYSICS MR. MANISH SHARMA | 9602481581
CHEMISTRY MR. MUKESH CHOUDHARY | 9826674309
BOTANY MS. KHUSHBOO SHAH | 7698375971
ZOOLOGY DR. VANDANA SAXENA | 9978784444

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