CODE NEET

SEC: XII-PASS-NEET CPT – 21 DATE : 04-04-2022

TIME : 3 Hours MAX. MARKS : 720
XII-PASS-NEET
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
Important Instructions:
1. There are four sections in this paper consisting Physics, Chemistry, Botany & Zoology.
2. For each correct answer 4 marks awarded and for each incorrect answer one mark will be deducted.
3. Student can attempt 180 questions out of 200 questions as internal choices will be given in Section-B.
(i.e., out 15 questions they can attempt any 10 questions) of each subject.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking.
5. Use of Calculator is not allowed.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7. Use of white fluid or any other material which damage the answer sheet, isn’t permissible on the answer sheet.

USEFUL CONSTANT

Boltzmann constant (k) = 1.38 × 10-23 J K-1 Avogadro’s number (NA) = 6.02 × 1023 mol-1
Planck’s constant (h) = 6.63 × 10-34 J s Speed of light in vacuum (c) = 3 × 108m s-1
Rest mass of electron (me) = 9.1 × 10-31kg 1 unified atomic mass unit (u) = 1.66 × 10-27kg
1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J 1 nm = 10-9m
Charge of Electron (e) = 1.6 × 10-19 C Gas constant (R) = 8.31 J mol-1K-1

TOPIC
CPT TEST SYLLABUS (XII-PASS-NEET) CPT– 21 EXAM DATE : 04.04.2022)

WEIGHT-
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BOTANY ZOOLOGY
AGE
Magnetic effects of
ART, STD in fertility, Biodiversity
current : (Biot Savarts), ALKANE, ALKENE ( Biomolecules,
and Conservation : Biodiversity
Magnetic effects of preparation), ALKENE Minerals,
50% types, Patterns, Loss of
current : Amperes (including basic idea of Carbohydrate,
biodiversity, Biodiversity
Circuital Law, Magnetic elimination) Amino Acids
conservation
effects of current : Force
Alkene Reactions: (Addition
Microbes in Human Welfare
Magnetic effects of of HX, acidic hydration,
Introduction, Microbes in
current : Force , hydroboration oxidation,
household products, Industrial
Magnetic effects of Oxymercuration Protiens, Fats,
products, Microbes in Human
50% current : Moment, demercuration, Alkene Lipids, Nucleus
Welfare, Microbes in sewage
Torque, Magnetism (Bar Reactions: Addition of Br2, Acids, Enzymes
treatment, Biogas production,
magnets, magnetic oxidation, ozonolysis and
Biocontrol agents, Biofertilizers,
materials) - other reactions, ALKYNE,
Origin of life
BENZENE AND EAS
CPT – 21 XII-PASS-NEET EX. DT. : 04.04.2022

PART – A : PHYSICS
SECTION : A
This section contains 35 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
1. In an experiment, electrons are accelerated, from rest by applying a voltage of 500 V. Calculate the
radius of the path, if a magnetic field 100 mT is then applied
(Take : charge of the electron = 1.6 × 10–19 C and mass of the electron = 9.1 × 10–31 kg)
(A) 7.5 × 10–2 m (B) 7.5 × 10–4 m (C) 7.5 × 10–3 m (D) 7.5 m
2. An electron, a proton and an alpha particle having the same kinetic energy are moving in circular
orbits of radii re, rp, rα respectively, in a uniform magnetic field B. The relation between re, rp, rα is
(A) re < rα < rp (B) rα > re = rp (C) re < rp = rα (D) re < rp < rα
3. Two particles X and Y having equal charges, after being accelerated through the same potential
difference, enter a region of uniform magnetic field and described circular paths of radii R1 and R2
respectively. The ratio of the mass of X to that of Y is
1/ 2 2
R  R  R  R 
(A)  1  (B)  2  (C)  1  (D)  1 
 R2   R1   R2   R2 
4. The magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre of an equilateral triangular loop of side 1 m which
is carrying a current of 10 A is [Take - µ0 = 4π × 10–7 NA–2]
(A) 9 µT (B) 1 µT (C) 3 µT (D) 18 µT
0
5. Two very long, straight and insulated wires are kept at 90 angle from each other in xy-plane as
shown in the figure.

The wires carry current of equal magnitude I, whose directions are shown in the figure. The net
magnetic field at point P will be
+ µ0 I µI µI
(A) zero (B) ( zˆ) (C) − 0 ( xˆ + yˆ ) (D) 0 ( xˆ + yˆ )
πd 2π d 2π d
6. A current loop, having two circular arcs joined by two radial lines as shown in the figure. It carries a
current of 10 A. The magnetic field at point O will be close to

(A) 1.0 × 10–5 T (B) 1.0 × 10–7 T (C) 1.5 × 10–7 T (D) 1.5 × 10–5 T

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7. Two identical wires A and B, each of length L, carry the same current I. Wire A is bent into a circle
of radius R and Wire B is bent to form a square of a side a. If BA and BB are the values of magnetic
B
field at the centres of the circle and square respectively, then the ratio A is
BB
π2 π2 π2 π2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8 16 2 16 8 2
8. Some current i = 2A is flowing in a wire frame as shown in figure. The frame is a combination of
two equilateral triangles ACD and CDE of side 1 m. It is placed in uniform magnetic field B = 4T
acting perpendicular to the plane of frame. The magnetic force acting on the frame is

(A) 24 N (B) Zero (C) 16 N (D) 8 N

9. A conducting loop carrying a current I is placed in a uniform magnetic field pointing into the plane
of the paper as shown. The loop will have a tendency to

(A) contract (B) expand

(C) move towards +ve x-axis (D) move towards –ve x-axis
10. Two thin long parallel wires separated by a distance b are carrying a current i ampere each. The
magnitude of the force per unit length exerted by one wire on the other is
µ i2 µ i2 µi µi
(A) 02 (B) 0 (C) 0 (D) 0 2
b 2π b 2π b 2πb
11. A square loop is carrying a steady current I and the magnitude of is magnetic dipole moment is m. If
this square loop is changed to a circular loop and it carries the same current, the magnitude of the
magnetic dipole moment of circular loop (in A-m) will be
4m 3m 2m m
(A) (B) (C) (D)
π π π π
12. A particle of charge q and mass m moves in a circular orbit of radius r with angular speed ω. The
ratio of the magnitude of its magnetic moment to that of its angular momentum depends on
(A) ω and q (B) ω, q and m (C) q and m (D) ω and m
13. A conducting circular loop of radius r carries a constant current i is placed in x-y plane in a uniform
magnetic field B0 k̂ such that force acting on the loop is
(A) irB0 (B) 2π irB0 (C) zero (D) π irB0
r r
14. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M , is placed in a magnetic field of induction B . The torque
exerted on it is
r r r r r r r r
(A) M × B (B) − B ⋅ M (C) M ⋅ B (D) B × M
15. Magnetic induction at the centre of a circular loop carrying a current is ‘B’. If ‘A’ is the area of the
loop, the magnetic dipole moment of the loop is

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BA 2 BA A BA A 2 BA A
(A) (B) (C) (D)
µ0 π µ0 µ0 π µ0 π
16. A long thin hollow metallic cylinder of radius R has a current i ampere. The magnetic induction B
away from the axis at a distance r from the axis varies as shown in

17. A uniform magnetic field of 1.5 T exists in a cylindrical region of radius 10.0 cm, its direction
parallel to the axis along east to west. A wire carrying current of 7.0 A in the north to south direction
passes through this region. What is the magnitude and direction of the force on the wire if,
(a) The wire intersects the axis
(b) The wire turned from N-S to North – East. North – West direction.
(c) The wire in the N – S direction is lowered from the axis by a distance of 6.0 cm?
(A) 2.1 N ↓, 2.1 N ↓, 1.68 N ↓ (B) 1.68 N ↓, 2.1 N ↓, 2.1 N ↓
(C) 2.1 N ↓, 1.68 N ↓, 2.1 N ↑ (D) 2.1 N ↑, 1.68 N ↓, 2.1 N ↑
18. Two long straight horizontal parallel wires one above the other are separated by a distance ‘2a’. If
the wires carry equal currents in opposite directions, the magnitude of the magnetic induction, in the
plane of the wires at a distance ‘a’ above the upper wire is
µi µi µi µi µi µi
(A) 0 (B) 0 + 0 (C) 0 − 0 (D) 0
2π a 2π a 4π a 2π a 4π a 3π a
19. Currents of 10 A, 2 A are passed through two parallel wires A and B respectively in opposite
directions. If the wire A is infinitely long and the length of the wire B is 2 metre, the force on the
conductor B, which is situated at 10 cm distance from A will be
(A) 8 × 10–5 newton (B) 5 × 10–5 newton (C) 8π × 10–7 newton (D) 4π × 10–7 newton
20. In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the masses of ions, the ions are initially accelerated by an
electric potential V and then made to describe semicircular paths of radius r using a magnetic field B.
If V and B are kept constant the ratio (charge on the ion / mass of the ion) will be proportional to
1 1
(A) r (B) (C) 2 (D) r2
r r
21. A particle rof mass m, charge Q and kinetic energy T enters a transverse uniform magnetic field of
induction B . After 3 seconds the kinetic energy of the particle will be
(A) 4 T (B) 3 T (C) 2 T (D) T
22. A closed loop PQRS carrying a current is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic forces
r r r
on segments PS, SR and RQ are F1 , F2 and F3 respectively and are in the plane of the paper and
along the direction shown, the magnitude of force on the QP is

(A) F3 – F1 + F2 (B) F3 – F1 – F2 (C) ( F3 − F1 ) 2 + F22 (D) ( F3 − F1 ) 2 − F22

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23. The magnetic force acting on a charged particle of charge –2 µC in a magnetic field of 2 T acting in
y-direction, when the particle velocity is (2iˆ + 3 ˆj ) × 10 6 ms −1 , is
(A) 8 N in –z-direction (B) 4 N in z-direction (C) 8 N in y-direction (D) 8 N in z-direction
24. Two identical long conducting wires AOB and COD are placed at right angle to each other, with one
above other such that ‘O’ is their common point for the two. The wires carry I1 and I2 currents,
respectively. Point ‘P’ is lying at distance ‘d’ from ‘O’ along a direction perpendicular to the plane
containing the wires. The magnetic field at the point ‘P’ will be
µ 0 2 2 12 µ0 µ0 µ0 2 2
(A)
2π d
(I1 + I 2 ) (B)
2π d
( I1 / I 2 ) (C)
2π d
( I1 + I 2 ) (D)
2π d
(I1 − I 2 )
25. A wire carrying current I has the shape as shown in adjoining figure. Linear parts of the wire are very
long and parallel to X-axis while semicircular portion of radius R is lying in Y-Z plane. Magnetic
field at point O is

r µ I r µ I
(A) B = − 0 (π iˆ + 2kˆ) (B) B = 0 (π iˆ − 2kˆ)
4π R 4π R
r µ0 I r µ I
(C) B = (π iˆ + 2kˆ) (D) B = − 0 (π iˆ − 2kˆ)
4π R 4π R
26. A square loop of ABCD carrying current i, is placed near and coplanar with a long straight conductor
X-Y carrying a current I, the net force on the loop will be

2µ 0 Ii µ Ii µ IiL µ IiL
(A) (B) 0 (C) 0 (D) 0
3π 2π 3π 2π
27. A square current carrying loop is suspended in a uniform magnetic field acting in the plane of the
r
loop. If the force on one arm of the loop is F , the net force on the remaining three arms of the loop
is
r r r r
(A) − F (B) − 3F (C) 3F (D) F
28. An arrangement of three parallel straight wires placed perpendicular to plane of paper carrying same
current ‘I’ along the same direction is shown in figure. Magnitude of force per unit length on the
middle wire ‘B’ is given by

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µ0 I 2 2µ 0 I 2 2µ 0 I 2 µ0 I 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2π d πd πd 2π d
29. Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular
deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the galvanometer is
(A) 40 Ω (B) 25 Ω (C) 250 Ω (D) 500 Ω
30. Ionised hydrogen atom and α-particles with same momenta enters perpendicular to a constant
magnitude field B. The ratio of their radii of their paths rH : rα will be
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 1 : 4 (D) 2 : 1
31. If a charge particle enters perpendicularly in the uniform magnetic field, then
(A) Energy and momentum both remain constant
(B) Energy remains constant but, momentum changes
(C) Both energy and momentum changes
(D) Energy changes but, momentum remains constant
32. A magnetized wire of magnetic moment M and length l is bent in the form of a semi-circle of radius
r. Now, the new magnetic moment is
2M M π
(A) M (B) (C) (D)
π π M
33. A particle with charge Q, moving with a momentum p, enters a uniform magnetic field normally.
p
The magnetic field has magnitude B and is confined to a region of width d, where d < . The
BQ
particle is deflected by an angle θ in crossing the field
× × ×
× × ×
p × B
× ×
Q
× × ×
d

BQd p Bp pd
(A) sin θ = (B) sin θ = (C) sin θ = (D) sin θ =
p BQd Qd BQ
34. Two identical bar magnets each of dipole moment pm and length l are perpendicular to each other as
shown in the figure. The dipole moment of the combination is:

pm pm
(A) 2 pm (B) 2 pm (C) (D)
2 2

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35. The dots in figure show magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the paper and coming out of it.
The curve ABC shows the trajectory of a particle in the plane of the paper. What is the particle?

(A) Proton (B) Electron (C) Neutron (D) It cannot be predicted

SECTION : B
This section contains 15 questions. Each question has 4 options (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE option can be correct. [Answer any TEN (10) MCQ Questions]
36. Which of the following graphs shows the variations of magnetic field B, with distance from a long
current carrying conductor?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

37. A particle of mass m and charge q is released from the origin in a region occupied by electric field E
and magnetic field B, B = − B0 iˆ ; E = E0 iˆ . When particle is at x = 1 m, the speed of the particle is
2qE0 qE0 qE0
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
m m 2m
38. When a ferromagnetic material is heated to temperature above its curie temperature, the material
(A) Is permanently magnetized (B) Remains ferromagnetic
(C) Behaves like a diamagnetic material (D) Behaves like a paramagnetic material
39. When a magnetic substance is heated, then it
(A) Becomes a strong magnet (B) Losses it magnetism
(C) Does not effect the magnetism (D) Either (A) and (C)
40. Magnetic permeability is maximum for
(A) Diamagnetic substance (B) Paramagnetic substance
(C) Ferromagnetic substance (D) All of these
41. For substances hysteresis (B - H) curves are given as shown in figure. For making temporary magnet
which of the following is best?

42. In case of a paramagnetic material, the dependence of magnetic susceptibility (χ m ) on the absolute
temperature (T) is given by
1
(A) χ m ∝ T (B) χ m ∝ T 2 (C) χ m = constant (D) χ m ∝
T
43. Ferromagnetic materials used in transformer must have
(A) low permeability and high hysteresis loss
(B) high permeability and low hysteresis loss

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(C) high permeability and high hysteresis loss

(D) low permeability and low hysteresis loss
44. The magnetic needle lying parallel to a magnetic field requires W units of work to turn it through
60°. The torque required to keep the needle in this position will be
W W
(A) 2W (B) 3W (C) (D)
2 3
45. A bar magnet of magnetic moment m is divided into two equal parts by cutting it parallel to its
length. Then the magnetic moment of the pieces will be
(A) m (B) m/2 (C) 2m (D) m/4
46. A 250-turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 µA and
subjected to magnetic field of strength 0.85 T. Work done for rotating the coil by 180° against the
torque is
(A) 4.55 µJ (B) 2.3 µJ (C) 1.15 µJ (D) 9.4 µJ
47. A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field in four different orientations, I, II, III
and IV arrange them in the decreasing order of potential energy.

(A) I < II < IV < III (B) I > IV > II > III (C) IV > III > I > II (D) II > I > IV > III
48. A galvanometer having a resistance of 8 Ω is shunted by a wire of 2 Ω . If the total current is 1 A, the
part of it passing through the shunt will be
(A) 0.25 A (B) 0.8 A (C) 1.2 A (D) 1.5 A
49. The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is
(A) zero (B) low (D) high (D) infinite
50. A proton moving with a constant velocity passes through a region of space without any change in its
velocity. If E and B represent the electric and magnetic fields respectively, then this region of space
may not have
(A) E = 0, B = 0 (B) E = 0, B ≠ 0 (C) E ≠ 0, B = 0 (D) E ≠ 0, B ≠ 0

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PART – B : CHEMISTRY
SECTION : A
This section contains 35 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
51. The compound which is not reactive towards electrophilic substitution is
(A) Nitrobenzene (B) Aniline (C) Phenol (D) N-acetyl aniline
52. Propane is obtained from propene by which of the following methods?
(A) Wurtz reaction (B) Dehydrogenation
(C) Frenkland reaction (D) Catalytic hydrogenation
53. The reaction, CH 2 = CH 2 + H 2  Ni
250 − 3000 C
→ CH 3 − CH 3 , is called
(A) Wurtz reaction (B) Kolbe’s reaction
(C) Sabtier and Senderen’s reaction (D) Carbylamine reaction
54. Which of the following is not used to distinguish ethene from ethane?
(A) Iodine in CCl4 (B) Bromine in CCl4
(C) Alkaline KMnO4 (D) Ammonical Cu2Cl2

55.

The product is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

56. In the following reaction, Z is identified as

CH ≡ CH 
→z
CH 3 CHO
(A) Concentrated H2SO4 (B) CH3COCl
(C) 40% H2SO4 + HgSO4 (D) CH3OH
57. Which one is the correct order of acidity?
(A) CH ≡ CH > CH3 – C ≡ CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – CH3
(B) CH ≡ CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – C ≡ CH > CH3 – CH3.
(C) CH3 – CH2 > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – C ≡ CH > CH ≡ CH
(D) CH2 = CH2> CH3 – CH = CH2 > CH3 – C ≡ CH > CH ≡ CH
58. Which of the following molecules represents the order of hybridization sp2, sp2, sp, sp from left to
right atoms?
(A) CH ≡ C – C ≡ CH (B) CH2 = CH – C ≡ CH
(C) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2 (D) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
59. The reaction of C6H5CH = CHCH3 with HBr produces :
(A) C6H5CH2CH2CH2Br (B) CH = CHCH3

(C) C6H5 CHCH2CH3 (D) C6H5CH2 CHCH3

| |
Br Br

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60. For which of the following molecule significant µ ≠ 0?

(A) Only I (B) I and II (C) Only III (D) III and IV
61. Ozonolysis of an organic compound gives formaldehyde as one of the products. This confirms the
presence of
(A) two ehtylenic double bonds (B) a vinyl group
(C) an iso-propyl group (D) an acetylenic triple bond
62. Ozonolysis of an organic compound A produces acetone and propionaldehyde in equimolar mixture.
Identify A from the following compounds.
(A) 2-methyl-1-pentene (B) 1-pentene
(C) 2-pentene (D) 2-methyl-2-pentene
63. The hydrocarbon which can react with sodium in liquid ammonia is
(A) CH3CH2CH2C ≡ CCH2CH2CH3 (B) CH3CH2C ≡ CH
(C) CH3CH = CHCH3 (D) CH3CH2C ≡ CCH2CH3
64. The treatment of CH3MgX with CH3C ≡ C – H produces
(A) CH3 – CH ≡ CH2 (B) CH3C ≡ C – CH3

(C) (D) CH4

65. Presence of a nitro group in a benzene ring
(A) activities the ring towards electrophilic substitution
(B) renders the ring basic
(C) deactivities the ring towards nucleophilic substitution
(D) deactivities the ring towards electrophilic substitution
66. The reaction of toluene with Cl2 in presence of FeCl3 give predominantly
(A) benzoyl chloride (B) benzyl chloride
(C) o- and p-chlorotoluene (D) m-chlorotoluene
67. HBr reacts with CH2 = CH – OCH3 under anhydrous conditions at room temperature to give
(A) CH3CHO and CH3Br (B) BrCH2CHO and CH3OH
(C) BrCH2 – CH2 – OCH3 (D) H3C – CHBr – OCH3
68. Which one of the following has the minimum boiling point?
(A) n-butane (B) 1-butyne (C) 1-butene (D) Isobutene
69. Butene-1 may be converted to butane by reaction with
(A) Zn-HCl (B) Sn-HCl (C) Zn-Hg (D) Pd/H2
70. The reagent(s) for the following conversion,

is / are
(A) alcoholic KOH (B) alcoholic KOH followed by NaNH2
(C) aqueous KOH followed by NaNH2 (D) Zn/CH3OH
71. Cyclohexene is best prepared from cyclohexanol by which of the following?
(A) conc. H3PO4 (B) conc. HCl / ZnCl2
(C) conc. HCl (D) conc. HBr
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72. Which of the following alkene on acid catalysed hydration form 2-methyl propan-2-ol?
(A) ( CH 3 ) 2 CH = CH 2 (B) CH 3 – CH = CH 2
(C) CH 3 – CH = CH – CH 3 (D) CH 3 – CH 2 – CH = CH 2
73. Ethene on reaction with Br2 in H 2 O forms mainly
(A) 1, 2-bromoethane (B) 2-bromoethanol
(C) 1, 2-ethanediol (D) an equimolecular mixture of (A) and (B)
74. Consider the following reaction sequence.

The final product (II) is

(A) epoxycyclohexane (B) 2-chlorocyclohexanol
(C) (±) cis-1, 2-cyclohexanediol (D) (±) trans-1, 2-cyclohexanediol

75. The reaction of CH3CH CH OH with HBr gives

CH 3BrCHCH 2 OH CH3CH2CHBr OH
(A) (B)

CH3CHBrCH2 Br CH3CH2CHBr Br
(C) (D)
76. A hydrocarbon C5 H 8 consumes two moles of hydrogen on catalytic hydrogenation. On ozonolysis ,
the hydrocarbon produces 2-oxopropanal and methanal (2 moles). The hydrocarbon is
CH3

(A) (CH3)2C = C = CH2 (B) H2C C CH CH2

CH3

(C) CH 3CH 2 – C ≡ C − CH3 (D)

In the reaction : CH 2 = CHCH = CH 2 + Cl2 (1 mole ) 

0
77. 25 C
→
the major product formed is
(A) ClCH 2 CH = CHCH 2 Cl (B) CH 2 = CHCHClCH 2 Cl
(C) CH 2 = CCl – CCl = CH 2 (D) CH 3 – CH = CH – CHCl2
78. The major product formed in the reaction
CH 2 = CHCH = CH 2 + Cl2 (1 mole ) 
0
200 C
→ is
(A) ClCH 2 CH = CHCH 2 Cl (B) CH 2 = CH – CHClCH 2 Cl
(C) CH 3CH = CHCHCl2 (D) CH 2 = CCl – CCl = CH 2
79. Consider the following reaction sequence.
CH 3C ≡ CH + HBr  Peroxide
→ A HBr
→ B
The products (A) and (B) are, respectively,
(A) CH 3CH = CHBr and CH3 CHBrCH 2 Br

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(B) CH 3CBr = CH 2 and CH 3CBr2 CH 3

(C) CH 3CH = CHBr and CH 3CH 2 CHBr2
(D) CH 3CH = CHBr and CH3 CBr2 CH3
80. Consider the reaction sequence.
PhC ≡ CH  H2
Pd − BaSO4
→ I  1. BH 3
2. H O / OH −
→ II
2 2

The end product (II) is

(A) PhCHOHCH 3 (B) PhCOCH 3
(C) PhCH 2 CHO (D) PhCH 2 CH 2 OH
81. The compound X in the reaction,

(A) (B)

(C) (D)
82. Which of the following is ortho-para directing group?
(A) CF3 (B) CCl3 (C) –CH=CH–COOH (D) –OH
83. A hydrocarbon with formula C8 H18 gives one monochloro derivative. The hydrocarbon is
(A) n-octane (B)2-methylheptane
(C)2, 2, 4-trimethyl pentane (D)2, 2, 3, 3-tetramethyl butane
84. Hydroboration oxidation and acid hydration will not give the same products in case of

(A) (B)
(C) CH 2 = CH 2 (D) CH 3CH = CH — CH 3
85. The major product in the dehydrohalogenation of 2-Bromo-3, 3-dimethyl-butane is
(A)3, 3-dimethyl but-1-ene (B)2, 3-dimethylbut-1-ene
(C)2, 3-dimethyl but-2-ene (D)4-methylpent-2-ene
SECTION : B
This section contains 15 questions. Each question has 4 options (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which ONLY ONE option can be correct. [Answer any TEN (10) MCQ Questions]
+
86. B ←
i) BH3 /THF
ii) H O /OH−
 CH2 
H3O
→A
2 2

A and B are respectively

CH3 CH3

CH2OH, CH2OH ,
(A) (B) OH OH

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CH3 CH3
CH 2OH , , CH 2OH
(C) OH (D) OH

87. The C–H bond distance is longest in

(A) C2 H 2 (B) C2 H 4 (C) C2 H 6 (D) C2 H 2 Br2
88. Which of the following alkanes is not obtained by Wurtz reaction?
(A)Methane (B) Ethane (C)Propane (D) Butane
H3C H

Br2
→ A,
89.
H CH3
Which of the following statement is true?
(A) A is formed by anti addition and is meso (B) A is formed by syn addition and is meso
(C) A is formed by anti addition and is racemic (D) A is formed by syn addition and is racemic

90. →
BD3 / THF
H O / OH−
A, A is
2 2

CH 3
OH D

(A) (B) OH

CH 3
OH
OH
(C) D (D) D

91. C C C C 
Li/NH3 (l)
→ X, X is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

92. How many optically active isomers of monochloride can be obtained from 2-methyl butane?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

93. CH3 – CH – CH = CH2 + HBr → A (predominant), A is

|
CH3
CH3 – CH – CH – CH3 CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH2Br
| | |
(A) CH3 Br (B) CH3

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Br
|
CH3 – C – CH2 – CH3
|
(C) CH3 (D) None is correct

94.
Stability of CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 CH3 – C = C – CH3
(I) | |
CH3 CH3
(II)
CH3 – C = CH2 CH3 – C = CH—CH3
| |
CH3 CH3
(III)
(IV)
In the increasing order is
(A) I < III < IV < II (B) I < II < III < IV
(C) IV < III < II < I (D) II < III < IV = I
95. Which is true about this reaction?
CH3
|
H–C
alkaline KMnO 4
||    → A
H–C
|
CH3
(A) A is meso 2, 3-butan-di-ol formed by syn addition
(B) A is meso 2, 3-butan-di-ol formed by anti addition
(C) A is a racemic mixture of d and l, 2, 3-butan-di-ol formed by anti addition.
(D) A is a racemic mixture of d and l, 2, 3-butan-di-ol formed by syn addition.
96. The treatment of C2 H 5 MgI with water produces
(A) Methane (B) Ethane
(C) Ethanal (D) Ethanol
97. The chlorination of alkane involves
(A) Cl free radicals (B) Cl + species
(C) Cl – species (D) CH 3 free radicals
98. Which of the following compounds yields only one product on monobromination?
(A) Neopentane (B) Toluene
(C) Phenol (D) Aniline
HCO 3 H
99. (1) cis-2-butene  →I
HCO3H
(2) trans-2-butene   → II
I and II on hydrolysis choose correct statement
(A) I will give racemic mixture by anti addition (B) II will give meso compound by syn addition
(C) I will give meso compound by syn addition (D) II will give racemic mixture by syn addition
100. Which one of the following does not dissolve in conc. H 2SO 4 ?
(A) CH 3 – C ≡ C – CH 3 (B) CH 3 – CH 2 – C ≡ CH
(C) CH ≡ CH (D) CH 2 = CH 2

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PART – C : BOTANY
SECTION : A
This section contains 35 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.

101. General formula of monosaccharides is

(A) CnH2nOn (B) (CH2O)n (C) Cn(H2O)n (D) All of these
102. The amino acid Tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of
(A) Melatonin and Serotonin (B) Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine
(C) Estrogen and Progesterone (D) Cortisol and Cortisone
103. Which one out of A-D given below correctly represents the structures formula of basic amino acid?

(A) C (B) D (C) A (D) B

104. Which one is the most abundant protein in the animal world?
(A) Trypsin (B) Haemoglobin (C) Collagen (D) Insulin
105. Enzymes are
(A) are used up in the chemical reaction
(B) biological catalysts
(C) act at any pH
(D) act at any temperature
106. Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterized?
(A) Lecithin–A phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane
(B) Palmitic acid – An unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms
(C) Adenylic acid – Adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule.
(D) Alanine amino acid – Contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule.
107. Which of the following is the simplest amino acid?
(A) Alanine (B) Asparagine (C) Glycine (D) Tyrosine
108. Collagen is
(A) fibrous protein (B) globular protein (C) lipid (D) carbohydrate
109. Conjugate proteins containing carbohydrates as prosthetic group are known as
(A) Chromoproteins (B) Glycoproteins (C) Lipoproteins (D) Nucleoproteins
110. Which is an essential amino acid?
(A) Serine (B) Aspartic acid (C) Glycine (D) Phenylalanine
111. Fructose is also called
(A) an aldose (B) fruit sugar (C) cane sugar (D) corn sugar
112. The enormous diversity of protein molecules is due mainly to the diversity of
(A) amino groups on the amino acids
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(B) R groups on the amino acids

(C) amino acids sequences within the protein molecule
(D) peptide bonds
113. The most abundant lipid in cell membrane is
(A) phospholipid (B) steroid (C) cholesterol (D) waxes
114. Cholesterol is a
(A) simple lipid (B) phospholipid (C) derived lipid (D) glycolipid
115. Amino acids are produced from
(A) Proteins (B) Fatty acids (C) Essential oils (D) α–keto acids
116. A typical fat molecule is made up of
(A) Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecule
(B) One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
(C) One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
(D) Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules.
117. A phosphoglycerate is always made up of:
(A) Only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is
also attached
(B) A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate
group is also attached
(C) A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group which is also attached to a
glycerol molecule.
(D) Only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also
attached
118. Lipids are insoluble in water because lipid molecules are
(A) hydrophilic (B) hydrophobic (C) neutral (D) Zwitter ions
119. Immunoglobulins (antibodies) of the blood plasma are
(A) glycoproteins (B) lipoproteins (C) flavoproteins (D) all of these
120. Which of the following are not polymeric?
(A) Proteins (B)Polysaccharides (C) Lipids (D)Nucleic acids
121. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
(A) Sucrose is disaccharide. (B) Cellulose is a polysaccharide
(C) Uracil is a pyrimidine. (D) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid.
122. Which of the following biomolecules has phosphodiester bonds?
(A) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide (B) Amino acids in a polypeptide
(C) Nucleotide in a nucleic acid (D) Fatty acids in a diglyceride
123. Length of one turn of the helix in a β - form DNA is approximately
(A) 3.4 nm (B) 2 nm (C) 0.34 nm (D) 34 nm
124. Which one of the following is a non – reducing carbohydrate?
(A) Maltose (B) Sucrose (C) Lactose (D) Ribose 5-phosphate
125. Macromolecule chitin is :
(A) Phosphorous containing polysaccharide (B) Sulphur containing polysaccharide
(C) Simple polysaccharide (D) Nitrogen containing polysaccharide
126. Which one of the following is cane sugar?
(A) Sucrose (B) Gluconic acid
(C) β-methyl galactoside (D) Galactose

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127. As the age advances, there is a gradual thinning of hair in human males. This is mainly because of
lowered
(A) blood supply (B) synthesis of proteins
(C) synthesis of glycogen (D) availability of energy
128. Cellulose, the most important constituent of plant cell wall is made of
(A) unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by α-1, 4 -glycosidic bond
(B) branched chain of glucose molecules linked by β-, 4 -glycosidic bond in straight chain and α-1, 6
-glycosidic bond at the site of branching
(C) unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by β-1, 4 -glycosidic bond
(D) Branched chain of glucose molecules linked by α-1, 6 -glycosidic bond at the site of branching
129. Lactose is composed of
(A) Glucose + Glucose (B) Glucose + Fructose
(C) Fructose + Galactose (D) Glucose + Galactose
130. In which one of the following groups, all the three are examples of polysaccharides?
(A) Starch, glycogen, cellulose (B) Sucrose, maltose, glucose
(C) Glucose, fructose, lactose (D) Galactose, starch, sucrose
131. A polysaccharide, which is synthesized and stored in liver cells, is
(A) lactose (B) galactose (C) arabinose (D) glycogen
132. A nucleotide is formed of
(A) Purine, pyrimidine and phosphate (B) Purine, sugar and phosphate
(C) Nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate (D) Pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
133. One of the similarities between DNA and RNA is that both
(A) are polymers of nucleotides (B) are capable of replicating
(C) have similar sugars (D) have similar pyrimidine bases
134. Most abundant organic compound on earth is
(A) Protein (B) Cellulose (C) Lipids (D) Steroids
135. The nitrogenous organic base purine occurring in RNA is
(A) cytosine (B) thymine (C) guanine (D) uracil

SECTION : B
This section contains 15 questions. Each question has 4 options (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE option can be correct. [Answer any TEN (10) MCQ Questions]
136. Two free Ribonucleotide units are interlinked with
(A) peptide bond (B) covalent bond (C) hydrogen bond (D) phosphodiester bond
137. Which one contains four pyrimidine bases?
(A) GATCAATGC (B) GCUAGACAA (C) AAGCGCAAA (D) TGCCTAACG
138. Which is wrong about nucleic acids?
(A) DNA is single standard in some viruses (B) RNA is double standard occasionally
(C) Length of one helix is 45A in B-DNA (D) One turn of Z-DNA has 12 bases
139. Adenine is
(A) Purine (B) Pyrimidine (C) Nucleoside (D) Nucleotide
140. Which is distributed more widely in a cell?
(A) DNA (B) RNA (C) Chloroplasts (D) Sphaerosomes
141. In RNA, thymine is replaced by
(A) Adenine (B) Guanine (C) Cytosine (D) Uracil
142. The basic unit of nucleic acid is
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(A) Pentose sugar (B) Nucleoide (C) Nucleoside (D) Nucleotide

143. A segment of DNA has 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases. The total number of nucleotides present
in this segment is
(A) 120 (B) 240 (C) 60 (D) 480
144. DNA is composed of repeating units of
(A) Ribonucleosides (B) Deoxyribonucleosides
(C) Ribonucleotides (D) Deoxyribonucleotides
145. Which of the following contains ester bonds?
(A) Proteins (B) Polysaccharides (C) Triglycerides (D) all of these
146. Which of the following is a disaccharide
(A) Raffinose (B) Stachyose (C) Maltose (D) Galactose
147. The chemical, we use for the chemical analysis of the biomolecules is
(A) Glacial acetic acid (B) Trichloroacetic acid
(C) Ethanoic acid (D) Tribromoamino acid
148. Lipid is a part of the
(A) acid soluble pool (B) acid insoluble pool
(C) water soluble pool (D) both (A) and (C)
149. The most abundant element in our body is
(A) oxygen (B) carbon (C) nitrogen (D) calcium
150. See the following biomolecule.

The biomolecule is
(A) Adenine (B) Adenosine (C) Adenylic acid (D) Cholesterol

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PART – D : ZOOLOGY
SECTION : A
This section contains 35 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
151. Biofertilizers are organisms that enrich the nutrient quality of the soil. Which of the following can be
used as biofertilizers?
(A) Nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria (B) Nitrogen fixing bacteria
(C) Mycorrhizae (D) All of these
152. Identify the parts labelled A, B and C with reference to biogas plant.

(A) A-Gas, B-Sludge, C-Dung water (B) A-Gas, B-Gas holder, C-Digester
(C) A-Gas holder, B-Sludge, C-Dung water (D) A-Gas holder, B-Digester, C-Dung water
153. What are flocs?
(A) Masses of anaerobic bacteria
(B) Masses of aerobic fungi only
(C) Masses of anaerobic bacteria and fungi
(D) Masses of aerobic bacteria associated with fungal filaments
154. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases do not specifically affect reproductive organs?
(A) Genital warts and Hepatitis-B (B) Syphilis and Genital Herpes
(C) AIDS and Hepatitis-B (D) Chlamydiasis and AIDS
155. Which of the following is most appropriate statement defining infertility?
(A) Couple is unable to produce children even after two years of unprotected sexual co-habitation
(B) It is the inability to produce a viable offspring and is always due to defects/abnormalities in the
female partner
(C) Infertility is due to immature sex organs
(D) Infertility cannot be helped by ART
156. Read the given statements and select the correct option :-
Statement – I : Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female
who cannot produce an ovum, is called as GIFT.
Statement – II : Transfer of early embryos with upto 8 blastomeres into the fallopian tube of the
female is called ZIFT.
(A) Both Statements I and II are correct.
(B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(D) Both Statements I and II are incorrect.

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157. Which of the following STIs are not completely curable?

(A) Chlamydiasis, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis
(B) Chancroid, syphilis, genital warts
(C) AIDS, syphilis, Hepatitis-B
(D) AIDS, genital herpes, Hepatitis-B
158. Steller’s sea cow and Passenger pigeon became extinct due to
(A) Alien species invasion (B) Co-extinction
(C) Habitat loss and fragmentation (D) Over-exploitation
159 What is common to Lantana, Eichhornia and Calrius gariepinus (African catfish)?
(A) All are endangered species of India (B) All are keystone species
(C) All are mammals found in India (D) All are exotic species
160. Amongst the animal groups given below, which one has the highest percentage of endangered
species?
(A) Insects (B) Mammals (C) Amphibians (D) Reptiles
161. The species confined to a particular region and not found elsewhere is termed as
(A) keystone (B) alien (C) endemic (D) rare
162. Amazonian rainforest in South America is home to more than ........ A .......... species of plants and
...........B........... species of fishes.
(A) A – 3000, B – 40000 (B) A – 1500, B – 2500
(C) A – 40000, B – 3000 (D) A – 427, B – 378
163. Total number of Fungal species in the world is more than combined total number of the amphibians,
Reptiles, ...........A........... and .............B........... so A and B are
(A) Fishes, Fungi (B) Fishes, Insects
(C) Fungi & Bryophytes (D) Fishes, Mammals
164. Which of the following is true about species area relationship?
(A) Number of species in a habitat decreases as the area of that habitat increases
(B) With the increase in explored area, number of species in a habitat increases indefinitely
(C) As the area of a habitat increases, number of species in that habitat increases upto a limit
(D) Number of species does not depend on the area of the habitat
165. The species diversity between two ecosystems is
(A) alpha diversity (B) beta diversity (C) global diversity (D) gamma diversity
166. The region of biosphere reserve, which is legally protected and where no human activity is allowed
is known as
(A) core zone (B) transition zone (C) buffer zone (D) restoration zone
167. Which of the following is known as ‘Lungs of the Planet’?
(A) Deodar forest of Shimla (B) Pinus forest of Hamirpur
(C) Tropical rainforest of Amazon (D) Satpura forest
168. The term “The Evil Quartet” is related with
(A) Four major causes of habitat loss
(B) Four major causes of population explosion
(C) Four major causes of air pollution
(D) Four major causes of biodiversity loss
169. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a
(A) Mechanical process (B) Chemical process
(C) Biological process (D) Physical process
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170. The World Summit on sustainable development was held in

(A) Rio de Janeiro (B) Johannesburg (C) Copenhagen (D) Geneva, Switzerland
171. What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters?
(A) Methane and CO2 only (B) Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide and CO2
(C) Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide and O2 (D) Hydrogen Sulphide and CO2
172. In which of the following methods zygote upto 32 blastomeres is transferred into the uterus?
(A) IUT (B) ZIFT (C) GIFT (D) ICSI
173. If male has low sperm count and female is normal then which of the following technique can be
used?
(A) ICSI (B) ZIFT (C) GIFT (D) AI
174. Which of the following Sexually Transmitted Disease (STDs) is not a viral disease?
(A) Genital herpes (B) Syphilis (C) AIDS (D) Hepatitis
175. A childless couple can be assisted to have a child through a technique called GIFT. The full form of
this technique is :
(A) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer (B) Gamete inseminated fallopian tube
(C) Gamete intrafallopian transfer (D) Gamete internal fertilization and transfer
176. Which of the following in sewage treatment removes suspended solids?
(A) Tertiary treatment (B) Secondary treatment
(C) Primary treatment (D) Sludge treatment
177. Which of the following is a terminal method of contraception to prevent any more pregnancies?
(A) Barrier method (B) IUDs
(C) Hormonal method (D) Sterilisation method
178. Which of the following can be used as biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant disease?
(A) Trichoderma (B) Chlorella (C) Anabaena (D) Lactobacillus
179. Which of the following statements about methanogens is not correct?
(A) They can be used to produce biogas
(B) They are found in the rumen of cattle and their excreta
(C) They grow aerobically and breakdown cellulose-rich food
(D) They produce methane gas.
180. Which of these are considered most essential in the origin of life?
(A) Enzymes (B) Nucleic acids (C) Carbohydrates (D) Proteins
181. How has free O2 been released into the earth’s atmosphere when there was no free O2 at the time of
origin of life?
(A) By catabolic activity of animals (B) By photosynthetic activity
(C) By heating of the earth (D) None of the above
182. The idea that life originates from pre-existing life is referred as
(A) Biogenesis theory (B) Special creation theory
(C) Abiogenesis theory (D) Extra terrestrial theory
183. Spontaneous generation theory stated that life originated
(A) from non-living matter (B) from protocells
(C) from pre-existing living forms (D) after catastrophe
184. Which of the following is put into anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment?
(A) Floating debris (B) Effluents of primary treatment
(C) Activated sludge (D) Primary sludge

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185. In his classic experiment on the formation of amino acids, Stanley Miller passed an electric discharge
in a flask containing mixture of
(A) Steam, CH4, H2 and NH3 (B) CH4, CO2, O2 and H2
(C) NH3, O2, H2 and steam (D) CH4, H2, N2 and steam

SECTION : B
This section contains 15 questions. Each question has 4 options (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE option can be correct. [Answer any TEN (10) MCQ Questions]
186. What is common to the techniques?
(i) in-vitro fertilization (ii) cryopreservation and (iii) tissue culture
(A) All are in situ conservation methods
(B) All are ex-situ conservation methods
(C) All require ultra modern equipment and large space
(D) All are methods of conservation of extinct organisms
187. Alexander Von Humboldt described for the first time
(A) Population growth equation (B) Ecological biodiversity
(C) Law of limiting factor (D) Species area relationships
188. The essence of “Rivet Popper Hypothesis” is
(A) The current species extinction rates are estimated to be 100 to 1000 times faster than in the pre-
human times.
(B) Species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles.
(C) Areas rich in endemic species might be sites of active speciation.
(D) Loss of keystone species affects the functioning of ecosystem severely.
189. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. greater biological diversity in tropics
(1) Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years and thus had a long
evolutionary time for species diversification.
(2) Tropical environments have more seasonal variation and are less predictable than temperate.
(3) There is more solar energy available which contributes to higher productivity
(A) (1) and (2) (B) Only (2) (C) (2) & (3) (D) Only (1)
190. Read the following statement having two blanks (A) and (B). A drug named as …….(i) …..
produced by ……(ii)….. has been commercialized as blood cholesterol lowering agents, which acts
by competitively inhibiting the enzyme responsible for synthesis of cholesterol.
(A) (i) Cyclosporin-A, (ii) Trichoderma polysporum
(B) (i) Statins, (ii) Monascus purpureus
(C) (i) Penicillin, (ii) Penicillium notatum
(D) (i) Streptokinase, (ii) Streptococcus
191. ‘Rivet popper hypothesis’ to explain the role of species richness for ecosystem health was given by
(A) Paul Ehrlich (B) Alexander Von Humboldt
(C) Edward Wilson (D) Robert May

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192. In the following pie chart of global vertebrates diversity, what does A, B and C represent
respectively?

(A) Birds, Fishes, Amphibians (B) Mammals, Reptiles, Birds

(C) Fishes, Birds, Amphibians (D) Amphibians, Fishes, Reptiles
193. According to May’s global estimates, only …………… of the total species have been recorded so
far.
(A) 30% (B) 10% (C) 22% (D) 15%
194. Match the following extinct animals with related places?
(1) Dodo (P) Australia
(2) Quagga (Q) Russia
(3) Thylacine (R) Mauritius
(4) Steller’s sea cow (S) Africa
(A) (1–P) (2–Q) (3–S) (4–R) (B) (1–Q) (2–P) (3–R) (4–S)
(C) (1–S) (2–R) (3–P) (4–Q) (D) (1–R) (2–S) (3–P) (4–Q)
195. Which of the following statements is wrong regarding Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)?
(A) In India it is legal upto less than 24th week of pregnancy
(B) MTPs can’t be done with surgery
(C) MTPs are considered to be relatively safe during the first trimester
(D) It needs the assistance of qualified medical practitioners.
196. High value of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) indicates that
(A) Water is pure
(B) Water is highly polluted
(C) Water is less polluted
(D) Consumption of organic matter in the water is higher by the microbes
197. Government of India legalized MPT in
(A) 1970 (B) 1971 (C) 1972 (D) 1973
198. In 1953 S.L. Miller created primitive earth conditions in the laboratory and gave experimental
evidence for origin of first form of life from pre-existing, non-living organic molecules. The
primitive earth conditions created include :
(A) Low temperature, volcanic storms, atmosphere rich in oxygen
(B) Low temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere
(C) High temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere
(D) High temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere containing CH4, NH3 etc.
199. Spontaneous generation theory was dismissed once and for all after experimental demonstration
given by
(A) Aristotle (B) Oparin (C) Miller (D) L. Pasteur

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200. Match List – I with List – II. Choose the correct answer from the option given below :
List – I List – II
(a) Aspergillus niger (i) Acetic acid
(b) Acetobacter aceti (ii) Lactic acid
(c) Clostridium butylicum (iii) Citric acid
(d) Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric acid
(A) (a – ii) (b – iii) (c – i) (d – iv) (B) (a – iv) (b – ii) (c – i) (d – iii)
(C) (a – iii) (b – i) (c – iv) (d – ii) (D) (a – i) (b – iii) (c – ii) (d – iv)

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