CASUAL LEAVE APPLICATION FORM

1. Name of Applicant :
2. Designation :
3. Date of joining in Govt.Service :
4. Place of Posting :
5. Total Leave in Calendar year :
6. Leave Balance :
7. Leave Required :
8. Purpose of Leave :
9. Address during leave availed :
10. Signature with contact :
No of Applicant
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 Mk0 /keZsUnz
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MEDICAL CERTIFICATE

To Whom It May Concern

This is to certify that Ms.Saviya Sangwan D/o Dr. Premlata

Dangi r/o of H.No.250P,Huda sector -1,Narnaul was
examined by me at the District Civil hospital ,Narnaul on
dated 01/01/2021 with the diagnosis of Complex Regional
Pain Syndrome Type-1 in the left leg & foot with following
chief complaints : severe burning & throbbing pain in left leg
& foot ,tenderness & edema in left leg & foot with allodynia &
would need urgent medical attention for barring
complications.

Dated :
 SELF DECLERATION DURING CHILD CARE LEAVE

I Dr. Premlata Dangi working as Additional Senior Medical

Officer posted at District Civil Hospital ,Narnaul is applying for
child care leave from 01/06/2021 to 30/06/2022 .I hereby
declare that during this period I will not be involved in any kind
of govt. or private practice.

Dr.Premlata Dangi,A.S.M.O,
District Civil Hospital ,Narnaul
From
Dr.Premlata Dangi,A.S.M.O,
District Civil Hospital ,Narnaul
To
Medical Superidentant,
District Civil Hospital ,Narnaul

Subject : Regarding Extension of Child care leave .

Respected Madam,
With due I beg to say that I Dr.Premlata Dangi is
working as Additional Senior Medical Officer posted at District
Civil Hospital ,Narnaul that my daughter Saviya sangwan is
suffering from Severe Complex Regional Pain Syndrome Type-
1 .I want to take care & support to my daughter & I have to go
abroad ( United states) for treatment of my daughter .
So, I request you to extend my child care leave
from 01/06/2021 to 30/06/2022 (400 days) .So that I can take
care of my daughter.I will be thankfull to you.
Dated : Dr.Premlata Dangi,A.S.M.O,
District Civil Hospital ,Narnaul

AFFIDAVIT

I , Dr. Premlata Dangi W/o Dr. Dharminder Singh resident of H.No.250-

P ,Sector-1 Huda Narnaul District Mahendergarh do hereby solemnly
affirm and declare as under :-
1. That I am resident of above mentioned said address .
2. That my date of joining is 13/07/2004 and my probation period is
clear .
3. That at present I am posted as Additional Senior Medical Officer at
District Civil Hospital ,Narnaul.
4. That I have two children named as 1 st.Ms Saviya Sangwan her
date of birth is 19/09/2004 & 2 nd.Mr Prerit Sangwan his date of
birth is 17/03/2008 respectively .
5. That therefore now I am need of child care leave for my daughter
Saviya Sangwan to look after.
6. That there is no department inquiry is pending against me.
 Deponent

The above statement is true and correct to the best of my

knowledge and belief and nothing has been concealed therein.

Place: Narnaul
Deponent
Dated :
 Neurologic Relief Center PLLC

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Customer
Dharminder Singh
dsangwan99@gmail.com

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In health,
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BSE Class 9 Geography Book Chapter 1 “India

Size and Location” Multiple Choice Questions
‌with Answers
 
Q1. Which country has one of the ancient civilisations in the world?
A. France

B. India

C. United Kingdom
D. United States of America
 
Q2. The main land of India extends between latitudes ____ and ____.
A. 3°7’N and 10°1’N

B. 6°8’N and 17°1’N

C. 6°4’N and 28°6’N

D. 8°4’N and 37°6’N

 
Q3. What are the longitudes in which India is located?
A. 108°8’E and 139°9’E

B. 108°8’W and 108°8’W

C. 68°7’E and 97°25’E

D. 68°7’W and 97°25’W

 
Q4. What is the latitude which divides the country into two equal parts?
A. Tropic of Cancer, 23°30’N

B. Tropic of Cancer, 18°30’N

C. Tropic of Capricorn, 23°30’N

D. Equator
 
Q5. What is the southernmost point of the Indian Union?
A. Indira Point

B. Thiruvananthapuram

C. Kanyakumari

D. None of these
 
Q6. What is the rank of India according to its size and area?
A. Eleventh

B. Sixth

C. Seventh

D. Nineth
 
Q7. What is the Standard Meridian of India and from where does it pass through?
A. 82°30’W, Uttar Pradesh

B. 91°15’E, Uttarakhand

C. 82°30’E, Uttar Pradesh

D. None of these
 
Q8. What is the duration of the time lag between Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh?
A. 2 hours

B. 2 minutes

C. 1 hour

D. 30 minutes
 
Q9. What separates Sri Lanka and India?
A. Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar

B. Arabian Sea and Indian Ocean

C. Both A and B

D. None of these
 
Q10. How has the opening of the Suez Canal helped India?
A. It is a tourist attraction spot and so, the tourism industry of India has flourished.
B. The distance between India and Europe has been reduced by 7000 km.

C. Both A and B

D. None of these
 
Q11. What is the area of the landmass of India?
A. 3.26 million square km

B. 3.12 million square km

C. 3.15 million square km

D. 3.28 million square km

 
Q12. India’s total area is approximately ____ percent of the total geographical area of the
world.
A. 1.28

B. 2.4

C. 2.8

D. 3
 
Q13. This tsunami is the reason why Indira Point got submerged under the seawater. In
which year did this tsunami come?
A. 2004

B. 2006

C. 2002

D. 2000
 
Q14. What is the approximate length of India’s land boundary?
A. 15,000 km

B. 12,500 km
C. 15,200 km

D. 10,000 km
 
Q15. What is the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of the mainland?
A. 20⁰

B. 10⁰

C. 15⁰

D. 30⁰
 
Q16. What is the total length of the coastline?
A. 5,503.6 km

B. 2,999.98 km

C. 7,516.6 km

D. 5,258.73 km
 
Q17. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through which of the following states?
A. Chhattisgarh

B. Tripura

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Maharashtra
 
Q18. The Tropic of Cancer passes through which north-eastern state?
A. Meghalaya

B. Mizoram

C. Assam
D. Manipur
 
Q19. My friend hails from a country which is India’s neighbouring country and is situated
to  the south of Lakshadweep Island. Which of the following can it most possibly be?
A. Myanmar

B. Sri Lanka

C. Maldives

D. None of the following

 
Q20. Tina’s aunt lives in Sri Lanka. She wants to visit India. Which places will she have to
cross to reach India?
A. Gulf of Mannar

B. Palk Strait

C. Both A and B

D. None of these
 
Q21. What is the location of India in Asia?
A. Between the East and the West Asia

B. Between the North and the South Asia

C. Between the North and the East Asia

D. Between the South and the West Asia

 
Q22. Which part of India protrudes into the Indian Ocean and helps in the establishment of
close contact with West Asia, Africa and Europe from the western coast and with
Southeast and East Asia from the eastern coast?
A. Deccan Plateau

B. Indira Point

C. Himalayas
D. None of these
 
Q23. When did the Suez Canal open?
A. 1889

B. 1869

C. 1868

D. 1859
 
Q24. The Standard Meridian of India passes through which whic particular place?
A. Mirzapur

B. Udaipur

C. Rampur

D. None of the above

 
Q25. India is a ____ward extension of the Asian continent?
A. North

B. East

C. West

D. South
 
Q26. Which of the following is not an advantage of India’s contact with the World?
A. The ideas of holy and religious books like Upanishads and Ramanaya, the stories of
Panchtantra and the decimal system could reach the other countries.

B. It established a system of trade with the rest of the World.

C. Both A and B
D. None of these
 
Q27. With how many countries does India share its land boundary?
A. 5

B. 10

C. 9

D. 8
 
Q28. Which two neighbouring countries are islands?
A. China and Bangladesh

B. Myanmar and Maldives

C. Pakistan and Afghanistan

D. None of these
Q29. How many neighbouring countries are in the north?
A. 2

B. 5

C. 4

D. 6
 
Q30. Which country occupies an important strategic position in South Asia?
A. India

B. Japan

C. Korea

D. Pakistan
 
Answer key for Class 9 Geography Book Chapter 1 “India
size and Location” MCQ
Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question Answer
No.

1 B 11 D 21 A

2 D 12 B 22 A

3 C 13 A 23 B

4 A 14 C 24 A

5 A 15 D 25 D

6 C 16 C 26 D

7 C 17 D 27 C

8 A 18 B 28 D

9 A 19 C 29 C

10 B 20 C 30 A

CBSE Class 9 History Book Chapter 1 “The French

Revolution” Multiple Choice Questions ‌(MCQs‌) with
Answers
P 
Q1. On ………………. the city of Paris was in a state of alarm. The king had commanded
troops to move into the city. 
A. 15 July 1779
B. 14 July 1779
C. 15 July 1789
D. 14 July 1789
 
Q2. Some 7,000 men and women gathered in front of the town hall and decided to form a
…………?
A. Peoples party
B. Peoples’ militia
C. Peoples democracy
D. Peoples presence
 
Q3. Finally, a group of several hundred people marched towards the …………….. part of
the city and stormed the fortress-prison, the Bastille, where they hoped to find hoarded
ammunition?
A. Eastern
B. Northern
C. Western
D. Southern
 
Q4. Why was the fortress-prison, the Bastille, hated by all? 
A. It stood for the despotic power of the king.
B. Because of dictatorship
C. Aristocracy
D. None of these
 
Q5. What was the main protest by the people?
A. Price of bread
B. Behavior of the king
C. Poverty of the people 
D. High taxes
 
Q6. Who said “ the task of representing the people has to be given to the rich”?
A. Mirabeau
B. Jean Paul Marat
C. Rousseau
D. Georges Denton
 
Q7. The National Assembly formed a constitution in 1791, to limit the power of the …….?
A. Wealthy men
B. Businessmen
C. Monarch
D. Press
 
Q8. Who wrote the influential pamphlet- ‘What is the Third Estate"? 
A. Mirabeau
B. Jean Paul Marat
C. Abbe Sieyes
D. Georges Denton
 
Q9. Which group of people did not join the Jacobin Club?
A. Artisans
B. Shopkeepers
C. Daily wage workers
D. Men with property
 
Q10. French women demanded the right to…..?
A. Vote
B. To be elected in the assembly 
C. To hold political office
D. All
 
Q11. A triangular slave trade took place between Europe, the Americas and…..?
A. Asia
B. Australia
C. Africa
D. None
 
Q12. What did the slaves wear after becoming free?
A. Blue cap
B. Red cap
C. White cap
D. Green cap
 
Q13. Who were not considered passive citizens?
A. Women 
B. Children
C. Non property men
D. Wealthy people
 
Q14. The third estate comprised……?
A. Poor and small peasants
B. Land less labour
C. Peasants and artisans
D. All
 
Q15. Which of the following decisions was taken by the convention?
A. It declared France a constitutional Monarchy
B. Abolished the Monarchy
C. All men and women above 21 got the right to vote
D. Declared France a Republic
 
Q16. How does a subsistence crisis happen?
A. Bad harvest leads of scarcity of grains
B. Food prices rise and the poor cannot buy bread
C. Leads to disease and death
D. All
 
Q17. Which of the following statements is false about the Third Estate?
A. It comprised of poor only
B. Some were rich some were poor
C. Rich members owned land
D. Peasant were obliged to serve in the army
 
Q18. What was a guillotine?
A. A device consisted of two poles and a blade to behead people
B. A fine sword to behead people
C. A special noose to hang people
D. None 0f these
 
Q19. What does the word livres stand for?
A. Unit of currency in France
B. Tax levied by the state
C. Tax levied by the Church
D. Tax to the Landlord
 
Q20. What was Estates General?
A. Post of army general
B. A political body
C. Head of all landed property
D. Advisor of the king
 
Q21. The term old regime is used to describe……?
A. France before 1000 BC
B. Society of France after 1789
C. Society of France before 1789
D. None
 
Q22. Which of these books was written by John Locke?
A. The spirit of the laws
B. Two treatises on Government
C. The social contract
D. All
 
Q23. In the meeting of the Estates General, the members of the Third Estate demanded
that………
A. All the estates have one vote together
B. Each estate should have one vote
C. Each member of all three estates should have one vote each
D. None
 
Q24. Who led the representatives of the Third Estate in Versailles on 20th June?
A. Mirabeau
B. Abbe Sieyes
C. Louis XVI 
D. A & B
 
Q25. Which of these provisions were passed by the Assembly on night of 4th August
1789? 
A. Abolition of feudal system
B. Clergy had to give up its privileges
C. Tithes was abolished
D. All
 
Q26. According to the new constitution 1791, the National Assembly was to be …… ?
A. Elected directly
B. Appointed by the king
C. Elected indirectly
D. A hereditary body
 
Q27. Which of the following is true is about Bastille Storming?
A. It was a fortress prison in France
B. It represented despotic powers
C. French common man hated Bastille
D. All
 
Q28. When did the fall of Bastille take place?
A. 14 July 1789
B. 20 June 1789
C. 4 August 1789
D. 5 May 1789
 
Q29. Which estates in France were exempted from paying taxes?
A. The first Estate 
B. The second Estate
C. First and Second estate both
D. The Third estate
 
Q30. What was Tithes?
A. A tax levied by the Church
B. Tax by the state
C. Tax by the Monarch
D. None
 
Answer key for Class 9 History Chapter 1 – The French
Revolution MCQs
Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question No. Answer

1 B 11 C 21 C

2 B 12 B 22 B

3 A 13 D 23 A

4 A 14 D 24 D

5 A 15 D 25 D

6 B 16 D 26 C

7 C 17 A 27 D

8 C 18 A 28 A

9 D 19 A 29 C

10 D 20 B 30 A

CBSE Class 9 Geography Book Chapter 2

“Physical Features of India” Multiple Choice
Questions with Answers
 
Q1. How many physiographic divisions are there in India?
A. 8
B. 9
C. 7
D. 6
 
Q2. Geeta lives in the area of one of the most recent landforms in India. According to
geology, it is the most unstable landform in the country. Which physiographic landform is
she living in?
A. The Himalayan Mountains
B. The Northern Plains
C. The Islands
D. The Coastal Plains
 
Q3. Which physiographic division of India constitutes one of the ancient land masses on
the Earth’s surface?
A. The Deccan Plateau
B. The Indian Desert
C. The Northern Plains
D. The Coastal Plains
 
Q4. Which physical feature of India is made up of alluvial deposits?
A. The Deccan Plateau
B. The Islands
C. The Northern Plains
D. The Coastal Plains
 
Q5. Which physical feature of India is made up of not only igneous rocks but metamorphic
rocks also?
A. The Deccan Plateau
B. The Indian Desert
C. The Northern Plains
D. The Coastal Plains
 
Q6. What does the Himalayan Mountains represent?
A. Youthful topography
B. High peaks and deep valleys
C. Fast flowing rivers
D. All of these
 
Q7. Which one of the following is not a Himalayan range?
A. Himadri
B. Himachal
C. Kullu
D. Shivalik
 
Q8. Which mountain range represents the loftiest and one of the most rugged mountain
ranges in the world?
A. Sulaman range
B. Himalayan range
C. Satpura range
D. Vindhya range
 
Q9. What is the composition of the Himalayan mountains?
A. Highly compressed rocks
B. Highly altered rocks
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
 
Q10. Which range forms the longest and the most important range?
A. Mahabharat range
B. Pir Panjal range
C. Dhaula Dhar
D. None of these
 
Q11. Which range consists of famous valleys of Kashmir, Kangra and Kullu?
A. Himadri
B. Himachal
C. Shiwalik
D. Pir Panjal
 
Q12. Which region is well-known for its hill stations?
A. Himachal Pradesh
B. Jammu
C. Kashmir
D. None of these
 
Q13. This range is the most continuous Himalayan range consisting of the loftiest peaks.
The average height is 6,000 metres. Name this range.
A. Himadri
B. Himachal
C. Shiwalik
D. None of these
 
Q14. What is the Shiwalik range composed of?
A. Alluvial soil
B. Thick gravel
C. Alluminium
D. Unconsolidated sediments
 
Q15. Which one of the following is not a longitudinal valley lying between lesser Himalaya
and the Shiwaliks?
A. Patli Dun
B. Dehra Dun
C. Kanchenjunga
D. All of these
 
Q16. How many latitudinal divisions of the Himalayas are there?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
 
Q17. Kumaon Himalayas are situated between two rivers. What are their names?
A. Teesta and Dihang
B. Kali and Teesta
C. Satluj and Kali
D. Indus and Satluj
 
Q18. Purvachal comprises which hills?
A. Mizo hills
B. Naga hills
C. Manipur hills
D. All of these
 
Q19. The northern plain has been formed by the interplay of which river systems?
A. The Indus
B. The Ganga
C. The Brahmaputra
D. All of these
 
Q20. According to the variations in its relief, the northern plain is divided into how many
parts?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
 
Q21. What does the ‘ab’ in ‘Punjab’ and ‘Doab’ mean?
A. Land
B. Air
C. Water
D. Places
 
Q22. What is the plain made of?
A. Sedimentary rocks
B. Igneous and metamorphic rocks
C. Alluvial soil
D. All of these
 
Q23. What are the broad divisions of the Peninsular plateau?
A. Central Highlands
B. Shiwaliks
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
 
Q24. What marks the eastward extension of the plateau, which is also drained by the
Damodar river?
A. Chotanagpur plateau
B. Malwa plateau
C. Central Highlands
D. Deccan plateau
 
Q25. Which river is the only largest river in the Indian desert?
A. Sind
B. Betwa
C. Luni
D. None of these
 
Q26. Which of the following is not a section of the Coastal Plains?
A. Konkan
B. Coromandel Coast
C. Malabar Coast
D. Terai
 
Q27. In which state can one find the largest saltwater lake of India?
A. Maharashtra
B. Odisha
C. West Bengal
D. Punjab
 
Q28. Where is the Lakshadweep Islands group located?
A. Close to the Malabar coast of Kerala
B. Close to the Coromandel coast
C. Close to the Malabar coast
D. None of these
 
Q29. Which physical feature lies close to the equator and experiences equatoria; climate?
A. The Coastal Plains
B. The Islands
C. The Peninsular plateau
D. The Indian Desert
 
Q30. Which physical feature provides sites for fishing and port activities?
A. The Coastal plains
B. The Islands
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
 
Answer key for Class 9 Geography Book Chapter 2
“Physical Features of India” MCQ
Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question Answer
No.

1 D 11 B 21 C

2 A 12 A 22 C

3 A 13 A 23 A

4 C 14 D 24 A

5 A 15 C 25 C

6 D 16 D 26 D

7 C 17 B 27 B
 8 B 18 D 28 A

9 C 19 D 29 B

10 B 20 B 30 C

“After careful clinical examination,ultrasonography examination and

psychiatric evaluation, the committee has come to the opinion that at
present no abnormality is detected in the fetus or the pregnant minor
mother.Pregnant minor and her parents do not wish to continue the
pregnancy. The minor (16 years old) is anguished with the
pregnancy.Continuation of pregnancy in minor may lead to pregnancy
related complications like anemia, pregnancy induced hypertension as
well as increased operative interference during labour.It is also going to
have psychological impact on pregnant minor with uncertain future.
Termination of pregnancy at 23 weeks will carry risks similar to delivery
at term.Pregnant minor and her parents have expressed their desire to
terminate the pregnancy and are made aware of the dangers of
continuation of pregnancy, as well as termination of pregnancy.Since the
pregnancy has advanced to 23 weeks, well beyond legal limit of
termination of pregnancy i.e. 20 weeks, the termination can only be done
with Honourable High Court‘s permission.Though at 23 weeks of
gestation,termination of pregnancy carries substantial risk to pregnant
minor, continuation of pregnancy will have both physical and mental
stress to minor mother. Hence, it is advisable to terminate the pregnancy
in whichever institute the minor and her parents desire.If the permission
for termination of pregnancy is granted, the honourable High Court is
requested to instruct the parents to bear responsibility of the child and
the required neonatal management if born alive.”

Medical Termination of Pregnancy

(Amendment) Act, 2021
Recently, the Delhi High Court has allowed the medical termination of pregnancy of a
woman who had completed 22 weeks of gestation as the foetus was suffering from
multiple abnormalities.

Background

 As per the Indian Penal Code, 1860 voluntarily terminating a pregnancy was

considered a criminal offence. 
 The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act 1971 in India stipulates a ceiling
of 20 weeks for termination of pregnancy on certain grounds, beyond which abortion
of a foetus is statutorily impermissible.
 The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021 amended the
Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 (MTP Act) and follows the earlier
MTP Bills of 2014, 2017 and 2018, all of which previously lapsed in Parliament.

Issues with the current MTP Act 1971

 Lack of autonomy to women bearing child: At all stages of the pregnancy, the
healthcare providers, rather than the women seeking an abortion, have the final say
on whether the abortion can be carried out.
 Biased against unmarried women: The applicability of this provision to unmarried
women are contested and unclear.
o The ‘grave injury’ clause includes pregnancy occurring due to failure of any
birth control device or method used by any “married woman or her
husband”.
 Foetal abnormalities: Usually, the foetal anomaly scan is done during the 20th-21st
week of pregnancy & some women realise the need for abortion post 20 weeks.
o 20 weeks is limited if there is a lethal anomaly in the foetus.
 Not considering economic choices: The law does not accommodate non-medical
concerns over the economic costs of raising a child, effects on career decisions, or any
other personal considerations.
 Recent reports have shown that more than 10 women die every day due to unsafe
abortions in India, and backward abortion laws only contribute to women seeking
illegal and unsafe options.

Key Provisions of the MTP (Amendment) Act 2021

 Extended length for termination of pregnancy: The Act increases the gestation

period of women seeking abortion up from 20 weeks to 24 weeks. 
 Cases of special categories of women: It allows abortion to be done on the advice of
one doctor up to 20 weeks, and two doctors in the case of certain special categories of
women between 20 and 24 weeks.
o The “special categories of women” include rape survivors, victims of incest,
the differently-abled and minors.
o In case of the gestational period beyond 24 weeks, pregnancy may be
terminated only in cases of substantial foetal abnormalities diagnosed by the
Medical Board or if there is a threat to the life of the mother.
o Opinion of only one provider will be required up to 20 weeks of gestation
and two providers for termination of pregnancy of 20-24 weeks of gestation.
 Failure of Contraceptive: It allows unmarried women also to terminate a pregnancy
in case of failure of the contraceptive method or device.
 o The ground of failure of contraceptives can now be used for abortion up to 20
weeks.
 Setup of Medical Boards: All state and union territory governments will constitute a
Medical Board.  
o The Board will decide if pregnancy may be terminated after 24 weeks due to
substantial foetal abnormalities.  
 Ensuring confidentiality/privacy of Pregnant Women: Name and other particulars
of a woman whose pregnancy has been terminated shall not be disclosed other than
to a person authorised in any law for the time being in force.
 Requirement of doctors: Opinion of only one doctor will be required up to 20 weeks
of gestation and two doctors for termination of pregnancy of 20-24 weeks of
gestation.

Time since conception

Requirement for terminating the pregnancy
  MTP Act, 1971 MTP (Amendment) Act, 2021
Up to 12 weeks Advice of 1 doctor Advice of 1 doctor
12-20 weeks Advice of 2 doctors Advice of 1 doctor
20-24 weeks Not allowed 2 doctors for some categories of
pregnant women
More than 24 Weeks Not allowed Medical Board in case of
substantial foetal abnormality
Any time during the One doctor, if immediately necessary to save a pregnant
pregnancy woman's life.
Significance

 Raising the upper limit: Often 20 weeks were spent in completing the legal
procedures and formalities.
 Reproductive Rights of a Woman: It will provide greater reproductive rights and
dignity to women as abortion is considered an important aspect of the reproductive
health of women.
 Right to Privacy: Further, the rape victims and vulnerable victims will also be
benefitted from Privacy Clause.
 Encourage Safe Abortion: Deaths and injuries from unsafe abortions are largely
preventable provided services are performed legally by trained practitioners.
 Aligned to International Progressive Practices: In the UK abortion can be performed
at any time.
o In South Africa, abortions rules are already similar to India.
 Reduction in Legal Cases: Many cases which were filed in High Courts to seek
permission for abortion beyond 20 weeks will go down.

Shortcomings/Criticisms

 Son-meta-Preferences: The preference for a male child keeps sex determination at an

aggressive pace.
 Ethical Debates: Differing opinions came regarding abortions:
o One opinion is that terminating a pregnancy is the choice of the pregnant
woman and a part of her reproductive rights.
o Another is that the state should protect life and hence should provide for the
protection of the foetus.
  Increase in Gestational limit only in certain cases: It enhances the gestational limit
for legal abortion from 20 to 24 weeks only for specific categories of women.
o A woman who does not fall into these categories would not be able to seek an
abortion beyond 20 weeks.
 No Time frame of Board’s decision: The Act does not provide a time frame within
which the Board must make its decision. 
o Also, the shortage of specialised doctors will further delay the case.
o The Act provides in section 3(2C) for a single board for a State that is, it is
impossible for one board to handle all cases. Even having multiple boards,
human resources and finances are a challenge.
 Unclear if transgender persons will be covered: There may be cases where persons
who identify as transgender (and not women) can become pregnant even after
receiving hormone therapy to transition from female to male, and may require
termination services.
o The Act is silent over this.
 No Personal Choice: The boards are unnecessary and an invasion of privacy of the
pregnant women which pushes the laborious process a woman had to undergo in
order to get an abortion.
 Lack of Awareness of Rights: Many are still not aware of their reproductive rights.

Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Amendment

Act, 2021
Recently, the Delhi High Court has allowed the medical termination of
pregnancy of a woman who had completed 22 weeks of gestation as the foetus
was suffering from multiple abnormalities.
 Gestation is the foetal development period from the time of conception until
birth.
 In India, the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act stipulates a
ceiling of 20 weeks, for termination of pregnancy, beyond which abortion of a
foetus is statutorily impermissible.

Key Points
 About MTP Act:

o The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971 (“MTP Act”) was

passed due to the progress made in the field of medical science with
respect to safer abortions.
o In a historic move to provide universal access reproductive health
services, India amended the MTP Act 1971 to further empower women
by providing comprehensive abortion care to all.
o The new Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act
2021 expands the access to safe and legal abortion services on
therapeutic, eugenic, humanitarian and social grounds to ensure universal
access to comprehensive care.

 Key Provisions of the MTP Amendment Act, 2021:

o Termination due to Failure of Contraceptive Method or Device:

 Under the Act, a pregnancy may be terminated up to 20 weeks by

a married woman in the case of failure of contraceptive method or
 device. It allows unmarried women to also terminate a pregnancy
for this reason.
o Opinion Needed for Termination of Pregnancy:

 Opinion of one Registered Medical Practitioner (RMP) for

termination of pregnancy up to 20 weeks of gestation.
 Opinion of two RMPs for termination of pregnancy of 20-24 weeks of
gestation.
 Opinion of the State-level medical board is essential for a pregnancy
to be terminated after 24 weeks in case of substantial foetal
abnormalities.
o Upper Gestation Limit for Special Categories:

 Increases the upper gestation limit from 20 to 24 weeks for

special categories of women, including survivors of rape, victims of
incest and other vulnerable women (differently abled women,
minors, among others).
o Confidentiality:

 The “name and other particulars of a woman whose pregnancy has

been terminated shall not be revealed”, except to a person authorised
in any law that is currently in force.

o Different opinions on Termination:

 One opinion is that terminating a pregnancy is the choice of the

pregnant woman and a part of her reproductive rights while the other
is that the state has an obligation to protect life, and hence
should provide for the protection of the foetus.
 Across the world, countries set varying conditions and time limits for
allowing abortions, based on foetal health, and risk to the pregnant
woman.
o Not allowed beyond 24-weeks:

 The Act allows abortion after 24 weeks only in cases where

a Medical Board diagnoses substantial foetal abnormalities.
 This implies that for a case requiring abortion due to rape, that
exceeds 24-weeks, the only recourse remains through a Writ
Petition.
o Abortion to be performed by doctors:
 The Act require abortion to be performed only by doctors with
specialisation in gynaecology or obstetrics.